Ems 01

Question bank for Energy Managers & Energy Auditors
Chapter: 1.1 Energy Scenario
Part-I: Objective type questions and answers
1. The energy sources, that are either found or stored in nature are
a) Secondary Energy Sources b) Primary Energy Sources
c) both (a) and (b) d) none of the above
2. Which of the following is commercial energy source?
a) Electricity b) Coal c) Oil d) All the above
3. Inexhaustible energy sources are known as
a) commercial Energy b) renewable Energy
c) primary energy d) secondary energy
4. Which country has the largest share of the global coal reserves?
a) Russia b) China c) USA d) India
5. The % of gas reserves for Russian Federation, when compared to world reserve is
considered at
a) 10 % of World reserve b) 20 % of World reserve
c) 30 % of World reserve d) 40 % of World reserve
6. World oil reserves are estimated to last over
a) 45 years b) 60 years c) 200 years d) 75 years
7. World gas reserves are estimated to last over
a) 45 years b) 65 years c) 200 years d) 75 years
8. The global primary energy consumption (2002) was equivalent to
a) 21,842 Mtoe b) 15,360 Mtoe c) 9405 Mtoe d) 12,396 Mtoe
9. The primary energy consumption of India is
a) 1/29 of the world b) 1/16 of the world c) 1/7 of the world d) 1/20 of the world
10. The world average per person energy consumption is equivalent to _____tonnes of
coal
a) 3 b) 2.2 c) 4.5 d) 1.0
11. Which fuel dominates the energy mix in Indian energy scenario?–
a) Oil b) Natural gas c) Coal d) Nuclear
12. The fourth largest producer of coal and lignite in the world is ______ (EM/EA)
a) USA b) Russia c) India d) China
13. Indian per capita energy consumption is ____ of the world average.
a) 4% b) 20% c) 1% d) 10%
1.1 energy scenario - revised(table format) 1
14. Energy consumption per unit of GDP is called as:
a) Energy Ratio b) Energy intensityc) Per capita consumption d) None
15. India’s energy intensity is ___ times of world average.
a) 1.5 b) 2.5 c) 3.6 d) 10
16. India’s current percentage peak demand shortage for electricity is: (EM/EA)
a) 1% b) 3% c) 10% d) 14%
17. Name the Act, which is proposed to bring the qualitative transformation of the
electricity sector:
a) Regulatory Commission Act 1998 b) Indian Electricity Act 1910
c) Supply Act 1948 d) Electricity Act 2003
18. Which of the following is highest contributor to the air pollution?
a) Carbon Monoxide b) Hydro Carbons
c) Sulphur Oxides d) Particulates
19. Projected temperature increase in degree centigrade 2100 due to climate change is:
a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8 Increase
20. Acid rain is caused by the release of the following components from combustion of
fuels.
a) SOx and NOx b) SOx and CO2c) CO2 and NOx d) H2O
Chapter 1.2 Basics of Energy and its various forms
Part – I: Objective Type Questions and Answers
1. The type of energy possessed by the charged capacitor is
a) Kinetic energy b) Electrostatic c) Potential d) Magnetic
2. The energy stored in the bonds of atoms and molecules is called
a) Kinetic energy b) Chemical energy
c) Potential energy d) Magnetic energy
3. Active power consumption of motive drives AC 3 phase can be determined by using one of the
following relations.
a) √3 x V x I b) √3 x V2 x I x cosϕ
c) √3 x V x I2 x Cosϕ d) √3 x V x I x Cosϕ
4. The grade of energy can be classified as low, high, extra ordinary. In case of electrical energy it
would fall under ____ category. (EM/EA)
a) low grade b) extra ordinary grade c) high grade d) none of the above
5. The portion of apparent power that doesn’t do any work is termed as
a) Apparent power b) Active power
c) Reactive Power d) None of the above
6. Power factor (PF) is the ratio of (EM/EA)
a) Apparent power & Active power b) Active power & Reactive power
c) Active Power & Apparent power d) Apparent power & Reactive power
7. kVA is also called as
a) reactive power b) apparent power
c) active power d) captive power
8. The energy consumed by a 50 kW motor loaded at 40 kW over a period of 4 hours is
a. 50 kWh b) 160 kWh c) 40 kWh d) 2000 kWh
9. The ratio of maximum demand to the connected load is termed as

a) Load factor b) Demand factor
c) Contract demand d) none of the above
10. A single phase induction motor is drawing 10 amps at 230 volts. If the operating power factor of the
motor is 0.9, then the power drawn by the motor is
a) 2.3 kW b) 3.58 kW c) 2.07 kW d) 2.70 kW
11. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of water by 1 OC is termed as
a) Specific heat b) Heat capacity c) One Calorie d) Sensible heat
12. Nameplate kW or HP rating of a motor indicates
a) input kW to the motor b) output kW of the motor
c) minimum input kW to the motor d) maximum input kW to the motor
13. The quantity of heat required to change 1 kg of the substance from liquid to vapor state without
change of temperature is termed as
a) Latent heat of fusion b) Latent heat of vaporization
c) Heat capacity d) Sensible heat
14. The latent heat of condensation of 1 kg of steam at 100 °C to form water at 100 °C, it gives out the
heat of
a) 580 kCal b) 540 kCal c) 620 kCal d) 2260 kCal
15. The specific heat of ____ is very high compared to other common substances listed below.
a) Lead b) Mercury c) Water d) Alcohol
16. The property of viscosity of liquid fuels:
a) decreases with decreasing temperature
b) increases with increasing temperature
c) decreases with increasing temperature
d) ) None of the above
17. The quantity of heat Q, supplied to a substance to increase its temperature depends upon the
following.
a) sensible heat added b) latent heat of fusion
c) specific heat of the substance d) heat capacity
18. Unit of specific heat in SI system is_________.

a) joule /kg °C b) kg/cm2 c) kcal/m3 d) kcal/cm2
19. The change by which any substance is converted from a gaseous state to liquid state is termed as
-----
a) condensation b) Evaporation c) Fusion d) Phase change
20. The method of producing power by utilizing steam generated for process in the boiler is termed as
-----
a) Extraction b) Cogeneration c) Both a & b d) Neither a nor b
Chapter 1.3 Energy management & audit
1. “The judicious and effective use of energy to maximise profits and enhance competitive
positions”. This can be the definition of:
a) Energy conservation b) Energy management
c) Energy policy d) Energy Audit
2. The energy management function is generally vested in –
(a) Senior Management
(b) One energy manager or co-ordinator
(c) Distributed among number of middle manager
(d) (b) & (c) together
3. The objective of energy management includes
a) Minimising energy costs b) minimising waste
c) Minimising environmental degradation d) all the above
4. The ratio of current year’s production to the reference year’s production is called as.
(EA/EM)
a) demand factor b) production factor

c) utilisation factor d) load factor
5. Replacement of steam based hot water generation by solar system is an example of
a) matching energy usage to the requirement
b) maximising system efficiency
c) Energy substitution
d) Performance improvement
6. One unit of electricity is equivalent to ___ kcal heat units.
a) 800 b) 860 c) 400 d) 680
7. The benchmarking parameter for air conditioning equipment is
a) kW/Ton of Refrigeration b) kW/ kg of refrigerant handled
c) kcal/m3 of chilled water d) Differential temperature across chiller
8. The percentage of energy saved at the current rate of use, compared to the reference year
rate of use, is called
a) Energy Utilization b) Energy Performance
c) Energy Efficiency d) None
9. Which instrument is used to monitor O2, CO in flue gas? (EA)
a) Combustion analyzer b) Power analyzer
c) Pyrometer d) Fyrite
1.3 Energy management & audit 15
10. Lux meter is used to measure…… (EA)
a) Illumination level b) Sound intensity and illumination level
c) Harmonics d) Speed
11. For a cement plant the parameter, “kWh/MT of clinker “indicates
a) Energy Index parameter b) Utility factor
c) Production factor d) load factor
12. Energy manger should be well versed with
a) Manufacturing and processing skills b) Managerial and technical skills
c) Technical and marketing skills d) Managerial and commercial skills

13. An energy policy does not include
a) Target energy consumption reduction
b) Time period for reduction
c) Declaration of top management commitment
d) Future production projection
14. CO2 measurement of Fyrite kit is based on (EA)
a) Weight basis (dry) b) Volume basis (dry)
c) Weight basis (wet) d) Volume basis (wet)
15. Non contact speed measurements can be carried out by
a) Tachometer b) Stroboscope
c) Oscilloscope d) Speedometer
16. The tool used for performance assessment and logical evaluation of avenues for
improvement in Energy management and audit is
a) Fuel substitution b) Monitoring and verification
c) Energy pricing d) Bench marking
17. Infrared thermometer is used to measure
a) Surface temperature b) Flame temperature
c) Flue gas temperature d) Hot water temperature
18. Find out the ‘odd’ among the following choices for fuel substitution for industrial sector of
India.
a) LDO with LSHS b) coal with rice husk
c) natural gas for fertilizer plant d) LPG for soft coke
19. The various types of the instruments, which requires during audit need to be
a) easy to carry b) easy to operate
c) inexpensive d) all (a) to (c)
1.3 Energy management & audit 16
20. Air velocity in ducts can be measured by using ___ and manometer
a) Orifice meter b) Borden gauge

c) Pitot tube d) Anemometer
Chapter 1.4 Material and Energy Balance
1. The objective of material and energy balance is to assess the:
a) input-output b) conversion efficiency
c) losses d) all the above e) none of the above
2. In the material balance of a process or unit operation process, which component will not be
considered on the input side?
a) Chemicals b) Water/air c) Recycle d) By product
3. In material balance of a process, recycle product is always considered as
a) input to process b) output to process c) both (a) and (b) d) none of them
4. Losses in material and energy balance is considered as
a) inputs b) outputs c) both (a) and (b) d) none of the above
5. Sankey diagram shows in graphics ___.
a) energy input b) energy output c) energy balance d) all the above
6. In a chemical process of two reactants A (200 kg) and B (200kg) is used as reactants. If
conversion is 50% and A and B reacts in equal proportion then calculate the weight of the
product formed.
a) 150 kg b) 200 kg c) 250 kg d) 400 kg
7. In a furnace, the lower the exhaust temperature ____ is the furnace efficiency.
a) lower b) moderate c) higher d) none of above
8. Which of the following is the predominant loss in a furnace oil fired boiler?
a) dry flue gas losses b) heat loss due to moisture in air
c) heat loss due to radiation and convection d) heat loss due to moisture in fuel
9. In a heat treatment furnace the material is heated up to 800 °C from ambient temperature of
30 ° C considering the specific heat of material as 0.13 kCal / kg °C. What is the energy content
in one kg of material after heating?
a) 150 kCal b) 250 kCal c) 350 kCal 4) 100 kCal
10. If feed of 100 tonnes per hour at 5% concentration is fed to a crystallizer, the product obtained
at 25% concentration is equal to ____ tonnes per hour.
a) 20 b) 25 c) 35 d) 40
11. In an utility steam boiler, heat loss due to radiation normally is in the range of
a) 10% b) 14% c) 1% d) 8%
1.4 Material and Energy Balance 23
12. Energy supplied by combustion of fuel is equal to
a) mass of fuel consumed x its calorific value b) mass of fuel consumed x its density
c) mass of fuel consumed x its specific heat d) mass of fuel consumed x its heat capacity
13. In a coal fired boiler, hourly consumption of coal is 1000 kg. The ash content in the coal is 3%.
Calculate the quantity of ash formed per day. Boiler operates 24 hrs/day.
a) 50 kg b) 300 kg c) 33 kg d) 720 kg
14. Sankey diagram represents an entire input and output energy flow. State True or False?
15. Material and energy balance will identify areas to concentrate for energy conservation.
True or False
16. In a drying process moisture is reduced from 60% to 30%. Initial weight of the material is 200
kg. Calculate the final weight of the product.
a) 100 b) 120 c) 130 d) 114.3
17. Energy supplied by electricity, Q in kCal is equal to _____ .
a) kWh x 8.6 b) kWh x 86 c) kWh x 860 d) none
18. Which one is a secondary form of energy?
a) Furnace oil b) natural gas c) electricity d) coal
19. In material and energy balance, cycle time play an important role.
True or False
20. Sankey diagram is an useful tool to represent ____.
a) financial strength of the company b) management philosophy

