Dispensingincompatibilities and Adverse Drug Raections Answer Key Pin

DISPENSING, INCOMPATIBILITIES AND ADVERSE DRUG REACTIONS
1. Which of the following is/are true for prescription? Or other properly licensed medical practitioner
I. A prescription is an order for medication issued by a physician, a dentist or other properly

licensed medical practitioner.
II. The prescription order is a part of professional relationship among the prescriber, the
pharmacist and the patient.
III. A prescription designates a specific medication and dosage to be administered to a particular

patient at a specified time.
A .I only C. I and II E. I,II and III
B.III only D. II and III
2. The following is/are part/s of a prescription
I. subscription
II. inscription
III. signa
A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III
B. III only D. II and III
3. In a prescription:
I. The full name and address of the patient are necessary for the identification purposes
II. The date is important only to the pharmacists in filling the prescription for controlled
substances.
III. The name of the physician is necessary mainly for litigation purposes.
4. This is the body or the principal part of the prescription order and contains the names and quantities
of prescribed ingredients:
A. subscription
B. inscription
C. superscription
D. signa
E. recipe
5. This is an example of a subscription:
A. M. ft ung
B. 1 tab qid
C. 50 capsules
D. Shake well before using
E. PTR number
6. This is an example of signa
A. M. ft. ung
B. 1 tab qid
C. 50 capsules
D. Shake well before using
E. PTR number
7. Prescriber of a prescription:
I. veterinarian
II. nurse
III pharmacists
8. In filling a prescription, the pharmacist may select a container from among various shapes, color,
sizes, mouth, openings and composition. Which of the following is/are true regarding his selection?
I. Prescription bottles are used to dispense viscous liquids.
II. Dropper bottles are used for dispensing ophthalmic, nasal ,otic or oral liquids to be administered by
drop.
III. Sifter- top containers are used for the powders to be applied by sprinkling.
A. I only
B. II only
C. I & II
D. II & III
E. I, II ,III
9. The concept of drug interaction includes:
I. drug foof interactions
II. druglaboratorty test iteractions
III. dru disease interactions
A. I only
B. II only
C. I & II
D.II & III
E. I, II ,III
10. Which of the following statements is/are true about drug interactions?
I. Drug interaction may result from the concurrent use of two or more products available without a
Prescription.
II. Herbal products are free from drug interactions.
III. Dietary supplements may interfere with other drugs being concomitantly taken.
AI only
B. II only
C. I & II
D. II & III
E. I, II ,III
11. A number of factors contribute to the occurrence of drug interactions. These includes:
I. Multiple pharmacologic effects

II. Patient non compliance
III. Use of non prescription drugs
12. The following is/are true on the incompatibilities of aqueous acids.
I. Acids and acid salts decompose carbonates with liberation of carbon dioxide
II. Inorganic acid react with salts of organic acids to produce the free organic acid and a salt of the
inorganic acid.
III.Salicylic acid and benzoic acid are readily soluble in solutions of salicylates and benzoates.
A. I only
B. II only
C. I & II
D. II & III
E. I, II ,III
13. In aquoes solutions, alcohol may precipaitate:
I. Agar
II. Tragacanth
III. Acacia
A.I only
B.II only
C.I & II
D.II & III
E.I, II ,III
14. Spirits are preparation of a high alcoholic strength. Because of this, the following are observed to be
true:
I. They lend themselves well to dilution with aqueous solutions

II. The precipitate salts when aqueous solutions containing them are mixed with spirits.
III. Aromatic ammonia sprit cannot be mixed with aqueous preparations containing alkaloids.
A.I only
B.II only
C.I & II
D.II & III
E.I, II ,III
15. Administration of Ketoconazole to a patient who is currently taking Ranitidine would likely result to:
A. Decreased effectiveness of antifungal agent
B. Decareased activity of histamine H2 receptor antagonist
C. Enhanced activity of antifungal agent
D. Increased activity of antihistamine
E. No significant alteration of the effectiveness of both drugs
16. In the stomach, which drug would exist in its non-ionized form?
I. Aspirin
II. Dextroamphetamine
III. Chlorpheniramine
17. A patient came to a drugstore and asked for Bisacodyl for his constipation. Upon asking his current
mediations, the pharmacists knew that the patient is on an antacid therapy. Which of the following
should pharmacist tell to the patient?
I. He can take both drugs after meal
II. Take the other drug at least one hour before or two hours after the intake of the first drug.
III. Follow the intake of the laxative with milk for enhanced effect.
A.I only
B.II only
C.I & II
D.II & III
E.I, II ,III
18. Bisacodyl interacts with milk through what mechanism?
A. Alteration of ph
B. Complexation
C. Adsorption
D. Alteration of motility rate
E. Alteration of metabolism
19. An anti infective drug, Ciprofloxacin was prescribed to a patient. Which of the following should the
pharmacists tell the patient regarding the intake if this drug?
I. Do not take this drug concomitantly with antacid
II. Avoid taking vitamins while on Ciprofloxacin therapy.
III. Avoid taking the drug with milk.
A.I only
B.II only
C.I & II
D.II & III
E.I, II ,III
20. Mutivitamins if taken concomitantly by a patient on a Tetracycline therapy
Would likely result to:
I. decreased effectiveness of the antibiotic
II. increased effectiveness of anitibiotic
III. increased metabolism of the multivitamins
A.I only
B.II only
C.I & II
D.II & III
E.I, II ,III
21. Which of the following drugs should NOT be taken simultaneously with milk or food?
I. Tetracycline
II. Doxycycine
III. Minocycline
A.I only
B.II only
C.I & II
D.II & III
E.I, II ,III
22. Which of the following should the pharmacists note in advising a patient on Helidac therapy?
I. Tetracycline should not be taken simultaneously with Bismuth subsalicylate.
II. Bismuth subsalicylate should not be taken simultaneously with Metronidazole.
III. Tetracycline Metronidazole and Bismuth subsalicylate should be administered together
A.I only
B.II only
C.I & II
D.II & III
E.I, II ,III.
23. Cholestyramine and colestipol are known bile acid binding agents In addition to this, they can also
bind with the following drug and decreased their absorption:
I. Warfarin
II. Digoxin
III. Hydrochlorothiazide
24. The administration of cholestyramine and colestipol should be separated by a long interval from the
administration of which drugs?
I. Chenodiol
II. Ursodiol
III. Thyroid hormone
25. A patient comes to you and asks for an antidiarrheal drug, Attapulgite. Upon interviewing the
patient, you learn that she has hyperacidity and is currently on Esomeprazole therapy. As a pharmacists,
what would you advise?
I. that attapulgite has adsorptive property and can decreased the effectiveness of esomeprazole
II. that the interval between the administration of these drug should be long
III. that the patient should take Ranitidine, instead of esomeprazole
26. A patient who has rheumatoid arthritis has been prescribed with Pencillamine. Which of the
following should he avoid ingesting concomitantly with Penicillamine?
I. Antacid
II. Ferrous preparations
III. Food
27. Cathartics would likely cause:
I. Increase in GI motility
II. Increase in drug absorption
III. Decrease in drug absorption
28. Atropine would likely cause:
I. decrease absorption of Ketoconazole
II. decrease absorption of amphetamine
III. increase absorption of Omeprazole
29. Gastric Emptying time is increased by which drug/s?
I. Scopolamine
II. Pilocarpine
III. Nicotine
30. Metoclopramide would mostly likely:
I. increase motility of upper GI tract
II. increase gastric emptying time
III decrease the absorption of antacids
31. Which of the following anti effective agents should not be administered with food?
I. erythromycin stearate
II. erythromycinestolate
III. erythromycinethlysuccinate
32. The presence of food in GI tact will most likely reduce the absorption of some drugs like:
I. Griseofulvin
II. Tetracycline
III.Amoxicillin
33. Which of the following substance my markedly reduce the bioavailability of alendronate
I. Food
II. Orange juice
III. Mineral water
34. Which of the following statements is/ are correct concerning the administration of dugs with food?
I. The absorption of theophylline is increased with a low fat content of breakfast.
II. The absorption of captopril is reduced by the presence of food by 30-40%.
III. Acarbose should be administered with food to obtain optimum benefit.
35. The absorption of the following angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors is/are altered by food:
A. Captopril
B. Enalapril
C. Lisinopril
D. Ramipril
36. These are acute generalized reactions that occur when a previously sensitized person re exposed to
a particle antigen.
A. Cytotoxic reactions
B. Anaphylactic reactions
C. Immune complex mediated reaction
D. Cell mediated reactions
E. Delayed hypersensitivity reactions
37. These reactions involve the interaction of IgG or IgM. Clinical manifestations of this type reaction
include hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia and granulocytopenia.
38. These reactions result from the formation of drug antibody complexes in serum, which often deposit
in clood vessels walss, resulting in activation of complement and endothelial cell injury.
39. Rhustoxicodendron or poison ivy contains uroshiol a mixture of closely related C15 and C17
carechols. Uroshiol cause contact dermatitis. Contact dermatitis falls under what type of allergic drug
reaction?

