NSTSE

NSTSE – SAMPLE PAPER

Grade - 7 No of Questions 100 Duration: 3hr
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. Use of mobile phones, smartphones, ipads, calculators, programmable wrist
watches is STRICTLY PROHIBITED. Only ordinary pens and pencils are
allowed inside the examination hall.
2. The correction is done by machines through scanning. On the OMR Sheet,
darken bubbles completely with a black pencil or a black or blue ball pen. Darken
the bubbles completely, only after you are sure of your answer; else, erasing
may lead to the OMR sheet getting damaged and the machine may not be able
to read the answer.
3. The name, email address, and date of birth entered on the OMR sheet will
be your login credentials for accessing your PRMO score.
4. Incompletely, incorrectly or carelessly filled information may disqualify your
candidature.
5. Each question has a one or two digit number as answer. The first diagram below
shows improper and proper way of darkening the bubbles with detailed
instructions. The second diagram shows how to mark a 2-digit number and a 1-
digit number.

6. The answer you write on OMR sheet is irrelevant. The darkened bubble will be
considered as your final answer.

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1. In the given figure, PQ = PS. The value of x is :

(a) 35º (b) 45º (c) 55º (d) 70º

2. The value of A  B  C  D  E  F is :

(a) 190º (b) 540º (c) 360º (d) 180º

3. Sum of x and y in the given figure below is:

(a) 145º (b) 160º (c) 140º (d) 130º

4. The next number in the pattern 62, 37, 12 is :
(a) 25 (b) 13 (c) 0 (d) 13

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5. Which of the following is different from the others?

(a) 20 +(25) (b) (37)(32)
(c) (5)×(1) (d) (45)  (9)
6. The value of the expression
1 1 1
 
2 11  5 
4 3  
7 13  9 
175 172 170
(a) (b) (c) (d) 172
72 75 75
7. Kamal purchased 3.5 kg of potatoes at the rate of Rs. 13.75
per kg. How much money should he pay in nearest rupee?
(a) Rs. 49 (b)Rs. 50 (c) Rs. 47 (d) Rs. 48
2
8. If of a number is 10, then 1.75 times of that number is:
3
(a) 26.25 (b) 15 (c) 1.762 (d) 25.26
9. The letters of the word ‘MATHEMATICS’ are written on
the small cards and are placed in the bag. A card is taken
out from the bag without looking into the bag (at
random),then the probability of getting a vowel is:
3 2 4 7
(a) (b) (c) (d)
11 11 11 11
10. If the mean of 26, 28, 25, x, 24 is 27, then the value of x+8
is :
(a) 32 (b) 40 (c) 42 (d) 36
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11. Two- third of a number is greater than one-third of the

number by 3, then the number is:
(a) 9 (b)9 (c) 8 (d) 8
12. If one side of a square is 18x – 20 and the adjacent side is
4213x, then the length of the side of the square is:
(a) 18 (b)14 (c) 15 (d) 16

13. If AB || CD, APQ = 50º and PRD = 130º, then QPR

is:

(a) 130º (b) 50º (c) 80º (d) 30º

14. Given PA || BC || DT and AB || DC. Then, the values of a
and b are:

(a) 60º, 120º (b) 50º, 130º

(c) 70º, 110º (d) 80º, 100º

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15. The ratio of Priya’s income to her savings is 4:1. Then the
percentage of money saved by her is:
(a) 20% (b) 25% (c) 40% (d) 80%
16. If 20 pencils were bought for Rs. 10 and sold at 5 for three
rupees, then profit or loss percent in the transaction is:
(a) Loss, 4% (b) Profit, 16%
(c) Loss, 20% (d) Profit, 20%
17. Rs. 6400 were lent to Karan and Jaya at 15% per annum
1
for 3 and 5 years respectively. The difference in the
2
interest paid by them is:
(a) Rs. 1440 (b) Rs. 1400
(c) Rs. 1450 (d) Rs. 1390
18. 800 kg of mortar consists of 55% sand, 33% cement and
rest lime. What is the mass of lime in mortar?
(a) 92 kg (b) 90 kg (c) 96 kg (d) 95 kg
19. To reduce a rational number to its standard form, we divide
its numerator and denominator by their
(a) LCM (b) HCF (c) Product (d) Multiple
2
20. The number that should be subtracted from  to obtain
3
the nearest integer is:
1 1 2 2
(a)  (b) (c) (d) 
3 3 3 3