c) input and output energy flow d) human resource strength of the company
Chapter 1.5 Energy Action Planning
1. The force field analysis in energy action planning deals with barriers having
a) Positive forces only b) negative forces only
c) Both negative and Positive forces d) no forces
2. From the combination below, which is not a key element of a successful energy
management program?
a) Technical ability b) monitoring system & a strategy plan
c) Security of plant d) top management support
3. In force field analysis of energy action-planning, one of the actions below do not fall under
positive force?
1) high price of energy 2) energy efficient technology available
3) top management commitment 4) lack of awareness
4. The positive force field analysis has one of the following. Identify?
a) Force field itself b) Corporate energy philosophy
c) Energy policy itself d) None of the above
5. The support for energy management is expressed in a formal written declaration of
commitment. This is called
a) Company policy b) Management policy
c) Energy policy d) Energy efficiency policy
6. Budgets for energy use within each activity centre in an organization should be treated
separately like labour, raw material etc. State True or False?
7. The term “Energy is a relatively high component of product cost”, which motivates plant to
take measures for energy conservation? This is a positive force in a field analysis towards
achievement of goal. State True or False?

8. In energy action planning, a formal declaration of energy policy is adopted to
a) Benefit BEE only b) Complete statutory requirement
c) Both (a) & (b) above d) achieve company’s best interests
9. “An integrated energy purchase and energy management budget should be developed as
part of the energy management action plan”. This statement holds good for the company’s
a) Safety b) Accountability c) Reliability d) Stability
10. The location of energy manger in a large organisation could be
a) marketing division b) Plant maintenance unit
c) Corporate Management Services Department d) Finance division
11. Publishing a formal statement of energy policy that can be used to define company
activities in energy matters is the role of -----------------
1.5 energy action planning 33
a) top management b) middle management
c) energy auditor d) energy manager
12. The energy manager has to perform the function of ____.
1) Organizer 2) Planner 3) Decision Maker 4) Team leader
a) 1,2 & 3 b) 1 & 2 only
c) 1,2 & 4 d) All the four above
13. Providing information to BEE is the role of energy manager as per
a) Energy Conservation Act 2003 b) Energy Conservation Act 2004
c) Energy Conservation Act 2002 d) Energy Conservation Act 2001
14. “Publicizing the energy conservation program” includes the following
a) Signs and posters displayed in the factory or office
b) Progress charts showing targets and achievements
c) Energy conservation stickers on light switches and thermostats
d) All the above
15. In energy action planning, Monitoring and targeting is only a part of the comprehensive
information systems. State True or False?

16. “A public expression of organisation's commitment to energy conservation and
environmental protection” is called as
a) Company policy b) Energy policy
c) Management philosophy d) Corporate plan
17. Under Energy Conservation of Act 2001, data on energy consumed & action on
recommendations of accredited energy auditor should be reported to
a) BEE and state level agency once a year
b) BEE and state level agency twice year
c) BEE only
d) State level designated agency only
18. “Training includes the complex technical issues that relate to energy efficient
technologies”. This is useful as part of
a) Energy action planning b) Training division commitment
c) Management philosophy d) None of above
19. Which one of them is a positive force towards achieving goal of reduced energy
consumption?
a) tax on energy consumption
b) competing corporate priorities
c) Insufficient financial resources to fund
d) Absence of corporate energy policy
20. To assess the existing situation of a plant, good energy saving strategy plan starts with…
a) energy audit b) training c) seminar d) none of the above
Chapter 1.6 Financial Management
1. Simple pay back period is equal to:
a) Ratio of First cost/net yearly savings b) Ratio of Annual gross cash flow/capital cost
c) c) ∑= + n t t t k CF 0 (1 )
d) All the above
2. Simple payback period for an energy efficient motor that costs Rs. 1.5 lakh to purchase and
install and is expected to save Rs. 0.75 lakh per annum is:
a) 1.1 years b) 2 years c) 0.75 years d) 2.25 years
3. Which of the following equation used to calculate the future value of the cash flow?
a) NPV (1 – i)n b) NPV (1 + i)n
c) NPV + (1 – i)n b) NPV/ (1 + i)n
4. The NPV of equipment is Rs. 10000 and interest on discount rate is 10%. The future value of
the cash flow at the end of 2 years is:
a) Rs. 10000 b) Rs. 12,100 c) Rs. 8100 d) Rs. 8264
5. The cost of replacement of inefficient compressor with an energy efficient compressor in a
plant was Rs 5 lakh. The net annual cash flow is Rs 1.25 lakh. The return on investment is:
a) 15% b) 20% c) 25% d) 19.35%
6. The ratio of annual net cash flow to capital cost is ____________
a) Net present value b) Internal rate of return
c) Return on investment d) Discount factor
7. The broad indicator of the annual return expected from initial capital investment is __
a) NPV b) IRR
c) ROI d) Discount factor
8. The sum of present values of all the cash flows associated with it is called ___________
a) Return on Investment b) Internal Rate of Return
c) Net Present Value d) None of the above
9. The factor that reflects the risk of the project while evaluating the present value of the expected
future cash flow is ________________
a) Life of the project b) Discount rate
c) Capital cost d) All the above
10. IRR stands for_________
a) Integration rate of return b) Interest return rate

c) Internal rate of return d) Investment return rate
1.6 Financial management - revised (table format) 42
11. For all the expenditures in the plant, the value of cash flow at the end of the year will be
a) Positive b) Negative
c) Nil d) None of the above
12. The set net present value to determine internal rate of return is _______
a) 1 b) 0 c) 10 d) 2
13. The internal rate of return cannot distinguish between ____________
a) Lending b) Borrowing c) Both a & b d) None
14. Sensitivity analysis is an assessment of ________________
a) Profits b) Losses c) Risk d) all
15. The present value of a Rs. 1000 cost in year “0” projected to 10 years at an escalation rate of
5% and a 10% interest rate is:
a) Rs. 4225 b) Rs. 628 c) Rs. 1 d) Rs. 2.33
16. The present value of Rs. 1000 in 10 years time at an interest rate of 10% is:
a) Rs. 2594 b) Rs. 386 c) Rs. 349 d) Rs. 10000
17. What is ESCO?
a) Energy saving company b) Energy sourcing company
c) Energy service company d) Energy section of company
18. ROI must always be ___ than interest rate
a) Lower b) Higher c) Equal d) No relation
19. The key to the successful involvement of an ESCO in performance contracting is:
a) Monitoring b) Verification c) Both a & b d) None
20. Costs associated with the design, planing, installation and commissioning of a project are:
a) Variable costs b) Capital costs c) Salvage value d)None
Chapter 1.7 Project Management

1. Project financing is one of the step of project management- State True or False
2. Proposed new technologies, process modifications, equipment replacements are the
elements of
a) Financing b) contracting c) technical design d) Implementation
3. The term ‘energy services contract’ in a project comes under
a) Financing b) contracting c) monitoring d) evaluation
4. The contractor providing financing and is paid an agreed fraction of actual savings as
they are achieved is called
a) Traditional contract b) Extended financing terms
c) Shared savings performance contract d) energy service contract
5. The contract in which project specifications are provided to a contractor who procures
and installs equipment at cost plus a mark-up or fixed price is called
a) Extended Financing terms b) guaranteed saving performance contract
c) shared saving performance contract d) Traditional contract
6. The technique used for scheduling the tasks and tracking of the progress of energy
management projects is called
a) CPM b) Gantt chart
c) CUSUM d) PERT
7. CPM predicts the time required to complete the project— State True or False
8. The time between its earliest and latest start time, or between its earliest and latest
finish time of an activity is
a) delay time b) slack time c) critical path d) start time
9. The path through the project network in which none of the activities have slack is called
a) start time b) slack time c) critical path d) delay time
10. CPM provides the following benefits
a) graphical view of the project
b) inter-relationship among various tasks
c) Predicts time required to complete the project

d) all the above
1.7 Project management - revised (table format) 50
11. Which of the following statements about critical path analysis (CPA) is true?
a) The critical path is the longest path through the network
b) The critical path is the shortest path through the network
c) Tasks with float will never become critical
d) The network should remain constant throughout the project
12. Project management technique which uses three time estimates-optimistic, pessimistic
and most likely, which help in establishing the probability of completing a project within
a specified time and take calculated risk before commencing a project is---------.
(a) PERT (b) CUSUM (c) CPM (d) none of the above
13. The network model that allows for randomness in activity completion times is called
(a) CUSUM (b) CPM (c) PERT (d) Gantt chart
14. The technique which suggests corrective action to be taken in the light of actual
performance is --------
(a) CUSUM (b) PERT (c) Performance monitoring (d) none of the above
15. Performance is done after implementation. State True or false
16. An effective way of communicating a projects benefit usually as a part of a performance
measuring and reporting process is termed as.
(a) Performance indicator (b) CPM (c) PERT (d) Gantt chart
17. In project management system, Critical Path Method CPM) allows for randomness
activity completion time deterministic method while Programme Evaluation Review
Technique (PERT) uses fixed time estimate for each activity. State True or False.
18. In Critical Path of CPM used in project planning techniques indicates _____ .
a) time require for the completion of the project
b) delays in the project
c) early start and late end of the project
d) none of the above

