A 1.

All of the following are diseases transmitted sexually:

I. Zika Virus
II. Gonorrhea
III. Chlamydia
IV. Trichomonas

A. I, II, III, IV C.II, III

B. II, III, IV D. II

B 2. A reaction of two molecules of water forms hydronium ions. This chemical process is known as:
A. Autocatalytic reaction C. Levelling effect
B. Autoprolytic reaction D. Protolytic reaction

A 3. Preparation of single-dose is classified as:

A. Low risk C. High risk
B. Medium risk D. Intermediate risk

A 4. New castle disease is also known as:

A. H5N1 C. H2N1
B. H1N1 D. H2N3

C 5. Which of the following are true about foot and mouth disease?
I. It is known as hoof and mouth disease
II. It affects cattle
III. It is caused by a bacterium

A. I, II, III C. I, II
B. I, III D. I

C 6. All of the following are examples of live attenuated vaccines, except:

A. Measles C. Hepatitis C
B. Varicella D. BCG

C 7. Organic liquids such as mineral oil yield what spreading coefficient with water?
A. Positive C. Negative
B. Negative One D. Zero

B 8. Human breast milk is more acidic than plasma. Which of the following statements are true?
I. Weak drugs will cross the breast milk in non-ionized form
II. Weak drugs will cross the breast milk in ionized form
III. Basic drugs will cross the breast milk in non-polar form
IV. Basic drugs will cross the breast milk in polar form

A. I, III C. II, IV
B. I, IV D. II, III

MRLCARDONA | PREVIOUS BOARD EXAMINATION QUESTIONS 1

C 9. Transamination is a process involved in protein metabolism. Which of the processes would likely
to happen after?
I. Oxidation of Carbon
II. Formation of Glucose
III. Synthesis of Amino acid
IV. Synthesis of Fatty acids

A. I, II, III C. I, II, IV

B. I, III, IV D. II, III, IV

A 10. Washing soda is chemically known as:

A. Sodium sulfate decahydrate C. Sodium sulfate dihydrate
B. Sodium sulfate anhydrous D. Magnesium sulfate

B 11. Which of the following metals has a diuretic action?

A. Sodium C. Lithium
B. Potassium D. Cesium

D 12. Which of the following identification tests is used to detect the presence of nitrates?
A. Cobalt Uranyl test C. Bicarbonate test
B. Marsh test D. Brown ring test

A 13. Which of the following statements are true about resonance structure?
I. Resonance is not an example of isomer
II. Resonance has two or more configurations
III. Resonance differs only in position of electrons
IV. Resonance has configuration in the position of atoms

A. I, II, III C. III, IV

B. II, III, IV D. II, I

C 14. Which of the following drugs may exhibit a suicidal risk for patients?
A. Anticonvulsant C. Antidepressants
B. Antiparkinson D. Anesthetic

A 15. Which of the following enzymes is involved in heme synthesis?

A. ALA synthase C. Cytochrome oxidase
B. Pyruvate kinase D. PFK-2

A 16. What part of lagundi, Vitex negundo is used for the treatment of asthma?
A. Leaves C. Roots
B. Stem D. Flowers

D 17. Which of the following is a serotonin agonist?

A. Misoprostol C. Cyproheptadiene
B. Ondansetron D. Cisapride

MRLCARDONA | PREVIOUS BOARD EXAMINATION QUESTIONS 2

B 18. Which of the following statements are true about clozapine?
I. It is used for psychosis
II. It is not a dopamine antagonist
III. It causes less extrapyramidal symptoms

A. I, II, III C. I, II
B. I, III D. II, III

C 19. Which of the following enzyme markers is used for diagnosis of pancreatic cancer?
A. Amylase C. Lipase
B. AST D. LDH

D 20. Which of the following acts as irreversible inhibitor of H-K ATPase pump?
A. Sucralfate C. Pepto-Bismol
B. Cimetidine D. Pantoprazole

A 21. Which of the following ketone is obtained from Cinnamomum camphora?

A. Camphor C. Thujone
B. Cineol D. Carvone

D 22. Which of the following is an example of fourth generation cephalosporin?

A. Cefalexin C. Cefradine
B. Loracarbef D. Cefepime

A 23. Which of the following is the drug of choice for status epilepticus?
A. Diazepam C. Clozapine
B. Temazepam D. Resperidone

B 24. Which of the following statements are true for antimalarial drugs?
I. It is used for the treatment of Plasmodium infected patients
II. It is used for the prevention of malaria
III. It is used to prevent antibacterial resistance
IV. It is used as routine administration for people traveling in endemic areas

A. I, II, III C. I, III, IV

B. I, II, IV D. II, III, IV

C 25. Which of the following is/are inhaled anesthetics?

I. Ketamine
II. Propofol
III. Sevoflurane
IV. Thiopental

A. I, II, III, IV C. III

B. I, III D. II, III

A 26. What is the scientific name of Fish tapeworm?

A. Diphyllobothrium latum C. Taenia saginata
B. Taenia solium D. Echinococcus spp.

MRLCARDONA | PREVIOUS BOARD EXAMINATION QUESTIONS 3

B 27. Which of the following vitamins are involved in carboxylation reactions?
A. Folic acid C. Retinol
B. Biotin D. Thiamine

C 28. Which of the following vitamins has reduced absorption during an infection of fish tapeworms?
A. Thiamine C. Cyanocobalamin
B. B. Pyridoxine D. Folic acid

C 29. RDA is used for:

A. Calorie intake C. Vitamins
B. Legend drugs D. OTC medications

B 30. Which of the following is an alcohol dehydrogenase inhibitor?

A. Propylene glycol C. Disulfiram
B. Fomepizole D. Diazepam

A 31. Which of the following is the antidote for benzodiazepine toxicity?

A. Flumazenil C. Lorazepam
B. Ethanol D. Methanol

A 32. Which of the following is an ethanolamine antihistamine?

A. Dimenhydrinate C. Loratadine
B. Cyproheptadine D. Cetirizine

D 33. Which of the following are examples of autacoids?

A. Serotonin, Ergonovine, Melatonin C. Serotonin, Histamine, Melatonin
B. Serotonin, Substance P, Sumatriptan D. Serotonin, Nitric oxide, Histamine

A 34. Which of the following groups is known as pnictogens?

A. Nitrogen group C. Carbon group
B. Halogen group D. Oxygen group

B 35. Which of the following groups is known as crystallogen?

A. Nitrogen group C. Halogen group
B. Carbon group D. Oxygen group

A 36. Which of the following groups is known as icosagen?

A. Boron group C. Carbon group
B. Nitrogen group D. Oxygen group

B 37. Which of the following is an example of a triad?

A. Fe, Cu, Ni C. Ru, Rh, Pt
B. Fe, Co, Ni D. Os, Ir, Ag

A 38. Proteins and Carbohydrates = 4 kcal/g; Fats = 9 kcal/g. This is used for:
A. Calorie intake C. Maintenance medicine
B. RDA D. Dietary source

MRLCARDONA | PREVIOUS BOARD EXAMINATION QUESTIONS 4

A 39. Which of the following is an example of non-polar amino acids?
I. Proline
II. Valine
III. Histidine
IV. Serine

A. I, II C. II, III
B. I, III D. II, IV

C 40. Phenytoin is a highly protein bound drug. What will happen when a more albumin-bound drug
displaces phenytoin?
A. Increases clearance C. Increase effect
B. Increases metabolism D. Increase absorption

A 41. What is the main effect of digoxin?

