1.

The ICAO annex containing the standards and recommended practices for Personnel Licensing is:
a. Annex 1.
b. Annex 2.
c. Annex 11.
d. Annex 12.
2. The continuing validity of a Certificate of Airworthiness of an aircraft is subject to the laws of:
a. the State of Registration.
b. the State of Registration or the State of the Operator.
c. the State of Operator.
d. the State of Registration and the State of Design.
3. Which of the following is not allowed in a registration mark?
a. NNN
b. XXX
c. RCC
d. DDD
4. The height of the markings under the wings of a heavier than air aircraft shall be:
a. at least 30 cm.
b. at least 40 cm.
c. at least 50 cm.
d. more than 40 cm but not more than 50 cm.
5. The height of the markings on the fuselage (or equivalent surface) and on the vertical tail surface of a
heavier than air aircraft shall be:
a. at least 20 cm.
b. more than 20 cm but not more than 30 cm.
c. at least 30 cm.
d. at least 40 cm.
6. According to JAR-FCL, an instrument rating is valid for:
a. one year.
b. two years.
c. the period of validity of the licence.
d. indefinitely.
7. An aircraft has flight visibility of 3km, and is heading 355° T in an area where the variation is 6° west.
There is no appreciable wind. Which of the following is the appropriate flight level?
a. FL60.
b. FL65.
c. FL70.
d. FL75.
8. What letter goes in item 8 of a flight plan for a flight starting under IFRthen changing to VFR?
a. Z
b. Y
c. I
d. V
9. You are taxiing an aircraft on the ground at an aerodrome and you see a flashing red light from the tower.
What does it mean?
a. Stop.
b. Taxi clear of the landing area.
c. Give way to approaching aircraft.
d. You are not clear to take off.
10. For a controlled flight, a flight plan must be filed before departure at least:
a. 60 minutes before off-block time.
b. 60 minutes before departure.
c. 30 minutes before departure.
d. 30 minutes before off-block time
11. What is the minimum vertical separation between IFR flights flying in the same direction below FL 290?
a. 500 ft
b. 1,000 ft
c. 2,000 ft
d. 4,000 ft
12. What letter is put in item 8 of a flight plan to indicate that a flight is to begin under IFR and
finish under VFR?
a. Y
b. I
c. V
d. Z
13. Unless authorised by ATC, a VFR flight is not permitted to take-off from an aerodrome within a CTR
when:
a. cloud ceiling is less than 1,000 ft and ground visibility is less than 5km.
b. cloud ceiling is less than 1,500 ft and ground visibility is less than 5km.
c. cloud ceiling is less than 1,000 ft and ground visibility is less than 8km.
d. cloud ceiling is less than 1,500 ft and ground visibility is less than 8km.
14. During a straight departure, the initial track is to be:
a. within 5° of runway centre-line.
b. within 10° of runway centre-line .
c. within 15° of runway centre-line.
d. within 25° of runway centre-line.
15. The MSA provides 300m obstacle clearance within how many miles radius of the navigation
facility at the aerodrome?
a. 20nm.
b. 30nm.
c. 25nm.
d. 15nm.
16. During an initial approach, what is the turn between the outbound track and the inbound track where the
tracks flown are not reciprocal?
a. Reverse turn.
b. Race track.
c. Procedure turn.
d. Base turn.
17. Where does the initial phase of a missed approach procedure end?
a. From where a new instrument approach can be commenced.
b. Where 50 ft obstacle clearance is obtained and can be maintained.
c. Where a climb is established.
d. At the missed approach point.
18. The VAT for a Category B aircraft is:
a. up to 91 kts.
b. 90 to 121 kts inclusive.
c. 141 to 165 kts inclusive.
d. 91 to 120 kts inclusive.
19. When can an aircraft descend below MSA?
1.) The airfield and underlying terrain are visible and will remain so.
2.) The aircraft is under radar control.
3.) The underlying terrain is visible.
4.) The aircraft is following an approach procedure.
a. 1, 2 and 4.
b. 1, 3 and 4.
c. 2, 3 and 4.
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4.
20. A circling approach is:
a. a flight manoeuvre performed only under radar vectoring.
b. a flight manoeuvre where visual contact with the underlying terrain is maintained.
c. a visual manoeuvre keeping the runway in sight.
d. a visual manoeuvre only conducted in IMC.
21. Unless otherwise published or informed by ATC, after entering a holding pattern all turns are made:
a. to the left.
b. to the left then right.
c. to the right.
d. procedure turn right then left.
22. The vertical position of an aircraft at or below the transition altitude will be reported as:
a. flight level.
b. whatever the pilot chooses.
c. altitude.
d. height.
23. For parallel runways the missed approach tracks must diverge by:
a. 15°.
b. 30°.
c. 45°.
d. 25°.
24. Where independent parallel runway operations are in progress, what is the maximum permitted
interception angle to intercept the localiser?
a. 20°.
b. 25°.
c. 30°.
d. 45°.
25. Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are used in conjunction with SSR?
a. Distress 7700; Unlawful Interference 7600; Communications failure 7500
b. Distress 7500; Unlawful Interference 7700; Communications failure 7600
c. Distress 7600; Unlawful Interference 7500; Communications failure 7700
d. Distress 7700; Unlawful Interference 7500; Communications failure 7600
26. Which of the following is not a valid SSR mode A squawk?
a. A5555
b. A5678
c. A2345
d. A7777
27. What class of airspace can you get an advisory service for IFR traffic and a FIS for VFR traffic?
a. C
b. D
c. C
d. F
28. RNP4 is a containment value meaning that a percentage of aircraft operating along a particular route
would be within 4nm of the centre line all the time. What is that percentage?
a. 98%.
b. 93%.
c. 95%.
d. 90%.
29. The ATIS broadcast should not exceed:
a. 3 minutes.
b. 30 seconds.
c. 1 minute.
d. 2 minutes.
 1. What is the purpose of the wing main spar?
a. To withstand bending and torsional loads.
b. To withstand compressive and torsional loads.
c. To withstand compressive and shear loads.
d. To withstand bending and shear loads.
2. What is the purpose of stringers?
a. To absorb the torsional and compressive stresses.
b. To produce stress risers and support the fatigue metres.
c. To prevent buckling and bending by supporting and stiffening the skin.
d. To support the primary control surfaces.
3. How can wing bending moments be reduced in flight?
a. By using aileron „up-float‟ and keeping the centre section fuel tanks full for as long as possible.
b. By using aileron „up-float‟ and using the fuel in the wings last.
c. By having tail-mounted engines and using aileron „down-float‟.
d. By having wing-mounted engines and using the wing fuel first.
4. The skin of a modern pressurized aircraft:
a. is made up of light alloy steel sheets built on the monocoque principle.
b. houses the crew and the payload.
c. provides aerodynamic lift and prevents corrosion by keeping out adverse weather.
d. is primary load bearing structure carrying much of the structural loads.
5. Station numbers (STN) and water lines (WL) are:
a. a means of locating airframe structure and components.
b. passenger seat locations.
c. runway markings for guiding the aircraft to the terminal.
d. compass alignment markings.
6. A torsion box:
a. is a structure within the fuselage to withstand compression, bending and twisting loads.
b. is a structure formed between the wing spars, skin and ribs to resist bending and twisting loads.
c. is a structure within the wing for housing the fuel tanks, flight controls and landing gear.
d. is a structure designed to reduce the weight.