19. Which of the following does not belongs to project planning technique?
a) CPM b) PERT
c) Gantt chart d) IRR (internal rate of return)
20. Formal project Close Out is necessary:
a) On medium to large projects only b) On all projects
c) Only if a project has been terminated early d) As part of Post Project Appraisal
Chapter 1.8 Energy Monitoring and Targeting
Part – I: Objective type Questions and answers
1. Energy monitoring and targeting is built on the principle of “ _____”.
a) “production can be reduced to achieve reduced energy consumption”
b) “Consumption of energy is proportional to production rate”
c) “You cannot manage what you do not measure”
d) None of the above.
2. One of the following is not the element of energy monitoring & targeting system
a) Recording the energy consumption b) comparing the energy consumption
C) Controlling the energy consumption d) Reducing the production
3. Which of the variable does not contribute to energy consumption?
a) Production b) Hours c) Climate d) none of the above
4. Poor scattering on trend line of production Vs Energy consumption indicates ___.
a) poor level of control b) good level of control
c) both the above d) none of above.
5. Level of production may have an effect on specific energy consumption. State True or False
6. M & T involves a systematic, disciplines division of the facility in to energy cost centres.
State True or False?
7. The empirical relationship used to plot production Vs Energy consumption is (Y= energy
consumed for the period; C = fixed energy consumption; M = energy consumption directly
related to production; X= production for same period).
a) X=Y+MC b) Y=Mx+C c) M=Cx+Y d) None of above
8. The energy used by any business varies with production process, volumes and input – State
True or False.
9. 1 kg LPG = _____ kcal.
a) 12,000 kcal b) 8000 kCal c) 6000 kCal d) 4000 kCal
10. The energy used by any manufacturing process varies with
a) production volume b) type of process
c) resource input d) All the above
11. The best way of correlating production and energy data in any plant is…..
a) Text format b) Graphical representation
c) Oral communication d) None
1.8 energy monitoring and targeting -revised (table format) 58
12. For any company, energy consumption mostly relates to……..
a) Profits b) Inventory c) Production d) All the above
13. What is CUSUM?
a) Cumbersome b) Cumulative Sum c) Calculated Sum d) None
14. A CUSUM graph follows a random fluctuation trend and oscillates around.
a) 100 b) 100% c) 0 d) none of the above
15. To draw a CUSUM chart following data is required
a) Monthly energy consumption& monthly production
b) Monthly specific energy consumption and turn over
c) Monthly profits and production
d) None
16. What is specific energy consumption?
a) energy consumption per month b) Energy consumed per unit of production
c) energy consumption per year d) none of the above
17. Data required to plot a moving annual total is ____.

a) production b) energy
c) both the above d) none the above
18. Energy and production data is useful to calculate……
a) Specific Energy Consumption b) Specific Fuel consumption
c) Specific Cost d) None
19. What type of data is useful to find out the fixed energy consumption?
a) SEC Vs production b) SEC Vs Energy
c) Production Vs energy d) None
20. What do you mean by “toe”
a) Total oil equivalent b) Tons of effluent
c) Tons of oil equivalent d) none of the above
Chapter 1.9 Global Environmental Concerns
Part – I Objective Type Questions
1. The spread of the ‘Stratosphere’ above the Earth’s surface is______
a) Below 15 km b) 10 to 50 km c) above 50 km d) above 100 km
2. The pungent smelling and light bluish gas in Stratosphere is due to_____
a) Carbon molecules b) Ozone molecules c) Nitrogen gas d) Oxygen
3. The ozone layer in the stratosphere acts as an efficient filter for ____
a) Solar UV- B rays b) X-rays c) Gamma rays d) UV-A rays
4. Ozone layer is found in_________
a) Ionosphere b) Troposphere c) Stratosphere d) All
5. The compounds that can easily break ozone molecules are______
a) Chlorine b) Bromine c) Both a & b d) None
6. CFC stands for___________
a) Chloro Fluro Carbons b) Carbon Fluorine Carbon

c) Compact Fluro Carbons d) None of the above
7. The main source of CFCs in household sector is___________
a) Televisions b) Refrigerators c) Washing machines d) All
8. The raise in present temperature of earth compared to 100 years ago is____
a) 2 – 6 ° C b) 0.3 – 0.6 ° C c) 10 ° C d) 0 ° C
9. Global warming is due to release of
a) SO2 b) greenhouse Gases c) inert gases d) free chlorine
10. The main constituents of Greenhouse gases (GHG) are on earth surface are
a) CO2, CH4 b) SOx c) nitrogen d) water vapor
11. The predicted raise in mean sea level due to global warming by the year 2100 ____
a) 1 m b) 1 cm c) 2 m d) 9 -88 cm
12. The agency to look after the climate changes and for action to cut GHG ____
a) UNFCCC b) WHO c) DOE d) GOI
13. What is COP?
a) Conference of Parties b) Coefficient of Pollution
c) Coalition of Parties d) Convention of People
1.9 - Global env. concerns - revised (table format) 67
14. The number of major green house gases covered for their reduction by the Kyoto protocol are
a) 10 b) 2 c) 6 d) 1
15. Which country emits maximum CO2?
a) Australia b) Iceland c) Norway d) USA
16. The year in which India ratified the Kyoto protocol____
a) 1997 b) 2002 c) 2000 d) 2003
17. CDM stands for
a) Carbon Depletion Mechanism
b) Clean Development Mechanism
c) Clear Development Mechanism
d) Carbon Depletion Machinery

18. The fund intended to invest in projects that will reduce green house gas emissions is___
a) Prototype Carbon Fund b) GHG Reduction Fund
c) Pollution Control Fund d) None
19. The first project GOI approved under prototype carbon fund is_____
a) SWERF b) NICE c) Asia-Urbs d) ICT
20. The name of the world commission on Environment and development is ____
a) Brundtland Commission b) Zakaria Commission
c) Planning Commission d) None of the above

BOOK 2- ENERGY EFFICIENCY IN THERMAL UTILITIES
Chapter 2.1: Fuels and Combustion
1. The unit of Density in SI system is ___.
a) kg/m2 b) kgf/m3 c) kg/m2 d) kg/m3
2. Name the instrument used for the measurement of specific gravity of liquid fuels
a) Gravimeter b) Hydrometer c) Bomb calorimeter d) none of the above
3. The unit of specific gravity in SI system is ___________
a) N/m3 b) kgf/m3 c) kg/m2 d) no unit
4. If the liquid fuel is highly viscous, the action required for proper burning in boiler is ___.
a) Pre-heating b) cooling
c) mixing d) vapourising
5. “In case of net calorific value (NCV) of any fuel, it assumes that water leaves with the combustion
products with fully being condensed”. State True or False
6. Identify the fuel which has the highest specific gravity.
a) furnace oil b) LSHS c) LDO d) HSD
7. In case of fuel oils, choose the correct answer from the following, which describes the relation
between “specific heat” and “specific gravity”
a) lighter oil have higher specific heat b) heavier oil have lower specific heat
c) lighter oil have lower specific heat d) none of the above
8. Viscosity of a liquid fluid is very much dependent on
a) pressure b) pipe size
c) temperature d) colour
9. Presence of sulphur in the boiler fuel leads to
a) corrosion b) erosion c) low heat transfer d) none of the above
10. For complete combustion of every kg of FO firing, the approximate theoretical quantity of air
required is:
a) 14 kg b) 18 kg c) 21 kg d) 10 kg
11. Oxygen (O2) percentage measurement by volume basis can be done by using:
a) ultrasonic tester b) potassium oxide probe
c) copper tubes d) zirconium oxide probe
12. The percentage requirement of excess air for efficient combustion for coal is less than that of
natural gas - State True or False.
13. “Turndown ratio” for burners is the ratio of
a) air to fuel
2.1 Fuels & combustion - revised (table format) 1
b) maximum fuel input to actual fuel input
c) maximum fuel input over minimum fuel input
d) maximum air input over minimum air input

14. Which is the best suited pump for pumping LSHS?
a) vertical turbine pump b) centrifugal pump
c) diaphragm pump d) gear pump
15. State whether following statement is true or false
“The proximate” word has meaningful interpretation. While describing “approximate” for a
proximate analysis of coal False
16. The content of solid left in the oven after volatile matter is distilled off (while analysing the
composition of coal in a laboratory) is ___.
a) only sulphur b) only moisture c) only ash d) mix of fixed carbon and ash
17. Large and irregular lumps of coal when fired in a boiler may lead to ____.
a) poor combustion b) low excess air
c) low unburnt fuel in the ash d) high thermal efficiency
18. LPG is predominantly the mixture of Propane and ___ .
a) methane b) ethane c) butane d) Isopropane
19. Which one of the following has a high specific gravity
a) furnace oil b) HSD c) kerosene d) water
20. High percentage of carbon monoxide presence in the flue gas of boiler is an indicator of
a) high excess air b) complete combustion
c) good control of pollutants d) low excess air
Chapter 2.2: Boilers
Part – I: Objective type Questions and Answers
1. The minimum capacity of any closed vessel which generates steam under Indian Boilers Regulation
Act is ___.
a) 2.275 liters b) 22.75 kilo liters
c) 227.5 liters d) 22.75 liters
2. Steam is preferred medium for heating applications because:

a) high latent heat b) temperature break down is easy
c) Easy to control and distribute d) all the above
3. For higher boiler efficiencies, the feed water is heated by ____.
a. recuperator b. convective heater
c. super heater d. economiser
4. The type of firing used for a pulverised coal fired boiler is:
a) over firing b) tangential firing
c) vertical firing d) mixed firing for effective heat transfer
5. The recommended TDS level in boiler drum, that can be safely maintained for the water tube boiler
is:
a) 3000 – 3500 ppm b) 2000 ppm
c) 5000 ppm d) It can be anything
6. An evaporation ratio (steam to fuel ratio) of an efficient oil fired boiler is in the range of ___.
a) 5 – 6 b) 13 - 16
c) 1 d) 7 – 9
7. Pick the boiler, which can be considered as most combustion efficient?
a) fluidised bed combustion boiler b) lanchashire boiler
c) Stoker fired boiler d) chain grate boiler
8. The percentage excess air required for pulverised coal fired boiler is:
a) 40 – 50% b) 15 – 20%
c) 60 – 80% d) 30 – 40%
9. Name the predominant loss component for furnace oil fed boiler.
a) losses due to radiation and convention b) loss due to hydrogen in fuel
c) loss due to dry flue gas d) loss due to moisture in fuel
10. Controlled wetting of coal (during the coal preparation) would result in
a) reduction in flue gas exit temperature
b) decrease in the percentage of unburnt carbon
c) improper combustion
d) increase in the fines of coal

2.2 Boilers -revised (table format). 9
11. A rise in conductivity of boiler feed water indicates ____ .
a) drop in the contamination of feed water
b) greater purity of feed water
c) rise in the contamination of feed water
d) it has got no relation with the contamination of feed water
12. Demineralisation of water is the process to remove --------
a) dissolved oxygen b) dissolved salts c) corbondioxide d) chlorine
13. The presence of calcium and magnesium bicarbonates in water to steam boiler would form:
a) acidic solution b) alkaline solution
c) neutral solution d) none of the above
14. Water treatment for steam boiler is generally required to:
a) remove hydrogen b) prevent formation of scales
c) help improve combustion efficiency d) reduce stack temperature
15. In a plant a boiler is generating a saturated steam of 2 tonnes/hour at a pressure of 7.0 kg/cm2g.
The feed water temperature is 70 °C and furnace oil consumption is 138 kg/h. What is the efficiency
of the boiler by using direct method of efficiency evaluation? (calorific value of FO is 10,000
kCal/kg, enthalpy of steam is 660 kCal/kg.
a) 65 b) 75 c) 85 d) 95
16. The ‘indirect method’ of evaluating boiler efficiency is also called as “Heat Loss” method. – True or
False?
17. Good opportunity for energy savings from continuous blow down water of boiler is by ___.
a) reusing the hot water so formed as make up water
b) using the blow down steam to run steam turbine
c) utilisation of flash steam in deaerator
18. De-aeration of boiler feed water is referred to as:
a) removal of dissolved gases b) removal of silica

c) removal of scales by blow down d) phosphate treatment of feed water
19. The percentage raise in boiler efficiency by a 20 degree centigrade raise in combustion air
temperature is ___.
a) 0.1% b) 0.2% c) 10% d) 1%
20. The elements of ultimate analysis of fuel does not include
a) carbon b) Hydrogen
c) oxygen d) volatile matter
Chapter 2.3: Steam System
Part–I: Objective type Questions and Answers
1. For industrial process heating, the best quality of steam is:
a) dry saturated steam b) superheated steam
c) wet steam d) high pressure steam
2. What type of steam is generally used for power generation/application.
a) high pressure steam with super heat b) dry saturated low pressure steam
c) dry saturated steam with high pressure d) wet steam with very high pressure
3. In indirect steam heating, ………………….heat is utilised for heating application.
a) Sensible b) Latent c) Specific heat d) none of the above
4. The normal velocities encountered in pipes for superheated steam is
a) 50-70 m/sec b) 30-40 m/sec c) 20-25 m/sec d) 15-20 m/sec
5. The normal velocities encountered in pipes for saturated steam is
a) 60 to 80 m/sec b) 10-30 m/sec c) 5 to 10 m/sec d) 30 to 40 m/sec
6. Which among the following steam traps has the principle of operation “Difference in temperature
between steam and condensate”
a) thermodynamic trap b) thermostatic trap c) orifice type trap d) float trap
7. In industrial applications the type of trap used for main steam lines are
a) thermodynamic b) thermostatic c) bimetallic d) float