A. Increase contractility C. Decrease contractility
B. Increase heart rate D. Decrease heart rate

A 42. Which of the following drugs are metabolized via CYP2C9 isoform?
I. Warfarin
II. Phenytoin
III. Antipsychotic
IV. Clopidogrel

A. I, II C. III, IV
B. II, III D. I, IV

C 43. Which of the following is true about boric acid?

I. It is used as an eyewash
II. It is an antibiotic
III. It is a weak germicide

A. I, II, III C. I, III

B. I, II D. I

D 44. Which of the following yields alpha-amino acids and their derivatives upon hydrolysis?
A. Conjugated protein C. Metalloprotein
B. Simple protein D. Derived protein

B 45. Which of the following is used for TDM?

I. It is the careful monitoring of drug-urine concentration
II. It is required for drug like phenytoin
III. It is used for narrow therapeutic window drugs

A. I, II, III C. I, III

B. II, III D. III

C 46. What is the generic name of Arcoxia?

A. Celecoxib C. Etoricoxib
B. Rofecoxib D. Aspirin

MRLCARDONA | PREVIOUS BOARD EXAMINATION QUESTIONS 5

C 47. Which of the following is true about streptokinase and aspirin?
A. Streptokinase is an antiplatelet which C. Streptokinase is an fibrinolytic which
dissolves clot. Aspirin is fibrinolytic dissolves clot. Aspirin is antiplatelet
which prevents the formation of which prevents the formation of thrombus.
thrombus.
B. Streptokinase is a fibrinolytic which D. Streptokinase is an antifibrinolytic
prevents the formation of thrombus. which dissolves clot. Aspirin is an
Aspirin is an antiplatelet which antiplatelet which prevents the
dissolves clot. formation of thrombus.

A 48. What is the scientific name of eggplant?

A. Solanum melongena C. Solanum lycopersicum
B. Solanum tuberosum D. Solanum elongate

A 49. Which of the following is used against human lice?

A. Permethrin C. Sulfur
B. Crotamiton D. Lindane

C 50. Which of the following are fat-soluble vitamins?

A. A, C C. D, E
B. D, B D. K, C

A 51. Tetrahydrocannabinol and Progesterone (as shown) are:

A. Constitutional isomer C. Geometric isomer
B. Optical isomer D. Enantiomer

A 52. THC is isolated from what plant?

A. Indian hemp C. Hellebore
B. Black hemp D. Adonis

B 53. Which of the following is not found in RNA?

A. UMP C. CMP
B. TMP D. AMP

D 54. Which of the following are preventive measures when compounding neoplastic agents?
I. Use of double-latex gloves
II. Use of horizontal air flow
III. Use of positive pressure when getting liquids from ampules

A. I, II, III C. I, III

B. I, II D. I

C 55. Which of the following are examples of steroidal glycosides?

I. Digoxin
II. Sanguinarine
III. Strophantin
IV. Convallarin

A. I, II, III C. I, III, IV

B. I, II, IV D. II, III, IV

MRLCARDONA | PREVIOUS BOARD EXAMINATION QUESTIONS 6

B 56. Which of the following is true about reaction order?
A. The rate of reaction is affected by C. The rate of reaction is neither affected
concentration of the product by product and reactant
B. The rate of reaction is affected by D. The rate of reactant is always
concentrations of the product and dependent on concentration
reactants

C 57. Which of the following neoplastic agents are derived from Camptotheca?
A. Taxol C. Irinotecan
B. Vinblastine D. Nitrogen mustard

A 58. Cytotoxic agents are referred to as:

A. Antineoplastic C. Antidiabetic
B. Anibiotic D. Antihyperlipidemia

A 59. Arrange the following solvents by decreasing polarity:

I. Water
II. Alcohol
III. Toluene

A. I, II, III C. III, II, I

B. II, III, I D. I, III, II

D 60. Which of the following metals are amphoteric?

I. Bismuth
II. Aluminum
III. Zinc
IV. Calcium

A. I, II C. I, IV
B. I, III D. II, III

C 61. Which of the following are examples of aldehyde volatile oils?

I. Hamamelis
II. Rose
III. Orange
IV. Cinnamon

A. I, II, III C. I, III, IV

B. II, III, IV D. I, II, IV

D 62. Which of the following volatile oils are extracted using water and steam distillation?
I. Peppermint
II. Clove oil
III. Cinnamon oil
IV. Pine

A. I, II C. I, IV
B. I, III D. II, III

MRLCARDONA | PREVIOUS BOARD EXAMINATION QUESTIONS 7

A 63. Which of the following processes is used for petals?
A. Enfleurage C. Dry distillation
B. Ecuelle D. Steam distillation

A 64. Which of the following functional group is RCOR?

A. Ketone C. Ether
B. Ester D. Carboxylic acid

A 65. Glauber’s salt is chemically known as:

A. Sodium sulfate C. Calcium sulfate
B. Magnesium sulfate D. Barium sulfate

D 66. Which of the following is Rochelle salt?

A. KNaC6H6O6 C. KSbC4H4O6
B. KSbC4H4O6 D. KNaC4H4O6

A 67. Antimetabolite which inhibits pyrimidine synthesis:

A. Methotrexate C. Azathioprine
B. Hydroxycholoroquine D. Leflunomide

D 68. Which of the following metals is used to treat arthritis?

A. Barium C. Copper
B. Silver D. Gold

A 69. Which of the following is used to treat neuropathic pain?

A. Gabapentin C. Phenytoin
B. Diazepam D. Morphine

A 70. Which of the following is true about Koch’s Postulate?

I. Pathogen must be present in all cases of the disease
II. Pathogen can be isolated from the healthy host and grown in pure culture
III. Pathogen from the pure culture must cause the disease when inoculated into a healthy,
susceptible laboratory animal
IV. Pathogen must be reisolated from the new host and shown to be the same as the originally
inoculated pathogen

A. I, III, IV C. I, II, III

B. I, II, IV D. II, III, IV

B 71. Pinus palustris is a resin known as:

I. Rosin
II. Copaiba
III. Colophony
IV. Mayapple

A. I, II C. II, III
B. I, III D. II, IV

D 72. What is the scientific name of rice?

A. Solanum tuberosum C. Allium sativum
B. Allium cepa D. Oryza sativa

MRLCARDONA | PREVIOUS BOARD EXAMINATION QUESTIONS 8

C 73. Salt peter is chemically known as:
A. Potassium nitrite C. Potassium nitrate
B. Sodium nitrate D. Sodium nitrate

D 74. Which of the following poison is best found in paints, lacquers and thinners?
A. Benzene C. Mercury
B. Aniline D. Toluene

A 75. Fluorometry is performed in _________ region.