7. Aircraft structures consists mainly of:
a. light alloy steel sheets with copper rivets and titanium or steel materials at points requiring high strength.
b. magnesium alloy sheets with aluminium rivets and titanium or steel at points requiring high strength.
c. aluminium alloy sheets and rivets with titanium or steel materials at points requiring high strength.
d. aluminium sheets and rivets with titanium or steel materials at points requiring high strength.
8. The pressure gauge of an hydraulic system provides information regarding the pressure of:
a. the air in the accumulator.
b. the air and hydraulic fluid in the system.
c. the proportional pressure in the system.
d. the hydraulic fluid in the system.
9. A shuttle valve:
a. is used to replace NRVs.
b. allows two supply sources to operate one unit.
c. allows one source to operate two units.
d. acts as a non-return valve.
10. With a hyd lock there is:
a. flow, but no jack movement.
b. no flow but jack continues to move under gravitational effects.
c. no flow, jack is stationary.
d. constant flow.
11. A relief valve:
a. relieves below system pressure.
b. maintains pressure to a priority circuit.
c. relieves at its designed pressure.
d. prevents excessive pressure through increased fluid temperature.
12. With air in the hydraulic system you would:
a. ignore it because normal operation would remove it.
b. bleed the air out of the system.
c. allow the accumulator to automatically adjust itself.
d. expect it to operate faster.
13. The purpose of an accumulator is to:
a. relieve excess pressure.
b. store fluid under pressure.
c. store compressed gas for tyre inflation.
d. remove air from the system.
14. In an operating hydraulic actuator the pressure of the fluid will be:
a. greatest near to the actuator due to the load imposed on the jack.
b. greatest at the opposite end to the actuator due to the load imposed on the actuator.
c. high initially, falling as the actuator completes its travel.
d. the same at all points.
15. A hydraulic lock occurs:
a. when the thermal RV operates.
b. when fluid by passes a system and returns to the tank.
c. when flow is stopped and the actuator is not able to move.
d. when fluid and air enters the cylinder and only fluid is allowed to bypass to the reservoir.
16. Low gas pressure in accumulator causes:
a. rapid jack movements.
b. no effect on system.
c. rapid pressure fluctuations while system is operating.
d. rapid and smooth operation of system.
1. The continuing validity of a Certificate of Airworthiness of an aircraft is subject to the laws of:
a. the State of Registration.
b. the State of Registration or the State of the Operator.
c. the State of Operator.
d. the State of Registration and the State of Design.
2. Which of the following is not allowed in a registration mark?
a. NNN
b. XXX
c. RCC
d. DDD
3. The height of the markings under the wings of a heavier than air aircraft shall be:
a. at least 30 cm.
b. at least 40 cm.
c. at least 50 cm.
d. more than 40 cm but not more than 50 cm.
4. The height of the markings on the fuselage (or equivalent surface) and on the vertical tail surface of a
heavier than air aircraft shall be:
a. at least 20 cm.
b. more than 20 cm but not more than 30 cm.
c. at least 30 cm.
d. at least 40 cm.
5. According to JAR-FCL, an instrument rating is valid for:
a. one year.
b. two years.
c. the period of validity of the licence.
d. indefinitely.
6. An aircraft has flight visibility of 3km, and is heading 355° T in an area where the variation is 6° west.
There is no appreciable wind. Which of the following is the appropriate flight level?
a. FL60.
b. FL65.
c. FL70.
d. FL75.
7. What letter goes in item 8 of a flight plan for a flight starting under IFRthen changing to VFR?
a. Z
b. Y
c. I
d. V
8. You are taxiing an aircraft on the ground at an aerodrome and you see a flashing red light from the tower.
What does it mean?
a. Stop.
b. Taxi clear of the landing area.
c. Give way to approaching aircraft.
d. You are not clear to take off.
9. For a controlled flight, a flight plan must be filed before departure at least:
a. 60 minutes before off-block time.
b. 60 minutes before departure.
c. 30 minutes before departure.
d. 30 minutes before off-block time.
10. What letter is put in item 8 of a flight plan to indicate that a flight is to begin under IFR and
finish under VFR?
a. Y
b. I
c. V
d. Z
11. During a straight departure, the initial track is to be:
a. within 5° of runway centre-line.
b. within 10° of runway centre-line .
c. within 15° of runway centre-line.
d. within 25° of runway centre-line.
12. Where does the initial phase of a missed approach procedure end?
a. From where a new instrument approach can be commenced.
b. Where 50 ft obstacle clearance is obtained and can be maintained.
c. Where a climb is established.
d. At the missed approach point.
13. When can an aircraft descend below MSA?
1.) The airfield and underlying terrain are visible and will remain so.
2.) The aircraft is under radar control.
3.) The underlying terrain is visible.
4.) The aircraft is following an approach procedure.
a. 1, 2 and 4.
b. 1, 3 and 4.
c. 2, 3 and 4.
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4.
14. A circling approach is:
a. a flight manoeuvre performed only under radar vectoring.
b. a flight manoeuvre where visual contact with the underlying terrain is maintained.
c. a visual manoeuvre keeping the runway in sight.
d. a visual manoeuvre only conducted in IMC.
15. For parallel runways the missed approach tracks must diverge by:
a. 15°.
b. 30°.
c. 45°.
d. 25°.
16. Where independent parallel runway operations are in progress, what is the maximum permitted
interception angle to intercept the localiser?
a. 20°.
b. 25°.
c. 30°.
d. 45°.
17. Which of the following is not a valid SSR mode A squawk?
a. A5555
b. A5678
c. A2345
d. A7777
18. RNP4 is a containment value meaning that a percentage of aircraft operating along a particular route
would be within 4nm of the centre line all the time. What is that percentage?
a. 98%.
b. 93%.
c. 95%.
d. 90%.
19. The longitudinal separation minimum, based on time between two aircraft at the same altitude, for which
navigation aids can give a frequent determination of position and speed and when the proceeding aircraft has
a true airspeed of at least 40 kts higher than the following aircraft, is:
a. 5 minutes.
b. 6 minutes.
c. 10 minutes.
d. 3 minutes.
20. One minute separation may be used between departing aircraft if the tracks to be flown diverge
by at least:
a. 25° immediately after take off.
b. 45° immediately after take off.
c. 30° immediately after take off.
d. 15° immediately after take off.
21. What is the closest to touchdown that a radar controller can request a change of speed to an aircraft on
final approach?
a. 5nm.
b. 3nm.
c. 2nm.
d. 4nm.
22. Longitudinal separation based on time for aircraft at the same level when navigation aids permit frequent
determination of speed and position and where the preceding aircraft is maintaining TAS 20 kts faster than
the succeeding aircraft, is:
a. 10 minutes.
b. 2 minutes.
c. 5 minutes.
d. 3 minutes.
23. When may the pilot operate the „IDENT‟ switch on the transponder?
a. Only in controlled airspace.
b. When instructed by ATC.
c. Only in uncontrolled airspace.
24. A shuttle valve will allow:
a. the accumulator to be emptied after engine shut down.
b. the pressure pump to off-load when the system pressure is reached.
c. two independent pressure sources to operate a system/component.
d. high pressure fluid to return to the reservoir if the Full Flow Relief Valve fails.
