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56 TAJ 19-I Test Booklet No.
This booklet contains 56 printed pages. I / PAPER I
/ MAIN TEST BOOKLET Test Booklet Code
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet.
P
INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES
1. OMR 1. The OMR Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When
you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the
1 2 Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars on Side-1 and
Side-2 carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.
2. 2 12 150 2. The test is of 2 12 hours duration and consists of 150 questions.
There is no negative marking.
3. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars
3. on this page / marking responses in the Answer Sheet.
4. The CODE for this Booklet is P. Make sure that the CODE
4. P printed on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet is the same as that on
2 this booklet. Also ensure that your Test Booklet No. and
Answer Sheet No. are the same. In case of discrepancy, the
candidate should immediately report the matter to the
Invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the
Answer Sheet.
5. I II III IV V 150 5. This Test Booklet has five Parts, I, II, III, IV and V, consisting
1 of 150 Objective Type Questions and each carrying 1 mark :
I 1 30 Part-I : Child Development and Pedagogy (Q. Nos. 1-30)
Part-II : Mathematics (Q. Nos. 31-60)
II 31 60 Part-III : Environmental Studies (Q. Nos. 61-90)
III 61 90 Part-IV : Language I - (English/Hindi) (Q. Nos. 91-120)
IV I 91 120 Part-V : Language II - (English/Hindi) (Q. Nos. 121-150)
6. Part-IV contains 30 questions for Language-I and Part-V
V II 121 150 contains 30 questions for Language-II. In this Test Booklet,
6. IV I 30 V II only questions pertaining to English and Hindi language have
30 been given. In case the language/s you have opted for as
I II Language-I and/or Language-II is a language other
than English or Hindi, please ask for a Supplement
Test Booklet of P Code that contains questions on that
P language. The languages being answered must tally
with the languages opted for in your Application Form.
7. Candidates are required to attempt questions in
7. II ( V) Language-II (Part-V) in a language other than the
I IV one chosen as Language-I (Part-IV) from the list of
languages.
8. 8. Rough work should be done only in the space provided in the
Test Booklet for the same.
9. OMR 9. The answers are to be recorded on the OMR Answer Sheet
only. Mark your responses carefully. No whitener is allowed
for changing answers.
Name of the Candidate (in Capital Letters) :
Roll Number : in figures
:
in words
Centre of Examination (in Capital Letters) :
Candidate’s Signature : Invigilator’s Signature :
Facsimile signature stamp of
Centre Superintendent
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P (2) P-I
PART – I / –I
CHILD DEVELOPMENT AND PEDAGOGY /
Directions : Answer the following questions : (. 1 30)
(Q. Nos. 1 to 30) by selecting the correct/most / :
appropriate options.
1. According to Jean Piaget, children – 1. , -
(1) actively construct knowledge as (1) ,
they manipulate and explore the -
world.
(2) learn by observing others (2)
following a process of
observational learning.
(3) can be conditioned to behave in (3) -
particular ways by carefully
controlled stimulus – response
associations.
(4) can be taught to behave and learn (4)
in specific manner using principles
of rewards and punishment.
2. There are individual variations in the 2.
rate of motor development, yet the ,
sequence of motor development is _____ _____
from ________ to _________.
(1) ;
(1) cephalocaudal; proximodistal
(2) ;
(2) proximodistal, cephalocaudal
(3) gross motor development; fine (3) () ;
motor development ()
(4) fine motor development; gross (4) () ;
motor development ()
3. The period that initiates the transition 3.
to adulthood is – , ?
(1) Adolescence (1)
(2) Middle childhood (2)
(3) Pre-operational period (3) -
(4) End childhood (4)
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P-I (3) P
4. A child argues that Heinz shouldn’t 4.
steal the drug (medicine that can save (
his wife) because he will be caught and
sent to jail if he does so. According to ),
Kohlberg, which stage of moral
understanding does the child fall
under ?
(1) The instrumental purpose ?
orientation
(2) The social-order maintaining (1)
orientation
(2) -
(3) The punishment and obedience
orientation (3)
(4) The universal ethical principle
orientation (4)
5. Lev Vygotsky refers to the verbal 5. ,
dialogues that children have with ?
themselves as –
(1)
(1) egocentric speech
(2)
(2) private speech
(3) distorted speech
(3)
(4) problematic speech (4)
6. Associating toys, articles of clothing, 6. , , ,
household items, occupations and
colours with specific sex, is a ?
demonstration of –
(1) evolved gender identity (1)
(2) gender stereotyping (2)
(3) gender theory (3)
(4) gender relevance (4)
7. In an elementary classroom it is 7.
important to ________ the experiences
that a child brings with her.
(1)
(1) deny
(2)
(2) neglect (3)
(3) ignore (4)
(4) build on
Telegram Group [ Notes ] - https://t.me/TET_CTET
P (4) P-I
8. A teacher should – 8.
(1) maximize comparisons amongst (1)
students.
(2) promote students belonging to (2) /
certain cultures.
(3) ignore cultural differences and (3)
diversity amongst students.
(4) communicate that she respects and
values all cultures in the
(4)
classroom.
9. Which of the following constructs does 9.
Right to Education Act, 2009 advocate ?
, 2009 ?
(1) Integrated education (1)
(2) Inclusive education (2)
(3) Segregation (3)
(4) Mainstreaming (4)
10. ________ is the philosophy that all 10. _____
children have a right to get equal
education in a regular school system.
(1) Inclusion
(1)
(2) Mainstreaming (2)
(3) Special education (3)
(4) Multi-cultural education (4) -
Telegram Group [ Notes ] - https://t.me/TET_CTET
P-I (5) P
11. Which of the following represents the 11. -
correct matching of children in -
column-A with their primary
characteristic in column-B ? ?
Column-A Column-B - -
i. Gifted a. Lacks reading i. a.
fluency
ii. Learning b. Can think of ii. b.
disabled original solutions
iii. Creative c. Tendency to get
distracted easily iii. c.
iv. Attention d. Ability to learn
Deficit quickly and iv. d.
Hyperactivity independency
Disorder
(ADHD)
i ii iii iv (ADHD)
(1) d c b a i ii iii iv
(2) d a b c (1) d c b a
(3) d c a b (2) d a b c
(4) a b d c (3) d c a b
(4) a b d c
12. Children learn effectively when – 12. -
(1) the teacher fully controls (1)
everything that happens in the
class including the children.
(2) they memorise facts given in the (2)
textbook.
(3) they copy answers written by the (3)
teacher on the blackboard.
(4) they actively participate in
different activities and tasks. (4)
13. Children should _________ questions 13. -
in the class. (1)
(1) be encouraged to ask
(2)
(2) be discouraged to ask
(3)
(3) not be allowed to ask
(4) be stopped from asking (4)
14. Which of the following is NOT a key 14.
process through which meaningful ?
learning occurs ? (1)
(1) Memorization and recall (2)
(2) Repetition and practice
(3)
(3) Instruction and direction
(4)
(4) Exploration and interaction
Telegram Group [ Notes ] - https://t.me/TET_CTET
P (6) P-I
15. When teachers have positive beliefs 15.
about students and their abilities, the
students – -
(1) are eager and motivated to learn. (1)
(2)
(2) become relaxed and stop putting
in any efforts to learn.
(3) become demotivated and stressed.
(3)
(4) are not affected in any way.
(4)
16. Children’s errors – 16. _____
(1) reflect how careless children are. (1)
(2) should be immediately corrected by
asking them to do repeated practice (2) -
(3) are a part of learning and give an
insight into their thinking. (3)
(4) are insignificant in the teaching-
learning process. (4) -
17. Assessment – 17. ____
(1) should be undertaken as a separate (1)
activity.
(2) should be a part of the teaching-
(2) -
learning process.