E. Immediate hypersensitivity raction
40. The dose frequency of exposure and route of administration influence the incidence of drug allergy.
Which of he following stateents is/are true?
I. Intramusular administration is more sensitive than intravenous route.
II. In patient who is already sensitized to a specific medication, the risk of an allergic reaction to that
medication is greatest when given intravenously and least when given orally.
III. In B- lactam antibiotic IgE sensitivity, continuous therapy is more likely result in drug sensitization
rather than frequent intermittent.
41. Allergic drug reactions account for 5-20% of all the observed adverse drug reactions. The clinical
features of this type of ADR include:
42. The consumption of grapefruit juice has been reported to increase the serum concentration of some
drugs. Which of the following drugs can be affected by grapefruit juice?
I. Amlodipine
II. Lovastatin
III. Cyclosporine
43. The intake of phenelzine with cheddar or pickled fish might result to:
A. hypertensive crisis
B. sedation
C. hyperglycemia
D. hypotension
E. hyperuricemia
44. A patient has been prescribed to take the anitibioticAmpicilin. Unknown to the doctor she is also
using oral contraceptive pills and is taking this drug together with Ampicillin. This might result to:
I. increased chance of unwanted pregnancies
II. increase contraception
III. increase absorption of OCP
45. An epileptic woman takes 200mg phenytoin and 50mg of sulthiame daily ( with ferrous gluconate
and folic acid). Aside from these drugs, she is also taking oral contraceptive pills containing 0.05 ethinyl
estradiol and 3 mg northisterone acetate. What could be the probably happen to her?
I. increased chance of unwanted pregnancies
II. increased contraception
III. increased therapeutic effect OCP
46. An 8 yr old girl is on 800 carbamazepine and 50 mg phenytoin daily. Additional medication was
prescribed to her. Initially he was given 500 mg Erythromycin and later 1000mg daily. Within 2 days she
began experiencing balancing difficulties, ataxia, drowsiness, lethargy, and diplopia. This mainly due to
A. increased metabolism of carbamazepine by erythromycin
B. increased metabolism ofphenytoin by erythromycin
C. increased metabolism of erythromycin
D. decreased metabolism of carbamazepine by erythromycin
E..decreased metabolism of phenytoin by erythromycin
47. In the treatment of superficial demtophyte, Candida albicans and pityriaisisversicolorinfectons, a

patient is given 00mg itraconazole. What would possibly happen if she will take this drug daily with
breakfast?
I. increased therapeutic effect
II. decreased therapeutic effect

III. increased metabolism
48. Aman with triple coronary vessel disease and 00 mg flecainide daily for recurrent ventricular
tachycardia, developed severe tachycardia, severe cardiogenic shock within 2 days of increasing
flecainide dosage to 300 mg daily and 1 day of starting 80 mg verapamil daily. What might be
responsible for this effect?
A. increased metabolism of verapamil
B. decreased metabolism of flecainide by verapamil
C. additive effects of both drugs
D. antagonistic effects of both drugs
E. increased absorption of both drugs.
49. An elderly man was on theophylline therapy. He was also given 4g thiabendazole daily for 5 days for
Strongyloides infestation. What might probably result from this situation?
I. No interaction between the drugs
II. Decreases metabolism of theophylline
III. increased serum levels of theophylline
50. A patient with a prolonged history of paroxysmal atrial tachycardia was given quinidine. (800mg
daily) and aspirin (325 mg twice daily). After a week he showed generalized petechiae and blood in his
feces. His PT and partial PT were normal but the template bleeding time was more than 3 min. ( normal
2-10min). This is because of the :
A. increased metabolism of verapamil
B. decreased metabolism of aspirin
C. additive effect of aspirin and quinidine

D. decreased metabolism of quinidine
51. A hypertensive patient is on a 150mg guanethidine therapy. Haloperidol, an antipsychotic drug is

added, 9 mg daily, to his medication. What could you expect if his at the start is 132/95?
A.there would be a decrease in BP level
B.the BP level would approximately be the same or might increase
C.there would be an increase then followed by a sudden decrease
D. there would be fluctuation in the BP level reading
52. A patient is on constant daily doses of digoxin for 14 days. What would likely happen to his blood
digoxin levels if she is to be prescribed with amiodarone 600mg daily?
A.Increase blood levels
B.Decrease blood levels
C. No change
D.Fluctuation in the blood levels
E. Increase followed by sudden decrease
53. What is the probable mechanism of drug interaction existing between acetaminophen and
phenobarbital?
I.Increased acetaminophen clearance
II.Increased production of hepatotoxic metabolites of paracetamol
III.Increased absorption of acetaminophen
A.I only C.I and II E. I, II, and III
B.III only D. II and III
54. An epileptic on 100mg phenobarbital daily developed hepatitis after taking 1 g paracetamol daily for
3 months for headaches. What might be responsible to his hepatitis?
I.Increased or prolonged absorption of hepatitis
II.Increased metabolism of paracetamol
III.Decreased metabolism of paracetamol

A.I only C.I and II E. I, II, and III
B.II only D. II and III
55. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the use of aspirin and its interaction with
other drugs?
I.Theuricosuric effects of aspirin and probenecid are additive.
II.Theuricosuric effects of aspirin and probenecid are mutually anatagonistics.
III.Phenylbutazone increases the uricosuric effects of aspirin.
A.I only C.I and III E. I, II, and III
56. Disulfram-like reaction characterized by nausea, flushing, headache,tachycardia and dizziness can
occur in those patients taking:
I.Cefoperazone
II.Cefamandole
III.Cefotetan
57. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the concurrent use of alcohol and chloral
hydrate?
I.Alcohol and chloral hydrate are both CNS depressants thus exhibit additive effects.
II.The metabolic pathways for their elimination are mutually inhibited.
III.Trichloroethanol competitively depresses the oxidation of alcohol to aldehyde.
58. A patient is receiving Penicillamine for his arthritis. He also has hyperacidity and plans to take
Maalox. As a pharmacist, what would you advise to this patient?
I.To take his antacid in less than 1 hour before the administration of penicillamine for better
therapeutic effects of the latter
II.To tale his antacid after 2 or more hours after the administration of penicillamine for better
absorption
III.Totake the medications with milk
59. A patient who has tuberculosis is taking isoniazid as part of his medications. Which of the following
statements is/are true regarding his use of this drug together with other drugs/substances?
I.The use of fluconazole, an antifungal agent, decreases the effectiveness of isoniazid.
II.Food decreases the absorption of Isoniazid
III.Antacid decreases the absorption of Isoniazid
60. A patient on isoniazid therapy should avoid the following foods:
I.Cheese
II.Tropical fishes
III.Tuna
61. Which of the following drugs should not be administered concurrently with Warfarin as these agents
may cause increased bleeding tendencies?
I.Rifampicin
II.Carbamazepine
III.Erythromycin
A.I only C.I and III E. I,II, and III

62. A patient with prosthetic heart valve was well stabilized for several months on Warfarin. The
administration of which of the following drugs would cause him to have hemorrhagic complications like
bleeding?
I.Miconazole
II.Metronidazole
III.Methylphenidate
A. I only C. I and III E. I, II, and III
B. II only D. II and III
63. The administration of which local anesthetic/ should be avoided by a patient on sulfonamide
therapy?
I.Procaine
II.Benzocaine
III.Lidocaine
64. Four patients on sulphonamide developed local infections in areas where procaine had been injected
prior to diagnostic taps in meningitis or draining procedures in empyema. This happened due to:
I.The antibacterial effects of the sulfonamides are reduced
II.PABA, the metabolite of procaine, antagonizes sulfonamide competitively
III.Sulfonamide increases the metabolism of procaine tom PABA
A.I only C.I and III E. I,II, and III
65. A 5 year old boy is chronically treated with at least 20mg prednisone daily. Aspirin is added to her
medications while prednisone is being tapered off gradually to 2mg daily over a three period. What
would likely happen?
I.Salicylate intoxication
II.Increased clearance of aspirin
III.Increased gastrointestinal bleeding

