I. Write true if the statement is correct or false if the statement is incorrect.

1. Epithelial cells are important in lining and covering the body.

2. Sperm cell is larger than egg cell.
3. Egestion is the process of taking food in to the mouth.
4. Enzymes are specific and can be reused
5. Exhalation is the process of taking air into the lung.

II. Match the ------ in column “A” with the ----- column “B” and write the letter on
the answer sheet.

column “A” column “B”

6. Vitamin B1 A. Vitamin D
7. Vitamin C B. Scurvy
8. Anaemia C. Thiamin
9. Calciferol D. Fat soluble vitamin
10. Vitamin A E. Deffcieny of iron
F . Night blindness

III. Choose the correct answers form the given alternatives and write the letter of
your choice on the answer sheet.

11. The uptake of mineral ions from the soil in to the plant is by
A. Osmosis B. Diffusion C. Active transport D.
Passive transport
12. Which of the following cell structure are found both in animals and plants?
A. Cytoplasm, endoplasmic reticulum & cell wall
B. Ribosome, cytoplasm and mitochondria
C. Cell membrane, cell wall and endoplasmic reticulum
D. Mitochondria, chloroplast and cell membrane
13. Which of the following statements refers to the advantage of light microscope?
 A. It is very heavy to move around C. It can be used with out electricity
B. It has highest magnification power D. It has highest resolution power.
14. Which of the following is part of small intestine?
A. Rectum B. Colon C. Anus D. Ileum
15. Which of the following is incorrect?
A. Glucose + glucose Maltose C. Glucose + Fructose Lactose
B. Glucose + Galactose Lactose D. Glucose + Fructose Sucrose
16. Which of the following organ is an excratory organ?
A. Brain B. Tongue C. Lung D. Heart
17. The process of building up large molecules from smaller molecules are
A. Metabolism B. Anabolism C. Catabolism D. All

18. The cash form of energy for our body are

A. RNA B. ATP C. ADP D. DNA
19. What is the importance of balanced diet?
A. It maintain healthy body deb’t C. It expose the body to malnutrition
B. It make the body over nuturition D. It end up with obese body condition
20. A greenish yellow alkaline fluid which is produced in the liver is
A. Trypsin B. Pepsin C. Bile D. Saliva
21. Which of the following group of nutrients are grouped as micro nutrients?
A. Fat, protein & carbohydrate C. Proteins and fats
B. Minerals & vitamins D. Carbohydrate, fat & minerals
22. The smallest air sacks in the lung where exchange of gas takes place between the lung and
blood capillaries are
A. Pleural cauity B. Bronchioles C. Alveoli D. Bronchi
23. Fats are composed of ---------- and ---------
A. Amino acids and glycerol C. Fatty acids and glycerol
B. Fatty acids and amino acids D. Amino acids and calciferol
24. The deficiency disease of proteins are called
A. Anaemia B. Kwashiokor C. pellagra D. Scurvy
25. Which of the following are polysaccharides?
 A. Galactose, fructose and glucose C. Glycogen cellulose and starch
B. Fructose, sucrose, starch and cellulose D. Maltose, lactose and sucrose

IV. Fill the blank space

26. -------- is away of measuring how many particles of a substance are in one place.
27. The storage form of carbohydrates in animals are called ----------------
V. Give the correct answers for each of the following questions
28. Write the seven life processes that are common to most living organisms.
29. Write the importance of bile

Write the two factors that affect rate of diffusion

I. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives.

1. The current human population growth in Ethiopia shows which of the following phases?
A. Lag B. Stationary C. Log D. Decline
2. Identify the factor that could affect population regardless of its size.
A. Food B. Light C. Overcrowding D. Competition
3. According to competitive exclusion principle, when two species occupy the same niche:-
A. One become dominant over the other C. Both species suffer from reduction
B. They co – exist together D. The two species become abundant
4. The competition between blue tits & great tits on the same tree is:-
A. Prey – predator competition C. Intra – specific competition
B. Inter – specific competition D. Parasite – host competition
5. The transformation of countries from having high birth & death rates to low birth & death
rates is:-
A. Arithmetic growth C. Age pyramid
B. Demographic transition D. Exponential growth
6. The cells of human body that are results of meiosis are:-
A. Duscle cells C. Brain cells
B. Sperm cells D. Bone cells
7. An organism that has the same alleles for a gene in each chromosome for the relevant pair
is:_
 A. Homozygous B. Phenotype C. Locus D. Heterozygous
8. Among the following traits of the garden pea studied by Gregor Mendel, Identify the one that
did not express itself in the F1 generation.
A. Round seed shape C. Violet flower colour
B. Axial flower position D. Yellow pod colour
9. In which of the following crosses 9:3:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio was resulted?
A. Rr YY X RRYy B. RrYy X RrYy C. rryy X RR yy D.
RrYY X rrYY
10. From a cross between round and yellow (RrYy) with round and green (Rryy) the probability
to have RrYy, rrYy, RRYy and rryy respectively is:-
2 2 4 4 4 2 2 2
A. 16 , 16 , 16 , 16 C. 16 , 16 , 16 , 16