(3) should be done only in terms of
marks. (3)
(4) should be based on objective type (4)
written tasks.
18. In a constructivist frame, learning is – 18. ,
_____
(1) active and social in its character.
(1)
(2) passive and individualistic.
(2)
(3) the process of acquisition of
knowledge. (3)
(4) a change in behaviour as a result (4)
of experience.
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P-I (7) P
19. What principle does the following 19. ?
highlight ?
“Students who do not perform well,
“ ,
feel that they are not ‘good enough’ “ ”
and feel demotivated. They are then
likely to give up easily without trying
or persisting in doing tasks.”
”
(1) Cognition and emotions are not
separable.
(1)
(2) Cognition and emotions are not
related. (2)
(3) Heredity and environment are not
separable. (3)
(4) Heredity and environment are not
related.
(4)
20. A teacher can encourage children to 20.
become effective problem solvers by –
(1) writing step-by-step solution to all ?
the questions in the textbook. (1)
(2) giving them plenty of
opportunities to answer similar
kinds of questions from the
(2)
textbook.
(3) emphasizing on rote memorisation
of the information given in the (3)
textbook.
(4) encouraging children to make (4)
intuitive guesses and to look at -
multiple solutions to the problem.
21. Use of methods where learner’s own 21.
initiative and efforts are involved is an ,
example of – ?
(1) Inter-personal intelligence (1)
(2) Deductive method (2)
(3) Learner-centered method (3)
(4) Traditional method (4)
Telegram Group [ Notes ] - https://t.me/TET_CTET
P (8) P-I
22. Which of the following statements 22.
about intelligence is correct ? ?
(1) Intelligence is the ability to think
convergently. (1)
(2) Intelligence is a relatively (2)
permanent change in behaviour as
a result of experience.
(3) Intelligence is hereditary trait that (3)
involves mental activities such as
memory and reasoning.
(4) Intelligence is multi-dimensional
involving several abilities not (4) -
entirely measureable by
intelligence tests.
23. Which of the following is the primary 23.
socialising agency ? ?
(1) Family
(2) School (1)
(3) Government (2)
(4) Media (3)
(4)
24. The major proposition of Jean 24. -
Piaget’s theory is that –
(1) Children’s thinking is inferior to (1)
adults. (2)
(2) Children’s thinking is superior to
adults. (3)
(3) Children’s thinking is quantitatively
different from adults.
(4) Children’s thinking is qualitatively (4)
different from adults.
25. Gender is a/an – 25. -
(1) biological determinant (1)
(2) psychological entity (2)
(3) social construct (3)
(4) economic concept
(4)
26. Which of the following correctly 26.
identifies the broad domains of ?
development ?
(1) , ,
(1) Physical; cognitive; social and
emotional
(2) Emotional; intellectual; spiritual (2) , ,
and self (3) , ,
(3) Physical; personality; spiritual and
emotional
(4) Social; physical; personality; self (4) , , ,
Telegram Group [ Notes ] - https://t.me/TET_CTET
P-I (9) P
27. Which of the following statements 27.
regarding children and their learning ?
is correct ?
(1) All children are naturally (1)
motivated to learn and are capable
of learning.
(2) Children’s motivation to learn and (2)
their capability to learn is pre-
determined by heredity only.
(3) Children’s socio-economic
background determines and limits (3) -
their motivation and learning
capability.
(4) Children have to be rewarded and
punished to make them motivated (4)
for learning.
28. In progressive-education children are 28.
seen as – ?
(1) miniature adults (1)
(2) passive imitators (2)
(3) active explorers (3)
(4) blank slates (4)
29. According to Lev Vygotsky, learning 29. -
is –
(1)
(1) a social activity
(2) an individual activity
(2)
(3) a passive activity (3)
(4) a conditioned activity (4)
30. Which of the following characterizes 30.
a child in the preoperational stage ? ?
(1) Circular reactions (1)
(2) Goal-directed behaviour (2) -
(3) Deferred Imitation (3)
(4) Irreversibility of thought (4)
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P (10) P-I
PART – II / – II
MATHEMATICS /
Directions : Answer the following questions by :
selecting the correct/most appropriate options. / :
31. A beaker is 3/7th filled with water. 31. 3/7
Another 16 L of water is needed to fill 16 L
the beaker to its brim. What is the
capacity of the beaker ? ?
(1) 14 L (1) 14 L
(2) 50 L (2) 50 L
(3) 100 L (3) 100 L
(4) 28 L (4) 28 L
32. Which of the following represents 32.
descending order of numbers ? ?
(1) 3.05, 3.005, 3.50, 3.055, 30.5, (1) 3.05, 3.005, 3.50, 3.055, 30.5,
0.355 0.355
(2) 30.5, 3.50, 3.055, 3.05, 3.005, (2) 30.5, 3.50, 3.055, 3.05, 3.005,
0.355 0.355
(3) 30.5, 3.50, 3.05, 3.055, 3.005,
(3) 30.5, 3.50, 3.05, 3.055, 3.005,
0.355
0.355
(4) 30.5, 3.05, 3.055, 3.50, 3.005,
(4) 30.5, 3.05, 3.055, 3.50, 3.005,
0.355
0.355
33. A shopkeeper mixed 5.3 kg of 33. 5.3 .. , 2100 .
almonds, 2100 g of raisin, 2.2 kg of 2.2 ..
cashews and packed the mixture
equally into two dozen packets. What
-
is the weight to each packet ? ?
(1) 300 g (1) 300 .
(2) 400 g (2) 400 .
(3) 450 g (3) 450 .
(4) 500 g (4) 500 .
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK /
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P-I (11) P
34. What number am I ?
34. ?
I am a 2 digit even number.
I am common multiple of 3, 4, 6.
3, 4, 6
I have total 9 factors.
9
(1) 48
(1) 48
(2) 56
(2) 56
(3) 24
(3) 24
(4) 36
(4) 36
35. Asha plans to save some money from 35.
household expenditure to buy a
mobile phone. Every week she saves ` 50, ` 100
` 50 on Monday, ` 100 on Wednesday ` 80
and ` 80 on Friday and spends ` 60 ` 60 ` 5,950
from this on Sunday. How many
weeks would she take to save enough ?
to buy a mobile phone of ` 5,950 ?
(1) 25
(1) 25
(2) 35
(2) 35
(3) 30 (3) 30
(4) 40 (4) 40
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK /
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P (12) P-I
36. If (11011)2 = (________)10, then 36. (11011)2 = (________)10 ,
number in the blank space is
(1) 22 (1) 22
(2) 27 (2) 27
(3) 30 (3) 30
(4) 33
(4) 33
37. The side of a square is 10 cm. How 37. 10 cm
many times will the new perimeter
become if the side of the square is ?
doubled ?
(1)
(1) Remains same
(2) 4
(2) 4 times
(3) 3
(3) 3 times
(4) 2
(4) 2 times
38. Which of the following letters have 38.
both horizontal and vertical lines of ?
symmetry ?
(1) A
(1) A
(2) X
(2) X
(3) C
(3) C
(4) Y (4) Y
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK /
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P-I (13) P
39. 72 28 = 36 4 _________. 39. 72 28 = 36 4 _________.
The number in the blank is
(A) multiple of 7 (A) 7
(B) a prime number (B)
(C) less than 10 (C) 10
(D) an even number (D)
(E) factor of 56 (E) 56
Which of the following is correct ? ?
(1) (A), (B), (C) (1) (A), (B), (C)
(2) (A), (D), (B) (2) (A), (D), (B)
(3) (C), (D), (E) (3) (C), (D), (E)
(4) (A), (D), (E) (4) (A), (D), (E)
-III
1
40. What is the correct sequence a teacher 40.
of Class-III needs to follow to explain 4
the concept of ‘Quarter’ (¼) to the
students ? ?