25. Hydraulic Thermal Relief Valves are fitted:
a. to release all the pressure back to return in an overheat situation.
b. to release half the pressure back to return in an overheat situation.
c. to relieve excess pressure back to the actuator in an overheat situation.
d. in isolated lines only to relieve excess pressure caused by temperature rises.
26. Different diameter actuators supplied with the same pressure at same rate:
a. exert the same force.
b. will lift equal loads.
c. will move at the same speed.
d. exert different forces.
27. Oil is used in an oleo strut to:
a. support the weight of the aircraft.
b. limit the speed of compression of the strut.
c. lubricate the piston within the cylinder.
d. limit the speed of extension and compression of the strut.
1. The output of an AC generator is taken from :
A) the exciter windings .
B) the field coils .
C) the stator windings .
D) the rotor coils .
2. Frequency wild AC is produced when :
A) a transformer winding is open circuit .
B) the voltage regulator is malfunctioning .
C) the rotational speed of the generator varies .
D) the alternator becomes angry .
3. When an external AC supply is feeding the busbars :
A) the internal busbars are disconnected .
B) the aircraft generators are run in parallel with the external supply .
C) the aircraft generators are taken off line .
D) thesynchronising unit will ensure that no frequency difference exists between the aircraft
generators and the external supply .
4. A CSDU which has been disconnected in flight :
A) automatically resets in flight providing engine rpm is below a given value
B) automatically resets at engine shut-down .
C) may be reset on the ground only . after engine shut-down .
D) may be reset in flight using the reset mechanism .
5. A voltage regulation works by :
A) sensing the battery voltage .
B) assessing the impedance of the circuit .
C) varying the circuit voltage .
D) varying the rotating filed strength .
6. In a paralleled AC distribution system what regulates the real load ?
A) torque from the CSDU ( CSD ) .
B) filed excitation from the voltage regulator .
C) synchronizing circuits in the BTB .
D) a potentiometer on the flight engineer is panel .
7. When selected to 'KW' , the alternator load meter will indicate the :
A) total circuit load .
B) Realload.
C) reactive load .
D) current flowing in the filed .
8. If each phase of a three phase star wound system has a phase voltage of 115 volts , the voltage
obtained by bridging two phase would be :
A) 200 volts AC .
B) 173 volts DC .
C) 28 volts DC .
D) 173 volts AC .
9. An alternator normally used to supply an aircraft's power system would be :
A) Single phase .
B) Three phase .
C) Two phase .
D) Frequency wild .
10. To ensure correct load sharing between paralleled AC generators :
A) Both real and reactive loads should be balanced .
B) Actual loads should be the same .
C) Reactive loads should be the same .
D) The load impedance should be constant .
11. The load meter , upon selection to " KVAR " would indicate :
A) Total power available .
B) Reactive loads .
C) Active loads .
D) only DC resistive loads .
12. A constant frequency AC supply in an aircraft fitted with only frequency wild generators can be
provided by :
A) A rectifier .
B) An automatic transformer .
C) A ram air turbine .
D) An inverter .
13. Where the aircraft's main electrical supply is AC , DC requirements are met by :
A) Batteries .
B) TRUs.
C) Inverters .
D) A static inverter .
14. In normal operation , the split busbar AC system takes its DC supply from :
A) Two TRUs which are always isolated .
B) A battery which is supplied from N° 1 TRU only .
C) Two TRUs which are connected together by the isolation relay .
D) The static inverter .
15. If external power is plugged into an aircraft which utilises the split bus system of power distribution ,
then :
A) It will automatically parallel itself with any alternators already on line .
B) It will only supply non-essential AC consumers .
C) It will supply all the aircraft services.
D) Essential AC consumers will be supplied from the static inverter .
16. An auto-transformer :
A) Varied its turns ratio automatically to maintain a constant output voltage with varying input
voltage .
B) Has only one coil which is used as both primary and secondary .
C) Will maintain a constant output frequency with a varying supply frequency .
D) Requires an inductive supply .
17. A squirrel cage rotor :
A) Is not connected to the supply .
B) Is expensive to produce .
C) Rotates at exactly synchronous speed .
D) Is a closed circuit of high resistance .
 18. Synchronous motor runs at a speed that depends upon the supply :
A) Voltage.
B) Current.
C) Reactance.
D) Frequency.
19. A 3 phase induction motor uses :
A) A rotating filed created in the rotor .
B) A rotating filed created in the stator .
C) A stationary filed created in the stator .
D) A stationary filed created in the rotor .
20. A gate which requires that all inputs must be HIGH to obtain an output would be :
A) A 'NOR' gate .
B) An ' OR ' gate .
C) An ' AND ' gate .
D) A ' NOT ' gate .
21. The purpose of electrical bonding on aircraft is :
A) To directly earth the positive lead .
B) To prevent compass malfunctioning and to gather local static charges .
C) To isolate all components electrically and therefore make the static potential constant.
D) To provide a low resistance path for earth return circuits and safely dissipate local static
charges and lightning strikes .
22. An aircraft electrical circuit which uses the aircraft structure as a return path to earth , may be
defined as a :
A) Complete negative system .
B) Double pole circuit .
C) Semi-negative system .
D) Single pole or uni-pole circuit .
23. A bus-bar is :
A) The stator of a moving coil instrument .
B) A device which may only be used in DC circuits .
C) A distribution point for electrical power .
D) A device permitting operation of two or more switches together .
24. A generator cut-out is fitted to prevent :
A) The battery discharging through the generator windings .
B) The generator overcharging the battery .
C) Fire in the event of overloading the system .
D) Out of phasing
25. When the battery master switch is switched off in flight :
A) The generators are disconnected from the bus bar .
B) The battery is isolated from the bus bar .
C) The battery is discharged through the bonding circuit diodes.
D) The battery may overheat .
1- Engine is a machine in which the heat energy produced from air-fuel burning is transformed into
a- Chemical energy
b- Mechanical energy
c- Electrical energy
2- The force is characterized by
a- magnitude and direction
b- magnitude and point of application
c- magnitude, direction, and point of application
3- Momentum is the product of
a- Force by distance
b- Force by velocity
c- mass by velocity
4- The work is
a- scalar quantity
b- vector quantity
c- neither a nor b
5- For incompressible flow, the density is
a- Variable
b- constant
c- greater than that for compressible flow
6- The diffuser is
a- a divergent passage
b- a convergent passage
c- a divergent - convergent passage
7- The direction of the propulsive force (thrust) is
a- opposite to the exhaust flow direction
b- perpendicular to the exhaust flow direction
c- in the same direction as the exhaust flow
8- In jet engine, the burning process is
a- Intermittent
b- continuous
c- non continuous
9- In turbojet engine, the propulsive force is produced
a- mechanically
b- directly
c- either mechanically or directly
10- The jet engine works by reaction based on
a- Newton's first law
b- Newton's second law
c- Newton's third law
11- Behind the compressor , the pressure of the air
a- decrease
b- increase
c- remain the same
12- the combustion chamber is used to burn large amount of fuel with high pressure air to obtain
a-highttemprature gases
b- lowtemprature gases
c- low pressure gases
13- The turbine is the unit in which the thermal energy is changed into
a- pressure energy
b- electrical energy
c- mechanical work
14- The most common forms of compressor surge are ………………
a) High power surge.
b) Off-idle acceleration surges.
c) a & b
15- The types of combustion chamber……………………...
a) Multiple can type.
b) Can-annular type
c) a & b
16- The engine is a machine in which the heat energy released from fuel burning is transformed
Into…………………………….
a) Thermal energy.
b) Mechanical energy.
c) Potential energy
17 -the useful work in real cycle is……………
A) 40%.
b) 30%.
c) 50%.
