1. Which of the following factors are associated 8.

An example of an auxillary label

with a patient’s non-adherence to the prescribed I. Shake well II. Take with food
therapeutic regimen? III. May cause drowsiness
A. How do often the medication is taken A. I only
B. The cost of the medication B. III only
C. The duration of therapy C. I and II only
D. All of these D. II and III
E. None of these E. I, II and III
2. The part of the prescription that is understood to 9. A sample of dispensing error
mean “thou take” or “you take” I. Providing the incorrect medication
A. Medications prescribed II. Providing the incorrect dosage strength
B. Signatura and dosage form
C. Rx symbol III.Undetected interactions with other
D. Superscription medications
E. Subscription A. I only
3. The part of the prescription that is also known as B. III only
the inscription C. I and II only
A. Medications prescribed D. II and III
B. Signatura E. I, II and III
C. Rx symbol 10. A risk factor for adverse drug reactions
D. Superscription I. Patient age
E. Subscription II. Concurrent medications taken
4. The part of the prescription that refers to the III. Ethnicity and genetics
dispensing directions to the pharmacist A. I only
A. Medications prescribed B. III only
B. Signatura C. I and II only
C. Rx symbol D. II and III
D. Superscription E. I, II and III
E. Subscription 11. Factor contributing to the occurrence of a drug
5. Which of the following is a dispensing direction interaction
for the pharmacist? I. Multiple pharmacological effects
A. Gtt i-ii ou BID II. Multiple prescribers
B. M ft caps dtd #50 III. Use of over the counter products
C. Inh 2 puffs PO q 4 to 6 h prn difficulty A. I only
breathing B. III only
D. Ii tabs PO q 4 h C. I and II only
E. 50 units SC q AM D. II and III
6. The packaging suitable for dispensing bulk E. I, II and III
powders 12. Which of the following statements is TRUE
A. Round vials regarding patient variables affecting drug
B. Wide-mouth bottles response?
C. Dropper bottles I. Taking sedatives and alcoholic beverages
D. Ointment jars together could result to an excessive
E. Collapsible tubes depressive response.
7. Which is TRUE regarding auxillary labells? II. Food may often affect the rate of extent of
I. Emphasizes important aspects of absorption of a drug from the GIT
the dispensed medication III.Renal and hepatic function do not affect
II. Provides cautionary statements from the patient’s response to a medication
the pharmacist regarding the A. I only
dispensed medication B. III only
III. Are available in different colors to C. I and II only
give them prominence once D. II and III
attached to the medication container E. I, II and III
A. I only 13. How could you counsel a patient who is
B. III only prescribed a ketoconazole and an antacid,
C. I and II only knowing that the ketoconazole requires an acidic
D. II and III environment to achieve dissolution after oral
E. I,II and III administration?
 A. Advice the patient that both drugs could II. Consider an alternative to phenobarbital
be taken together. such as benzodiazepines which are not
B. Advice the patient to go back to the likely to interact with warfarin
doctor and have the ketoconazole III.There is no need to make any
replaced with another drug. recommendation to the prescriber
C. Advice the patient to take the antacid A. I only
two hours after taking the ketoconazole. B. III only
D. Advice the patient to go to the doctor C. I and II only
and have both drugs changed. D. II and III
E. Advice the patient to stop taking both E. I, II and III
medications. 19. The following are examples of a drug with a
14. A patient is prescribed ciprofloxacin to treat a narrow therapeutic index, EXCEPT
respiratory tract infection. What would you A. Theophylline
advice the patient? B. Warfarin
I. Do not take with milk and or dairy C. Digoxin
products D. Penicillin
II. Take aluminum or magnesium E. Lithium
containing antacids when stomach 20. An example of a type A adverse drug reaction
upset occurs A. Carcinogenesis
III. The patient may continue taking iron B. Anaphylaxis from penicillins
supplements even while on the C. Tachycardia from salbutamol
medication D. Teratogenesis
A. I only E. None of these
B. III only 21. As a pharmacist, what would you advice your
C. I and II only patient when dispensing ophthalmic solutions:
D. II and III I. Never allow the tip of the dropper to
E. I, II and III touch any surface
15. The mechanism of drug interaction between II. Never rinse the dropper
tetracycline and milk, tetracycline and aluminum III. Never use eyedrops that have
or magnesium-containing antacids changed color
A. Alteration of gastric emptying rate A. I only
B. Complexation B. III only
C. Alteration of pH C. I and II only
D. Alteration of GI absorption D. II and III
E. Alteration of distribution E. I, II and III
16. The mechanism of drug interaction between 22. During medication review, the patient reveals
oral contraceptives and antibiotics that he is an avid fan of grapefruit and takes his
A. Alteration of GI flora medications, including verapamil, with grapefruit
B. Alteration of pH juice. Which of the following is TRUE regarding
C. Complexation and adsorption verapamil and grapefruit juice?
D. Alteration of distribution I. Avoid taking medications with grapefruit
E. Alteration of metabolism in the GIT juice
17. The mechanism of drug interaction between II. The combination may inhibit the
phenytoin aand valproic acid metabolism of the drug (verapamil) resulting
A. Displacement form protein binding site to increased pharmacologic effects and
B. Drug-food interaction increased risk of adrs
C. Alteration of GI flora III.The combination may increase the
D. Stimulation of metabolism metabolism of the drug (verapamil) resulting
E. Alteration of active transport to decreased pharmacologic activity
18. Phenobarbital causes enzyme induction hence, A. Only I
increases the rate of metabolism of warfarin B. Only III
when taken together. As the pharmacist, what C. I and II
would be your recommendation to the D. II and III
prescriber? E. I, II and III
I. Increase the dose of warfarin while on 23. A patient complains of extreme muscle
phenobarbital then lower it down once weakness and myopathy. Which of his
phenobarbital is discontinued medications may have caused this?
A. Metformin 500 mg BID
 B. Atorvastatin 80 mg hs 29. A common side effect of minoxidil
C. Losartan 50 mg qam A. Persistent dry cough
D. Multivitamins B. Peripheral edema
E. Paracetamol 500 mg Q 4 to 6 h prn C. Reflex tachycardia
24. A patient with hypertension complains of D. Drowsiness
swelling in her feet and mentions that this E. Hypertrichosis
started when she was given her new 30. A patient’s routine lab results showed an
antihypertensive drug. Which of the following increase in her serum potassium levels. Her
medications may have caused this? physician informed her that her hypertensive
A. Metoprolol medication which one initiated three months ago
B. Hydrochlorothiazide may have caused this increase. Which of the
C. Valsartan following is her medication?
D. Furosemide A. Furosemide
E. Amlodipine besylate B. Hydrochlorothiazide
25. A patient with infection was given levofloxacin C. Losartan
500 mg once daily for 10 days. The patient D. Nifedipine
noticed no improvement of symptoms on the E. Chlorthalidone
seventh day of therapy. A review of the patient’s 31. A patient who is hypertensive and has history of
medication profile reveals that he is taking which gout was placed by his physician on a diuretic.
of the following drugs that may have interacted He develops an attack of gout a few weeks after
with the antibiotic? starting therapy. Which of the following diuretics
A. Ferrous sulphate was he taking?
B. Vitamin C A. Spironolactone
C. Guaifenesin B. Hydrochlorothiazide
D. Ibuprofen C. Triamterene
E. Paracetamol D. Urea
26. A patient comes to the pharmacy asking for a E. Chlorthalidone
recommendation for a cough medicine because 32. This antihypertensive drug is associated with
of persistent cough. A review of the patient’s drug-induced lupus that resolves upon cessation
medication profile revealed that one of his of the drug.
medications is causing this symptom. What drug A. Digoxin
is this? B. Hydralazine
A. Enalapril C. Minoxidil
B. Losartan D. Labetalol
C. Metoprolol E. Valsartan
D. Hydrochlorothiazide 33. A patient on an antiarrhythmic medication
E. Furosemide complains of dry mouth, blurred vision, and
27. Which of the following drugs may cause postural urinary hesitancy. Which of the following
hypertension and reflex tachycardia once the medications is the patient taking?
drug is initiated and when increasing doses? A. Disopyramide
A. Prazosin B. Flecainide
B. Amlodipine C. Lidocaine
C. Labetalol D. Amiodarone
D. Propranolol E. Sotalol
E. Furosemide 34. This antiarrythmic may induced the symptoms of
28. A patient’s blood pressure has been well cinchonism.
controlled for years using a thiazide diuretic. But A. Quinidine
lately there has been an increase in his diastolic B. Flecainide
blood pressure warranting an additional blood C. Procainamide
pressure medication. However, he noticed that D. Mexiletene
lately he has been experiencing erectile E. Sotalol
dysfunction. Which of the following medication 35. A common adverse effect of mexiletine
classes may have caused this? A. Bleeding
A. Thiazide diuretics B. Anorexia
B. Beta blockers C. Dyspepsia
C. ACE inhibitors D. Somnolence
D. ARBS E. Shortness of breath
E. Loop diuretics
36. An antiarrythmic that should be avoided by A. I only
patient’s with asthma B. III only
A. Propafenone C. I and II only
B. Flecainide D. II and III
C. Quinidine E. I, II and III
D. Sotalol
E. Mexiletine 42. A treatment for excessive bleeding due to heparin
37. The following are adverse effects of amiodarone therapy
EXCEPT I. Vitamin K
A. Pulmonary fibrosis II. Discontinue heparin
B. Neuropathy III.Protamine sulfate
C. Blue-gray skin discoloration A. I only
D. Hypo- or hyperthyroidism B. III only
E. Bleeding C. I and II only
38. A patient comes inti the pharmacy and hands D. II and III
you, the pharmacist, a prescription for sildenafil. E. I, II and III
You recall that you just counselled this same
patient two weeks ago regarding the use of 43. A consequence of long tern heparin therapy
sublingual nitroglycerin. What would be the
A. Osteoporosis
result of the interaction between the two
B. Persistent cough
medications?
C. Obesity
I. Potentiate the effects of sildenafil
D. Weight gain
II. Dangerous hypertension
E. Hair loss
III. Dangerous hypotension
A. I only 44. A patient brought in a new prescription for
B. III only fluconazole. A review of her medication profile revealed
C. I and II only that she is on warfarin therapy. Which of the following
D. II and III statements is TRUE regarding the combination of these
E. I, II and III two drugs?
39. The interaction between aspirin and ketorolac
would result to which of the following: I. The two drugs are safe to
A. Increased bleeding be taken together
B. Dry mouth II. Fluconazole inhibits the
C. Blurred vision metabolism of warfarin
D. All of these III.The combination of these
E. None of these two medications could lead to
40. A patient who is on probenecid for his gout serious bleeding
reports that he has been experiencing attacks of A. I only
his gout when he was on daily aspirin therapy. B. III only
This is due to which of the following: C. I and II only
I. Increased metabolism of aspirin D. II and III
II. Increased vasodilation E. I, II and III
III.Decreased uricosuric effect of probenecid
45. A patient complains of weakness and muscle
A. I only
achiness that will not resolve. He said that his symptoms
B. III only
are interfering with his daily activities for he feels too
C. I and II only
weak even to get out of bed. You reviewed his
D. II and III
medication profile and found out that one of his
E. I, II and III
medications may be the cause of his condition. Which of
41. A patient is on clopidogrel for her arrythmia and
the following medications may have caused these
she came to you to bring in a prescription for
symptoms?
omeprazole from her doctor. What can you say
about this combination? A. Losartan 50 mg daily
I. The two drugs could be given B. Lipitor 80 mg daily
together C. Ibuprofen 200 mg q 4 to 6 h prn
II. The combination is not pain
recommended D. Multivitamins 1 cap daily
III. Patients on clopidogrel should avoid E. Metformin 500 mg daily
omeprazole
46. The following are adverse effects of niacin, EXCEPT D. Patients with renal insufficiency
E. Patients with hypertriglyceridemia
A. Intense cutaneous flush
B. Pruritus 51. The most serious and common adverse reaction to
C. Hepatotoxicity insulin.
D. Anorexia
E. Abdominal pain A. Hypotension
B. Hypoglycemia
47. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding C. Hypertension
simvastatin and gemfibrozil? D. Hyperglycemia
E. Hypercholesterolemia
I. The use of gemfibrozil is
contraindicated with simvastatin 52. How can lipodystrophy, an adverse effect of insulin
II. The combination increases the risk use, be minimized?
for myopathy and rhabdomyolysis
III. There is no interaction between the A. Switch to an oral medication
two medications B. Rotate injection sites
A. I only C. Inject insulin into the muscle
B. III only D. Inject once daily only
C. I and II E. Use insulin pens
D. II and III 53. Major adverse effects of sulfonylureas
E. I, II and III
I. Weight gain
48. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding II. Hypoglycemia
bile acid sequestrants? III. Hyperinsulinemia
I. Most common side effects include A. I only
constipation, nausea, and flatulence B. III only
II. They may impair the absorption of C. I and II only
Vitamin A,D,E,K D. II and III
III. They may impair the absorption of E. I, II and III
many drugs, such as warfarin, 54. A rare, but serious side effect of metformin
digoxin, etc.
A. I only A. Candidiasis
B. III only B. Lactic acidosis
C. I and II only C. Pancreatitis
D. II and III D. Urinary tract infection
E. I, II and III E. Heart failure