(A) Write symbol of Quarter on (A)
black board.
(B) Provide concrete material and (B)
divides into Quarters.
(C) Show pictures representing (C) ‘’
‘Quarter’.
(1) (A), (B), (C) (1) (A), (B), (C)
(2) (A), (C), (B) (2) (A), (C), (B)
(3) (B), (C), (A) (3) (B), (C), (A)
(4) (C), (A), (B) (4) (C), (A), (B)
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK /
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P (14) P-I
41. A Class-III student perform 41. III 16 25
multiplication of 16 25 as follows : :
16 25 = 8 2 5 5 16 25 = 8 2 5 5
=8525 =8525
= 40 10
= 40 10
= 400
= 400
Which property of multiplication has
?
the student used in this question ?
(1)
(1) Distributive law
(2) Associative law (2)
(3) Repeated addition (3)
(4) Inverse multiplication law (4)
42. How will you cater to the needs of 42.
visually challenged students of your -
classroom in an inclusive school ? ?
(1) Make them sit with high achievers (1)
(2) Use alternate teaching-learning
methods and resources. (2) -
(3) Send them to special educator.
(3)
(4) Provide them extra time for
practise. (4)
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK /
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P-I (15) P
43. Which of the following is not a 43.
mathematical process ? ?
(1) Transposition (1)
(2) Visualisation (2)
(3) Memorisation (3)
(4) Estimation
(4)
44. Which of the following is not related 44.
to early number concept ? ?
(1) Classification (1)
(2) Class inclusion (2)
(3) Conservation (3)
(4) Measurement (4)
45. Which of the following statements is 45. ‘’ ‘’
true regarding ‘Numeral’ and ?
‘Number’ ?
(A)
(A) A numeral is a symbol used to
represent number.
(B) Same number can be (B)
represented by different
numerals.
(1) (A) (B)
(1) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect.
(2) (A) (B)
(2) (A) is correct and (B) is incorrect.
(3) (B) (A)
(3) (B) is correct and (A) is incorrect.
(4) (A) (B)
(4) Both (A) and (B) are correct.
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK /
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P (16) P-I
46. Read the following word problems on
46.
addition :
:
A. There are 15 oranges in one
basket and 17 oranges in A. 15
another basket. How many 17
oranges are there altogether ?
?
B. The price of a mobile phone
which is for ` 9,950 is increased B. ` 9,950
by ` 375 after budget. What is ` 375
the new price ?
?
Which of the following statements is
correct ?
?
(1) ‘A’ represents augmentation (1) ‘A’
structure of addition whereas ‘B’ ‘B’
represents aggregation structure of
addition.
(2) ‘A’
(2) ‘A’ represents ‘aggregation’
structure of addition whereas ‘B’ ‘B’
represents ‘augmentation’
structure of addition.
(3)
(3) Both represents aggregation
structure of addition.
(4)
(4) Both represents augmentation
structure of addition.
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK /
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P-I (17) P
47. A teacher gives the following task to 47. IV
the students of class-IV : :
“Arrange 25 tiles in all possible
“25
rectangular arrays.”
”
Which of the following mathematical
concepts can be addressed through
?
this task ?
(1) Volume, area, length (1) , ,
(2) Area, factors, perimeter (2) , ,
(3) Area, perimeter, volume
(3) , ,
(4) Area, volume, length
(4) , ,
48. Identify the correct statement about 48. ‘’
the ability to conserve different
physical quantities in ‘measurement’
as proposed by Piaget.
(1)
(1) Conservation of weight is grasped
before conservation of volume.
(2) Conservation of volume is (2)
grasped before conservation of
mass.
(3)
(3) Conservation of weight is grasped
before conservation of number.
(4) Conservation of length is grasped (4)
before conservation of number.
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK /
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P (18) P-I
49. Van Hiele’s levels refers to stages in
49.
the development of
,
(1) Number concept
(1)
(2) Place value
(2)
(3) Geometrical thinking
(3)
(4) Fractions
(4)
50. Which one of the following sets are 50.
Problem Solving Strategies in ?
Mathematics ?
(1) - , ,
(1) Trial-error, drawing, memorisation
(2) Drawing, working back, rote (2) , ,
learning
(3) Reasoning, using variable, look (3) , ,
for a pattern
(4) Memorisation, Guess & test, (4) ,
drawing ,
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK /
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P-I (19) P
51. Which of the following teaching-
51.
learning resources is best suited to
0.3 0.2 = 0.06
explain the concept of multiplication
-
of two decimal numbers say 0.3 0.2
?
= 0.06 ?
(1) (Dienes blocks)
(1) Dienes blocks
(2) (Taylor’s abacus)
(2) Taylor’s abacus
(3)
(3) Number chart
(4) Graph paper
(4)
52. As per the recommendation of NCF 52. (...)
2005, Primary School mathematics 2005
curriculum should
(1) relate to children’s everyday (1)
experiences.
(2)
(2) focus on procedural knowledge
(3) provide rigour in mathematical (3)
concepts
(4)
(4) prepare children for advanced
mathematics.
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK /
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P (20) P-I
53. Which of the following is not a 53.
characteristic of effective mathematics ?
pedagogy ?
(1)
(1) Using various teaching-learning -
strategies for a single concept.
(2)
(2) Following strict time rules when
introducing a new concept.
(3) Focussing patterns of students
(3)
errors.
(4) Making connections with
(4)
everyday experiences.
54. Which of the following is not an 54.
effective strategy to assess primary
level students’ learning in ?
mathematics ?
(1)
(1) Designing tasks to differentiate
between rote memorisation and
conceptual understanding.
(2)
(2) Analysing children’s errors to
understand their reasoning.
(3)
(3) Designing tasks which elicit more
than one level of response.
(4) Using primarily group (4) :
administered tasks.
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK /
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P-I (21) P
3 3
55. How many quarters are there in 18 ? 55. 18 ?
4 4
(1) 68
(1) 68
(2) 75
(2) 75
(3) 72
(3) 72
(4) 35
(4) 35
56. In a school, half of students play 56. , ,
badminton, one-fourth (1/4th) play
1/4 , 1/8
th
volleyball, one-eighth (1/8 ) play
, 1/16
tennis, one-sixteenth (1/16th) play chess
and remaining go for swimming. If the
number of students playing volleyball 160 ,
is 160, how many students play chess ?
?
(1) 40
(1) 40
(2) 120
(2) 120
(3) 80 (3) 80
(4) 20 (4) 20
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK /
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P (22) P-I
57. Deepa goes to a post-office to 57.
post/mail letters and parcels. The
postal rates depicted are as below :
:
Letter Weighing : :
(i) 20 g or less – ` 5.00 (i) 20 . – ` 5.00
(ii) Per every additional 20 g – ` 2.00 (ii) 20 . – ` 2.00
Parcel Weighing :
:
(i) 50 g or less – ` 5.00 (i) 50 . – ` 5.00
(ii) For every additional 50 g – ` 3.00 (ii) 50 . – ` 3.00
Deepa wants to send two parcels
weighing 250 g and 300 g respectively : 250 . 300 .
and two letters each to 20 g and 35 g : 20 . 35 .
respectively. How much postal charge
does she have to pay ?
?
(1) ` 41
(1) ` 41
(2) ` 48
(2) ` 48
(3) ` 39 (3) ` 39
(4) ` 49 (4) ` 49
58. Digits 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8 are arranged in 58. 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8
the following blanks : :
____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____
+ ____ ____ ____ + ____ ____ ____
The largest possible number after
addition is
(1) 808 (1) 808
(2) 1605 (2) 1605
(3) 1560 (3) 1560
(4) 1308 (4) 1308
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK /
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P-I (23) P
59. Read the following Railway timings of 59. -
New Delhi – Chennai Rajdhani
express and answer the question :
:
Station Arrival Departure
New Delhi – 15:55
Bhopal 23:55 00:05 – 15:55
Nagpur 05:25 05:35 23:55 00:05
Vijaywada 14:15 14:30
05:25 05:35
Chennai 20:45 end
14:15 14:30
Which of the following statements is
true ? 20:45
(1) The duration of Journey from ?
