Review Questions for Agriculturist Board Exam

(Crop Protection)

1. The following are common bases of classifying weeds except

a. gross morphology b. habitat c. growth habit d. anatomy

2. Itchgrass is the common name of

a. Echinochloa colona b. Eleusine indica c. Echinochloa glabrescens d. Rottboellia cochinchinensis

3. The following are vegetative structures of a weed except

a. flowers b. branches c. tillers d. leaves

4. Crop-weed interaction involves competition for these factors except

a. light b. nutrients c. water d. vitamins

5. Allelopathic substances are equated to

a. allelochemicals b. allosomes c. mesosomes d. allesomes

6. The most popular herbicide we have today which was discovered in 1944

a. paraquat b. 2,4-D c. atrazine d. glyphosate

7. Weed occupies which tropic level?

a. 1st tropic level b. 2nd tropic level c. 3rd tropic level d. 4th tropic level

8. The suspended growth of the embryo is due to propagule

a. dormancy b. respiration c. germination d. photosynthesis

9. The technical term for weed establishment

a. ecstacy b. ecasis c. ecesis d. evasis

10. The physical form of dormancy is brought about by the pressure of

a. inhibitors in the seed coat b. inhibitors in the embryo c. immature embryo d. thick seed coat

11. The density of weed above which significant reduction in yield occurs

a. critical period b. critical time c. critical threshold d. critical stage

12. The following are considered growth habit of weeds except

a. tree b. vine c. shrub d. woody

13. The following are classification of weeds based on gross morphology except

a. epiphytic b. sedge c. grass d. broadleaf

14. The sedges possess the following traits except

a. triangular stem b. parallel leaf venation c. single cotyledon d. hollow stem

15. Allelopathic substances include the following except

a. koline b. marasmin c. phytoncide d. meristem

16. These structures are found in grasses except

a. ligule b. internode c. node d. netted venation

17. The purple nutsedge is characterized by the

a. presence node b. presence ligule c. hollow stem d. presence of tuber

18. Physiological dormancy can be overcome by

a. scarification b. application of acid c. microbial attack d. after ripening process

19. The following are steps in the germination process except

a. inhibition b. rapid metabolism c. root emergence d. shoot emergence

20. An example of germination promoter

a. abssicic acid b. gibberellic acid c. potassium nitrate d. sulfuric acid

21. The underground vegetative propagule that can be used for weed propagation

a. seed b. stolon c. tuber d. twig

22. Asexual reproduction of weeds is greatly affected by the following factors except

a. light b. minerals c. soil type d. wind

23. An example of a weed dispersal agent

a. animal b. tuber c. rhizome d. light

24. An example of aquatic weeds

a. jungle rice b. milkweed c. pigweed d. water hyacinth

25. The weed structure facilitating dispersal

a. hook b. man c. water d. wind

26. The technical term for the presence of chloroplast in the vascular bundle sheath of efficient plants is called

a. krazy b. krantz c. kruntzy d. krebz

27. The oldest form of weed control

a. biological b. chemical c. manual d. mechanical

28. A component of mycoherbicide

a. bacterial spores b. eggs of nematodes c. fungal spores d. virus particles

29. The plant pathogen present in Collego

a. Cercospora b. Colletotrichhum c. Curvularia d. Helminthosporium

30. The most limiting factor for competition in tropical countries during dry season

a. nitrogen b. soil pH c. soil moisture d. sunlight

31. Considered as the most efficient agent of weed dissemination

a. carabao b. man c. water d. wind

32. The following are examples of cultural methods except

a. choice of variety b. flooding c. mulching d. use of rotary weeders

33. Efficient plants are characterized by the

a. absence of chloroplast in the vascular bundle b. low light saturation point

c. high light saturation point d. high water requirement

34. The type of competition existing between rice and jungle rice

a. intraspecific b. interspecific c. ultraspecific d. extraspecific

35. Less efficient plants are known by the

a. presence of chloroplast in the vascular bundle b. high light saturation point

c. low light saturation point d. low water requirement

36. The only link between generations in sexually propagated weed

a. bulb b. corm c. seed d. tuber

37. Interspecific competition is exemplified by the interaction between

a. itchgrass vs. Rottboellia b. rice vs. jungle rice c. rice vs. O. sativa d. corn vs. Zea mays

38. The discipline in crop protection dealing with the study of plants competing with economically important crops

a. Agronomy b. Crop Protection c. Weed Science d. Crop Science

39. An annual weed completes its life cycle in

a. one month b. one year c. two years d. more than one year

40. Ligule is found only in

a. grass b. sedge c. broadleaf d. tree

41. The most number of weeds belong to the family

a. Asteraceae b. Cyperaceae c. Poaceae d. Convulvulaceae

42.The critical period of competition is generally about

a. 1/5 of the crop life cycle b. ¼ of the crop life cycle

c. 1/3 to ½ of the crop life cycl3 d. ¼ to 1/8 of the life cycle of the crop

43. The imbibitions process involves absorption of

a. oxygen b. nitrogen c. water d. light

44. In germination the period of rapid metabolic activity is best characterized by

a. faster rate of reproduction b. faster photosynthetic activity

c. faster rate of senescence d. faster cell division and elongation

45. The structure that facilitates efficient dispersal of aquatic weed

a. periderm b. pericarp c. meristem d. pericardium

46. Explosive mechanism of weed dispersal is shown by weeds belonging to family

a. Asteraceae b, Poaceae c. Capparidaceae d, Euphorbiaceae

47. The leaf area index is inversely proportional to

a. water use efficiency b. light transmission ratio

c. nutrient absorption d. water and nutrient absorption

48. The author of the book entitled “Introduction to Weed Science” published in the Philippines

a. Marcos R. Vega b. Beatriz L. Mercado c. Bonifacio T. Mercado d. Juliana S. Manuel

49. The allelopathic substances produced by plants which are effective against another plant

a. antibiotic b. koline c. marasmin d. phytoncide

50. The weed control strategy which involves the use of mycoherbicide

a. cultural b. mechanical c. manual d. biological

51. The term allelopathy came from the Greek words

a. lello and pathos b. pathy and allelon c. allelon and pathos d. allele and pathos

52. In replacement diagram series, the convex curve formed means that the species is

a. more competitive b. less competitive c. with equal competitive ability d. not competitive at all