A. UV C. Infrared
B. Visible D. X-ray

A 76. Which of the following are examples of cyanogenic glycosides?

I. Manihot esculenta
II. Black mustard
III. White mustard
IV. Prunus amygdalus

A. I, IV C. II, IV
B. II, III D. I, III

B 77. Baking soda is chemically known as:

A. Sodium carbonate C. Calcium carbonate
B. Sodium bicarbonate D. Sodium phosphate

C 78. Selegiline is used as:

A. Anticancer C. Antiparkinson
B. Anticonvulsant D. Antipsychotic

B 79. HLB value of surfactant:

A. 1-3 C. 3-6
B. 13-15 D. 12-18

C 80. Goulards’s extract is chemically known as:

A. Lead oxide C. Lead subacetate
B. Lead sulfate D. Lead chloride

D 81. The physician only writes the generic name in the prescription. What type of prescription is this?
A. Erroneous C. Impossible
B. Violative D. Correct

A 82. Rofecoxib (Vioxx) was withdrawn from the market due to:
A. Cardiovascular effects C. Hepatotoxicity
B. Neurotoxicity D. Renal failure

A 83. A test used to determine the percent loss during transport:

A. Friability C. Weight variation
B. Thickness D. Bioavailability

MRLCARDONA | PREVIOUS BOARD EXAMINATION QUESTIONS 9

C 84. Which of the following plants belong to the family Cucurbitaceae?
I. Cucumber
II. Squash
III. Atsuete
IV. Melon

A. I, II, III C. I, II, IV

B. I, III, IV D. II, III, IV

A 85. It is a phenomenon that can be detected by someone other than the individual affected by the
disease:
A. Sign C. Diagnosis
B. Symptoms D. Treatment

A 86. Alpha-naphthol test is known as:

A. Molisch C. Tauber
B. Seliwanoff D. Kedde

D 87. Which of the following are essential amino acids?

I. Glycine
II. Phenylalanine
III. Alanine
IV. Arginine

A. I, II C. III, IV
B. II, III D. II, IV

A 88. A titrimetric analysis where potassium dichromate is used as titrant:

A. Mohr C. Volhard
B. Fajan D. Liebig

A 89. Which of the following is derived from non-animal source?

A. Echinaceae C. Lanolin
B. Beeswax D. Insulin

A 90. An indicator which turns pink on basin environment while colorless on acidic:
A. Phenolphthalein C. Methyl orange
B. Methyl red D. Thymol blue

C 91. Which of the following belong to the family Solanaceae?

I. Atropine
II. Cocaine
III. Opium
IV. Daturine

A. I, II, III C. I, II, IV

B. I, III, IV D. II, III, IV

B 92. A hair-like appendage found on the surface of many bacteria required for bacterial conjugation:
A. Flagella C. Capsule
B. Pili D. LPS

MRLCARDONA | PREVIOUS BOARD EXAMINATION QUESTIONS 10

B 93. Which of the following is derived from Apis meliferae?
A. Lanolin C. Ceryl ceroate
B. White wax D. Myricyl stearate

B 94. Which of the following identification tests detects the presence of peptide linkages?
A. Ninhydrin C. Sakaguchi
B. Biuret Hopkins-cole

C 95. Which of the following statements are true about protein denaturation?
I. Denaturation of proteins involves the disruption and possible destruction of both the
secondary and tertiary structures only.
II. Heat can be used to disrupt hydrogen bonds, peptide linkage and non-polar hydrophobic
interaction.
III. Addition of alcohol may disrupt the hydrogen bonds of tertiary structures.
IV. Addition of heavy metal may disrupt disulfide bonds.

A. I, II, III C. I, III, IV

B. I, II, IV D. II, III, IV

C 96. It is a waxy substance found in the head cavities of the whale, Physeter macrocephalus?
A. Ambergis C. Spermaceti
B. Brazillian wax D. Lanolin

C 97. Which of the following drugs is added in small amount with penicillin altering its excretion?
A. Cilastatin C. Probenecid
B. Clavulanic acid D. Folinic acid

D 98. If Drug A is a potent inhibitor of cytochome oxidase. What would like happen to Drug B if it is
metabolized by the same enzyme?

A. Increase metabolism C. Increase potency

B. Increase clearance D. Increase effect

A 99. It relates the intensity of response to the size of the dose and, hence, are useful to characterize the
actions of drugs:
A. Graded concentration-response curves C. Michaelis-Menten curve
B. Quantal concentration-response curve D. Lineweaver-Burk plot

A 100. Riboflavin is assayed using ____________

A. Fluorometry C. NMR
B. Turbidimetry D. Nephelometry

A 101. Which of the following vitamins are required during pregnancy?

I. Folic acid
II. Iron
III. Thiamine

A. I, II, III C. I, III

B. I, II D. I

MRLCARDONA | PREVIOUS BOARD EXAMINATION QUESTIONS 11

A 102. Methylmorphine is known as:
A. Codeine C. Heroin
B. Hydromorphine D. Methadone

A 103. 2 to 8 degree Celsius is categorized as:

A. Cold C. Room temperature
B. Cool D. Warm
B 104. Which of the following is the drug of choice for acute gout?
A. Allopurinol C. Probenecid
B. Colchicine D. Indomethacin

A 105. Tacrine is used for:

A. Alzheimer C Psychosis
B. Parkinson D. Depression

D 106. Which of the following is used to test mutagenicity?

A. AST C. Phenol Coefficient
B. LAL D. Ame’s test

A 107. Which of the following is considered as ignition at constant weight?

A. 800 25 degree Celsius C. 675 25 degree Celsius
B. 700 25 degree Celsius D. 750 25 degree Celsius

B 108. Which of the following test is used for endotoxin?

A. Head-drop test C. Leaker’s test
B. LAL D. Friability

A 109. It refers to the measurement of total alkaloidal content:

A. Proximate C. Quantitative
B. Ultimate D. Qualitative

A 110. Which of the following is true about Mantoux reaction?

I. It is known as purified protein derivative
II. Tuberculin skin testing is done befor BCG vaccination for all children older than 3 months
III. It is used as screening for tuberculosis

A. I, II, III C. I, II
B. I, III D. III

B 111. Which of the following vitamins are present in fish oils?

A. A, K C. C, D
B. A, D D. A, E

A 112. It yields pale green color in non-luminous flame:

A. Barium C. Lithium
B. Sodium D. Calcium

D 113. It is a glycogen storage disease II:

A. Von Gierke C. Andersen
B. McArdie D. Pompe

MRLCARDONA | PREVIOUS BOARD EXAMINATION QUESTIONS 12

A 114. Which of the following is the main manifestation of ebola virus?
A. Pneumonia C. Cancer
B. Hepatitis D. Hemorrhagic fever

B 115. It is the temperature at and above which vapor of the substance cannot be liquefied, no matter
how much pressure is applied:
A. Critical pressure C. Upper consolute temperature
B. Critical temperature D. Specific gravity

B 116. Alzheimer’s disease is caused by the accumulation of:

A. Acetylcholine C. Alpha amyloid
B. Beta amyloid D. Serotonin

B 117. It is the chemical name of Plaster of Paris:

A. Calcium sulfate dihydrate C. Sodium sulfate
B. Calcium sulfate hemihydrates D. Copper sulfate

C 118. Cream of tartar is chemically known as:

A. Potassium bitartrate C. Antimony potassium tartrate
B. Sodium chloride D. Copper sulfate

C 119. All of the following are examples of algae, except?

