Massa, Centragem e Performance - Perguntas Tipo, 2015

Question: Given: Dry Operating Mass= 29 800 kg, Maximum Take-Off Mass= 52 400 kg, Maximum Zero-Fuel Mass=
43 100 kg,
Maximum Landing Mass= 46 700 kg, Trip fuel= 4 000 kg, Fuel quantity at brakes release= 8 000 kg. The maximum traffic load is:
1. 12 900 kg
2. 14 600 kg
3. 13 300 kg
4. 9 300 kg
Question: The loaded centre of gravity (cg) of an aeroplane is 713 mm aft of datum. The mean aerodynamic chord lies between
station 524 mm aft and 1706 mm aft. The cg expressed as % MAC (mean aerodynamic chord) is:
1. 10 %
2. 60 %
3. 16 %
4. 41 %
Question: The take-off mass of an aeroplane is 117 000 kg, comprising a traffic load of 18 000 kg and fuel of 46 000 kg. What is
the dry operating mass?
1. 53 000 kg
2. 64 000 kg
3. 99 000 kg
4. 71 000 kg
Question: A location in the aircraft which is identified by a number designating its distance from the datum is known as:
1. Moment.
2. Station.
3. Index.
4. MAC.
Question: The mass of an aircraft is 1950 kg. If 450 kg is added to a cargo hold 1.75 metres from the loaded centre of gravity
(cg). The loaded cg will move:
1. 33 cm.
2. 34 cm.
3. 40 cm.
4. 30 cm.
Question: The Dry Operating Mass includes:

1. fuel and passengers baggage and cargo.
2. unusable fuel and reserve fuel.
3. passengers baggage and cargo.
4. crew and crew baggage, catering, removable passenger service equipment, potable water and lavatory chemicals.
Question: If 390 Ibs of cargo are moved from compartment B (aft) to compartment A (forward), what is the station number of
the new centre of gravity (cg). Given : Gross mass 116.500 Ibs, Present cg station 435.0, Compartment A station 285.5,
Compartment B station 792.5
1. 506.3
2. 433.3
3. 436.7
4. 463.7
Question: The centre of gravity of a body is that point

1. which is always used as datum when computing moments.
2. where the sum of the moments from the external forces acting on the body is equal to zero.
3. through which the sum of the forces of all masses of the body is considered to act.
4. where the sum of the external forces is equal to zero.
Question: The stalling speed of an aeroplane will be highest when it is loaded with a:
1. high gross mass and forward centre of gravity.
2. low gross mass and forward centre of gravity.
3. low gross mass and aft centre of gravity.
4. high gross mass and aft centre of gravity.
Question: With the centre of gravity on the forward limit which of the following is to be expected?
1. A decrease of the stalling speed.
2. A decrease in the landing speed.
3. A decrease in range.
4. A tendency to yaw to the right on take-off.
Question: The maximum load per running metre of an aircraft is 350 kg/m. The width of the floor area is 2 metres. The floor
strength limitation is 300 kg per square metre. Which one of the following crates (length x width x height) can be loaded directly
on the floor?
1. A load of 700 kg in a crate with dimensions 1.8 m x 1.4 m x 0.8 m.
2. A load of 500 kg in a crate with dimensions 1.5 m x 1 m x 1 m.
Question: Given the following : - Maximum structural take-off mass 48 000 kg - Maximum structural landing mass: 44 000 kg -
Maximum zero fuel mass: 36 000 kg -Taxi fuel: 600 kg -Contingency fuel: 900 kg -Alternate fuel: 800 kg -Final reserve fuel: 1 100
kg -Trip fuel: 9 000 kg. The actual TOM can never be higher than:
1. 48 000 kg
2. 48 400 kg
3. 53 000 kg
4. 47 800 kg
Question: The maximum zero-fuel mass: 1- is a regulatory limitation 2- is calculated for a maximum load factor of +3.5 g 3- is
based on the maximum permissible bending moment at the wing root 4- is defined on the assumption that fuel is consumed
from the outer wings tank first 5- is defined on the assumption that fuel is consumed from the centre wing tank first 6- can be
increased by stiffening the wing The combination of correct statements is:
1. 1, 2, 3
2. 2, 3, 4, 6
3. 2, 3, 6
4. 1, 3, 5
Question: If nose wheel moves aft during gear retraction, how will this movement affect the location of the centre of gravity (cg)
on the aircraft?
1. It will cause the cg to move forward.
2. It will cause the cg to move aft.
3. The cg location will change, but the direction cannot be told the information given.
4. It will not affect the cg location.
Question: At the flight preparation stage, the following parameters in particular are available for determining the mass of the
aircraft: 1- Dry operating mass 2- Operating mass Which statement is correct:
1. The Dry Operating Mass includes fixed equipment needed to carry out a specific flight.
2. The Operating Mass includes the traffic load.
3. The Operating Mass is the mass of the aircraft without take-off fuel.
4. The Dry Operating Mass includes take-off fuel.
Question: Which of the following corresponds to zero fuel mass?
1. The take-off mass of an aeroplane minus all usable fuel.
2. Take-off mass minus fuel to destination and alternate.
3. Operating mass plus luggage of passengers and cargo.
4. Operating mass plus passengers and cargo.
Question: Given that: - Maximum structural take-off mass: 146 000 kg, - Maximum structural landing mass: 93 900 kg, -
Maximum zero fuel mass: 86 300 kg, - Trip fuel: 27 000 kg, - Taxi fuel: 1 000 kg, - Contingency fuel: 1350 kg, - Alternate fuel:
2650 kg, - Final reserve fuel: 3000 kg, Determine the actual take-off mass:
1. 121 300 kg.
2. 120 300 kg.
3. 146 000 kg.
4. 120 900 kg.
Question: On an aeroplane without central fuel tank, the maximum Zero Fuel Mass is related to:
1. Maximum Structural Take-Off Mass.
2. variable equipment for the flight.
3. wing loaded trip fuel.
4. the bending moment at the wing root.
Question: Given are:- Maximum structural take-off mass: 72 000 kg, - Maximum structural landing mass: 56 000 kg, - Maximum
zero fuel mass: 48 000 kg, - Taxi fuel: 800 kg, - Trip fuel: 18 000 kg, - Contingency fuel: 900 kg, - Alternate fuel: 700 kg, - Final
reserve fuel: 2 000 kg. The actual take-off mass can never be higher than:
1. 72 000 kg
2. 74 000 kg
3. 70 400 kg
4. 69 600 kg
Question: The centre of gravity location of the aeroplane is normally computed along the:
1. lateral axis.
2. longitudinal axis.
3. horizontal axis.
4. vertical axis.
Question: In mass and balance calculations which of the following describes the datum?
1. It is the point on the aircraft designated by the manufacturer from which all centre of gravity measurements and
calculations are made.
2. It is the most forward position of the centre of gravity.
3. It is the distance from the centre of gravity to the point through which the weight of the component acts.
4. It is the most aft position of the centre of gravity.
Question: An aircraft has its centre of gravity located 7 metres from the datum line and it has a weight of 49000 N. The moment
about the datum is:
1. 343 000 N/m.
2. 7000 Nm.
3. 343 000 Nm.
4. 1.43 Nm.
Question: Which one of the following is correct?

1. Arm = Force / Moment
2. Arm = Moment / Force
3. Arm = Force X Moment
4. Moment = Force / Arm
Question: Given: Total mass 2900 kg Centre of gravity (cg) location station: 115 Aft cg limit station: 116 The maximum mass that
can be added at station 130 is:
1. 317 kg.
2. 207 kg.
3. 14 kg.
4. 140 kg.
Question: Given: Total mass: 7500 kg, Centre of gravity (cg) location station: 80.5, Aft cg limit station: 79.5. How much cargo
must be shifted from the aft cargo compartment at station 150 to the forward cargo compartment at station 30 in order to
move the cg location to the aft limit?
1. 65.8 kg.
2. 73.5 kg.
3. 68.9 kg.
4. 62.5 kg.
Question: A jet aeroplane, with the geometrical characteristics shown in the appendix, has a take-off weight (W) of 460 000 N
and a centre of gravity (point G on annex) located at 15.40 m from the zero reference point. At the last moment the station
manager has 12 000 N of freight added in the forward compartment at 10 m from the zero reference point. The final location of
the centre of gravity, calculated in percentage of mean aerodynamic chord AB (from point A), is equal to:
1. 16.9 %.
2. 27.5 %.
3. 30.4 %.
4. 35.5 %.
Question: Which is true of the aeroplane empty mass?
1. It is a component of dry operating mass.
2. It is dry operating mass minus traffic load.
3. It is dry operating mass minus fuel load.
4. It is the actual take-off mass, less traffic load.
Question: The total mass of an aeroplane is 9000 kg. The centre of gravity (cg) position is at 2.0 m from the datum line. The aft
limit for cg is at 2.1 m from the datum line. What mass of cargo must be shifted from the front cargo hold (at 0.8 m from the
datum) to the aft hold (at 3.8 m), to move the cg to the aft limit?
1. 30.0 kg
2. 300 kg
3. 196 kg
4. 900 kg
Question: Assume: Aircraft actual mass: 4750 kg Centre of gravity at station: 115.8 What will be the new position of the centre
of gravity if 100 kg is moved from the station 30 to station 120?
1. Station 118.33
2. Station 117.69
3. Station 118.25
4. Station 120.22
Question: An aeroplane with a two wheel nose gear and four main wheels rests on the ground with a single nose wheel load of
500 kg and a single main wheel load of 6000 kg. The distance between the nose wheels and the main wheels is 10 meter. How
far is the centre of gravity in front of the main wheels?
1. 40 cm.
2. 25 cm.
3. 4 meter.
4. 41.6 cm.
Question: Considering only structural limitations, on long distance flights (at the aeroplane's maximum range), the traffic load is
normally limited by:
1. The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass plus the Take-off Mass.
2. The Maximum Landing Mass.
3. The Maximum Take-off Mass.
4. The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass.
Question: The Zero Fuel Mass of an aeroplane is always:

1. the Take-off Mass minus the wing fuel mass.
2. the Maximum Take-off Mass minus the take-off fuel mass.
3. the Take-off Mass minus the mass of take-off fuel.
4. the Take-off Mass minus the fuselage fuel mass.
Question: Given: Maximum structural take-off mass= 146 900 kg, Maximum structural landing mass= 93 800 kg, Maximum zero
fuel mass= 86 400 kg, Trip fuel= 27 500 kg, Block fuel= 35 500 kg Engine starting and taxi fuel = 1 000 kg. The maximum take-off
mass is equal to:
1. 113 900 kg
2. 121 300 kg
3. 120 300 kg
4. 120 900 kg
Question: Given: Aeroplane mass = 36 000 kg Centre of gravity (cg) is located at station 17 m What is the effect on cg location if
you move 20 passengers (total mass = 1 600 kg) from station 16 to station 23?
1. It moves aft by 0.31 m.
4. It moves forward by 0.157 m.
Question: In mass and balance calculations the "index" is:
1. an imaginary vertical plane or line from which all measurements are taken.
2. the range of moments the centre of gravity (cg) can have without making the aeroplane unsafe to fly.
3. a location in the aeroplane identified by a number.
4. is a figure without unit of measurement which represents a moment.
Question: Loads must be adequately secured in order to:

1. prevent excessive 'g'-loading during the landing flare.
2. allow steep turns.
3. avoid any centre of gravity (cg) movement during flight.
4. avoid unplanned centre of gravity (cg) movement and aircraft damage.
Question: Traffic load is the:

1. Take-off Mass minus Zero Fuel Mass.
2. Dry Operating Mass minus the variable load.
3. Zero Fuel Mass minus Dry Operating Mass.
4. Dry Operating Mass minus the disposable load.
Question: Given the following information, calculate the loaded centre of gravity (cg). Details at reference.
1. 56.53 cm aft datum.
Question: Given are the following information at take-off. Details at reference Given that the flight time is 2 hours and the
estimated fuel flow will be 1050 litres per hour and the average oil consumption will be 2.25 litres per hour. The specific density
of fuel is 0.79 and the specific density of oil is 0.96. Calculate the landing centre of gravity
1. 61.27 cm aft of datum.
Question: Given that the total mass of an aeroplane is 112 000 kg with a centre of gravity position at 22.62m aft of the datum.
The centre of gravity limits are between 18m and 22m. How much mass must be removed from the rear hold (30 m aft of the
datum) to move the centre of gravity to the middle of the limits:
1. 16 529 kg
2. 8 680 kg
3. 43 120 kg
4. 29 344 kg
Question: What determines the longitudinal stability of an aeroplane ?