4 2 4 2 4 4 2 2
B. 16 , 16 , 16 , 16 D. 16 , 16 , 16 , 16

11. If a DNA contains 20% cytosine, what is the percentage of Thyamine?

A. 40% B. 60% C. 20% D. 30%
12. Choose the one that is different from all the others .
A. genetically modified organisms C. Genetically engineered organisms
B. pathogenic organisms D. Trans genic organisms
13. The possible gametes of Tt Rr is:-
A. Tt,Rr,TR,tr B. TR,Tr,Tt,Rr C. TR,Tr,tR,tr D.
Rr,Tt,tt,TT

14. In which of the following phases mitosis is similar with meiosis?

A. Prophase B. Interphase C. Metaphase D. Anaphse
15. At which stage in meiosis do homologous chromosomes separate?
A. AnaphaseII B. MetaphaseII C. Anaphase I D. metaphase I
16. At which stage of meiosis do synapsis occurs?
A. TelophaseII B. Prophase I C. Metaphase II D. Anaphase I
17. Genes found on the same chromosome could assort independently of one another because
of:-
 A. Test cross B. Crossing over C. Segregation D. Co –
dominance
18. The role of autoradiography in genetic finger print is:-
A. Absorbing DNA to membrane C. revealing positions of DNA fragments to the
probe
B. combining with radioactive probe D. Absorbing buffer solution
19. The monomeric units of nucleic acids are:-
A. Nucleotides B. DNA & RNA C. Neuclosides D. Purines
20. Which one of the following shows the end products of a meitotic cell division?
A. Two genetically different cells C. Two genetically identical cells
B. Four genetically identical cells D. Four genetically different cells
21. The mechanism of increasing productivity of organism that result from the cross breeding of
different variets of the same species is:-
A. Segregation C. Hybrid vigour
B. Independent assortment D. Dihybrid inheritance
22. Which one of the following is true about x – linked disease?
A. Retinitis pigmentosa is one example
B. Affected father pass the trait to all sons
C. Affected daughter always have affected father
D. Heterozygous mother can pass the trait to all sons & daughters.
23. A woman heterozygous for haemophilia marries an affected male, how many of their off
springs will be hemophiliac?
A. 100% B. 50% C. 75% D. 25%
24. In a certain fly spp, grey body is dominant over the black in the cross of grey flies 21 grey
flies & 7 black flies were produced, what is the genotype of parents?
A. Gg and gg B. GG and Gg C. GG and gg D. Gg
and Gg
25. Which one of the following enzyme is not involved in DNA replication?
A. Ribonuclease B. Polymerase C. DNA ligase D.
Helicase
26. The abnormal chromosome xxy represents:-
 B. Turner syndrome C. Prader – willi syndrome
C. Klinefelter syndrome D. Down’s syndrome
27. Sweet pea heterozygous for flower color and pollen shape are selfed and a total of 381 plants
were produced. How many of this off spring shows the dominant purple & long pollen trait?
A. 284 B. 55 C. 30 D. 21
28. The first folding of chromosome formed by the interaction of a DNA with histone protein is:-
A. Solenoid loop B. Chromatin fibre C. Telomere D.
Nucleosome
29. If the sequences of bases on one strand of DNA is 3’ – GAACTGACT – 5’, its
complementary strand will contain:-
A. 5’ – CTTGACTGA -3’ C. 5’ – ATGGACTGA -3’
B. 3’ – AGTCAGCCA – 5’ D. 3’ – AGGCAGTTA – 5’