18 -friction losses in real cycle losses is ………………..
A) 5%.
b) 25%.
c) 30%.
19 -……………In real cycle losses is 40%.
A) Cooling.
B) Exhaust gases.
c) Friction.
20- It is the ratio of break power to the indicated power…………
A) Volumetric efficiency.
B) Mechanical efficiency
C) Thermal efficiency.
21- It is the average pressure acting on the piston during the power stroke.
A) Compression ratio
B) Swept volume
C) Mean effective pressure
22- To increase the cycle work we use the …………………………
A) Super charge
B) compression ratio
C) piston displacement
23- The engine called reliable when it do the required work properly
A) Reliability
B) Durability
C) Compactness
24- The cylinder head produced from………………………..
A) AL Alloy
B) Alloy steel
C) Alloy cooper
25- The …………..ignition engines are the most used one in A/C engines
A) Spark
B) self
C) ram
26- the cylinders are arranged in single row on the crank case
A) Line – engines
B) V- type engines
C) opposite engines
27- Excessively high engine temperature will………………………………………….
A) Cause damage to heat – conducting hoses and warping of the cylinder cooling fins
B) Cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption and possible permanent internal
engine damage.
C) Not appreciably affect an air craft engine.
1- Aircraft air temperature thermometers are shielded to protect them from
A) Solar radiation .
B) Accidental physical damage on the ground or from hailstones in flight .
C) Airframe icing .
D) Kinetic heating .
2- What is SAT ?
A) Relative temperature measured in k .
B) Differential temperature measured in k .
C) Relative temperature measured in °C .
D) Ambient temperature measured in °C .
3- The difference between static air temperature and total air temperature is known as :
A) Corrected outside air temperature .
B) The ram rise .
C) The recovery factor .
D) The radiation factor .
4- The pressure measured at the forward facing orifice of a pitot tube is the :
A) Total pressure .
B) Static pressure .
C) Dynamic pressure .
D) Total pressure + static pressure .
5- If the pitot line becomes blocked in the descent, the ASI will indicate:
A) An increasing CAS.
B) A decreasing CAS.
C) A steady CAS.
D) Zero.
6- A vibrator may be fitted to an altimeter to overcome :
A) Friction.
B) Hysteresis.
C) Lag.
D) Pressure error.
7- An aircraft is passing 6500 ft in a decent when the static line becomes blocked . the altimeter then reads :
A) 6500 ft .
B) Less than 6500 ft .
C) More than 6500 ft .
D) Zero
8- Compared to the VSI what errors are eliminated by the IVSI ? :
A) Lag.
B) Tuming .
C) Pressure .
D) Temperature .
9- Mach number is defined as :
A) Ratio of TAS over LSS .
B) The ratio of static pressure over dynamic pressure .
C) The percentage of TAS to LSS at MSL .
D) The speed which will produce supersonic airflow over the aircraft .
10- What is the speed of sound at sea level ISA ? :
A) 644 kt .
B) 583 kt .
C) 1059 kt .
D) 661 kt .
11- What is the value of the angle of magnetic dip at the magnetic equator ? :
A) 0°.
B) 45° .
C) 90° .
D) 60° .
12- The detector unit of a remote indicating compass is normally :
A) Fixed in the vertical plane only .
B) Fixed in the azimuth .
C) Free in the vertical .
D) Free in the horizontal plane .
13- When , in flight , the needle and ball of a turn-and-slip indicator are on the right , the aircraft is tuming :
A) Right with not enough bank .
B) Left with not enough bank .
C) Left with too much bank .
D) Right with too much bank .
15- In a left turn while taxiing , the correct indications on a turn and slip indicator are :
A) Needle left , ball right .
B) Needle left , ball left .
C) Needle right , ball right .
D) Needle right, ball left .
16- What does the sensor of an INS/IRS measure ? :
A) Velocity .
B) Displacement .
C) Pressure .
D) Acceleration .
17- Which of the following equipments does not use information from external sources in flight ? :
A) INS/IRS .
B) Pressure altimeter .
C) Slaved gyro compass .
D) VOR .
18- INS can calculate and display which of the following information ? :
1. Present position .
2. Heading .
3. Drift .
4. Track .
5. Groundspeed .
6. Waypoint steering .
7. Desired track .
8. Distance to go .
9. Time to go .
10. Cross-track displacement .
11. Track error angle .
A) All except 9 and 11 .
B) All except 3 and 8 .
C) All except 10 and 11 .
D) All of them .
19- How long does alignment of an IRS (Ring laser gyro) normally take at mid-latitudes ?
A) 17 minutes.
B) 5 minutes .
C) 10 minutes
D) 2 minutes .
20- What frequency band is normally used in a Radio altimeter?
A) UHF
B) SHF .
C) VHF .
D) EHF .
21-Airspeed is shown:
A) Only on the captains EHSI .
B) On both EADIs .
C) On both EHSIs .
D) Only on the flight management CRT .
22- On receipt of a TCAS RA your action is to :
A) Initiate the required manoeuver immediately .
B) Make a note of the details .
C) Request a flight clearance deviation from ATC .
D) Do nothing until a TA is received .
23-GPWS , mode two operates between :
A) 50 FT AND 2450 FT AGL .
B) 50 ft and 1800 ftagl .
C) 50 ft and 700 ftagl .
D) 50 ft and 500 ftagl .
 24- QNH is defined as :
A) The airfield barometric pressure .
B) The setting that will give zero indication on the airfield .
C) The pressure at the airfield corrected to MSL in accordance with the ISA atmosphere .
D) The setting that will indicate airfield height .
25- CAS is IAS corrected for :
A) Position and instrument error .
B) Instrument, pressure and density error .
C) relative density only .
D) compressibility .
1. JAR legislation can be found in:
a. JAR OPS-1 subpart A
b. JAR OPS-1 subpart D
c. JAR OPS-1 subpart K
d. JAR OPS-1 subpart J
2. The mass and centre of gravity of an aircraft must be established by actual weighing:
a. by the pilot on entry of aircraft into service
b. by the engineers before commencingservice
c. by the operator prior to initial entry of aircraft intoservice
d. by the owner operator before the first flight of the day
3. The operator must establish the mass of the Traffic Load:
a. prior to initial entry into service
b. by actual weighing or determine the mass of the traffic load in accordance withstandard masses as
specified in JAR-OPS sub part J.
c. prior to embarking on the aircraft
d. by using an appropriate method of calculation as specified in the JAR Ops subpart J
4. The mass of the fuel load must be determined:
a. by the operator using actual density or by density calculation specified in theOperations Manual.
b. by the owner using actual density or by density calculation specified in JAR OPS - 1.
c. by the pilot using actual density or by density calculation specified in the OperationsManual.
d. by the fuel bowser operator using actual density or by density calculation specified inthe Fuelling
Manual.
5. The Dry Operating Mass is the total mass of the aeroplane ready for a specific type of operation and
includes:
a. Crew and passenger baggage, special equipment, water and chemicals.
B- Crew and their hold baggage, special equipment, water and contingency fuel.
c- Crew baggage, catering and other special equipment, potage water andlavatory chemicals.
d- Crew and baggage, catering and passenger service equipment, potable water andlavatory chemicals.