1. The effectiveness of the horizontal stabilizer, rudder and rudder trim tab.
2. The relationship of thrust and lift to weight and drag.
3. The dihedral, angle of sweepback and the keel effect.
4. The location of the centre of gravity with respect to the neutral point.
Question: Assuming gross mass, altitude and airspeed remain unchanged, movement of the centre of gravity from the forward
to the aft limit will cause
1. reduced maximum cruise range.
2. increased cruise range.
3. higher stall speed.
4. lower optimum cruising speed.
Question: While making mass and balance calculation for a particular aircraft, the term 'Basic Empty Mass' applies to the sum of
airframe, engine(s), fixed ballast plus
1. all the oil, fuel, and hydraulic fluid but not including crew and traffic load.
2. all the oil and fuel.
3. unusable fuel and full operating fluids.
4. all the consumable fuel and oil, but not including any radio or navigation equipment installed by manufacturer.
Question: The term 'Maximum Zero Fuel Mass' consist of:

1. The maximum mass for some aeroplanes including the fuel load and the traffic load
2. The maximum mass authorized for a certain aeroplane not including the fuel load and operational items
3. The maximum permissible mass of an aeroplane with no usable fuel.
4. The maximum mass authorized for a certain aeroplane not including traffic load and fuel load.
Question: The actual 'Zero Fuel Mass' is equal to the:

1. Basic Empty Mass plus the fuel loaded.
2. Actual Landing Mass plus trip fuel.
3. Dry Operating Mass plus the traffic load.
4. Operating Mass plus all the traffic load.
Question: The actual 'Take-off Mass' is equivalent to:

1. Actual Landing Mass plus the take-off fuel
2. Dry Operating Mass plus take-off fuel and the traffic load
3. Dry Operating Mass plus the take-off fuel
4. Actual Zero Fuel Mass plus the traffic load
Question: Calculate the centre of gravity in % MAC (mean aerodynamic chord) with following data: Distance datum - centre of
gravity: 12.53 m Distance datum - leading edge: 9.63 m Length of MAC: 8 m
1. 63.4 % MAC
2. 47.0 % MAC
3. 23.1 % MAC
4. 36.3 % MAC
Question: With respect to aeroplane loading in the planning phase, which of the following statements is always correct ? LM =
Landing Mass TOM = Take-off Mass MTOM = Maximum Take-off Mass ZFM = Zero Fuel Mass MZFM = Maximum Zero Fuel Mass
DOM = Dry Operating Mass
1. Reserve Fuel = TOM - Trip Fuel
2. MTOM = ZFM + full tank fuel mass
3. LM = TOM - Trip Fuel
4. MZFM = Traffic load + DOM
Question: Given an aeroplane with: Maximum Structural Landing Mass: 125000 kg Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 108500 kg
Maximum Structural Take-off Mass: 155000 kg Dry Operating Mass: 82000 kg Scheduled trip fuel is 17000 kg and the reserve
fuel is 5000 kg. Assuming performance limitations are not restricting, the maximum permitted take-off mass and maximum
traffic load are respectively:
1. 125500 kg and 21500 kg
2. 125500 kg and 26500 kg
3. 130500 kg and 31500 kg
4. 130500 kg and 26500 kg
Question: For the purpose of completing the Mass and Balance documentation, the Traffic Load is considered to be equal to the
Take-off Mass
1. plus the Operating Mass.
2. less the Operating Mass.
3. less the Trip Fuel Mass.
4. plus the Trip Fuel Mass.
Question: For the purpose of completing the Mass and Balance documentation, the Operating Mass is considered to be Dry
Operating Mass plus
1. Ramp Fuel Mass less the fuel for APU and run-up.
2. Take-off Fuel Mass.
3. Trip Fuel Mass.
4. Ramp Fuel Mass.
Question: When establishing the mass breakdown of an aeroplane, the empty mass is defined as the sum of the:
1. empty mass dry plus variable equipment mass
2. basic mass plus special equipment mass
3. basic mass plus variable equipment mass
4. standard empty mass plus specific equipment mass plus trapped fluids plus unusable fuel mass
Question: For the purpose of completing the Mass and Balance documentation, the Dry Operating Mass is defined as:
1. The total mass of the aircraft ready for a specific type of operation excluding crew and crew baggage.
2. The total mass of the aircraft ready for a specific type of operation excluding all traffic load.
3. The total mass of the aircraft ready for a specific type of operation excluding all usable fuel.
4. The total mass of the aircraft ready for a specific type of operation excluding all usable fuel and traffic load.
Question: An aeroplane's weighing schedule indicates that the empty mass is 57320 kg. The nominal Dry Operating Mass is
60120 kg and the Maximum Zero Fuel Mass is given as 72100 kg. Which of the following is a correct statement in relation to this
aeroplane?
1. operational items have a mass of 2800 kg and the maximum useful load is 11980 kg.
2. operational items have a mass of 2800 kg and the maximum useful load is 14780 kg.
3. operational items have a mass of 2800 kg and the maximum traffic load for this aeroplane is 11980 kg.
4. operational items have a mass of 2800 kg and the maximum traffic load for this aeroplane is 14780 kg.
Question: An aeroplane is to depart from an airfield where the performance limited take-off mass is 89200 kg. Certificated
maximum masses are as follows: Ramp (taxi) mass- 89930 kg, Maximum Take-off mass- 89430 kg, MaximumLanding mass-
71520 kg, Actual Zero fuel mass- 62050 kg, Fuel on board at ramp: Taxi fuel- 600 kg, Trip fuel- 17830 kg, Contingency, final
reserve and alternate -9030 kg. If the Dry Operating Mass is 40970 kg the traffic load that can be carried on this flight is
1. 21220 kg
2. 20870 kg
3. 21080 kg
4. 21500 kg
Question: The empty mass of an aeroplane, as given in the weighing schedule, is 61300 kg. The operational items (including
crew) is given as a mass of 2300 kg. If the take-off mass is 132000 kg (including a useable fuel quantity of 43800 kg) the useful
load is
1. 26900 kg.
2. 29600 kg
3. 70700 kg
4. 68400 kg
Question: The following data applies to an aeroplane which is about to take off: Certified maximum take-off mass - 141500 kg
Performance limited take-off mass - 137300 kg Dry Operating Mass - 58400 kg Crew and crew hand baggage mass - 640 kg Crew
baggage in hold - 110 kg Fuel on board - 60700 kg From this data calculate the mass of the useful load.
1. 17450 kg
2. 78150 kg
3. 78900 kg
4. 18200 kg
Question: A revenue flight is to be made by a jet transport. The following are the aeroplane's structural limits: -Maximum Ramp
Mass: 69 900 kg, -Maximum Take Off Mass: 69 300 kg, Maximum Landing Mass: 58 900 kg, Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 52 740 kg.
The performance limited take off mass is 67 450kg and the performance limited landing mass is 55 470 kg. Dry Operating Mass:
34 900 kg. Trip Fuel: 6 200 kg. Taxi Fuel: 250 kg. Contingency & final reserve fuel:1 300 kg. Alternate Fuel: 1 100 kg. The
maximum traffic load that can be carried is:
1. 19 200 kg
2. 19 500 kg
3. 17 840 kg
4. 19 100 kg
Mass: 69 900 kg, -Maximum Take Off Mass: 69 300 kg, Maximum Landing Mass: 58 900 kg, Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 52 740 kg.
Take Off and Landing mass are not performance limited. Dry Operating Mass: 34 930 kg Trip Fuel: 11 500 kg Taxi Fuel: 250 kg
Contingency & final reserve fuel: 1 450 kg Alternate Fuel: 1 350 kg The maximum traffic load that can be carried is:
1. 21 170 kg
2. 20 420 kg
3. 21 070 kg
4. 17 810 kg
Mass: 69 900 kg, -Maximum Take Off Mass: 69 300 kg, Maximum Landing Mass: 58 900 kg, Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 52 740 kg
Take Off and Landing mass are not performance limited. Dry Operating Mass: 34 900 kg Trip Fuel: 11 800 kg Taxi Fuel: 500 kg
Contingency & final reserve fuel: 1 600 kg Alternate Fuel:1 900 kg The maximum traffic load that can be carried is:
1. 19 500 kg
2. 17 840 kg
3. 19 200 kg
4. 19 100 kg
Question: At reference or see Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.14. The medium range twin jet transport is scheduled to operate
from a departure airfield where conditions limit the take-off mass to 65050 kg. The destination airfield has a performance
limited landing mass of 54500 kg. The Dry Operating Mass is 34900 kg. Loading data is as follows - Taxi fuel 350 kg Trip fuel 9250
kg Contingency and final reserve fuel 1100 kg Alternate fuel 1000 kg Traffic load 18600 kg Check the load and ensure that the
flight may be operated without exceeding any of the aeroplane limits. Choose, from those given below, the most appropriate
answer.
1. The flight is 'zero fuel mass' limited and the traffic load must be reduced to 14170 kg.
2. The flight may be safely operated with the stated traffic and fuel load.
3. The flight may be safely operated with an additional 200 kg of traffic load.
4. The flight is 'landing mass' limited and the traffic load must be reduced to 17500 kg.
Question: The following data is extracted from an aeroplane's loading manifest: Performance limited take-off mass 93500 kg
Expected landing mass at destination 81700 kg Maximum certificated landing mass 86300 kg Fuel on board 16500 kg During the
flight a diversion is made to an en-route alternate which is not 'performance limited' for landing. Fuel remaining at landing is
10300 kg. The landing mass
1. is 83200 kg which is in excess of the regulated landing mass and could result in overrunning the runway
2. is 87300 kg which is acceptable in this case because this is a diversion and not a normal scheduled landing.
3. must be reduced to 81700 kg in order to avoid a high speed approach.
4. is 87300 kg and excess structural stress could result
Question: At maximum certificated take-off mass an aeroplane departs from an airfield which is not limiting for either take-off
or landing masses. During initial climb the number one engine suffers a contained disintegration. An emergency is declared and
the aeroplane returns to departure airfield for an immediate landing. The most likely result of this action will be
1. a high threshold speed and possible undercarriage or other structural failure.
2. a landing further along the runway than normal.
3. a high threshold speed and a shorter stop distance.
4. a landing short resultant from the increased angle of approach due to the very high aeroplane mass.
Question: The crew of a transport aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data: - Dry operating mass: 90 000 kg - Block
fuel: 30 000 kg - Taxi fuel: 800 kg - Maximum take-off mass: 145 000 kg The traffic load available for this flight is:
1. 55 000 kg
2. 55 800 kg
3. 25 000 kg
4. 25 800 kg
Question: The planned take-off mass of a turbojet aeroplane is 190 000 kg, with its centre of gravity located at 29 % MAC (Mean
Aerodynamic Cord) . Shortly prior to engine start, the local staff informs the flight crew that 4 000 kg must be loaded in cargo 4.
After the handling operation, the new centre of gravity location in % MAC will be:
1. 25 %
2. 33 %
3. 27 %
4. 31 %
Question: At reference or see Loading Manual SEP1 Figure 2.4. With respect to a single-engine piston powered aeroplane,
determine the zero fuel moment (lbs.In./100) in the following conditions: Basic Empty Mass: 2415 lbs. Arm at Basic Empty Mass:
77,9 In. Cargo Zone A: 350 lbs. Baggage Zone B: 35 lbs. Pilot and front seat passenger : 300 lbs (total)
1. 2311,8
2. 2496,3
3. 2548,8
4. 6675
Question: Determine the Zero Fuel Mass for the following single engine aeroplane. Given : Basic Empty Mass: 1799 lbs Optional
Equipment: 35 lbs Pilot Front seat passenger : 300 lbs Cargo Mass : 350 lbs Ramp Fuel = Block Fuel : 60 Gal. Trip Fuel : 35 Gal.
Fuel density : 6 lbs/Gal.
1. 2414 lbs
2. 2659 lbs
3. 2589 lbs
4. 2449 lbs
Question: Determine the Landing Mass for the following single engine aeroplane. Given: Standard Empty Mass :1764 lbs
Optional Equipment : 35 lbs Pilot Front seat passenger : 300 lbs Cargo Mass : 350 lbs Ramp Fuel = Block Fuel : 60 Gal. Trip Fuel :
35 Gal. Taxi Fuel 1.7 Gal. Fuel density: 6 lbs/Gal Determine the expected landing mass.
1. 2799 lbs
2. 2589 lbs
3. 2659 lbs
4. 2449 lbs
Question: To calculate the allowable take-off mass, the factors to be taken into account include:
1. the Maximum Take-off Mass minus the trip fuel.
2. the sum of the Maximum Zero Fuel Mass and the trip fuel.
3. the sum of the Maximum Landing Mass and the fuel on board at take-off.
4. the sum of the Maximum Landing Mass and the trip fuel.
Question: Allowed traffic load is the difference between :

