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ATPL-DISPATCHER 2018
1- Air Law ‫ قانون الجو‬2-Airframes & Systems ‫هياكل وانظمة‬ 3- Electrics –
‫الطائرة‬ Electronics ‫كهرباء‬
4- Powerplant ‫ محركات‬5- Instrumentation ‫عدادات‬ 6- Mass & Balance
&Performance ‫وزن واتزان‬
‫واداءات‬
7- Flight Planning & 8- Human Performance & Limitations 9- Meteorology ‫ارصاد جوية‬
Monitoring ‫تخطيط جوي‬ ‫طب طيران‬
10-General Navigation ‫مالحة عامة‬ 11- Radio Navigation ‫مالحة السلكية‬ 12- Operational
Procedures ‫عمليات طيران‬
13- Principles of Flight ‫نظرية‬ 14 Communications ‫اتصاالت جوية‬
‫طيران‬
1- Air Law‫قانون الجو‬
2. The ICAO annex containing the standards and recommended practices for
Personnel Licensing is:
a. Annex 1.
b. Annex 2.
c. Annex 11.
d. Annex 12.

4. The continuing validity of a Certificate of Airworthiness of an aircraft is subject

to the laws of:
a. the State of Registration.
b. the State of Registration or the State of the Operator.
c. the State of Operator.
d. the State of Registration and the State of Design.

5. Which of the following is not allowed in a registration mark?

a. NNN
b. XXX
c. RCC
d. DDD

6. The height of the markings under the wings of a heavier than air aircraft shall be:
a. at least 30 cm.
b. at least 40 cm.
c. at least 50 cm.
d. more than 40 cm but not more than 50 cm.

7. The height of the markings on the fuselage (or equivalent surface) and on the
vertical tail surface of a heavier than air aircraft shall be:
a. at least 20 cm.
b. more than 20 cm but not more than 30 cm.
c. at least 30 cm.
d. at least 40 cm.
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11. According to JAR-FCL, an instrument rating is valid for:

a. one year.
b. two years.
c. the period of validity of the licence.
d. indefinitely.
14. An aircraft has flight visibility of 3km, and is heading 355° T in an area where
the variation is 6° west. There is no appreciable wind. Which of the following is the
appropriate flight level?
a. FL60.
b. FL65.
c. FL70.
d. FL75.

15. What letter goes in item 8 of a flight plan for a flight starting under IFRthen
changing to VFR?
a. Z
b. Y
c. I
d. V

18. You are taxiing an aircraft on the ground at an aerodrome and you see a
flashing red light from the tower. What does it mean?
a. Stop.
b. Taxi clear of the landing area.
c. Give way to approaching aircraft.
d. You are not clear to take off.

19. For a controlled flight, a flight plan must be filed before departure at least:
a. 60 minutes before off-block time.
b. 60 minutes before departure.
c. 30 minutes before departure.
d. 30 minutes before off-block time.

22. What is the minimum vertical separation between IFR flights flying in the same
direction below FL 290?
a. 500 ft
b. 1,000 ft
c. 2,000 ft
d. 4,000 ft

24. What letter is put in item 8 of a flight plan to indicate that a flight is to begin
under IFR and
finish under VFR?
a. Y
b. I
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c. V
d. Z

26. Unless authorised by ATC, a VFR flight is not permitted to take-off from an
aerodrome within a CTR when:
a. cloud ceiling is less than 1,000 ft and ground visibility is less than 5km.
b. cloud ceiling is less than 1,500 ft and ground visibility is less than 5km.
c. cloud ceiling is less than 1,000 ft and ground visibility is less than 8km.
d. cloud ceiling is less than 1,500 ft and ground visibility is less than 8km.

27. During a straight departure, the initial track is to be:

a. within 5° of runway centre-line.
b. within 10° of runway centre-line .
c. within 15° of runway centre-line.
d. within 25° of runway centre-line.
28. The MSA provides 300m obstacle clearance within how many miles radius of the
navigation
facility at the aerodrome?
a. 20nm.
b. 30nm.
c. 25nm.
d. 15nm.

31 During an initial approach, what is the turn between the outbound track and the
inbound track where the tracks flown are not reciprocal?
a. Reverse turn.
b. Race track.
c. Procedure turn.
d. Base turn.

33. Where does the initial phase of a missed approach procedure end?
a. From where a new instrument approach can be commenced.
b. Where 50 ft obstacle clearance is obtained and can be maintained.
c. Where a climb is established.
d. At the missed approach point.

34. The VAT for a Category B aircraft is:

a. up to 91 kts.
b. 90 to 121 kts inclusive.
c. 141 to 165 kts inclusive.
d. 91 to 120 kts inclusive.

36. When can an aircraft descend below MSA?

1.) The airfield and underlying terrain are visible and will remain so.
2.) The aircraft is under radar control.
3.) The underlying terrain is visible.
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4.) The aircraft is following an approach procedure.

a. 1, 2 and 4.
b. 1, 3 and 4.
c. 2, 3 and 4.
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4.