A .I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II, and III
66. In treatment of arthritis involving indomethacin and probenecid as medications, it is necessary to:
A. increase the dosage of indomethacin because probenecid increases its clearance
B. increase the dosage of probenecid because indomethacin increases its clearance
C. reduce the dosage of indomethacin because of potential toxicity
D. reduce the dosage of probenecid because of uricosuric effects are increase
E. increase both dosages as each one can increase clearance
67. The serum salicycylate concentration of patient taking large doses of aspirin as anti inflammatory
agent can be reduce to sub therapeutic levels by concurrent use of some antacid.This statement is:
A. correct
B. incorrect
68. Caffeine + aspirin
A. caffeine increases the bioavailability of aspirin
B. caffeine increases the rate of absorption of aspirin
C. caffeine reduces the bioavailability of aspirin
D. no interaction exist
E. a&b
69. Tetracycline + diuretics
A. concurrent use should be avoided
B. increase blood urea nitrogen levels
C. no interaction exists
D. A & B
70. Teratogenic drugs causer physical defects in the developing fetus. Which pregnancy drug category is
characterized if adequate, well- controlled studies in pregnant women have not shown an increased risk
of fetal abnormalities.
A. Category A C. . Category C E. . Category X
B. . Category B D. . Category D
71.Teratogenic drugs causer physical defects in the developing fetus. Which pregnancy drug category is
characterized if adequate, well- controlled or observational, in animals or pregnant women have
demonstrated a risk to the fetus ; however the benefits of therapy may outweigh the potential risk.
A. Category A C. Category C E. Category X
B. Category B D. Category D
characterized ifanimals studies have shown an adverse effect and there are no adequate and well
controlled studies in pregnant women.
characterized if animals studies have revealed no evidence of harm to the fetus ; however there are no
adequate and well controlled studies in pregnant women ; or animal studies have shown an adverse
effect, but adequate and well controlled studies in pregnant women have failed to demonstrate a risk to
the fetus
74. Teratogenicdrugs causer physical defects in the developing fetus. Which pregnancy drug category is
characterized if the use of the product is contraindicated in women who are or may become pregnant.
75. The primary hormone responsible for controlling breast milk production is prolactin. The following
are examples of the drugs that have been used to suppress lactation:
I. bromocriptine
II. ergot alkaloids
III. methyldopa

76. Which of the following statements regarding drug interactions is true?
A. All drug interactions can potentially cause an adverse response in the patient
B. The clinical significance for each potential drug interaction must be considered individually.
C. A precipitant drugs that inhibits the metabolism of the object drug causes a more serious
drug interaction compared to a precipitant drug causing an increase in the bioavailability of the
object drug.
D. If the patient is prescribed drugs that can potentially interact, the prescriber should be called,
and a different precipitant drug should be suggested.
E. Food drug interactions are unlikely to have clinical significance.
77. This type of drug interaction is caused by a chemical or physical incompatibility when 2 or more
drugs are mixed together.
A. biopharmaceutical
B. pharmacokinetic
C. pharmacodynamics
D. pharmaceutical
E. chemical
78. Which of the following should not be mixed with an IV of aminophylline?
I. epinephrine
II. cephalothin sodium
III. erythromycingluceptate
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II, and III
79. How do you classify a drug interaction that is very likely but might not be proven clinically?
A. established C. suspected E. unlikely
B. probable D. possible
80. How do you classify a drug interaction that might occur and some data might be available?
81. How do you classify a drug interaction supported by well proven clinical studies?
82. How do you classify a drug interaction that could occur; limited data are available?
83. How do you classify a drug interaction that is doubtful; no good evidence of an altered clinical effect
is available?
84. The absorption of which drugs is increased by the presence of food?
I. Griseofulvin
II. Metoprolol
III. NSAIDs

85. A smoker was prescribed with diazepam. What would likely happen if he continuous smokes while
on drug therapy?
A. enhanced effect of drug
B. decreased effectiveness of drug
C. No effect
D. Delayed elimination of drug in the body
86. A patient with hypothyroidism was successfully treated with 0.15mg thyroxine daily for 4 yrs. When
given with 300 mg phenytoin daily, he again became hypothyroidic. This is because:
A. phenytoin increased the metabolism of thyroxine
B. phenytoin competes with the same protein binding site with that of thyroxine
C. phenytoin binds thyroxine covalently
D. phenytoin antagonizes the effect of thyroxine
87. A woman with hypothyroidism failed to respond to levothyroxine despite taking 4.8 ug/ kg daily
( three times the usual dose) while on sucralfate. Her response remained inadequate ( TSH levels high,
t4 levels low) even when the levothyroxine was taken 2.5 h after the sucralfate. This is beacause:
A. sucralfate increases the metabolism of levothyroxine
B. sucralfate competes with the same protein binding site with that levothyroxine
C. sucralfate binds with levothyroxine strongly
D. sucralfate antagonizes the effect of thyroxine
E. sucralfate increases the renal clearance of levothyroxine
88. Terfenadine is a prodrug which is metabolized first to an active carboxylic acid metabolite, and then
further oxidized to a second inactive metabolite. Which of the ff. dugs can inhibit the second metabolic
step which can lead to the accumulation of unmetabolizedterfenadine which is cardiotoxic?
I. erythromycin
II. troleandomycin
III. azithromycin

89. Which of the following antibiotics can be given to a patients on theophylline wothou special
precautions?
I. amoxicillin
II. ampicillin
III. sulbactam
90. Which of the following drugs could cause an increased loss of caffeine from the body?
A. phenytoin
B. OCPs
C. fluconazole
D. disulfiram
91. Which of the following might occur in patients who are receiving both A- inhibitors and diuretics?
I. patients may feel dizzy or light headed within an hour of taking the first dose and acute
hypotension may occur
II. hyperkalemia
III. severe renal deterioration and failure in patients with renal stenosis
92. Which of the following NSAIDs appears to interact least significantly with Captopril, an ACE inhibitor?
A. indomethacin
B. ibuprofen
C. aspirin
D. sulindac
93. Neuromuscular blockers like succinylcholine should not be used together with aminoglycosides
antibiotic like streptomycin because this can result to:
I. increased neuromuscular blockage

II. delayed recovery
III. prolong apnea
94. Which of the following statements is/ are true about interactions due to changes in excretion
I. inhalation anesthetics are excreted either in bile or in the urine
II. interference by drugs with kidney tubule fluid ph. With active transport system and with
blood flow to the kidney can alter the excretion of other drugs
III. the renal excretion of lithium is increased if the synthesis of renal vasodilatory prostaglandins
is inhibited.
95. Which of the following statements is/are true?
I. drugs which use the same active transport system in the kidney tubules can compete with one
another for the excretion
II. penicillin reduces the excretion of probenecid by competing for an excretory mechanism.
III.Methotrexate toxicity might result if this drug is used with salicylates
96.In protein binding interactions:
I. the binding of drugs to plasma proteins is reversible
II. only the unbound molecules remain free and pharmacologically active
III. only drug may successfully compete with another and displace it from sites it is already
occupying depending on their concentrations and the relative affinities for the binding sites.

97. This drug causes a malabsoption syndrome which is similar to that seen with non tropicalsprue. The
effect is impaired absorption of a number of drugs including digoxin and penicillin V.
A. neomycin
B. streptomycin
C. gentamicin
D. amikacin
E. tobramycin
98. What is/ are the possible mechanism/s involved in the interaction of quinidine on serum digoxin
levels?
A. changes in renal clearance
B. changes in non renal ( biliary) clearance
C. changes in absorption
D. changes in tissue binding
E. all mentioned above are possible mechanisms
99. Most drugs are largely absorbed in the upper part of the small intestine and drugs which alter the
rate at which the stomach empties its contents can affect absorption. Which of the following statements
is/ are true?
I. propantheline increase gastric emptying and increase paracetamol absorption
II. metoclopramide increases gastric emptying and increases paracetamol absorption.
III. benzhexol reduces the absorption of chlorpromazine
100. The following drug/s is / are considered to be enzyme including drugs:
I. glutethimide
II. primidone
III. allopurinol

