Professional Documents
Culture Documents
1. The energy sources, that are either found or stored in nature are
a) Secondary Energy Sources b) Primary Energy Sources
c) both (a) and (b) d) none of the above
2. Which of the following is commercial energy source?
a) Electricity b) Coal c) Oil d) All the above
3. Inexhaustible energy sources are known as
a) commercial Energy b) renewable Energy
c) primary energy d) secondary energy
4. Which country has the largest share of the global coal reserves?
a) Russia b) China c) USA d) India
5. The % of gas reserves for Russian Federation, when compared to world reserve is
considered at
a) 10 % of World reserve b) 20 % of World reserve
c) 30 % of World reserve d) 40 % of World reserve
6. World oil reserves are estimated to last over
a) 45 years b) 60 years c) 200 years d) 75 years
7. World gas reserves are estimated to last over
a) 45 years b) 65 years c) 200 years d) 75 years
8. The global primary energy consumption (2002) was equivalent to
a) 21,842 Mtoe b) 15,360 Mtoe c) 9405 Mtoe d) 12,396 Mtoe
9. The primary energy consumption of India is
a) 1/29 of the world b) 1/16 of the world c) 1/7 of the world d) 1/20 of the world
10. The world average per person energy consumption is equivalent to _____tonnes of
coal
a) 3 b) 2.2 c) 4.5 d) 1.0
11. Which fuel dominates the energy mix in Indian energy scenario?–
a) Oil b) Natural gas c) Coal d) Nuclear
12. The fourth largest producer of coal and lignite in the world is ______ (EM/EA)
a) USA b) Russia c) India d) China
13. Indian per capita energy consumption is ____ of the world average.
a) 4% b) 20% c) 1% d) 10%
14. Energy consumption per unit of GDP is called as:
a) Energy Ratio b) Energy intensityc) Per capita consumption d) None
15. India’s energy intensity is ___ times of world average.
a) 1.5 b) 2.5 c) 3.6 d) 10
16. India’s current percentage peak demand shortage for electricity is: (EM/EA)
a) 1% b) 3% c) 10% d) 14%
17. Name the Act, which is proposed to bring the qualitative transformation of the
electricity sector:
a) Regulatory Commission Act 1998 b) Indian Electricity Act 1910
c) Supply Act 1948 d) Electricity Act 2003
18. Which of the following is highest contributor to the air pollution?
a) Carbon Monoxide b) Hydro Carbons
c) Sulphur Oxides d) Particulates
19. Projected temperature increase in degree centigrade 2100 due to climate change is:
a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8 Increase
20. Acid rain is caused by the release of the following components from combustion of
fuels.
a) SOx and NOx b) SOx and CO2c) CO2 and NOx d) H2O
13. The quantity of heat required to change 1 kg of the substance from liquid to
vapor state without change of temperature is termed as
a) Latent heat of fusion b) Latent heat of vaporization
c) Heat capacity d) Sensible heat
14. The latent heat of condensation of 1 kg of steam at 100 °C to form water at
100 °C, it gives out the heat of
a) 580 kCal b) 540 kCal c) 620 kCal d) 2260 kCal
15. The specific heat of ____ is very high compared to other common substances
listed below.
a) Lead b) Mercury c) Water d) Alcohol
16. The property of viscosity of liquid fuels:
a) decreases with decreasing temperature
b) increases with increasing temperature
c) decreases with increasing temperature
d) ) None of the above
17. The quantity of heat Q, supplied to a substance to increase its temperature
depends upon the following.
a) sensible heat added b) latent heat of fusion
c) specific heat of the substance d) heat capacity
18. Unit of specific heat in SI system is_________.
a) joule /kg °C b) kg/cm2 c) kcal/m3 d) kcal/cm2
19. The change by which any substance is converted from a gaseous state to
liquid state is termed as -----
a) condensation b) Evaporation c) Fusion d) Phase change
20. The method of producing power by utilizing steam generated for process in
the boiler is termed as -----
a) Extraction b) Cogeneration c) Both a & b d) Neither a nor b
Chapter 1.3 Energy management & audit
1. “The judicious and effective use of energy to maximise profits and enhance
competitive
positions”. This can be the definition of:
a) Energy conservation b) Energy management
c) Energy policy d) Energy Audit
2. The energy management function is generally vested in –
(a) Senior Management
(b) One energy manager or co-ordinator
(c) Distributed among number of middle manager
(d) (b) & (c) together
3. The objective of energy management includes
a) Minimising energy costs b) minimising waste
c) Minimising environmental degradation d) all the above
4. The ratio of current year’s production to the reference year’s production is
called as.