49. A counselling point when dispensing colesevelam to 55. Adverse effect associated with estrogen therapy
a patient on a warfarin therapy.
A. Breast tenderness
A. Stop taking warfarin for his B. Nausea
interacts with colesevelam C. Thromboembolism
B. Take warfarin 1 to 2 hours before D. Breast cancer
or 4 to 6 hours after the bile acid- E. All of these
binding resin
56. Which of the following antidiabetic drugs is
C. Switch colesevelam to
associated with a risk of pancreatitis?
cholestyramine
D. Take both drugs at the same time A. Metformin
with food B. Liraglutide
E. Take both drugs at the same time C. Glimepiride
on an empty stomach D. Insulin
E. Nateglinide
50. Which of the following patient groups would be more
likely to experience the adverse effect of HMG coa 57. A patient on warfarin therapy brought in a
reductase inhibitors (myopathy and rhabdomyolysis)? prescription for naproxen. Upon consult, you were
informed that he did not tell his prescriber that he is
A. Patients with on blood thinners
taking warfarin. You recall that warfarin is 97% protein
B. Patients with heperuriemia
C. Patients with hypertension
bound and naproxen is 99% protein bound. What would C. Biopharmaceutical
happen if this patient takes naproxen? D. Pharmacodynamic
E. Pharmaceutical
A. The patient will benefit from this
combination 63. A contraindication for the use of ergotamine and
B. The pain and inflammation will be dihydroergotamine
treated
C. There is no interaction between I. Angina
the two drugs II. Peripheral vascular disease
D. The patient may experience III. Diabetes
bleeding A. I only
E. The patient would have blood B. III only
clots C. I and II only
D. II and III
58. This should be checked by the pharmacist when E. I, II and III
dispensing suppositories
64. An antimicrobial agent that have the potential to
A. Excessive softening cause interstitial nephritis
B. Oil stains on packaging
C. Presence of precipitate A. Methicillin
D. A and B B. Ceftriaxone
E. B and C C. Naproxen
D. Cephalexin
59. The following are common side effects encountered E. Sertraline
when using ophthalmic preparations EXCEPT
65. Red man syndrome is an adverse event associated
A. Persistent burning sensation with which medication
B. Tearing
C. Decreased vision A. Erythromycin
D. Foreign body sensation B. Vancomycin
E. Margin crusting C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Moxifloxacin
60. A patient brought in a prescription for finasteride. E. Daptomycin
Your pharmacy technician assigned at the filling station
is in her 1st trimester of pregnancy. What precautions 66. An adverse effect associated with the use of
should be observed? daptomycin

I. Let her fill the prescription A. Red man syndrome

II. Tell her not to fill the prescription B. Rhabdomyolysis
and have somebody else fill it. C. Bleeding
III. Remind her not to touch the D. Flushing
medication E. Ototoxicity
A. I only 67. Phototoxicity is associated with the use of which
B. III only antibiotic
C. I and II only
D. II and III A. Tetracycline
E. I, II and III B. Gentamicin
C. Erythromycin
61. Drug interaction includes the following D. Amoxicillin
A. Drug-drug interaction E. Neomycin
B. Drug-lab test interaction 68. A patient maintained on warfarin was given a
C. Drug-food interaction prescription for clarithromycin for an upper respiratory
D. Drug-herb interaction tract infection. Which of the following statements is
E. All of these TRUE?
62. The type of interaction that occurs when the I. The prescriber needs to be informed
pharmacokinetic disposition of the drug is altered by that the patient is on warfarin
genetic polymorphism in affecting processes therapy
A. Pharmacokinetic
B. Pharmacogenetic
 II. Clarithromycin inhibits the C. I and II only
metabolism of warfarin which could D. II and III
lead to bleeding E. I, II and III
III. There is no need to contact the
prescribers, it is safe to take both 74. The co-administration of triazolam and any protease
medications together inhibitor (ritonavir, saquinavir, indinavir, etc.) is
A. I only contraindicated because
B. III only A. This could result to excessive
C. I and II only sedation
D. II and III B. This could lead to treatment
E. I, II and III failure of the protease inhibitor
69. A contraindication for the use of tetracycline is C. There is no interaction between
children below 8 years old because tetracyclines the two drugs
D. Both drugs are expensive
A. Crosses the blood brain barrier E. None of these
B. Do not cross into the
cerebrospinal fluid 75. Paclitaxel is associated with serious hypersensitivity
C. Deposits into the bones and teeth reactions. Premedications necessary for a patient who
D. Do not cross into the would be administered paclitaxel include:
cerebrospinal fluid I. Dexamethasone
E. Can cause blood disorders II. Ranitidine
70. A drug that colors body fluids III. Diphenhydramine
A.I only
A. Tetracycline B. III only
B. Lexofloxacin C. I and II only
C. Bacitracin D. II and III
D. Rifampin E. I, II and III
E. Neomycin
76. The toxicity associated with this agent is interstitial
71. Rifampin and oral contraceptives nephritis