101. What type of surfactant should be used to retard hydroxide ion catalyzed hydrolysis?
I. non inonic
II anionic
III. cationic
102. Which of the following statements is/ are observed to be true?
I. storage below room temperature usually will retardsolvolytic reactions
II. storage in the frozen state generally is an effective means of retarding degradative reactions
III. sodium ampicillin dissolved in 5% dextrose solution should be sold as frozen solutions in
flexible plastics bags.
103. The following statements/s is /are true about autoxidation or self oxidation:
I. this type of oxidation that occurs when solutions are exposed to atmospheric oxygen
II. this is a complex reaction that proceeds via a free radical mechanism
III. this is an autocatalytic reaction which causes a chain reaction.
104. This is a term used to describe drugs that elicit the same quality of effect and are mutually
interactive, regardless of whether there is anything in common between the separate response systems.
A. homergic
B. homodynamic
C. heterergic
D. synergistic
E. additive
105. Two dugs are said to be ____ if the drugs do not cause responses of the same quality.
A. homergic
B. homodynamic
C. heterergic
D. summative
E. synergistic
106. What specific effect is exemplified in the use of an adrenal corticoid to enhance the vasoconstrictor
response to epinephrine?
A. additive
B. summative
C. potentiation
D. synergisim
E. augmentation
107. The use of atropine to suppress the muscarinic effects of excess acetylcholine consequent to the
use of neostigmine is an example of what type of antagonism?
A. physiological antagonism
B. pharmacological antagonism
C. pharmacokinetic antagonism
D. interactive antagonism
E. mechanical antagonism
108. The use of amphetamine to correct partially the sedation caused by anticonvulsant doses of
Phenobarbital is an example of what type of antagonism?
A. competitive antagonism
B. non competitive antagonism
C. pharmacological antagonism
D. physiological antagonism
E. mechanical antagonism
109. The administration of ephedrine to correct hypotension resulting from spinal anesthesia is an
example of what type of antagonism?
A. competitive antagonism
B. noncompetitive antagonism
C. pharmacological antagonism
D. physiological antagonism
E. physical antagonism
110. In fixed dose or fixed ratio combinations, the drugs are together in the same preparation. The
statement/s is/ are true for this type of preparation:
I. patients differ in their responsivity or sensitivity to drugs and adjustments may be necessary
II. According to which way the dose may be adjusted, either toxicity or loss of the therapeutic
effect may result
III. when adverse effect to either component occur, both drugs must be discontinued.
111. Water taken concomitantly with certain drugs may increased their bioavailability. Which of the
following drugs, when administered with large amounts of water may have increased bioavailability?
I. aspirin
II. amoxicillin
III. erythromycin stearate
112. Which of the following drugs exhibit first pass metabolism?
I. ASA
II. imipramine
III. Morphine
113. Which of the following drugs is/ are more than 90% bound to plasma proteins?
I. warfarin
II. phenylbutazone
III. penicillin
114. Which of the following statements is/ are true about the clinical impact of diseases on protein
binding and displacement?
I. disease can affect the affinity of drugs for albumin
II. in chronic renal failure, the accumulated endogenous compounds which are not significantly
removed by dialysis, displace acetic drugs from albumin sites
III. in disorders in which fatty acid levels are increased, basic drugs are removed from albumin
binding sites.
115. Which of the following condition can decrease albumin level?
I. pregnancy
II. nephrotic syndrome
III. burns
116. Which of the following conditions can increase albumin level?
I. hypothyroidism
II. trauma
III. chronic liver disease
117.Which of the following conditions can cause increase a-1 acid glycoprotein in level?
I. nephrotic syndrome
II. celiac disease
III. crohn’s disease
118. A problem of increasing significance in the use of therapeutic drugs is the occurrence of drug
allergies. Drug allergies:
I. can be caused by drug interactions
II. can be caused by toxicity or overdose of drugs
III. result from an immunological response initiated by a drug metabolite
119. Drug allergies are very difficult to investigate because of several built- in complexities like:
I. drugs are degraded through a variety of enzymatic pathways, many of which are not known.
II. many medicinal agents are converted to a number of metabolites, each with slightly different
characteristics.
III. in some cases. A tiny amount of any one metabolite is all that is needed to initiate an
immune response and that amount may be so small that the metabolite may never have been identified
in laboratory studies.

120. The likelihood of the occurrence of drug allergies is influenced by any factors. Which of the
following factors may tend to increase the onset of drug allergies?
I. duration and number of courses of therapy
II. occurrence of interfering disease
III. other drugs being taken
121. Risk factors for ADRs include:
I. age of the patient
II. associated diseases
III. number of concurrent medications being taken
122. The type of medication being administered is also a risk factor in the development of ADRs. Most
studies have found that the following class cause the greatest incidence of ADRs:
I. antibiotics
II. analgesics
III. cardiovascular drugs
123. The following characterize/s type A ADR:
I .predictable
II. dose dependent
III. clearance dependent

124. Which of the following describe/s type B ADR?
I. idiosyncratic
II. dose dependent
III. allergic or immunogenic in nature
125. Carcinogenicity is under what type of ADR?
A. Type A
B. Type B
C. Type C
D. Type D
E.Type E
126. Extensive sedation caused by decreased clearance of a usual dose of a benzodiazepine is an

example of:
A. Type A
B. Type B
C. Type C
D. Type D
E.Type E
127. Anaphylaxis is:
A. Type A
B. Type B
C. Type C
D. Type D
E.Type E
128. Cardiotoxicity caused by doxorubicin is classified as what type of ADR?
A. Type A
B. Type B
C. Type C
D. Type D
E.Type E
129. This is a phenomenon in which the physiological and/ or psychological response to a substance is
decreased with continuous use of the same dose of that substance.
A. tolerance
B. withdrawal
C. dependence
D. insanity
130. This refers to the disturbing effects resulting from cessation of or reduction in, the prolonged or
heavy use of a substance.
A. tolerance
B. withdrawal
C. dependence
131. This refers to the physiological or physiological adaptations that occur in the response to the
frequent administration of a drug.
A. tolerance
B. withdrawal
C. dependence
D. psychosis
132. The acute effects of alcohol vary accordingly to the level of the drug in the blood, known as the
blood alcohol concentration ( BAC) . Which of the following are factors that influence BAC?
I. concentration of alcohol being consumed
II. rate of consumption
III. amount and composition of food in stomach
133. Gender related differences exist in pharmacological and toxicological response to alcohol. Which of
the following statements is/ are true?
I. females has a lower pass metabolism and gastric mucosal dehydrogenase activity than males
II. alcohol become more highly concentrated in males than females
III. alcohol dependence and related medial problems progress more rapidly in women than In
men.
134. A pregnant women should be advised to abstain from ingesting ethanol in any form because:
I. Children born in alcoholic mothers usually are underdeveloped and exhibit mental retardation
II. Cardiovascular aberrations including CHF and craniofacial abnormalities have been
documented as patterns of malformations in infants born to chronic alcoholic women
III. Any alcohol exposure can be harmful to an unborn child.
135. The term narcotic refers to any substance the produces stupor associated with analgesia. This term
is also applied to compounds derived from or related to opium. Which of the following is/ are true?
I. heroin is the most rapidly acting and widely abused opioids.
II. tolerance to heroin does not develop uniformly

III. With frequent repeated administration, an individual becomes dependent on heroin so that
the drug must be taken regularly to preserve a sense of well being and equilibrium and to
prevent the anguish of abstinence syndrome.
136. Which of the following drugs can be used to treat heroin addicst?
I. methadone
II. levo a- acetyl methadol
III. buprenorphine
137. Barbiturates have been used as sedative hypnotic agents. The signs and symptoms of acute
barbiturate intoxication include:
I. visual perception
II. poor judgment
III. neurological impairment
138. The excessive use of which of the following non barbiturates could result to neurological
impairment, physiological and physical dependency and abstinence syndrome similar with barbiturate
abuse?
A. choral hydrate
B.Glutethimide
C. Methaqualone
D. chlordiazepoxide
E. LSD
139. This drug is a hypnotic agent and has gained a notorious reputation as the knock out drops added to
alcohol to create a drink referred to as a Mickey finn.
A. cholral hydrate
B. glutethimide
C. methaqualone
D. chlordiazepoxide
E. LSD
140. The following statements is/ are true about inhalants:
I. inhalants are volatile chemicals that produce psychoactive effects
II. intoxication occurs rapidly and lasts only a few minutes unless taken repeatedly
III. physical dependence on inhalants also develops.
141. Marijuana ( Cannabis sativa)
I. its active component is THC, α- 9 tetrahydrocannabinol
II. prolonged used may lead to serious pulmonary toxicity
III. depending on its potency, a marijuana cigarette can produce moderate to intense
psychopharmacological effects within minutes of administration.
142. Nicotine, a volatile liquid alkaloid is the constituent of tobacco that causes dependence. The
amount of nicotine absorbed varies according to:
I. type of tobacco used
II. the length of cigarette smoked
III. presence and type of filter used

143. Nicotine:
I. causes an initial CNS stimulation then follows CNS depression
II. increases catecholamine release from peripheral adrenergic neurons
III. salivary and bronchial secretions are initially decreased but later increased
144. Clinical indications for amphetamine include:
I. management of ADHD ( hyperkinetic syndrome)
II. symptomatic control of narcolepsy
III. treatment of exogenous obesity
145. This substance have been widely abused at parties and also has been to as smooth amphetamine.
I. MDMA
II. MDA
III. Ecstasy
146. The following statements is/ are about cocaine:
I. tolerance develops vary rapidly particularly when used daily
II. the craving for cocaine during withdrawal is very intense during the first 7 days.
III. there is no good correlation between the appearance of certain physical effects and
psychological alterations
147. Toxic effects of cocaine include:

I. cardiac arrhythmias
II. myocardial infarction
III. cerebral hemorrhage
148. These are substance that alter the sensory processing in brain, causing depersonalization,
perceptual disturbances and changes in though processing.
A. hallucinogens
B. anabolic steroids
C. narcotics
D. depressants
149. This substance is one of the first phenyalkylamine hallucinogens identified and is isolated from the
flowering heads of the peyote cactus, Lophophorawilliamssi.
A. LSD
B. mescaline
C. dimethyltryptamine
D. phencyclidine
150. This substance is a short acting hallucinogen found in the seeds of Piptadeniaperegrine.
A. LSD
B. mescaline
D. phencyclidine
151. Also known as angel dust, this is chemically and pharmacologically similar to a dissociative
anesthetic, ketamine:
A. LSD
B. mescaline
D. phencyclidine
152. Anabolic steroids are synthetic derivatives of the male hormone testosterone. The compounds
promote:
I. masculine characteristics
II. skeletal muscle enlargement
III. increase lean mass
153. This/ these substance/s should be avoided when dispensing alum in powders because of the
development of gray or green colors due to the traces of iron in alum.
I. phenol
II. tannic acid
III. salicylates
154. Soluble zinc salts are precipitated as zinc hydroxide by alkali hydroxides including ammonium
hydroxide. Which of the following may also cause precipitation?
I. phosphates
II. oxalates
III. arsenates
155. Sodium borate can precipitate zinc salt as zinc borate. This incompatibility can be prevented by the
addition of an amount of_____ equal in weight to the sodium borate.
A. mineral oil
B. alcohol
C. NaCl
D. glycerin
E. methanol
156. Camphor is a ketone obtained from Cinnamomumcamphora. It is precipitated from its alcoholic
solution by the addition of which substance?
A. water
B. glycerin
C. alcohol
D. phenol
E. chloral hydrate
157. Which of the following substance or compounds would tend to form a liquid or soft mass when
brought in contact with camphor?
I. chloral hydrate
II. phenol
III. salicylic acid
158. Antacid are drugs that react with HCL to form salt and water. Antacids when absorbed can cause:
I. alkalosis
II. electrolyte imbalance
III. renal failure with milk alkali syndrome
159. Prolonged treatment with Aluminum containing antacids might cause:
I. neurotoxicity
II. phosphate depletion
III. osteoporosis
160. Which of the following statements is/are true about Bismuth subsalicylate?
I. its excreted as bismuth sulfate
II. it may cause ringing of the ears when taken with aspirin
III. causes temporary darkening of stool and tongue
161. Which of the following statements is/ are true abiut calcium carbonate?
I. it is a systemic antacid
II. it can cause milk- alkali syndrome
III. it can cause diarrhea
162. This antacid is a partial systemic antacid an is contraindicated for the patients on sodium restricted
diet?
A. Calcium carbonate
B. Magnesium hydroxide
C. Dihydroxyaluminum sodium carbonate
D. Bismuth subsalicylate
E. Magnesium trisilicate
163. Sodium bicarbonate is a systematic antacid. It reacts with HCI to produce CO2. In which conditions
should one limit the use of this antacid?
I. Renal failure
II. Hypertension
III. Cardiac failure
A. I only C. I and II E. I, II, and III
164. Antacid are used commonly in combination for the purpose of:
I. Combining fast and slow reacting antacids to obtain a product with a rapid onset and
relatively eve, sustained action.
II. Lower the dose of each component and minimize the possibility of certain adverse
effects
III. Use one component to antagonize one or more side effects of the other component
165. Cimetidine has been reported to reduce hepatic metabolism of drugs that are metabolized
primarily by cytochrome P450. Therefore, which drugs should be used with caution with cimetidine?
I. Warfarin
II. Phenytoin
III. Lidocaine
166. What is the pregnancy category of lansoprazole, a proton pump inhibitor?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. X
167. Pectin is a purified carbohydrate obtained from the dilute acid extract inner portion of the rind of
citrus fruits or from apple pomace. It is precipitated form the solution by an excess of___
A. Water
B. Alcohol
C. Acid
D. Glycerin
E. Benzene
168. Pectin is more stable in what type of solution?
A. Cold acid solution

B. Cold alkali solution
C. Solution of metals
D. Hot acid solution
E. Hot alkali solution
169. Which of the following statements is/are true about Diazoxide?
I. It is benzothiazide and thus, is also a diuretic

II. It can cause hyperglycemia thus, it is occasionally necessary to administer OHAs or
insulin to suppress hyperglycemia.
III. It can precipitate CHF especially if renal function is impaired.
170. Which of the following vasodilators can be used to treat toxemia of pregnancy?
A. Diazoxide
B. Hydralazine
C. Minoxidil
D. Nitroprusside
E. Amlodipine
171. Ganglionic blocking agents are contraindicated in which conditions?
I. Pyloric stenosis
II. Glaucoma
III. Myocardial infarction
172. ACE inhibitors are becoming the drugs of choice as the first line treatment of essential
hypertension. However when used with NSAIDs, the following can be noticed:
I. NSAIDs tend to increase the hypotensive effects of ACE inhibitors

II. NSAIDs tend to increase the likelihood of hyperkalemia
III. NSAIDs tend to decrease the hypotensive effects of ACE inhibitors
173. in patients on ACE inhibitors, the excretion of which ion or metal is reduced and thus tends to
produce intoxication?
A. Lithium
B. Sodium
C. Calcium
D. Magnesium
E. Chloride
174. the following effects can be observed in patients on ACE inhibitors therapy:
I. Angioedema
II. First dose hypotension especially in patient on diuretics
III. Dry cough
A. I only C. I and II E. I, II and III
175. Cardiac glycosides have a low margin of safety, Toxicity is more likely in the presence of what
condition?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypocalcemia
E. Hypermagnesemia
176. The use of which drugs can precipitate digitalis intoxication?
I. IV Calcium salts
II. Amphotericin B
III. Mineralocorticoids
177. Aminophylline is indicated for bronchial asthma and for reversible bronchospasm associated with
chronic bronchitis and emphysema. It is approximately 80% theophylline. Which of the following can
cause precipitation of theophylline from aminophylline solution?
A. HCI
B. NaOH
C. NaCI
D. Water
E. Na2SO4
178. a1 agonist are contraindicated in patient with:
I. Arteriosclerosis
II. Hypotension
III. Coronary artery disease
A. I only C. I and III E. I, II, and iii
179.Epinephrine may cause severe cardiovascular side effects due to excessive alpha and beta receptor
stimulation. It should be used cautiously in patients who are:
I. Receiving halogenated hydrocarbon anesthetics

II. Hyperthyroidic
III. Diabetic
A. I only C. I and III E. I, II and III
180. When oxidized, that is when exposed to air light, heat and alkalies, epinephrine develops
a________ color.
A. Green
B. Pink
C. Yellow
D. Orange
E. Red
181. Muscarinic drugs should be used cautiously in patients with:
I. Open angle glaucoma

II. Hypertension
III. Hyperthyroidism
182. Physostigmine salicylate is used to treat poisoning by ant muscarinic agents, H1 antihistamines and
TCAs. Aqueous solutions tend to develop a___ color upon standing which signifies loss of potency.
A. Green
B. Brown
C. Red
D. Orange
E. Blue
183. A solution of Physostigmine salicylate which has lost potency should not be dispensed. To prevent
this from occurring, what should be added in small amount?
A. NaOH
B. Sodium carbonate
C. Boric acid
D. Water
E. NaCI
184. Which of the following statements is are correct for guanethidine?
I. It is used in the treatment of mild to moderate hypertension.

II. This drug is contraindicated in patients on MAOIs.
III. This drug is indicated for the treatment of pheochromocytoma.
185. Ant muscarinic drugs like atropine are used for anesthetic premedication, to inhibit excessive
salivary and bronchial secretions and prevent laryngospasm and bronchospasm. However, these drugs
are contraindicated to conditions like:
I. Narrow- angle glaucoma

II. Intestinal obstruction
III. Paralytic ileus
186. These drugs should be avoided when taking succinylcholine due to the possibility of increasing the
blocking effect of this neuromuscular blocking agent.
I. Propranolol
II. Trimethaphan
III. Halothane
187. Muscle paralysis with the depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs is increased by which
conditions?
A. Hyperthermia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypomagnesium
D. Hyponatremia
E. Hypochloremia
188. Which of the following statements is are true for glucocorticoids?
I. These drugs decrease the hypoglycemic activity of insulin and OHAs.