A. Dinoflagellate C. Plasmodium
B. Diatom D. Phaeophyceae

C 120. Which of the following is the proper mixing of dextrose, fatty acids, and amino acids?
A. Fatty acids + dextrose then amino C. Amino acids + fatty acids then
Acids dextrose
B. Amino acids + dextrose then amino D. Amino acids + fatty acids then
acids + diluent dextrose

C 121. It is a lipid-soluble artemisinin which may be administered as oral, intramuscular and rectal
administration:
A. Artesunate C. Arthemeter
B. DIhydroartemisinin D. Artemisinin

B 122. It is a water-soluble artemisinin analogue useful for oral administration only:

A. Artemisinin C. Artesunate
B. Dihydroartemisinin D. Arthemeter

B 123. How many high-energy phosphate bond(s) is /are present in ATP?

A. 1 C. 3
B. 2 D. 0

B 124. Which of the following are hygroscopic substances?

I. Sucrose
II. Zinc chloride
III. Calcium chloride
IV. Cellulose

A. I, II C. II, III
B. I, IV D. II, IV

MRLCARDONA | PREVIOUS BOARD EXAMINATION QUESTIONS 13

A 125. Which of the following are examples of deliquescent substances?
I. Sodium hydroxide
II. Calcium chloride
III. Sucrose
IV. Sodium chloride

A. I, II C. III, IV
B. II, III D. II, IV

C 126. Which of the following are examples of amphoteric substance?

A. CO, Zn, Sn, Na, Al, C C. Cu, Zn, Sn, Pb, Al, Be
B. Co, Fe, Sn, Pb, Al, K D. Co, Cr, Sn, Pb, Al, Li

D 127. Akaptonuria is caused by the lack of an enzyme called:

A. Phenylalanine hydroxylase C. Ferrochelatase
B. PFK-2 D. Homogentisate oxidase

A 128. Which of the following is the structure of Morephine?

A. C.

B. D.

D 129. Rod-shaped bacteria curved to form commas are known as:

A. Bacilli C. Spiral
B. Cocci D. Vibrios

D 130. The heat-stable lipopolysaccharide in the outer membrane of gram-negative cell wall that is
toxic to the host is known as:
A. Tetanospamin C. Aflatoxin
B. Enterotoxin D. Endotoxin

C 131. Thioglycollate agar is an example of:

A. Enriched media C. Anaerobic media
B. Selective media D. Drifferential media

C 132. A phenomenon wherein an organism exhibits plasticity:

A. Dimorphism C. Pleomorphism
B. Polymorphism D. Fleximorphism

MRLCARDONA | PREVIOUS BOARD EXAMINATION QUESTIONS 14

C 133. These are straight filaments arising from the bacterial cell wall, making the bacterium look like
porcupine:
A. Capsules C. Fimbriae
B. Endospores D. Flagella

D 134. Know as the “sugar cup”

A. Fimbriae C. Slime layer
B. Capsule D. Glycocalyx

B 135. Phase in the bacterial growth curve wherein microorganism are highly susceptible to the
action of antibiotics:
A. Lag phase C. Stationary phase
B. Log phase D. Death phase

D 136. H antigens are usually found in the:

A. Fimbriae C. Pili
B. Glycocalyx D. Flagella

B 137. Aka “jumping genes”:

A. Plasmids C. F factors
B. Transposons D. Chromosomes

D 138. Integral proteins which form channels through both leaflets of the outer membrane
of the outer membrane of gram negative bacteria:
A. Lipopolysaccharide layer C. Lipid A
B. Endotoxin D. Porins

A 139. Streptococci are incubated in a blood agar plate overnight. Which of the following reactions
show beta hemolytic streptococci?
A. Completely lysed the RBC C. Unable to hemolyse the RBC
B. Partially lyse the RBC D. Leave a greenish discoloration

A 140. Which of the following diseases is cause by an endotoxin release of Staphylococcus aureus?
A. Gastroenteritis C. Meningitis
B. Osteomyelitis D. Pneumonia

D 141. Subacute bacterial endocarditis is cused by:

A. Staphylococcus aureus C. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Staphylococcus saprophyticus D. Streptococcus viridians

D 142. Which of the following is true of Staphylococcus epidermidis?

I. Catalase positive
II. Coagualse positive
III. Facultative anaerobe

A. I only C. III only

B. I and II D. I and III

C 143. Quellung test is used to test for the presence of:

A. Streptococcus pyogenes C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Staphylococcus aureus D. Mycoplasma pneumonia

MRLCARDONA | PREVIOUS BOARD EXAMINATION QUESTIONS 15

A 144. Characterized with marked by hypotension, and scarlatiniform rash, followed by
desquamation:
A. Toxic shock syndrome C. Botulism
B. Cholera D. Tetanus

B 145. Majority of the coagulase negative Staphylococcal hinfection cases involving prosthetic heart
valve eendocarditis are caused by:
A. Staphylococcus aureus C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
B. Staphylococcus epidermidis D. Staphylococcus hemolyticus

C 146. The break down of connective tissue and muscle is a characteristic of the flesh eating strep,
which is caused by:
A. Streptococcus pneumonia C.Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Staphylococcus aureus D. Enterococcus faecalis

C 147. “Swimmer’s ear” is an infection caused by Streptococcus pneumonia which is also known as:
A. Otitis media C. Otitis externa
B. Eustachian tube dysfunction D. A and B

D 148. All of the following statements are true regarding the Viridans Streptococci, EXCEPT:
A. Produces alpha hemolysis on BAM C. Most common cause of subacute bacterial
B. Strep. mutans can produce dextran endocarditis
which enables it to cause dental D. Inhibited by optochin
caries

A 149. The time between infection and occurrence of the first symptoms orsigns of disease:
A. Incubation period C. Convalescence
B. Illness D. Prodromal period

C 150. Involves the spread of pathogens farther than 1 meter to the respiratory mucous membranes of
a new host via an aerosol:
A. Direct contact C. Airborne transmission
B. Indirect contact D.Waterborne transmission

A 151. The sudden unexpected occurrence of a disease in a given population:

A. Outbreak C. Zoonotic
B. Endemic D. Sporadic

C 152. Proteinaceous infectious agents capable of causing fatal neurodegenerative disorders in both
humans and animals:
A. Viruses C. Prions
B. Virions D. Cysts

D 153. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE regarding prions and prion diseases?
A. Trigger normal proteins in the brain C. Sometimes transmitted to humans by infected
to fold abnormally meat products
B. Prion diseases can affect both human D. All of the above
and animals

E 154. Which of the following can be found in a patient with a prion disease?
A. Involuntary movements C. Psychiatric symptoms E. AOTA
B. Ataxia D. Rapid progressive dementia