I. Reduced effect of oral contraceptives A. Bleomycin

II. Increased metabolism of oral B. Cyclophosphamide
contraceptives C. Cytarabine
III.Need for back-up contraception while D. Cisplatin
on rifampicin E. Doxorubicin
A. I only
B. III only 77. The drug, chemical or food elemet causing the
C. I and II only imteraction.
D. II and III A. Object drug
E. I, II and III B. Precipitant drug
72. A drug that causes optic neuritis with blurred vision, C. Target drug
and also red-green color blindness D. Precipitated drug
E. None of these
A. Pyrazinamide
B. Streptomycin 78. Mechanism of interaction between an antacid and an
C. Dapsone enteric-coated tablet
D. Ethambutol A. Alteration of gastric pH
E. Capreomycin B. Increased GI motility
73. The interaction between simvastatin and C. Alteration of intestinal flora
itraconazole would result to: D. Complexation
E. Decreased GI motility
I. Treatment failure of itraconazole
II. Increased exposure to simvastatin 79. Mechanism of interaction between digoxin and
III. Increased risk of rhabdomyolysis antibiotics resulting an increase in digoxin levels
A. I only A. Alteration of gastric pH
B. III only B. Increased in GI motility
 C. Alteration of intestinal flora B. III only
D. Complexation C. I and II
E. Decreased GI motility D. II and III
E. I, II and III
80. Which of the following herbal preparations increase
bleeding in patients on warfarin therapy? 85. A type of chemical incompatibility

A. Garlic A. Complexation
B. Ginger B. Reduction
C. Feverfew C. Photolysis
D. A and B D. Oxidation
E. A,B, and C E. All of these

81. Interaction between St. John’s wort and calcium 86. Factors affecting IV compatibility
channel blockers result to:
A. Ph
A. Failure of therapy of calcium B. Order of mixing
channel blockers C. Length of time in solution
B. Failure of therapy of St. John’s D. Temperature
wort E. All of these
C. There is no interaction between
St. John’s wort and calcium channel 87. Therapeutic hazards for IV preparations
blockers A. Drug instability
D. Elevated levels of St. John’s wort B. Labelling errors
E. Elevated levels of calcium C. Preservative and solubilizing agent toxicity
channel blockers D. Incompatibility
82. A patient asks you for a recommendation for an over E. All of these
the counter product for hot flashes due to menopause. 88. The interaction between ginkgo biloba and warfarin
Black cohosh is a common herbal supplement indicated could result to
for hot flashes. However further interview revealed that
she has maintenance medications for hypertension. I. Increased risk of bleeding
What would happen if she takes black cohosh together II. Decreased risk of bleeding
with her antihypertensive? III.Antagonism
A. I only
A. Hypertension B. III only
B. No interaction C. I and II only
C. Treatment failure of black cohosh D. II and III
D. Hypotension E. I, II and III
E. None of these
89. The mechanism for the interaction between ethanol
83. Factors that increase the chances of a drug and phenobarbital
interaction to occur
A. Increased metabolism of phenobarbital
I. Multiple prescribers B. Decreased metabolism of phenobarbital
II. Multiple drug therapy C. Decreased absorption of phenobarbital
III. Geriatric therapy D. Decreased metabolism of ethanol
A. I only E. None of these
B. III only
C. I and II only 90. False-positive urine ketone tests may result in
D. II and III patients taking valproic acid. This is significant for this
E. I, II and III type of patients when using urine tests

84. The interaction between probenecid and penicillin A. Hypertensive patients

B. Diabetic patients
I. Is beneficial C. Seizure patients
II. Inhibits renal tubular secretion of D. Asthma patients
penicillin E. All of these
III. Decreases the plasma half-life of
penicillin 91. The following are adverse effects of anticholinergic
A. I only drugs, EXCEPT
 A. Dry mouth 97. An extrapyramidal side effect that describes sudden
B. Increased urination muscle spasms that primarily occur in the eye, neck,
C. Constipation face, and throat muscles.
D. Urinary retention
E. Decreased sweating A. Acute dystonia
B. Tardive dyskinesia
92. These agents potentiate the side effects of C. Akathisia
anticholinergics D. Pseudoparkinsonism
E. None of these
I. Antihistamines
II. Antidepressants 98. An extrapyramidal side effect that is defined as the
III.Phenothiazines inability to sit still and as being functionally motor
A. I only restless.
B. III only
C. I and II only A. Acute dystonia
D. II and III B. Tardive dyskinesia
E. I, II and III C. Akathisia
D. Pseudoparkinsonism
93. Taking which of the following drugs could result to a E. None of these
false-positive Coombs test
99. Which of the following is considered most sedating
A. Levodopa antipsychotics?
B. Amantadine
C. Bromocriptine A. Chlorpromazine
D. Selegiline B. Clozapine
E. Phenothiazine C. Olanzapine
D. Thioridazine
94. The combination of levodopa and phenelzine is E. All of these
avoided because it could result to
100. An uncommon but potentially fatal adverse effect of
A. Hypertensive crisis antipsychotics, characterized by fever, severe rigidity,
B. Urinary incontinence altered mental status, unstable blood pressure,
C nausea and vomiting tachycardia, incontinence, elevated creatinine kinase,
D. Hypotension and increased WBC count.
E. Profuse sweating
A. Stevens-Johnsons syndrome
95. Pyridoxine should be taken with caution in B. Tardive dyskinesia
Parkinson’s patients on levodopa because C. Serotonin syndrome
D. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
A. Pyridoxine increases the peripheral E. None of these
metabolism of levodopa
B. The effect of levodopa will be decreased 101. Cholestyramine can bind with digoxin. Which of the
C. The effect of levodopa will be increases following is TRUE regarding this drug interaction?
D. A and B
E. B and C I. Cholestyramine is the object drug
II. Digoxin is the precipitant
96. A patient was prescribed amantadine. A review of his III.Digoxin is the object drug
medication profile revealed that he has A. I only
hydrochlorothiazide-triamterene tablets for the B. III only
management of his hypertension. What could be the C. I and II only
result if these are given together? D. II and III
E. I, II and III
A. There would be an increase in the plasma
concentration of amantadine 102. Which of the following is paired correctly?
B. There will be a decrease in the urinary
excretion of amantadine A. Tetracycline -object drug
C. There will be no interaction between the two Antacid – precipitant drug
medications B. Ciprofloxacin – precipitant
D. A and B Milk – object drug
E. B and C C. Cimetidine – object drug
Atorvastatin – precipitant drug
D. Tetracycline – precipitant
 Antacid – object drug D. Ensure proper storage of the medication
E.Penicillin – precipitant E. Warm against taking with food or other drugs
Probenecid – object drug
107. An alcoholic taking paracetamol 500 mg every 6
103. A patient asks you about using Coenzyme Q10 hours prn back pain, is exposed to:
since he has read about its benefits in a magazine.
Further interview of the patient revealed that he is A. Increased risk of renal toxicity
maintained on 2 mg daily dose of warfarin. What would B. Increased risk of hepatotoxicity
be the recommendation for this patient? C. Increased risk of photosensitivity
D. Decreased effect of paracetamol
A. There is no reason for concern, the patient E. All of these
could take Coenzyme Q10
B. Coenzyme Q10 may antagonize the activity of 108. A patient refills a prescription for oral
warfarin, use of which warrants a consult with contraceptives. You recall seeing this patient in the
the doctor parking lot smoking cigarettes with a couple of friends a
C. Warfarin antagonizes the effect of Coenzyme few minutes before she came into the pharmacy. This
Q10, do not take warfarin patient is at an increased risk for developing
D. Tell the patient to tell the doctor to remove his A. Cardiovascular disease
warfarin so he could take Coenzyme Q10 B. Hepatic disease
E. It is not safe to take both medications C. Lung disease
together, so stop taking warfarin before taking D. Renal disease
Coenzyme Q10 E. There is no reason for concern regarding this
104. A patient comes in complaining that the diazepam patient
that was dispensed to him was not working. Upon 109. A monitoring parameter for a patient on warfarin
reviewing the patient profile and further interview, it was therapy
revealed that the patient still has not stopped smoking
despite the doctor’s and your recommendations to do so. A. ANC
What could be the cause for the patient’s complaint? B. CBC
C. ECG
A. Smoking does not affect the activity of D. INR
diazepam. There might be another reason. E. Platelet count
B. Smoking decreases the activity of diazepam
by inducing its metabolism 110. A patient comes to you complaining of sleepiness,
C. Smoking decreases the activity of diazepam feeling lethargic, and seems like not in the mood to do
by inhibiting its metabolism anything. Which of the following medications that the
D. Smoking increases the activity of diazepam, patient is currently on could cause the patient’s
by inducing its metabolism complaints?
E. Alcohol decreases the activity of diazepam by
A. Gabapentin
inhibiting its metabolism
B. Lorazepam
105. A safety technique observed in community C. Hydrocodone/Acetaminophen
pharmacies to minimize medication errors. D. All of these
E. None of these
I. Organized and simplified work procedures
II. Working on one prescription at a time, instead 111. An antiseizure drug associated with gingival
of handling several prescriptions at once. hyperplasia
III.Using a magnifying lens when necessary
A. Carbamazepine
A. I only
B. Phenytoin
B. III only
C. Divalproex
C. I and II only
D. Lamotrigine
D. II and III
E. Topiramate
E. I, II and III
112. Inhibitors of platelet aggregation, EXCEPT
106. Purpose of auxillary labels, EXCEPT
A. Heparin
A. Ensure proper use of medications
B. Dipyridamole
B. Reinforce information given during
C. Absiximab
counselling
D. Clopidogrel
C. To minimize verbal patient counselling
E. Ticlopidine
113. TRUE about thrombolytic agents
A. Hemorrhage is a major adverse effect
B. Contraindicated in pregnancy
C. Cannot be given to patients with a history of
cerebrovascular accident
D. Head trauma and intracranial bleeding are
also contraindications
E. All of these
114. Which of the following effects is associated to
physostigmine?
D. Scopolamine – treatment of COPD
E. Atropine – to produce miosis
120. An antidiarrheal agent contains diphenoxylate and
atropine. What is the effect of atropine in the
preparation?
A. Increases GI motility
B. Decreases GI motility
C. Increases urination
D. Increases salivation
E. Increases acid secretion