30. If the anti sense strand of a DNA have a nucleotide sequence of 5’ – GACTTGACT – 3’, the
transcribed mRNA will be:-
A. 3’ – CUGUUCUGA – 5’ C. 5’ – GAAGUGACU – 3’
B. 5’ – CUGAACUGA – 3’ D. 3’ – CUUGACUGA – 5’
31. Which of the following reduces the possibility of variability in gametes formed by meiosis?
A. Genetic linkage C. Synapsis
B. Independent assortment D. Crossing over
32. Aster has blood type “O” her two brothers have blood type A and B what are the genotype of
her parents?
A. IAIB & IBIO B. IBIO & IOIO C. IAIO & IOIO D. IAIO &
IB IO
33. Which one of the following is not correct?
A. Organisms that have both sets of genitals are heterogametic
B. The urogenital ridge develop into the bi – potential gonads
C. Males are heterogametic
D. The SRY gene is responsible for the formation of the testes
34. In birds the black & white colour shows incomplete dominance. The phenotypic ratio from a
cross of heterozygote’s is:-
 A. 9:3:3:1 B. 1:2:1 C. 3:1 D. 1:1:1:1
35. Which one of the following is mismatched based on a type of protein?
A. Peptide hormone – HIV antibodies C. Enzyme – DNA helicase
B. Antigen – CD4 D. Structural – collagen
36. A trait appeared only on one sex, when there is expression of homozygous recessive alleles
together is :-
A. Sex limited B. Sex linked C. Sex determination D. Sex
influenced
37. The region of a DNA to which basal transcription factors bind to start transcription is:_
A. Promotor B. Suppressor C. enhancer D.
Silencer
38. What is the probability of getting the gamete AB from the genotype AaBb?
A. 50% B. 25% C. 75% D.
100%
39. If the sequence of base on anticodon of tRNA is GUC, what will be the base sequence on the
antisense strand of a DNA?
A. GTC B. GAG C. CAG
D. CAT
40. In a cross between hybrid trait & a pure dominant trait, the percentage of heterozygous trait
is:-
A. 75% B. 25% C. 100% D.
50%
1. In a cross between monohybrid individual for a given trait what proportion of offspring is
expected to be heterozygous dominant?
A. 25% B. 50% C. 75% D. 100%
2. What phenotypic ratio will be expected when dihybrid F1 is crossed with doubly homozygous
recessive for the trait?
A. 9:3:3:1 B. 1:2:1 C. 3:1 D. 1:1:1:1
3. If a pea plant heterozygous for the seed shape and color is selfed, the probability to have
RRYy, rrYy, RrYy, and RRyy

A. 1/16, 3/16, 3/16, 2/16 C. 2/16, 4/16, 2/16,1/16

 B. 2/16, 2/16, 4/16, 1/16 D. 3/16, 2/16, 1/16, 2/16
4. For human body cells with a diploid state of 46 chromosome, the number of different classes
of gametes produced will be
A. 246 B. 232 – 23 C. 223 D. 232
5. The number of organisms of the same species sharing the same habitat at acertain time is
refered to as
A. Population density C. Population dynamics
B. Population size D. Population dispersion
6. Identify the factor that could affect population regardless of its size
A. Light B. Overcrowding C. Food D. Competition
7. A woman has blood type A- she has achild with AB- blood type. Which one of the following
could be the father?
A. AB- B. B+ C. 0+ D. A-
8. In chickens having cock feathering is expressed only in males, but not expressed in female in
both heterozygous and homozygous condition. The trait in this case is
A. Sex – linked C. Z- linked
B. Sex influenced D. Sex – limited
9. Mendel developed his law of independent assortment from
A. Dihybrid cross C. test cross
B. Monohybrid D. Incomplete dominance
10. A snapdragon heterozygous for flower color is selfed What is the phenotypic ratio of its
offspring.
A. 9:3:3:1 B. 1:2:1 C. 3:1 D. 1:1:1:1
11. Which one of the following organisms posses an “XX – XO” sex determination.
A. Grasshopper B. Honey bees C. Birds D. Reptiles
12. Color blindness in human is commonly sex – linked recessive trait, Betty has normal vision,
but her mother is color blind. Lemma is color blind. If Lemma and Betty are couples, what is
the probability that their child will be color blind?
A. 25% males, 25% females C. 50% sons, 50% daughters
B. 100% sons, 0% daughters D. 75% sons, 25% daughters
13. All of the following are enzymes involved in DNA replication, except one. Identify it.
 A. Polymerase B. DNA ligase C. Ribonclease D. Helicase
14. Deviation from mendelian result of dihybrid cross is caused by
A. Segregation of alleles C. Genetic linkage
B. Independent assortment D. Homologous synapsis
15. According to competitive exclusion principle, when two species occupy the same niche
A. They co – exist together C. Both species suffer from reduction
B. One become dominant over the other D. The two specis be come abundant
16. When balanus balenoid and chthalamus tincture establish them selves in the middle intertidal
zone, balanus out compete the other strain for space. The competition operating in this case is
A. Intra – specific competition C. Parasite – host competition
B. Prey – predator competition D. Inter – specific competition
17. One of the following genetic abnormality causes aperson to be come sterile male with
femenish feature
A. Triple – X syndrome C. Turner syndrome
B. Klinefelter syndrome D. Super man syndrome
18. A woman is married for asecond time. Her first husband was blood type A and her child by
that marriage was blood type B. Her new husband is type 0 and her child type 0 the genotype
of the woman is
A. iOiO B. IAiO C. IBiO D. IAIB
19. Independent assortment occour because of the random arrangement of chromosome in
A. Anaphase I B. Metaphase I C. Anaphase II D. MetaphaseII
20. Sweet pea heterozygous for flower color and pollen shape are selfed and atotal of 381 plants
were produced. How many of this offspring shows the dominant purple and long pollen trait?
A. 284 B. 30 C. 55 D. 21
21. If the sequence of bases on one strand of DNA is 5’ – CTTGACTGA-3’, its complementary
strand will contain
A. 5’- ATGCGTACT-3’ C. 3’-GAACTGACT-5’
B. 3’-ATGCAGCTT-5’ D. 5’-TGG ACT CAG-3’
22. If the anti- sense strand of aDNA have a nucleotide sequence of 5’-CTTGACTGA-3’, the
transcribed mRNA will be
A. 3’-CUU GACUGA-5’ C. 5’-UCAGUCAAG-3’
 B. 5’-GAA GUG ACU-3’ D. 3’- GAA GUG ACU-5’
23. Which one of the following represent aback cross designed to test the genotype of unknown
individuals?
A. Tt X Tt B. Tt X TT C. Tt X tt D. TT X TT