8. Velocity of steam in steam pipe is directly proportional to
a) number of bends in pipe b) specific volume of steam
c) length of pipe d) none of the above
9. Steam is not desirable among the choice given below from process heating application point of view
for drying application will be less if we heat with
a) saturated steam b) dry steam
c) superheated steam d) high pressure steam
10. Which type of insulation is more economic or energy efficient for steam pipelines carrying saturated
steam?
a) glass wool b) ceramic fibre c) calcium silicate d) fibre bricks
11. For flash steam calculation, flash steam quantity available depends upon ___
a) condensate pressure and flash steam pressure
b) pressure of steam generated in boiler
c) Steam enthalpy at atmospheric pressure
d) Total heat of flash steam
12. Superheat is the addition of heat to dry saturated steam without increase in pressure. State True or
False
2.3 Steam system - revised (table format). 18
False.
13. Enthalpy of evaporation is also known as latent heat.
True/false
14. Match the steam traps to the application listed below:
Application Suitable traps
1. steam mains a. Mechanical, bucket, float
2. Equipments – re-boiler, heater dryer, heat exchanger etc. b. Bi-metallic
3. Tracer lines, instrumentation c. Thermodynamics
Ans. 1-c; 2-a; 3-b
15. The equipment used to remove dirt from steam lines before steam trap is
a) Vent b) Drain c) Strainer d) By pass line
16. As a thumb of rule, in case of efficiency issues for boiler, for every 6 °C rise in feed water
temperature,
there will be approximately 1% saving of fuel.
True/False
17. Water hammer is common in
a) water pipes b) condensate pipes
c) steam pipes with steam and condensate d) main steam lines with good traps
18. Mechanical steam traps works on the principle of
a) Difference in density between steam and condensate
b) Difference in thermodynamic properties between steam and condensate
c) Difference in temperature between steam and condensate
d) None of the above
19. Proper sizing of steam pipeline helps in minimising
a) steam requirement b) temperature drop
c) Boiler efficiency d) pressure drop
20. The problem of water hammer can be eliminated by positioning the pipes so that there is a
continuous slope in the direction of flow. State True or False.
Chapter 2.4: Furnaces
Part-I: Objective type Questions and Answers
1. The hearth pressure in the heating zone of furnace should be:
a) Slightly negative pressure b) Slightly positive pressure
c) High negative pressure d) High positive pressure
2. Which of the following furnaces have higher operating efficiency
a) low temperature furnaces b) high temperature furnaces
c) continuous kiln d) oven
3. For optimum fuel consumption, the pressure at which furnaces operate should be ___.
a) slightly negative b) slightly positive
c) neutral d) any of the above
4. In case of furnace performance, ‘infiltration’ is less harmful than ‘exfiltration’ when compared on
energy efficiency aspects. - True or false?
5. The types of furnace in which preheating of air temperature will be maximum with respect to waste
heat recovery system is ___.
a) recuperative type b) regenerative type c) convective type d) none
6. In large glass industries, the equipment connected with glass melting furnace for preheating the air is
___.
a) recuperators b) regenerators
c) shell & tube heat exchanger d) heat wheels
7. Pick up the wrong statement:
The thermal efficiency of the furnace increases by
a) increasing the furnace loading b) increasing the excess air flow rate
c) reducing the surface heat loss d) minimising the CO loss and unburnt losses
8. If there is an opening on the furnace body, heat in the furnace escapes to the outside mainly as:
a) radiation heat b) conduction heat c) convection heat d) none of the above
9. In case of film burners, the excess air level maintained for optimum combustion is of the order of
___.
a) 20-25% b) 5 to 10% c) 15 to 20% d) none of the above
10. The heat storage losses in ceramic fibre insulation in furnaces are maximum compared to other
refractories – State True or False.
2.4 Furnaces - revised (table format) 25
11. Thermal efficiency of reheating furnace is of the order of
a) 70 to 80% b) 65 to 70% c) 40 to 50% d) 20 to 40%
12. The efficiency of a reheating furnace, operating at 10 tonnes per hour consuming furnace oil of 230
kg/hour for reheating the material from 40 °C – 1100 °C (consider specific heat of material is 0.13
kCal / kg °C and calorific value of furnace oil is 10,000 kCal /kg) is ___.
a) 60 b) 70 c) 80 d) 50
13. The axis of the burner in a furnace should be kept:
a) slightly inclined towards the roof b) more inclined towards roof
c) slightly inclined towards the stock d) parallel to stock
14. The equipment used in reheating furnaces to control the excess air is ___.
a) air/fuel ratio controller b) air preheater
c) fuel preheater d) flue gas cooler
15. Thermal Conductivity of the refractories has an effect on heat losses from furnace walls. True/False
16. The emissivity of ceramic coatings used in furnace:
a) decreases with increase in temperature b) Increases with increase in temperature
c) remains constant d) decreases with increase in furnace pressure
17. Higher excess air in an oil fired furnace would result in:
a) increased furnace temperature b) increased heating rate
c) reduced flame temperature d) none of the above
18. Instrument used for measuring billet temperature in a reheating furnace is ___.
a) thermograph b) infrared pyrometer
c) Pt/Pt-Rh thermocouple with indicator d) chrome alumnel thermocouple with indicator
19. Normal operating temperature of rolling mill furnace is about
a) 800 oC b) 900 oC c) 1000 oC (d) 1200 °C
20. In reheating furnace, scale losses will:
a) increase with excess air b) decrease with the excess air
c) will have no relation with excess air d) will increase with nitrogen in air
Chapter 2.5: Insulation & Refractories
1. A thermal insulator is
a) good conductor of heat and has high thermal conductivity

b) poor conductor of heat and has high thermal conductivity
c) good conductor of heat and has low thermal conductivity
d) poor conductor of heat and has low thermal conductivity
2. The insulation material suitable for low temperature application is
a) Mineral fibre b) Fibre glass c) Silica d) polyurethane
3. The insulation materials used for medium temperature application is
a) Asbestos b) Calcium silicate c) Mineral fibre d) All of the above
4. ‘Ceramic fibre insulation’ is suitable up to temperature of
a) 540 °C b) 1050 °C c) 1430 °C d) 1850 °C
5. Match the following:
Insulating material Suitable temperature
a) Rockwool i) - 178 °C to 4 °C
b) Fibre glass ii) -167 °C to 82 °C
c) Polystyrene iii) Up to 820 °C
d) Polyurethane iv) Up to 540 °C
a-iii); b-iv); c-ii); d-i)
6. Select the suitable cost effective insulation for steam pipelines with temperature of 540 °C.
a) calcium silicate b) fibre glass c) rock wool d) Alumina
7. The unit for thermal coefficient of insulation and refractories is SI system is ____.
a) K.cal/m-hr-°C b) K.cal/ m²-hr-°C c) K.cal/m²-°C d) K.cal/ m-°C
8. The coefficient of thermal expansion of refractory material should be ___.
a) low b) High c) Medium d) very high
9. Magnesite, chrome-magnesite, dolomite are examples of --------- type of refractory
a) acid b) basic c) neutral d) none of the above
2.5 Insulation & refractories - revised (table format) 32
10. Alumina is a ____ type of refractory.
a) acid b) basic c) Neutral d) None of the above
11. The heat conductivity of refractory material should be ___.

a) low b) High c) Medium c) None
12. The most common form of refractory material extensively used in the construction of small furnaces
is-----
a) silica bricks b) Fire brick
c) chrome magnesite d) Calcium silicate blocks
13. The thermal conductivity of a ideal refractory material should be ____ .
a) low b) high c) medium d) None of the above
14. Mark the best choice of insulation material for electric heat treatment furnace among the following
group.
a) glass wool b) calcium silicate c) fire bricks d) ceramic fibre
15. The refractory which can resist most of the chemical attack and is unaffected by hydrocarbons,
water
and steam present in flue gas is -------
a) Alumina b) Ceramic Fibre c) Fire Brick d) Mineral Fibre
16. High emissivity coatings are applied on:
a) Outer surface of furnace b) Refrigeration pipings
c) Inner surface of furnace d) None of the above
17. The content on which ceramic fibres will be produced in two temperature grades is ___.
a) Al2O3 b) SiO2 c) ZrO2 d) All the above
18. The component required to reduce shrinkage levels in alumino silicate fibre is ___.
a) Al2O3 b) ZrO2 c) SiO2 d) All the above
19. The effect of thermal conductivity on thermal resistance of an insulation is ___.
a) Increases with increased thermal conductivity
b) Decreases with decreased thermal conductivity
c) Decreases with increased thermal conductivity
d) Increases with decreases thermal conductivity
20. The insulation which can be used for lining furnaces operating up to 1850oC is:
Chapter 2.6: FBC Boilers
1. In FBC boilers fluidization depends largely on ---------
a) Particle size b) Air velocity c) Both (a) and (b) d) Neither (a) nor (b)
2. The bed temperature for a FBC boiler ranges between----------
a) 750 – 800°C b) 840 – 950 °C c) 950 - 1000°C d) 1000 - 1200°C
3. The material used to control SO2 and NOx in the FBC boiler is
a) Limestone b) Alumina c) Silica d) All of the above
4. The difference between mean solid velocity and gas velocity in FBC boiler is called ----------
a) Fluidization b) slip velocity c) settling velocity d) None of the above
5. FBC boiler has an advantage of:
a) Burning high quality coal b) Burning variety liquid fuels
c) Burning wide variety of coal d) None of the above
6. The velocity of fluidizing air in atmospheric fluidized bed boiler is in the range of:
a) Higher than 4.5 m/sec b) 1.2 – 3.7 m/sec
c) Less than 1.2 m/sec d) 4-6 m/sec
7. The coal particle size used for CFBC boiler is in the range of:
a) 5 – 6 mm b) 6 – 12 mm c) 12 – 15 mm d) 15 – 25 mm
8. In India commonly used power plant boilers are:
a) PFBC boiler b) AFBC boilers
c) Pulverized coal fired boilers d) Stoker fired boilers
9. When the boiler bed temperature exceeds beyond 950°C, the result is:
a) Low steam temperature b) clinker formation
c) Melting of lime stones d) Ash carry over
10. For even distribution of fluidized air in AFBC boilers, which one of the following is used?
a) perforated metal distributor plate b) In bed tubes
2.6 FBC boilers - revised (table format) 41