37. A circling approach is:

a. a flight manoeuvre performed only under radar vectoring.
b. a flight manoeuvre where visual contact with the underlying terrain is
maintained.
c. a visual manoeuvre keeping the runway in sight.
d. a visual manoeuvre only conducted in IMC.

39. Unless otherwise published or informed by ATC, after entering a holding

pattern all turns are made:
a. to the left.
b. to the left then right.
c. to the right.
d. procedure turn right then left.

42. The vertical position of an aircraft at or below the transition altitude will be
reported as:
a. flight level.
b. whatever the pilot chooses.
c. altitude.
d. height.

43. For parallel runways the missed approach tracks must diverge by:
a. 15°.
b. 30°.
c. 45°.
d. 25°.

44. Where independent parallel runway operations are in progress, what is the
maximum permitted interception angle to intercept the localiser?
a. 20°.
b. 25°.
c. 30°.
d. 45°.

47. Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are used in
conjunction with SSR?
a. Distress 7700; Unlawful Interference 7600; Communications failure 7500
b. Distress 7500; Unlawful Interference 7700; Communications failure 7600
c. Distress 7600; Unlawful Interference 7500; Communications failure 7700
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d. Distress 7700; Unlawful Interference 7500; Communications failure 7600

48. Which of the following is not a valid SSR mode A squawk?

a. A5555
b. A5678
c. A2345
d. A7777

51. What class of airspace can you get an advisory service for IFR traffic and a FIS
for VFR traffic?
a. C
b. D
c. C
d. F

53. RNP4 is a containment value meaning that a percentage of aircraft operating

along a particular route would be within 4nm of the centre line all the time. What is
that percentage?
a. 98%.
b. 93%.
c. 95%.
d. 90%.

59. The ATIS broadcast should not exceed:

a. 3 minutes.
b. 30 seconds.
c. 1 minute.
d. 2 minutes.

60. What types of separation does ATC apply?

a. Horizontal, longitudinal and timing.
b. Horizontal, vertical and longitudinal.
c. Horizontal, vertical and composite.
d. Horizontal, vertical and lateral.

61. The longitudinal separation minimum, based on time between two aircraft at the
same altitude, for which navigation aids can give a frequent determination of
position and speed and when the proceeding aircraft has a true airspeed of at least
40 kts higher than the following aircraft, is:
a. 5 minutes.
b. 6 minutes.
c. 10 minutes.
d. 3 minutes.
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64. One minute separation may be used between departing aircraft if the tracks to
be flown diverge
by at least:
a. 25° immediately after take off.
b. 45° immediately after take off.
c. 30° immediately after take off.
d. 15° immediately after take off.

69. What is the closest to touchdown that a radar controller can request a change of
speed to an aircraft on final approach?
a. 5nm.
b. 3nm.
c. 2nm.
d. 4nm.

71. An aircraft in receipt of a radar service is told to “resume own navigation”.

What does this mean?
a. The pilot is responsible for own navigation.
b. Radar vectoring is terminated.
c. The pilot should contact next ATC unit.
d. The pilot should contact the current ATC unit.
73. When may the pilot operate the ‘IDENT’ switch on the transponder?
a. Only in controlled airspace.
b. When instructed by ATC.
c. Only in uncontrolled airspace.
d. Only when under radar control.

74. What level of alert would be inserted in field E of an ASHTAM following a

volcanic eruption in which a pyroclastic ash cloud extends above FL250?
a. Red alert.
b. Orange alert.
c. Yellow alert.
d. Green alert.

76. Where in the AIP is information concerning re-fuelling facilities and services
found?
a. ENR.
b. SUPP.
c. AD.
d. GEN.

82. TODA consists of:

a. TORA but excluding the clearway.
b. TORA and includes the clearway.
c. TORA but excluding the stopway.
d. TORA only.
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83. Runway threshold marking consists of a number of stripes. How many stripes
are there for a runway width of 60 meters?
a. 6
b. 8
c. 12
d. 16

85. The abbreviation “PAPI” stands for:

a. Precision Approach Path Index.
b. Precision Approach Power Indicator.
c. Precision Approach Path Indicator.
d. Precision Approach Power Index.
87. What colour lights are vehicles moving routinely on the aerodrome required to
show?
a. Flashing yellow.
b. Flashing red.
c. Flashing blue.
d. Steady red.
89. The ICAO Annex which deals with the entry and departure of persons and their
baggage for international flights is:
a. Annex 6.
b. Annex 15.
c. Annex 9.
d. Annex 8.
92. For what period are SAR services to be provided by a Contracting State?
a. During the hours of operation of an FIR.
b. On a 24 hour basis.
C. 2 hours before until 2 hours after the first flight arrives and the last departing
flight within an FIR.
d. During the hours of both commercial and military air operations within the
FIR.

97. An isolated parking area is to be provided for an aircraft subjected to unlawful

interference which is never less than ............ metres from other parking positions:
a. 1000.
b. 2500.
c. 3000.
d. 100.