24. Identify the frait found on the differential region of Y- chromosome

A. Hemophilia type A C. lactation

B. Retinitis pigmentosa D. Baldness.

25. At which stage of population growth pattern the highest rate of increament expected?

A. Static phase C. Log phase

B. Lag phase D. Decline phase

26. Transcription is the transfer of genetic code from a DNA molecule in to

A. RNA molecule C. Second DNA molecule

B. Ribosome subunit D. Sequence of amino acid

27. The “bead on string arrangement” (first folding) of chromosome formed by the interaction of
a DNA with histone protein is:-

A. Selenoid loop C. Selenoid folding

B. Nucleosome D. Metaphase chromosome

28. If the percentage recombination between gene A,B and C are 10% between A &B, 5%
between B & C, 6.9% between A & C What will be the sequence of the gene on the
chromosome?
 29. Of the following, which one reduce the possibility of variability in gametes formed by

meiosis

A. Crossing over C. Genetic linkage

B. Independent assortment D. Synapsis
30 . What is the probability of getting the gamete “ab” from the genotype Aabb?

A. 25% B. 50% C. 75% D. 100%

31 . If that sequence of base on anticodon of tRNA is CUG, what will be the base sequence on

the antisense strand of a DNA

A. GTG B. CTG C. TAC D. GAC

32 . Genetic transcription is performed by

A. Helicase C. RNA polymerase

B. DNA polymerase D. DNA ligase
33. The region of a DNA to which basal transcription factors bind to start transcription is

A. Promotor B. suppressor C. enhancer D. Silencer

34. In goats the presence of beard is sex – influenced trait (dominant in males and recessive in
female). Beard female and heterozygous beard male are crossed. What is the probability of
beardness in their off spring?

A. 25% males, 25% females C. 0% males, 100% females

B. 100% male, 50% female D. 75% males, 25% females.

Answer question 35 and 36 based on the following pedigree

35 . The mode of inheritance of the trait in the pedigree most probably is

A. Autosomal dominant C. X – linked dominant

B. Auto+somal recessive D. X – linked recessive
1. One of the clue to identity the inheritance of the trait lies on
A. III- 7 and IV-1 C. II-6 and II-7
 B. I-1 and I-2 D. II-2 and III-4
2. What is the probability of baldness from mating between bald male and no – bald female?
A. 25% sons, 25% daughters C. 50% sons, 50% daughters
B. 100% sons,0% daughters D. 75% sons, 25% daughters
3. Suppose 1000 pea plants were produced from RrYyXRRYy cross (R=round seed, Y=Yellow
seed). How many of them are expected to be round and yellow?
A. 125 B. 750 C. 250 C. 500
4. Suppose a protein contain 45 amino acids How many nucleotides are found in the gene that
code for it
A. 45 B. 135 C. 15 D. 22.5
5. All of the following are correct about X- linked dominant trait except one, identify it.
A. If is most common in females
B. If do not skip generation
C. Affected father pass the trait to all daughters but not sons
D. Homozygous female pass the phenotype to all sons but not daughters
1. The period in which dinosaurs appeared and extinct respectively is:-
A. Devonian & Triassic C. Silurian & Ordovician
B. Cretaceous & Jurassic D. Triassic & Cretaceous
2. Which one of the following substitution mutation causes sickle cellanemia.
A. CTC ACT B. GAG GTG C. CAC AAC D. GGA GAG
3. Which one of the following is the 1st autotrophic organism in the evolution of living things?
A. Cyanobacteria B. Fungi C. Archaebactria D. Green algae
Answer question # 4 – 7 based on the following fossil evidence.
1. Homo eregaster 4. Homo Heidelbergensis
2. Sahelantropus 5. Ardipithecus ramidus
3. Homo erectus
4 The order of fossil evidence according to increament in their brain size is --------
A. 1,4,5,3,2 B. 2,5,1,3,4 C. 5,4,3,2,1 D. 3,1,2,5,4
5 Which fossil evidence is closest to the common ancestor of human & chimpanzee?
A. 2 B. 4 C. 3 D. 5
6. Identify the 1st hominid that used fire
 A. 2 B. 4 C. 3 D. 5