1. allowed take off mass and basic mass plus trip fuel
2. operating mass and basic mass
3. allowed take off mass and basic mass
4. allowed take off mass and operating mass
Question: Given: Dry operating mass = 38 000 kg maximum structural take-off mass = 72 000 kg maximum landing mass = 65 000
kg maximum zero fuel mass = 61 000 kg Fuel burn = 8 000 kg Take-off Fuel = 10 300 kg The maximum allowed take-off mass and
payload are respectively :
1. 71 300 kg and 23 000 kg
2. 71 300 kg and 25 300 kg
3. 73 000 kg and 24 700 kg
4. 73 000 kg and 27 000 kg
Question: Maximum allowed take-off mass limit: 37 200kg Dry Operating Mass: 21 600 kg Take-off fuel: 8 500 kg Passengers on
board: male 33,female 32, children 5 Baggages: 880 kg The company uses the standard passenger mass systems (see annex)
allowed by regulations. The flight is not a holiday charter. In these conditions, the maximum cargo that may be loaded is
1. 1 098 kg
2. 1 105 kg
3. 901 kg
4. 585 kg
Question: Length of the mean aerodynamic chord = 1 m Moment arm of the forward cargo: -0,50 m Moment arm of the aft
cargo: + 2,50 m The aircraft mass is 2 200 kg and its centre of gravity is at 25% MAC To move the centre of gravity to 40%, which
mass has to be transferred from the forward to the aft cargo hold?
1. 183 kg
2. 104 kg
3. 165 kg
4. 110 kg
Question: Which statement regarding the relationship between traffic load and range is correct?
1. The Maximum Landing Mass is basically equal to the Maximum Zero Fuel Mass.
2. The maximum traffic load is not limited by the reserve fuel quantity.
3. The maximum zero fuel mass limits the maximum quantity of fuel.
4. The traffic load can be limited by the desired range.
Question: Which of the following statements is correct?
1. The station (STA) is always the location of the centre of gravity in relation to a reference point, normally the leading
edge of the wing at MAC
2. A tail heavy aeroplane is less stable and stalls at a lower speed than a nose heavy aeroplane
3. If the actual centre of gravity is located behind the aft limit the aeroplane longitudinal stability increases.
4. The centre of gravity is given in percent of MAC calculated from the leading edge of the wing, where MAC always =
the wing chord halfway between the centre line of the fuselage and the wing tip
1. If the actual centre of gravity is close to the forward limit of the centre of gravity the aeroplane may be unstable,
making it necessary to increase elevator forces
2. If the actual centre of gravity is located behind the aft limit of centre of gravity it is possible that the aeroplane will be
unstable, making it necessary to increase elevator forces
3. The lowest stalling speed is obtained if the actual centre of gravity is located in the middle between the aft and
forward limit of centre of gravity
4. A tail heavy aeroplane is less stable and stalls at a lower speed than a nose heavy aeroplane

1. The Basic Empty Mass is equal to the mass of the aeroplane excluding traffic load and useable fuel but including the
crew.
2. The Maximum Landing Mass of an aeroplane is restricted by structural limitations, performance limitations and the
strength of the runway.
3. The Maximum Take-off Mass is equal to the maximum mass when leaving the ramp.
4. The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass ensures that the centre of gravity remains within limits after the uplift of fuel.
Question: Given an aeroplane with: Maximum Structural Landing Mass: 68000 kg Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 70200 kg Maximum
Structural Take-off Mass: 78200 kg Dry Operating Mass : 48000 kg Scheduled trip fuel is 7000 kg and the reserve fuel is 2800 kg,
Assuming performance limitations are not restricting, the maximum permitted take-off mass and maximum traffic load are
respectively:
1. 77200 kg and 19400 kg
2. 77200 kg and 22200 kg
3. 75000 kg and 17200 kg
4. 75000 kg and 20000 kg
Question: Moment (balance) arms are measured from a specific point to the body station at which the mass is located. That
point is known as
1. the centre of gravity of the aircraft.
2. the datum.
3. the axis.
4. the focal point.
Question: At reference or see Loading Manual MRJT 1 page 20. For the medium range twin jet the datum point is located
1. at the leading edge of the Mean Aerodynamic Chord (MAC).
2. 540 cm forward of the front spar.
3. 540 inches forward of the front spar.
4. on the nose of the aeroplane.
Question: The centre of gravity of an aircraft is that point through which the total mass of the aircraft is said to act. The weight
acts in a direction
1. governed by the distribution of the mass within the aircraft.
2. parallel to the gravity vector.
3. at right angles to the flight path.
4. always parallel to the aircraft's vertical axis.
Question: When an aircraft is stationary on the ground, its total weight will act vertically
1. through its centre of pressure.
2. through its centre of gravity.
3. through a point defined as the datum point.
4. through the main wheels of its undercarriage assembly.
Question: The weight of an aircraft, which is in level non accelerated flight, is said to act
1. vertically through the centre of pressure.
2. vertically through the centre of gravity.
3. always along the vertical axis of the aircraft.
4. vertically through the datum point.
Question: An aeroplane is weighed and the following recordings are made: nose wheel assembly scale 5330 kg left main wheel
assembly scale 12370 kg right main wheel assembly scale 12480 kg If the 'operational items' amount to a mass of 1780 kg with a
crew mass of 545 kg, the empty mass, as entered in the weight schedule, is
1. 30180 kg
2. 32505 kg
3. 31960 kg
4. 28400 kg
Question: If individual masses are used, the mass of an aircraft must be determined prior to initial entry into service and
thereafter
1. at regular annual intervals.
2. only if major modifications have taken place.
3. at intervals of 9 years.
4. at intervals of 4 years if no modifications have taken place.
Question: The empty mass of an aeroplane is recorded in
1. the weighing schedule. If changes occur, due to modifications, the aeroplane must be re-weighed always.
2. the loading manifest. It differs from the zero fuel mass by the value of the 'traffic load'.
3. the weighing schedule and is amended to take account of changes due to modifications of the aeroplane.
4. the loading manifest. It differs from Dry Operating Mass by the value of the 'useful load'.
Question: Prior to departure an aircraft is loaded with 16500 litres of fuel at a fuel density of 780 kg/m³. This is entered into the
load sheet as 16500 kg and calculations are carried out accordingly. As a result of this error, the aircraft is
1. lighter than anticipated and the calculated safety speeds will be too low
2. heavier than anticipated and the calculated safety speeds will be too low.
3. heavier than anticipated and the calculated safety speeds will be too high
4. lighter than anticipated and the calculated safety speeds will be too high
Question: An additional baggage container is loaded into the aft cargo compartment but is not entered into the load and trim
sheet. The aeroplane will be heavier than expected and calculated take-off safety speeds
1. are unaffected but V1 will be increased.
2. will give reduced safety margins.
3. will be greater than required.
4. will not be achieved.
Question: Fuel loaded onto an aeroplane is 15400 kg but is erroneously entered into the load and trim sheet as 14500 kg. This
error is not detected by the flight crew but they will notice that
1. V1 will be increased.
2. speed at un-stick will be higher than expected
3. the aeroplane will rotate much earlier than expected.
4. V1 will be reached sooner than expected
Question: At reference or see Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.11. At the maximum landing mass the range of safe CG positions,
as determined from the appropriate graph in the loading manual, is:
1. Forward limit 8.6% MAC aft limit 27.0% MAC
Question: At a given mass the CG position is at 15% MAC. If the leading edge of MAC is at a position 625.6 inches aft of the
datum and the MAC is given as 134.5 inches determine the position of the CG in relation to the datum.
1. 645.78 inches aft of datum
Question: At reference or see Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.11. The aeroplane has a Take Off Mass of 58 000 kg. At this mass
the range of safe CG positions, as determined from the appropriate graph in the loading manual, is:
Question: When preparing to carry out the weighing procedure on an aircraft, which of the following is not required?
1. drain all engine tank oil.
2. removable passenger services equipment to be off-loaded.
3. drain all useable fuel.
4. drain all chemical toilet fluid tanks.
Question: An aircraft is weighed prior to entry into service. Who is responsible for deriving the Dry Operational Mass from the
weighed mass by the addition of the 'operational items' ?
1. The appropriate Aviation Authority.
2. The Operator.
3. The commander of the aircraft.
4. The aircraft manufacturer or supplier.
Question: An aircraft may be weighed

1. at a specified 'weighing location' on the airfield.
2. in an enclosed, non-air conditioned, hangar.
3. in an area of the airfield set aside for maintenance.
4. in a quiet parking area clear of the normal manoeuvring area.
Question: At reference or see Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.11. An aeroplane has a landing mass of 53 000kg. The range of
safe CG positions, as determined from the appropriate graph in the loading manual, is :
Question: At reference or see Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.11. The aeroplane has a mass of 61 000 kg in the cruise. The
range of safe CG positions, as determined from the appropriate graph in the loading manual, is:
1. forward limit 7.7% aft limit 25.2% MAC
2. forward limit 7.6% aft limit 26.9% MAC.
3. forward limit 8.0% aft limit 27.2% MAC.
4. forward limit 8.3% aft limit 26.3% MAC
Question: At reference or see Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9. For the transport aeroplane the moment (balance) arm (B.A.)
for the forward hold centroid is:
1. 367.9 inches.
2. 257 inches.
3. 421.5 inches.
4. 314.5 inches.
Question: Which of the following is unlikely to have any effect on the position of the centre of gravity on an aeroplane in flight ?
1. Lowering the landing gear.
2. Changing the tailplane (horizontal stabiliser) incidence angle.
3. Normal consumption of fuel for a swept wing aeroplane.
4. Movement of cabin attendants going about their normal duties.
Question: At reference or see Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9. Referring to the loading manual for the transport aeroplane,
the maximum running load for the aft section of the forward lower deck cargo compartment is:
1. 13.15 kg per inch.
Question: At reference or see Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9. Referring to the loading manual for the transport aeroplane,
the maximum load intensity for the lower forward cargo compartment is:
1. 7288 kg in forward compartment and 9232 kg in aft compartment.
2. 3305 kg in forward compartment and 4187 kg in aft compartment.
3. 150 kg per square foot.
Question: The maximum floor loading for a cargo compartment in an aeroplane is given as 750 kg per square metre. A package
with a mass of 600 kg. is to be loaded. Assuming the pallet base is entirely in contact with the floor, which of the following is the
minimum size pallet that can be used ?
1. 30 cm by 300 cm
2. 40 cm by 300 cm
3. 30 cm by 200 cm
4. 40 cm by 200 cm
Question: The maximum intensity floor loading for an aeroplane is given in the Flight Manual as 650 kg per square metre. What
is the maximum mass of a package which can be safely supported on a pallet with dimensions of 80 cm by 80 cm?
1. 1015.6 kg
2. 101.6 kg
3. 41.6 kg
4. 416.0 kg
Question: The distance from the datum to the Centre of Gravity of a mass is known as
1. the index.
2. the moment arm or balance arm.
3. the moment.
4. the force.
Question: At reference or see Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9. A pallet having a freight platform which measures 200 cm x
250 cm has a total mass of 300 kg. The pallet is carried on two ground supports each measuring 20 cm x 200 cm. Using the
loading manual for the transport aeroplane, calculate how much mass may be added to, or must be off loaded from, the pallet
in order for the load intensity to match the maximum permitted distribution load intensity for lower deck forward cargo
compartment.
1. 28.5 kg may be added.
2. 158.3 kg must be off loaded.
3. 28.5 kg must be off loaded.
4. 285.6 kg may be added.
Question: During take-off you notice that, for a given elevator input, the aeroplane rotates much more rapidly than expected.
This is an indication that:
1. the centre of gravity may be towards the aft limit.
2. the centre of gravity is too far forward.
3. the centre of pressure is aft of the centre of gravity.
4. the aeroplane is overloaded.
Question: Dry Operating Mass is the mass of the aircraft less