98. Member States should ensure that specific security measures are conducted in
the air transport of potentially disruptive passengers. These are seen as:
a. none of the answers are correct.
b. deportees, inadmissible passengers and persons in custody.
c. deportees and inadmissible passengers only.
d. deportees and persons in custody.
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99. Who is responsible for the investigation of an accident?

a. State of Occurrence.
b. State of Registry.
c. ICAO.
d. Combination of A and B.

100. Who is entitled to be represented at any investigation?

a. The State of Registry.
b. The State of Design.
c. The State of Manufacture.
d. All the above.

51. What class of airspace can you get an advisory service for IFR traffic and
a FIS for VFR traffic?
a. C
b. D
c. C
d. F
52. The lower boundary of an UIR must be:
a. an IFR flight level.
b. a VFR flight level.
c. is not specified.
d. at any flight level.

53. RNP4 is a containment value meaning that a percentage of aircraft

operating along a particular route would be within 4nm of the centre line all
the time. What is that percentage?
a. 98%.
b. 93%.
c. 95%.
d. 90%.

54. Voice ATIS is transmitted on a:

a. discrete VHF frequency only.
b. discrete VHF frequency or on voice on VOR.
c. VHF frequency or on ILS frequency.
d. ILS only.

55 FIS is provided to aircraft concerning collision hazards in the following

classes of airspace:
a. C, D, E, F, G.
b. F and G only.
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c. F.
d. A, B, C, D, E, F, G.

56. The Approach Control Service is an ATC service:

a. provided for arriving and departing controlled flights.
b. provided for arriving and departing IFR flights.
c. provided for IFR and VFR flights within a CTR.
d. provided for IFR flights within an ATZ.

57 Who is responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in respect of terrain

avoidance?
a. ATC.
b. The ATSU when accepting the FP.
c. The PIC.
d. The Operator.

58. ATIS broadcasts for departing and arriving aircraft are to contain cloud
cover information when:
a. the cloud base is below 5,000 ft or the highest MSA whichever is higher.
b. the cloud base is below 3,000 ft or the highest MSA whichever is higher, or
there is cumulonimbus reported.
c. the cloud base is below 5,000 ft or the highest MSA whichever is higher, or
there is cumulonimbus reported.
d. the cloud base is below 10,000 ft or the highest MSA whichever is higher, or
there is cumulonimbus reported.

59. The ATIS broadcast should not exceed:

a. 3 minutes.
b. 30 seconds.
c. 1 minute.
d. 2 minutes.

60. What types of separation does ATC apply?

a. Horizontal, longitudinal and timing.
b. Horizontal, vertical and longitudinal.
c. Horizontal, vertical and composite.
d. Horizontal, vertical and lateral.

61. The longitudinal separation minimum, based on time between two

aircraft at the same altitude, for which navigation aids can give a frequent
determination of position and speed and when the proceeding aircraft has a
true airspeed of at least 40 kts higher than the following aircraft, is:
a. 5 minutes.
b. 6 minutes.
c. 10 minutes.
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d. 3 minutes.

62. Longitudinal separation based on time for aircraft at the same level when
navigation aids permit frequent determination of speed and position and
where the preceding aircraft is maintaining
TAS 20 kts faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
a. 10 minutes.
b. 2 minutes.
c. 5 minutes.
d. 3 minutes.

63 Separation between departing aircraft may be reduced to 2 minutes when:

a. the preceding aircraft is 30 kts or more faster than the succeeding aircraft.
b. the preceding aircraft is 20 kts or more faster than the succeeding aircraft.
c. the preceding aircraft is 10 kts or more faster than the succeeding aircraft.
d. the preceding aircraft is 40 kts or more faster than the succeeding aircraft.

64. One minute separation may be used between departing aircraft if the
tracks to be flown diverge
by at least:
a. 25° immediately after take off.
b. 45° immediately after take off.
c. 30° immediately after take off.
d. 15° immediately after take off.

65. The separation method whereby the vertical and horizontal separation
may be reduced to a minimum of half the standard is called:
a. composite separation.
b. combined separation.
c. reduced separation.
d. essential separation.

66. In what class of airspace is an advisory service provided for participating

IFR traffic and a FIS for all other traffic?
a. C
b. D
c. C
d. F

67. When must QNH be passed to an aircraft prior to take-off?

a. In the taxi clearance.
b. On engine start-up request.
c. On first contact with ATC.
d. Just prior to take-off.
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68. At commencement of final approach, if the approach controller has wind

component information, what change in cross wind component change would
be passed to the pilot?
a. 10 kts.
b. 8 kts.
c. 3 kts.
d. 5 kts.

69. What is the closest to touchdown that a radar controller can request a
change of speed to an aircraft on final approach?
a. 5nm.
b. 3nm.
c. 2nm.
d. 4nm.

70. What is the minimum distance from threshold that a controller must
have issued clearance to
land by, for a non precision approach?
a. 5 nm.
b. 2 nm.
c. 3 nm.
d. 10 nm.

71. An aircraft in receipt of a radar service is told to “resume own

navigation”. What does this mean?
a. The pilot is responsible for own navigation.
b. Radar vectoring is terminated.
c. The pilot should contact next ATC unit.
d. The pilot should contact the current ATC unit.