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21. 36 unit squares are joined to form a rectangle with the least
perimeter. So perimeter of the rectangle is:
(a) 12 units (b) 26 units (c) 24 units (d) 36 units
22. Ratio of area of MNO to the area of parallelogram MNOP
in the figure is:

(a) 2 : 3 (b) 1 : 1 (c) 1 : 2 (d) 2 : 1

23. If (x 2 y  y 2  3) is subtracted from (3x 2 y  2y 2  5) then
coefficient of y in the result is :
(a) 2x (b) 2x2 (c) 2x3 (d) 2
24. Which of the following is not equal to 1?
23 32
(a) (b)
418
[(2)3  (2) 4 ]  (2)7
30 53 24
(c) (d) 0
5 25 (7  30 )3
25. Which of the following has a line of symmetry?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

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26. A circular loop is suspended in air as shown in figure.

When the loop is seen from above, current flows anti-
clockwise and when seen from below, current flows
clockwise. This loop behaves as a magnet. The N-pole of
this magnet is on

(a) The upper face (b) Lower face

(c) The lower face if current is larger (d) None of these
27. Statement I: Alloys are used in electric heater and electric
iron.
Statement II: Alloys do not oxidise (or burn) easily even at
higher temperatures.
(a) Both statements are true
(b) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(c) Statement I is false but statement II is true
(d) Both statements are false
28. Suppose a boy is enjoying a ride on a merry-go-round
which is moving with a constant speed of 10 ms-1. It
implies that the boy is:
(a) at rest

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(b)in accelerated motion

(c) moving with no acceleration
(d)moving with uniform velocity
29. The numerical ratio of displacement to distance for a
moving object is:
(a) Always less than 1 (b) Always equal to 1
(c) Always more than 1 (d) Equal or less than 1
30. Assertion: A concave mirror is used by a dentist to see
inside the mouth.
Reason: Image formed by a concave mirror when object
is placed between P and F is virtual and highly magnified.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both Assertion and reason are false.
31. Unit of electric power may also be expressed as
(a) volt ampere (b) kilowatt hour
(c) watt second (d) joule second
32. In making a battery
(a) Positive terminal of one cell is connected to the negative
terminal of the next cell

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(b) Positive terminal of one cell is connected to the

positive terminal of the next cell
(c) Negative terminal of one cell is connected to the
negative terminal of the next cell
(d) None of the above
33. Choose the statement which is not correct in the case of
an electric fuse.
(a) Fuses are inserted in electric circuits of all buildings.
(b) There is a maximum limit on the current which can
safely flow through the electric circuits
(c) There is a minimum limit on the current which can
safely flow in the electric circuits.
(d) If a paper fuse is inserted in a circuit it will blow off if
current exceeds the safe limit.
34. An iron ball at 40C is dropped in a mug containing water
at 40C.The heat will
(a) flow from iron ball to water.
(b) not flow from iron ball to water or from water to iron ball.
(c) flow from water to iron ball.
(d) increase the temperature of both.
35. A wooden spoon is dipped in a cup of ice cream. Its other
end
(a) becomes cold by the process of conduction.
(b) becomes cold by the process of conduction.
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(c) becomes cold by the process of radiation.

(d)does not become cold.
36. Stainless steel pans are usually provided with copper
bottoms. The reason for this could be that
(a) Copper bottom makes the pan more durable.
(b) Such pans appear colourful.
(c) Copper is a better conductor of heat than stainless
steel.
(d) Copper is easier to clean than stainless steel.
37. Artificial magnets are made in different shapes such as
(i) (ii) (iii)
(a) Bar magnet Iron nail Rod of iron
(b) Horse shoe Rod of iron Bar magnet
(c) Bar magnet cylindrical horse shoe
(d) Metal wire rod of iron iron nail
38. Magnification produced by a rear view mirror fitted in
vehicles.
(a) Is less than one
(b) Is more than one
(c) Is equal to one
(d) Can be more than or less than one depending upon the
position of the object in front of it.