(EA/EM)
a) demand factor b) production factor
c) utilisation factor d) load factor
5. Replacement of steam based hot water generation by solar system is an
example of
a) matching energy usage to the requirement
b) maximising system efficiency
c) Energy substitution
d) Performance improvement
6. One unit of electricity is equivalent to ___ kcal heat units.
a) 800 b) 860 c) 400 d) 680
7. The benchmarking parameter for air conditioning equipment is
a) kW/Ton of Refrigeration b) kW/ kg of refrigerant handled
c) kcal/m3 of chilled water d) Differential temperature across chiller
8. The percentage of energy saved at the current rate of use, compared to the
reference year
rate of use, is called
a) Energy Utilization b) Energy Performance
c) Energy Efficiency d) None
9. Which instrument is used to monitor O2, CO in flue gas? (EA)
a) Combustion analyzer b) Power analyzer
c) Pyrometer d) Fyrite
1.3 Energy management & audit 15
Question bank for Energy Managers & Energy Auditors
10. Lux meter is used to measure…… (EA)
a) Illumination level b) Sound intensity and illumination level
c) Harmonics d) Speed
11. For a cement plant the parameter, “kWh/MT of clinker “indicates
a) Energy Index parameter b) Utility factor
c) Production factor d) load factor
12. Energy manger should be well versed with
a) Manufacturing and processing skills b) Managerial and technical skills
c) Technical and marketing skills d) Managerial and commercial skills
13. An energy policy does not include
a) Target energy consumption reduction
b) Time period for reduction
c) Declaration of top management commitment
d) Future production projection
14. CO2 measurement of Fyrite kit is based on (EA)
a) Weight basis (dry) b) Volume basis (dry)
c) Weight basis (wet) d) Volume basis (wet)
15. Non contact speed measurements can be carried out by
a) Tachometer b) Stroboscope
c) Oscilloscope d) Speedometer
16. The tool used for performance assessment and logical evaluation of avenues
for
improvement in Energy management and audit is
a) Fuel substitution b) Monitoring and verification
c) Energy pricing d) Bench marking
17. Infrared thermometer is used to measure
a) Surface temperature b) Flame temperature
c) Flue gas temperature d) Hot water temperature
18. Find out the ‘odd’ among the following choices for fuel substitution for
industrial sector of
India.
a) LDO with LSHS b) coal with rice husk
c) natural gas for fertilizer plant d) LPG for soft coke
19. The various types of the instruments, which requires during audit need to be
a) easy to carry b) easy to operate
c) inexpensive d) all (a) to (c)
1.3 Energy management & audit 16
Question bank for Energy Managers & Energy Auditors
20. Air velocity in ducts can be measured by using ___ and manometer
a) Orifice meter b) Borden gauge
c) Pitot tube d) Anemometer
1. The force field analysis in energy action planning deals with barriers having
a) Positive forces only b) negative forces only
c) Both negative and Positive forces d) no forces
2. From the combination below, which is not a key element of a successful energy
management program?
a) Technical ability b) monitoring system & a strategy plan
c) Security of plant d) top management support
3. In force field analysis of energy action-planning, one of the actions below do
not fall under
positive force?
1) high price of energy 2) energy efficient technology available
3) top management commitment 4) lack of awareness
4. The positive force field analysis has one of the following. Identify?
a) Force field itself b) Corporate energy philosophy
c) Energy policy itself d) None of the above
5. The support for energy management is expressed in a formal written
declaration of
commitment. This is called
a) Company policy b) Management policy
c) Energy policy d) Energy efficiency policy
6. Budgets for energy use within each activity centre in an organization should be
treated
separately like labour, raw material etc. State True or False?
7. The term “Energy is a relatively high component of product cost”, which
motivates plant to
take measures for energy conservation? This is a positive force in a field analysis
towards
achievement of goal. State True or False?