c) Compressed air through nozzles d) Secondary air from sides
11. In FBC boiler the combustion is carried out at a temperature
a) closer to steam temperature b) At adiabatic combustion temperature
c) at and above ash fusion temperature d) Below ash fusion temperature of fuel used
12. The boiler popularly used in modern sugar mills are:
a) FBC with under feeding system b) FBC with over feeding
c) Pulverised fuel boiler d) PFBC boilers
13. CFBC is a good choice if
a) capacity of boiler is medium to large
b) sulphur emission and NOx control is important
c) the boiler required to fire low grade fuel or fuel with highly fluctuating fuel quality
d) All of the above
14. Residence time of combustion particles in FBC boiler is many times greater than conventional grate
firing. – True or False
15. Circulating bed systems have better turndown ratio than bubbling bed systems. State whether True
or
False
16. The combustion air pressure required for circulating bed systems is
a) 3-5 psig b) 1.5-2.0 psig c) 4.0-6.0 psig d) None of the above
17. For efficient sulphur retention, the temperature of the bed in a fluidized bed boiler should be
a) 950°C b) 1100°C c) 850°C d) none of the above
18. Popular type of boiler used for combined cycle power generation application.
a) CFBC b) AFBC c) PFBC d) All the above
19. Fluidized bed combustion boilers can operate with overall efficiency of-------
a) 75 ± 2% b) 80 ± 2% c) 84 ± 2% d) 90 ± 2%
20. In FBC boilers the percentage of bottom ash to the total ash is about:
a) 0% b) 60 – 70% c) 30 – 40% d) 80 – 90%

Chapter 2.7: Cogeneration
1. In cogeneration, the system efficiencies can go up to ------
a) 70% b) 80% c) 90% d) 60%
2. Cogeneration is the simultaneous generation of ------------.
a) heat and power b) steam and condensate
c) Mechanical Energy and power d) All the above
3. In the context of cogeneration turbine, thermodynamic process taking place due to:
a) contraction b) expansion c) condensation d) all the above
4. Rankine cycle is related to
a) boiler b) steam turbine c) condenser d) all the above
5. Find the thermodynamic cycle not related to cogeneration.
a) Brayton cycle b) Rankine cycle
c) Otto cycle d) Bell-Coleman cycle
6. In a combined cycle power plant consisting of gas turbine and waste heat boiler, the exhaust gas
temperature is ____.
a) around 150 °C b) around 500 °C
c) around 300 °C d) around 400 °C
7. Match the following:
Cogeneration system Over all efficiency
(%)
1. Reciprocating engine i) 70 – 85
2. Gas turbine ii) 60 – 80
3. Extraction-condensing steam turbine iii) 75-85
4. Back pressure steam turbine iv) 84-92
1-iii; 2-i; 3-ii, 4-iv
8. _____ type of steam turbines have high power to heat ratio
a) back pressure turbine b) gas turbine

c) extraction condensing turbine d) None of the above
9. In a glass industry, exhaust gas from the glass melting furnace is used for power generation by
installing steam boiler and turbine. Then the type of co-generation is called as:
a) gas turbine b) diesel generator c) topping cycle d) bottom cycle
2.7 Cogeneration - revised (table format) 49
10. The equipment having the highest efficiency in case of conventional power plant is ---
a) boiler b) turbine c) generator d) cooling tower
11. The overall efficiency of combined cycle cogeneration is of the order of:
a) 69 – 83 b) 90 – 95 c) 70 – 90 d) 55 – 60
12. The cogeneration system which has high overall system efficiency is ----
a) Gas turbine b) Reciprocating engine
c) Back pressure steam turbine d) Combined cycle
13. The statement “the overall thermal efficiency of an extraction condensing turbine in cogeneration
system is lower than that of back pressure turbine system”. State whether True / False?
14. The ratio of actual work output of the turbine to the net energy input is termed as-----
a) Overall efficiency b) Generator efficiency
c) Turbine efficiency d) None of the above
15. Heat to power ratio in a paper industry is in the range of ------------
a) 1.1 – 4.5 b) 1.5 – 2.5 c) 0.8 – 3.0 d) 1.5 – 2.5
16. Heat to power ratio of combined cycle cogeneration is in the range of-------------
a) 4.0 – 5.0 b) 1.0 – 1.7 c) 2.0 – 10 d) 1.0 – 5.0
17. A gas turbines operates under exacting conditions of ____.
a) low speed & low temperature b) low speed & high temperature
c) high speed & low temperature d) high speed & high temperature
18. Air compressor alone consumes about ------- of the energy generated in a gas turbine
a) 20-30% b) 30-40% c) 40-50% d) 50-60%
19. Which one of the following cannot be used as fuel for the gas turbine:
a) naphtha b) LPG c) natural gas d) LSHS

20. Cogeneration concept is not applicable to which type of industry?
a) sugar b) paper & pulp c) refinery d) refractor
Chapter 2.8: Waste Heat Recovery
1. Major advantage of waste heat recovery in industry is:
a) reduction in pollution b) increase in efficiency
c) both a & b d) none of the above
2. Heat recovery equipment will be most effective when the temperature of flue gas is:
a) 250oC b) 200 oC c) 400 oC d) 280 oC
3. The waste gases coming out from gas turbine exhausts are of the order of:
a) 370-540 b) 450 – 700 c) 700-800 d) 250-440
4. Recuperator is used mainly as a waste heat recovery system in a ____ .
a) boiler b) billet Reheating Furnace
c) compressor d) none of the above
5. Recuperator will be more efficient if the flow path of hot and cold fluids is in:
a) co-current mode b) counter current mode
c) cross current mode d) none of the above
6. The major limitation of metallic recuperator is -------
a) limitation of handling COx, NOx etc.
b) limitation of reduced life for handling temperature more than 1000 oC
c) manufacturing difficulty of the required design
7. Ceramic recuperators can withstand temperatures up to:
a) 600 oC b) 1300 oC c) 1700oC d) 950oC
8. Air preheater is not used as a waste heat recovery system in a____.
a) boiler b) billet Reheating Furnace

c) heat treatment furnace d) compressor
9. Typical waste gases temperature from glass melting furnace
a) 1000-1550 oC b) 800-950 oC c) 650–750 oC d) 760-815 oC
2.8 Waste Heat - revised (table format) 58
10. Regenerator is widely used in:
a) reheating Furnaces b) heat treatment furnaces
c) baking Ovens d) glass melting furnaces
11. In a low to medium temperature waste heat recovery system which of the device is most suitable
a) economiser b) heat wheels c) air preheater d) recuperator
12. Recovery of heat from dryer exhaust air is a typical application of:
a) waste heat recovery boiler b) heat pump
c) heat wheels d) economizer
13. From a reciprocating engine exhausts (turbo charged), the temperature of waste gases lies in the
range of
a) 230-450 °C b) 600 °C c) 800-900 °C d) none of the above
14. Capillary wick is a part of
a) heat pump b) heat wheel c) heat pipe d) regenerator
15. Economizer is provided to utilize the flue gas heat for ___
a) preheating the boiler feed water b) preheating the stock
c) preheating the combustion air d) preheating fuel
16. A recuperator counter flow type for preheating air receives flue gases at 816 oC and exits at 371 oC.
The air
enters at 37.8 oC and is preheated to 260 oC. The LMTD is :
a) 604 b) 404 c) 435 d) 224
17. For every 6oC rise in feed water temperature through an economiser the fuel savings in the boiler is
of the
order of
a) 1% b) 1.5% c) 3% d) 2%
18. Recovery of waste heat from hot fluid to fluid is called:

a) thermo compressor b) waste heat recovery boiler
c) heat Pump d) economizer
19. Thermo-compressor is commonly used for
a) compressing hot air b) flash steam recovery
c) distillation d) reverse compression of CO2
20. Pick up the odd one out:
2.8 Waste Heat - revised (table format) 59
a) regenerator b) recuperator c) metallic recuperator d) economizer

BOOK 3 : ENERGY EFFICIENCY IN ELECTRICAL UTILITIES
Chapter 3.1: Electrical System
1. The heat input required for generating ‘one’ kilo watt-hour of electrical output is called as ___.
a) Efficiency b) Heat Rate c) Calorific Value d) Heat value
2. Which of the voltage is not available for Indian distribution system?
a) 33 kV b) 11 kV c) 280 V d) 433 V
3. The power loss in transmission/distribution line depends on ____.
a) Current in the line b) Resistance of the line c) Length of the line d) All
4. If distribution of power is raised from 11 kV to 66 kV, the voltage drop would lower by a factor
a) 6 times b) 1/6 times c) 36 times d) 1/36 times
5. If the distribution voltage is raised from 11 kV to 33 kV, the line loss would be lower by a factor:
a) 1/9 b) 9 c) 3 d) None
6. The maximum demand of an industry, if trivector meter records 3600 KVA for 15 minutes and
3000 kVA for next 15 minutes over a recording cycle of 30 minutes is_____.
a) 3600 kVA b) 3000 kVA c) 3300 kVA d) 600 kVA
7. Presenting the load demand of a consumer against time of the day is known as___.
a) Time Curve b) Load curve c) Demand curve d) Energy curve
8. The vector sum of active power and reactive power required is ____.
a) Apparent Power b) Power Factor c) Load Factor d) Maximum Demand
9. Power factor is the ratio of ____ and apparent power.
a) Active power b) Reactive power c) Load Factor d) Maximum Demand