7. Which one is the oldest fossil among the given fossil evidence?

A. 2 B. 4 C. 3 D. 5

8. The theory which claim that the presence of God and his handiwork can be explained by

scientific based evidence is:-

A. Theistic evolution B. Progressive creationism C. Intelligent design D. Eternity

of life
9. Si RNA is important in regulation of gene expression at the level of:-

A. Post – transcription B. Translation C. Transcription D. Post

translation

10. Two species of frog called hayla versicolor & H. femonalis don’t inter breed because their
male

produce different breeding call. The type of isolation in this case is

A. Seasonal B. Temporal C. Behavioural D. Geographical

11. Which one of the following causes a shift of peak in the population size v s (versus) trait
graph?

A. Stabilizing selection B. Directional selection

C. Disruptive selection D. Behavioral selection

12. which one is the recent period of the geological time table.

A. Cambrian B. Silurian C. Devonian D. Ordovician

13. The basic difference between Lamarckism & Darwinism is the :-

A. Presence of variation C. Mechanism of evolution

B. Outcome of evolution D. Existence of evolution

 14. Which one of the following theory support the idea that life has always existed?

A. Theistic evolution C. Cosmozoam theory

B. Biochemical theory D. Progressive creationism

15. Suppose a fossil contains only 6,25% of the amount of carbon 14 normally present in
living

organisms, how old is the fossil?

A. 11460 yrs B. 22920 yrs C. 17190 yrs D. 28650 yrs

16. Among the following factors one is the basic criteria that must be fulfilled for speciation to

maintain their distinctive identity?

A. Reproduction isolation C. Sympatric speciation

B. Allopatric speciation D. Hybridization
17. Which one of the following term is equivalent with the darwin’s idea of descent with

modification?

A. Convergent evolution C. Adaptive radiation

B. Inter specific speciation D. Genetic drift
18. Which one of the following mechanism of speciation is of the least importance in the
evolution of

humans?

A. Sympatric speciation B. Poly ploidization C. Ecological isolation D.

Mutation
19. What is the estimated age of Ardi?

A. 3.2 million yrs B. 5 million yrs C. 4.4 million yrs D. 3.5 million yrs

20. Prader willi syndrome is caused by chromosomal mutation called.

A. Deletion B. Inversion C. Duplication D. Translocation

21. Among the following identify the one that cause change in the reading frame of protein
encoded

by agene?

A. Addition B. Substitution C. Inversion D. Misjunction

22. Which scientist conducted an experiment to prove the biochemical theory?

A. Oparin B. Haldane C. Miller D. Pasture

23. Which one of the following animals are evolutionarily for related with homo sapiens?

A. Gorilla B. Orangutan C. Gibbon D. lemur

24. In industrial melanism darker individual has greater survival rate than the lighter individual
This is

an example for

A. Disruptive selection B. Normalizing selection

C. Sympatric speciation D. Directional selection

25. Which one of the following is the result of different selection pressure acting on the same

organism (species)?

A. Sympatric speciation C. convergent evolution

B. Allopatric speciation D. Divergent evolution
26. The exchange of genetic material between bacteria by means of viral agent is called

A. Transformation B. Conjugation C. Transduction D. Translation

27. All of the following are niches of Darwin’s finches in the five Galapagos island, except

A. Vagetation eater B. Cactus eater C. Fish eater D. Insect eater

28. To which genus do luci belong?

A. Ardipithecus B. Homo C. Australopithecus D. Sahelanthropus

29. The flipper of whales, fishes, penguins is an example for

A. Vestigial structure B. Analogous structure C. Artifical selection D. Divergent

evolution

30. As humans migrate to cold conditions their survival advantage include:-

A. Longer body shape C. Less adipose tissue

B. Shorter body shape D. Less hairy body.

I. Write True If the statement is “Correct” and False if the statement is incorrect
(1 point each)
----------1. ATP is formed in both photosy nthesis and incellular respiration.

----------2. Photo respiration is a process involving the oxidation of carbon.

----------3. Photosynthesis takes place faster in ‘red’ and ‘blue’ wave lengths.

----------4. Ribulose biphosphate is a five – carbon compound in the grana.

----------5. Non – cyclic photo phos phorylation use of only photosystem II to gernrate ATP.

----------6. ATP is able to move around the cell easily and can escape from the cell.

II. Choose the best answer from the given alternatives (1 point each)

--------7. For every molecule of glucose that the cell converts to pyruvic acid, the number of ATP

molecules used up and the number of net ATP formed respectively are:-

A. One and two C. Two and three

B. Two and two D. Four and six
-------8. Which one of the following compound serves as the source of all the others?

A. Alcohol C. Glucose
 B. Pyruvicacid D. Lactic acid
-------9. Which of the following processes of photo synthesis does not require the presence of
light?