8. In energy action planning, a formal declaration of energy policy is adopted to
a) Benefit BEE only b) Complete statutory requirement
c) Both (a) & (b) above d) achieve company’s best interests
9. “An integrated energy purchase and energy management budget should be
developed as
part of the energy management action plan”. This statement holds good for the
company’s
a) Safety b) Accountability c) Reliability d) Stability
10. The location of energy manger in a large organisation could be
a) marketing division b) Plant maintenance unit
c) Corporate Management Services Department d) Finance division
11. Publishing a formal statement of energy policy that can be used to define
company
activities in energy matters is the role of -----------------
1.5 energy action planning 33
Question bank for Energy Managers & Energy Auditors
a) top management b) middle management
c) energy auditor d) energy manager
12. The energy manager has to perform the function of ____.
1) Organizer 2) Planner 3) Decision Maker 4) Team leader
a) 1,2 & 3 b) 1 & 2 only
c) 1,2 & 4 d) All the four above
13. Providing information to BEE is the role of energy manager as per
a) Energy Conservation Act 2003 b) Energy Conservation Act 2004
c) Energy Conservation Act 2002 d) Energy Conservation Act 2001
14. “Publicizing the energy conservation program” includes the following
a) Signs and posters displayed in the factory or office
b) Progress charts showing targets and achievements
c) Energy conservation stickers on light switches and thermostats
d) All the above
15. In energy action planning, Monitoring and targeting is only a part of the
comprehensive
information systems. State True or False?
16. “A public expression of organisation's commitment to energy conservation
and
environmental protection” is called as
a) Company policy b) Energy policy
c) Management philosophy d) Corporate plan
17. Under Energy Conservation of Act 2001, data on energy consumed & action
on recommendations of accredited energy auditor should be reported to
a) BEE and state level agency once a year
b) BEE and state level agency twice year
c) BEE only
d) State level designated agency only
18. “Training includes the complex technical issues that relate to energy efficient
technologies”. This is useful as part of
a) Energy action planning b) Training division commitment
c) Management philosophy d) None of above
19. Which one of them is a positive force towards achieving goal of reduced
energy consumption?
a) tax on energy consumption
b) competing corporate priorities
c) Insufficient financial resources to fund
d) Absence of corporate energy policy
20. To assess the existing situation of a plant, good energy saving strategy plan
starts with…
a) energy audit b) training c) seminar d) none of the above
1. Project financing is one of the step of project management- State True or False
2. Proposed new technologies, process modifications, equipment replacements
are the elements of
a) Financing b) contracting c) technical design d) Implementation
3. The term ‘energy services contract’ in a project comes under
a) Financing b) contracting c) monitoring d) evaluation
4. The contractor providing financing and is paid an agreed fraction of actual
savings as they are achieved is called
a) Traditional contract b) Extended financing terms
c) Shared savings performance contract d) energy service contract
5. The contract in which project specifications are provided to a contractor who
procures and installs equipment at cost plus a mark-up or fixed price is called
a) Extended Financing terms b) guaranteed saving performance contract
c) shared saving performance contract d) Traditional contract
6. The technique used for scheduling the tasks and tracking of the progress of
energy management projects is called
a) CPM b) Gantt chart
c) CUSUM d) PERT
7. CPM predicts the time required to complete the project— State True or False
8. The time between its earliest and latest start time, or between its earliest and
latest finish time of an activity is
a) delay time b) slack time c) critical path d) start time
9. The path through the project network in which none of the activities have slack
is called
a) start time b) slack time c) critical path d) delay time
10. CPM provides the following benefits
a) graphical view of the project
b) inter-relationship among various tasks
c) Predicts time required to complete the project
d) all the above
11. Which of the following statements about critical path analysis (CPA) is true?
a) The critical path is the longest path through the network
b) The critical path is the shortest path through the network
c) Tasks with float will never become critical
d) The network should remain constant throughout the project
12. Project management technique which uses three time estimates-optimistic,
pessimistic and most likely, which help in establishing the probability of
completing a project within
a specified time and take calculated risk before commencing a project is---------.
(a) PERT (b) CUSUM (c) CPM (d) none of the above
13. The network model that allows for randomness in activity completion times is
called
(a) CUSUM (b) CPM (c) PERT (d) Gantt chart
14. The technique which suggests corrective action to be taken in the light of
actual performance is --------
(a) CUSUM (b) PERT (c) Performance monitoring (d) none of the above
15. Performance is done after implementation. State True or false
16. An effective way of communicating a projects benefit usually as a part of a
performance measuring and reporting process is termed as.
(a) Performance indicator (b) CPM (c) PERT (d) Gantt chart
17. In project management system, Critical Path Method CPM) allows for
randomness activity completion time deterministic method while Programme
Evaluation Review Technique (PERT) uses fixed time estimate for each activity.