10. The kVAr rating required for improving the power factor of a load operating at 500 kW and 0.85
power factor to 0.95 is ________.
a) 145 kVAr b) 500 kVAr c) 50 kVAr d) 100 kVAr
11. The rating of the capacitor at motor terminals should not be greater than _____ .
a) magnetizing kVAr of the motor at full load b) magnetizing kVAr of the motor at no load
c) magnetizing kVAr of the motor at half load d) magnetizing kVAr of the motor at 75% load
12. The percentage reduction in distribution loses when tail end power factor raised from 0.8 to 0.95 is
________.
a) 29% b) 15.8% c) 71% d) 84%
13. If voltage applied to a 415 V rated capacitors drops by 10%, its VAR output drops by ____.
a) 23% b) 87% c) 19% d) 10%
14. The ratio between the number of turns on the secondary to the turns on the primary of a
transformer is know as:
a) turns ratio b) efficiency c) winding factor d) power factor
3.1 Electrical system - revised (table format) 1
15. The sum of individual maximum demand of the plant to the sum of individual maximum demand
of various equipments is ______.
a) load factor b) diversity Factor c) demand Factor d) maximum demand
16. Core losses in transformer are caused by ______.
a) Hysteresis loss b) Eddy current loss c) both a & b d) None
17. The load losses in transformer vary according to ________.
a) Loading of transformer b) Square of loading of transformer
c) Cube of loading of transformer d) None
18. The total losses in a transformer operating at 50% load with designed no load and load losses at 2
kW and 20 kW respectively are _______.
a) 7 kW b) 12 kW c) 4.5 kW d) 22 kW
19. The total amount of harmonics present in the system is expressed using ___.
a) Total Harmonic Factor b) Total Harmonic Ratio

c) Total Harmonic Distortion d) Crest Factor
20. The 5th and 7th harmonic in a 50 Hz power environment will have:
a) voltage and current distortions with 55 Hz & 57 Hz
b) voltage and current distortions with 500 Hz & 700 Hz
c) voltage and current distortions with 250 Hz & 350 Hz
d) no voltage and current distortion at all
Chapter 3.2: Electric Motors
Part–I: Objective type questions and answers
1. The synchronous speed of a motor with 6 poles and operating at 50 Hz frequency is ___.
a) 1500 b) 1000 c) 3000 d) 750
2. The efficiency figures for energy efficient motors (in comparison with standard efficiency motor)
can be generally higher by____%.
a) 1% b) 3-7% c) 10% and above d) 8-10%
3. The power consumption, in case of centrifugal loads (like pump, fan, blower etc.), proportional to
____.
a) speed b) square of speed c) cube of speed d) not applicable
4. Which types of following motors are most efficient?
a) TEFC b) SPDP c) Both d) None
5. What determines the thermal loading on the motor?
a) Duty/Load cycle b) Temperature of the winding
c) Age of the motor d) Ambient conditions
6. Unbalance in voltages at motor terminals is caused by ____.
a) Supplying single phase loads disproportionately b) Use of different sizes of cables
c) Both (a) & (b) d) None of the above
7. With decrease in speed of the motor, the required capacitive kVAr:
a) Increases b) Decreases c) Does not change d) None of the above
8. Application of DC motors is generally restricted to a few load speed applications because of

_____.
a) cost of the motor is high b) problems with mechanical commutation
c) Maintenance problems d) None of the above
9. The speed of an AC motor depends on ____ .
a) Frequency b) No. of poles
c) both (a) and (b) d) None of the above
10. The speed of the motor can be varied by ___.
a) Changing supply frequency b) Changing no. of poles
c) Using multi speed windings d) All the above
11. Which of the following are ill suited for energy efficient motors application?
a) Pumps b) Fans c) Punch Presses d) All the above
12. Reduction in supply voltage by 10% will change the torque of the motor by ___.
a) 38% b) 19% c) 9.5% d) no change
3.2 electric motors - revised (table format) 10
13. Five percent increase in supply frequency will change the synchronous speed by _____.
a) -5% b) +5% c) -10% d) +10%
14. The inexpensive way to improving energy efficiency of a motor which operates consistently at
below 40% of rated capacity is by _____.
a) Operating in Star mode b) Replacing with correct sized motor
c) Operating in delta mode d) None
15. Which of the following needs to be measured after rewinding of motor?
a) No load current b) winding resistance
c) air gap d) all the above
16. Output power requirements of constant torque loads vary with _____.
a) Speed b) voltage c) Current d) power factor
17. Which of the following is an AC motor?
a) Slip ring motor b) Synchronous motor
c) Squirrel cage Induction d) all of the above

18. Stray losses in an induction motor generally are ____ .
a) proportional to the square of the stator current
b) proportional to the square of the rotor current
c) proportional to the rotor current
d) inversely proportional to the square of rotor current
19. Which of the following information available on name plate of a motor?
a) HP rating b) RPM
c) Frame model d) all the above
20. Machine tools are a typical example of
a) Constant power load b) Constant torque load
c) Variable torque load d) a & b
Chapter 3.3: Compressed Air System
1. Which of the following type does Screw compressor belongs to?
a) Positive displacementcompressor b) Dynamic compressors
c) Both a & b d) None of the above
2. The compressor capacity of a reciprocating compressor is directly proportional to __
a) Speed b) Pressure c) Volume d) All
3. Vertical type reciprocating compressors are used in the capacity range of _____
a) 50 – 150 cfm b) 200 – 500 cfm c) Above 10ooo cfm d) 10 – 50 cfm
4. The specific power consumption of non lubricated compressor compared to lubricated type is ____
a) Lesser b) Same c) Higher d) None
5. The discharge temperature of two stage compressor compared to single stage one is ____
a) Lesser b) Same c) Higher d) None
6. The compression ratios for axial flow compressors are ____.
a) Lesser b) Higher c) moderate d) None
7. The volumetric efficiency of the compressor ______ with the increase in altitude of place
a) increases b) decreases c) does not change d) None
8. The ratio of isothermal power to actual measured input power of a compressor is known as:
a) Isothermal efficiency b) Volumetric Efficiency c) Barometric efficiency
d) None
9. The basic function of air dryer in a compressor is:
a. prevent dust from entering compressor
b. storage and smoothening pulsating air output
c. reduce the temperature of the air before it enters the next state to increase efficiency
d. to remove remaining traces of moisture after after-cooler
10. For every 4°C raise in air inlet temperature of an air compressor, the power consumption will
increases by_____
a) 2% b) 1% c) 3% d) 4%
11. The percentage increase in power consumption of a compressor with suction side air filter and with
the pressure drop across the filter of 200 mmWc is ____
a) 1.0% b) 3% c) 2.4% d) 1.6%
12. Which of the statement is “True” for centrifugal compressors?
a) The compressor should not be operated at full load
b) The compressor should be operated at shut off pressure
c) The compressor should not be operated with inlet-guide vane control
3.3 Compressed air system - revised (table format) 17
d) The compressor should not be operated close to the surge point
13. Identify the correct statement for air compressors.
a. For every 5.5oC drop in the inlet air temperature, the increase in energy consumption is by 2%.
b. For every 4 oC rise in the inlet air temperature, the decrease in energy consumption is by 1%
c. For every 4 oC rise in the inter air temperature, the increase in energy consumption is by 1%
d. The energy consumption remains same irrespective of inlet air temperature
14. Reduction in the delivery pressure of a Compressor working at 7 bar, by 1 bar would reduce the
power
consumption by
a) 6 to 10 % b) 2 to 3 % c) 12 to 14 % d) None of the above
15. The acceptable pressure drop at the farthest point in mains header of an industrial compressed air
network is:
a)0.3 bar b) 0.5 bar c) 1.0 bar d) 2 bar
16. The likely estimate on equivalent power wastage for a leakage from 7 bar compressed air system
through 1.6 mm orifice size is ____
a) 0.2 kW b) 3.0 kW c) 0.8 kW d) 12 kW
17. From the point of lower specific energy consumption, which of the following compressors are
suitable
for part load operation?
a) Two stage reciprocating compressors b) Centrifugal compressors
c) Two stage screw compressor d) Single stage screw compressor
18. From base load operation and from achieving best specific energy consumption point of view, which
of the following compressors are suitable?
a) Single stage reciprocating compressors b) Centrifugal compressors
c) Two stage reciprocating compressor d) Multi stage reciprocating compressor
19. Which of the following parameters are not required for evaluating volumetric efficiency of the
compressor?
a) Power b) Cylinder bore diameter c) Stroke length d) FAD
20. If the compressor of 200 cfm loads in 10 seconds and unloads in 20 seconds, the air leakage would
be_____
a) 67 cfm b) 100 cfm c) 10 cfm d) 133 cfm
Chapter 3.4: HVAC & Refrigeration System
1. One ton of refrigeration (TR) is equal to ____.
a) 3024 Kcal/h b) 3.51 kW c) 120oo BTU/h d) all

2. The driving force for refrigeration in vapour absorption refrigeration plants is____
a) Mechanical energy b) Thermal energy c) Electrical energy d) All
3. The main disadvantage of use of HFCs and HCFCs compared to use of CFCs is_____
a) Low Efficiency b) High heat output c) High emissions d) All
4. COP of absorption refrigeration systems
a) Between 4-5 b) less than 1.1 c) above 1.1 d) always 2.5
5. Match the following in respect of typical specific energy consumption (kW per TR) of
refrigeration compressors.
Refrigeration
Compressor
kW/TR
a) Reciprocating i) 0.63 kW/TR
b) Centrifugal ii) 0.65 kW/TR
c) Screw iii) 0.7 – 0.9 kW/TR
Ans. a-iii; b-i; c-ii
6. The essential parameters to estimate cooling load from air side across air handling unit (AHU) /
Fan Coil Unit (FCU) are_______.
a) Flow rate b) dry bulb temperature c) RH% or wet bulb temperature d) all
7. In water cooled refrigeration systems, condenser cooling water temperature should be close to:
a) dry bulb temperature b) wet bulb temperature
c) dew-point temperature d) any of the above
8. Centrifugal compressors are most efficient when they are operating at_____.
a) 50% load b) Full load c) 75% Load d) All load conditions
9. In general, designed chilled water temperature drop across the chillers is____ °C.
a) 5 °C b) 1 °C c) 10 °C d) 15 °C
10. Higher COP can be achieved with_____.
a) Lower evaporator temperature and higher condenser temperature
b) Higher evaporator temperature and Lower condenser temperature
c) Higher evaporator temperature and higher condenser temperature

d) Lower evaporator temperature and Lower condenser temperature
11. The required A/C size for comfort conditions for general living room (12 ft x 12 ft) at residence
is_____.
a) < 0.5 TR b) 1 to 1.5 TR c) > 2.5 TR d) any of the above
3.4 HVAC - revised (table format) 25
12. Typical range of COP value for a compression refrigeration cycle is:
a) 1 to 10 b) 1 to 20 c) 2 to 5 d) 2 to 20
13. The specific energy for a centrifugal chiller producing chilled water at 5.5 °C and condenser water
temperature around 30 °C is the order of:
a) 0.65 – 0.8 kW / TR b) 1.0 kW / TR
c) 1.15 – 1.25 kW/ TR d) 0.45 – 0.55 kW/ TR
14. Approximate percentage reduction in power consumption with 1 °C rise in evaporator
temperature in refrigerating systems is _______.
a) 2% b) 3% c) 1% d) 4%
15. The refrigerant side heat transfer area in evaporators is of the order of ____.
a) 0.1 sqm/TR b) 0.3 sqm/TR c) 0.4 sqm/TR d) 0.5 sqm/TR and above
16. The percentage refrigeration compressor power reduction with 0.55 deg. C temperature
reduction in water returning from cooling tower is ________.
a) 2% b) 3% c) 1% d) 4%
17. Cascade systems for refrigeration are preferable in the temperature range of _______.
a) 5oC to 100C b) -5oC to -100C c) -46oC to -1010C d) 0oC to 100C
18. The efficiency of screw compressor at part load compared to centrifugal compressor is __.
a) higher b) lower c) Same d) None
19. Which of the following compressor has recently become practical in the market?
a) reciprocating b) screw
c) scroll d) all the above
20. The device used to cool the refrigerant in vapour absorption chiller is:
a) vacuum pump b) condenser

c) vacuum condenser d) none of the above
21. The refrigerant temperature after the expansion device compared to after condenser in the vapour
compression refrigeration cycle is____
a) higher b) lower c) Same d) None
Chapter 3.5: Fans and Blowers
Part – I: Objective type questions and answers
1. The parameter used by ASME to define fans, blowers and compressors is____
a) Fan ration b) Specific ratio c) Blade ratio d) Twist factor
2. Which of the following axial fan types is most efficient?
a) Propeller b) Tube axial c) Vane axial d) Radial
3. Which of the following is not a centrifugal fan type?
a) Vane axial b) Radial c) Airfoil, backward d) Forward curved
4. Match the following for centrifugal fan types.
Type Suitable for
a) Backward curved i) High pressure, medium flow
b) Forward curved ii) Medium pressure, high flow
c) Radial iii) High pressure, high flow
(a)-iii); (b)-ii); (c)-i)
5. For fans, the relation between discharge and speed is indicated by____
a)
Q=
N
N b)
Q=2
N c)
Q=3
N d) None
6. The choice of fan type for a given application depends on _______
a) Flow b) Static Pressure c) Both a & b d) neither (a) nor (b)
7. The efficiency of backward curved fans compared to forward curved fans is__
a) Higher b) Lower c) Same d) None
8. Name the fan which is more suitable for high pressure application?
a) Propeller type fans b) Tube-axial fans
c) Backward curved centrifugal fan d) None of the above
9. Axial fans are best suitable for____ application.
a) Large flow, low head b) Low flow, high head
c) High head, large flow d) Low flow, low head