6. The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass is the maximum permissible mass of the aeroplane:
a. with no useable fuel
b. with no useable fuel unless the aeroplane flight manual limitations explicitly include it.
c. including the fuel taken up for take-off
d. including all useable fuel unless the Aeroplane Flight Operations Manual explicitlyexcludes it.
7. The distance from the datum to the CG is:
a. the index
b. the moment
c. the balance arm
d. the station
8. In mass and balance terms, what is an index?
a. A cut down version of a force
b. A moment divided by a constant
c. A moment divided by a mass
d. A mass divided by a moment
9. Standard masses for baggage can be used when:
a. 9 seats or more
b. 20 seats or more
c. 30 seats or more
d. less than 30 seats
10. the take-off distance of an aircraft is 800m in a standard atmosphere with no wind and at 0 ft
pressure altitude. Using the following corrections:
± 20 m / 1 000 ft field elevation
- 5 m / kt headwind
+ 10 m / kt tail wind
± 15 m / % runway slope
± 5 m / °C deviation from standard temperature
The take-off distance from an airport at 2 000 ft elevation, temperature 21°C, QNH
1013.25 hPa, 2% up-slope, 5kt tail wind is:
a. 810 m
b. 970 m
c. 890 m
d. 870 m
11. The result of a higher flap setting up to the optimum at take-off is:
a. a higher VR.
b. a longer take-off run.
c. a shorter ground roll.
d. an increased acceleration.
12. An airport has a 3,000 metres long runway, and a 2,000 meter clearway at each end of that
runway. For the calculation of the maximum allowed take-off mass, the take-off distance
available cannot be greater than:
a. 4,000 metres.
b. 3,000 metres.
c. 5,000 metres.
d. 4,500 metres.
13. Can a clearway be used in the accelerate stop distance calculations?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Only if the clearway is shorter than the stopway
d. Only if there is no clearway
14. Which class of aeroplane describes all multi-engine turbo-jet aeroplanes?
a. Unclassified.
b. Class C.
c. Class B.
d. Class A.
15. A four jet-enginedaeroplane whose mass is 150 000 kg is established on climb with engines
operating. The lift over drag ratio is 14:1. Each engine has a thrust of 75 000 Newtons.
The gradient of climb is: (given: g = 10 m/s².
a. 12.86%
b. 27%
c. 7.86%
d. 92%
16. Following a take-off determined by the 50 ft (15m) screen height, a light twin climbs on a 10%
ground gradient. It will clear a 900 m high obstacle situated at 10,000 m from the 50 ft clearing
point with an obstacle clearance of:
a. 85 m
b. It will not clear the obstacle
c. 115 m
d. 100 m
17. With an true airspeed of 194 kt and a vertical speed of 1,000 ft/min, the climb gradient is
approximately:
a. 3°
b. 3%
c. 5°
d. 8%
18. The maximum rate of climb that can be maintained at the absolute ceiling is:
a. 0 ft/min
b. 125 ft/min
c. 500 ft/min
d. 100 ft/min
19. For an aircraft maintaining 100 kt true airspeed and a climb gradient of 3.3% with no wind,
what would be the approximate rate of climb?
a. 3.30 m/s
b. 33.0 m/s
c. 330 ft/min
d. 3,300 ft/min
20. The pilot of a single engine aircraft has established the climb performance. The carriage of an
additional passenger will cause the climb performance to be:
a. Degraded
b. Improved
c. Unchanged
d. Unchanged, if a short field take-off is adopted.
21. Following a take-off to the 50 ft (15 m. screen height, a light twin climbs on a gradient of 5%.
It will clear a 160 m obstacle situated at 5,000 m from the 50 ft point with an obstacle clearance
margin of:
a. it will not clear the obstacle.
b. 105 m
c. 90 m
d. 75 m
22. A jet aeroplane is flying at the long range cruise speed at the optimum altitude. How does the
specific range / fuel flow change over a given time period?
a. Decrease / decrease.
b. Increase / decrease.
c. Increase / increase.
d. Decrease / increase.
23. A jet aeroplane is climbing at constant Mach number below the tropopause. Which of the
following statements is correct?
a. IAS decreases and TAS decreases.
b. IAS increases and TAS increases.
c. IAS decreases and TAS increases.
d. IAS increases and TAS decreases.
24. The pilot of a jet aeroplane wants to use a minimum amount of fuel between two airfields.
Which flight procedure should the pilot fly?
a. Maximum endurance.
b. Holding.
c. Long range.
d. Maximum range.
25. The stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is controllable in
landing configuration is abbreviated as:
a. VS1
b. VS
c. VMC
d. VSO
1. Where would you find information regarding Customs and Health facilities?
a. ATCC broadcasts
b. NOTAMs
c. NAV/RAD supplements
d. AIPs
2. Where would you find information regarding Search and Rescue procedures?
a. ATCC broadcasts
b. NOTAMs
c. SIGMETs
d. AIPs
3. Where may details of temporary Danger and Restricted Airspace be found?
a. SIGMETs
b. Aeronautical Information Circulars (AIC)
c. NOTAM and Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP)
d. ATCC
4. Where would you find information regarding Customs and Health facilities?
a ATCC broadcasts
b. NOTAMs
c. NAV/RAD supplememnts
d. AIPs
5. Where would you find information regarding Search and Rescue procedures?
a ATCC broadcasts
b. NOTAMs
c. SIGMETs
d. AIPs
6. What are the types of NOTAM?
a. Temporary, short-notice, permanent
b. A, B, C
c. NOTAMN, NOTAMR, NOTAMC
d. A, E, L
7. What is the purpose of Decision Point Procedure?
a. Carry minimum fuel to increase Traffic Load.
b. Increase safety of the flight.
c. Reduce landing mass to avoid stressing the aircraft.
d. Reduce contingency fuel to below that required from Decision Point to destination.
8. What are the reasons for the format of the ICAO Flight Plan?
a. The format is internationally agreed, is printed in two languages, usually English and the language of the
State concerned, to help ensure correct completion which is essential for electronic data transfer.
b. It is designed to fit into a standard pilot‟s bag, and have plenty of room for flight data.
c. The format ensures that minimum writing is required, to reduce pilot workload in flight.
d. The format is agreed between EC member states, for use in Europe only.
9. What is Decision Point Procedures?
It is a procedure to reduce the amount of fuel carried on a flight by:
a. Reducing contingency fuel from 10% to 5% of trip fuel.
b. Reducing contingency fuel to only that required from Decision Point to Destination
c. Reducing trip fuel to only that required from Decision Aerodrome to Destination.
d. Reducing trip distance
10. What is the purpose of Decision Point Procedure?
a. Carry minimum fuel to increase Traffic Load.
b. Increase safety of the flight.
c. Reduce landing mass to avoid stressing the aircraft.
d. To assist in decision making at refueling
 11. What is Total Elapsed Time on a VFR flight plan?
a. From take-off to overhead destination
b. From take-off to overhead destination + 15 mins
c. From take-off to landing
d. From taxi to arrival on the gate.