MRLCARDONA | PREVIOUS BOARD EXAMINATION QUESTIONS 16

D 155. Which of the following disease causing is the most resistant?
A. Endospores C. Viruses
B. Cysts of protozoa D. Prions

D 156. Which of the following DO NOT contribute to the spread of antibiotic resistance?
A. Use of treatment of flu C. Use of antibacterial soaps and cleansing solutions
B. Given in animal husbandry and D. None of the above
fisheries

C 156. Involves the acquisition of foreign DNA by taking up DNA from dead lysed cells:
A. Conjugation C. Transformation
B. Transposition D. Transduction

C 157. In bacterial conjugation, DNA can be transferred in the form of:

A. Chromosome C. Plasmid
B. Transposons D. Phage

C 158. Refers to the mere presence of microbes in or on the body:

A. Infection C. Contamination
B. Disease D. All of the above

B 159. The degree/measure of the ability of the microorganism to cause a disease:

A. Pathogenicity C. Disease
B. Virulence D. Pathology

A 160. Inanimate objects that are inadvertently used to transfer pathogens to new hosts:
A. Fomites C. Droplet nuclei
B. Portals D. Reservoirs

B 161. Conferring of immunity from the mother to the developing fetus involves the transfer of what
immunoglobulin?
A. IgA C. IgM
B. IgG D. IgD

A 162. An index that measures the number of individuals who have become ill of a specific disease
within a susceptible population during a specific period:
A. Morbidity rate C. Mortality rate
B. Prevalence rate D. All of the above

B 163. Administration of a toxoid confers:

A. Naturally acquired active immunity C. Naturally acquired passive immunity
B. Artificially acquired active immunity D. Artificially acquired passive immunity

A 165. The “four o’clock habit” promoted by the DOH is designed to prevet the spread of:
A. Dengue fever C. Malnutrition
B. Tuberculosis D. Malaria

A 166. The firt line of defense against viruses is:

A. Interferon C. IgG directed to external viral antigens
B. IgM directed to internal viral antigen D. All of the above

MRLCARDONA | PREVIOUS BOARD EXAMINATION QUESTIONS 17

B 167. A vaccine produced from an extra-cellular toxi bacterial product that is made non-toxic, but
maintains antigenicity, is known as:
A. Killed organism C. Live attenuated organism
B. Toxoid D. B and C

A 168. The following are zoonotic diseases, except:

A. Mumps C. Anthrax
B. Leptospirosis D. Brucellosis

D 169. The following are communicable disease, except:

A. Measles C. Hepatitis
B. Pneumonia D. Tetanus

C 170. Vitamin B deficiency caused by alcoholism produces a neurological disorder called:

A. Down Syndrome C. Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome
B. Stevens Johnson Syndrome D. A and B

C 171 The irreversible stage of alcohol damage characterized by liver enlargement:

A. Cirrhosis C. Fatty live
B. Alcoholic hepatitits D. All of the above

D 172. Bacterial genes responsible for drug resistance are known as:
A. F plasmids C. Transposons
B. R plasmids D. Both B and C

A 173. A process of gene transfer where the carrier of DNA is a vius:

A. Transduction C. Transformation
B. Conjugation D. Transposition

A 174. An algae group responsible for red tide poisoning:

A. Dinoflagellate C. Euglenoid
B. Diatom D. None of the above

D 175. Its main objective is attainment by all people of the highest possible level of health:
A. Philhealth C. Unicef
B. DOH Hospitals D. WHO

A 176. Its function is mainly to serve as an advisory body to the local executivr on local legislative in
health related matters:
A. DOH C. FDA
B. WHO D. Sentrong Sigla

C 177. Another priority program of DOH, which emphasizespartnership and shared responsibility for
health among various sectors:
A. Health sector reform agenda C. National health objectives
B. Healthy passport initiative D. Sentrong sigla

C 178. A DOH program in the 80’s which is now being revived which aims to put a stop to smoking its
damging effects:
A. Cigarette ban C. Yosi kadiri
B. No smoking in public places D. Increased taxation of cigarettes

MRLCARDONA | PREVIOUS BOARD EXAMINATION QUESTIONS 18

B 179. Backyard gardening community project and putting of herbal plants are among the major
activities under this program:
A. Araw ng Sangkap Pinoy C. National drug policy program
B. WHO D. Nutrition program

A 180. The most appropriate disposition is:

A. Perform stage 2 then evaluate C. Reject the batch
B. Accept the batch D. Perform stage 2 and 3 then evaluate

B 181. Which of the following features characterizes the autonomic nervous system?
A. Single neuron transmission C. Effects under volitional control
B. Presence of ganglia D. Conveys outputs from the CNS to the skeletal muscle

D 182. The preganglionic fibers of the sympathetic nervous system originate which roots?
A. Cranial nerves III, VII, IX, X C. Cervial roots C1-C7
B. Sacral roots S1-S4 D. Thoracolumbar roots

A 183. What neurotransmitter is released by the preganglionic fiber as a response to sympathetic

solution?
A. Acetylcholine C. Epinephrine
B. Norepinephrine D. Serotonin

A 184.What is the neurotransmitter mainly released by postganglionic parasympathetic fibers?

A. Acetylcholine C. Epinephrine
B. Norepinephrine D. 5-Hydroxytryptamine

D 185. In synaptic neurotransmission, which of the following ions plays a significant role in
neurotransmitter release?
A. Sodium C. Magnesium
B. Potassium D. Calcium

D 186. The primary mechanism of neurotransmitter release is accomplished by what process?

A. Diffusion C. Active transport
B. Carrier-mediated D. Exocytosis

C 187. What is the amino acid precursor in the synthesis of catecholamine?

A. Phenylalanine C. Tyrosine
B. Glycine D. Tryptamine

B 188. In the biosynthesis of Norepinephrine, what step is considered as rate-limiting step?

A. Active uptake of tyrosine C. Conversion of DOPA to dopamine
B. Conversion of tyrosine to D. Uptake of dopamine in presynaptic storage vesicles
dihydroxyphenylalanine

B 189. Reserpine, an alkaloid from Rauwolfia, can lower the blood pressure and depress the CNS.
What enzyme or part of the biosynthetic pathway is inhibited by Reserpine to bring about these effect?
A. DOPA decarboxylase C. Release of Norepinephrine from presynaptic terminal
B. Storage of catecholamine in the D. MAO enzyme
presynaptic vesicles

MRLCARDONA | PREVIOUS BOARD EXAMINATION QUESTIONS 19

D 190. What is the most important mechanism of termination of effects of released Norepinephrine
which is the target of action of tricyclic antidepressants and cocaine?
A. Degradation by COMT C. Sequestration into cells
B. Degradation by MAO D. Reuptake in to the presynaptic terminal

B 191. Which of the following is an expected response to alpha-1 adrenoceptor stimulation?