Bhopal to Vijaywada is 13 hr.
10 min. (1)
(2) The duration of Journey from 13 10
Nagpur to Chennai is 15 hr.
(2)
10 min.
15 10
(3) The duration of Journey from
New Delhi to Nagpur is 11 hr. 30 (3)
min. 11 30
(4) The duration of Journey from
(4)
Bhopal to Chennai is 21 hr.
40 min. 21 40
60. A whole number is added to 50 and 60. 50
the same number is subtracted from 50
50. The sum of the resulting numbers -
is
(1) 25 (1) 25
(2) 50 (2) 50
(3) 0 (3) 0
(4) 100 (4) 100
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK /
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P (24) P-I
PART – III / – III
ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES /
Directions : Answer the following questions by :
selecting the correct/most appropriate options. / :
61. Which of the following is NOT 61. ‘ ’
obtained from petroleum ? ?
(1) Diesel (1)
(2) Wax (2)
(3) Grease (3)
(4) Coal (4)
62. Select from the following a set of 62.
festivals celebrated on the full-moon :
day.
(1) , ,
(1) Diwali, Guru Nanak’s Birthday,
Rakshabandhan
(2) Holi, Mahashivratri, Buddhajayanti (2) , ,
(3) Holi, Rakshabandhan, Guru
Nanak’s Birthday
(3) , ,
(4) Diwali, Mahashivratri, Guru (4) , ,
Nanak’s Birthday
63. Which one of the following groups of 63.
states has a coast on Arabian sea ? ?
(1) Karnataka, Kerala, Gujarat
(1) , ,
(2) Andhra Pradesh, Telangana,
Odisha (2) , ,
(3) Kerala, Karnataka, West Bengal (3) , ,
(4) Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh,
Karnataka (4) , ,
64. Where is Jharkhand located on the 64. ?
map of our country ? (1)
(1) West of Uttar Pradesh
(2)
(2) East of West Bengal
(3) North of Odisha
(3)
(4) South-East of Chhattisgarh (4) -
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P-I (25) P
65. You are located at X and your school 65. X Y
is located at Y. There is no straight
path from your house to school. So, :
you first go to A which is 30 m due
north of X, then go to B which is 40 m
A X
due west of A, then go to C which is 30 m , B A
30 m due north of B and finally you 40 m ,
reach your school at Y which is 40 m C B 30 m
due west of C. With respect to your Y
school the correct direction of your , C 40 m
house is
(1) North-West ?
(2) Due South (1) -
(2)
(3) Due East
(3)
(4) South-East
(4) -
66. A boy boarded a train on 30th June, 66. 30 2019
2019 at Madgaon for Nagarcoil. The 09.45
train departed at 09:45 hours from 07.15
Madgaon and reached Nagarcoil at
07:15 hours on the next day. If the
distance covered by the train during 1140 km ,
this time interval is 1140 km, the ?
average speed of the train was
(1) 51.5 km/h
(1) 51.5 km/h
(2) 53 km/h
(2) 53 km/h
(3) 54.5 km/h (3) 54.5 km/h
(4) 57 km/h (4) 57 km/h
67. In one of the forests of our country the
67.
village council (Panchayat) allots the ()
land to the forest people (Adivasis) for () (
farming in a special unit called ‘tin’. ) ‘’ ,
What is tin ? ?
(1) A land with dimensions 100 m (1) 100 m 100 m
100 m
(2)
(2) A land on which a farmer grows
one tin of seeds
(3)
(3) A land from which a farmer
produces one tin of seeds
(4)
(4) A unit of land specially designed
for the farmers of the forests.
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P (26) P-I
68. In which one of the following cities the 68.
mountains of sand called “Sand , ‘ ’ ,
Dunes” are found ?
?
(1) Kabul
(1)
(2) Abu Dhabi (2)
(3) Berlin (3)
(4) Thimpu (4)
69. We all observe old wells which have 69.
dried up. Our elders say that about
25-30 years ago there was sufficient
water in the wells, but now these have 25-30
completely dried up. Select from the ,
following the possible correct reasons
for drying up of water in the wells.
:
A. The lakes (ponds) in which rain
water used to collect are no A. ()
longer there.
B. The soil around the trees, well B. , -
and nearby area is now covered /
with coaltar/cement.
C. No one uses wells as there are
taps in every house.
C.
D. A number of electric motor
driven pumps have come up to D.
draw underground water.
(1) A, B and C (1) A, B C
(2) B, C and D (2) B, C D
(3) C, D and A (3) C, D A
(4) A, B and D (4) A, B D
70. In EVS concepts and issues have not 70.
been compartmentalized into science
and social science. Why ? ?
(1) Syllabus of EVS has been (1) ....
prescribed as such by CBSE.
(2) The child looks at her/his
environment in holistic manner. (2)
(3) It is a good teaching-learning
strategy. (3) -
(4) It is for decreasing the syllabus (4)
load.
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P-I (27) P
71. Which of the following is true w.r.t. 71. I II
EVS subject for classes I and II ? :
(1) Issues and concerns related to (1)
EVS are transacted through
language.
(2)
(2) Issues and concerns related to
EVS are transacted through
language and mathematics.
(3) I II
(3) EVS is a new subject introduced
at the classes I to II.
(4) I II
(4) EVS as subject is not easy to
understand at classes I and II.
72. In EVS themes have been proposed 72.
instead of topics in the syllabus. Why ? ?
(1) For reducing chapters in EVS. (1)
(2) To enhance the environmental
comprehension of the learners. (2)
(3) For developing connected and
interrelated understanding of (3)
issues of the learners’ local :
environment.
(4) Theme based EVS transaction is (4)
easy as compared to the topics.
73. Which one of the following is not one 73.
of the six broad themes of EVS in the :
present syllabus ? ?
(1) Food (1)
(2) Shelter (2)
(3) Things we make and do. (3) ?
(4) Work and play (4)
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P (28) P-I
74. Which one of the following is not true 74. -
w.r.t EVS ? ?
(1) Nature of EVS is integrated. (1)
(2) EVS is based on child centred
learning.
(2)
(3) EVS provides opportunities to the
(3)
learners to explore their
environment.
(4) EVS emphasizes descriptions and (4)
definitions.
75. Which one of the following is very 75. -
important in constructing knowledge ?
in EVS ?
A.
A. Active participation of the
B.
learner.
B. Relating child’s knowledge with
the teachers knowledge. C.
C. Learning EVS outside the four
walls of the classroom. D.
D. Relating child’s local knowledge
to the school knowledge. (1) A, C D
(1) A, C and D (2) D
(2) D only
(3) A
(3) A only
(4) A D
(4) A and D only
76. The most effective strategy to engage 76.
learners in EVS is __________. ____
(1) Narratives (1)
(2) Reading of textbook (2)
(3) Explanations by teacher (3)
(4) Classroom Demonstration (4)
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P-I (29) P
77. Children should be encouraged to tap 77. -
sources other than textbooks and
teachers in EVS. Why ? ?
A. Textbook and teacher are not A. -
the only sources of EVS
learning.
B. It will promote the involvement
of parents and communities. B. -
-
C. It will provide opportunity to
teachers to know the child’s
background. C.
D. It will develop psychomotor
skills and aesthetic sense of the D. -
children.