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39. Rays from Sun converge at a point 15 cm in front of a

concave mirror. Where should an object be placed so that
size of its image is equal to the size of the object?
(a) 15 cm in front of the mirror.
(b) 30 cm in front of the mirror.
(c) Between 15 cm and 30 cm in front of the mirror.
(d) More than 30 cm in front of the mirror.
40. In an electrical circuit, three incandescent bulb. A, B and C
of rating 40 W, 60 W and 100 W respectively are connected
in parallel to an electric source. Which of the following is
likely to happen regarding their brightness?
(a) Brightness of bulb A will be maximum
(b) Brightness of bulb B will be more than that of A
(c) Brightness of bulb c will be less than that of B
(d) Brightness of all the bulbs will be same
41. An electric bulb is rated as 220 V and 100 W. When it is
operated on 110 V, the power consumed will be:
(a) 100 W (b) 75 W (c) 50 W (d) 25W.
42. The diagram shows a ray of light striking a plane mirror.
What is the angle of incidence if the angle between the
incident ray and the reflected ray is 80?

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(a) 35 (b) 70 (c) 40 (d) 80

43. In the given experimental set-up, when a magnet was
brought near the side of the beaker, it attracted some of the
nails.
What does this experiment show?
I. The nails are magnets.
II. The nails are made of magnetic materials.
III. Magnetism can only pass through the glass
container.
IV. Magnetism can pass through sand, water and glass.

(a) I only (b) II and III only

(c) II and IV only (d)III only
44. How do we check whether an electromagnet is working?
I. Check if it can repel glass.
II. Check to see whether it conducts heat easily.

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III. Place some paperclips near it.

(a) III only (b)I only
(c) II and III only (d) I and II only
45. Which of the following diagrams represents a short circuit?
(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

46. Ravi set up an experiment as shown here.

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He placed the lighted candle below the metal rod at

position M. He used the same amount of wax to hold all the
thumbtacks at positions W, X, Y and Z on the rod. Arrange
the thumbtacks according to the time they take to drop from
the rod, from the first to the last.
(a) Y, X, W, Z (b)W, Z, Y, X
(c) X, Y, W, Z (d)Y, X, Z, W
47. Match column I with column II and select the correct
option from the given codes.
Column I Column II
P. The material of the filament of a bulb (i) Tap water
Q. Electric source (ii) Pure water
R. Conductor (iii) Tungsten
S. Insulator (iv) Dry cell
(a)P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(ii)
(b) P-(iv), Q-(iii), R-(i), S-(ii)
(c)P-(iv), Q-(iii), R-(i), S-(ii)
(d)P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(ii), S-(i)
48. Read the given statements and select and correct option.
Statement 1: The colour of the shadow of an object depends
on the colour of the object.
Statement 2: Shadow is the dark patch formed when an
object obstructs the path of light.

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(a)Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the

correct explanation of statement 1.
(b)Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.
(c)Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
(d)Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not
the correct explanation of statement 1.
49. In the set-up shown here, the bulb has lighted up.

Which of the following statements about liquid X is/are

correct?
I. Liquid X is a good conductor of electricity.
II. Liquid X is able to produce electricity.
III. Liquid X is not a good conductor of electricity.
(a)II only (b)III only (c)I only (d)I and II only
50. If the time taken by the bob of a pendulum to move from
point R to P is 4 s, then the time taken by it to complete its
one oscillation is

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(a)8 s (b)4 s (c)12 s (d)16 s

51. The gas we use in the kitchen is called liquefied petroleum
gas (LPG). In the cylinder it exists as a liquid. When it
comes out from the cylinder it becomes a gas (Change – A)
then it bums (Change-B). The following statements pertain
to these changes. Choose the correct one.
(a) Process-A is a chemical change.
(b) Process-B is a chemical change.
(c) Both processes A and B are chemical changes.
(d) None of these processes is a chemical change.
52. Anaerobic bacteria digest animal waste and produce
biogas (Change-A). The biogas is then burnt as fuel
(Change-B). The following statements pertain to these
changes. Choose the correct one.
(a) Process-A is a chemical change.
(b) Process-B is a chemical change.
(c) Both processes A and B are chemical changes.
(d) None of these processes is a chemical changes.