II. These drugs may precipitate hypokalemia with amphotericin B.
III. These drugs decrease the ulcerogenic effects of NSAIDs.
189. It is necessary to increase the dose of the adrenal corticosteroids when used with these drugs
because they increase the metabolic clearance of the corticosteroids.
I. Phenytoin
II. Rifampicin
III. Estrogen
B. II only D. II and II
190. Which of the following statements is/ are correct for codeine?
I. it can be precipitated from its aqueous solution by most alkaloidal precipitants.
II. it can be precipitated from its aqueous by sodium or potassium carbonate.
III. aqueous solutions are sufficiently alkaline to precipitate other less soluble alkaloids from solutions of
their salts
191. Naloxone hydrochloride, a synthetic narcotic antagonists which is essentially devoid of narcotic
agonist properties, is incomplete with:
I. long chain or high MW anions
II. alkaline solutions
III. oxidizing ah=gents
192. Which of the following drugs can produce a disulfiram like reaction when taken with alcohol?
I. Metronidazole
II. Cephalosporin
III. Milk

193. The following are guidelines for reducing drug interactions:
I. employ combination therapy
II. identify risk factors
III. educate the patient
194. Chloramphenicol can lead to this untoward drug reaction:
I. aplastic anemia
II. gray syndrome
III. SLE like syndrome
195. The most important protein to which drugs can bind in the plasma:
A. albumin
B. lipoprotein
C. glycoprotein
D.α 1 acid glycoprotein
E. globulin
196. A drug induced hypersensitivity reaction caused by sulfonamides:
I. Parkinson’s Disease
II. Steven Johnson’s disease
III. Contact dermatitis
197. Characterizes the first exposure of the fraction of the drug metabolized in the liver:
A. first pass effect
B. drug receptor interaction
C. biotransformation
D. pharmacokinetics
E. clearance
198. Compounding is concerned with:
I. preparation of drugs
II. distribution of drugs
III. order of medicine
199. An associated pharmacological effect of Chlorpheniramine maleate?
I. sedation
II. headache
III.nausea
200. HLB is a system used to distinguish between
I. Suspending agents
II. Surfactants
III. Glidants
A. I only
B. II only
C. I & II
D. II & III
E. I, II, III
201. This container is impervious to air and other gases under ordinary conditions of handling storage
and transport:
A. Airtight container
B. Security closed
C. Hermetically sealed
D. Child-resistant
E. Tightly closed
202. Diuretics tend to enhance lithium toxicity due to:
I. Direct drug interaction
II.Sodium depletion
III. Potassium depletion
A. I only
B. II only
C. I & II
D. II & III
E. I, II, III
203. All of the following are untoward effects associated with cancer chemotheraphy:
I. Teratogenesis
II. Nausea
III. Alopecia and leukemia
A.I only
B. II only
C.I & II
D. II & III
E. I , II ,III
204. Involves the degradation of the drug or excipients trough reaction with the solvents presents in the
formulations:
A. Solvolysis
B. Oxidation
C. Photolysis
D. Polymerization
205. Degradation of drugs of excipients molecules brought by light, either room light or sunlight:
A. Solvolysis
B. Oxidation
C. Photolysis
D. Polymerization
206. Remedy when a solid sunbstancefails to dissolved in a liquid:
I. Addition of inert ingredients
II. Prepare an emulsion
III.Prepare a suspension
A. I only
B. II only
C. I & II
D. II & III
E. I, II, III
208. It occurs when drugs are mixed inappropriately in syringes of infusion prior to administration:
I. Pharmaceutical interaction
II. Pharmacodynamic interaction
III. Pharmacokinetic interaction
A. I only
B. II only
C. I & II
D. II & III
E. I, II, III
209.Decreased urinary recycling causes:
I. Increased elimination rate
II. Shortened duration of pharmacologic response
III.Increasedhalflife
A. I only
B. II only
C. I & II
D. II & III
E. I, II, III
210. Which statements is are correct regarding the interaction between tyramine and MAOIs?
I. Large amount of norepinephrine can cause severe headache and hypertension
II. The interaction would cause an increase in intracellular metabolism of tyramine
III. Large amounts of stored norepinephrine can cause hypotensive crisis
A. I only
B. II only
C. I & II
D.II & III
E. I, II, III
211. Acidic group of amino acids responsible for binding basic drugs:
A. Aspartic
B. Glutamic
C. Lysine
D. A & B only
E. AOTA
212. The approved clinical used of the based on substantial evidence of the safety of the drug:
A. Warning
B Formulation
C. Pharmacologic category
D. Indication
E. NOTA
213. Instruction and special care to avoid effects and to ensure the safe and effective use of the product:
A. Warning
B. Precautions
C. Contraindications
D. Indication
E.NOTA
214. This contains the conditions to which the use of the product is known to be associated to an
unacceptable risk.
A. Warning
B. Precaution
C. Contraindication
D. Indication
E. NOTA
215. Mixtures of phenolic aldehydes, ketonic compounds and alcohols are example of:
A. Insoluble substances
B. Hygroscopic substances
C. Deliquescent substances
D.Eutectic mixtures
EA&D
216. Substances which absorb moisture form the air but do not dissolve are called:
A. Hygroscopic powders
B. Effervescent powders
C. Deliquescent powders
D. Anhydrous powders
E. Efflorescent powders
217. alkaline salts like phenytoin sodium when placed in an acidic medium will results in:
I. Precipitation of phenytoin
II. Insolubility
III. Conversion into free acid
A. I only
B.II only
C. I & II
D. II & III
E. I, II, III
218. S pans and tweens are:
A. Highly polymerized mannuronic acid anhydrides
B. Phospoholipids
C. Polyoxyalkalene derivatives
D. Glycosides
E. NOTA
219. Which of the following drugs undergoes marked hydrolysis in the GI tract?
A. ASA
B. Penicillin G
C. Acetaminophen
D. Hydrocortisone
E. Chlortetracycline
220. Lidocaine HCI is not administered orally because:
I. Ineffective by this route
II. Can cause arrhythmias
III. Too toxic by this route
A. I only
B. II only
C. I & II
D. II & III
E. I, II, III
221. The following responses belong to type B adverse drug reaction:
I. Facial abnormalities in babies born to alcoholic mother
II. Peripheral neuritis in British missionary ill with tuberculosis
III. Allergy of Cefotaxime
A. I only
B. II only
C I & II
D. II & III
E. I, II, III
222. The most serious drug-induced blood disorder:
A. Aplastic anemia
B. Leukemia
C .Agranulocytosis
D. Thrombocytopenia
223. A reaction that is noxious and unintended and occurs in doses used in man for prophylaxis,
diagnosis and theraphy:
A. Drug interaction
B. ADR
C. Adverse drug event
D. Pharmacodynamics effects
E. NOTA
224. the degradation reaction of ASA involves:
A. Hydrolysis
B. Racemization
C. Oxidation
D. Photolysis
E. Reduction
225. Alcohol is a specific potentiating agent when used with:
A. Penicillin
B. Racemization
C. Oxidation
D. Photolysis
E. Reduction
226. Which of the following statement is/are true about lidocaine HCI?
A. Coadministration with propranolol decreases activity
B. Concomitant administration with phenytoin may induce excessive cardiac depression
C. Additive neurological effects may be produced during concurrent administration with

procainamide
D. B & C only
E. AOTA
227. If a therapeutic intervention is necessary all of the following information should be communicated
to the presciber:
I. A declaration that a “ mistake was made”
II. A brief description of the problem
III. A reference source that documents the problem
A. I only
B. II only
C. II& II
D.II & III
E. I, II, III
228. The following information should be recorded on a prescription:
I. Prescription number
II. Date of filling
III. Expiration date
A. I only
B. II only
C. I & II
D. II & III
E. I, II, III
229. The following are drug-related problems which need an immediate attention:
I. Adverse effects from medication
II. Symptoms due to undertreatment
III. Undiagnosed condition
A. I only
B. II only
C. I & II
D. II & III
E. I, II, III
230. Auxiliary and cautionary labels should be utilized for the purposed of:
A. Ensuring proper usage
B. Informing of storage requirements
C. Warning against concomitant use of certain drugs or foods
D. A & B only
E. AOTA
231. Salicylates are used to relive mild to moderate pain and reduce inflammation and fever, however,
they create interaction when used other drugs. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
I. They potentiate the effect of anticoagulants and thrombolytic agents.
II. They potentiate (at anti-inflammatory doses) the effects of hypoglycemic.
III. They potentiate the adverse gastrointestinal reaction resulting from chronic NSAID use.
A. I only
B. II only
C. I & II
D.II & III
E.I, II, III
232. Which of the following antipyretics should not be used together with Zidovudine?
A. ASA
B. Acetaminophen
C. Ibuprofen
D. A & B only
E. All of the above