A. Miosis 121. A patient who is going on a cruise comes to the

B. Bradycardia pharmacy to pick up her prescription for scopolamine
C. Hypotension patches. She informed you that she knows the patch is
D. Contraction of visceral smooth muscles applied behind the ear, but wonders why only three
E. All of these patches were dispensed when she would be on the
cruise for 7days. What should you tell her?
115. The following cholinergic agonists are matched
correctly with the effects, EXCEPT A. There was an error in filling her prescription.
B. The doctor only prescribed three patches and
A. Bethanecol – treat urinary retention that is what she’s getting
B. Neostigmine - treat myasthenia gravis C. The patched is designed for the drug to be
C. Pilocarpine – reduces intraocular pressure delivered over a period of three days and the
D. Carbachol – produce miosis during ocular patch should be replaced every three days.
surgery D. The wrong quantity was dispensed
E. Acetylcholine -produce mydriasis in eye E. You will call the doctor to check for the
surgery correctness of the prescription
116. Which of the following effects is associated with 122. Which of the following adverse effects is observed
atropine? with adrenergic agonists?
A. Atropine A. Arrythmia
B. Antispasmodic B. Insomnia
C. Xerostomia C. Nausea
D. Cycloplegia D. Hyperactivity
E. All of these E. All of these
117. Scopolamine as an anti- motion sickness drug is 123. An adrenergic agonist used in the management of
available in what dosage form? anaphylactic shock
A. Oral tablet A. Phenylephrine
B. Chewable tablet B. Oxymetazoline
C. Transdermal patch C. Epinephrine
D. Effervescent tablet D. Pseudoephedrine
E. Suppository E. Clonidine
118. Antimuscarinic agents approved as bronchodilators 124. An adrenergic agonist commonly used in over the
A. Ipratropium counter nasal sprays for nasal congestion
B. Tiotropium A. Oxymetazoline
C. Cyclopentolate B. Clonidine
D. A and B C. Albuterol
E. B and C D. Isoproterenol
119. Which of the following antimuscarinic agents is E. Dobutamine
correctly matched with its therapeutic use? 125. Counselling points regarding the use of OTC nasal
A. Oxybutinin- treatment of overactive bladder decongestant sprays
B. Benztropine -treatment of alzheimer’s I. Topical nasal decongestants should not be
C. Nicotine – smoking cessation shared with others
 II. Use should be limited for 3 to 5 days only E. I, II and III
III.This could be used as long as the patient is
still congested 131. Isotretinoin, a vitamin A derivative, is used in the
A. I only treatment of severe acne. How would you counsel a
B. III only patient on this medication?
C. I and II only I. This is a potent teratogen and should be
D. II and III avoided in pregnancy
E. I, II and III II. If the patient plans to get pregnant she should
126. An important counselling point when dispensing talk with her doctor and plan to stop the use of
first generation antihistamines the medication
III.Isotretinoin is perfectly safe for even if she
I. This may cause drowsiness becomes pregnant
II. Do not drink, drive or operate machinery while A. I only
on this medication B. III only
III.Avoid activities that would require you full C. I and II only
attention while on this medication D. II and III
A. I only E. I, II and III
B. III only
C. I and II only 132. A patient on theophylline is also taking cimetidine
D. II and III prescribed by another doctor. What would be the result
E. I, II and III of the interaction between these two medications.

127. The following are adverse effects commonly A. Increased clearance of theophylline
observed in patients treated with propranolol, EXCEPT B. Decreased clearance of theophylline
C. Decreased clearance of cimetidine
A. Bronchodilation D. Increased clearance of cimetidine
B. Sexual impairment E. No change in clearance profiles of both drugs
C. Arrythmia (with abrupt withdrawal)
D. Fatigue 133. Sudden cessation of beta blockers could result in
E. Bronchoconstriction A. Cardiac arrythmia
128. These substances may liquefy or form eutectic B. Hypotension
mixtures when in close, prolonged contact with one C. Angina
another D. Bronchodilation
E. None of these
A. Aspirin
B. Phenol 134. Common side effect of colchicine
C. Camphor A. Nausea
D. Menthol B. Alopecia
E. All of these C. Aplastic anemia
129. All of the following are drugs with narrow D. Diarrhea
therapeutic indices, EXCEPT E. All of these

A. Amoxicillin 135. A patient who was recently started on allopurinol

B. Levothyroxine therapy comes to the pharmacy complaining that his
C. Warfarin medication is not working, for he has had more gouty
D. Heparin attacks than before. What should you tell this patient?
E. Quinidine I. Acute gouty attacks do occur more frequently
130. Adverse effects of cimetidine associated with its during the first few months of therapy
action as a nonsteroidal antiandrogen II. Ensure patient is prescribed colchicine,
NSAIDS or corticosteroids to minimize
I. Gynecomastia symptoms
II. Galactorrhea III.Agree with the patient that there was indeed
III.Hirsutism an error in filling the prescription
A. I only A. I only
B. III only B. III only
C. I and II only C. I and II only
D. II and III D. II and III
 E. I, II and III I. These could be given together safely
II. A wash out period of at least 2 weeks is
136. A patient who was given diphenhydramine capsules necessary before the other type is administered
for the management of an allergic reaction continues to III.Fluoxetine should be discontinued at least 6
drink alcohol. What could be the result of taking both weeks before a MAOI is initiated
together? A. I only
A. Increased alertness B. III only
B. Increased craving for alcohol C. I and II only
C. Increased sedation D. II and III
D. Decreased effect of diphenhydramine E. I, II and III
E. There would be no effect to the patient 142. The drug interaction between levodopa and
137. The concurrent administration of antihistamines phenelzine could result to which of the following
with MAO inhibitors could result to A. Serotonin syndrome
A. Increased anticholinergic effect B. Hypertensive crisis
B. Decreased anticholinergic effect C. Hyperthyroidism
C. Hypertensive crisis D. Hyperthermia
D. Arrythmia E. None of these
E. None of these 143. A patient takes levodopa together with his Vitamin
138. A patient with Alzheimer’s disease is on donepezil. B complex vitamins. The B complex preparation contains
Concurrent administration with diphenhydramine could vitamins B1, B6 and B12. What should you tell the
result to which of the following patient about this?