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53. When CO2 is passed through lime water. It turns milky

due to formation of
(a) Calcium oxide (b) Calcium carbonate
(c) Calcium sulphate (d) Calcium dihydrogen.
54. If a few drops of a concentrated acid accidentally spills
over the hand of a student, what should be done?
(a) Wash the hand with saline solution
(b) Wash the hand immediately with plenty of water and
apply a paste of sodium hydrogen carbonate
(c) After washing with plenty of water apply solution of
sodium hydroxide on the hand
(d) Neutralise the acid with a strong alkali
55. Sodium hydrogen carbonate when added to acetic acid
evolves a gas. Which of the following statements are true
about the gas evolved?
(i) It turns lime water milky.
(ii) It extinguishes a burning splinter.
(iii) It dissolves in a solution of sodium hydroxide.
(iv) It has a pungent odour.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iv)

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56. Which of the following statement is true for acids?

(a) Bitter and change red litmus to blue.
(b) Sour and change red litmus to blue.
(c) Sour and change blue litmus to red.
(d) Bitter and change blue litmus to red.
57. Which of the following are present in a dilute aqueous
solution of hydrochloric acid acid?
(a) H 3O   Cl  (b) H 3O  OH (c) Cl  OH
(d) Unionised HCl
58. Identify the correct representation of reaction occurring
during chloralkali process.
(a) 2NCll  2H2 Ol   2NaOH l  Cl2 g  H 2 g
(b) 2NaClaq  2H 2Oaq 
 2NaOH aq  Cl2 l  H 2 aq
(c) 2NaCl aq   2H 2O l 
 2NaOH aq   Cl 2 aq   H 2 aq 
(d) 2NaCl aq   2H 2O l 
 2NaOH aq   Cl 2 g   H 2 g 
59. Match acids given in column I with their correct source
given in column II
I II
A. Lactic acid 1. Tomato
B. Acetic acid 2. Lemon
C. Citric acid 3. Vinegar
D. Oxalic acid 4. Curd

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A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 2 1 3 4
60. Match the important chemicals given in column I with
the chemical formulae given in column II
Column I Column II
A. Plaster of paris 1. Ca OH2
B. Gypsum 1
2. CaSO 4 . H 2 O
2
C. Bleaching powder 3. CaSO 4 .2H 2 O
A B C D
(a) 2 3 1 4
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 4 2 3 1
(d) 2 3 4 1
61. A bottle is filled with lukewarm water and then emptied
and cap was put tightly. Then cold water was poured on
it. The shape of the bottle gets distorted.
Statement 1: Atmospheric pressure is more than air
pressure inside the bottle as the air was driven out.

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Statement 2: Air exerts pressure on surface with which it

comes in contact.
(a) Statement 1 is the conclusion of statement 2
(b) Statement 2 is the conclusion of statement 1.
(c) Only statement 1 is correct
(d) Only statement 2 is correct.
62. Centre of cyclone is known as:
(a) Epicentre of cyclone
(b) Eye of cyclone
(c) Focus of cyclone
(d) Wall of cyclone
63. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1 : Electrolysis of water is a displacement
reaction.
Statement 2 : Water gets broken down to form hydrogen
and oxygen.
(a)Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
(b)Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not
the correct explanation of statement 1.
(c)Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the
correct explanation of statement 1.
(d)Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true.

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64. Kanika has taken a few objects in a beaker as shown in the

given figure.
She added water into the beaker until it was half filled.

Which of the objects in the beaker will move upto the water
surface?
(a)2 and 4 only
(b)1 and 3 only
(c)3 and 4 only
(d)2 only
65. Study the given Venn diagram.