233. Acetaminophen should be used with caution in patients who are:
A. Prone to bleeding disorders
B. Sensitive to GI disturbances caused by salicylates
C. Active alcohol drinkers
D. A & C only
E. All of the above
234. All OTC first generation antihistamines have sedative effects but vary in the degree of drowsiness
produced. Which of the following generation antihistamines has the most sedating effect?
A.Brompheniramine
B. Chlorpheniramine
C. Pheniramine
D. Pyrilamine
E. Disphenhydramine
235. Which of the following classes of first-generation antihistamines act as the most potent HI
antagonists and have lower incidence of drowsiness when compared to others?
A. Alkylamines
B. Ethylenediamines
C. Ethanolamines
D. Piperidines
236. Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine and antitussive agent. Which of the following statements
is/are correct for diphenhydramine?
I. Acts peripherally to elicit its antitussive effect.
II. It may produce sedation
III. It may produce symptoms of dry mouth, blurred vision and urinary retention
A. I only
B. II only
C. I & II
D. II & III
E. I, II, III
237. What laxative should be recommended to pregnant patients?
A. Bisacodyl
B. Castor oil
C. Mineral oil
D. Psyllium
E. Sennosides
238. Mineral oil works at the colon to increase water retention in the stool to soften the stool. Mineral
oil should not be given to patients with:
A. Rectal bleeding
B. Appendicitis
C. Lipid pneumonitis
D. A & C only
E. AOTA
239. Mineral oil as a laxative should be given:
A. On an empty stomach
B. To children less than 6 years old
C. Dsyphagic patients
D. A & C
E. NOTA
240. Which local anesthetic should be used to treat symptoms of pain, itching, burning and discomfort in
patients with an established lidocaine allergy?
A. Tetracaine
B. Dibucaine
C. Pramoxine
D. Benzocaine
E. AOTA
241. Which of the following drugs most commonly causes constipation?
A. Ampicillin
B. Narcotic analgesics
C .Drugs with anticholinergic properties
D. B & C only
E. AOTA
242. The use of garlic is used with caution in patients who are:
A. Diabetic
B. Pregnant
C. With peptic ulcer
D. B & C only
E. AOTA
243. Which of the following statements is/are correct about ginger?
A. It is contraindicated for gallstone pain
B. It is suggested to avoid the use of ginger for the treatment of postoperative nausea
C. It acts as uterine relaxant in low doses and acts as uterine stimulant in high doses
D. A & B only
E. AOTA
244. Teratogenic drugs cause physical defects in developing fetus and this risk is highest the first
trimester. Which of the following is/are teratogenic drugs.
A. Warfarin
B. Tretinoin
C. ACE inhibitor
D. A & B only
E. AOTA
245. Which of the following analgesics is safe and effective for pregnant patients?
A. Ibuprofen
B. Acetaminophen
C. Narcotic analgesics
D. Naproxen
E. A & D only
246. Ebstein’s anomaly also known as tricuspid valve malformation can results from the administration
of this drug during the first trimester of pregnancy.
A .Lithium salts
B. Anticonvulsants
C. Antibiotics
D. NSAIDS
247. Fetotoxic drug effects are the results of the pharmacological activity of the drug that may
physiologically affect the developing fetus. Clinically significant fetotoxic effects include:
A. CNS depression
B. Constriction of the ductusarteriousus
C. Reduced birth weight
D. A & C only
E. AOTA
248. These drugs should be used with caution in nursing mothers:
A. Narcotics
B. Barbiturates
C. Anticholinergics
D. A & B only
E. AOTA
249. Which of the following statements is/are true for geriatric patients?
A .Elderly patients are at increased risk for drug-induced adverse effects
B. Incidence of ADRS in patients over the age of 65 is 2-3 greater compared to younger patients.
C. ADRs are overlooked in some patients because they mimic the characteristics of other
diseases
D. A & B only
E. AOTA
250. These are factors responsible for the higher prevalence of ADRs in the geriatric population:
A. Polypharmacy
B. Multiple disease states
C. Reduced drug elimination
D. B & C only
E. AOTA
251. Which of the following medications may have the potential to cause falls in geriatric patients?
A. Amitrytilline
B. Trazodone
C. Acetaminophen with codeine
D. Diazepam
E. AOTA
252. When selecting a benzodiazepine product for a woman who has chronic panic disorder, all of the
following drug properties are desirable for breast feeding her 8 month old infant who was born at term:
A. Hepatic metabolism to inactive metabolites
B. Short half life
C. Tendency to bind to milk proteins
D. A & B only
E AOTA
253. Which of the following drugs is expected to cause anticholinergic adverse effects in the elderly?
A. Propoxyphene
B. Ciprofloxacin
C .Amitryptilline
D. Propranolol
E.Cimetidine
254. Which of the following antihypertensive agents should be avoided in elderly patients?
A. Amlodipine 5mg OD
B. Atenolol 25mg OD
C. Benazepril 10mg OD
D. Hydrochlorothiazide 25mg OD
E. Methyldopa 250mg TID
255. Which of following benzodiazepines is expected to cause the LEAST amount of adverse effects in
the elderly?
A.Chlordiazepoxide
B. Diazepam
C. Flurazepam
D. Oxazepam
E. Temazepam
256. Which of the following calcium channel blockers has been associated with a significant degree of
constipation?
A. Nifedipine
B. Diltiazem
C. Verapamil
D. Amlodipine
E. Felodipine
257. A positive Coombs’ test develops in 25% of the patients who take this drug:
A. Captopril
B. Metoprolol
C. Methyldopa
D. Clonidine
E. Nifedipine
258. Beta blockers should be used with caution in patients who are:
A. Diabetic
B. Hypertensive
C. With glaucoma
D. Hyperthyroid
E. With history of migraine
259. Hydralazine is a vasodilator which directly relaxes arterioles and decreases systematic vascular
resistance. This drug can induce:
A. SLE
B. Reflex tachycardia
C. Hypertrichosis
D. Methemoglobinemia
E. Aplastic anemia
260. Long standing hypertension leads to tissue damage in all of the following organs:
A. Heart
B. Lungs
C. Kidneys
D. A & C only
E. AOTA
262. First dose syncope, postural hypotension and palpitations are common side effects of which drug?
A. Ramipril
B. Methyldopa
C. Nitroprusside
D. Prazosin
E. Nadolol
263. Aminoglycosides can cause serious adverse effects like ototoxicity. Which drugs can cause
vestibular damage?
A. Amikacin
B. Kanamycin
C. Neomycin
D Gentamicin
E. AOTA
264. Aminoglycosides are bactericidal and inhibit bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 30s
ribosomal subunit which of the following aminoglycosides is the most nephrotoxic?
A. Kanamycin
B. Streptomycin
C.Amikacin
D. Gentamicin
E.Neomycin
265. This is the least nephrotoxic of the aminoglycoside group of antibiotics:
A. Kanamycin
B. Streptomycin
C. Amikacin
D. Gentamicin
E. Neomycin
266. This is the only aminoglycoside that can result to both auditory and vestibular damage:
A. Tobramycin
B. Gentamicin
C. Streptomycin
D. Netilmicin
E. Amikacin
267. Nearly all cephalosporins are renally eliminated, thus their doses must be adjusted for patients with
renal impairment. Which of the following cephalosporins is/are not renally excreted?
A.Cefaclor
B. Cefuroxime
C. Cephalexin
D. Cefoperazone
E.AOTA
268. An elderly patient taking 160mg gliclazide daily developed very blood sugar levels after starting
treatment with 800mg cimetidine daily. This is because:
A. Cimetidine inhibits the metabolism of gliclalzide
B. Cimetidine induces the metabolism of gliclazide
C. Cimetidine inhibits the absorption of cimetidine
D. Additive effects of gliclazide and cimetidine
E. A & D
269. A diabetic woman under treatment with glibenclamide experienced an acute hypoglycemic episode
4 days after beginning to take 200mg phenylbutazone three times a day, although there was no change
in his diet or in the dosage of glibenclamide. This is because
A. Additive effects of the 2 drugs

B. Phenylbutazone displaces glibenclamide from the protein binding sites
C. Phenylbutazone inhibits the renal excretion of glibenclamide
D. B & C only
E.AOTA
270. Diabetic patients with severe falciparum malaria were treated with quinine. They were also under
treatment with chlorpropramide. What would most likely happen given this situation?
A.( sirwala pong nakalagaydito )
B. The patient will experience severe hypoglycemia
C. The patient will still have elevated blood sugar level.
D. The patient will not recover form malaria
E. The patient will manifest quinine toxicity.
271. This has been associated with use of Zafirlukast and Montelukas:
A .Gray syndrome
B. Tumor lysis syndrome
C. Churg- strauss syndrome
D. Herxheimer reaction
272. Osteoporosis is associated with the use of which of the following drugs used in RA?
A. Prednisone
B. Methotrexate
C. Penicillamine
D. Gold salts
E. Hydroxychloroquine
273. In which of the following groups do all four drugs warrant careful monitoring for drug-related
seizures in high risk patients?
A. Penicillin G, imipenem, amphotericin B, metronidazole
B. Penicillin G, chloramphenicol, tetracycline, vancomycin