A. The splitting of H2O C. Reduction of NADP

B. ATP formation D. Carbon fixation
-------10. The muscle cells are in short supply of O2, which of the following compounds would
be

accumulated in them?

A. Ethanol C. Lactic acid

B. Carbon dioxide D. Acetic acid
-------11. Which of the following is true for cellular respiriation?

A. Restricted to animal cells C. Occurs in all eukaryotic cells

B. Restricted to plant cells D. Occurs in all prokaryotic cells
-------12. In cyclic photo phasphorylation what is the source of the recycled electrons

A. Reduced NADP C. Adensoinetriphophate

B. Chlorophyll molecule D. Photolysis of H2O molecules
-------13. Which of the following is NOT the stage in cellular respiration?

A. Calvin cycle C. Electron transport

B. Glycolysis D. Krebs cycle
-------14. The most principal carbohydrate used for cellular respiration is

A. Starch C. glycogen
B. Maltose D. glucose
-------15. Which one of the following is NOT a compent of photo synthetic unit

A. Electron carrier C. ATP ase synthase

B. Rubisco bi phosphate D. a unit of pigment
-------16. What is the role of KOH in basic respirmeter
 A. Prvents gases and water from leaking C. To absorb CO2 to from solid
precipitate.
B. To equilibrate with fresh air in the glass tube D. To neutralize the reaction.
-------17. The first rxn of the krebs cycle is the reaction b/n:-

A. Acetyl co – enzyme A and oxaloacetate C. A cetyl co – enzyme A and

pyruvate
B. Oxaloacetate and citrate D. Oxaloacetate and glucose
------18. Melvin calvin expermed with:-

A. Euglena C. Spirogyra
B. Chlorella D. Vorticella
------19. Which one of the following is different from the others?

A. Ubiquinone C. Ferred oxin

B. Plasto qunione D. Rubisco
------20. Cellular organelles that contains ATP synthase are

A. Nucleus and ribosomes C. Mito chondria and chloroplast

B. Mito chondria and cytoplasm D. Chloroplast and ribosomes
------21. The link rxn of aerobic respiration is aformation of:-

A. Citrate C. acetyl coenzyme A

B. Oxaloacetete D. pyruvate
------22. Which one of the following a molecule containing four carbon atoms

A. Glucose C. Pyruvate
B. Citrate D. Oxaloacetate
-------23. One of the following organelle does not involved in photo respiration phophoglycolate
is

concerted to GP

A. Chloroplast B. Lysozome C. Perioxisome D. Mitochondria

-------24. In which organic molecule cytochromes are grouped:-
 A. Easter C. Carbohydrate
B. Lipid D. Protein
-------25. Ribulose bi phosphate + oxygen x=? Gp + phosphor glycol ate “X” represents:-

A. ATP synthase C. PEP carboxylase

B. Rubisco D. Isomerase
-------26. C4 photo synthesis is most efficient in the following condtion except:-

A. High light intensity C. High CO2 concentration

B. High temperature D. Low CO2 concentration
-------27. One of the following is an example of C4 plant except:-

A. Maize C. Sugar cane

B. Pineapple D. Sorghum
-------28. What amount of net gain in ATP does glycolysis provide to a cell?

A. 4 ATP molecules C. 2 ATP molecules

B. 18 ATP molecules D. 36 ATP molecules
-------29. C6H1206 enzyme 2C2H5OH + 2CO2 + 2ATP the reaction represents:-

A. Aerobic respiration in plant C. Anaerobic respiration in micro

organisms
B. Anaerobic respiration in animal D. Anaerobic respiration in micro
organisms
-------30. What is the source of O2 that is produced during the process of photolysis synthesis by

higher plants?

A. CO2 C. Chlporophyll
B. ATP D. H2O

III. Fill the blank spaces with appropriate words or Phrases (7 point)

31. The two molecules that are important to transferred hydrogen ions from glucose to ATP
 synthases are ------------------------ and ---------------------

32. ------------------ cantake place in the obsence of O2 and is the only energy releasing
process in

anaerobic respiration.

33. Stages of cellular respiration that are processed in fluid matrix of the mitochondria is
-------------

34. The oxidation of one molecule of reduced NAD result in -------------- protons passing
through

ATP synthase and solead to the synthesis of ------------- molecules of ATP respectively.

35. The diffusion of hydrogen ions through ATP syntheses is ---------------------

IV. Give short answers for the following questions (13 points)

36. List the most common factors affect the rate of photosynthesis and also explain their effects
on

photosynthesis. (4 points)

37. Compare and contrast the difference b/n photosystemI and photo system II (3 Points)

38. Write the difference b/n aerobic respiration and anaerobic respiration (3 point)

39. Compare and contrast the difference b/n C3 photosynthesis and C4 photo synthesis Plants. (3
points)

------1. RNA found in a chromosome.