53. The history of weed science can be equated to the discovery of the killing property of this herbicide during the second
World War

a. butachlor b. napropamide c. propanil d. 2, 4-D

54. The specific chemical intended for weed control

a. acaricide b. insecticide c. herbicide d. molluscicide

55. The component of the herbicide responsible for the phytotoxic effect

a. inert ingredient b. active ingredient c. surfactant d. protectant

56. Exposure of weed seeds to low temperature to overcome dormancy

a. stratification b. scarification c. mineralization d. germinalization

57. Weed control activities must be done during this stage to ensure good yield

a. after the critical period of the crop b. during the critical period

c. throughout the cropping season d. during harvesting time

58. Temperature has great influence on pollination process through its effect on the opening of the flower technically
known as

a. ecesis b. antheasis c. anthesis d. eceasis

59. The science which deals with the nature, causes, and control of plant diseases

a. Entomology b. Agronomy c. Plant Pathology d. Horticulture

60. The art of plant pathology which determines the severity and prevalence of diseases

a. disease monitoring b. disease assessment c. disease forecasting d. disease diagnosis

61. The ultimate objective of plant pathology

a. minimize plant diseases b. identify plant diseases c. survey plant disease d. measure plant disease

62. Correct disease diagnosis is a prerequisite to

a. classification of diseases b. disease incidence c. formulation of control measures d. disease development

63. Moldy grains that are discolored and carry-off odors suffer a reduction in

a. quantity b. quality c. loss d. disease

64. A mycotoxin produced by Aspergillus flavus attacking storage grains

a. ochratoxin b. yellow rice toxin c. penicillin acid d. aflatoxin

65. Scientific studies in plant pathology began with the invention of the

a. compound microscope b. electron microscope c. lenses d. fungicides

66. The father of plant pathology

a. Erwin F. Smith b. Heinrich Anton de Bary c. Thomas J. Burril d. Robert Koch

67. The cause of potato late blight in Ireland

a. Sclerotium roffsii b. Phytophthora infestans c. Plasmopara viticola d. Helminthosporium victoriae

68. The set of four rules to prove the pathogenicity of a microorganism

a. spontaneous generation theory b. germ theory of disease

c. Koch’s Postulates d. germ theory of fermentation

69. A mixture of copper sulfate and lime which was the first fungicide

a. saline solution b. Bordeaux mixture c. borax solution d. benomyl

70. The cause of the diseases which Burril and Smith worked on

a. fungi b. viruses c. bacteria d. nematodes

71. The plant disease first shown to be caused by bacteria

a. potato late blight b. rice bacterial blight c. fireblight of apples and pears d. taro blight

72. The workers whose studies started the field of plant virology

a. Ivanowski & Beijerinck b. Bawden & co-workers c. Gierer & Schramm d. Kausche & co-workers

73. The workers who first saw the virus particle under the electron microscope

a. Gierer & Schramm b. Bawden & co-workers c. Kausche & co-workers d. Ivanowski & Beijerinck

74. A proteinaceous infectious particle, the protein of which is encoded by a chromosomal gene of the host

a. virus b. prion c. viroid d. mollicute

75. The cause of potato spindle tuber disease discovered by Diener in 1971

a. virus b. fungus c. bacteria d. viroid

76. The disease first reported to be caused by mycoplasma-like organism in Japan

a. peach yellows b. aster yellows c. cadang-cadang d. corn stunt

77. Nematodes as plant pathogens were first observed by Needham in

a. tomato root knot b. corn galls c. wheat kernel galls d. rice root knot

78. Stunt disease of corn is caused by

a. mycoplasma b. spiroplasma c. phytoplasma d. viroid

79. A disease caused by fastidious vascular bacteria

a. citrus exocortis b. aster yellows c. cadang-cadang d. Pierce’s disease of grapes

80. One of the following is not due to viroid

a. potato spindle tuber b. tobacco mosaic c. cadang-cadang d. citrus exocortis

81. One of the first plant diseases studied in the Philippines

a. wheat rust b. rice bacterial blight c. coffee rust d. bacterial wilt

82. The cause of coconut bud rot

a. Pythium ultimum b. Sclerotium rolfsii c. Rhizoctonia solani d. Phytophthora palmivora

83. The firs dean of the U.P College of Agriculture who first investigated coconut bud rot.

a. Prof. Reinking b. Charles Baker c. Dr. Copeland d. Prof. Ocfemia

84. The Dean of Filipino Plant Pathologist who studied abaca bunchy top, the causal virus and its vector

a. Prof. Reinking b. Charles Baker c. Dr. Copeland d. Prof. Ocfemia

85. Corn downy mildew disease was completely controlled in 1978 by

a. chemical seed treatment b. hot water treatment c. burning d. sanitation

86. A harmful alteration of the normal physiological and biochemical development of a plant

a. injury b. disease c. pathogenesis d. colonization

87. A symptom characterized by a sharply defined variegated pattern

a. mottle b. mosaic c. chlorosis d. etiolation

88. The structure of the pathogen that are found associated with the infected host

a. symptoms b. spores c. mycelia d. signs

89. A kind of symptoms involving the death of protoplasts, cells, or tissues

a. necrotic b. hyperplastic c. hypertrophic d. histological

90. The following are hypoplastic symptoms except

a. canker b. mosaic c. curling d. stunting

91. An example of hyperplastic symptom is

a. dwarfing b. fasciation c. leafspot d. anthracnose

92. Overdevelopment resulting from abnormal increase in cell number

a. hypertrophy b. hypoplasia c. hyperplasia d. atrophy

93. A kind of symptom that is a direct result of the causal agent’s activities

a. secondary b. localized c. general d. primary

94. A kind of symptom that is distinct and very limited

a. systemic b. localized c. general d. primary

95. The symptom characterized by perforation in leaf as lesions drop out

a. shot-hole b. leafspot c. blight d. scab

96. The symptom characterized by sunken dead area with cracked border

a. mottle b. canker c. mosaic d. rot

97. The symptom that shows dry or soft decomposition of tissues

a. chlorosis b. mummification c. rot d. blight

98. The symptom that has pale or translucent veins

a. vein-clearing b. vein-banding c. phyllody d. wilting

99. The threadlike vegetative fungal structure

a. ooze b. sclerotium c. mycelium d. exudates

100. The slimy, whitish secretion containing bacterial cells

a. mycelium b. ooze c. gum d. sclerotium

101. The symptom characterized by an extensive necrotic area

a. lesion b. spot c. blast d. blight

102. All are symptoms except

a. yellowing b. ooze c. galls d. etiolation

103. The identification of specific plant disease through their characteristic symptoms and signs

a. detection b. diagnosis c. control d. assessment

104. The non-parasitic agents of plant disease are characteristically

a. living b. non-living c. infectious d. virulent

105. Nutrient deficiency diseases can be corrected by supplying the

a. adequate element b. toxic element c. deficient element d. abundant element

106. The damage due to the formation of ice crystals within cells

a. scorching b. frost injury c. sunscalding d. freezing injury

107. The damage occurring at low temperatures slightly above freezing

a. frost injury b. chilling injury c. freezing injury d. heat injury

108. A disease of potatoes grown in light soils where it is hot and dry

a. potato late blight b. potato leaf curl c. potato blackleg d. heat necrosis of potato