(1) B and C only (1) B C
(2) A, B and C (2) A, B C
(3) B, C and D (3) B, C D
(4) C and D only (4) C D
78. A teacher always begins by 78.
conducting activities followed by
questions and discussions. The
objective of conducting activities, ,
questions and discussion is to _____. ____
A. Assess the children’s process A.
skills
B. Provide an opportunity to the
B.
children to explore C.
C. Provide an opportunity to the
children to express themselves
D.
D. Discriminate between the
children bases on their pace of
learning (1) D
(1) D only
(2) C
(2) C only
(3) B, C D
(3) B, C and D
(4) A, B and C (4) A, B C
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P (30) P-I
79. A teacher conducts an experiment on 79. , “
“How does food get spoilt ?” ,”
Teacher makes groups of learners and
provides them material related to the
experiment. Why does teacher form ?
groups of learners ? A.
A. It promotes peer learning.
B. It improves social interaction. B. :
C. Group learning is effective way
of learning EVS without C.
burden.
D. Group learning is an essential
strategy to maintain discipline
D.
in the class.
(1) A and B only
(1) A B
(2) C and D only
(2) C D
(3) A and C only (3) A C
(4) B and D only (4) B D
80. Which of the following should not be 80. -
the indicator for assessment in EVS ? ?
(1) Concern for justice and equality (1)
(2) Co-operation (2)
(3) Remembering
(3)
(4) Questioning
(4)
81. In EVS, teachers should provide 81.
opportunities to the children to assess
themselves. Self-assessment is : _____
________.
(1) ...
(1) CCE
(2) Assessment as learning
(2)
(3) Assessment of learning (3)
(4) Assessment for learning (4)
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P-I (31) P
82. Which technique is used in the rating 82.
scale ? ?
(1) Written question (1)
(2) Observation (2)
(3) Checklist (3)
(4) Assignments (4)
83. Which of the following is not the 83.
objective of teaching EVS ? ?
(1) To nurture the curiosity and (1)
creativity of the child.
(2) To develop an awareness about (2)
environmental issues.
(3) To engage the child in exploratory (3)
and hands on activities.
(4) To encourage children to provide (4)
textbook definitions.
84. Picture reading is an important 84.
activity in EVS. Which of the /
following indicator/indicators of /
learners can be assessed through ?
picture reading ?
A.
A. Observation and recording
B.
B. Expression
C.
C. Analysis
D. Experimentation
D.
(1) D only (1) D
(2) A, B and C (2) A, B C
(3) A and C only (3) A C
(4) A and B only (4) A B
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P (32) P-I
85. In a hilly area it was observed that the 85.
people have built their houses using , ,
stones, mud, lime and wood. These
houses have two floors. On the ground
floor they provide space for animals to
live and also store necessary things, on
the first floor they stay. The roofs of
the houses are flat and made of thick
tree trunks. This hilly area is a part
of
?
(1) Arunachal Pradesh
(1)
(2) Meghalaya
(2)
(3) Himachal Pradesh
(3)
(4) Jammu and Kashmir
(4)
86. Consider the following statements 86.
about the practices followed under :
“Jhoom farming” :
A. ()
A. After obtaining one set of crops
the land is left as it is for some
years.
B. ()
B. The bamboo or weeds which
grow on the land are pulled out
and burnt. C. ()
C. The ash obtained on burning the
weeds etc. is used as fertilizer.
D. When the land is ready for
D. ,
farming it is deeply ploughed
before dropping the seeds.
The correct statement(s) is/are /
(1) only A (1) A
(2) only D (2) D
(3) B and C (3) B C
(4) A and D (4) A D
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P-I (33) P
87. Boiled tapioca with any curry made 87.
using coconut is a preferred food of
the people of
?
(1) Kerala
(1)
(2) West Bengal
(2)
(3) Bihar
(4) Tamil Nadu (3)
(4)
88. It is believed that the animals that are 88.
awake at night can see objects only in ,
(1) violet and blue
(2) green and yellow (1)
(3) orange and red (2)
(4) black and white (3)
(4)
89. Earthworms are considered friends of 89.
the farmers. Select from the following
the correct reasons for the same :
A. Earthworms eat the dead leaves
:
and plants and their droppings A.
fertilise the soil.
B. Earthworms eat the weeds and B.
save the main crop.
C. Earthworms soften the soil by
digging underneath. C.
D. The tunnels made by the
earthworms provide easy D.
passage to air and water into the
soil.
(1) A, B and C (1) A, B C
(2) B, C and D (2) B, C D
(3) C, D and A (3) C, D A
(4) A and C only (4) A C
90. Tribal people have been using bronze 90. ()
to make many things since thousand
of years. Bronze is still used in our
houses. Select from the following the :
most correct statement about bronze.
(1) ()
(1) It is an element like aluminium
and copper.
(2) () ()
(2) It is a mixture of copper and brass.
(3) It is a mixture of copper, zinc and (3) (), ()
aluminium.
(4) It is a mixture of copper and tin. (4) ()
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P (34) P-I
PART – IV
LANGUAGE – I
ENGLISH
IMPORTANT : Candidates should attempt questions from Part – IV (Q. No. 91-120),
if they have opted for ENGLISH as LANGUAGE – I only.
Directions : Read the passage given below
While beverages giants are focussed
and answer the questions that follow.
on returning water to the communities
(91 to 99) :
where they manufacture their drinks, food
processing players are engaging with
The future of water will be a gamble – farmers and upstream actors to minimise
resting entirely on the way we decide to play water usage across the supply claim and
the game here. Either we continue to use textile houses are evangelising the concept of
water irresponsibly, threatening the very sustainable fashion. Companies have
existence of this planet, or we adopt realised the risks emanating from the
sustainable and smart water management possibility of a water-scarce future. This has
practices to build a water secure future. triggered companies to re-engineer
processes, implement water optimizing,
By 2050, India’s total water demand
technologies, establish water audit
will increase by 32 percent from now.
standards, and use a collaborative approach
Industrial and domestic sectors will account
to deal with the water crisis.
for 85 percent of the additional demand.
Over-exploitation of ground-water, failure
91. Persistent ground water depletion will
to recharge acquifers and reduction in
NOT necessitate :
catchment capacities due to uncontrolled
(1) import of water
urbanisation are all causes of the precarious
(2) shutting down of industries
tilt in the water balance.
(3) adoption of smart water
If the present rate of groundwater management technologies
persists, India will have only 22 percent of (4) using water judiciously
the present daily per capita water available
in 2050, possibly forcing the country to
92. Optimists cannot pin their hope for
import its water. better water management on :
Optimists believe that India’s people (1) integrating water efficient
some 1.7 billion by 2050, will have practices into daily use.
integrated water efficient practices into their (2) reducing demand for water by
daily lives. If the ambitious water using new technologies.
sustainability goals set by global industries (3) discovering new ways of
and governments are testament we dare say augmenting water supply.
that the world has begun to recognize water (4) treating sea water for domestic
as a resource after all. and industrial sectors.
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P-I (35) P
93. The problem of acute water scarcity in 96. Identify the clause in the underlined
future cannot be dealt with by part of the following sentence :
companies through He breathed his last in the village
where he was born.
(1) establishing water audit standards.
(1) Noun clause
(2) implementing water optimizing (2) Adjective clause
technologies
(3) Adverb clause
(3) discovering a viable substitute for (4) Principal clause
water.
97. What part of speech is the underlined
(4) re-engineering processes
word in the following sentence ?
I do not know why he is so curious
about it.
94. Which one of the following words is
most similar in meaning to the word (1) Adjective clause
‘threatening’ as used in the passage ? (2) Noun clause
(3) Principal clause
(1) frightening
(4) Adverb clause
(2) menacing
98. We will face a severe water-scarcity
(3) coercing
problem in future mostly because :
(4) persisting (1) ground-water level water is
steadily decreasing.
(2) water is not a renewable source.