------2. Phospho lipids formed from twofatty acids recact with glycerol and phosphate group.

------3. Single stranded nature of DNA allows for replication.

------4. The optimum temperature of thermo phallic bacteria less than 900C.

------5. Competitive inhibitors are often similar in shape to substrate molecules.

------6. Co factors are substances up on which an enzyme acts in a biochemical reaction.

I. Match the classes of enzymes in column “A” with their examples in column “B” and
write the letter in the space provided

“A” “B”

-------7. Hydrolases A. Dercarboxy lases, Aldolases

-------8. Isome rases B. Transaminase, Kinases

-------9. Oxidoreductase C. Esterases, Digestive enzymes

-------10. Transferase D. Dehydrogenases, oxidases

-------11. Lyases E. Citric acid synthetase

-------12. Ligases F. Phosphohexo isomerase, Fumerase

II. Choose the best answer from the given from the given alternatives
------- 13. pair of molecules are known to have catalystic activity are:-

A. Proteins and DNA C. Proteins and RNA

B. Carbohydrates and proteins D. Lipids and proteins
------- 14. Which one of the following does not occur when fatty acids are used to form trigly
cerides

A. Condens ation rxn C. Three fatty acids react with glycerol

B. Form ester bonds D. Two water molecules formed.
------- 15. The main constituents of a chromosome are:-

A. Protein and car bohydrate C. DNA and protein

B. DNA and RNA D. RNA and protein
------- 16. What makes unsaturated fatty acids different from saturated fatty acids?

A. Their occurrence as solid at room temperature

B. The presence of large number of hydrogen atoms
C. The presence of long chain carbon
D. The presence of one or more double bonds
------- 17. During bread making using yeast, the dough swells after it is placed in an oven at
about

300 C for 30 minutes This is because

A. Yeast reproduce and increase the size of the dough

B. Alcohol produce accumulates in the dough and makes it to skull
C. Carbon dioxide produced swells the dough when it tries to come out
D. Heat from oven makes the dough to relax and swell.
------- 18. Which one of the following is NOT a component of benedicts solution

A. Sodium carbonate C. Sodium hydroxide

B. Cupric sulphate D. Sodium citrate
------19. A group that confers acidic properties on amino acids is

A. Amino C. Carboxyl
B. Ketone D. R- group
------20. The type of bond that holds amino acids together is

A. Ester bond C. glycosidic bond

B. Peptide bold D. phosphor digester bond
------ 21. Many coenzymes are derived from

A. Proteins C. Vitamins
B. Hormones D. lipids
------22. Which one of the following group contains all are reducing sugars

A. Starch, Sucrose, Glycogen C. Lactose, Sucrose, Glucose

B. Glucose, Fructose, maltose D Starch, Glucose, Fructose
------23. Co- enzymes needed for enzyme activity

A. Bind tightly with apoenzyme C. bind loosely with the apenzyme

B. Bind loosely with mineral ions D. bind tightly with the mineral ions
------24. Which one of the following is not true about enzymes

A. All enzymes are globular protein

B. Enzymes affecte by temperature and PH
C. concentration of substrate does not affect the activity of enzymes
D. they are specific in nature
------25. An example of a transport protein is

A. enzyme C. antibody
B. keratin D. Haemoglobin
------26. Which one of the following is composed of protein

A. enzyme, co- enzyme C. Apoenzyme, enzyme

B. Coenzyme, Apoenzyme D. Apoenzyme, steroid
------27. One of the following organic substance have variable solubility nature in polar

compounds like water:-

A. Starch C. Triglyceride
B. Protein D. Glucose
------ 28. Coenzymes differ from enzymes in that coenzymes are

A. Only active outside the cell C. specific for one reaction

B. Polymers of amino acids D. Smaller molecules, such as
vitamins
------ 29. One of the following is NOT the use of lipids in living organisms

A. Insulation /adipose tissues C. Respiration /energy sources

 B. Catalystic effect D. part of plasma membrane
------ 30. A Non – protein substance that bind with apoenzyme to form active enzyme is

A. Cofactor C. Hormones
B. Ions D. His tone

------- 31. A structure of a saturated triglyceride is:-

A. Two molecules of glycerol linked to three saturated fatty acids.

B. A molecule of glycerol linked to three saturated fatty acids
C. A molecule of glycerol linked to two saturated fatty acids
D. A molecule of glycerol linked to a molecule of saturated fatty acid
------- 32. Which of the following two scientists were proposed models of enzyme action?