A. Increased effect of diphenhydramine A. Levodopa should not be co-administered with

B. Decreased effect of diphenhydramine vitamin B6
C. Increased effect of donepezil B. The B complex vitamins enhance the effects
D. Decreased effect of donepezil of levodopa
E. None of these C. There is a risk of developing hypervitaminosis
D. Take vitamin C and minerals with his B
139. A patient on phenelzine had smoked fish and red complex
wine for dinner, what could happen to this patient? E. There is no interaction between the two drugs
I. This patient would not be able to metabolize 144. Celecoxib, a COX-2 inhibitor, has a black box
tyramine from the diet. warning because it is linked with which of the following
II. This patient would experience a hypertensive
crisis A. Increased risk of peptic ulcer
III.This patient should be on a restricted diet free B. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
of tyramine-containing foods. C. Contraindicated in patients with sulfa allergy
A. I only D. Is associated with alopecia
B. III only E. None of these
C. I and II only 145. Aspirin should not be used in patients being treated
D. II and III with methotrexate because
E. I, II and III
A. The combination increases the toxicity of
140. The co-administration of MAO inhibitors with SSRIs methotrexate
is contraindicated because B. The combination decreases the toxicity of
A. The combination will decrease the effect of methotrexate
MAO inhibitors C. The combination increases the effect of
B. The combination will decrease the effect of aspirin
SSRIs D. The combination decreases the effect of
C. The patient will be more depressed aspirin
D. The combination could cause serotonin E. None of these
syndrome 146. Common adverse effect associated with narcotic
E. None of these pain relievers
141. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE A. Constipation
regarding the use of MAO inhibitors and SSRIs? B. Nausea
 C. Vomiting E. Spironolactone
D. Sedation
E. All of these 154. Thiazide diuretic use increases the risk for

147. The most serious adverse effect accompanying A. Hyperkalemia

narcotic overdose B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
A. Respiratory depression D. Hypocalcemia
B. Renal toxicity E. None of these
C. Hemorrhage
D. Hepatotoxicity 155. All are broad spectrum antibiotics, EXCEPT
E. Neuralgia A. Ceftriaxone
148. Narcotic analgesics, when used together with B. Ciprofloxacin
benzodiazepines could result to C. Imipenem
D. Isoniazid
A. Sedation E. Tetracycline
B. Cardiovascular event
C. Bleeding 156. A patient comes to you asking for a
D. GI upset recommendation for an over the counter cough
E. None of these preparation. You were informed that it is a dry form of
cough that is bothersome especially in the evening. You
149. Adverse effects commonly seen in patients on went ahead and reviewed the patient’s medication profile
opioid therapy. and found out that one of her medications is causing the
dry cough. Which medication is this?
A. Constipation
B. Nausea A. Metformin
C. Hypotension B. Captopril
D. Sedation C. Multivitamins
E. All of these D. Paracetamol
E. Furosemide
150. Which of the following is a clinical use of opioids?
157. ACE inhibitors should be used with caution in which
A. Analgesia of the following patients
B. Relief cough
C. Anesthesia A. Patients who are on potassium sparing
D. Treatment of diarrhea diuretics
E. All of these B. Patients with renal disease
C. Pregnant hypertensive women
151. Major adverse effect associated with the use of D. A and B
triptans E. B and C
A. Cardiovascular effects 158. A commonly encountered side effect of calcium
B. Renal toxicity channel blockers
C. CNS depression
D. Hepatotoxicity A. Peripheral edema
E. None of these B. Dry mouth
C. Pruritus
152. An incompatibility where there is migration of the D. Hypertension
packaging material into the drug product E. All of these
A. Permeation 159. Which of the following agents is used in the
B. Leaching management of gestational hypertension
C. Lamination
D. Sorption A. Propranolol
E. None of these B. Benazepril
C. Labetalol
153. An example of loop diuretic D. Losartan
A. Triematerene E. Terazosin
B. Hydrochlorothiazide 160. This group of diuretics may cause ototoxicity
C. Furosemide
D. Chlorthalidone I. Loop diuretics
 II. Thiazide diuretics E. B and C
III.Potassium sparing diuretics
A. I only 167. Rifampin when co-administered with
B. III only carbamazepine would result to
C. I and II only A. Increased rifampin effects
D. II and III B. Decreased rifampin effects
E. I, II and III C. Increased carbamazepine effects
161. This drug is contraindicated in a patient with a D. Decreased carbamazepine effects
history of severe allergic reaction to a sulfa drug E. None of these

A. Spironolactone 168. Cimetidine when co-administered with metoprolol

B. Hydrochlorothiazide would result to
C. Amiloride A. Hypotension
D. Mannitol B. Sedation
E. Furosemide C. Anorexia
162. A condition that predisposes a patient to digoxin D. Hypertension
toxicity E. None of these

A. Hypokalemia 169. Protease inhibitors taken together with St. John’s

B. Hyperkalemia wort could result in
C. Anorexia A. Lower levels of protease inhibitors
D. Hypotension B. Induced metabolism of protease inhibitors
E. All of these C. Inhibit metabolism of protease inhibitors
163. The type of interaction when two drugs taken D. A and B
concurrently producing additive effects E. B and C

A. Pharmacokinetic 170. Evening primrose oil when taken by patients on

B. Pharmacogenetic antiplatelet therapy would lead to
C. Pharmacodynamic A. Increased antiplatelet effect
D. Pharmaceutical B. Bleeding
E. All of these C. Failure of antiplatelet therapy
164. Drugs that are highly protein bound to a carrier D. A and B
protein can be displaced if the second drug introduced E. B and C
has a higher binding affinity to the carrier protein. This is 171. When dispensing amoxicillin 500 mg capsules, it is
what type of drug interaction? important to tell the patient to take this on an empty
A. Pharmacokinetic stomach because
B. Pharmacogenetic A. Food delays the absorption of amoxicillin
C. Pharmacodynamics B. Food would minimize stomach upset
D. Pharmaceutical C. Food would alter the taste of amoxicillin
E. None of these D. Food enhances the absorption of amoxicillin
165. Promethazine taken together with OTC E. All of these
antihistamines could result to 172. Which of the following statements is TRUE
A. Excessive dryness of the mouth regarding chemical-drug interaction
B. Blurred vision I. Smoking induces the metabolism of
C. Urinary retention theophylline
D. All of these II. Chronic alcoholism increases the rate of
E. None of these metabolism of warfarin
166. Atypical antipsychotics taken together with III.Acute alcohol intoxication can inhibit hepatic
amiodarone may result to enzymes in nonalcoholics
A. I only
A. Prolongation of QT interval B. III only
B. Increased anticholinergic effect C. I and II only
C. Decreased antipsychotic effect D. II and III
D. A and B E. I, II and III
173. Disulfiram and alcohol (ethanol) when taken I. Decrease
together results in II. Increase
III. No effect
I. Severe alcohol intolerance A. I only
II. Disulfiram inhibits aldehyde B. III only
dehydrogenase C. I and II only
III. The metabolism of ethanol is limited D. II and III
in the presence of disulfiram E. I, II and III
A. I only
B. III only 180. Thiazide diuretics should be used with caution in
C. I and II only which of the following patient groups
D. II and III
E. I, II and III A. Those with sulfa allergy
B. Those with gout
174. Which of the following when given in large doses C. Those with diabetes
produce symptoms of cinchonism D. All of these
E. None of these
A. Colchicine
B. Procainamide 181. A patient on warfarin therapy is started on
C. Sotalol erythromycin, the patient’s INR would be
D. Quinidine
E. Amiodarone I. Increased
II. Decreased
175. The following are adverse effects of amiodarone, III. No effect
EXCEPT A. I only
B. III only
A. Pulmonary fibrosis C. I and II only
B. Hepatotoxicity D. II and III
C. Blue-gray skin discoloration E. I, II and III
D. Neuropathy
E. Cinchonism 182. Bradycardia, hypotension, increased airway
resistance, and congestive heart failure are adverse
176. Concomitant administration of quinidine and events associated with which class of drugs
nitroglycerin could result to
A. Nitrites and nitrates
A. Hypertension B. Cardiac glycosides
B. Hemorrhage C. Angiotensin converting enzyme
C. Myalgia inhibitors
D. Severe orthostatic hypotension D. Calcium channel blockers
E. Arthralgia E. Beta adrenergic antagonists
177. Which of the following drugs antagonize quinidine 183. Possible hyperkalemia, acute renal failure,
activity and may reduce the therapeutic activity of angioedema, persistent dry cough and birth defects
quinidine when taken during early pregnancy are adverse events
A. Phenytoin associated with which drug class
B. Antacid A. Nitrites and nitrates
C. Sodium bicarbonate B. Cardiac glycosides
D. All of these C. Angiotensin converting enzyme
E. None of these inhibitors
178. Amiodarone may increase the pharmacologic D. Calcium channel blockers
effects of which of the following E. Beta adrenergic agonists