12. What is the temperature and dewpoint at 1420Z on the 27th?
a. No data given
b. Temperature +8°C Dewpoint +6°C Refer to SA for 1420z
c. Temperature -8°C Dewpoint -6°C
d. Temperature +10°C Dewpoint +12°C
13. What is the worst visibility you might experience when landing at 0200Z on the 28th?
a. No data given covering this period
b. 10 kilometres or more
c. 7 kilometres in light rain
d. 7000 metres in moderate rain
14. When filling in a flight plan, wake turbulence category is a function of?
a. Max certificated landing mass.
b. Max certificated take-off mass
c. Estimated landing mass
d. Estimated take-off mass
15. When submitting a flight plan before flight, departure time is?
a. Overhead the first reporting point
b. At which the aircraft leaves the parking area
c. Of take-off
d. At which flight plan is filed
16. When completing an IFR flight plan the “Total Elapsed Time” in item 16 is from….
a. take-off to overhead the destination airport
b. from first taxiing under own power until the IAF for destination airport
c. take-off to the IAF for the destination airport
d. take-off until landing at the destination airport.
20. Given : GS OUT = 178 GS HOME = 249
Distance A to B = 450 nm Endurance 3 hours
What is the distance to the Point of Safe Return from A?
a. 204 nm
b. 311 nm
c. 415 nm
d. 262 nm
21. In which document would you find information on known short-term unserviceabilityof
VOR, TACAN, and NDB?
a. NOTAM
b. Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP)
c. SIGMET
d. ATCC
22. In the event of a delay in excess of........ of ....... for a controlled flight, or a delay of ......... for an
uncontrolled flight for which a flight plan has been submitted, the flight plan should be
amended or a new flight plan submitted and the old plan cancelled, whichever is appropriate.
A. 30 minutes, Estimated Off Blocks Time, 3 hours
B. 30 minutes, planned take off time, 1 hour.
C. 60 minutes, planned take off time, 3 hours.
D. 30 minutes, EOBT, 1 hour.
23. In an ATS flight plan item 15 where either a route for which standard departure (SID) and a standard
arrival (STAR) are provided
a. SID should be entered but not STAR
b. Both should be entered
c. STAR should be entered but not SID
d. SID nor STAR should be entered
 24. In the Jeppesen SID, STARs & IAP directions are given as :
a. True Course/Track
b. Magnetic Course/Track
c. True Heading
d. Magnetic Heading
25. If a pilot lands at an aerodrome other than the destination specified in the flight plan, he must:
a. Ensure that all ATSUs which were addressees on the flight plan are notified of hislanding.
b. Ensure that the ATSU at the original destination is informed within 60 minutes.
c. Ensure that the ATSU at the original destination is informed within 30 minutes.
d. Report to ATC to apologise.
1. How is oxygen transported around the body?
a. By red blood cells combined with carbon dioxide
b. By red blood cells combined with nitrogen and water vapour
c. By red blood cells combined with haemoglobin
d. By red blood cells combined with nitrogen, hormones and plasma
2. How is the rate and depth of breathing controlled?
a. By the amount of oxyhaemoglobin in the blood and lungs
b. By the amount of haemoglobin in the blood and the lungs
c. By the amount of carbon monoxide and oxygen in the blood
d. By the amount of carbonic acid in the blood
3. The factor which most increases the risk of coronary heart disease is:
a. family history
b. lack of exercise
c. obesity
d. smoking
4. What is the carcinogenic content of a cigarette?
a. Nicotine
b. Tar
c. The type of tobacco
d. The wrapping
5. With an alveolar partial pressure of oxygen of 55 mm Hg, what is the maximum
altitude to breathe 100% oxygen without pressure?
a. 33 700 ft
b. 44 000 ft
c. 10 000 ft
d. 40 000 ft
6. What are the constituents of the atmosphere?
a. Oxygen 22% Nitrogen 77% Other gases 1%
b. Oxygen 22% Nitrogen 78% Other gases 2%
c. Oxygen 21% Nitrogen 78% Other gases 1%
d. Oxygen 22% Nitrogen 77% Other gases 1%
7. On 100% oxygen at 40 000 feet, what height in the atmosphere does the partial
pressure of oxygen in the alveoli equate to?
a. The same as at 20 000 ft
b. The same as at 10 000 ft
c. The same as at 25 000 ft
d. The same as at 30 000 ft
8. At what height is the partial pressure of oxygen in the lungs approximately half
that at sea level?
a. 10 000 ft
b. 25 000 ft
c. 30 000 ft
d. 18 000 ft
9. The outer, middle and inner ear are filled with:
a. Air Air Liquid
b. Air Liquid Liquid
c. Liquid Air Air
d. Liquid Liquid Air
10. What causes conductive deafness?
a. Damage to the outer ear
b. Damage to the pinna
c. Damage to the ossicles or the eardrum
d. Damage to the middle ear
11. What is noise induced hearing loss (NIHL)?
a. Loss of hearing due to damage to the ossicles
b. Loss of hearing due to damage to the vestibular apparatus
c. Loss of hearing due to damage to the middle ear
d. Loss of hearing due to damage to the cochlea
12. On what does NIHL depend?
a. Both the intensity and duration of the noise above 100 dB
b. The duration of the noise above 100 dB
c. The duration of the noise above 110 dB
d. Both the intensity and duration of the noise above 90 dB
13. What part of the eye bends the most light?
a. The cornea
b. The lens
c. The pupil
d. The retina
14. Which part of the eye has the best visual acuity?
a. The retina
b. The fovea
c. The lens
d. The cornea
15. The resolving power of the fovea decreases rapidly at only ..................... from its centre.
a. 5°
b. 13° to 16°
c. 3°
d. 2° to 3°
16. What causes long or short sightedness?
a. Presbyopia
b. Astigmatism
c. Distortion of the eyeball
d. Distortion of the cornea
17. Having successfully overcome a stressful situation once, how will the person react
if placed in the same or similar situation a second time?
a. There will be little difference
b. He/she will know what is ahead and be already in a stressful condition thus
stress will increase
c. He/she will feel more confident and therefore stress will reduce
d. It will depend on the individual
18. How is performance affected by over and under arousal?
a. It is improved
b. There is little difference
c. It is degraded
d. It will depend on the individual
19. What is the purpose of the “sympathetic” nervous system?
a. To control the emotional response under stressful conditions
b. To control the effects of adrenalin
c. To return the body to homeostasis after the “fight or flee” syndrome
d. To prepare the body for “fight or flight”
20. What part of the body is affected with the vibration in the 4 to 10 Hz frequency range?
a. The brain plus there will be a headache
b. The chest plus there will be an abdominal pain
c. The respiration plus pains in the chest
d. The pulse rate
1- At a certain position, the temperature on the 300 hPa chart is -48°C; according to the tropopause
chart, thetropopause is at FL 330 . What is the most likely temperature at FL 350?
a- -54 c
b- -50 c
c- -56.5 c
d- -58 c
2-The 0°C isotherm is forecast to be at FL 50 . At what FL would you expect a temperature of -6°C?
a . FL 80
b . FL 20
c . FL 100
d . FL 110
3- What is the boundary layer between troposphere and stratosphere called?
a .Tropopause .
b .Ionosphere .
c .Stratosphere .
d .Atmosphere .