A. Uterine smooth muscle relaxation C. Ciliary’s muscle relaxation
B. Gastrointestinal sphincter, constriction D. Platelet aggregation

D 192. A given adrenergic agent induces uterine relaxation and bronchial smooth muscle relaxation.
These effects can be attributed to:
A. Alpha-1 stimulation C. Beta-1 inhibition
B. Alpha-2 stimulation D. Beta-2 stimulation

D 193. What is the dominant adrenergic receptor in the heart?

A. Dopamine-1 C. Alpha-2
B. Alpha-1 D. Beta-1

D 194. In the adrenal medulla, norepinephrine is converted to epinephrine by the action of which
enzyme?
A. DOPA decarboxylase C. Catechol-O-methyltransferase
B. Tyrosine hydroxylas D. Phenylethylamine N-methyltransferase

A 195.Which of the following drugs primarily stimulates beta-1 receptor?

A. Dobutamine C. Yohimbine
B. Ritodrine D. Phenoxybenzamine

A 196. Betanechol is clinically used for which of the following conditions?

A. Urinary retention in neurogenic bladder C. Chronic galucome
B. Intestinal obstruction D. Supraventricular tachycardia

B 197. Ambenonium, neostigmine and pyridostigmine are most commonly used for which conditions?
A. Atropine overdose C. Bronchial asthma
B. Myasthenia gravis D. COPD

B 198. Which of the following equations describe the factors that contribute to blood pressure?
A. BP = SV/SVR C. BP = SV x HR
B. BP = CO x SVR D. BP = CO/SVR

D 199. Which of the following is not an expected symptom of poisoning with

isoflurophate/organophosphate?
A. Paralysis of skeletal muscle C. Miosis
B. Increased bronchial secretion D. Tachycardia

A 200. Which one of the following drugs most closely resembles atropine in its pharmacologic actions?
A. Scopolamine C. Acetylcholine
B. Physostigmine D. Carbachol

MRLCARDONA | PREVIOUS BOARD EXAMINATION QUESTIONS 20

D 201. A 50- year old male farm worker is brought to the emergency room. He was found confuse in
the orchard and since then has last consciousness. His heart rate is 45 and blood pressure is 80/40 mmHg.
He is sweating salivating profusely. Which of the following treatment is indicated?
A. Physostigmine C. Trimethaphan
B. Norepinephrine D. Atropine

C 202. Which one from the following drugs does not produce miosis (marked constriction of the
pupil)?
A. Carbachol C. Atropine
B. Isoflurophate D.Pilocarpine

C 203. A child swallowed the contents of 2 bottles of a nasal decongestant whose primary ingredient is
a potent, selective alpha adrenoceptor agonist drug. The signs of alpha activation that may occur in this
patient include:
A. Bronchodilation C. Pupillary dilation (mydriasis)
B. Cardioacceleration (tachycardia) D. Vasodilation

C 204. Full activation of the sympatheric nervous system, as in macimal exercise, can produce all of
the following responses. EXCEPT:
A. Bronchodilation C. Increased renal blood flow
C. Decreased intestinal motility D. Mydriasis

A 205. If the effector cell in the diagram is a thermoregulatory sweat gland?

A. Acetylcholine C. Epinephrine
B. Dopamine D. Norepinephrine

A 206. Nicotinic receptor sites include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A. Bronchial smooth muscle C. Parasympathetic ganglia
B. Adrenal medullary cells D. Skeletal muscle

D 207. Several children at summer camp were hospitalized with symptoms thought to be due to
ingestion of food containing botulinum toxin. The effects of botulinum toxin are likely to include:
A. Bronchospasm C. Diarrhea
B. Accomodation D. Increase heart rate

A 208. The neurotransmitter agent that is normally release in the sinoatrial node of the heart in
response to a blood pressure increase is:
A. Acetylcholine C. Epinephrine
B. Dopamine D. Glutamate

D 209. Parathion has which of the following characterisctics?

A. It is inactivated by conversion C. It is poorly absorbed through skin and lungs
to paraoxon
B. It is less toxic to humans than D. Its toxicity, if treated early, may be partly
malathion reversed by pralidoxime

D 210. A crop duster pilot has been accidentally exposed to a high concentration of an agricultural
organophosphate insecticide. If untreated the cause of death from such poisoning would probably be:
A. Cardiac arrhythmia C. Heart failure
B. Gastrointestinal bleeding D. Reduced gastric acid secretion

MRLCARDONA | PREVIOUS BOARD EXAMINATION QUESTIONS 21

 C 211. Mr. Green has just been diagnosed with myasthenia gravis. You are considering different
therapies for his disease. Pyridostigmine and Neostigmine may cause which one of the following?
A. Bronchodilation C. Diarrhea
B Cycloplegia D. Irreversible inhibition of Acetylcholinesterase

B 212. Parasympathetic nerve stimulation and slow infusion of betanechol will each increase:
A. Heart rate C. Ganglion cell depolarization
B. Bladder tone D. Skeletal muscle end plate depolarization

A 213. Which of the following agents is a prodrug that is much less toxic in mammals than in insects?
A. Malathion C. Parathion
B. Nicotine D. Pilocarpine

B 214. Atropine overdose may cause which one of the following?

A. Gastrointestinal smooth muscle C. Increased gastric secretion
cramping
B. Increased cardiac rate D. Pupillary constriction

B 215. Dilation of vessels in muscles, constriction of cutaneous vessels, and positive inotropic and
chronotropic effects on the heart are all actions of:
A. Acetylcholine C. Isoproterenol
B. Epinephrine D. Metaproterenol

B 216. Your patient is to receive a selective beta-2 stimulant drug. Beta-2 selective stimulant drugs are
often effective in:
A. Angina due to coronary C. Chronic heart failure
insufficiency
B. Asthma D. Delayed or insufficiency strong labor

C 217. In considering possible drug effects in this patient, you would note that beta-2 stimulants
frequently cause:
A. Direct stimulation of renin C. Skeletal muscle tremor
release
B. Increased cGMP in mast cells D. Vasodilation in the heart

A 218. Phenylephrine causes:

A. Constriction of vessels in the C. Increase gastric secretion and motility
nasal mucosa
B. Increased skin temperature D. Miosis

B 219. Adverse effects that limit the ue of adrenoeptor blockers include:

A. Bronchoconstriction from C. Impaired blood sugar response with alpha blockers
alpha blocking agents
B. Heart failure exacerbation D. Increased intracellular pressure with beta blockers
From beta blockers

MRLCARDONA | PREVIOUS BOARD EXAMINATION QUESTIONS 22

B 220. All of the following substances are endogenous tropic hormones secreted by pituitary gland,
EXCEPT:
A. Somatotropin C. FSH E. Corticotropin
B. hCG D. TSH

C 221. Which of the following is secreted by the posterios pituitary gland?

A. LH C. Oxytocin
B. ACTH D. Thyrotropin

D 222. ACTH of Adrenocorticotropic hormone is released by the anterior pituitary gland in response to
which hypothalamic hormone?
A. GnRH C. GHIH
B. TRH D. CRH

D 223. Which of the following insulins can be administered IV?

A. Lente insulin C. Protamin zinc insulin
B. Isophane insulin D. Regular insulin

C 224. It is a fertility drug. It induces ovulation by negative feedback mechanism.