109. An example of a disease due to lack of oxygen

a. blackleg disease of potato b. deadheart in rice c. bacterial wilt of tomato d. tobacco mosaic

110. The yellowing due to lack of light

a. etiolation b. chlorosis c. sunscalding d. scorch

111. A disease caused by too much bright light along with high temperature

a. etiolation b. sunscarlding c. water logging d. chlorosis

112. Any factor mediated by the atmosphere that causes an unwanted effect

a. lightning b. toxic residues c. air pollutant d. strong winds

113. An air pollutant that produces bronzing, silvering, glazing as in silver leaf disease

a. particulates b. soot c. peroxyacetyl nitrates d, ozone

114. A unique air pollutant that can cause premature senescence

a. ozone b. peroxyacetel nitrates c. nitrogen oxide d. ethylene

115. An air pollutant that is a product of automobile exhaust

a. fog b. smoke c. nitrogen oxide d. smog

116. All are example of particulates except

a. ozone b. soot c. ash d. dust

117. it refers to iron deficiency in pineapple

a. blossom-end rot b. pineapple yellows c. pineapple rot d. silver leaf disease

118. The kind of nematodes feeding only on root hairs and root tips

a. endoparasitic b. ectoparasitic c. sedentary d. migratory

119. The kind of nematodes which more within the host tissues and /or between the soil and the host

a. sedentary endorparasites b. migratory endoparasites c. sedentary ectoparasites d. migratory ectoparsites

120. The genera of nematodes which cause root knot

a. Heterodera b. Pratylenchus c. Criconemoides d. Meloidogyne

121. An example of foliar nematode

a. Ditylenchus b. Meloidogyne c. Pratylenchus d. Hoplolaimus

122. The mouthpart of a nematode that is inserted inside a plant cell thru which the plant juices are withdrawn and sucked

a. esophagus b. digestive gland c. stylet d. lip

123. A disease which is aggravated by the presence of root knot nematode

a. bacterial wilt of tomato b. bacterial pustule of tomato

c. bacterial spot of tomato d. leaf mold of tomato

124. An isolation technique used to separate nematodes from the soil

a. tissue planting technique b. pour planting c. dilution technique d. Baermann funnel technique

125. The burrowing nematode which causes toppling disease of banana

a. Meloidogyne incognita b. Ditylenchus dipsaci c. Radopholus similis d. Tylenchulus semipenetras

126. They are pleomorphic microorganisms without cell walls

a. bacteria b. mollicutes c. viroids fungi

127. Citrus exocortis and cadang-cadang of coconut are believed to be caused by

a. viroids b. mycoplasma c. viruses d. fastidious vascular bacteria

128. The disease caused by Agrobacterium tumefaciens

a. root knot b. crown gall disease c. stunting d. scab

129. The usual means of spread of viruses in the field

a. fungi b. insects c. nematodes d. bacteria

130. Wide-scale appraisal of the severity and prevalence of disease in a country, a region, or a continent

a. disease survey b. disease diagnosis c. disease monitoring d. disease incidence

131. The filamentous vegetative body of fungi

a. spores b. chlamydospore c. sclerotia d. hypha

132. The most common infectious agent of plant disease

a. fungi b. viruses c. bacteria d. nematodes

133. Which of the following is not a example of phanerogam?

a. witchweed b. broomrape c. dwarf mistletoe d. goosegrass

134. The vector of rice tungro virus

a. aphids b. brown planthopper c. green leafhopper d. mealybugs

135. Which of the following is not caused by a fungus?

a. downy mildew of corn b. potato late blight c. tobacco mosaic d. peanut rust

136. Which of the following is not caused by a bacterium?

a. fireblight of apples and pears b. stalk rot of corn c. taro leaf blight d. crown gall disease of many plants

137. A fungal disease which is characterized by a talcum-like substance on the surface of the infected leaves

a. mango anthracnose b. powdery mildew of beans c. chestnut blight d. oak wilt

138. It is an example of a postharvest disease

a. mango fruit anthracnose b. bacterial wilt of solanaceous plants

c. rice tungro d. Fusarium wilt

139. The bracket fungi that attack trees belong to

a. Class Chytridiomycetes b. Class Basidiomycetes c. Class Zygomycetes d. Class Ascomycetes

140. The fastidious vascular bacteria are previously known as

a. mollicutes b. rickettia-like organisms c. mycoplasma d. spiroplasma

141. The general shape of plant pathogenic bacteria

a. spiral-shaped b. spherical c. rod-shaped d. bullet-shaped

142. Viruses are made up of

a. proteins and carbohydrates b. nucleic acid core and protein coat

c. nucleic acid and core only d. protein coat only

143. Which of the following is not a symptom of viral infections?

a. mosaic b. oaklef pattern c. vein clearing d. rot

144. Which is not a sign of fungi?

a. sclerotia b. seeds c. hyphae d. spores

145. It is exhibited by plants that appear symptomless due to unfavorable environment conditions

a. masked symptoms b. latent symptoms c. necrotic symptoms d. histological symptoms

146. A method of measuring plant disease exhibiting systemic symptoms

a. descriptive disease rating b. percentage of diseased c. survey method d. experimental methods

147. Crop loss assessment methods may be done using any of the following except

a. comparison of yield data before and after disease control

b. comparison of yield during low disease incidence with that of high incidence

c. comparison of yield between diseased and healthy plants in experiment

d. comparison of yield between different varieties without disease

148. Which is not a purpose of disease assessment or disease appraisal?

a. to determine disease severity and prevalence

b. to relate disease severity to yield loss

c. to determine alternate hosts of pathogens

d. to express yield loss in financial terms

Pesticide Calculations:

A. You wish to apply 300 liters of spray solution per hectare to a 0.5 ha area. The recommended spray concentration of
the 45% EC pesticide is 0.04%.