C. Imipenem, tetracycline, vancomycin,sulfadiazine
D. Cycloserine, metronidazole, vancomycin, sulfadiazine
E.Metronidazole, imipenem, doxycycline, erythromycin
274. all of the following factors may increase the risk of nephrotoxicity from gentamicin therapy:
A. Age over 70 years
B. Concurrent cisplatin therapy
C. Concurrent amphotericin b therapy
D. A & B only
E. AOTA
275. These are diseases or conditions that alter antiepileptic drug- protein bindings:
I. Hyperalbuminea
II. Liver disease
III. Burns
A. I only
B. II only
C. I & II
D. II & III
E.I, II, III
276. Which of the following antiepileptic drug increases the level of carbamazepine?
A. Phenytoin
B. Primidone
C. Phenobarbital
D.Valproic acid
277. False-positive urine ketone tests may results in patients taking this antiepileptic drug:
A. Valproic acid
B. Carbamazepine
C. Primidone
D. Phenytoin
278. This antiepileptic drug has an auto induction metabolism property:
A. Phenytoin
B. Carbamazepine
C. Valproic acid
D. Primidone
E. Ethosuximide
279. These medications decrease the levels of phenytoin, carbamazepine, phenobarbital and primidone
by enhancing their metabolism:
A. Oral contraceptives
B. Oral hypoglycemic
C. Glucocorticoids
D. TCAs
E. AOTA
280. Which anticonvulsive drug has a higher incidence of kidney stones among its users?
A. Phenytoin
B. Carbamazepine
C. Topiramate
D. Tiagabine
281. Which of the following anticonvulsants is contraindicated in patients with a history of

hypersensitivity to tricyclic antidepressants?
A. Phenytoin
B. Ethosuximide
C. Acetazolamide
D. Cabamazepine
282. This anti-parkinsonian agent may cause a first-dose phenomenon that can trigger sudden
cardiovascular collapse.
A. Bromocriptine
B. Selegiline
C. Pergolide
D. Amantadine
E. NOTA
283. Bromocriptine is responsible for directly stimulating postsynaptic dopamine receptors. It is most
commonly used as an adjunct to levodopa therapy in patients:
I. With a deteriorating response to levodopa
II. With a limited clinical response to levodopa secondary to an inability to tolerate higher doses
III. Who are experiencing fluctuation in response to levodopa
A. I only
B. II only
C. I & II
D. II & III
E. I, II, III
284. This medication is commonly used as an adjustment with levodopa/carbidopa when patients
experience a “wearing-off” phenomenon.
A. Bromocriptine
B. Selegiline
C. Pergolide
D. Amantadine
E. Pramipexole
285. Levodopa is associated with which of the following problems?

A. GI disturbances
B. Postural hypotension
C. Dystonia
D. Depression
E. AOTA
286. Which of the following mood stabilizers would be most appropriate in a patient with liver disease?
A. Lithium
B. Valproic acid
C. Carbamazepine
D. AOTA
287. Cimetidine, the first H2-receptor antagonist approved for clinical use may be associated to which
adverse effects?
A. Thrombocytopenia
B. Agranulocytosis
C. Aplastic anemia
D. A & B
E. AOTA
288. Proton pump inhibitors (PPI) are more potent than H2 blockers. The absorption/bioavailability of
this PPI is not reduced or delayed by food:
A. Esomeprazole
B. Lansoprazole
C. Omeprazole
D. Pantoprazole
289. Which of the following antacid cannot be used by patients with heart failure?
A. Sodium bicarbonate
B. Aluminum hydroxide
C. Calcium carbonate
D. Magnesium hydroxide
290. Patients taking chlorpropamide should avoid products containing:
A. Acetaminophen
B. Ethanol
C. Vitamin A
D. Penicillin
E. Milk products
291. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (SPS) is a potassium-removing resin that exchange sodium ions for
potassium ions in the intestine. Adverse effects of SPS include:
A. Constipation
B. Diarrhea
C. Vomiting
D. B & C only
E.AOTA
292. Loop diuretics like Furosemide, inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption at the loop of henle,
promoting water excretion. These agents may cause:
A. Hypercalcemia
B. Hypermagnesemia
C. Hypokalemia
D .B & C only
E.AOTA
293. Life threatening cardiac arrhythmias due to hyperkalemia should be treated with:
A. Calcium chloride or calcium gluconate IV
B. Digoxin or other digitalis preparations
C. Loop diuretics to rapidly eliminate potassium

D .Sodium polystyrene sulfonate
294. Erythropoietin is used commonly to treat the anemia associated with chronic renal failure. Which
of the following conditions limits the effectiveness of erythropoietin?
A. Patient’s allergy to erythropoietin
B .Depletion of iron stores, requiring oral or parenteral supplementation
C. The ineffectiveness if erythropoietin as 30% of patients do not respond
D. The anemia of chronic renal failure is not due to a lack of erythropoietin so erythropoietin will
not ameliorate.
295. This chemotherapeutic agent is most likely associated with cardio toxicity:
A .Vincristine
B. Doxorubicin
C. Paclitaxel
D. Bleomycin
296 This chemotherapeutic agents is most likely associated with pulmonary toxicity:
A. Vincristine
B .Doxorubicin
C. Paclitaxel
D. Bleomycin
297. Tramadol is an oral, centrally acting analgesic with weak opiate activity. Which of the following
statements is/are true about tramadol?
I. It can increase the sedative effect of alcohol and hypnotics.
II. It inhibits monoamine uptake and should not be used with MAOIs
III. It can cause “serotonim syndrome” when used with SSRIs
A. I only
B. II only
C. I & II
D. II & III
E. I, II, III
298. Potential adverse effects of aspirin include:
I.GI ulceration
II.Hypersensitivity asthma
III.Cardiac arrhythmias
A. I only
B. I only
C.I & II
D.II & III
E.I, II, III
299. These are agents that are safe to use in a patient with bleeding problems:
I.Choline Mg trisalicylate
II.Acetaminophen
III.Ketorolac
A. I only
B. II only
C. I & II
D .II & III
E. I, II, III
300. Leflunomide which is used for RA and has been associated with diarrhea, alopecia and anemia is
under what pregnancy category?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. X

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DISPENSING, INCOMPATIBILITIES AND ADVERSE DRUG REACTIONS

I. A prescription is an order for medication issued by a physician, a dentist or other properly

III. A prescription designates a specific medication and dosage to be administered to a particular

A .I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B.III only D. II and III

2. The following is/are part/s of a prescription

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

5. This is an example of a subscription:

D. Shake well before using

6. This is an example of signa

D. Shake well before using

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

I. Prescription bottles are used to dispense viscous liquids.

9. The concept of drug interaction includes:

I. drug foof interactions

II. druglaboratorty test iteractions

III. dru disease interactions

D.II & III

II. Herbal products are free from drug interactions.

I. Multiple pharmacologic effects

III. Use of non prescription drugs

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

12. The following is/are true on the incompatibilities of aqueous acids.

13. In aquoes solutions, alcohol may precipaitate:

D.II & III

I. They lend themselves well to dilution with aqueous solutions

D.II & III

A. Decreased effectiveness of antifungal agent

B. Decareased activity of histamine H2 receptor antagonist

C. Enhanced activity of antifungal agent

D. Increased activity of antihistamine

E. No significant alteration of the effectiveness of both drugs

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

I. He can take both drugs after meal

D.II & III

18. Bisacodyl interacts with milk through what mechanism?

D. Alteration of motility rate

I. Do not take this drug concomitantly with antacid

II. Avoid taking vitamins while on Ciprofloxacin therapy.

III. Avoid taking the drug with milk.

D.II & III

20. Mutivitamins if taken concomitantly by a patient on a Tetracycline therapy

Would likely result to:

I. decreased effectiveness of the antibiotic

II. increased effectiveness of anitibiotic

III. increased metabolism of the multivitamins

D.II & III

D.II & III

I. Tetracycline should not be taken simultaneously with Bismuth subsalicylate.

II. Bismuth subsalicylate should not be taken simultaneously with Metronidazole.

III. Tetracycline Metronidazole and Bismuth subsalicylate should be administered together

D.II & III

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

III. Thyroid hormone

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III