4- The temperature at FL 110 is -5°C. What will the temperature be at FL 50 if the ICAO standard
lapse rate is applied?
a . +3°C
b . 0°C
c. -3°C
d . +7°C
5- The lowest assumed temperature in the ICAO Standard Atmosphere is :
a. -273°C
b. -44.7°C
c. -100°C
d. -56.5°C
6- The 850 hPa pressure level can vary in height In temperate regions which of the following average
heights is applicable?
a- FL100
b- FL 300
c- FL 390
d- FL 50
7- The station pressure used in surface weather charts is
a- QNE
b- QFF
c- QFE
d- QNH
8- A 700 hPa pressure level can vary in height In temperate regions which of the following average
heights is applicable?
a- FL 180
b- FL 300
c- FL 390
d- FL 100
9- What positions are connected by isobars on the surface weather chart?
a- Positions with the same relative pressure heights
b- Positions with the same air pressure at a given level
c- Positions with the same temperature at a given level
d- Positions with the same wind velocity at a given level
10- When planning a flight at FL 110, which upper wind and temperature chart would be nearest your
flight level?
a- 700 hPa
b- 850 hPa
c- 300 hPa
d- 500 hPa
11- The vertical extent of the friction layer depends primarily on
a. roughness of surface, temperature, local time
b. temperature, local time, environmental lapse rate
c. stability, wind speed, roughness of surface
d. wind speed, roughness of surface, temperature
12. Low level wind shear is likely to be greatest
a. at the top of a marked surface-based inversion.
b. at the condensation level when there is no night radiation.
c. at the condensation level when there is strong surface friction.
d. at the top of the friction layer.
13- Low level vertical wind shear can be expected during the night
a. in association with radiation inversions
b. in unstable atmospheres
c. and early morning only in winter
d. and early morning only in summer
14- A wide body aircraft takes off on a clear night in Dhahran, Saudi Arabia. Shortly after take off the
aircraft‟s rate of climb drops to zero. This can be due to
a. very pronounced downdrafts
b. low relative humidity
c. a very strong temperature inversion
d. sand/dust in the engines
15- What is normally the most effective measure to reduce or avoid CAT effects?
a. Change of flight level.
b. Change of course.
c. Increase of speed.
d. Decrease of speed.
16- In which zone of a jet stream is the strongest CAT to be expected?
a. The warm air side of the core.
b. Exactly in the centre of the core.
c. About 12000 FT above the core.
d. The cold air side of the core.
17- What units are used to report vertical wind shear?
a. kt.
b. m/100 FT.
c. m/sec.
d. kt/100 FT.
18- At the top of orographic waves, in mountainous regions, the cloud most likely to be encountered is
a. cirrus.
b. cumulus mediocris.
c. altocumulus lenticularis.
d. cirrostratus.
19- All pilots encountering Clear Air Turbulence are requested to report it. You experience CAT which
causes passengers and crew to feel definite strain against their seat belt or shoulders straps. Unsecured
objects are dislodged. Food service and walking are difficult. This intensity of CAT should be reported as
a. severe
b. extreme
c. moderate
d. light
20- Under which of the following conditions is the most severe CAT likely to be experienced?
a. A westerly jet stream at low latitudes in the summer
b. A straight jet stream near a low pressure area
c. A curved jet stream near a deep trough
d. A jet stream, with great spacing between the isotherms
21- Flying conditions in Ci cloud and horizontal visibility
a. Less than 500m vis, light/mod clear icing
b. Greater than 1000m vis, light/mod rime ice
c. Less then 500m vis, no icing
d. Greater than 1000m vis, no icing
22- What is the composition of Ci cloud?
a. Super cooled water droplets
b. Ice crystals
c. Water droplets
d. Smoke particles
23- What cloud types are classified as medium cloud?
a. Ns + Sc
b. Ac + As
c. Cb + St
d. Ci + Cs
24- In a Tropical Downpour the visibility is sometimes reduced to:
a. 1000m
b. 500m
c. 200m
d. less than 100m
25-Which of the following clouds may extend into more than one layer?
a. Stratus.
b. Altocumulus.
c. Cirrus.
d. Nimbostratus.
26- Which cloud would produce showers?
a. NS
b. AS
c. CS
d. CB
27- When would you mostly likely get fair weather Cu?
a. 15:00
b. 12:00
c. 17:00
d. 07:00
28- What is the base of alto cumulus in summer?
a. 0 - 1500‟
b. 1500 - 7000‟
c. 7000‟ - 15000‟
d. 7000‟ - 16500‟
29- When a CC layer lies over a West European plane in summer, with a mean terrain height of 500 m above
sea level, the average cloud base could be expected
a. 0- 100 ft above ground level
b. 5000 - 15000 ft above ground level
c. 15 000 - 25 000 ft above ground level
d. 15 000 - 35 000 ft above ground level
30- Which of the following cloud types can stretch across all three cloud levels (low, medium and high level)?
a. CI
b. ST
c. AC
d. CB
1. The value of variation:
a. is zero at the magnetic equator
b. has a maximum value of 180°
c. has a maximum value of 45° E or 45° W
d. cannot exceed 90°
2. The angle between True North and Magnetic north is known as:
a. deviation
b. variation
c. alignment error
d. dip
8. The maximum difference between mean noon (1200LMT) and real/apparent noon occurs in________?
a. January/July
b. March/September
c. November/February
d. December/June
9. The maximum difference between Mean Time and Apparent Time is:
a. 21 minutes
b. 16 minutes
c. 30 minutes
d. there is no difference
10. „The Calendar Year and the Tropical Year are of different lengths. The difference is adjusted partly by
using leap years every fourth calendar year. However, some years are not designated as leap years‟. Which of
the following years will be a leap year?
a. 2001
b. 2100
c. 2300
d. 2400
13. Compass swings should be carried out:
a. on the apron.
b. only on the compass swinging base or site.
c. at the holding point.
d. on the active runway.

17. What is the approximate compression of the Earth?

a. 3%
b. 0.03%
c. 0.3%
d. 1/3000
20. What is a line of equal magnetic variation?
a. An isocline
b. An isogonal
c. An isogriv
d. An isovar
1- All parallels, with the exception. of the equator are ……….
A- great circles
B- arcs of great circles
C- small circles
2- The measurement of angular distance north and south of the equator expressed in degrees is ……….
A- parallels
B- longitude
C- latitude
3- All meridians of longitude are ……….
A- converge to the pole
B- semi small circles
C- parallel to each other
4- All meridians of longitude are arcs of ……….
A- great circles
B- small scale
C- small circles
5- The amount of separation between two points is ……….
A- altitude
b– distance
c- direction
6- The position of one point in space relative to another is called ………..
A- direction
B- distance
C- speed
7- The ………. of a line can be expressed as the angle it forms as it crosses a meridian.
A- position
B- magnetic direction
C- true direction
8- The reciprocal direction of 020 ……….
A- 180
B- 002
C- 200
9- The direction of the longitudinal axe of the a/c during flying is called……….
A- bearing
B- heading
C- track.
10- The angular difference between the heading of the a/c: and its track is called ………. angle
A- drift
B- wind
C- variation
11- ………. cuts all meridians in equal angles.
A- Track
B- Rhumb line course
C- Great circle course
12- ………. is the shorts distance between any two points on the earth surface.
A- Track
B- Rhumb line course
C- Great circle course
13- The angular difference between the true north direction, and magnetic north direction at specified point
is ……….
A- drift
B- deviation
C- variation
14- The lines drown on the charts join points of equal variation is ………. lines.
A- drift
B- isotach
C- isogonic
15- If magnetic heading 100, variation 5 east, then true heading equal ……….
A- 095
B- 100
C- 105
16- Dip angle equal zero at ……….