Centre point ‘X’ represents

(a)Eruption of volcanoes
(b)Ripening of guava
(c)Burning of paper
(d)Rusting of bicycle.
66. Match column I with column II and select the correct
option from the given codes.
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Column I Column II
P. Fast change (i) Crystallisation
Q. Periodic change (ii) Earthquake
R. Reversible change (iii) Bursting of crackers
S. Undesirable change (iv) Change of season
(a)P-(iv), Q-(ii), R-(iii), S-(i)
(b)P-(i), q-(iii), R-(iv), S-(ii)
(c)P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(ii), S-(i)
(d)P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(ii)
67. Which of the following groups of acids contains only
weak organic acids?
(a)Acetic acid, Ascorbic acid, Formic acid
(b)Hydrochloric acid, Sulphuric acid, Formic acid
(c)Acetic acid, Formic acid, Nitric acid
(d)Citric acid, Lactic acid, Sulphuric acid
68. Which of the following statements is correct of the water
table of a place?
(a) It changes from place to place.
(b) It change from time to time.
(c) It goes down when rains are less.
(d) All of the above
69. Why is water called a universal solvent?
(a) It can dissolve only solids.
(b) It can dissolve only liquids.
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(c) It can dissolve oils.

(d) It can dissolve 90% of the substances.
70. Which one is a process in which water changes into
vapours in atmosphere?
(a) Evaporation
(b) Transpiration
(c) Precipitation
(d) Condensation
71. Which of the following statements about the autotrophs is
incorrect?
(a) They synthesise glucose from carbon dioxide and water
in the presence of sunlight and chlorophyll.
(b) They store carbohydrates in the form of starch.
(c) They covert carbon dioxide and water into
carbohydrates in the absence of sunlight.
(d) They constitute the first trophic level in food chains.
72. Select the correct statement.
(a) Heterotrophs do not synthesise their own food.
(b) Heterotrophs utilise solar energy for photosynthesis.
(c) Heterotrophs synthesise their own food.
(d) Heterotrophs are capable of converting carbon dioxide
and water into carbohydrates.

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73. Which is the correct sequence of parts in human

alimentary canal?
(a) Mouth oesophagus stomach  large intestine 
small intestine
(b) Mouth  stomach  small intestine  oesophagus
 large intestine
(c) Mouth  stomach  oesophagus  small intestine
 large intestine
(d) Mouth  oesophagus  stomach  small intestine
 large intestine.
74. Which one of the following is formed during anaerobic
respiration?
(a) Ethyl alcohol (b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Energy (d) All of these
75. Openings for gas exchange in insects are called-
(a) Trachea (b) Nostrils (c) Pores (d) Spiracles
76. Which adaptation helps Volant animals to minimize air
resistance while flying?

(a) Pointed Beak (b) Heavy feathers

(c) Light and Rigid body (d) Conical Head

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77. In dessert plants, leaves are modified into ______

(a) Stem (b) Spines
(c) Green stem (d) Thick leaves
78. Pine trees has ______ which help in protection of seeds.-
(a) Cones (b) Slopes
(c) Needles (d) None of these
79. A vertical section through different layers of the soil is:
(a) Horizons (b) Soil profile
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
80. From the list given below pick the item that is not a
natural resource
(a)soil (b)water
(c)electricity (d)air
81. The most rapidly dwindling natural resource in the world
is
(a)water (b)forests
(c)wind (d)sunlight
82. The most appropriate definition of a natural resource is
that it is a substance/commodity that is
(a)present only on land
(b)a gift of nature which is very useful to mankind
(c)a man-made substance placed in nature
(d)available only in the forest

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83. The main cause for abundant coliform bacteria in the river
Ganga is
(a) disposal of unburnt corpses into water
(b)discharge of effluents from electroplating industries
(c)washing of clothes
(d)immersion of ashes
84. the pH of water sample collected from a river was found to
be acidic in the range of 3.5-4.5, on the banks of the river
were several factories that were discharging effluents into
the river. The effluents of which one of the following
factories is the most likely cause for lowering the pH of
river water?
(a) Soap and detergent factory.
(b) Lead battery manufacturing factory.
(c) Plastic cup manufacturing factory.
(d) Alcohol distillery.
85. The pH range most conducive for life of freshwater plants
and animals is
(a) 6.5-7.5 (b) 2.0-3.5
(c) 3.5-5.0 (d) 9.0-10.5
86. The three R’s that will help us to conserve natural
resources for long term use are
(a)recycle, regenerate, reuse
(b)reduce, regenerate, reuse
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(c)reduce, reuse, redistribute