149. The spray volume needed for the treated area is:

a. 160 li b. 100 li c. 125 li d. 150 li

150. The amount of commercial formulation required for the treatment is:

a. 0.142 li b. 0.133 li c. 0.165 li d. 0.111 li

151. Using 16 li capacity sprayer, how many sprayerloads will be done?

a. 15 b. 5 c. 10 d. 20

152. The amount of commercial formulation needed per sprayerload is:

a. 0.0133li b. 0.0142 li c. 0.007 li d. 0.0166 li

B. A farmer obtained the following data during the calibration of his 16 li knapsack sprayer

Distance traveled = 40 m

Spray swath =4m

Volume sprayed = 5 li/min

153. The application rate per hectare is

a. 312.5 li/ha b. 250.5 li/ha c. 333.33 li/ha d. 277.77 li/ha

154. The time required to spray 1 ha is

a. 65.5 min b. 62.5 min c. 60.5 min d, 66.2 min

C. You wish to apply 320 li/ha of spray solution to a 1.5 ha area. The recommended rate of the 70% wettable powder
pesticide is 0.75 kg ai/ha.

155. How many kilograms of the commercial formulation are required to treat the 1.5 ha area?

a. 1.45 b. 2.15 c. 1.61 d. 1.12

156. What is the volume of spray needed for the treated area?

a. 400 li b. 480 li c. 320 li d. 300 li

157. How many sprayerloads are needed to treat the whole field using a 16-li knapsack sprayer?

a. 30 b. 35 c.25 d. 20

158. How much of the wettable powder is needed per sprayerload?

a. 0.05 kg b. 0 .0536 kg c. 0.045 kg d. 0.068 kg

D. A certain fungicide containing 50% ai in WP is recommended to control a certain leafspotting fungus at the rate of 20 g
per 20 liters of water.

159. What is the strength of the diluted spray?

a. 0.05% b. 0.1 % c. 0.15% d. 0.5%

160. To prepare 100 li of the fungicide, how much of the fungicide should be prepared?

a. 150 g b. 100 g c. 200 g d. 175 g

E. A certain pesticide has 45 kg ai per liter of emulsifiable concentrate formulation. To control aphids, 300 gal of 0.05% ai
in the spray solution is to be prepared.

161. How many liters of the pesticide are needed to meet the desired concentration?

a. 0.0153 li b. 0.0567 li c. 0.0126 li d. 0.0465 li

F. During calibration, a farmer walked a distance of 36 m in one minute using a sprayer with a spray swath of 2.5 m.

162. What is the area covered by the farmer in one hour?

a. 7200 m2 b. 5400 m2 c. 4500 m2 d. 5200 m2

163. How long will it take for the farmer to spray one hectare?

a. 1.85 hours b. 2.2 hours c. 1.05 hours d. 2.7 hours

G. Furadan 3G is recommended at the rate of 2 kg per ha. A farmer applied 60 kg of Furadan 3G in his 1.5 ha field

164. How much Furadan was applied in excess or deficit?

a. 45 kg excess b. 25 kg deficit c. 40 kg excess d. 40 kg deficit

165. What was his actual rate of application in kg ai/ha?

a. 1.6 kg ai/ha b. 1.2 kg ai/ha c. 1.5 kg ai/ha d. 1.5 kg ai/ha

166. A disease which is indigenous to a particular place.

a. endemic b. exotic c. pandemic d. sporadic

167. A disease which is of widespread occurrence throughout a continent or a region.

a. endemic b. exotic c. pandemic d. sporadic

168. A disease that occurs at regular intervals.

a. endemic b. exotic c. pandemic d. sporadic

169. From a layman’s point of view, it is the widespread, explosive disease outbreak but defined by Vander Plank as the
increase of disease in a population with time.

a. endemic b. exotic c. epidemic d. epiphytotic

170. This means predicting when a particular disease will occur and how several it will be so that, farmers will be guided
in making decisions on disease control.

a. disease monitoring b. disease forecasting c. disease assessment d. disease survey

171. Parasites that could grow and reproduce only in living hosts.

a. facultative tsaprophyte b. facultative parasite c. obligate parasite d. saprophye

172. Organisms that thrive on dead organic matter

a. facultative tsaprophyte b. facultative parasite c. obligate parasite d. saprophyte

173. The ability of the parasite/pathogen to cause disease is called

a. aggressiveness b. pathogenic c. pathogenicity d. pathogenesis

174. The sequence of events that gives rise to disease.

a. aggressiveness b. pathogenic c. pathogenicity d. pathogenesis

175. The following are events occurring in pathogenesis except

a. infection b. inoculation c. penetration d. survival phase

176. Stage in a disease cycle when the pathogen has become established in the plant tissues and starts to damage the host.

a. colonization b. incubation c. infection d. penetration

177. Refers to the time from inoculation of the pathogen to the production of visible symptoms.

a. colonization b. incubation period c. infection d. latent period

178. Which is not a stage in pathogen dissemination?

a. flight b. deposition c. liberation d. penetration

179. The biotic factor at the inoculation site that may affect pathogen penetration

a. antagonistic microorganisms b. temperature c. oxygen tension d. relative humidity

180. Which is not a mechanism of bacterial penetration to the host?

a. direct penetration b. through hydathodes c. through stomata d. through wounds

181. Which among those pathogens can directly penetrate intact hosts?

a. bacteria b. fungi c. mycoplasma-like organisms d. virus

182. Which of the following pathogens are generally transmitted by insect vectors?

a. bacteria b. fungi c. nematode d. virus

183. A soil that contains a variety of antagonistic microorganisms that produce toxic metabolites against the
pathogen and cause pathogen starvation

a. acidic soil b. basic soil c. favorable soil d. suppressive soil

184. The tumor inducing principle of Agrobacterium temfaciens, the crown gall bacterium.

a. plasmid bluescript b. Ri-plasmic c. Ti-plasmid d. bacterial chromosome

185. Ralstonia solanacearum, the pathogen for bacterial wilt of solanaceous crops cause disease to plants through this,

a. production of an extra chromosomal DNA (plasmid), which becomes integrated to the host DNA and dictates
the host cells to over divide and over enlarge

b. production of a profuse extracellular polysaccharide slime, which clogs the xylem vessels of the host

c. production of an enzyme system that degrades plant cell wall

 d. production of toxins that causes plant cell death

186. Blight-causing bacteria damage plants through the

.a. production of an extra chromosomal DNA (plasmid), which becomes integrated to the host DNA and dictates
the host cells to over divide and over enlarge

b. production of a profuse extracellular polysaccharide slime, which clogs the xylem vessels of the host

c. production of an enzyme system that degrades plant cell wall

d. production of toxins that causes plant cell death

187. The incapability of spore of soil-borne fungi to germinate in some soils due to the existence of a variety of
antagonistic microorganisms

a. cross protection b. fungistatic c. fungistasis d. suppressive

188. A type of disease cycle where the pathogen completes only one or even part of one disease cycle in one growing
season