1. usable fuel, potable water and lavatory chemicals.
2. usable fuel and traffic load.
3. usable fuel.
4. traffic load, potable water and lavatory chemicals.
Question: The total mass of the aeroplane including crew, crew baggage; plus catering and removable passenger equipment;
plus potable water and lavatory chemicals but excluding usable fuel and traffic load, is referred to as:
1. Zero Fuel Mass.
2. Dry Operating Mass.
3. Maximum Zero Fuel Mass
4. Aeroplane Prepared for Service ( APS) Mass.
Question: The responsibility for determination of the mass of 'operating items' and 'crew members' included within the Dry
Operating Mass lies with
1. the commander.
2. the authority of the state of registration.
3. the person compiling the weighing schedule.
4. the operator.
Question: If the centre of gravity is near the forward limit the aeroplane will:
1. tend to over rotate during take-off.
2. require less power for a given airspeed.
3. require elevator trim which will result in an increase in fuel consumption.
4. benefit from reduced drag due to the decrease in angle of attack.
Question: An aeroplane is said to be 'neutrally stable'. This is likely to:
1. cause the centre of gravity to move forwards.
2. be totally unrelated to the position of the centre of gravity.
3. be caused by a centre of gravity which is towards the forward limit.
4. be caused by a centre of gravity which is towards the rearward limit.
Question: The Dry Operating Mass is the total mass of the aircraft ready for a specific type of operation but excluding
1. usable fuel, potable water and lavatory chemicals.
2. potable water and lavatory chemicals.
3. usable fuel and crew.
4. usable fuel and traffic load.
Question: The Take-off Mass of an aeroplane is 66700 kg which includes a traffic load of 14200 kg and a usable fuel load of
10500 kg. If the standard mass for the crew is 545 kg the Dry Operating Mass is
1. 41455 kg
2. 42545 kg
3. 56200 kg
4. 42000 kg
Question: When the centre of gravity is at the forward limit, an aeroplane will be:
1. extremely unstable and require small elevator control to change pitch.
2. extremely stable and require small elevator control to change pitch.
3. extremely stable and will require excessive elevator control to change pitch.
4. extremely unstable and require excessive elevator control to change pitch.
Question: If the centre of gravity of an aeroplane moves forward during flight the elevator control will :
1. become lighter making the aeroplane more difficult to manouevre in pitch.
2. become heavier making the aeroplane more easy to manouevre in pitch.
3. become heavier making the aeroplane more difficult to manouevre in pitch
4. become lighter making the aeroplane more easy to manouevre in pitch.
Question: An aeroplane is loaded with its centre of gravity towards the rear limit. This will result in:
1. a reduction in power required for a given speed.
2. an increase in longitudinal stability.
3. a reduced fuel consumption as a result of reduced drag.
4. an increased risk of stalling due to a decrease in tailplane moment
Question: An aeroplane must be re-weighed at certain intervals. Where an operator uses 'fleet masses' and provided that
changes have been correctly documented, this interval is
1. 9 years for each aeroplane.
2. 4 years for each aeroplane.
3. whenever a major modification is carried out.
4. whenever the Certificate of Airworthiness is renewed.
Question: A flight benefits from a strong tail wind which was not forecast. On arrival at destination a straight in approach and
immediate landing clearance is given. The landing mass will be higher than planned and
1. the landing distance will be unaffected.
2. the landing distance required will be longer.
3. the approach path will be steeper.
4. the approach path will be steeper and threshold speed higher.
Question: At reference or see Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9. From the loading manual for the jet transport aeroplane, the
maximum floor loading intensity for the aft cargo compartment is :
1. 68 kg per square metre.
3. 68 Lbs per square foot.
Question: At reference or see Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9. From the loading manual for the transport aeroplane, the aft
cargo compartment has a maximum total load of :
1. 3062 kg
2. 4187 kg
3. 1568 kg
4. 9232 kg
Question: At reference or see Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9. From the Loading Manual for the transport aeroplane, the
maximum load that can be carried in that section of the aft cargo compartment which has a balance arm centroid at :
1. 835.5 inches is 3062 kg.
2. 835.5 inches is 6752 kg.
3. 421.5 inches is 4541 kg.
4. 421.5 inches is 2059 Lbs.
Question: A mass of 500 kg is loaded at a station which is located 10 metres behind the present Centre of Gravity and 16 metres
behind the datum. (Assume: g=10 m/sec squared). The moment for that mass used in the loading manifest is :
1. 50000 Nm
2. 30000 Nm
3. 130000 Nm
4. 80000 Nm
Question: The maximum certificated taxi (or ramp) mass is that mass to which an aeroplane may be loaded prior to engine start.
It is:
1. a value which varies only with airfield altitude. Standard corrections are listed in the Flight Manual.
2. a value which is only affected by the outside air temperature. Corrections are calculated from data given in the Flight
Manual.
3. a fixed value which is listed in the Flight Manual.
4. a value which varies with airfield temperature and altitude. Corrections are listed in the Flight Manual.
Question: The maximum mass to which an aeroplane may be loaded, prior to engine start, is:
1. maximum certificated take - off mass.
2. maximum certificated taxi (ramp) mass.
3. maximum regulated take - off mass.
4. maximum regulated taxi (ramp) mass.
Question: The maximum taxi (ramp) mass is governed by:

1. bearing strength of the taxiway pavement.
2. structural considerations.
3. taxi distance to take - off point.
4. tyre speed and temperature limitations.
Question: The Zero Fuel Mass and the Dry Operating Mass
1. differ by the sum of the mass of usable fuel plus traffic load mass.
2. differ by the mass of usable fuel.
3. differ by the value of the traffic load mass.
4. are the same value.
Question: Mass for individual passengers (to be carried on an aircraft) may be determined from a verbal statement by or on
behalf of the passengers if the number of
1. passengers carried is less than 20.
2. passenger seats available is less than 20.
3. passengers carried is less than 6.
4. passenger seats available is less than 10.
Question: The empty mass of an aeroplane is given as 44800 kg. Operational items (including crew standard mass of 1060 kg)
are 2300 kg. If the maximum zero fuel mass is given as 65500 kg, the maximum traffic load which could be carried is:
1. 23000 kg
2. 20700 kg
3. 19460 kg.
4. 18400 kg
Question: At reference or see Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.14. The following data relates to a planned flight of an aeroplane
- Dry Operational mass 60520 kg Performance limited take-off mass 92750 kg, Performance limited landing mass 72250 kg,
Maximum Zero Fuel mass 67530 kg. Fuel on board at take-off - Trip fuel 12500 kg, Contingency and final reserve fuel 2300 kg,
Alternate fuel 1700 kg. Using this data, as appropriate, calculate the maximum traffic load that can be carried.
1. 7730 kg
2. 11730 kg
3. 15730 kg
4. 7010 kg
Question: At reference or see Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.14. Aeroplane Dry Operating mass 85000 kg, Performance limited
take-off mass 127000 kg, Performance limited landing mass 98500 kg, Maximum zero fuel mass 89800 kg, Fuel requirements for
flight -Trip fuel 29300 kg, Contingency and final reserve fuel 3600 kg, Alternate fuel 2800 kg. The maximum traffic load that can
be carried on this flight is:
1. 7100 kg
2. 6300 kg
3. 12700 kg
4. 4800 kg
Question: The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass is a structural limiting mass. It is made up of the aeroplane Dry Operational mass plus
1. traffic load and crew standard mass.
2. unuseable and crew standard mass.
3. traffic load, unuseable fuel and crew standard mass.
4. traffic load and unuseable fuel.
Question: The take-off mass of an aeroplane is 141000 kg. Total fuel on board is 63000 kg including 14000 kg reserve fuel and
1000 kg of unusable fuel. The traffic load is 12800 kg. The zero fuel mass is:
1. 79000 kg
2. 93000 kg
3. 65200 kg.
4. 78000 kg
Question: 'Standard Mass' as used in the computation of passenger load establish the mass of a child as
1. 35 kg irrespective of age provided they occupy a seat.
2. 35 kg for children over 2 years occupying a seat and 10 kg for infants (less than 2 years) occupying a seat.
3. 35 kg for children over 2 years occupying a seat and 10 kg for infants (less than 2 years) not occupying a seat.
4. 35 kg only if they are over 2 years old and occupy a seat.
Question: The maximum certificated take - off mass is:

1. a take - off limiting mass which is affected by the aerodrome altitude and temperature.
2. a structural limit which may not be exceeded for any take - off.
3. limited by the runway take off distance available. It is tabulated in the Flight Manual.
4. a take - off limiting mass which is governed by the gradient of climb after reaching V2 .
Question: For a particular aeroplane, the structural maximum mass without any fuel on board, other than unusable quantities,
is:
1. a fixed value which is stated in the Aeroplane Operating Manual.
2. a fixed value which will limit the amount of fuel carried.
3. a variable value which is governed by the traffic load carried.
4. a variable value which is governed by the PCN and ACN.
Question: An aeroplane, which is scheduled to fly an oceanic sector, is due to depart from a high altitude airport in the tropics at
1400 local time. The airport has an exceptionally long runway. Which of the following is most likely to be the limiting factor(s) in
determining the take - off mass ?
1. en route obstacle clearance requirements.
2. Maximum Zero Fuel Mass.
3. maximum certificated take - off mass.
4. altitude and temperature of the departure airfield.
Question: On an aeroplane with a seating capacity of more than 30, it is decided to use standard mass values for computing the
total mass of passengers. If the flight is not a holiday charter, the mass value which may be used for an adult is
1. 84 kg
2. 88 kg (male) 74 kg (female).
3. 76 kg
4. 84 kg (male) 76 kg (female).
Question: The standard mass for a child is
1. 35 kg for holiday charters and 38 kg for all other flights.
2. 30 kg for holiday charters and 35 kg for all other flights.
3. 38 kg for all flights.
4. 35 kg for all flights.
Question: On an aeroplane with 20 or more seats engaged on an inter-continental flight, the 'standard mass' which may be used
for passenger baggage is
1. 15 kg per passenger.
Question: The following data applies to a planned flight. Dry Operating Mass 34900 kg, Performance limited Take-Off Mass
66300 kg, Performance limited Landing Mass 55200 kg, Maximum Zero Fuel Mass 53070 kg, Fuel required at ramp:- Taxy fuel
400 kg, trip fuel 8600 kg, contingency fuel 430 kg, alternate fuel 970 kg, holding fuel 900 kg, Traffic load 16600 kg. Fuel costs at
the departure airfield are such that it is decided to load the maximum fuel quantity possible. The total fuel which may be safely
loaded prior to departure is :
1. 12700 kg
2. 10730 kg
3. 13230 kg
4. 15200 kg
Question: In determining the Dry Operating Mass of an aeroplane it is common practice to use 'standard mass' values for crew.
These values are
1. flight crew 85 kg., cabin crew 75 kg. each. These do not include a hand baggage allowance.
2. flight crew (male) 88 kg. (female) 75 kg., cabin crew 75 kg. each. These do not include an allowance for hand baggage.
3. flight crew 85 kg., cabin crew 75 kg. each. These are inclusive of a hand baggage allowance.
4. flight crew (male) 88 kg. (female) 75 kg., cabin crew 75 kg. each. These include an allowance for hand baggage.
Question: An aeroplane is to depart from an airfield at a take-off mass of 302550 kg. Fuel on board at take-off (including
contingency and alternate of 19450 kg) is 121450 kg. The Dry Operating Mass is 161450 kg. The useful load will be
1. 19650 kg
2. 121450 kg
3. 39105 kg
4. 141100 kg
Question: When considering the effects of increased mass on an aeroplane, which of the following is true?
1. Flight endurance will be increased.
2. Gradient of climb for a given power setting will be higher.
3. Stalling speeds will be lower.
4. Stalling speeds will be higher.
Question: If an aeroplane is at a higher mass than anticipated, for a given airspeed the angle of attack will
1. be greater, drag will increase and endurance will decrease.
2. remain constant, drag will increase and endurance will increase.
3. remain constant, drag will decrease and endurance will decrease.
4. be decreased, drag will decrease and endurance will increase.
Question: Conversion of fuel volume to mass
1. must be done using fuel density values of 0.79 for JP 1 and 0.76 for JP 4 as specified in JAR - OPS, IEM - OPS 1.605E.
2. may be done by using standard fuel density values as specified in JAR - OPS 1.
3. must be done by using actual measured fuel density values.
4. may be done by using standard fuel density values as specified in the Operations Manual, if the actual fuel density is
not known.
Question: Standard masses may be used for the computation of mass values for baggage if the aeroplane
1. has 6 or more seats.
2. is carrying 30 or more passengers.
Question: Which of the following is most likely to affect the range of centre of gravity positions on an aeroplane?
1. The need to minimise drag forces and so improve efficiency.
2. The need to maintain a low value of stalling speed.
3. Elevator and tailplane (horizontal stabiliser) effectiveness in all flight conditions.
4. Location of the undercarriage.
Question: A jet transport has the following structural limits: -Maximum Ramp Mass: 63 060 kg -Maximum Take Off Mass: 62 800
kg -Maximum Landing Mass: 54 900 kg -Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 51 300 kg The aeroplane's fuel is loaded accordance with the
following requirements: -Taxi fuel: 400 kg -Trip fuel: 8400 kg -Contingency & final reserve fuel: 1800 kg -Alternate fuel: 1100 kg If
the Dry Operating Mass is 34930 kg, determine the maximum traffic load that can be carried on the flight if departure and
landing airfields are not performance limited.
1. 16 370 kg
2. 17 070 kg
3. 16 430 kg
4. 16 570 kg
Question: A flight has been made from London to Valencia carrying minimum fuel and maximum traffic load. On the return flight
the fuel tanks in the aeroplane are to be filled to capacity with a total fuel load of 20100 litres at a fuel density of 0.79 kg/l. The
following are the aeroplane's structural limits: -Maximum Ramp Mass: 69 900 kg -Maximum Take Off Mass: 69 300 kg -
Maximum Landing Mass: 58 900 kg -Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 52 740 kg The performance limited take off mass at Valencia is
67 330 kg. The landing mass at London is not performance limited. Dry Operating Mass: 34 930 kg Trip Fuel (Valencia to
London): 5 990 kg Taxi fuel: 250 kg The maximum traffic load that can be carried from Valencia will be:
1. 16 770 kg
2. 9 830 kg
3. 13 240 kg
4. 14 331 kg
Question: The term 'useful load' as applied to a aircraft includes
1. traffic load only.
2. the revenue-earning portion of traffic load plus useable fuel.
3. traffic load plus useable fuel.
4. the revenue-earning portion of traffic load only.
Question: An aeroplane is performance limited to a landing mass of 54230 kg. The Dry Operating Mass is 35000 kg and the zero
fuel mass is 52080 kg. If the take-off mass is 64280 kg the useful load is
1. 12200 kg.
2. 10080 kg.
3. 17080 kg
4. 29280 kg.
Question: See Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5 For the medium range transport aeroplane, from the loading manual,
determine the maximum total volume of fuel which can be loaded into the main wing tanks. (Fuel density value 0.78kg/l)
1. 11350 litres
2. 5674 litres
3. 8850 litres
4. 11646 litres
Question: Contrary to the forecast given in the LOAD and TRIM sheet, cargo compartment 1 is empty. The take-off centre of
gravity in MAC % (Mean Aerodynamic Chord) will be located at:
1. 32.5 %
2. 25 %
3. 31 %
4. 36 %
Question: Contrary to the loading sheet forecasts you have : Cargo compartment 1: empty. Cargo compartment 2: 1000Kg.
Cargo compartment 3: 3000Kg. Cargo compartment 4: 2000Kg. Cargo compartment 5: 1000Kg. Passengers in compartment OA:
20. Passengers in compartment OB: 20. Passengers in compartment OC: 30. The take-off centre of gravity in MAC % (Mean
Aerodynamic Chord), will be located at:
1. 32.5 %
2. 24.5 %
3. 31.5 %
4. 35.5 %
Question: Just prior to departure, you accept 10 passengers additional on board who will be seated in "compartment OA" and
you have 750 kg unloaded from cargo compartment 5. The take-off centre of gravity in MAC % (Mean Aerodynamic Chord) will
be located at:
1. 30.5 %
2. 27.2 %
3. 27.8 %
4. 28.5 %
Question: A jet aeroplane is climbing at constant Mach number below the tropopause. Which of
the following statements is correct?
1. IAS increases and TAS decreases.
2. IAS decreases and TAS increases.
3. IAS decreases and TAS decreases.
4. IAS increases and TAS increases.
Question: Consider the graphic representation of the power required versus the true airspeed
(TAS), for a piston-engined aeroplane with a given mass. The tangent from the point of origin to
the point of contact on the curve, at
1. maximum endurance.
2. maximum specific range.
3. critical angle of attack.
4. maximum thrust.
Question: For a piston engine aeroplane, the speed for maximum range is:
1. that which gives the minimum value of induced drag.
2. that which gives the maximum lift to drag ratio.
3. 1.4 times the stall speed in clean configuration.
4. that which gives the maximum value of lift
Question: Which of the following statements is correct ?
1. An underrun is an area beyond the runway end which can be used for an aborted take-off.
2. A clearway is an area beyond the runway which can be used for an aborted take-off.
3. If a clearway or a stopway is used, the lift-off point must be attainable at least at the end of the
permanent runway surface.
4. A stopway means an area beyond the take-off runway, able to support the aeroplane during
an aborted take-off.
Question: During take-off the third segment begins:
1. when flap retraction is completed.
2. when acceleration to flap retraction speed is started.
3. when landing gear is fully retracted.
4. when acceleration starts from VLOF to V2.
Question: Which of the following is true with regard to VMCA (air minimum control speed)?
1. Straight flight can not be maintained below VMCA, when the critical engine has failed.
2. The aeroplane will not gather the minimum required climb gradient
3. VMCA only applies to four-engine aeroplanes
4. The aeroplane is uncontrollable below VMCA
Question: Which of the following will decrease V1?
1. Increased outside air temperature.
2. Inoperative flight management system.
3. Increased take-off mass.
4. Inoperative anti-skid.
Question: Which of the following are to be taken into account for the runway in use for take-off ?
1. Airport elevation, runway slope, standard temperature, pressure altitude and wind
components.
2. Airport elevation, runway slope, outside air temperature, standard pressure and wind
components.
3. Airport elevation, runway slope, standard temperature, standard pressure and wind
components.
4. Airport elevation, runway slope, outside air temperature, pressure altitude and wind
components.
Question: Changing the take-off flap setting from flap 15° to flap 5° will normally result in:
1. a shorter take-off distance and a better climb.
2. a better climb and an equal take-off distance.
3. a shorter take-off distance and an equal climb.
4. a longer take-off distance and a better climb.
Question: In accordance with JAR-25, the reference landing speed (VREF) has the following
minimum margin above the reference stalling speed in the landing configuration (VSR0):
1. 23%
2. 10%
3. 20%
4. 15%
Question: Use the attached graphic. What is the maximum vertical speed of a three engine
turbojet aeroplane with one engine inoperative (N-1) and a mass of 75 000 kg? Using the
following: g = 10 m/s², 1 kt = 100 ft/min, SIN( Angle of climb) = (Thrust- Drag)/ Weight
1. 3293 ft / min.
2. 0 ft / min.
3. 1267 ft / min.
4. -1267 ft / min.
Question: In relation to the net take-off flight path, the required 35 ft vertical distance to clear all
obstacles is:
1. the minimum vertical distance between the lowest part of the aeroplane and all obstacles
within the obstacle domain.
2. the height at which power is reduced to maximum climb thrust.
3. the height by which acceleration and flap retraction should be completed.
4. based on pressure altitudes.
Question: During certification flight testing of a transport aeroplane, the distances measured from
brake release to the 35 feet point are equal to: - 1547 m with all engines running - 1720 m with
failure of critical engine at V1, with all other things remaining unchanged. The take-off distance
adopted for the certification file is:
1. 1547 m.
2. 1720 m.
3. 1978 m.
4. 1779 m.
Question: For a turboprop powered aeroplane (performance class A) on a commercial flight, a
2200 m long runway at the destination aerodrome is expected to be wet. It must be ensured that
the landing mass of the aeroplane allows a full stop landing on a dry runway within a landing
distance of:
1. 1771 m.
2. 1147 m.
3. 1540 m.
4. 1339 m.
Question: At a given altitude, when a turbojet aeroplane mass is increased by 5% - assuming the
engines specific consumption remains unchanged, its hourly consumption is approximately
increased by:
1. 5%
2. 2.5%
3. 7.5%
4. 10%
Question: Considering the take-off decision speed V1, which of the following is correct?
1. If an engine failure is recognized before reaching V1, the take-off must be aborted.
2. V1 may not be less than V2min, the minimum take-off safety speed.
3. sometimes greater than the rotation speed VR.
4. V1 is sometimes greater than the rotation speed VR.
Question: What will be the effect on an aeroplane's performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is
decreased?
1. It will decrease the take-off distance required.
2. It will increase the take-off distance required.
3. It will increase the accelerate stop distance.
4. It will increase the take-off ground run.
Question: If the aerodrome pressure altitude increases it will:
1. decrease the take-off distance.
2. increase the take-off distance.
3. decrease the take-off run.
4. increase the take-off distance available.
Question: Given that the characteristics of a three engine turbojet aeroplane are as follows: Thrust
= 50 000 Newton / Engine, g = 10 m/s², Drag = 72 569 N, Minimum gross gradient (2nd segment)