(d)reduce, recycle, reuse
87. Pick the right combination of terms which has no fossil
fuel.
(a) Wind, ocean and coal
(b) Kerosene, wind and tide
(c) Wind, wood, sun
(d) Petroleum, wood, sun
88. Select the eco-friendly activity among the following
(a)using car for transportation
(b)using polybags for shopping
(c)using dyes for colouring clothes
(d)using windmills to generate power for irrigation
89. It is important to make small check dams across the
flooded gullies because they
(i) hold water for irrigation
(ii) hold water and prevent soil erosion
(iii) Recharge ground water
(iv) hold water permanently
(a) (i) and (iv)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iv)

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90. Which of the following statement(s) is (are) true about

heart?
(i) Left atrium receives oxygenated blood from different
parts of body while right atrium receives deoxygenated
blood from lungs.
(ii) Left ventricle pumps oxygenated blood to different
body parts while right ventricle pumps deoxygenated
blood to lungs.
(iii) Left atrium transfers oxygenated blood to right
ventricle which sends it to different body parts.
(iv) Right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from
different parts of the body while left ventricle pumps
oxygenated blood to different parts of the body.
(a) (i) (b) (ii)
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iii)
91. Which is longest river in the world?
(a) Great Ganga (b) Nile
(c) Amazon (d) Niger
92. Which is India’s first super computer?
(a) Param8000 (b) Param80000
(c) Param800 (d) Param8
93. Which blank is called bankers bank of India?
(a) Reserve Bank of India (b) Punjab National Bank
(c) State Bank of India (d) ICIC Bank
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94. Which is largest animal in the world?

(a)Sharke (b) Blue whale
(c) Elephant (d) Giraffe
95. Which is largest animal on land?
(a) Tiger (b) White Elephant
(c) African Elephant (d) Crocodile
96. Which is largest flower in the world?
(a)Rafflesia (b) Jasmine
(c)Ballon Flower (d) Camellia
97. Which state has the longest coastal line in India?
(a) Gujarat (b) Kerala
(c) Karnataka (d) West Bengal
98. Who was India’s first Deputy Prime Minister?
(a)Morarji Desai (b)Vallabhbhai Patel
(c) Devi Lal (d)Charan Singh
99. Which animal is Fastest land animal in the world?
(a) Cheetah (b) Springbok
(c) Lion (d) House Centipede
100. Which Indian state has separate constitution?
(a) Jammu and Kashmir
(b) West Bengal
(c) Haryana
(d) Goa

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Answers Key – [NSTSE SAMPLE PAPER]

1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (b)
5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (a)
9. (c) 10. (b) 11. (a) 12. (d)
13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (d)
17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (b)
21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (d)
25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (a) 28. (c)
29. (d) 30. (a) 31. (a) 32. (a)
33. (c) 34. (b) 35. (d) 36. (c)
37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (b)
41. (d) 42. (c) 43. (d) 44. (a)
45. (b) 46 (d) 47 (a) 48. (b)
49. (c) 50. (d) 51. (b) 52. (c)
53. (b) 54. (a) 55. (b) 56. (c)
57. (a) 58. (d) 59. (a) 60. (d)
61. (a) 62. (b) 63. (d) 64. (d)
65. (b) 66 (d) 67. (a) 68. (d)
69. (d) 70. (a) 71. (c) 72. (d)
73. (d) 74. (d) 75. (d) 76. (c)
77. (b) 78. (a) 79. (a) 80. (c)
81. (b) 82. (b) 83. (a) 84. (b)
85. (a) 86. (d) 87. (c) 88. (d)
89. (b) 90. (c) 91. (b) 92. (a)
93. (a) 94. (b) 95. (c) 96. (a)
97. (a) 98. (b) 99. (a) 100. (a)

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