(3) by 2050, demand for water will
95. Which one of the following words is increase considerably.
most opposite to the meaning of the
(4) we do not use water responsibly.
word ‘increase’ as used in the passage ?
(1) decrease 99. Which of the following will NOT lead
to a severe water imbalance ?
(2) perceive (1) flawless water infrastructure.
(2) over-exploitation of water.
(3) achieve
(3) failure to recharge acquifers.
(4) relieve (4) uncontrolled urbanisation
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P (36) P-I
Directions : Read the extract given below 102. Rosy path is followed by ________.
and answer the questions that follow
(Q. Nos. 100 to 105) by selecting the (1) the just
correct/most appropriate options : (2) the evil
(3) both just and evil
All creation drinks with pleasure,
(4) neither the just nor the evil
Drinks at Mother Nature’s breast;
All the just, and all the evil,
Follow down her rosy path. 103. Identify and name the figure of speech
Kisses she bestowed, and grape wine, used in “All creation ‘Drinks at
Friendship true, proved e’en in death; Mother Nature’s breast’”.
Every worm knows nature’s pleasure, (1) Metonymy
Every cherub meets his God.
(2) Simile
Gladly, like the planets flying
(3) Personification
True to heaven’s mighty plan,
Brothers, run your course now, (4) Alliteration
Happy as a knight in victory.
104. What does the expression, “Brothers,
100. Which of the following does not
run your course now’ mean ?
support the idea that Mother Nature’s
love embraces all ? (1) Keep on moving towards your
(1) All creation drinks at Mother goal.
Nature’s heart.
(2) She bestows kisses on all her (2) Don’t let failures upset you.
children. (3) Seek god’s help when you are in
(3) She loves all the just but not all difficulty.
the evil.
(4) She also blesses us with true (4) Cultivate a positive attitude to life.
friendship.
105. How can we say that God’s creatures
101. What is the hallmark of a true friend ? are most fortunate and happy ?
(1) The world they live in lacks
(1) He saves you from troubles.
romance and beauty.
(2) He helps you to enjoy the fruits of (2) They have no friends to share
nature. their joys and sorrows.
(3) They do not have enough
(3) He proves true even in death.
pleasures at their disposal.
(4) He can take on all the evils for (4) They have a benevolent Mother
you. Nature to look after them.
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P-I (37) P
Answer the following questions (Q Nos. 106 109. Which of the following classroom
to 120) by selecting the most appropriate practices helps a teacher to develop
oral language among the students ?
option out of the given options.
(1) Chorus reading of the text with
the teacher.
106. A Hindi speaking teacher gets posted (2) Chorus recitation/individual
in a primary school which is in the recitation of the poem after
area of Punjab. Since he doesn’t know memorising it.
the local language of that area. He (3) Participating in role-plays on any
should : one of their favourite scenes.
(1) apply for the transfer to a Hindi (4) Practising the correct
speaking area. pronunciation of new or
(2) motivate the community to learn unfamiliar words.
Hindi, as it’s a national / official
language. 110. In a constructivist classroom language
(3) communicate in English as it is learning would most importantly be
difficult for him to understand based on :
their local dialect. (1) group discussion and peer
(4) use the child’s language as a interaction.
resource and start teaching. (2) minute observation and record of
each child’s handwriting
development.
107. While designing a working activity for
a language class a teacher should most (3) correction of spelling errors and
importantly focus on : making sure that they are not
repeated.
(1) choosing a topic from their
surroundings. (4) carefully completing the language
syllabus.
(2) giving clear instructions for the
task.
(3) providing all the necessary 111. As a language teacher which one of
vocabulary required for the task. the following is most important for
you regarding teaching of grammar ?
(4) assigning an authentic piece of
writing task. (1) Memorising grammar rules.
(2) Avoiding grammar rules.
(3) Using functional approach.
108. Some children do not have exposure to
English outside the classroom. So, the (4) Using grammar translation
teacher’s proficiency in spoken method.
English is essential because :
(1) the teacher can give more time to 112. Which one of the following is a correct
grammar drills. statement about a textbook ?
(2) the teacher can edit the errors in (1) It is planning of educational
student’s learning process. activities for the session.
(3) the students may listen to and (2) A textbook is the final thing for
process the new language before the teacher.
they actually communicate in it. (3) It helps to achieve the objectives
(4) students can imitate, practise and laid down in the curriculum.
drill the statements or sentences (4) The textbooks are the only source
used by the teacher. to read.
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P (38) P-I
113. The purpose of diagnostic test in
117. Which approach lays a lot of emphasis
language learning is to
on habit formation ?
(1) give feedback to the parents in the
PTMs. (1) Cognitive approach
(2) fill the progress report of students. (2) Communicative approach
(3) plan and prepare question paper
(3) Behaviouristic approach
for summative assessment.
(4) know the gaps in learners (4) Eclectic approach
understanding.
118. In the context of ‘theory of multiple
114. The purpose of Continuous
intelligence’ which one of the
Comprehensive Evaluation (CCE) in
language is : following intelligences is related to
(1) to assess the students’ language ?
understanding of the textbook.
(1) Visual-Spatial Intelligence
(2) to assess their learning gaps.
(2) Fluency-Accuracy Intelligence
(3) to give regular tests i.e. weekly
tests. (3) Linguistic-Verbal Intelligence
(4) to assess the level of competencies (4) Vocabulary Grammar Intelligence
achieved by the children.
115. Under which act did English get the 119. Banishing mother tongue in the
status of the associate official language ? classroom is the characteristic feature
(1) Official Language Act, Article-343 of _________ method.
(2) Associate Official Language Act, (1) Direct
Article-343
(2) Bi-lingual
(3) Three Language Formula
(4) National Curriculum Framework (3) Grammar translation
(4) Natural
116. A teacher is appreciating a child for
his ‘overall language use’, though
some of the words were misspelt by 120. ________ deals with the level of
him. The teacher is using _______ meaning in language.
approach in her class.
(1) Syntax
(1) Structural
(2) Semantics
(2) Communicative
(3) Constructivist (3) Collocation
(4) Whole language (4) Colloquial
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P-I (39) P
– IV
– I
: – IV .. 91 120) – I
–
(91 99 )
,
-
,
- 91. ,
(1)
-
(2) :
(3)
, , - (4) -
92.
(1)
- (2) -
(3)
(4)
-
: "
93.
() () ()
"
()
,
(1) ()
(2) ()
(3) ()
(4) ()
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P (40) P-I
94.
97. , –
(1)
(1)
(2)
(2)
(3)
(3)
(4)
(4)
95. ‘:’
98. ‘ ’ ?
(1) :
(1)
(2)
(2)
(3)
(3)
(4) (4)
96. ‘’ 99.
- ?
?
(1) , (1)
(2) , (2)
(3) , (3) -
(4) , (4)
Telegram Group [ Notes ] - https://t.me/TET_CTET
P-I (41) P
( 102. ‘ ’
100 105 )
(1)
- , (2)
(3)
- , - , ,
(4)
, -
,
103.
, (1)
(2)
, (3)
,
(4)
100. - 104. ‘’ ?
(1) - (1)
(2) - (2)
(3) - (3)
(4) - (4)
101. “ ” 105.
‘’ - ,
(1) (1)
(2)
(2)
(3)
(3) -
(4)
(4)
Telegram Group [ Notes ] - https://t.me/TET_CTET
P (42) P-I
– 109.
: ?
(1)
106. :
? (2)
(1) (3)
(2) (4)
(3)
110. -
(4) (1) -
(2)
107. - (3)
- (4)
(1) -
111.
(2) - -
(1)
(3)
(2)
(4)
(3)
(4)
108.
- 112. -
(1) ?
(2) - (1)
(2)
(3) -
(3)
(4) (4)
Telegram Group [ Notes ] - https://t.me/TET_CTET
P-I (43) P
113. - - 117. -
?