State True or False.
18. In Critical Path of CPM used in project planning techniques indicates _____ .
a) time require for the completion of the project
b) delays in the project
c) early start and late end of the project
d) none of the above
19. Which of the following does not belongs to project planning technique?
a) CPM b) PERT
c) Gantt chart d) IRR (internal rate of return)
20. Formal project Close Out is necessary:
a) On medium to large projects only b) On all projects
c) Only if a project has been terminated early d) As part of Post Project Appraisal
1. The minimum capacity of any closed vessel which generates steam under
Indian Boilers Regulation Act is ___.
a) 2.275 liters b) 22.75 kilo liters
c) 227.5 liters d) 22.75 liters
2. Steam is preferred medium for heating applications because:
a) high latent heat b) temperature break down is easy
c) Easy to control and distribute d) all the above
3. For higher boiler efficiencies, the feed water is heated by ____.
a. recuperator b. convective heater
c. super heater d. economiser
4. The type of firing used for a pulverised coal fired boiler is:
a) over firing b) tangential firing
c) vertical firing d) mixed firing for effective heat transfer
5. The recommended TDS level in boiler drum, that can be safely maintained for
the water tube boiler is:
a) 3000 – 3500 ppm b) 2000 ppm
c) 5000 ppm d) It can be anything
6. An evaporation ratio (steam to fuel ratio) of an efficient oil fired boiler is in the
range of ___.
a) 5 – 6 b) 13 - 16
c) 1 d) 7 – 9
7. Pick the boiler, which can be considered as most combustion efficient?
a) fluidised bed combustion boiler b) lanchashire boiler
c) Stoker fired boiler d) chain grate boiler
8. The percentage excess air required for pulverised coal fired boiler is:
a) 40 – 50% b) 15 – 20%
c) 60 – 80% d) 30 – 40%
9. Name the predominant loss component for furnace oil fed boiler.
a) losses due to radiation and convention b) loss due to hydrogen in fuel
c) loss due to dry flue gas d) loss due to moisture in fuel
10. Controlled wetting of coal (during the coal preparation) would result in
a) reduction in flue gas exit temperature
b) decrease in the percentage of unburnt carbon
c) improper combustion
d) increase in the fines of coal
11. A rise in conductivity of boiler feed water indicates ____ .
a) drop in the contamination of feed water
b) greater purity of feed water
c) rise in the contamination of feed water
d) it has got no relation with the contamination of feed water
12. Demineralisation of water is the process to remove --------
a) dissolved oxygen b) dissolved salts c) corbondioxide d) chlorine
13. The presence of calcium and magnesium bicarbonates in water to steam
boiler would form:
a) acidic solution b) alkaline solution
c) neutral solution d) none of the above
14. Water treatment for steam boiler is generally required to:
a) remove hydrogen b) prevent formation of scales
c) help improve combustion efficiency d) reduce stack temperature
15. In a plant a boiler is generating a saturated steam of 2 tonnes/hour at a
pressure of 7.0 kg/cm2g. The feed water temperature is 70 °C and furnace oil
consumption is 138 kg/h. What is the efficiency of the boiler by using direct
method of efficiency evaluation? (calorific value of FO is 10,000 kCal/kg, enthalpy
of steam is 660 kCal/kg.
a) 65 b) 75 c) 85 d) 95
16. The ‘indirect method’ of evaluating boiler efficiency is also called as “Heat
Loss” method. – True or
False?
17. Good opportunity for energy savings from continuous blow down water of
boiler is by ___.
a) reusing the hot water so formed as make up water
b) using the blow down steam to run steam turbine
c) utilisation of flash steam in deaerator
d) none of the above
18. De-aeration of boiler feed water is referred to as:
a) removal of dissolved gases b) removal of silica
c) removal of scales by blow down d) phosphate treatment of feed water
19. The percentage raise in boiler efficiency by a 20 degree centigrade raise in
combustion air temperature is ___.