A. Tamoxifen C. Clomiphene
B. Ethinyl estradiol D. Finasteride

A 225. Which of the following is not properly paired with its indication?
A. Testosterone – hypergonadism C. Cyproterone- hirsutism
B. Finasteride- BPH D. PTU- hyperthyroidism

D 226. Which of the following drugs can be used for rheumatoid disorders?
A. Diethylstilbestrol C.Methimazole
B. Triiodothyronine D. Betamethasone

D 227. Which of the following is a sulfonylurea?

A. Metformin C. Acarbose
B. Repaglinide D.Glibenclamide

C 228. Administration of a MAO inhibitor would most likely cause changes in the CNS concentration
of:
A. Acetylcholine C. Norepinephrine
B. Histamine D. Dopamine

C 229. Primary use of fluoxetine (Prozac):

A. Treating obsessive compulsive C. Treating endogenous depression
disorder
B. Management of morbid obesity D. Management of alcohol withdrawal

C 230. Essential tremor: receptor system most likely to be involved given that propranolol or
metoprolol may improve the syndrome.
A. GABA receptors C. Adrenergic receptors
B. Glutamate receptors D. Adenosine receptors

MRLCARDONA | PREVIOUS BOARD EXAMINATION QUESTIONS 23

D 231. Accepted first alternative for treating patients with bipolar disorder not adequately responsive to
lithium:
A. Phenelzine (Nardil) C. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine)
B. Amantadine (Symmetrel) D. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

D 232. Site(s) of chlorpromazine receptor blockade:

A. Alpha adrenergic receptor C. H1 histaminic receptor
B. Muscarinic cholinergic receptor D. Serotonin- 5 HT2 receptor

D 233. Effective in treating acute dystonia caused by antipsychotic drugs:

A. Biperiden (Akineton) C. Amantadine (Symmetrel)
B. Trihecyphenidyl (Artane) D. All of the above

C 234. Neurochemical abnormality most closely associated with schizophrenia:

A. High levels of CNS VMA C. Dopaminergic abnormality
B. Decreased brain GABA D. Abnormal glycine metabolism

B 235. Drug of first choice for absence seizures:

A. Primidone C. Phenytoin
B. Ethosuximide D. IV Diazepam

C 236. An example of an “atypical” antipsychotic agent:

A. Thioridazine (Mellaril) C. Risperidone (Risperdal)
B. Thiothixene (Navane) D. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine)

D 237. Effective in treating partial seizures:

A. Phenytoin C. Valproate
B. Carbamazepine D. All of the above

C 238. Associated with a LOW clinical potency but HIGH degree of sedation:
A. Thiothixene (Navane) C. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine)
B. Haloperidol (Haldol) D. Olanzapine (Zyprexa)

B 239. Drug of first choice for absence seizures:

A. Primidone C. Phenytoin
B. Ethosuximide D. IV Diazepam

A 240. All of the following are useful in treating complex partial seizures, EXCEPT:
A. Ethosuximide C. Carbamazepine
B. Phenobarbital D. Phenytoin

B 241. A drug useful in febrile seizure:

A. Diazepam C. Valproic acid
B. Phenobarbital D. Carbamazepine

B 242. Drugs in order of preference for managing absence seizures:

A. Phenytoin, Carbamazepine, C.Carbamazepine, Ethosuximide, Valproate
Phenobarbital
B. Ethosuximide, Valproate, D. Valproate, Carbamazepine, Trimethadione
Trimethadone

MRLCARDONA | PREVIOUS BOARD EXAMINATION QUESTIONS 24

D 243. Antipsychotic drug most likely to induce agranulcytosis (around 2% frequency):
A. Olanzapine (Zyprexa) C. Pimozide (Orap)
B. Risperidone (Risperdal) D. Clozapine

D 244. Ocular complication of antipsychotic drug treatment causes retinal deposits; resembles an
advance cases, retinitis pigmentosa.
A. Haloperidol (Haldol) C. Risperidone ( Risperdal)
B. Olanzapine (Zyprexa) D. Thioridazine (Mellaril)

D 245. Pharmacological management of malignant neuroleptic syndrome:

A. Dantrolene C. Amantadine
B. Bromocriptine D. A, B, & C

A/B 246. When MAOI is taken with a tyramine rich food, it can result to a:
A. Hypertensive crisis C. A&B
B. Cerebral stroke D. Insomnia

B 247. Antipsychotic agents reduce hallucination and agitation by:

A. Blocking the reuptake of NE and C. Both
Serotonin
B. Blocking dopamine receptors D. None

C 248. The following are pharmacological actions of benzodiazepines, EXCEPT:

A. Reduce anxiety C. Anti-emetic
B. Sedation D. Anticonvulsant

D 249. All of the following statements about extrapyramidal effects of antipsychotic drugs are correct,
EXCEPT:
A. Caused by blockade of dopamine C. If the therapy is stopped, tardice dyskinesia will occur
receptors
B.Can be counter acted by administration D. Haloperidol does not cause EPS
of anticholinergic

B 250. Benzodiazepines are used therapeutically for all of the following indications, EXCEPT:
A. Panic disorder C. Status epilepticus
B. Schizophrenia D. Insomnia

C 251. An opioid with both agonist and antagonist properties:

A. Morphine C. Pentazocine (Talwain)
B. Meperidine (Demerol) D. Oxycodone (Roxicodone)

C 252. Physiological effects of Morphine:

A. Chronic diarrhea C. Respiratory depression
B. Mydriasis D. A & C

B 253. Narcotic agonists: most serious adverse effect:

A. Cardiac arrhythmias C. Convulsions
B. Respiratory depression D. Endogenous depression

B 254. Anxiolytic drug acting through serotonin receptors:

A. Diazepam (Valium) C. Triazolam (Halcion)
B. Buspirone (BuSpar) D. Phenobarbital

MRLCARDONA | PREVIOUS BOARD EXAMINATION QUESTIONS 25

A/C 255. Ion channel that contains the GABA receptor:
A. Sodium C. Chloride
B. Calcium D. Potassium

B 256. Anxiolytic drug acting through serotonin receptors:

A. Diazepam (Valium) C. Triazolam (Halcion)
B. Buspirone ( BuSpar) D. Phenobarbital

C 257. Short-acting benzodiazepine:

A. Diazepam (Valium) C. Triazolam (Halcion)
B. Flurazepam (Dalmane) D. Buspirone (BuSpar)

C 258. Among the diuretic agents, which of the following would decrease the body pH?
I. Potassium-sparing diuretics
II. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
III. Loop diuretics

A. I only C. I and II only

B. II only D. II and III only

D 259. Among the diuretic agents, which of the following would decrease the K+ level in the blood?
I. Potassium-sparing diuretics
II. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
III. Loop diuretics

A. I only C. I and II only

B. II only D. II and III only

D 260. Patient has secondary, acute glaucoma. He was given 250mg IV q4 of Acetazolaminde. The
mechanism of action of acetazolamide in this particular case include which of the following:
I. Increase in renal excretion of Na+, K+, HCO3
II. Reduction of aqueous humor formation
III. Reduction of H+ ion secetion at renal tubule