a. macrocyclic b. microcyclic c. monocyclic d. polycyclic

189.The following are fungal inocula except

a. bacterial ooze b. rhizomorphs c. sclerotial bodies d. spores

190. Which of the following is not a fungus?

a. Cercospora b. Colletotrichum c. Fusarium d. Meloidogyne

191. A quiescent parasitic relationship which delays symptom expression but which may change into an active one.

a. latent period b. latent infection c. incubation period d. cross protection

192. The usual effect of root rotting pathogen in plants is on the

a. change in reproduction in the host

b. increased transpiration

c. interference with uptake of water and inorganic elements from the soil

d. translocation of organic compounds through the phloem

193. Leaf-infecting plant pathogens usually do this damage.

a. affect host reproduction

b. cause heyperplastic symptoms such as galls

c. interfere with uptake of water and inorganic elements from the soil

d. interfere with the photosynthetic activity

194. Viruses and mycoplasma-like organisms (Phytoplasma) cause the following damage to plants except

a. changes in growth of the suscept

b. interfere with uptake of water and inorganic elements from the soil

c. interfere with the translocation of organic compounds through the phloem

d. reduction in the plants photosynthetic capacity

195. Soft rotting bacteria cause this damage to plants

a. changes in the reproduction of the host plant

b. death of cells and tissues through the disintegration of cell wall and middle lamella

c. changes in the growth of the suscept

d. reduction of the plants photosynthetic activity

196. Which of the following is not a mechanical weapon used by plant pathogens to penetrate tissues plant tissues?

a. appressorium b. penetration peg c. stylet d. toxins

197. A chemical substance produced by the pathogen that acts directly on living host protoplast

a. enzymes b. hormones c. phytoalexin d. toxins

198. The following are enzymes produced by the pathogen that degrades plant structural defenses except

a. hemicellulases b. pectin methyl esterase c. isozymes d. cutinase

199.The following are hormones that are either produced by the pathogen that cause disease in plants or produced by the
plants in abnormal amount due to pathogen infection except

a. auxins b. gibberellins c. cutinase d. cytokinins

200. Some pathogens produce either host-selective toxins or non-host-selective toxins to be able to successfully infect
living plant cells. Which of the following is a host selective toxin produced by plant pathogen?

a. amylovorin b. Hv-toxin or Victorin c. phaseolotoxin d. wildfire toxin or tabtoxin

201. Which of the following is a non-host-selective toxin?

a. AM-toxin b. HC-toxin c. Hv-toxin or Victorin d. wildfire toxin

202. The following are mechanisms of variation in fungi except

a. heterokaryosis b. heteroploidy c. parasexualism d. transduction

203. Sexual-like process occurring in bacteria

a. heterokaryosis b. heteroploidy c. parasexualism d. transduction

204. Which of the following is not a mechanism of variation in bacteria?

a. conjugation b. heterokaryosis c. transduction d. transformation

205. The concept that explains the stepwise evolution of virulence in the pathogen and resistance in the host which goes
this way “For each gene conferring virulence/avirulence in the pathogen, there is a corresponding gene conferring
resistance in the host

a. durable resistance b. gene-for-gene hypothesis

c. Koch’s Postulates d. host-parasite interaction

206. Which of the following is not a pre-existing or pre-formed host defense mechanism of the host?

a. phenolic compounds at the point of attack

b. hytoalexin production

c. small stomatal opening

d. thick cuticle

207. The following are induced defenses of the host in response to pathogen attack except

a. formation of abscission layers b. hypersensitive reaction

c. thick cuticle d. systemic acquired resistance

208. The rapid death of cells immediately surrounding the point of infection thereby walling-off the pathogen and
activation of a cascade of biochemical reactions in the attacked and surrounding plant cells

a. hypersensitive response b. sedative burst

c. phytoalexin production d. systemic acquired resistance

209. Toxic antimicrobial substances produced in appreciable amounts in plants only after stimulation by various types of
phytopathogens or by chemical or mechanical injury

a. antibiotics b. elicitors c. phytoalexins d. toxins

210. Antibodies that are encoded by animal genes but produced in transgenic plants that makes the plant resistant to the
virus where the antibody was derived/

a. golgi bodies b. immunoglobulin c. monoclonal and antibody d. plantbodies

211. A non-specific or generalized resistance that spreads systemically and develop in distal untreated parts of the plant
after the plant has been challenged by the pathogen.

a. durable resistance b. hypersensitive response

c. race-specific resistance d. systemic acquired resistance

212. These are structurally diverse group of proteins produced by the plant that are toxic to plant pathogens. One example
is chitinase, which is toxic to invading fungal pathogens.

a. enzymes b. isozymes c. phytoalexins d. pathogenesis-related (PR) proteins

213. The study of the increase of disease in a population and the factors that influence them

a. demography b. epidemiology c. plant pathology d. phytobacteriology

214. Which of the following is not a component of an epidemic?

a. avirulent pathogen b. favorable environment c. man as manager of the system d. susceptible host

215. A plant disease epidemic would most likely develop in the situation

a. mature plants b. monoculture

c. planting multillines or mixtures d. trees in tropical rain forest

216. Plant disease epidemic would less likely develop in this situation

a. dense planting

b. planting multilines or mixtures

c. lenient quarantine regulations

d. prolonged or repeated high moisture

217. A method of disease forecasting which is based on observation and field experience on pathogen development and
life cycle as affected by various environmental conditions

a. empirical forecasting

b. Van der Plank method

c. computer simulation

d. disease scoring

218. Disease forecasting wherein the progress of an epidemic is predicted from data on the initial amount of inoculums or
disease and the rate of disease increase

a. empirical forecasting b. Van der Plank method c. computer simulation d, disease scoring

219. Disease forecasting which involves the systems concept where every stage in the life cycle of the pathogen is
modeled, taking into consideration the effect of factors in the environment. The steps are then integrated using a
computer.

a. empirical forecasting b. Van der Plank method c. computer simulation d, disease scoring

220. A principle of plant disease control that involves the prevention of infection by putting a barrier (mechanical or
chemical) between the pathogen and the suscept.

a. eradication b. exclusion c. immunization d. protection

221. A principle of plant disease control, which are intended to eliminate, inhibit or kill the pathogens that become
established within the plant or in area.