a) 0.1% b) 0.2% c) 10% d) 1%
20. The elements of ultimate analysis of fuel does not include
a) carbon b) Hydrogen c) oxygen d) volatile matter
Chapter 2.3: Steam System
1. A thermal insulator is
a) good conductor of heat and has high thermal conductivity
b) poor conductor of heat and has high thermal conductivity
c) good conductor of heat and has low thermal conductivity
d) poor conductor of heat and has low thermal conductivity
2. The insulation material suitable for low temperature application is
a) Mineral fibre b) Fibre glass c) Silica d) polyurethane
3. The insulation materials used for medium temperature application is
a) Asbestos b) Calcium silicate c) Mineral fibre d) All of the above
4. ‘Ceramic fibre insulation’ is suitable up to temperature of
a) 540 °C b) 1050 °C c) 1430 °C d) 1850 °C
5. Match the following:
Insulating material Suitable temperature
a) Rockwool i) - 178 °C to 4 °C
b) Fibre glass ii) -167 °C to 82 °C
c) Polystyrene iii) Up to 820 °C
d) Polyurethane iv) Up to 540 °C
a-iii); b-iv); c-ii); d-i)
6. Select the suitable cost effective insulation for steam pipelines with
temperature of 540 °C.
a) calcium silicate b) fibre glass c) rock wool d) Alumina
7. The unit for thermal coefficient of insulation and refractories is SI system is
____.
a) K.cal/m-hr-°C b) K.cal/ m²-hr-°C c) K.cal/m²-°C d) K.cal/ m-°C
8. The coefficient of thermal expansion of refractory material should be ___.
a) low b) High c) Medium d) very high
9. Magnesite, chrome-magnesite, dolomite are examples of --------- type of
refractory
a) acid b) basic c) neutral d) none of the above
10. Alumina is a ____ type of refractory.
a) acid b) basic c) Neutral d) None of the above
11. The heat conductivity of refractory material should be ___.
a) low b) High c) Medium c) None
12. The most common form of refractory material extensively used in the
construction of small furnaces
is-----
a) silica bricks b) Fire brick
c) chrome magnesite d) Calcium silicate blocks
13. The thermal conductivity of a ideal refractory material should be ____ .
a) low b) high c) medium d) None of the above
14. Mark the best choice of insulation material for electric heat treatment
furnace among the following group.
a) glass wool b) calcium silicate c) fire bricks d) ceramic fibre
15. The refractory which can resist most of the chemical attack and is unaffected
by hydrocarbons, water and steam present in flue gas is -------
a) Alumina b) Ceramic Fibre c) Fire Brick d) Mineral Fibre
16. High emissivity coatings are applied on:
a) Outer surface of furnace b) Refrigeration pipings
c) Inner surface of furnace d) None of the above
17. The content on which ceramic fibres will be produced in two temperature
grades is ___.
a) Al2O3 b) SiO2 c) ZrO2 d) All the above
18. The component required to reduce shrinkage levels in alumino silicate fibre is
___.
a) Al2O3 b) ZrO2 c) SiO2 d) All the above
19. The effect of thermal conductivity on thermal resistance of an insulation is
___.
a) Increases with increased thermal conductivity
b) Decreases with decreased thermal conductivity
c) Decreases with increased thermal conductivity
d) Increases with decreases thermal conductivity
20. The insulation which can be used for lining furnaces operating up to 1850oC
is:
1. The heat input required for generating ‘one’ kilo watt-hour of electrical
output is called as ___.
a) Efficiency b) Heat Rate c) Calorific Value d) Heat value
2. Which of the voltage is not available for Indian distribution system?
a) 33 kV b) 11 kV c) 280 V d) 433 V
3. The power loss in transmission/distribution line depends on ____.
a) Current in the line b) Resistance of the line c) Length of the line d) All
4. If distribution of power is raised from 11 kV to 66 kV, the voltage drop
would lower by a factor
a) 6 times b) 1/6 times c) 36 times d) 1/36 times
5. If the distribution voltage is raised from 11 kV to 33 kV, the line loss would
be lower by a factor:
a) 1/9 b) 9 c) 3 d) None
6. The maximum demand of an industry, if trivector meter records 3600 KVA
for 15 minutes and 3000 kVA for next 15 minutes over a recording cycle of 30
minutes is_____.
a) 3600 kVA b) 3000 kVA c) 3300 kVA d) 600 kVA
7. Presenting the load demand of a consumer against time of the day is
known as___.
a) Time Curve b) Load curve c) Demand curve d) Energy curve
8. The vector sum of active power and reactive power required is ____.
a) Apparent Power b) Power Factor c) Load Factor d) Maximum Demand
9. Power factor is the ratio of ____ and apparent power.
a) Active power b) Reactive power c) Load Factor d) Maximum Demand
10. The kVAr rating required for improving the power factor of a load
operating at 500 kW and 0.85 power factor to 0.95 is ________.