10. The efficiency of forward curved fans compared to backward curved fans is ____
3.5 Fans & blowers - revised (table format) 33
a) Lower b) higher c) Same d) none
11. The efficiency values of Vane axial fans are in the order of:
a) 78 – 85% b) 60 – 70% c) 90 – 95% d) 50 – 60%
12. Backward curved fans have efficiency in the range of:
a) 65 – 70% b) 75– 85% c) 90 – 95% d) 50 – 60%
13. The pressure to be considered for calculating the power required for centrifugal fans is:
a) Discharge static pressure b) Static + dynamic pressure
c) Total static pressure d) Static + ambient air pressure
14. Typical design efficiency of aerofoil fan handling clean air is:
a) 40 to 50% b) 80 to 90% c) 60 to 70% d) 70 to 80%
15. The clearance required for efficient operation of impeller of 1 meter plus diameter in Radial type
fans
is ____
a) 5 to 10 mm b) 1 to 2 mm c) 20 to 30 mm d) 0.5 to 1.5 mm
16. Which type of control gives maximum benefits for fan application from energy saving point of view?
a) Discharge damper control b) Inlet guide vane control
c) Variable pitch control d) Speed control
17. The pressure along the line of the flow that results from the air flowing through the duct is _____
a) Static pressure b) velocity pressure c) Total pressure d) Dynamic pressure
18. The outer tube of the pitot tube is used to measure _____
a) Static pressure b) velocity pressure c) Total pressure d) Dynamic pressure
19. Axial-flow fans are equipped with ______
a) fixed blades b) Curved blades c) Flat blades d) variable pitch blades
20. The ratio of maximum to minimum flow rate is called ________-
a) turn – up ratio b) turn-down ratio c) up-down ratio d) None
21. The density of a gas at a temperature of 50 deg. C at site condition is __

a) 0.94 kg/m3 b) 1.2 kg/m3 c) 1.5 kg/m3 d) 1.4 kg/m3
Chapter 3.6: Pumps & Pumping System
Part I: Objective type questions and answers
1. Positive displacement pumps are generally less efficient than centrifugal pumps. State whether the
statement is true or false
2. Installing larger diameter pipe in pumping system results in reduction in--------
a) static head b) frictional head c) both a and b d) neither a nor b
3. Generally water pipe lines are designed with water velocity of
a) < 1 m/s b) up to 2.0 m/s c) > 2 m/s d) None of the above
4. What is the impact on flow and pressure when the impeller of a pump is trimmed?
a) Flow decreases with increased pressure b) Both flow and pressure increases
c) Both pressure and flow decreases d) None of the above
5. For high flow requirement, pumps are generally operated in
a) parallel b) series c) any of the above d) none of the above
6. “In case of throttling operation, the pump has to overcome additional pressure in order to deliver the
reduced flow”. Please indicate whether this statement is (a) True or (b) False?
7. Friction losses in a pumping system is------
a) proportional to 1/Q b) proportional to Q2
c) proportional to 1/Q3 d) proportional to 1/Q4
8. For large capacity centrifugal pumps, design efficiencies are in the range of
a) around 70% b) around 85% c) around 95% d) any of above
9. The moving part in centrifugal pump is -----
a) impeller b) diffuser c) both a & b d) neither a nor b
10. The most efficient method of flow control in a pumping system is-------
a) Throttling the flow b) Speed control c) Impeller trimming d) None
11. In case of increased suction lift from open wells, the delivery flow rate--------
a) increases b) decreases c) remains same d) none of the above

12. Pump efficiency generally increases with specific speed. State whether the statement is True or
False.
3.6 pumps - revised (table format) 41
13. Throttling the delivery valve of a pump results in increased ____.
a) head b) power c) both (a) and (b) d) either (a) or (b)
14. The operating point in a pumping system is identified by
a) Point of intersection of system curve and efficiency curve
b) Point of intersection of pump curve and theoretical power curve
c) Point of intersection of pump curve and system curve
d) Cannot be decided by pump characteristic curves
15. The intersection point of the pump curve and the system curve is called--------
a) Pump efficiency b) Operating point c) System efficiency d) None of the
above
16. If the speed of a centrifugal pump is doubled, its power consumption increases by------- times.
a) two b) four c) eight d) no change
17. Installation of Variable frequency drives (VFD) allows the motor to be operated with ____.
a) lower start-up current b) higher start-up current
c) constant current d) none of the above
18. In case of centrifugal pumps, impeller diameter changes are generally limited to reducing the
diameter to about ____ of maximum size.
a) 75% b)50% c) 25% d) None of the above
19. If the delivery valve of the pump is throttled such that it delivers 30% of the rated flow, one of the
best options for improved energy efficiency would be
a) Trimming of the impeller b) Replacing the motor
c) Replacing the impeller with a smaller size impeller d) None of the above
20. Small by-pass lines are installed some times to _____.
a) control flow rate b) control pump delivery head
c) prevent pump running at zero flow d) reduce pump power consumption

Chapter 3.7: Cooling Towers
1. The type of cooling towers with maximum heat transfer between air to water is ___.
a) Natural draft b) Mechanical draft c) Both a & b d) Neither a nor b
2. Natural draft cooling towers are mainly used in ____.
a) Steel industry b) alumina industry c) fertilizer industry d) power stations
3. In counter flow induced draft cooling towers water and air both enter the top and exist at the top of
the cooling tower. State whether True or False?
4. The range of the cooling tower is determined by the connected heat load – True or False?
5. Match the following cooling tower parameters
a) Range i) Close to wet bulb temperature
b) Approach ii) Related to ambient conditions
c) Out let water temperature iii) Higher temperature difference
Ans. a-iii) b-i) c-ii)
6. Better indicator for cooling tower performance is ____.
a) Wet bulb temperature b) Dry bulb temperature c)Range d) Approach
7. Cooling tower effectiveness is the ratio of ---------
a) Range/(range + approach) b) Approach/(range + approach)
c) Range/Approach d) Approach/Range
8. Cooling tower reduces circulation water temperature close to ----------
a) Dry bulb temperature b) ambient wet bulb temperature (WBT)
c) Dew point temperature d) None of the above
9. The ratio of dissolved solids in circulating water to the dissolved solids in make up water is termed as
____.
a) Liquid gas ratio b) cycles of concentration
c) cooling tower effectiveness d) None of the above
10. Which one of the following has maximum effect on cooling tower performance:
a) Fill media b) Drift c) Louvers d) Casing
11. Which one of the following is true to estimate the range of cooling tower?
a) Range = Cooling water inlet temperature – Wet bulb temperature
b) Range = Cooling water outlet temperature – Wet bulb temperature
c) Range = Water circulation in lph
Heat load in kcal / h
12. A cooling tower is said to be performing well when:
3.7 Cooling towers - revised (table format) 52
a) approach is closer to zero b) range is closer to zero
c) approach is larger than design d) range is larger than design
13. Heat release rate to the cooling tower in vapour compression refrigeration system is equal to:
a) 63 kcal/min/ton b) 500 kcal/min/ton
c) 127 kcal/min/ton d) 220 kcal/min/ton
14. The operating temperature level in the plant or process connected with a cooling tower is
determined
by:
a) Dry bulb temperature b) Wet bulb temperature
c) Hot water temperature from the process d) Cold water temperature into the process
15. Which one of the following fill material is more energy efficient for cooling tower:
a) Splash fill b) Film-fill c) Low clog film fill d) None of the above
16. Which one from the following types of cooling towers consumes less power?
a) Cross-flow splash fill cooling tower b) Counter flow splash fill cooling tower
c) Counter flow film fill cooling tower d) None of the above
17. L / G ratio in cooling tower is the ratio of ___.
a) Length and girth b) Length and Temperature gradient
c) Water flow rate and air mass flow rate d) Air mass flow rate and water flow rate
18. Normally the guaranteed best approach a cooling tower can achieve is ___.
a) 5 oC b) 12 oC c) 8 oC d) 2.8 oC
19. The temperature selection normally chosen for designing of cooling tower is ___.
a) Average maximum wet bulb for summer months
b) Average maximum wet bulb for rainy months
c) Average maximum wet bulb for winter months
d) Average minimum wet bulb for summer months
20. Select the statement which is true for a FRP fan.
a) It needs low starting torque b) Increases life of gear box
c) Easy handling and maintenance d) All the above
Chapter 3.8: Lighting System
1. GLS stands for_____.
a) General Lamp source b) General Lamp Service
c) General Lighting Service d) General Lighting Source
2. A device that distributes and filters the light emitted from one or more lamps is ___.
a) Control gear b) Lamp c) Luminaire d) Starter
3. Ignitors are used for starting____.
a) FTL b) CFL c) Sodium vapor lamps d) None of the above
4. The ratio of luminous flux emitted by a lamp to the power consumed by the lamp is ___.
a) Illuminace b) Lux c) Luminous Efficacy d) CRI
5. Which of the following is the best definition of illuminance?
a) Time rate of flow of light energy
b) Luminous flux incident on an object per unit area
c) Flux density emitted from an object without regard for direction
d) Flux density emitted from an object in a given direction
6. Color rendering index is measured in the scale of____.
a) 1 – 100 b) 1 – 100% c) 100 – 1000 d) None