a. eradication b. exclusion c. immunization d. protection

222. Rouging virus-infected plants in the field falls under what principle of plant disease control?

a. eradication b. exclusion c. immunization d. protection

223. Control of disease through crop rotation falls under what method of plant disease control?

a. biological method b. cultural method c. physical method d. chemical method

224. Irradiation of fruits with gamma rays falls under what method of disease control?

a. biological method b. cultural method c. physical method d. chemical method

225. Soil fumigation to control Moko disease of banana falls under what method of control?

a. cultural b. chemical c. physical d. sanitation

226. You were required to leave at the airport the planting materials you carried from abroad. What principle of plant
disease control was applied?

a. exclusion b. eradication c. immunization d. protection

227. The ability of the plant to overcome the effects of a pathogen

a. immunity b. klenducity c. resistance d. tolerance

228. The lack of infection in a susceptible variety due to the suscept’s or plant’s effect on something, other than the
pathogen, such as the vector.

a. immunity b. klenducity c. resistance d. tolerance

229. The capacity of the host plant to become infected and harbor the disease without much effect on yield

a. immunity b. klenducity c. resistance d. tolerance

230. Race-specific resistance is also called

a. horizontal resistance b. minor gene resistance c. polygenic resistance d. vertical resistance

231. Non-specific resistance is also called

a. horizontal resistance b. major gene resistance c. qualitative resistance d. monogenic resistance

232. The following are considered infra-subspecific taxa of pathogens except

a. biotype b. formae specials c. family d. race

233. Spraying of plants with a plant defense activator such as salicylic acid and dichloroisonicotinic acid falls under what
principle of plant disease control?

a. eradication b. exclusion c. immunization d. protection

234. Protection offered by inoculating a mild virus strain against a virulent strain of the virus

a. cross protection b. immunity c. tolerance d. klenducity

235. Which of the following could be considered as plant-derived resistance.

a. genetically engineering a virus replicase gene to a host plant

b. genetically engineering virus-derived antibodies to the host plant

 c. transforming a disease resistance gene from Oryza longistaminata to Oryza sativa or rice to make it resistant to a
specific pathogen

d. transforming a plant with coat protein genes of a virus to protect the plants against that specific virus

236. The phenomenon wherein genetically susceptible plants do not become infected because the three factors necessary
for disease (susceptible host, virulent pathogen and favorable environment) do not coincide and interact at the proper
time or for sufficient duration.

a. disease escape b. durable resistance c. immunity d. tolerance

237.The total or partial destruction of pathogen populations by other organisms or the use of other organisms to control a
pathogen

a. biological control b. cultural control c. mechanical control d. chemical control

238. The following are chemicals used to control fungi except

a. antibiotics b. benzimidazoles c. organophosphates d. organic sulfur compounds

239. Which of the following is a broad-spectrum chemical pesticide, which can be used for soil fumigation to kill insects,
fungi, and nematodes in the soil?

a. antibiotics b. benzimidazoles c. chloropicrin or tear gas d. carbamates

240. Substances produced by one microorganism that are toxic to another microorganisms

a. antibiotics b. copper compounds c. fungicides d. growth regulators

241. Branch of science which deals with the study of insects

a. acarology b. entomology c. ornithology d. zoology

242. The most dominant group of animals on earth.

a. birds b. insects c. mammals d. reptiles

243. Entomological study first started in the Philippines in

a. 1618 b. 1718 c. 1810 d. 1816

244. Who did a lot of insect collections in the Philippines?

a. Americans b. French c. Germans d. Swedish

245. Hemiptera Insularum Philippinarum and Die Schemetterlings der philippinischen Inseln are both milestone in

a. Philippine acarology b. Philippine botany c. Philippine entomology d. Philippine zoology

246. They are distinguishing features of an insect except

a. one or two pairs of wings b. three body regions c. three pairs of legs d. two pairs of antennae

247. The structure in the insect head that act as a tactile, olfactory and auditory organ.

a. antennae b. eye c. gena d. mandible

248.The following comprise the three body segments of an insect except

a. abdomen b. cephalothorax c. head d. thorax

249. The locomotory region of an insect body

a. abdomen b. head c. tail d. thorax

250. The process of hardening of the insect integument is called

a. melanization b. pigmentation c. oviposition d. sclerotization

251. All are organs/structures found in the head of an insect except

a. antennae b. compound eye c. simple eye d. spiracles

252. The slender hairlike structure of the cuticle formed by a plasmatic outgrowth from a single epidermal cell.

a. scales b. setae c. spurs d. trichogens

253. The single eye unit of the compound eye of an insect

a. labium b. ocellus c. ommatidium d. tympanum

254. The surface of each compound eye is divided into a number of circular or hexagonal areas called

a. facets b. ocelli c. ommatidia d. simple eye

255. Appendages not found in the thorax

a. legs b wings c. legs and wings d. cerci

256. All the following are mouthparts of an insect except

a. labrum b. mandible c. maxilla d. tibia

257. The paired segmented appendages located on the head of an insect, usually between or below the compound eyes

a. antennae b. maxillary palps c. simple eyes d. labium

258. All the following are types of insect antennae except

a. aristate b. maxillary palps c. monoliform d. plumose

259. All are modifications of clubbed type antennae except

a. clavate b. capitates c. flabellate d. geniculate

260.All the following are external processes of the body wall except

a. quinines b. scales c. setae d. spurs

261. Type of insect mouthparts of which the cranium is turned upward on the neck so that the mouthparts are directed
forward.

a. hypognathous b. hypergnathous c. prognathous d. opisthognathous

262. Type of insect mouthparts which have mandibles and can chew food

a. haustellate b. mandibulate c. siphoning type d. sucking type

263. All have haustellate type of mouthparts except

a. bugs b. fleas c. grasshoppers d. flies

264. All have chewing type of mouthpart except

a. beetle b. bug c. cricket d. weevil

265. All are parts of an insect leg except

a. cerci b. femur c. tibia d. trochanter

266. Saltatorial type of insect leg is modified for

a. clinging b. jumping c. grasping d. swimming

267. All are coupling devices in insect wing except

a. arolium b. frenulum c. hamuli d. jugum

268. Type of wing in which the 2/3 or ¼ of the forewing is parchment-like while the remaining distal part is membranous

a. elytron b. hemyletron c. humeral d. tegmen

269. A thickened highly sclerotized, leathery or horny forewings of Coleoptera and Dermaptera

a. elytra b. fringe c. hemyletra d. tegmina

270. The thickened leathery forewing of orthopterans

a. elytra b. fringe c. hemyletra d. tegmina

271. Change in form of the insect during postembryonuic development

a. ecdysis b. metamorphosis c. oviposition d. sclerotization

272. Metamorphosis in insect with three stages of development i.e. egg, nymph and adult

a. ametobolous b. dimetabolous c. hemimetabolous d. holometabolous

273. Metamorphosis with four stages of development i.e. egg, larvae, pupa and adult

a. ametobolous b. dimetabolous c. hemimetabolous d. holometabolous

274. Insects with complete metamorphosis

a. ametobolous b. dimetabolous c. hemimetabolous d. holometabolous

275. A type of development in which insects continue moulting in their adult life

a. ametobolous b. dimetabolous c. hemimetabolous d. holometabolous

276. The aquatic immature stage of hemimetabolous insect

a. larva b. naiad c. nymph d. pupa

277. The terrestrial immature stage of hemimetabolous insect

a. larva b. naiad c. nymph d. pupa

278. The quiescent or inactive stage of holometabolous insect

a. larva b. nymph c. pupa d. adult

279. The destructive stages of insect development except

a. larva b. nymph c. pupa d. adult

280. The science of classification

a. anatomy b. dichotomy c. lobotomy d. taxonomy

281. A branch of science which deals with how organisms are related to each other and which attempts to describe the
underlying reasons for that relationships