a) 145 kVAr b) 500 kVAr c) 50 kVAr d) 100 kVAr
11. The rating of the capacitor at motor terminals should not be greater than
_____ .
a) magnetizing kVAr of the motor at full load b) magnetizing kVAr of the
motor at no load
c) magnetizing kVAr of the motor at half load d) magnetizing kVAr of the
motor at 75% load
12. The percentage reduction in distribution loses when tail end power factor
raised from 0.8 to 0.95 is
________.
a) 29% b) 15.8% c) 71% d) 84%
13. If voltage applied to a 415 V rated capacitors drops by 10%, its VAR output
drops by ____.
a) 23% b) 87% c) 19% d) 10%
14. The ratio between the number of turns on the secondary to the turns on
the primary of a transformer is know as:
a) turns ratio b) efficiency c) winding factor d) power factor
15. The sum of individual maximum demand of the plant to the sum of
individual maximum demand of various equipments is ______.
a) load factor b) diversity Factor c) demand Factor d) maximum demand
16. Core losses in transformer are caused by ______.
a) Hysteresis loss b) Eddy current loss c) both a & b d) None
17. The load losses in transformer vary according to ________.
a) Loading of transformer b) Square of loading of transformer
c) Cube of loading of transformer d) None
18. The total losses in a transformer operating at 50% load with designed no
load and load losses at 2 kW and 20 kW respectively are _______.
a) 7 kW b) 12 kW c) 4.5 kW d) 22 kW
19. The total amount of harmonics present in the system is expressed using
___.
a) Total Harmonic Factor b) Total Harmonic Ratio
c) Total Harmonic Distortion d) Crest Factor
20. The 5th and 7th harmonic in a 50 Hz power environment will have:
a) voltage and current distortions with 55 Hz & 57 Hz
b) voltage and current distortions with 500 Hz & 700 Hz
c) voltage and current distortions with 250 Hz & 350 Hz
d) no voltage and current distortion at all
Chapter 3.2: Electric Motors
1. The parameter used by ASME to define fans, blowers and compressors is____
a) Fan ration b) Specific ratio c) Blade ratio d) Twist factor
2. Which of the following axial fan types is most efficient?
a) Propeller b) Tube axial c) Vane axial d) Radial
3. Which of the following is not a centrifugal fan type?
a) Vane axial b) Radial c) Airfoil, backward d) Forward curved
4. Match the following for centrifugal fan types.
Type Suitable for
a) Backward curved i) High pressure, medium flow
b) Forward curved ii) Medium pressure, high flow
c) Radial iii) High pressure, high flow
(a)-iii); (b)-ii); (c)-i)
5. For fans, the relation between discharge and speed is indicated by____
a) 21QQ =21NN b) 21QQ = 2221NN c) 21QQ = 3231NN d) None
6. The choice of fan type for a given application depends on _______
a) Flow b) Static Pressure c) Both a & b d) neither (a) nor (b)
7. The efficiency of backward curved fans compared to forward curved fans is__
a) Higher b) Lower c) Same d) None
8. Name the fan which is more suitable for high pressure application?
a) Propeller type fans b) Tube-axial fans
c) Backward curved centrifugal fan d) None of the above
9. Axial fans are best suitable for____ application.
a) Large flow, low head b) Low flow, high head
c) High head, large flow d) Low flow, low head
10. The efficiency of forward curved fans compared to backward curved fans is ____
3.5 Fans & blowers - revised (table format) 33
Question bank for Energy Managers & Energy Auditors
a) Lower b) higher c) Same d) none
11. The efficiency values of Vane axial fans are in the order of:
a) 78 – 85% b) 60 – 70% c) 90 – 95% d) 50 – 60%
12. Backward curved fans have efficiency in the range of:
a) 65 – 70% b) 75– 85% c) 90 – 95% d) 50 – 60%
13. The pressure to be considered for calculating the power required for centrifugal fans
is:
a) Discharge static pressure b) Static + dynamic pressure
c) Total static pressure d) Static + ambient air pressure
14. Typical design efficiency of aerofoil fan handling clean air is:
a) 40 to 50% b) 80 to 90% c) 60 to 70% d) 70 to 80%
15. The clearance required for efficient operation of impeller of 1 meter plus diameter in
Radial type fans is ____
a) 5 to 10 mm b) 1 to 2 mm c) 20 to 30 mm d) 0.5 to 1.5 mm
16. Which type of control gives maximum benefits for fan application from energy
saving point of view?