A. Beta blockers 184. Anorexia, nausea and vomiting, halos,

B. Calcium channel blockers photophobia, visual disturbances (yellow-green vision),
C. Warfarin confusion, AV block, ventricular tachycardia are adverse
D. All of these events associated with which drug class
E. None of these A. Nitrites and nitrates
179. NSAIDS ______ the effect of loop and thiazide B. Cardiac glycosides
diuretics C. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors
 D. Calcium channel blockers E. I, II and III
E. Beta adrenergic blockers
191. The process of calling the prescriber to discuss
185. Patients on furosemide and digoxin should be concerns identified during a drug utilization review
monitored for which of the following
A. Pharmaceutical intervention
A. Liver enzymes B. Therapeutic intervention
B. Creatinine clearance C. Comprehensive medication review
C. Pulmonary function D. Therapeutic substitution
D. INR E. Medication therapy
E. Electrolyte levels
192. The information that should be provided when
186. Abrupt cessation of which of the following drugs conducting a therapeutic intervention
could lead to rebound hypertension
A. A brief description of the problem
A. Clonidine B. A reference source that documents the
B. Gaunfacine problem
C. Guanabenz C. A description of the clinical significance of the
D. Methyldopa problem
E. All of these D. A suggestion of a solution to the problem
E. All of these
187. Long term adverse effects of proton pump inhibitors
193. An example of a drug therapy problem
A. Hypomagnesemia
B. Bone fractures A. A prescribed drug with no indication
C. Vitamin B12 deficiency B. There is a more effective drug for the
D. All of these condition indicated
E. None of these C. Incorrect dosing frequency resulting to
insufficient dose to the patient
188. The most common side effect of sulfonylureas D. The patient is only taking half tablet instead of
A. Hyperglycemia whole tablet because of cost
B. Hypoglycemia E. All of these
C. Hyperthermia 194. A patient brought in new prescription for his
D. Hypertension medications for peptic ulcer. While counselling this
E. Hypotension patient, you mentioned that if he smokes he needs to try
189. Trimethoprim is known to increase repaglinide (a to quit smoking. Why?
short-acting insulin secretagogue) levels by 60%. Which I. Cigarette smoking impairs ulcer healing
of the following statements is true? II. Cigarette smoking increases ulcer recurrence
I. The dosage of repaglinide needs to be III.Cigarette smoking increases ulcer risk
adjusted while the patient is on trimethoprim A. I only
II. Increased repaglinide levels may result to B. III only
prolonged hypoglycemic reactions C. I and II only
III.Increased repaglinide levels may result to D. II and III
inefficient hypoglycemic control E. I, II and III
A. I only 195. A patient’s drug regimen for the management of his
B. III only peptic ulcer includes the following:
C. I and II only
D. II and III Proton pump inhibitor bid
E. I, II and III Clarithromycin 500mg bid
Amoxicillin 1 g BID
190. A contraindication for the use of tetracyclines All medications to be taken for 14 days
I. Neonate The patient wanted to know why there is an antibiotic
II. Breast feeding women included in the medications that were prescribed to him.
III.Women on their 2nd trimester of pregnancy The antibiotics would
A. I only
B. III only A. Decreased acid secretion
C. I and II only B. Eradicate H. pylori which is the bacteria
D. II and III present in PUD
 C. Eradicate all intestinal flora that may cause A. Dextromethorphan
PUD B. Codeine
D. Increase the effect of other drugs C. Guaifenesin
E. None of these D. A and B
E. B and C
196. Which of the following statements is TRUE
regarding drug distribution? 202. The combination of bisacodyl and antacids could
result to
I. Drugs distribute rapidly to tissues with
limited blood flow A. Decreased effect of bisacodyl
II. Drugs distribute rapidly to tissues with B. Increased effect of bisacodyl
high blood flow C. Decreased effect of antacid
III.The liver is an example of a highly D. Increased effect of antacid
perfused organ where drugs could distribute E. There is no interaction
rapidly
A. I only 203. What would you advice a patient on bisacodyl and
B. III only antacids?
C. I and II only A. Take both drugs with a full glass of water
D. II and III B. Take both drugs with foods
E. I, II and III C. Take bisacodyl at least an hour before the
197. Aside from tissue perfusion (blood flow in tissues), antacid
what are other factors affecting drug distribution D. There is no need to space the two drugs
E. Do not take antacids
I. Protein binding
II. Drug permeability 204. As part of colon prep for a colonoscopy procedure,
III.Presence or absence of disease the patient purchases a bottle of magnesium citrate.
A. I only What should you tell the patient regarding the use of
B. III only magnesium?
C. I and II only I. The whole bottle should be consumed
D. II and III II. Refrigeration of the product helps improve
E. I, II and III palatability
198. Which of the following is match correctly? III.Keep the product at room temperature
only
A. Cyanocobalamin – B12 A. I only
B. Pyridoxine – B1 B. III only
C. Thiamine – B5 C. I and II only
D. Nicotinic acid – B3 D. II and III
E. Biotin – B6 E. I, II and III

199. The following are adverse effects of nicotine 205. Counselling points for patients on oral
lozenges, EXCEPT bisphosphonates such as alendronate (Fosamax)

A. Skin irritation on application site I. Take this on an empty stomach first thing
B. Nausea in the morning
C. Insomnia II. Take with a full glass of water
D. Dyspepsia III.Remain in an upright position for at least
E. Coughing 30 minutes after taking the drug
A. I only
200. Which of the following is used as an over the B. III only
counter sleep aid? C. I and II only
A. Melatonin D. II and III
B. Valerian root E. I, II and III
C. Doxylamine 206. Food – alendronate interaction results in
D. Diphenhydramine
E. All of these A. Decreased absorption of alendronate
B. Increased absorption of alendronate
201. An over the counter cough preparation that is C. Decreased elimination of alendronate
recommended for non-productive cough D. Increased metabolism of alendronate
 E. None of these C. Direct GI feeding
D. Parenteral admixtures
207. A prostaglandin analog used in the treatment of E. None of these
open angle glaucoma that increases eyelash
prominence, length and darkness. 213. Visible color change or darkening of color is a type
of
A. Latanoprost
B. Bimatoprost I. Physical incompatibility
C. Travoprost II. Chemical incompatibility
D. Tafluprost III. Therapeutic incompatibility
E. Epoprostenol A. I only
B. III only
208. Sildenafil is contraindicated in patients maintained C. I and II only
on nitrates because of D. II and III
A. Severe hypotension E. I, II and III
B. Sexual dysfunction 214. The manifestation of the incompatibility when
C. Priapism phosphate and calcium are combined in solution
D. Severe hypertension
E. Therapeutic failure of nitroglycerin A. Evolution of gas
B. Dark discoloration of solution
209. Which of the following drugs is matched correctly C. Precipitate formation
with its therapeutic use? D. Visible color change
A. Oxybutynin – overactive bladder E. Formation of separate layers
B. Tamsulosin – BPH 215. When penicillin G is given after tetracycline when
C. Tadalafil – erectile dysfunction treating a patient with infection, a reduction in the
D. Androgel – testosterone replacement bactericidal activity of the former is observed
therapy
E. All of these I. Physical incompatibility
II. Chemical incompatibility
210. A precaution when using D5W in parenteral III. Therapeutic incompatibility
preparations A. I only
I. Instability when used with acid-sensitive B. III only
drugs C. I and II only
II. Must be used cautiously in diabetic D. II and III
patients E. I, II and III
III.Instability when used with acidic drugs 216. The following drug classes may cause tinnitus,
A. I only EXCEPT
B. III only
C. I and II only A. Salicylates
D. II and III B. Aminoglycosides
E. I, II and III C. Loop diuretics
D. Penicillins
211. The most serious problem that may occur during E. Chemotherapeutic agents
infusion of antineoplastics
217. A patient was given cefdinir but continued to take
I. too long infusion time iron supplements. What could be the result of this drug
II. Inflammation of a vein interaction?
III.Extravasations
A. I only A. Failure of antibiotic therapy
B. III only B. Patients develop iron- deficiency
C. I and II only anemia
D. II and III C. Cefdinir toxicity
E. I, II and III D. Decreased effect of iron
E. None of these
212. These are large volume admixtures that are used
when enteral nutrition cannot be tolerated. 218. The interaction between theophylline and
erythromycin could result in
A. NGT feeding
B. Total parenteral nutrition
 A. Inhibition of metabolism of D. Failure of antibiotic therapy
theophylline E. None of these
B. Toxic accumulation of
theophylline 225. Norfloxacin when taken together with antacids
C. Induction of metabolism of results in
theophylline A. Increased antibiotic effect
D. A and B B. Decreased antibiotic effect
E. B and C C. There is no interaction between
219. Patients treated for 1 week or longer with the two
erythromycin estolate may develop D. Increased CNS effect
E. None of these
A. Cholestatic hepatitis
B. Hypertension 226. The antibiotic associated with gray-baby syndrome
C. Ototoxicity in neonates
D. Renal failure A. Ciprofloxacin
E. None of these B. Sulfamethoxazole
220. Clarithromycin co-administered with cisapride could C. Clindamycin
result in D. Chloramphenicol
E. Trimethoprim
A. Serious cardiac arrythmias
B. Difficulty breathing 227. Fluconazole is prescribed to a patient taking
C. Enzyme depletion sulfonylureas, this could lead to
D. Bradycardia A. Decreased antibiotic effect
E. None of these B. Increased antibiotic effect
221. Clarithromycin and oral anticoagulants when given C. Decreased hypoglycemic effect
together D. Increased hypoglycemic effect
E. None of these
A. Potentiate anticoagulant effect
B. Prothrombin time needs to be 228. Co-administration of ketoconazole with terfenadine
monitored will cause
C. Diminish anticoagulant effect I. Increased terfenadine levels
D. A and B II. Life-threatening dysrrythmias and death
E. B and C III.Increased ketoconazole levesl
222. Tetracycline when given together with phenytoin A. I only
would result to B. III only
C. I and II only
A. Decreased antibiotic effect D. II and III
B. Increased antibiotic effect E. I, II and III
C. Increased phenytoin effect
D. Decreases phenytoin effect 229. Chloroquine and hydrochloroquine are known to
E. None of these concentrate in the liver. These should be used with
caution in this patient group
223. An antibiotic drug class that may cause QT
prolongation A. Those with hepatic disease
B. Those with pulmonary disease
A. Fluoroquinolones C. Those with cardiac disease
B. Tetracyclines D. Those with renal disease
C. Penicillins E. Those with diabetes
D. Macrolides
E. None of these 230. Quinine is contraindicated in patients with