a. nomenclature b. morphology c. systematic d. taxonomy

282. The fundamental unit of classification, also defined as the smallest group capable of reproduction and production of
fertile offsprings

a. family b. genus c. order d. species

283. A tool that unlocks the door to identification of an unknown organisms

a. key b. nomenclature c. systematic d. taxonomy

284. In the classification ladder, species are grouped into

a. family b. class c. genus d. order

285. In the classification ladder, genera are group into

a. family b. class c. genus d. order

286. All are morphological characteristics used to distinguish insect orders except

a. antennae b. mouthparts c. wings d. body wall

287. The insect order of butterflies, moths and skippers

a. Coleoptera b. Hemiptera c. Hymenoptera d. Lepidoptera

288. The insect order of beetles and weevils

a. Coleoptera b. Dermaptera c. Homoptera d. Orthoptera

289.The insect order of bugs, aphids, mealybugs, leafhoppers and planthoppers

a. Diptera b. Hemiptera c. Phtiraptera d. Isoptera

290. The insect order of flies, mosquitoes and gnats

a. Diptera b. Neuroptera c. Odonata d. Orthoptera

291. The insect order of bees, wasps and ants

a. Coleoptera b. Ephemeroptera c. Hymenoptera d. Mantodea

292. The insect order of dragonflies and damselflies

a. Hemiptera b. Hymenoptera c. Neuroptera d. Odonata

293. The insect order of lacewings

a. Diptera b. Ephemeroptera c. Neuroptera d. Embioptera

294. The insect order of earwigs

a. Coleoptera b. Dermaptera c. Megaloptera d. Phasmatodea

295. The insect order of grasshoppers, locusts, crickets and katydid

a. Embioptera b. Orthoptera c. Psocoptera d. Zoraptera

296. The insect order of stick insects, leaf insects, walking stick insects

a. Orthoptera b. Phtiraptera c. Phasmatodea d. Thysanoptera

297. The insect order of thrips

a. Hymenoptera b. Mantodea c. Odonata d. Thysanoptera

298. The insect order of praying/preying mantids

a. Hemiptera b. Lepidoptera c. Mantodea d. Plecoptera

299. The insect order of termites

a. Grylloblattodea b. Isoptera c. Protura d. Thysanoptera

300. The insect order of mayflies

a. Ephemeroptera b. Plecoptera c. Psoscoptera d. Zoraptera

301. The insect order of cockroaches

a. Blattodea b. Mantodea c. Neuroptera d. Thysanura

302. The insect order of silverfish

a. Ephemeroptera b. Plecoptera c. Thysanoptera d. Thysanura

303. The following orders of insects are beneficial except

a. Hymenoptera b. Isoptera c. Mantodea d. Odonata

304. The following are beneficial insect orders except

a. Coleoptera b. Neuroptera c. Hymenoptera d. Blattodea

305. The following are insect orders destructive to plants except

a. Coleoptera b. Lepidoptera c. Mantodea d. Orthoptera

306. The following are insect orders destructive to plants except

a. hemiptera b. Isoptera c. Lepidoptera d. Odonata

307. All of the following are pest except

a. insects b. plant pathogens c. spiders d. weeds

308. An insect which interferes with the production of crops and animals either directly or indirectly

a. insect pest b. insect decomposers c. insect pollinator d. insect host

309. The level of pests which will cause economic damage is defined as

a. economic injury level b. economic inhibition level

c. economic minimum level d. economic threshold level

310. The level of insect pests at which control must be applied to prevent an increasing pest population from causing
economic losses

a. economic injury level b. economic inhibition level

c. economic minimum level d. economic threshold level

311. All are damages produced by chewing insects except

a. entire leaf missing b. leaf mines c. portion of leaf missing d. leaf curling

312. All are damages produced by sucking insects except

a. galling b. puckering c. stipplings d. skeletonized leaf

313. Insects which are restricted to feed on one food substrate or plat

a. monophagous b. biphagous c. oligophagous d. polyphagous

314. Insects could act as vectors of all the following except

a. bacteria b. fungi c. snails d. virus

315. Insect pest of rice which are vectors of virus diseases except

a. brown plant hopper b. green leafhopper c. rice stemborer d. zigzag leafhopper

316. All are major insect pests of rice except

a. black bugs b. leafhoppers c. leaf roller d. stemborers

317. They are important insect pests of corn except

a. army worm b. corn ear borer c. corn seedling maggot d. black bug

318. Popular hymenopterous parasitoids as biocon agent of cornborer

a. Apanteles sp. b. Ichneumonid wasp c. Scelio sp. d. Trichogramma spp.

319. They are major insect pests of beans except

a. black bean aphid b. pod borer c. stink bug d. leafminer

320. The most important insect of sweetpotato

a. army worm b. grasshopper c. sweetpotato stemborer d. sweetpotato weevil

321. They are all important pests of taro except

a. taro hornworm b. taro grasshopper c. taro planthopper d. mealybug

322. The most important insect pests of eggplant

a. fruit borer b. mealybug c. flea beetle d. aphid

323. The most damaging insect pest of cabbage and other crucifers

a. aphid b. cabbage butterfly c. diamondback moth d. whitefly

324. The most important quarantined insect pest of mango

a. fruit fly b. mango planthopper c. mealybug d. twig borer

325. The vector of virus diseases in banana

a. aphid b. banana leafroller c. banana weevils d. fruit fly

326. The following are mechanisms of resistance except

a. tolerance b. antixenosis c. diagnosis d. antibiosis

327. Vertical resistance is also called

a. monogenic b. partial c. polygenic d. non specific

328. The following are advantages if biological control except

a. safe b. self perpetuating c. environment-friendly d. slow acting

329. The point of entry of a fumigant insecticide

a. integuments b. mouth c. spiracles d. tympanum

330. An example of organochlorine insecticide

a. chlordane b. lannate c. malathion d. baygon

331. It is defined as the action/activity that is designed to hold pest populations below the economic threshold level

a. antibiosis b. pest control c. reistance d. tolerance

332. The following are characteristics of a parasitoid except

.a. killing host gradually b. lives inside or outside the host

c. bigger than its host d. requires one host to complete development

333. Predators include the following arthropods except

a. antlion b. black bug c. coccinellid beetle d, dragonfly

334. Horizontal resistance is also called

a. cytoplasmic resistance b. monogenic resistance c. polygenic resistance d. specific reistance