(1)
(1) ‘’
(2)
(3) (2) ‘’
(4)
(3) ‘’
?
114. - - (4) ‘’
(1)
(2) - -
118. -
(3)
(1)
(4)
(2)
115. - (3)
?
(4)
(1) - -
(2) - - 119. -
(1)
(3) -
(2)
(4) - (3)
(4)
116. - ‘’
? 120. -
(1) -
(1)
(2) – -
(2)
(3)
(3)
(4) – (4)
Telegram Group [ Notes ] - https://t.me/TET_CTET
P (44) P-I
PART – V
LANGUAGE – II
ENGLISH
IMPORTANT : Candidates should attempt questions from Part – V (Q. No. 121-150),
if they have opted for ENGLISH as LANGUAGE – II only.
Directions : Read the passage given below villages have now had the first childbirth in
and answer the questions that follow hospital, the first delivery by a trained
(Q. No. 121 to 128) by choosing the nurse and the first mother not to lose a
correct/most appropriate options : child.
The nurses advise women on hygiene
On an ordinary workday, 27-year- and nutrition and convince them to visit the
old Pramila Bariki hikes up steep slopes nearest health centre for further check-ups.
across fields, through ankle-deep rivulets,
121. The health project launched in the
often walking upto 14 kms. She gets a ride
tribal areas aims to :
until the road is motorable, from which
point she has to walk. (1) prevent deaths during pregnancy
Her job ? She doles out healthcare and child birth.
advice to mothers and children in the (2) raise the living standard in the
remotest hamlets in the Araku valley of tribal areas.
Andhra Pradesh. (3) provide nutrition to women and
Now heavily pregnant Pramila has children
had to slow down delegating tasks to (4) provide employment alongwith
Duridi, Neeraj, Sunita and others. It’s education.
they who now walk through forests and 122. The tribal people trust the health
climb up moutains, visiting families to workers mostly because they :
identify pregnant women and conduct
(1) help them get employment.
basic tests for diabetes and anaemia and
connect them with a primary health centre (2) are educated and soft-spoken.
whenever necessary. (3) help them settle their domestic
These young tribal women are all disputes.
trained auxiliary nurses, part of an (4) belong to their own community.
experimental health project in Araku that 123. Read the following statements :
aims to end preventable deaths during A. Child mortality rate in the tribal
childbirth or infancy. areas was very high in the past.
The Araku valley is home to several B. Pramila and her colleagues are
nomadic tribes who live in small clusters rendering invaluable services to
of 70 to 150 homes situated in rugged and the tribal women.
inaccessible terrain. Until a few years ago
these communities were unaware of (1) A is true, B is false.
government healthcare policies. The death (2) B is true, A is false.
of a child or a woman during pregnancy (3) Both A and B are false.
or child birth was common and they were (4) Both A and B are true.
resigned to it. 124. Which one of the following words is
Today 38 women like Pramila drawn
from these tribes, have broken social and similar in meaning to ‘remotest’ as
cultural barriers to train as nurses and used in the passage ?
provide medical care to 1179 hamlets across (1) toughest
the Araku, Paderu and Chintapalli
mandals. Since they are from these (2) farthest
communities they have been able create (3) highest
trust in the families and neighbours about (4) tallest
formal healthcare. As a result these remote
Telegram Group [ Notes ] - https://t.me/TET_CTET
P-I (45) P
125. Which one of the following words is Directions : Read the following passage and
opposite in meaning to ‘trust’ as used answer the questions that follow
in the passage ? (Q. No. 129 to 135) by choosing the
correct/most appropriate options :
(1) disdain
(2) distrust Kaizen in Japanese means constant
and never ending improvement. There is
(3) disrupt no pursuit more noble or important than
(4) dismantle the pursuit of self-improvement. As
Confucius said many years ago : “Good
people strengthen themselves ceaselessly”.
126. He could not clear the exam because Consistent and constant improvement in
all areas is essential to reach your true
he didn’t work hard.
potential. The personal trademark of
Identify the clause in the underlined almost every high achiever and successful
part of the sentence given above : person is a dedication to daily
improvement in both their personal and
(1) Adverb clause professional lives. From Ben Franklin to
(2) Adjective clause Mahatma Gandhi, from Martin Luther
King Jr. to Ivan Lendl and from Nelson
(3) Noun clause Mandela to Mother Teresa, effective
(4) Principal clause people do things daily to advance
confidently in the direction of their goals
and dreams.
127. Which part of the following sentence You must also apply the Kaizen
contains an error ? principle on a daily basis to condition your
mind to peak performance. It has been
The sudden rise and fall of prices said that the mind is a terrible master but
(a) (b) a wonderful servant. By seeking to
make a business very uncertain improve your mind and condition it to
(c) (d) excellence of thought, this wonderful
(1) (a) servant will most certainly bring you all
the peace, prosperity and joy you now
(2) (b) search for.
(3) (c) Study any person’s great success
story and you will undoubtedly learn of
(4) (d) their commitment to Kaizen. They will be
dedicated to small, daily improvements in
the key areas of their lives and become the
128. The job of the auxiliary nurses is very best that they could be. Personal
physically challenging because they : mastery is like a bank account, call it the
(1) have to face opposition from the Personal Excellence Account. By
local traditional healers. improving daily, whether it is by spending
(2) are not paid any renumeration for some time exercising, reading, visualizing
their work. or forging better relationships, you are
(3) have to walk through forests and making regular deposits into your
up mountains to reach out to account. After only one month, for
people. example, you will have improved the
(4) are not liked by the people whom richness and quality of your world by at
they want to help. least 30%.
Telegram Group [ Notes ] - https://t.me/TET_CTET
P (46) P-I
129. What is common among the great 133. Which word is the most opposite in
people mentioned in para-1 ? meaning to the word, ‘wonderful’ as
(1) They inspired all those who came used in the passage ?
into contact with them.
(1) separate
(2) They worked hard to alleviate the
suffering of the downtrodden. (2) deficient
(3) They tried their best to realise
their goals. (3) unremarkable
(4) They resisted every temptation. (4) insufficient
130. How do we stand to gain when we
condition our minds to do our best ? 134. Which part of the following sentence
(1) We earn name, fame and wealth. contains an error ?
(2) We rise in the estimation of our
Since time immemorial the Hindus
friends. (a) (b)
(3) We are able to overcome all
have been worshipping the river Ganga
obstacles.
(c) (d)
(4) We realise our full capability.
(1) (a)
131. Read the following sentences : (2) (b)
A. All successful people are
committed to Kaizen. (3) (c)
B. If we can control our mind, it (4) (d)
will serve us wonderfully.
(1) A is false and B is true.
(2) A is true and B is false.
135. How, according to the author, can we
(3) Both A and B are true. attain our full potential ?
(4) Both A and B are false.
(1) by putting in a lot of effort.
132. Which word is the most similar in (2) by proper and ceaseless
meaning to the word, ‘trademark’ improvement in all areas.
used in the passage ?
(1) item (3) by seeking the advice and
guidance of successful people.
(2) object
(3) subject (4) by working hard on our
(4) brand weaknesses
Telegram Group [ Notes ] - https://t.me/TET_CTET
P-I (47) P
Answer the following questions (Q Nos. 136 139. The study of how words combine to
to 150) by selecting the most appropriate form phrases, phrases combine to
form clauses and clauses join to make
options. sentences is known as
136. A teacher of class-V wishes to teach a (1) Semantics
complex language structure from the (2) Syntax
syllabus. She should (3) Collocation
(4) Colloquial
(1) ask students to memorise the
rules.
140. English language has ________
(2) not teach the complex structure consonant sounds.
and avoid it. (1) 21
(3) focus on listening-speaking (2) 22
practice instead of teaching (3) 23
(4) 24
grammar.