224. Concurrent use of fluoroquinolones with I. G6PD deficiency

antiarrythmics could result in II. Tinnitus
III. Optic neuritis
A. QT prolongation A. I only
B. Increased CNS stimulation B. III only
C. Decreased fluoroquinolone C. I and II only
absorption D. II and III
 E. I, II and III D. Do not drive
E. No refills
231. Quinine should be used with caution in patients with
238. A contraindication for sulfa drugs because of the
A. Hepatic disease danger of kernicterus
B. Atrial fibrillation
C. Diabetes A. Adult patients with renal disease
D. Bone disease B. Adult patients with hepatic
E. Respiratory tract infection disease
C. Neonates and infants less than 2
232. A patient prescribed with metronidazole still months of age
continues to drink alcohol, what could this patient D. Patients with diabetes
experience? E. Children above 6 years of age
A. Alcohol intolerance 239. Which of the following drugs is correctly matched
B. Anorexia with its adverse effect?
C. Diarrhea
D. Euphoria A. Nitrofurantoin- pulmonary fibrosis
E. Sedation B. Tetracycline- phototoxicity
C. Fluoroquinolone- tendonitis
233. An adverse effect associated with the use of D. Sulfa drugs – SJS
daptomycin E. All of these
A. QT prolongation 240. The most serious side effect of isoniazid
B. Hypertension
C. Hot flashes A. Hepatitis
D. Rhabdomyolysis B. Hypoglycemia
E. Wheezing C. Hypotension
D. Optic neuritis
234. A concern in elderly patients on aminoglycoside E. None of these
antibiotics
241. Which of the following anti – TB drugs causes
A. Nephrotoxicity peripheral neuropathy?
B. Ototoxicity
C. Diabetes A. Rifampicin
D. A and B B. Isoniazid
E. B and C C. Pyrazinamide
D. Ethambutol
235. An adverse effect of aminoglycoside antibiotics E. Streptomycin
associated with a rapid increase in concentrations or
concurrent administration with neuromuscular blockers 242. A patient came back to the pharmacy to refill his
prescription for anti – tubercular drugs. He informs you
A. Bone resorption that he is doing well, except that he seems to be having
B. Neuromuscular paralysis difficulty reading books and has actually set an
C. Aplastic anemia appointment with an ophthalmologist and plans to get
D. CNS depression glasses. Which of his medications may be causing his
E. None of these decline in vision?
236. The safest antibiotic to give a pregnant patient with A. Isoniazid
MRSA B. Pyrazinamide
A. Tetracycline C. Rifabutin
B. Clindamycin D. Ethambutol
C. Methicillin E. Rifampicin
D. Doxycycline 243. What should be determined prior to intiation of anti-
E. Tigecycline TB therapy because the drugs may cause hepatitis
237. An auxillary label when dispensing nystatin to treat A. Renal function test
oral candidiasis B. Baseline hepatic enzyme measurement
A. Shake well C. ECG
B. Dispense 30ml D. CBC
C. Drink with a full glass of water E. Lung function test
244. IV administration of amphotericin B may cause 251. These are mild protein precipitants that result in
thrombophlebitis, this could be prevented by adding contraction of tissue, which in turn decreases the local
____ to the infusion edema and inflammation

A. Heparin A. Cytostatic agents

B. Aspirin B. Keratolytic agents
C. Diphenhydramine C. Tocolytic agents
D. Warfarin D. Astringents
E. Paracetamol E. Antimetabolites

245. A contraindication for azole antifungals 252. An example of an astringent

A. Pregnancy A. Coal tar

B. Hypertension B. Salicylic acid
C. Asthma C. Hydrocortisone OTC
D. Pneumonia D. Selenium sulphide
E. Diabetes E. Burow’s solution

246. Itraconazole has a negative inotropic effect and 253. The major plasma protein involved in drug protein
should be avoided by which patients binding

A. Diabetic patients A. Alpha 1 – glycoprotein

B. Asthmatic patients B. Transcortin
C. Those with heart failure C. Lipoprotein
D. Those with hypertension D. Albumin
E. None of these E. None of these

247. Common adverse effects of zidovudine (AZT) 254. The process by which drugs are eliminated through
the kidneys into the urine
A. Anemia
B. Neutropenia I. Glomerular filtration
C. Headaches II. Tubular reabsorption
D. All of these III.Active tubular secretion
E. None of these A. I only
B. III only
248. A major adverse effect of didanosine (ddl) C. I and II only
A. Pancreatitis D. II and III
B. Renal failure E. I, II and III
C. Headache 255. The effect of the administration of sodium
D. Hepatitis bicarbonate to weakly acidic drugs such as salicylates
E. Diarrhea
A. No effect
249. These agents work by dissolving or breaking down B. Decreased excretion
the outermost layer of skin, causing peeling of the C. Increased excretion
stratum corneum D. All of these
A. Cytostatic agents E. None of these
B. Keratolytic agents 256. Most biologic products are sensitive to which of the
C. Tocolytic agents following
D. Astringents
E. Antimetabolites A. Extreme heat
B. Light
250. An example of a keratolytic agent C. Freezing
A. Coal tar D. Shaking
B. Salicylic acid E. All of these
C. Hydrocortisone OTC 257. Adalimumab (Humira), a monoclonal antibody used
D. Selenium sulphide for treating autoimmune disorders, has a black box
E. Burow’s solution warning of

A. Increased risk of lactic acidosis

 B. Increased infections
C. Increased cardiovascular events
D. All of these
E. None of these
258. The type of incompatibility between oxidizing
agents and reducing agents
A. Physical incompatibility
B. Chemical incompatibility
C. Therapeutic incompatibility
D. A and B
E. B and C
259. In TPN preparations, a potential problem that may
occur is between
A. Potassium chloride and sodium chloride
B. Potassium phosphate and calcium gluconate
C. Potassium phosphate and magnesium
chloride
D. Zinc chloride and sodium chloride
E. None of these
C. Metabolism
D. Excretion
E. Elimination
265. When drawing cisplatin from vials, a stainless- steel
needle should be used instead of aluminum because
aluminum displaces the platinum in cisplatin. What type
of incompatibility is described?
A. Chemical incompatibility
B. Therapeutic incompatibility
C. Physical incompatibility
D. All of these
E. Nome of these
266. An auxillary label that ensures proper preparation,
storage and disposal of medicines
A. Keep refrigerated. Do not freeze.
B. Shake well
C. Protect from light
D. Keep out of reach of children
E. All of these