A. Francisco Redi and van Helmont C. Koshland and fischer

B. Francisco Redi and law is Pasteur D. Fischer and Francisco Redi
------- 33. Under which of the following condtions does the enzyme salivary amylase work best?

A. PH7 and 300 C. PH2 and 300C

B. PH7 and 370C D. PH5 and 370C
------- 34. A nucleotide consists of

A. Base, protein and sugar C. Base, sugar and phosphate

B. Base, protein and phosphate D. lipid, carbohydrate, and base
------ 35. Biolosical catalysts known as enzyme are an example of

A. Primary protein structure C. Quaterary protein structure

B. Tertiary protein structure D. Secondary protein structure
III. FILL IN THE BLANKS WITH APPROPATE WORD /PHRASES IN THE SPACE
PROVIDE
36. A ---------- is an organic co- factor which is loosely bound to an enzyme.

37. substances that bind to enzymes and prevent them from forming enzyme – substrate

complexes are known as -------------

 38. The general test for protein is ----------

39. collagen and keratin are an example of ----------- protein.

40. ---------- are formed form fatty acids and long chain alcohols

IV. Give the correct Answers for each of the following Questions
41. Draw the structures of amino acids and show how a dipeptide bond is formed from two

amino acid molecules

42. Describe three ways in which a phospholipid differs from triglycerides

43. Describe three difference between DNA and RNA

44. write factors affecting the activity of enzymes

1. Wood lice increase their movement in response to increased light intensity in is example for
A. Positive taxis C. kinesis
B. Negative taxis D. Photo tropism
2. Among the following b/c one is learned behavior?
A. Reflection C. Imprinting
B. Habituation D. Fixed action pattern
3. It is said that a goat mother accepts are and nurses as her own kid the young that she smell at
certain critical period & reject others. This is example.
A. Habituation C. Insight learning
B. Imprinting D. sensititazah
4. What percentage of the amount C/A originally present in a fossil will be left after its third
half life time?
A. 75% B. 50% C. 25% D. 12.5%
5. A theory claiming that life has always existed propagating it self from one place to another
by means of certain agent is
A. Bio chemical theory C. Eternity theory
B. Big bang theory D. Cosmozoan theory
6. All were the component of the Stanley miller experiment mixture of gasses except,
A. H2O B. O2 C. NH4 D. H2
7. According to Darwin, natural selection is a continuous process raving the following
component, except one. Identity of
A. Occurrence of variation.
B. Survival of the fittest.
C. High rate of multiplication
D. Change in the gene pool.
8. Selection pressure which favor both extreme value of characteristics feature is
A. Disruptive selection C. stabilizly selection
B. Directional selection D. Natural selection
9. The first member of our genus is
A. Homo erectus C. Homo sapiens
B. Homo rudolfnesis D. Homo antecessor
10. The wing of birds, bat, flies & petrodactly is example of
A. Convergent evolution C. Allopathic speciation
B. Divergent evolution D. sympatric speciation
11. Which one of the following is correct regarding molecular techniques
A. After electrophoresis large fragment are found near the anode
B. Minsatellite are highly repetitive DNA sequence importa in DNA finger printing
C. PCR is ate chniiqle for in vivo DNA replication
D. Plant are the only organism cloned so far
12. Abebe fears his father Lemma. Lemma started to drive car to go home at night. Abebe
developed fear to the sound of car engine he hear by the Lemma used to come home. Abebes
fear to his father is serving the purpose of
A. UCS B. CR C. N.R D.
UCR
13. Instinctive b/r is different from the other innate behavior in that it is
A. Genetically programmed C. Adaptive behavior
B. Caused by a key stimulus D. unlearned set of behavior
14. The association geese from with the firs moving object they see after hatching is example of
 A. Imprinting B. latent learning C. Insight learning
15. Behavior is enquired without reinforcement but is not shown until condition become
favorable for its occurrence is
A. In sight learning C. Insight learning
B. Latent learning D. conditioning
16. Abebe showed no relevant response to an kind of perfume, But, after he had a girl friend
who used to apply a certain perfume he search for her by time he smelled the perfume,
Abebe’s response to the perfume is
A. CR B. UCR C. UCS D. CS
17. According to operant conditioning
A. Learning result from association of a behavior & its consequence
B. Learning is the result of association b/n neutral & condition stimulus
C. Reinforcement decrease reptition of a b/r
D. Punishment increase re ption of desirable
18. Which type of learning behavior is promoted when you give correct answer to the questions
raised in this exam?
A. Conditioning C. perception
B. Insight learning D. Trial and error
19. The scientist who independently of Charles Darwin suggested natural selection as a
mechanism of evolution is
A. Oparin B. Wallace C. Arrhenius D.
Miller
20. W/c one of the following is true about classical conditioning
A. UCS –UCR is the result of training
B. CR and UCR are similar
C. CS –CR are naturally lksity paired
CS will be converted to N.S after conditioning