A. I only C. I and II only

B. II only D. I, II, and III

C 261. Which of the following drugs acts at central presynaptic alpha-2 receptors?
A. Minoxidil C. Clonidine
B. Verapamil D. Enalapril

D 262. Which of the following antihypertensives more likely to cause reflex tachycardia?
A. Propranolol C. Prazosin
B. Nifedipine D. Hydralazine

B 263. From the list of antihypertensive drugs below, select the one most likely to lower blood sugar:
A. Prazosin C. Nifedipine
B. Propranolol D. Captopril

D 264. Which of the following diuretics caused hyperglycemia, hypomagnesemia and hyperuricemia?
A. Spironolactone C. Furosemide
B. Acetazolamide D. Hydrochlorothiazide

MRLCARDONA | PREVIOUS BOARD EXAMINATION QUESTIONS 26

D 265. The mechanism of actions of felodipine include which of the following?
I. Inhibits calcium ions from enterint the “slow channel” or select voltage- sensitive areas
of vascular smooth muscle and myocardium during depolarization
II. Relaxation of coronary vascular smooth muscle and coronary vasodilation
III. Increases myocardial oxygen delivery in patients with vasospastic angina

A. I only C. I and II only

B. II only D. II and III only

A 266. What segments of nephron where the diuretics of action of spironolactone took place?
A. Cortical collecting tubule C. Thin ascending limb of henle’s loop
B. Thick ascending limb of henle’s loop D. Medullary collecting tubule

D 267. The following statements are true for the carbonic anhydrase inhibitors?
I. Depress HCO3- reabsorption in the cortical collecting tubule
II. Depress HCO3- reabsorption in the proximal convulated tubule
III. Causes significant hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis

A. I only C. I and II only

B. II only D. II and III only

C 268. The major segment of the nephron where the diuretics action of the thiazides took place?
A. Cortical collecting tubule C. Distal convulated tubule
B. Medullary collecting tubule D. Proximal convulated tubule

B 269. Which of the following is the most common side effect of hyperlipidemic drug therapy?
A. Elevated blood pressure C. Neurological problems
B. Gastrointestinal disturbance D. Heart palpitations

C 270. A 50 year old, femaile patient arrives to the emergency department due to the severe chest pain.
Electrocardiogram revealed that she has an acute myocardial infarction. The medical resident-on duty
gave Streptokinase as her dose. What is the mechanism of actions of Streptokinase?
A. It inhibits the conversion of fibrinogen C. It activates the conversion of plasminogen
to fibrin to plasmin
B. It promotes the conversion of fibrin to D. It inhibits the conversion of prothrombin
fibrin-split products to thrombin

D 271. A 70 year old, male patient post coronary angiography bypass graft (CABG) with elevated LDL
is managed with Simvastatin?
A. Decreased hepatic secretion of VLDL C. Sequestration of bile acids
D. Decreased oxidation of plasma lipids D. Inhibition of HMG- CoA reductase

C 272. Patient has angina pectoris treated with sublingual nitroglycerin. Which of the following is
involved in the mechanism of actions of nitroglycerin?
A. Phosphorylation of light chain of C. Increase cGMP
myosin
B.Alpha- adrenergic activity D. Phosphodiesterase activity

A 273. The activity of propranolol in the treatment of angina pectoris is the result of this mechanism:
A. Decreased requirement for myocardial C. Reduced production of catecholamines
Oxygen
B. Increase sensitivity to catecholamines D. Dilation of coronary vasculature

MRLCARDONA | PREVIOUS BOARD EXAMINATION QUESTIONS 27

B 274. What electrolyte is primarily decreased in the combination of ethacrynic acid and cardiac
glycosides?
A. Magnesium C. Calcium
B. Potassium D. Chloride

C 275. A friend has very severe hypertension and asks about a drug her doctor wishes to prescribe. Her
physician has explained that this drug is associated with tachycardia and fluid retention (which may be
marked) and increased hair growth. Which of the following is most likely to produce the effects that your
friend described?
A. Captopril C. Minoxidil
B. Guanethidine D. Prazosin

C 276. A patient admitted to the emergency department with sever bradycardia following a drug
overdose. His family reports that he has been depressed about his hypertension. Each of the following can
slow the heart rate, EXCEPT:
A. Clonidine C. Hydralazine
B. Guanethidine D. Propranolol

B 277. Which one of the following is characteristic of enalapril treatment in patients with several
essential hypertension?
A. Competitively blocks angiotensin II C. Decreases renin concentration in the blood
at its receptor
B. Decreases angiotensin II concentration D. Increases sodium and decreases potassium
in the blood in the blood

D 278. A pregnant patient is admitted to the hematology service with moderately severe hemolytic
anemia. After a thorough workup, the only positive finding is a history of treatment with an
antihypertensive drug since 2 months after beginning in the pregnancy. The most likely cause of the
patitent’s blood disorders:
A. Atenolol C. Hydralazine
B. Captopril D. Methyldopa

B 279.Drugs that have been found to be useful in one or more types of heart failure include all of the
following, EXCEPT:
A. Na+/K+ ATPase inhibitors C. Beta-adrenoceptor agonists
B. Alpha-adrenoceptor D. ACE inhibitors

D 280. The mechanism of action of digitalis is associated with:

A. A decrease in calcium uptake by C. A modification of the actin molecule
the sarcoplasmic reticulum
B. An increase in ATP synthesis D. An increase in systolic intracellular calcium levels

B 281. A 65- year old woman has been admitted to the coronary care unit with a left ventricular
myocardial infarction. If this patient develops acute severe heart failure with mark pulmonary edema,
which one of the following would be most useful?
A. Digoxin C. Minoxidil
B. Furosemide D. Propranolol

B 282. Drugs associated with clinically useful or physiologically important positive inotropic effects
include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Amrinone C. Digoxin
B. Captopril D. Dobutamine

MRLCARDONA | PREVIOUS BOARD EXAMINATION QUESTIONS 28

A 283. Which of the following has ben shown to prolong life in patients with chronic congestive heart
failure but has negative inotropic effect on cardiac contractility?
A. Carvedilol C. Dobutamine
B. Digoxin D. Enalapril

A 284. Which of the following is the drug of choice in treating suicidal overdose of digitoxin?
A. Digoxin antibodies C. Magnesium
B. Lidocaine D. Phenytoin

B 285. Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of Angiotensin I into the active form
Angiotensin II?
A. Renin C. HMG-CoA
B. ACE D. Streptokinase

A 286. A 55-year old patient was diagnosed to have uncomplicated HTN. Which of the following drugs
would most likely be given to him?
A. Thiazide diuretic + Beta blocker C. CCB + ACE inhibitor
B. ACE inhibitor D. ACEI + ARB

B 287. All of the following are steroidal hormones, EXCEPT:

A.Testosterone C. Cortisone
B. Levothyroxine D. Dexamethasone

MRLCARDONA | PREVIOUS BOARD EXAMINATION QUESTIONS 29