a) Discharge damper control b) Inlet guide vane control
c) Variable pitch control d) Speed control
17. The pressure along the line of the flow that results from the air flowing through the
duct is _____
a) Static pressure b) velocity pressure c) Total pressure d) Dynamic pressure
18. The outer tube of the pitot tube is used to measure _____
a) Static pressure b) velocity pressure c) Total pressure d) Dynamic pressure
19. Axial-flow fans are equipped with ______
a) fixed blades b) Curved blades c) Flat blades d) variable pitch blades
20. The ratio of maximum to minimum flow rate is called ________-
a) turn – up ratio b) turn-down ratio c) up-down ratio d) None
21. The density of a gas at a temperature of 50 deg. C at site condition is __
a) 0.94 kg/m3 b) 1.2 kg/m3 c) 1.5 kg/m3 d) 1.4 kg/m3
1. The type of cooling towers with maximum heat transfer between air to water is ___.
a) Natural draft b) Mechanical draft c) Both a & b d) Neither a nor b
2. Natural draft cooling towers are mainly used in ____.
a) Steel industry b) alumina industry c) fertilizer industry d) power stations
3. In counter flow induced draft cooling towers water and air both enter the top and
exist at the top of
the cooling tower. State whether True or False?
4. The range of the cooling tower is determined by the connected heat load – True or
False?
5. Match the following cooling tower parameters
a) Range i) Close to wet bulb temperature
b) Approach ii) Related to ambient conditions
c) Out let water temperature iii) Higher temperature difference
Ans. a-iii) b-i) c-ii)
6. Better indicator for cooling tower performance is ____.
a) Wet bulb temperature b) Dry bulb temperature c)Range d) Approach
7. Cooling tower effectiveness is the ratio of ---------
a) Range/(range + approach) b) Approach/(range + approach)
c) Range/Approach d) Approach/Range
8. Cooling tower reduces circulation water temperature close to ----------
a) Dry bulb temperature b) ambient wet bulb temperature (WBT)
c) Dew point temperature d) None of the above
9. The ratio of dissolved solids in circulating water to the dissolved solids in make up
water is termed as ____.
a) Liquid gas ratio b) cycles of concentration
c) cooling tower effectiveness d) None of the above
10. Which one of the following has maximum effect on cooling tower performance:
a) Fill media b) Drift c) Louvers d) Casing
11. Which one of the following is true to estimate the range of cooling tower?
a) Range = Cooling water inlet temperature – Wet bulb temperature
b) Range = Cooling water outlet temperature – Wet bulb temperature
c) Range = Water circulation in lph Heat load in kcal / h
d) None of the above
12. A cooling tower is said to be performing well when:
a) approach is closer to zero b) range is closer to zero
c) approach is larger than design d) range is larger than design
13. Heat release rate to the cooling tower in vapour compression refrigeration system is
equal to:
a) 63 kcal/min/ton b) 500 kcal/min/ton
c) 127 kcal/min/ton d) 220 kcal/min/ton
14. The operating temperature level in the plant or process connected with a cooling
tower is determined by:
a) Dry bulb temperature b) Wet bulb temperature
c) Hot water temperature from the process d) Cold water temperature into the process
15. Which one of the following fill material is more energy efficient for cooling tower:
a) Splash fill b) Film-fill c) Low clog film fill d) None of the above
16. Which one from the following types of cooling towers consumes less power?
a) Cross-flow splash fill cooling tower b) Counter flow splash fill cooling tower
c) Counter flow film fill cooling tower d) None of the above
17. L / G ratio in cooling tower is the ratio of ___.
a) Length and girth b) Length and Temperature gradient
c) Water flow rate and air mass flow rate d) Air mass flow rate and water flow rate
18. Normally the guaranteed best approach a cooling tower can achieve is ___.
a) 5 oC b) 12 oC c) 8 oC d) 2.8 oC
19. The temperature selection normally chosen for designing of cooling tower is ___.
a) Average maximum wet bulb for summer months
b) Average maximum wet bulb for rainy months
c) Average maximum wet bulb for winter months
d) Average minimum wet bulb for summer months
20. Select the statement which is true for a FRP fan.
a) It needs low starting torque b) Increases life of gear box
c) Easy handling and maintenance d) All the above