335. The following are examples of cultural control methods except

a. crop rotation b. crop complementation c. fumigation d. sanitation

336. A mechanism of insect resistance that is described as refractory to guest

.a antibiosis b. antixenosis c. diagnosis d. tolerance

337. The following are examples of organophosphate insecticides except

a. azodin b. baygon c. malathion d. parathion

338. An ecologically-based pest control strategy that relies heavily on natural mortality factors

a. biological control b. chemical control c. cultural control d. integrated pest management

339. The following are disadvantages of chemical control except

a. development of resistant pest species

b. hazards of pesticide residue

c. rapid curative action in preventing economic damage

d. resurgence or outbreak of secondary pest

340. The pesticide that is used against insect pest

a. acaricide b. fungicide c. herbicide d. insecticide

341. A control action that prevents the introduction of potential pests to another area or prevent further dissemination of
those already present in the locality

a. biological control b. chemical control c. quarantine d. resistance

342. The following are botanical insecticides except

a. juvenoids b. nicotinoids c. pyrethroids d. rotenoids

343. The golden snail is under the Phylum

a. Arthropoda b. Chordata c. Gastropoda d. Mollusca

344. The scientific name of the golden snail

a. Achatina fulica b. Padda oryzivora c. Pomacea canaliculata d. Pila luzonica

345. The pesticide group that is used against snail pest

a. fungicide b. insecticide c. molluscicide d. nematicide

346. Birds are under the class

a. Arachnida b. Aves c. Insecta d. Mammalia

347. Gnawing mammals include members of the order

a. Chiroptera b. Primates c. Rodentia d. Zoraptera

348. The scientific name of the house or tree sparrow

a. Lonchura malaca b. Padda oryzivora c. Passer montanus d. Oryza sativa

349. The biggest among the species of rats destructive to agricultural crops

a. asian rice field rat b. bush rat c. common rice field rat d. Norway rat

350. The following are factors affecting the population dynamics of rodents except

a. birth rate b. emigration c. fumigation d. immigration

351. The following are examples of chronic rodenticide except

a. dora b. racumin c. warfarin d. zinc phosphide

352. The vector of the bubonic plague bacteria/

a. bed bug b. flea c. louse d. mosquito

353, The following are signs of rat infestation except

a. damaged crops b. droppings c. foot prints d. nests with eggs

354. Contact, stomach and fumigant poisons are classification of insecticides based on

a. mode of action b. mode of entry c. origin of the active ingredient d. selectivity

355. An example of an egg parasitoid

a. Corcyra cephalonica b. Hippotion celerion c. Menonchilus sexmaculatus d. Trichgramma chilonis

356. A biological control agent that devours its prey instantly and requires more preys to complete its development

a. parasite b. parasitoid c. pathogen d. predator

357. The mammary formula of the Rattus rattus mindanensis

a. 1+2=6 b. 2+2=8 c. 2+3=10 d. 3+3=12

358. The following are characteristics of rodents except

a. diurnal b. good climber c. nocturnal d. with poor eyesight

359. The weaning age of rats

a. 21 days b. 20 days c. 23 days` d. 24 days

360. Otherwise known as urban rat

a. Rattus argentiventer b. Rattus exulans c. Rattus norvegicus d. Rattus rattus mindanensis

361. A kind of rodenticide that kill rodents gradually

a. acute rodenticide b. chronic rodenticide c. zinc phospide d. Zn P.180

362. Defined as the inherent ability of the crop to avoid or withstand pest depredation without consequent loss in yield

a. avoidance b. inheritance c. resistance d. tolerance

363. A bacterial disease which affected 41 M people in Asia in the 14 th century

a. bubonic plague b. dengue c. leptospirosis d. malaria

364. The pesticide used against fungal pathogen

a. acaricide b. fungicide c. insecticide d. molluscicide

365. The insecticide that kills a wide array of insect pest species

a. broad spectrum b. narrow spectrum c. specific d. aerobic

366. The fungicides that can be translocated to the different parts of the plant are also called

a. contact fungicide b. localized insecticide c. non mode insecticide d. systemic fungicide

367. The characteristic of rate in which they develop fear of new things/

a. neophobia b. hydrophobia c. insomnia d. pseudopobia

368. The scientific name of the Philippine house mouse

a. Mus musculus castaneous b. Rattus argentiventer c. Rattus exulans` d. Rattus norvengicus

369. Young rats become reproductively mature after

a. 75 days b. 80 days c. 85 days d. 90 days

370. Rats breed rapidly during

a. dry season b. full moon c. new moon d. wet season

371. Population dynamics of rodents is more stable in

a. disturbed ecosystem b. rural areas c. urban areas d. rice fields

372. The main mechanism by which rats can quickly repopulate croplands following population reduction

a. emigration b. fertilization c. immigration d. reproduction

373. Rats are omnivorous animal but they prefer to feed on

a. cereal grains b. insects c. rootcrops d. weeds

374. The following are predators of rats except

a. cats b. ducks c. owls d. snakes

375. An exotic bird pest of rice

a. Lonchura malaca b. Padda oryzivora c. Passer montanus d. Turdus migratorius

376. A type of resistance that is governed by environmental factors

a. ecological resistance b. genetic resistance c. vertical resistance d. horizontal resistance

377. The usual target site of the organophosphate insecticides

a. digestive system b. nervous system c. reproductive system d. respiratory system

378. A mechanism or resistance that includes all adverse physiological effects of a temporary or permanent nature
resulting from the ingestion of a plant by an insect

a. antibiosis b. antixenosis c. diagnosis d. tolerance

379. A type of biological control that involves manipulation of the natural enemies by man

a. applied biological control b. natural biological control

c. natural control d. physical control

380. The following are species of snail pests except

a. Achatina fulica b. Chromolaena odorata c. Pila luzonica d. Pomacea

canaliculata