260. Strategy to manage drug metabolism 267. An auxillary label that is also a warning label about
potential adverse drug reactions, EXCEPT
A. Use of different dosage forms
B. Modification of key functional groups A. Avoid sun exposure
C. Concurrent use of enzyme inhibitors B. May cause drowsiness. Do not drink, drive or
D. All of these operate machinery
E. None of these C. External use only
D. May cause discoloration of urine or feces
261. A patient who is a slow acetylator of isoniazid will E. All of these
experience ________
268. An auxillary label that ensures appropriate dosing
A. Hypertension considerations
B. Peripheral neuropathy
C. Hypotension A. Take with food
D. Hypertrophy B. Take with a full glass of water
E. Arthritis C. Finish all this medication
D. Take on an empty stomach
262. These are morphine-related toxicities E. All of these
A. Diarrhea 269. A patient comes to the pharmacy telling you that
B. Constipation her salbutamol inhaler is not working properly. You recall
C. Respiratory depression that this is a new medication for the patient and this
D. A and B patient denied to be counselled regarding the use of this
E. B and C new medication. What is the best thing to do?
263. A therapeutic advantage of using prodrugs I. Ask the patient to demonstrate how the inhaler
A. Increases water solubility is used
B. Increased oral absorption II. Tell the patient that the device may be
C. Increased duration of action defective
D. Decreased GI irritation III.Remind the patient that she refused
E. All of these counselling regarding this medication
A. I only
264. The process by which a drug reversibly leaves the B. III only
bloodstream and enters the extracellular fluid and the C. I and II only
tissues is known as D. II and III
E. I, II and III
A. Absorption
B. Distribution
270. Patients on which of the following medications B. Mirtazapine (Remeron)
should be strongly reminded that they should always C. Paroxetine (Paxil)
have these with them for emergency use D. Duloxetine (Cymbalta)
E. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
A. Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets
B. Salbutamol inhaler 277. When counselling patients with depression who are
C. Injectable epinephrine on antidepressant medications, they should be informed
D. All of these of which of the following
E. None of these
I. Adherence to the treatment plan is essential to
271. Information that is included during patient achieve a successful outcome
counselling II. The adverse effects of the drugs may occur
immediately, while the resolution of symptoms
A. Route of administration may take 2 to 4 weeks or longer
B. Missed dose instruction III.The resolution of symptoms is immediate
C. Directions for use while the adverse effects may take a while to
D. Frequency of taking the drug occur
E. All of these A. I only
272. These powders contain water of hydration that may B. III only
be released when the powders are triturated or when C. I and II only
stored in an environment of low relative humidity D. II and III
resulting to powders that are damp or pasty. E. I, II and III

A. Hygroscopic powders 278. The following medications should be used with

B. Deliquescent powders caution in patients on MAO inhibitors because of a risk
C. Efflorescent powders of hypertensive crisis
D. Amorphous powders A. Topical and systemic decongestants
E. None of these B. Epinephrine
273. An agent that softens the skin or soothes irritation C. Other MAOIs
in skin or mucus membranes D. All of these
E. None of these
A. Humectant
B. Occlusive 279. The interaction between fluoxetine and other
C. Protective MAOIs could result in
D. Emollient A. Hypertensive crisis
E. None of these B. Serotonin syndrome
274. Primary adverse effects associated with the use of C. Hypotension
lithium D. A and B
E. B and C
A. Tremors
B. Edema 280. Which of the following may be experienced when
C. Loss of sensitivity to antidiuretic hormone bupropion is given to a patient who are on medications
D. Decreased thyroid function that lower the seizure threshold?
E. All of these A. Increased incidence of seizures
275. You have a patient on tramadol, who was also B. Decreases incidence of seizures
prescribed lactulose to be taken prn. Lactulose is for the C. No effect on seizure activity
management of which side effect of tramadol? D. All of these
E. None of these
A. Sedation
B. Vomiting 281. A serious ADR that is common to all
C. Constipation antidepressants
D. Nausea A. Hypotension
E. Diarrhea B. Suicidality
276. An SNRI that is also used for the management of C. QT interval prolongation
bone and muscle pain D. Serotonin syndrome
E. All of these
A. Venlafaxine (Effexor)
282. When carbamazepine is administered together with E. Androgen therapy
valproate, valproate displaces carbamazepine from
protein binding sites. What type of drug interaction was 288. The following drugs are known to sorb to glass or
described? plastics

A. Pharmacokinetic interaction I. Insulin

B. Pharmacodynamics interaction II. Nitroglycerin
C. Pharmaceutical interaction III.Diazepam
D. All of these A. I only
E. None of these B. III only
C. I and II only
283. The combination of clozapine and carbamazepine D. II and III
is not recommended because of the possibility of bone E. I, II and III
marrow suppression with both agents. What is the type
of interaction described? 289. This chemotherapeutic drug in a co-solvent system
requires the use of non- PVC containers and
A. Pharmacokinetic interaction administration set because of the problem of leaching
B. Pharmacodynamics interaction
C. Pharmaceutical interaction A. Paclitaxel
D. All of these B. Cyclosporine
E. None of these C. Propofol
D. Vitamin A
284. Valproate is often prescribed together with E. All of these
lamotrigine, resulting in an augmentation of mood
stabilizing and antidepressant properties as well as a 290. The most concerning adverse effect of amiodarone
reduction in the clearance of lamotrigine. What type of used in the management of arrythmia
interaction is involved in the drug combination? A. Hypertension
A. Pharmacokinetic interaction B. Pulmonary fibrosis
B. Pharmacodynamics interaction C. Bronchospasm
C. Pharmaceutical interaction D. Hypoglycemia
D. A and B E. Renal toxicity
E. B and C 291. A patient counselling point for asthmatic patients
285. A patient on alprazolam continues to take alcohol maintained on inhaled corticosteroids
which results in additive CNS depressant effects. The I. Rinse mouth after using the inhaler
type of interaction is II. Using a spacer may help minimize fungal
A. Pharmacokinetic interaction infections
B. Pharmacodynamics interaction III.Inhaled corticosteroids are not for acute
C. Pharmaceutical interaction asthma attacks
D. A and B A. I only
E. B and C B. III only
C. I and II only
286. Concurrent use of a benzodiazepine with St. John’s D. II and III
wort results in a reduction of benzodiazepine levels. The E. I, II and III
combination could result in
292. Drug absorption in the gastrointestinal tract is
A. Toxicity of benzodiazepine affected by the following, EXCEPT
B. Increased CNS depression
C. Decreased benzodiazepine effect A. Changes in gastric pH
D. A and B B. Increased or decreaed GI motility
E. B and C C. Enzyme induction or inhibition
D. Complexation or chelation
287. You were called to counsel a patient regarding E. Alteration of GI flora
sildenafil. However, this is a female patient, what could
she be using this drug for? 293. The effect of laxatives and cathartics on drug
absorption
A. Erectile dysfunction
B. Pulmonary hypertension A. Increased absorption
C. Hormone replacement therapy B. Decreased absorption
D. Hypotension C. No effect on drug absorption
 D. All of these D. II and III
E. None of these E. I, II and III

294. The interaction between epinephrine and lidocaine, 298. A common side effect of nitrates
a local anesthetic is
A. Hypertension
I. A desired drug interaction B. Headaches
II. Allows local anesthesia with minimal bleeding C. Dry cough
and without systemic absorption while repairing D. Bronchospasm
a skin wound E. Vasoconstriction
III.Epinephrine and lidocaine should not be
administered together 299. A manifestation of aa chemical incompatibility,
A. I only EXCEPT
B. III only A. Evolution of gas
C. I and II only B. Gel formation
D. II and III C. Immiscibility
E. I, II and III D. Photolysis
295. A patient on salbutamol (Ventolin) and salmeterol E. None of these
and fluticasone (Advair) should be informed of the 300. Oral antidiabetic drugs that are structurally different
following with sulfonylureas however exert the blood glucose
I. Salbutamol inhaler should be used during lowering action by the same mechanism
acute asthma attacks A. Metformin
II. Salmeterol and fluticasone is the maintenance B. Insulin
inhaler to be used daily to minimize asthma C. Meglitinides
attacks D. Tolazamide
III.If there is a need to administer both at the E. None of these
same time, administer salbutamol first
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III
E. I, II and III

296. Carbamazepine is both a substrate and an inducer

of the CYP3A4 isoenzyme. Which of the following
statements is TRUE?

I. Carbamazepine induces its own metabolism

II. It may take 3 to 4 weeks to achieve stable
blood levels of carbamazepine
III.Carbamazepine induces the metabolism of
other drugs metabolized via the same pathway
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III
E. I, II and III

297. A patient who is taking methadone to manage pain

from a sports injury continues to drink grapefruit juice.
What could happen to this patient?

I. No effect on the patient

II. Failure of therapy of the pain medication
III.May experience toxicity due to methadone
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only