= 2.7% SIN(Angle of climb) = (Thrust- Drag) / Weight. The maximum take-off mass under 2nd
segment conditions is:
1. 286 781 kg
2. 101 596 kg
3. 74 064 kg
4. 209 064 kg
Question: The minimum climb gradient required on the 2nd flight path segment after the take-off of
a jet aeroplane is defined by the following parameters: 1 - Undercarriage retracted. 2 -
Undercarriage extended. 3 - Flaps up. 4 - Flaps in take-off position. 5 - All engines at the take-of
thrust. 6 - Operative engine(s) at take-off thrust. 7 - Climbing speed of V2 10kts. 8 - Climbing
speed of 1.3VS. 9 - Climbing speed of V2. 10 - Commencing height 35ft. The correct statements
are:
1. 2, 3, 6, 9
2. 1, 4, 5, 10
3. 1, 5, 8, 10
4. 1, 4, 6, 9
Question: Minimum control speed on the ground, VMCG, is based on directional control being
maintained by:
1. primary aerodynamic control and nose wheel steering.
2. primary aerodynamic control only.
3. nose wheel steering only.
4. primary aerodynamic control, nose wheel steering and differential braking.
Question: Which of the following distances will increase if you increase V1, but VR remains
unchanged?
1. Take-off distance
2. Take-off run
3. Accelerate Stop Distance
4. All Engine Take-off distance
Question: Which of the following answers is true?
1. V1 is lower or equal to VR
2. V1 is lower VMCG
3. V1 is higher VR
4. V1 is higher VLOF
Question: The length of a clearway may be included in:
1. the take-off run available.
2. the distance to reach V1.
3. the accelerate-stop distance available.
4. the take-off distance available.
Question: How does runway slope affect allowable take-off mass, assuming other factors remain
constant and not limiting?
1. Allowable take-off mass is not affected by runway slope.
2. A downhill slope decreases allowable take-off mass.
3. An uphill slope increases the allowable take-off mass.
4. A downhill slope increases allowable take-off mass.
Question: The effect of increasing the flap setting, from zero to the recommended take-off setting,
on the length of the Take-off Distance Required (TODR) and the Field-Length-Limited Take-off
mass (TOM) is:
1. Decreased TOD required and increased field length limited TOM.
2. Increased TOD required and increased field length limited TOM.
3. Decreased TOD required and decreased field length limited TOM.
4. Increased TOD required and decreased field length limited TOM.
Question: How is VMCA influenced by increasing pressure altitude?
1. VMCA is not affected by pressure altitude
2. VMCA decreases with increasing pressure altitude.
3. VMCA decreases with pressure altitude higher than 4000 ft.
4. VMCA increases with increasing pressure altitude.
Question: Which one of the following is not affected by a tail wind?
1. the field limited take-off mass.
2. the climb limited take-off mass.
3. the take-off run.
4. the obstacle limited take-off mass.
Question: Considering VR, which statement is correct?
1. VR is the speed at which rotation should be initiated.
2. VR is the lowest speed for directional control in case of engine failure.
3. In case of engine failure below VR the take-off should be aborted.
4. VR is the lowest climb speed after engine failure.
Question: Which statement is correct?
1. VR must not be less than 1.05 VMCA and not less than 1.1 V1.
2. VR must not be less than 1.1 VMCA and not less than V1.
3. VR must not be less than 1.05 VMCA and not less than V1.
4. VR must not be less than VMCA and not less than 1.05 V1.
Question: Which of the following represents the minimum for V1?
1. VR
2. VMU
3. VLOF
4. VMCG
Question: Which of the following represents the maximum value for V1 assuming max tyre speed
and max brake energy speed are not limiting?
1. VMCA
2. VREF
3. VR
4. V2
Question: During certification flight testing on a four engine turbojet aeroplane the actual take-off
distances measured are: - 3050 m with failure of the critical engine recognised at V1 - 2555 m with
all engines operating and all other things being equal The take-off distance adopted for the
certification file is:
1. 3050 m
2. 2555 m
3. 3513 m
4. 2938 m
Question: In the event of engine failure below V1, the first action to be taken by the pilot in order to
decelerate the aeroplane is to:
1. deploy airbrakes or spoilers.
2. apply wheel brakes.
3. reverse engine thrust.
4. reduce the engine thrust.
Question: If the antiskid system is inoperative, which of the following statements is true?
1. Take-off with anti-skid inoperative is never permitted.
2. It has no effect on the accelerate stop distance.
3. The accelerate stop distance decreases.
4. The accelerate stop distance increases.
Question: In which of the following distances can the length of a stopway be included?
1. In the take-off run available.
2. In the one-engine failure case, take-off distance.
3. In the accelerate stop distance available.
4. In the all-engine take-off distance.
Question: Other factors remaining constant and not limiting, how does increasing pressure altitude
affect allowable take-off mass?
1. Allowable take-off mass increases.
2. Allowable take-off mass remains uninfluenced up to 5000 ft pressure altitude.
3. Allowable take-off mass decreases.
4. There is no effect on allowable take-off mass.
Question: If there is a tail wind, the climb limited TOM will:
1. increase in the flaps extended case.
2. increase.
3. decrease.
4. not be affected.
Question: Which of the following sets of factors will increase the climb-limited TOM (every factor
considered independently)?
1. Low flap setting, low PA, low OAT.
2. Low flap setting, high PA, low OAT.
3. High flap setting, low PA, low OAT.
4. Low flap setting, high PA, high OAT.
Question: The requirements with regard to take-off flight path and the climb segments are only
specified for:
1. the failure of any engine on a multi-engine aeroplane.
2. 2 engine aeroplane.
3. the failure of two engines on a multi-engine aeroplane.
4. the failure of the critical engine on a multi-engines aeroplane.
Question: At which minimum height will the second climb segment end?
1. 1500 ft above field elevation.
2. 400 ft above field elevation.
3. When gear retraction is completed.
4. 35 ft above ground.
Question: A head wind will:
1. shorten the time of climb.
2. increase the rate of climb.
3. increase the climb flight path angle.
4. increase the angle of climb.
Question: Assuming that the required lift exists, which forces determine an aeroplane's angle of
climb?
1. Thrust and drag only.
2. Weight, drag and thrust.
3. Weight and thrust only.
4. Weight and drag only.
Question: How does the best angle of climb and best rate of climb vary with increasing altitude for
an aeroplane with a normal aspirated piston engine?
1. Best angle of climb decreases while best rate of climb increases.
2. Both decrease.
3. Both increase.
4. Best angle of climb increases while best rate of climb decreases.
Question: An operator shall ensure that the net take-off flight path clears all obstacles. The half-
width of the obstacle-corridor at the distance D from the end of the TODA is at least:
1. 90m + 1.125D
2. 0.125D
3. 90m + D/0.125
4. 90m + 0.125D
Question: What is the effect of tail wind on the time to climb to a given altitude?
1. The time to climb increases
2. The effect on time to climb will depend on the aeroplane type.
3. The time to climb decreases.
4. The time to climb does not change.
Question: The angle of climb with flaps extended, compared to that with flaps retracted, will
normally be:
1. smaller.
2. Not change.
3. Increase at moderate flap setting, decrease at large flap setting.
4. Larger.
Question: Vx and Vy with take-off flaps will be:
1. changed so that Vx increases and Vy decreases compared to clean configuration.
2. lower than that for clean configuration.
3. higher than that for clean configuration.
4. same as that for clean configuration.
Question: Other factors remaining constant, how does increasing altitude affect Vx and Vy in
terms of TAS?
1. Both will increase.
2. Vx will decrease and Vy will increase.
3. Both will decrease.
4. Both will remain the same.
Question: How does TAS vary in a constant Mach climb in the troposphere (under ISA conditions)
?
1. TAS decreases.
2. TAS is not related to Mach Number.
3. TAS is constant.
4. TAS increases.
Question: The optimum long-range cruise altitude for a turbojet aeroplane:
1. is always equal to the powerplant ceiling.
2. is only dependent on the outside air temperature.
3. is independent of the aeroplane mass.
4. increases when the aeroplane mass decreases.
Question: Considering TAS for maximum range and maximum endurance, other factors remaining
constant,
1. both will decrease with increasing altitude.
2. both will increase with increasing altitude.
3. TAS for maximum range will increase with increased altitude while TAS for maximum
endurance will decrease with increased altitude.
4. both will stay constant regardless of altitude.
Question: How does the specific range change when the altitude increases for jet aeroplane flying
with the speed for maximum range?
1. Increases only if there is no wind.
2. First increases than decreases.
3. Decreases.
4. Does not change.
Question: At Reference. Assuming constant L/D ratio, which of the diagrams provided correctly
shows the movement of the "Thrust Required Curve". Mass m1 is higher than mass m2.
1. a
2. d
3. c
4. b
Question: Long range cruise is a flight procedure which gives:
1. a 1% higher TAS for maximum specific range.
2. a specific range which is approximately 99% of maximum specific range and a lower cruise
speed.
3. a specific range which is approximately 99% of maximum specific range and a higher cruise
speed.
4. an IAS which is 1% higher than the IAS for maximum specific range.
Question: A commercial flight is planned with a turbojet aeroplane to an aerodrome with a landing
distance available of 2400 m. The aeroplane mass must be such that on arrival the aeroplane can
be landed within:
1. 1 090 m.
2. 1 655 m.
3. 1 250 m.
4. 1 440 m.
Question: At the destination aerodrome the landing distance available is 3000m. The appropriate
weather forecast indicates that the runway at the estimated time of arrival will be wet. For a
commercial flight the mass of a turbojet aeroplane at landing must be such that the aeroplane can
be landed within:
1. 2609 m.
2. 1565 m.
3. 2 070 m.
4. 1800 m.
Question: With zero wind, the angle of attack for maximum range for an aeroplane with turbojet
engines is:
1. equal to the angle of attack corresponding to maximum lift to drag ratio.
2. equal to the angle of attack corresponding to maximum endurance
3. lower than the angle of attack corresponding to maximum endurance
4. equal to the angle of attack corresponding to zero induced drag.
Question: Two identical turbojet aeroplane (whose specific fuel consumptions are considered to be
equal) are at holding speed at the same altitude. The mass of the first aircraft is 130 000 kg and its
hourly fuel consumption is 4300 kg/h. The mass of the second aircraft is 115 000 kg and its hourly
fuel consumption is:
1. 3578 kg/h.
2. 3365 kg/h.
3. 4044 kg/h.
4. 3804 kg/h.
uestion: A jet aeroplane equipped with old engines has a specific fuel consumption of 0.06 kg per
Newton of thrust and per hour and, in a given flying condition, a fuel mileage of 14 kg per Nautical
Mile. In the same flying conditions, the same aeroplane equipped with modern engines with a
specific fuel consumption of 0.035 kg per Newton of thrust and per hour, has a fuel mileage of:
1. 8.17 kg/NM.
2. 14 kg/NM.
3. 10.7 kg/NM.
4. 11.7 kg/NM.
Question: The determination of the maximum mass on brake release, of a certified turbojet
aeroplane with 5°, 15° and 25° flaps angles on take-off, leads to the following values, with wind:
Flap angle: 5° 15° 25° FLLTOM (kg): 66 000 69 500 71 500 CLTOM: 72 200 69 000 61 800 Wind
correction: Head wind:+120kg / kt, Tail wind: -360kg / kt. Given that the tail wind component is
equal to 5 kt, the maximum mass on brake release and corresponding flap angle will be:
1. 67 700 kg / 15 °
2. 69 000 kg / 15 °
3. 69 700 kg / 25 °
4. 72 200 kg / 5 °
Question: Given: VS= Stalling speed, VMCA= Air minimum control speed, VMU= Minimum unstick
speed (disregarding engine failure), V1= take-off decision speed, VR= Rotation speed, V2 min.=
Minimum take-off safety speed, VLOF: Lift-off speed . The correct formula is:
1. VS< VMCA< V2 min
2. VMU<= VMCA< V1
3. V2min< VMCA> VMU
4. VR< VMCA< VLOF
Question: Regarding take-off, the take-off decision speed V1:
1. is the airspeed of the aeroplane upon reaching 35 feet above the take-off surface.
2. is always equal to VEF (Engine Failure speed).
3. is an airspeed at which the aeroplane is airborne but below 35 ft and the pilot is assumed to
have made a decision to continue or discontinue the take-off .
4. is the airspeed on the ground at which the pilot is assumed to have made a decision to
continue or discontinue the take-off.
Question: During certification test flights for a turbojet aeroplane, the actual measured take-off
runs from brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the
point at which the aeroplane is 35 feet above the take-off surface are: - 1747 m, all engines
operating - 1950 m, with the critical engine failure recognized at V1, the other factors remaining
unchanged. Considering both possibilities to determine the take-off run (TOR). The certificated
value of the Take-off Run is:
1. 2243 m.
2. 2009 m.
3. 1950 m.
4. 2096 m.
Question: An airport has a 3000 metres long runway, and a 2000 metres clearway at each end of
that runway. For the calculation of the maximum allowed take-off mass, the take-off distance
available cannot be greater than:
1. 4500 metres.
2. 4000 metres.
3. 5000 metres.
4. 6000 metres.
Question: At reference or see Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4. For a twin engine turbojet
aeroplane two take-off flap settings (5° and 15°) are certified. Given: Field length avalaible= 2400
m, Outside air temperature= -10°C, Airport pressure altitude= 7000 ft. The maximum allowed take-
off mass is:
1. 55 000 kg
2. 70 000 kg
3. 56 000 kg
4. 52 000 kg
Question: The lowest take-off safety speed (V2 min) is:

1. 1.13 VSR for two- and three-engine turbo-propeller and turbojet aeroplanes.
2. 1.20 VSR for all aeroplanes.
3. 1.20 VSR for all turbo-propeller aeroplanes.
4. 1.15 VSR for all turbojet and turbo-propeller aeroplanes.
Question: The net flight path gradient after take-off compared to the actual climb gradient is:
1. depends on type of aircraft and may be smaller or larger respectively.
2. equal.
3. smaller.
4. larger.
Question: Which of the following three speeds of a jet aeroplane are basically identical? The
speeds for:
1. maximum range, minimum drag and minimum glide angle.
2. maximum climb angle, minimum glide angle and maximum range.
3. holding, maximum climb angle and minimum glide angle.
4. maximum drag, maximum endurance and maximum climb angle.
Question: The lift coefficient decreases during a glide with constant Mach number, mainly because
the:
1. TAS decreases.
2. aircraft mass decreases.
3. glide angle increases.
4. IAS increases.
Question: Which of the following diagrams correctly shows the movement of the power required
curve with increasing altitude from H1 to H2?
1. Figure a
2. Figure b
3. Figure c
4. Figure d
Question: In a steady descending flight (descent angle GAMMA) equilibrium of forces acting on
the aeroplane is given by: (T = Thrust, D = Drag, W = Weight)
1. T + D = - W sin GAMMA
2. T + W sin GAMMA = D
3. T - D = W sin GAMMA
4. T - W sin GAMMA = D
Question: An aeroplane executes a steady glide at the speed for minimum glide angle. If the
forward speed is kept constant, what is the effect of a lower mass? Rate of descent / Glide angle /
CL/CD ratio
1. increases / constant / increases
2. increases / increases / constant
3. decreases / constant / decreases
4. increases / increases / decreases
Question: An aeroplane is in a power off glide at speed for minimum glide angle. If the pilot
increases pitch attitude the glide distance:
1. decreases.
2. increases.
3. may increase or decrease depending on the type of aeroplane.
4. remains the same.
Question: Maximum endurance for a piston engine aeroplane is achieved at:
1. The speed for maximum lift coefficient.
2. The speed that approximately corresponds to the maximum rate of climb speed.
3. The speed that corresponds to the speed for maximum climb angle.
4. The speed for minimum drag.
Question: The maximum indicated air speed of a piston engine aeroplane without turbo charger, in
level flight, is reached:
1. at the practical ceiling.
2. at the service ceiling.
3. at the optimum cruise altitude.
4. at the lowest possible altitude.
Question: During a descent at constant Mach Number, the margin to low speed buffet will:
1. decrease, because the lift coefficient decreases.
2. increase, because the lift coefficient decreases.
3. increase, because the lift coefficient increases.
4. remain constant, because the Mach number remains constant.
Question: At reference or see Performance Manual SEP1 1 Figure 2.4. With regard to the graph
for landing performance, what is the minimum headwind component required in order to land at
Helgoland airport? Given: Runway length: 1300 ft, Runway elevation: MSL, Weather: assume ISA
conditions, Mass: 3200 lbs, Obstacle height: 50 ft
1. No wind.
2. 15 kt.
3. 5 kt.
4. 10 kt.
Question: A jet aeroplane is climbing at a constant IAS and maximum climb thrust, how will the
climb angle / the pitch angle change?
1. Remain constant / become larger.
2. Reduce / remain constant.
3. Remain constant / decrease.
4. Reduce / decrease.
Question: A jet aeroplane is flying long range cruise. How does the specific range / fuel flow
change?
1. Increase / increase.
2. Decrease / decrease.
3. Decrease / increase.
4. Increase / decrease.
Question: During a glide at constant Mach number, the pitch angle of the aeroplane will:
1. remain constant.
2. increase.
3. increase at first and decrease later on.
4. decrease.
Question: During a cruise flight of a jet aeroplane at constant flight level and at the maximum
range speed, the IAS / the drag will:
1. decrease / increase.
2. decrease / decrease.
3. increase / decrease.
4. increase / increase.
Question: An aeroplane descends from FL 410 to FL 270 at its cruise Mach number and from FL
270 to FL 100 at the IAS achieved at FL 270. Assuming idle thrust, a clean configuration and
ignoring compressibility effects, how does the angle of descent change (i) in the first and (ii) in the
second part of the descent?
1. (i) Decreases (ii) Increases
2. (i) Increases (ii) Decreases
3. (i) Remains constant (ii) Decreases
4. (i) Increases (ii) Remains constant
Question: Which of the following combinations basically has an effect on the angle of descent in a
glide? (Ignore compressibility effects.)
1. Configuration and angle of attack.
2. Configuration and mass.
3. Altitude and configuration.
4. Mass and altitude.
Question: Two identical aeroplanes at different masses are descending atzero wind and zero
thrust. Which of the following statements correctly describes their descent characteristics ?
1. At a given angle of attack the heavier aeroplane will always glide further than the lighter
aeroplane.
2. At a given angle of attack the lighter aeroplane will always glide further than the heavier
aeroplane.
3. There is no difference between the descent characteristics of the two aeroplanes.
4. At a given angle of attack, both the vertical and the forward speed are greater for the heavier
aeroplane.
Question: Compared with still-air, the effect a headwind has on the values of the maximum range
speed and the maximum gradient climb speed respectively is that:
1. the maximum range speed decreases and the maximum gradient climb speed is not affected.
2. the maximum range speed increases and the maximum gradient climb speed is not affected.
3. the maximum range speed decreases and the maximum gradient climb speed increases.
4. the maximum range speed decreases and the maximum gradient climb speed decreases.
Question: The maximum speed in horizontal flight occurs when:
1. The thrust is equal to the maximum drag.
2. The thrust is equal to minimum drag.
3. The thrust does not increase further with increasing speed.
4. The maximum thrust is equal to the total drag.
Question: With respect to the optimum altitude, which of the following statements is correct ?
1. An aeroplane always flies below the optimum altitude, because Mach buffet might occur.
2. An aeroplane sometimes flies above or below the optimum altitude because optimum altitude
increases continuously during flight.
3. An aeroplane flies most of the time above the optimum altitude because this yields the most
economic result.
4. An aeroplane always flies at the optimum altitude because this is economically seen as the
most attractive altitude.
Question: How does the lift coefficient for maximum range vary with altitude? (No compressibility
effects.)
1. The lift coefficient increases with increasing altitude.
2. The lift coefficient is independent of altitude.
3. Only at low speeds the lift coefficient decreases with increasing altitude.
4. The lift coefficient decreases with increasing altitude.
Question: What happens to the drag of a jet aeroplane if, during the initial climb after take off,
constant IAS is maintained? (Assume a constant mass.)
1. The drag decreases.
2. The drag increases initially and decreases thereafter.
3. The drag increases considerably.
4. The drag remains almost constant.
Question: Which of the following sequences of speed for a jet aeroplane is correct ? (from low to
high speeds)
1. Maximum endurance speed, maximum range speed, maximum angle of climb speed.
2. Vs, maximum angle climb speed, maximum range speed.
3. Maximum endurance speed, long range speed, maximum range speed.
4. Vs, maximum range speed, maximum angle climb speed.
Question: If a flight is performed with a higher "Cost Index" at a given mass which of the following
will occur?
1. An increased maximum range.
2. An increased long range performance.
3. A higher cruise mach number.
4. A lower cruise Mach number.
Question: For a jet transport aeroplane, which of the following is the reason for the use of
'maximum range speed' ?
1. Minimum drag.
2. Longest flight duration.
3. Minimum fuel flow.
4. Minimum specific fuel consumption.
Question: The speed for maximum lift/drag ratio will result in:
1. The maximum range for a jet aeroplane.
2. The maximum range for a propeller driven aeroplane.
3. The maximum angle of climb for a propeller driven aeroplane.
4. The maximum endurance for a propeller driven aeroplane.
Question: What happens when an aeroplane climbs at a constant Mach number?
1. IAS stays constant so there will be no problems.
2. The "1.3G" altitude is exceeded, so Mach buffet will start immediately.
3. The lift coefficient increases.
4. The TAS continues to increase, which may lead to structural problems.
Question: Which of the following provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb?
1. The speed, at which the flaps may be selected one position further UP.
2. The speed for maximum rate of climb.
3. The speed for maximum climb angle Vx.
4. 1.2Vs.
Question: Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of ground distance during a glide,
while maintaining the appropriate minimum glide angle speed?
1. Decrease of aircraft mass.
2. Headwind.
3. Tailwind.
4. Increase of aircraft mass.
Question: Which of the following factors leads to the maximum flight time of a glide?
1. Low mass.
2. Tailwind.
3. High mass.
4. Headwind.
Question: Which of the following is a reason to operate an aeroplane at 'long range speed'?
1. In order to achieve speed stability.
2. The aircraft can be operated close to the buffet onset speed.
3. In order to prevent loss of speed stability and tuck-under.
4. It is efficient to fly slightly faster than with maximum range speed.
Question: If the value of the balanced V1 is found to be lower than VMCG, which of the following is
correct?
1. The VMCG will be lowered to V1.
2. The one engine out take-off distance will become greater than the ASDR.
3. The ASDR will become greater than the one engine out take-off distance.
4. V1 must be increased to at least the value of VMCG.
Question: The speed used to determine the "maximum tyre-speed limit" is the:
1. TAS.
2. EAS.
3. groundspeed.
4. IAS.
Question: Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when:
1. it is dark.
2. the runway is wet.
3. the runway is dry.
4. windshear is reported on the take-off path.
Question: Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when:
1. the runway is wet.
2. the runway is contaminated.
3. obstacles are present close to the end of the runway.
4. it is dark.
Question: The use of reduced take-off thrust is permitted, only if:
1. the actual take-off mass is lower than the performance limited take-off mass.
2. the actual take-off mass including a margin is greater than the performance limited take-off
mass.
3. the actual take-off mass is greater than the climb limited take-off mass.
4. the take-off distance available is lower than the take-off distance required.
Question: When V1 has to be reduced because of a wet runway the one engine out obstacle
clearance / climb performance:
1. decreases / remains constant.
2. decreases / decreases.
3. increases / increases.
4. remains constant / remains constant.
Question: Which statement concerning the inclusion of a clearway in take-off calculation is
correct?
1. The usable length of the clearway is not limited.
2. V1 remains constant.
3. V1 is increased.
4. The field length limited take-off mass will increase.
Question: The combination of factors that most requires a low-angled flap setting for take-off is:
1. Low field elevation, no obstacles in the climb-out path, short runway and a low ambient
temperature.
2. Low field elevation, close-in obstacles in the climb-out path, short runway and a high ambient
temperature.
3. High field elevation, no obstacles in the climb-out path, low ambient temperature and short
runway.
4. High field elevation, distant obstacles in the climb-out path, long runway and a high ambient
temperature.
Question: The combination of factors that most requires a low-angled flap setting for take-off is:
1. High field elevation, no obstacles in the climb-out path, low ambient temperature and short
runway.
2. Low field elevation, close-in obstacles in the climb-out path, long runway and a high ambient
temperature.
3. Low field elevation, no obstacles in the climb-out path, short runway and a low ambient
temperature.
4. High field elevation, distant obstacles in the climb-out path, long runway and a high ambient
temperature.
Question: The approach climb requirement has been established so that the aeroplane will
achieve:
1. minimum climb gradient in the event of a go-around with one engine inoperative.
2. manoeuvrability during approach with full flaps and gear down, all engines operating.
3. obstacle clearance in the approach area.
4. manoeuvrability in the event of landing with one engine inoperative.
Question: How is V2 affected if T/O flaps 20° is chosen instead of T/O flaps 10°?
1. V2 has no connection with T/O flap setting, as it is a function of runway length only.
2. V2 decreases if not restricted by VMCA.
3. V2 increases in proportion to the angle at which the flaps are set.
4. V2 has the same value in both cases.
Question: During the flight preparation the climb limited take-off mass (TOM) is found to be much
greater than the field length limited TOM using 5° flap. In what way can the performance limited
TOM be increased? There are no limiting obstacles.
1. By selecting a higher flap setting.
2. By selecting a lower V2.
3. By selecting a lower flap setting.
4. By selecting a higher V2.
Question: Which combination of circumstances or conditions would most likely lead to a tyre
speed limited take-off?
1. A high runway elevation and a head wind.
2. A low runway elevation and a head wind.
3. A high runway elevation and tail wind.
4. A low runway elevation and a cross wind.
Question: If on a particular flight the value of V1 used on take-off exceeds the correct value of V1,
if an engine fails at a speed immediately above the correct value of V1 then:
1. the accelerate/stop distance will exceed the accelerate/stop distance available.
2. the one-engine-inoperative take-off distance may exceed the take-off distance available.
3. It may lead to over-rotation.
4. V2 may be too high so that climb performance decreases.
1. VR is the speed at which, during rotation, the nose wheel comes off the runway.
2. VR is the speed at which the pilot should start to rotate the aeroplane.
3. VR should not be higher than 1.05 VMCG.
4. VR should not be higher than V1.
Question: The drift down requirements are based on:
1. the landing mass limit at the alternate.
2. the actual engine thrust output at the altitude of engine failure.
3. the maximum flight path gradient during the descent.
4. the obstacle clearance during a descent to the new cruising altitude if an engine has failed.
Question: Which of the following statements, concerning the obstacle limited take-off mass for
performance class A aeroplane, is correct?
1. It cannot be lower than the corresponding climb limited take-off mass.
2. It should be determined on the basis of a 35 ft obstacle clearance with the respect to the "net
take-off flight path".
3. It should be calculated in such a way that there is a margin of 50 ft with respect to the "net
take off flight path".
4. It should not be corrected for 30° bank turns in the take-off path.
Question: The 'maximum tyre speed' limits:
1. V1 in kt TAS.
2. VLOF in terms of ground speed.
3. V1 in kt ground speed.
4. VR, or VMU if this is lower than VR.
Question: For jet aeroplanes which of the following statements is correct?
1. The required landing field length is the distance from 35 ft to the full stop point.
2. An anti-skid system malfunction has no effect on the required landing field length.
3. When determining the maximum allowable landing mass at destination, 60% of the available
distance is taken into account, if the runway is expected to be dry.
4. In any case runway slope is one of the factors taken into account when determining the
required landing field length.
Question: Which of the following factors determines the maximum flight altitude in the "Buffet
Onset Boundary" graph?
1. Economy.
2. Service ceiling.
3. Theoretical ceiling.
4. Aerodynamics.
Question: Which data can be extracted from the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart?
1. The value of the critical Mach number at various masses and altitudes.
2. The value of the Mach number at which low speed and shockstall occur at various masses
and altitudes.
3. The value of maximum operating Mach number (MMO) at various masses and power
settings.
4. The values of the Mach number at which low speed and Mach buffet occur at various masses
and altitudes.
Question: Why should the temperature of the wheel brakes be checked prior to take off?"
1. To ensure that the thermal blow-out plugs are not melted.
2. Because overheated brakes will not perform adequately in the event of a rejected take-off.
3. To ensure that the brake wear is not excessive.
4. To ensure that the wheels have warmed up evenly.
Question: Which is the correct sequence of speeds during take-off?
1. V1, VR, VMCG, V2.
2. V1, VR, V2, VMCA.
3. VMCG, V1, VR, V2.
4. V1, VMCG, VR, V2.
Question: A jet aeroplane is climbing with constant IAS. Which operational speed limit is most
likely to be reached?
1. The Maximum operating Mach number.
2. The Stalling speed.
3. The Mach limit for the Mach trim system.
4. The Minimum control speed air.
Question: A jet aeroplane descends with constant Mach number. Which speed limit will be
exceeded?
1. High speed buffet limit
2. Maximum operating speed
3. Maximum operating Mach number
4. Never exceed speed
Question: Which of the following statements regarding the reduced thrust take-off technique is
correct?
1. The maximum reduction of thrust permitted for the MRJT using a reduced thrust take-off is
20%.
2. Reduced thrust is used in order to save fuel.
3. The reduced thrust take-off technique does not preserve engine life.
4. Reduced thrust can be used when the actual take-off mass is less than the performance
limited take-off mass.
Question: Which statement, in relation to the climb limited take-off mass of a jet aeroplane, is
correct?
1. 50% of a head wind is taken into account when determining the climb limited take-off mass.
2. On high elevation airports equipped with long runways the aeroplane will always be climb
limited.
3. The climb limited take-off mass is determined at the speed for best rate of climb.
4. The climb limited take-off mass decreases with increasing OAT.
Question: Regarding the obstacle limited take-off mass, which of the following statements is
correct?
1. The maximum bank angle which can be used is 10°.
2. The obstacle limited mass can never be lower than the climb limited take-off mass.
3. Wind speed plays no role when calculating this particular mass.
4. A take-off in the direction of an obstacle is also permitted in tail wind condition.
Question: Which statement regarding V1 is correct?
1. The V1 correction for up-slope is negative.
2. V1 must not exceed VMCG.
3. When determining the V1, reverse thrust is only allowed to be taken into account on the
remaining symmetric engines.
4. V1 must not exceed VR.
Question: When an aircraft takes off with the mass limited by the TODA:
1. the distance from brake release to V1 will be equal to the distance from V1 to the 35 feet
point.
2. the actual take-off mass equals the field length limited take-off mass.
3. the end of the runway will be cleared by 35 feet following an engine failure at V1.
4. the "balanced take-off distance" equals 115% of the "all engine take-off distance".
Question: For a take-off from a contaminated runway, which of the following statements is correct?
1. The take-off performance data for take-off must be determined in general by means of
calculation, only a few values are verified by flight tests.
2. A slush covered runway must be cleared before take-off, even if the performance data for
contaminated runway is available.
3. The greater the depth of contamination at constant take-off mass, the more V1 has to be
decreased to compensate for decreasing friction.
4. Dry snow is not considered to affect the take-off performance.
Question: To minimize the risk of hydroplaning during landing the pilot should:
1. use normal landing-, braking- and reverse technique.
2. postpone the landing until the risk of hydroplaning no longer exists.
3. make a "positive" landing and apply maximum reverse thrust and brakes as quickly as
possible.
4. use maximum reverse thrust, and should start braking below the hydroplaning speed.
Question: Which of the following statements is true regarding a balanced field-length?
1. A balanced take-off provides the lowest elevator input force requirement for rotation.
2. For a balanced field length the required take-off runway length always equals the available
runway length.
3. A balanced field length provides the greatest margin between "net" and "gross" take-off flight
paths.
4. A balanced field length provides the minimum required field length in the event of an engine
failure.
Question: At reference or see Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.24. With regard to the drift
down performance of the twin jet aeroplane, what is meant by "equivalent gross mass at engine
failure" ?
1. This gross mass accounts for the lower Mach number at higher temperatures.
2. The increment accounts for the higher fuel flow at higher temperatures.
3. The equivalent gross mass at engine failure is the actual gross mass corrected for OAT
higher than ISA +10°C.
4. The increment represents fuel used before engine failure.
Question: The stopway is an area which allows an increase only in the:

1. landing distance available.
2. take-off distance available.
3. take-off run available.
4. accelerate-stop distance available.
Question: VR cannot be lower than:
1. 1.15 Vs for turbo-prop with three or more engines.
2. 105% of V1 and VMCA.
3. 1.2 Vs for twin and three engine jet aeroplane.
4. V1 and 105% of VMCA.
Question: The effects of an increased ambient air temperature beyond the flat rating cut-off
temperature of the engines on (i) the field-length-limited take-off mass and (ii) the climb-limited
take-off mass are:
1. (i) Increase (ii) Decrease.
2. (i) Decrease (ii) Increase.
3. (i) Decrease (ii) Decrease.
4. (i) Increase (ii) Increase.
Question: The one engine out take-off run is the distance between the brake release point and:
1. the point half way between V1 and V2.
2. the point where V2 is reached.
3. the middle of the segment between VLOF point and 35 ft point.
4. the lift-off point.
Question: The decision speed at take-off (V1) is the calibrated airspeed:
1. below which take-off must be rejected if an engine failure is recognized, above which take-off
should be continued.
2. at which the failure of the critical engine is expected to occur.
3. at which the take-off must be rejected.
4. below which the take-off must be continued.
Question: Regarding unaccelerated horizontal flight, Minimum Drag is:
1. a function of the density altitude.
2. independent of the aircraft mass.
3. proportional to aircraft mass.
4. a function of the pressure altitude.
1. VR is the speed at which, during rotation, the nose wheel comes off the runway.
2. VR should not be higher than 1.05 VMCG.
3. VR should not be higher than V1.
4. VR is the speed at which the pilot should start to rotate the aeroplane.
Question: If the aircraft mass, in a horizontal unaccelerated flight, decreases:
1. the minimum drag decreases and the IAS for minimum drag increases.
2. the minimum drag increases and the IAS for minimum drag increases.
3. the minimum drag decreases and the IAS for minimum drag decreases.
4. the minimum drag increases and the IAS for minimum drag decreases.
Question: The tangent from the origin to the power required against true airspeed curve, for a jet
aeroplane, determines the speed for:
1. minimum power.
2. maximum endurance.
3. critical angle of attack.
4. maximum specific range.
Question: For a jet aeroplane, the speed for maximum range is:
1. that corresponding to the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the Power required
versus TAS curve.
2. that corresponding to the point of the minimum power required at the Drag versus TAS curve.
3. that corresponding to the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the Drag versus
TAS curve.
4. that corresponding to the point of the minimum drag at the Drag versus TAS curve.
Question: Which cruise system gives minimum fuel consumption during cruise between top of
climb and top of descent? (still air, no turbulence)?
1. Holding.
2. Maximum endurance.
3. Long range.
4. Maximum range.
uestion: A twin jet aeroplane is in cruise, with one engine inoperative, and has to overfly a high
terrain area. In order to allow the greatest clearance height, the appropriate airspeed must be the
airspeed
1. giving the highest Cd/Cl ratio.
2. giving the lowest Cl/Cd ratio.
3. for long-range cruise.
4. of greatest lift-to-drag ratio.
Question: A four jet-engine aeroplane (mass = 150 000 kg) is established on climb with all engines
operating. The lift-to-drag ratio is 14. Each engine has a thrust of 75 000 Newton. The gradient of
climb is: (given: g= 10 m/s²)
1. 1.286%.
2. 7.86%.
3. 27%.
4. 12.86%.
Question: Density altitude is the
1. pressure altitude corrected for 'non standard' temperature
2. altitude reference to the standard datum plane
3. height above the surface
4. altitude read directly from the altimeter
Question: The Density Altitude
1. is equal to the pressure altitude.
2. is used to calculate the FL above the Transition Altitude.
3. is used to determine the aeroplane performance.
4. is used to establish minimum clearance of 2.000 feet over mountains.
Question: Which of the following combinations adversely affects take-off and initial climb
performance ?
1. Low temperature and low relative humidity
2. Low temperature and high relative humidity
3. High temperature and low relative humidity
4. High temperature and high relative humidity
Question: What effect has a downhill slope on the take-off speeds? The slope
1. decreases the TAS for take-off.
2. has no effect on the take-off speed V1.
3. decreases the take-off speed V1.
4. increases the IAS for take-off.
Question: During climb to the cruising level, a headwind component
1. decreases the climb time.
2. increases the climb time.
3. decreases the ground distance flown during that climb.
4. increases the amount of fuel for the climb.
Question: The effect that a tailwind has on the value of the maximum endurance speed is:
1. that a tailwind only affects the holding speed.
2. that the IAS must be increased.
3. that the IAS must be decreased.
4. none.
Question: During climb with all engines, the altitude where the rate of climb reduces to 100 ft/min
is called:
1. Aerodynamic ceiling.
2. Thrust ceiling.
3. Service ceiling.
4. Absolute ceiling.
Question: The maximum rate of climb that can be maintained at the absolute ceiling is:
1. 100 ft/min
2. 500 ft/min
3. 125 ft/min
4. 0 ft/min
Question: How does the thrust of a propeller vary during take-off run, assuming unstalled flow
conditions at the propeller blades? The thrust
1. varies with mass changes only.
2. decreases while the aeroplane speed builds up.
3. has no change during take-off and climb.
4. increases while the aeroplane speed builds up.
Question: A twin engine aeroplane is flying at the minimum control speed with take-off thrust on
both engines. The critical engine suddenly fails. After stabilising the engine failure transient which
parameter(s) must be maintainable?
1. Heading, altitude and a positive rate of climb of 100 ft/min
2. Altitude
3. Straight flight
4. Straight flight and altitude
Question: The speed V2 is
1. the lowest safety airspeed at which the aeroplane is under control with aerodynamic surfaces
in the case of an engine failure.
2. that speed at which the PIC should decide to continue or not the take-off in the case of an
engine failure.
3. the lowest airspeed required to retract flaps without stall problems.
4. the take-off safety speed.
Question: Which of the following speeds may vary if a stopway or clearway is available?
1. VMCG
2. VMCA
3. V2
4. V1
Question: What is the influence of the mass on maximum rate of climb (ROC) speed if all other
parameters remain constant ?
1. The ROC speed increases with increasing mass.
2. The ROC and the ROC speed are independant of the mass.
3. The ROC speed decreases with increasing mass.
4. The ROC is affected by the mass, but not the ROC speed.
Question: The long range cruise speed is in relation to the speed for maximum range cruise.
1. Lower
2. Depending on density altitude and mass.
3. Higher
4. Depending on the OAT and net mass.
Question: Approaching in turbulent wind conditions during manual flight requires
1. an increase in approach speed
2. no change
3. an increase in VREF
4. a steeper approach path
Question: Field length is balanced when
1. calculated V2 is less than 110% VMCA and V1.
2. one engine acceleration from V1 to VLOF plus flare distance between VLOF and 35 feet are
equal.
3. take-off distance available equals accelerate stop distance available.
4. all engine acceleration to V1 and braking distance for rejected take-off are equal.
Question: The second segment begins
1. when landing gear is fully retracted.
2. when flaps are selected up.
3. when acceleration starts from V2 to the speed for flap retraction.
4. when flap retraction begins.
Question: Take-off run is defined as the
1. distance to V1 and stop, assuming an engine failure at V1.
2. horizontal distance along the take-off path from the start of the take-off to a point equidistant
between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35 ft
above the take-off surface.
3. Distance from brake release to V2.
4. distance to 35 feet with an engine failure at V1 or 115% all engine distance to 35 feet.
Question: The minimum value of V2 must exceed VMC by:
1. 15%
2. 20%
3. 30%
4. 10%
Question: Which of the following is true according to JAA regulations for turbo propeller powered
aeroplanes not performing a steep approach?
1. Maximum Landing Distance at destination is 0,95 x LDA (Landing Distance Available).
2. Maximum use of clearway is 1,5 x runway.
3. Maximum Landing Distance at the destination aerodrome and at any alternate aerodrome is
0,7 x LDA (Landing Distance Available).
4. Maximum Take-off Run is 0,5 x runway.
Question: For take-off obstacle clearance calculations, obstacles may be avoided
1. by banking as much as needed if aeroplane is more than 50 ft above runway elevation.
2. only by using standard turns.
3. by standard turns - but only after passing 1500 ft.
4. by banking not more than 15° between 50 ft and 400 ft above the runway elevation.
Question: An aeroplane operating under the 180 minutes ETOPS rule may be up to:
1. 180 minutes flying time from suitable airport in still air, at the normal cruising speed.
2. 180 minutes flying time from a suitable airport under the prevailing weather condition with one
engine inoperative.
3. 90 minutes flying time from the first enroute airport and another 90 minutes from the second
enroute airport in still air with one engine inoperative.
4. 180 minutes flying time from a suitable airport in still air, with one engine inoperative.
Question: ETOPS flight is a twin engine jet aeroplane flight conducted over a route, where no
suitable airport is within an area of
1. 60 minutes flying time in still air at the approved one engine out cruise speed.
2. 75 minutes flying time at the approved one engine out cruise speed.
3. 30 minutes flying time at the normal cruising speed.
4. 60 minutes flying time in still air at the normal cruising speed.
Question: At reference or see Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.24. With regard to the drift
down performance of the twin jet aeroplane, why does the curve representing 35 000 kg gross
mass in the chart for drift down net profiles start at approximately 3 minutes at FL370?
1. Due to higher TAS at this mass it takes more time to develop the optimal rate of descent,
because of the inertia involved.
2. All the curves start at the same point, which is situated outside the chart.
3. Because at this mass the engines slow down at a slower rate after failure, there is still some
thrust left during four minutes.
4. Because at this mass it takes about 3 minutes to decelerate to the optimum speed for drift
down at the original cruising level.
Question: At reference or see Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5. With regard to the take-off performance of a twin jet
aeroplane, why does the take-off performance climb limit graph show a kink at 30°C and PA 0 ft?
1. At higher temperatures the flat rated engines determines the climb limit mass.
2. At higher temperatures the VMBE determines the climb limit mass.
3. At lower temperatures one has to take the danger of icing into account.
4. The engines are pressure limited at lower temperature, at higher temperatures they are temperature limited.
Question: At reference or see Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5. Consider the take-off performance for the twin jet
aeroplane climb limit chart. Why has the wind been omitted from the chart?
1. There is no effect of the wind on the climb angle relative to the ground.
2. There is a built-in safety measure.
3. The limitation presented in this chart is taken relative to air.
4. The effect of the wind must be taken from another chart.
Question: The speed VR
1. must be higher than VLOF.
2. must be higher than V2.
3. must be equal to or lower than V1.
4. is the speed at which rotation to the lift-off angle of attack is initiated.
Question: If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is brake energy limited a higher uphill slope would
1. have no effect on the maximum mass for take-off.
2. decrease the maximum mass for take-off.
3. decrease the required take-off distance.
4. increase the maximum mass for take-off.
Question: If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is tyre speed limited, downhill slope would
1. increase the required take-off distance.

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