7. Color rendering index of Halogen lamps compared to low pressure sodium vapor lamps is ___.
a) Poor b) Excellent c) Average d) Very poor
8. One lux is equal to ___.
a) one lumen per meter b) one lumen per m3 c) one lumen per m2 d) None
9. Color rendering index of incandescent lamp is:
a) fair when compared to HPSV lamp
b) poor when compared to LPSV lamp
c) same when compared to HPMV lamp
d) excellent when compared to fluorescent lamp
10. Which of the following light source has least life?
a) Sodium vapor b) Mercury Vapour c) Halogen d) incandescent
11. The minimum illuminance required for non working interiors as per IS 3646 is___.
a) 100 lux b) 50 lux c) 20 lux d) 1000 lux
12. For the same lamp output, 250 W HPMV lamp can be replaced with____.
a) 150 W HPSV b) 200 W GLS c) 25 W CFL d) 150 W HPMV
3.8 Lighting system - revised (table format) 58
13. If voltage is reduced for gas discharge lamps, it will result in
a) Reduced power consumption
b) Increased power consumption
c) Increased light levels
d) No change in power consumption
14. The percentage savings when a 300 W GLS lamp replaced with 250 W ML lamp are:
a) 83% b) 17% c) 9% d) None of the above
15. The average rated life of CFL is___
a) 5,000 hours b) 10,000 hours c) 7,000 hours d) 1,000 hours
16. Suitable lamp sources for the application of street lighting are____
a) halogen lamps b) HPSV c) HPMV d) Incandescent
17. Low bay application areas are classified for heights____

a) Between 5 -7 m b) less than 5 m c) Above 10 m d) Less than 1 m
18. Replacing a 400 W HPMV with 250 V HPSV lamp in street lighting operate for 4000 hours per
annum will result in annual energy savings of:
a) 600 kWh b) 300 kWh c) 150 kWh d) 1000 kWh
19. What is the typical frequency of operation of electronic ballast?
a) 50 Hz b) 10 kHz c) 50 kHz d) 30 kHz
20. Which of the following options reduces the lighting consumption in the wide spread plant?
a) Replacing 150 W HPSV lamps with 250 W HPMV lamps
b) Maintaining 260 V for the lighting circuit with 220 V rated lamps
c) Installing separate lighting transformer and maintaining optimum voltage
Chapter 3.9: DG Sets
1. The compression ratio in diesel engines is in the range of:
a) 10:1 to 15:1 b) 14:1 to 25:1 c) 5:1 to 10:1 d) 1:2 to 3:1
2. Which of the following is the last step in diesel engine operation?
a) Induction stoke b) Compression stroke c) Ignition stroke d) Exhaust stroke
3. The power requirement of the DG set is determined by:
a) base load b) Maximum load c) Partial load d) Zero load
4. Present specific fuel consumption value of DG sets in industries is about ____.
a) 220 g/kWh b) 100 g/kWh c) 160 g/kWh d) 50 g/kWh
5. The efficiency of diesel generating set falls in the region of:
a) 35 – 45% b) 50 – 60% c) 65 – 70% d) Above 80%
6. Auxiliary power consumption of DG set at full load in its operating capacity is about _____.
a) 1 - 2% b) 5 – 6% c) 10 - 12% d)Above 15%
7. The rating required for a DG set with 500 kW connected load and with diversity factor of 1.5,
80% loading and 0.8 power factor is _____

a) 520 kVA b) 600 kVA c) 625 kVA d) 500 kVA
8. The starting current value of DG set should not exceed__% of full load capacity of DG set.
a) 100 b) 200 c) 150 d) 300
9. The maximum permissible percentage unbalance in phase loads on DG sets is____
a) 5% b) 15% c) 10% d) 1%
10. The permissible percentage overload on DG sets for 1 hour in every 12 hours of operation is____
a) 5% b) 15% c) 10% d) 1%
11. Designed power factor of a DG set is generally at:
a) 1.0 b) 0.8 c) 0.9 d) 1.1
12. Lower power factor of a DG set demands_____
a) Lower excitation currents b) Higher excitation currents
c) No change in excitation currents d) None of the above
13. Which of the following losses is the least in DG sets:
a) cooling water loss b) exhaust loss
c) frictional loss d) alternator loss
14. The waste heat potential for a 1100 kVA set at 800 kW loading and with 480 °C exhaust gas
temperature is ____
a) 4.8 lakh kCal/hr b) 3.5 lakh kCal/hr c) 3 lakh kCal/hr d) 2 lakh kCal/hr
3.9 DG sets - revised (table format) 65
15. Typical exit flue gas temperature of 5 MW DG set operating above 80% load is of the order of
____.
a) 550 to 560 °C b) 210 to 240 °C c) 340 to 370 °C d) 400 to 450 °C
16. The maximum back pressure allowed for DG sets is in the range of____.
a) 100 – 200 mm WC b) 250 – 300 mm WC
c) 400 – 500 mm WC d) above 500 mm WC
17. The operating efficiency of DG set also depends on:
a) turbo charger b) Inlet air temperature c) % loading d) all the above
18. For a DG set, the copper losses in the alternator are proportional to the:
a) Current delivered by the alternator
b) Square of the current delivered by the alternator
c) Square root of the current delivered by the alternator
19.
The jacket cooling water temperature for DG sets should be in the range of ________
a) 40 – 50°C b) 30 – 40°C c) 80 – 90°C d) 45 – 60°C
20. The main precaution to be taken care by the waste heat recovery device manufacture to prevent
the problem in DG set during operation is:
a) Temperature raises b) Back pressure
c) Over loading of waste heat recovery tubes d) Turbulence of exhaust gases
Chapter 3.10: Energy Efficient Technologies in Electrical Systems
1. Maximum demand controller is used to ___________.
a) switch off essential loads in a logical sequence b) exceed the demand of the plant
c) switch off non-essential loads in a logical sequence d) controls the power factor of the plant
2. Capacitors with automatic power factor controller when installed in a plant:
a) reduces active power drawn from grid b) reduces the reactive power drawn from grid
c) reduces the voltage of the plant d) increases the load current of the plant
3. _________ controls the power factor of the installation by giving signals to switch on or off power
factor correction capacitors.
a) KILOVAR b) Automatic power factor control relay
c) Intelligent power factor controller d) Maximum demand controller
4. __________ determines the rating of capacitance connected in each step during the first hour of its
operation and stores them in memory.
a) Maximum demand controller b) Intelligent power factor controller
c) Automatic power factor controller d) KILOVAR
5. The following function can not be achieved with automatic power factor controllers.
a) Voltage control b) KILOVAR control c) kW control d) PF control

6. The following features apply to energy efficient motors by design:
a) Energy efficient motors last longer
b) Starting torque for efficient motors may be lower than for standard motors
State whether the two statements are True or False?
7. Eddy current drive can be a retrofit for ________.
a) constant speed system requirement b) variable speed system requirement
c) dual speed system requirement only d) none of the above
8. Electronic variable frequency drive (VFD) connected to motors:
a) provide variable speed with high efficiency
b) induces eddy-current in the secondary member of the clutch mechanism
c) is not suitable for variable torque load
d) does not provide variable speed and has low-efficiency
9. Variable speed can not be obtained with ____.
a) DC motors controller b) AC motor controller
c) soft starter controller d) AC & DC controllers
3.10 EET in electrical systems - revised (table format) 73
10. Energy savings potential of variable torque applications compared to constant torque application is:
a) higher b) lower c) equal d) none of the above
11. As an energy efficient application, slip power recovery system fits well for ____.
a) Squirrel cage and slip ring motors b) DC motor
c) Slip ring motors only d) None of the above
12. Energy efficient transformer core is made up of ______.
a) silicon alloyed iron (grain oriented) b) copper
c) amorphous core - metallic glass alloy d) none of the above
13. The basic functions of electronic ballast excludes one of the following:
a) to ignite the lamp b) to stabilize the gas discharge
c) to reduce lumen output of the lamp d) to supply power to the lamp
14. Select the application of fluid coupling fitting from the following:
a) acts as a voltage limiter b) enables no-load start-up of prime-mover
c) works on the principle of eddy current d) none of the above
15. The characteristic of conventional ballast in lighting application is one among the following:
a) They have low operational losses than electronic ballasts.
b) They have tuned circuit to deliver power at 25 Hz
c) They do not require a mechanical switch (starter)
d) They have high operational losses and high temperature rise
16. Application of occupancy sensors is well suited for ___.
a) day light based controllers b) night based controllers
c) motor controllers d) movement or noise detector in room space
17. Find the odd retrofit group from the following:
a) Occupancy sensors b) timer based control
c) photo sensors d) capacitor based control
18. Application of timers as a retrofit will assist in saving energy in areas of ____.
a) Lighting & motors b) Transformers c) HV- Feeder Panels d) All the above
19. Electronic soft starters are used for motors to:
a) achieve variable speed b) provide smooth start and stop
c) improve the loading c) none of the above
20. Energy efficient lighting can be planned by using the following retrofits. – State True or False
a) photo-sensor b) timer c) occupancy sensor d) localized switching

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Question bank for Energy Managers & Energy Auditors

Chapter: 1.1 Energy Scenario

Part-I: Objective type questions and answers

a) Secondary Energy Sources b) Primary Energy Sources

c) both (a) and (b) d) none of the above

2. Which of the following is commercial energy source?

a) Electricity b) Coal c) Oil d) All the above

3. Inexhaustible energy sources are known as

a) commercial Energy b) renewable Energy

c) primary energy d) secondary energy

a) Russia b) China c) USA d) India

a) 10 % of World reserve b) 20 % of World reserve

c) 30 % of World reserve d) 40 % of World reserve

6. World oil reserves are estimated to last over

a) 45 years b) 60 years c) 200 years d) 75 years

7. World gas reserves are estimated to last over

a) 45 years b) 65 years c) 200 years d) 75 years

8. The global primary energy consumption (2002) was equivalent to

a) 21,842 Mtoe b) 15,360 Mtoe c) 9405 Mtoe d) 12,396 Mtoe

9. The primary energy consumption of India is

a) 3 b) 2.2 c) 4.5 d) 1.0

a) USA b) Russia c) India d) China

1.1 energy scenario - revised(table format) 1

Question bank for Energy Managers & Energy Auditors

14. Energy consumption per unit of GDP is called as:

a) Energy Ratio b) Energy intensityc) Per capita consumption d) None

15. India’s energy intensity is ___ times of world average.

a) 1.5 b) 2.5 c) 3.6 d) 10

a) Regulatory Commission Act 1998 b) Indian Electricity Act 1910

c) Supply Act 1948 d) Electricity Act 2003

18. Which of the following is highest contributor to the air pollution?

a) Carbon Monoxide b) Hydro Carbons

c) Sulphur Oxides d) Particulates

Part – I: Objective Type Questions and Answers

1. The type of energy possessed by the charged capacitor is

a) Kinetic energy b) Electrostatic c) Potential d) Magnetic

2. The energy stored in the bonds of atoms and molecules is called

a) Kinetic energy b) Chemical energy

c) Potential energy d) Magnetic energy

would fall under ____ category. (EM/EA)

5. The portion of apparent power that doesn’t do any work is termed as

a) Apparent power b) Active power

c) Reactive Power d) None of the above

6. Power factor (PF) is the ratio of (EM/EA)

7. kVA is also called as

a) reactive power b) apparent power

c) active power d) captive power

8. The energy consumed by a 50 kW motor loaded at 40 kW over a period of 4 hours is

a. 50 kWh b) 160 kWh c) 40 kWh d) 2000 kWh

9. The ratio of maximum demand to the connected load is termed as

c) Contract demand d) none of the above

a) 2.3 kW b) 3.58 kW c) 2.07 kW d) 2.70 kW

a) Specific heat b) Heat capacity c) One Calorie d) Sensible heat

12. Nameplate kW or HP rating of a motor indicates

a) input kW to the motor b) output kW of the motor

c) minimum input kW to the motor d) maximum input kW to the motor

a) Latent heat of fusion b) Latent heat of vaporization

c) Heat capacity d) Sensible heat

a) 580 kCal b) 540 kCal c) 620 kCal d) 2260 kCal

a) Lead b) Mercury c) Water d) Alcohol

16. The property of viscosity of liquid fuels:

a) decreases with decreasing temperature

b) increases with increasing temperature