(4) use a grammar game with a focus
141. According to National Curriculum
on this complex structure. Framework, 2005, “English in India is
________ in a multilingual country.
137. As per Noam Chomsky’s theory, the (1) a first language
role of Language Acquisition Device (2) a foreign language
(3) a global language
(LAD) helps children to
(4) an associate language
(1) learn second language easily.
(2) communicate actively in second 142. A teacher divides the class in small
language. groups and asks them to discuss and
(3) generate grammar rules. present their views on “Save
Environment”. Students are free to
(4) imitate the language spoken by plan and present their choice and
adults. creativity. The teacher is facilitating
them as and when required.
Which approach/method is followed in
138. Which of the following statements is
the class ?
correct ? (1) Constructivist approach
(1) Children’s first language is a (2) Structural approach
hurdle in learning English. (3) Natural approach
(2) It is difficult to teach English as (4) Deductive approach
they use their first language in
143. A teacher of class-IV brought some
every aspect and ignore English.
interesting books and distributed
(3) As a teacher you would like to them among the students. Then she
give a list of English words on the said, “Today let’s have fun and read
very first day. these books for our pleasure”. This
reading is called
(4) Children come to school with a
(1) Pre-reading
treasure of experience and their (2) Post-reading
mother tongue acts like a resource (3) Intensive-reading
in learning English. (4) Extensive-reading
Telegram Group [ Notes ] - https://t.me/TET_CTET
P (48) P-I
144. A 2½ year old child picks up his 148. Before starting a new chapter on ‘The
sibling’s book and looking at the
Honest Woodcutter’ the teacher
pictures tells a story. The child is
started a discussion with the students
(1) emergent writer
on ‘Honesty’. What is the teacher
(2) emergent student
trying to achieve with this activity ?
(3) emergent reader
(1) Activate students’ attention.
(4) emergent story writer
(2) Activate students’ skill.
145. A teacher of class-III finds that some (3) Activate students’ previous
students understand the concept more knowledge
clearly when she explains them orally. (4) Assess students’ level of language
Their learning style is
and its usage.
(1) auditory
(2) visual
149. A child got admission to a new school.
(3) kinesthetic
The teacher was surprised to see that
(4) aesthetic
she would speak four languages
fluently but could not speak in
146. A teacher asks the students to read the English. She is a
text for information and create their
own interpretation beyond the literal (1) monolingual
level. Which sub-skill is she (2) bilingual
practicising in the class ?
(3) multilingual
(1) Paraphrasing
(2) Predicting (4) linguist
(3) Inferring
(4) Summarising 150. A student of class-V while reading a
chapter finds some difficult and
147. Story telling and listening to stories unfamiliar words and is not able to get
play an important role because stories the meaning of those words he should :
(1) help to teach and learn new and (1) ask the teacher.
difficult words.
(2) ignore or skip the word and keep
(2) use many structures of grammar
and help children to learn them. reading.
(3) present language as a whole. (3) guess the meaning in content.
(4) help the teacher to maintain (4) ask his classmate every time to
classroom discipline. help.
Telegram Group [ Notes ] - https://t.me/TET_CTET
P-I (49) P
– V
– II
: – V .. 121 150) – II
( . ,
121 128 )
,
‘’
:
121.
?
(1)
(2)
, (3)
(4)
, 122. ‘’
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
123.
, ?
, (1)
(2)
, (3)
, (4)
124. ‘ ’ –
, ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Telegram Group [ Notes ] - https://t.me/TET_CTET
P (50) P-I
125. ( .
129 135 )
:
(1)
(2) ,
(3)
,
(4)
,
126. ‘ ...’ ,
-
:
(1)
...
(2)
... -
(3) , ,
... :
(4)
...
127. ‘’ -
(1) : +
(2) +
(3) + -
(4) +
, ,
128. ‘’
?
(1)
(2) ,
(3)
(4)
Telegram Group [ Notes ] - https://t.me/TET_CTET
P-I (51) P
129. - 133. ‘’
(1) ?
(2) (1)
(3) :
(2)
(4)
(3)
130. ?
(4)
(1)
(2)
(3) 134.
(4)
(1)
131.
(2)
(1)
(3)
(2)
(3) (4)
(4)
132. ‘ ’ 135. ‘’ ,
- (1)
(1)
(2)
(2)
(3)
(3)
(4)
(4)
Telegram Group [ Notes ] - https://t.me/TET_CTET
P (52) P-I
136. - _____ 140.
_____ ?
(1) , (1)
(2) , (2)
(3) , (3)
(4) , (4)
137. 141. ‘
’
?
_____
(1) -
(1)
(2)
(2)
(3) -
(3)
(4) -
(4)
138. ‘ 142.
_____
’ -
(1)
(1)
(2)
(2)
(3)
(3) :
(4)
(4) :
139. - 143.
(1) -
(2) - (1)
(3) (2)
(4) (3)
(4) :
Telegram Group [ Notes ] - https://t.me/TET_CTET
P-I (53) P
144. 148. -
(1)
?
(1)
(2) (2)
(3)
(3) :
(4)
(4)
145.
-
(1) 149. - -
(2) _____ _____
(3)
(4)
(1) ,
146. - (2) ,
-
(1) (3) ,
(2) (4) ,
(3) -
(4)
150. -
147. _____ :
(1)
(1) (2)
(2)
(3)
(3)
(4) (4)
Telegram Group [ Notes ] - https://t.me/TET_CTET
P (54) P-I
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
Telegram Group [ Notes ] - https://t.me/TET_CTET
P-I (55) P
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
Telegram Group [ Notes ] - https://t.me/TET_CTET
(56)
READ THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS
CAREFULLY:
1.
1. The manner in which the different questions are to
be answered has been explained in the Test Booklet
which you should read carefully before actually
answering the questions.
2. 2. Out of the four alternatives for each question, only
OMR 2 one circle for the correct answer is to be darkened
completely with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen on
Side-2 of the OMR Answer Sheet. The answer once
marked is not liable to be changed.
3. 3. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet
is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the
Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere
else except in the specified space in the Answer Sheet.
4. 4. Handle the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet with care,
as under no circumstances (except for discrepancy
in Test Booklet Code or Number and Answer Sheet
Code or Number), another set will be provided.
5. The candidates will write the correct Test Booklet
5. Code and Number as given in the Test Booklet /
Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet.
6. A machine will read the coded information in the OMR
Answer Sheet. Hence, no information should be left
incomplete and it should not be different from the
information given in the Admit Card.
7. 7. Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual
material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager,
mobile phone, electronic device or any other material
except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/
room.
8. Mobile phones, wireless communication devices
(even in switched off mode) and the other banned
items should not be brought in the examination halls/
rooms. Failing to comply with this instruction, it will
be considered as using unfair means in the
examination and action will be taken against them
9. including cancellation of examination.
9. Each candidate must show on demand his / her Admit
Card to the Invigilator.
10.
10. No candidate, without special permission of the Centre
Superintendent or Invigilator, should leave his / her seat.
11. 11. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall/
Room without handing over their Answer Sheet to the
Invigilator on duty and sign the Attendance Sheet
twice. Cases where candidate has not signed the
Attendance Sheet second time will be deemed not to
have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as
an unfair means case. The candidates are also
required to put their left hand THUMB impression in
the space provided in the Attendance Sheet.
12. 12. Use of Electronic / Manual Calculator is prohibited.
13. 13. The candidates are governed by all Rules and
Regulations of the Examining Body with regard to
their conduct in the Examination Hall/Room. All cases
of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and
14. Regulations of the Examining Body.
14. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall
be detached under any circumstances.
15. 15. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand
over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator in the
Hall / Room. The candidates are allowed to take
away this Test Booklet with them.
Telegram Group [ Notes ] - https://t.me/TET_CTET
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