A- true north pole
B- magnetic north pole
C- magnetic equator
17- Meridians of longitude appear on lambert chart as ………. lines
A- cutting
B- carved
C- straight
18- Parallels of latitude appear on lambert chart as ………. lines
A- cutting
B- carved
C- straight
19- Small scale charts represents ……….
A- large area
B- small area
C- small circle
20- Which of the following chart scales is the smallest scale?
A- 1 : 100 000
B- 1 : 2 000 000
C- 1 : 1 000 000
21- Which of the following chart scales is the largest scale?
A- 1 : 250 000
B- 1 : 1 000 000
C- 1 : 500 000
22- Head wind component means ……….
A- G/S TAS equals to G/S
B- G/S less than TAS
C- TAS less than
23- G/S greater than T.A.S, that results from ……….
A- head wind component
B- extremely cross wind component
C- tail wind component.
24- A/C flies with 400 k G/S, then the distance flown in 6 min will be ……….
A- 12 nm
B- 20 nm
C- 40 nm
25- A/C G/S 200 k, then 10 nm will be flown in ……….
A- 2 min
B- 3 min
C- 6 min
26- If drift angle is 5°L, and TRK 030°, then HDG is ……….
A- 035°
B- 025°
C- 030°
27- Fuel consumption = 150 L/ hr, time = 10 minutes fuel consumed will be ……….
A- 25 L
B- 15 L
C- 50 L
28- TRK 030°, W/V is 030°/40, and TAS 200 kts what is the G/S?
A-160 kts
B- 200 kts
C-240 kts
29- An aircraft of T.A.S. 250k is flying from A to B on Tr 150º, and distance of 300 NM. The W/V is 330º/30 k.
The distance to critical point will be ……….
A-150 NM
B- 132 NM
C-168 NM
30- You are flying from A to B, which is a required track of 045°. You find that your position is 80 nm
outbound from A and 4 NM left of the required track. What is your track made good?
A-045°
B- 048°
C-042°
1. The speed of radio waves is:
a. 300 km per second
b. 300 million metres per second
c. 162 nm per second
d. 162 million nm per second
2. An aircraft carrying out an ILS approach is receiving stronger 150 Hz signals than 90 Hz signals. The
correct actions to be taken to place the aircraft on the centreline and on the glidepath are to fly:
a. DOWN and LEFT.
b. UP and LEFT
c. UP and RIGHT.
d. DOWN and RIGHT.
3. An aircraft tracking to intercept the ILS localiser inbound on the approach side but outside the published
coverage angle:
a. will receive false on-course or reverse sense signals.
b. will not normally receive signals.
c. will receive signals without coding.
d. can expect signals to give correct indications
4. The frequency band containing the frequency corresponding to 29.1 cm is:
a. HF
b. VHF
c. SHF
d. UHF
5. The phase of the reference wave is 110° as the phase of the variable wave is 315°. What is the phase
difference?
a. 205°
b. 025°
c. 155°
d. 335°
6. Each NDB has a range promulgated in the COMM section of the Air Pilot. Within this range interference
from other NDBs should not cause bearing errors in excess of:
a. day ± 5
b. night ± 10
c. day ± 6
d. night ± 5
7. EGNOS is:
a. the proposed European satellite navigation system
b. a LAAS
c. a WAAS
d. a system to remove errors caused by the difference between the model of the earth and
the actual shape of the earth
8. It is intended to increase the range of a VHF transmitter from 50 nm to 100 nm.
This will be achieved by increasing the power output by a factor of:
a. 2
b. 8
c. 16
d. 4
9. For a VOR and a DME beacon to be said to be associated the aerial separation must not exceed_______ in
a terminal area and _______ outside a terminal area.
a. 100 m 2000 m
b. 50 feet 200 feet
c. 30m 600m
d. 50 m 200 m
10. NAVSTAR/GPS operates in the band the receiver determines position by:
a. UHF, range position lines
b. UHF, secondary radar principles
c. SHF, secondary radar principles
d. SHF, range position lines
11. Using differential GNSS for a non-precision approach, the height reference is:
a. barometric
b. GNSS
c. radio
d. radio or GNSS
12. Which positions can be input to the FMC using a maximum of 5 alpha-numerics?
a. SIDS& STARS, reporting points and airways designators
b. Navigation facilities, reporting points and airways designators
c. SIDS& STARS and latitude and longitude
d. Latitude and longitude, reporting points and airways designators
13. What is the minimum height for an aircraft at a range of 200 nm to be detected by a radar at1600 ftamsl?
a. 25,500 ft
b. 15,000 ft
c. 40,000 ft
d. 57,500 ft
14. What is the theoretical maximum range that an aircraft at flight level 360 will obtain from a VOR beacon
situated at 900 feet above mean sea level?
a. 274 nms
b. 255 nms
c. 112 nms
d. 224 nms
15. The period of validity of the navigational database is:
a. 28 days
b. 1 month
c. determined by the national authority and may be from 28 days to 91 days
d. 91 days
1- 300,000 Km/Sec is ……….
A- Radio wave speed
B- the speed of sound
C- Mach No
2- ………. is one complete series of osc illation
A- Frequency
B- Amplitude
C- Cycle
3- Frequency is the number of cycles occurring in ……….
A- one NM
B- one min
C- one second
4- ………. is the distance traveled by radio wave in the time of one cycle
A- Phase difference
B- Wave length
C- Cycle
5- ………. is the position of a cycle at any instant of time
A- period
B- frequency
C- phase
6- If frequency = 200 KHz, then wave length will be ……….
A- 1500 M
B- 150 M
C- 15 KM
7- Direction finding aids using ……….
A- loops system
B- doppler Shift
C- navigation System
8- ADF means ……….
A- aerodrome direction finder
B- automatic direction finder
C- air direction finding
9- 960 -1215 MHz is the frequent range of ……….
A- LOC
B- ADF
C- DME
10- 200 -1799 KHz the frequency range of ……….
A- LOC
B- ADF
C- DME
11-.108.0 - 117.95 MHz the frequency range of ……….
A- TACAN
B- GS
C- VOR
12- 328.6 - 335.4 MHz is the frequency of ……….
A- TACAN
B- GS
C- VOR
13- VOR MEANS very high frequency ……….
A- omni direction rang
B- open rang
C- omni range
14- The VOR rang depend on ………. of the a/c.
A- G/S
B- height
C- TAS
15- The radius of confusion of the VOR is ……….
A- 8nm, 5000ft
B- 4nm, 3000ft
C- 5nm, 6000ft
16- The accuracy of VOR should be ……….
A- ± 6degrees
B- ± 3degrees
C- ± 5degrees
17- The disadvantage of VOR is affected by ……….
A- line of sight
B- night
C- weather
 18- ………. displays the A/C heading and magnetic BRG to navigation aid.
A- RMI
B- Compass
C- HIS
19- DME means ……….
A- distance measuring equivalent
B- distance measuring equipment
C- detection meter equipment
20- The bearing that is indicated on the RMI is ……….
A- relative
B- true
C- magnetic
21-.In order to plot the bearing that be gotten on the RMI, you must apply the ……….
A- drift correction
B- drift angle
C- variation correction
22- ILS means ……….
A- instrument landing station
B- intensity local system
C- instrument landing system
1- THE MEL is drawn up by the:
a- manufacture.
b- state of registration.
c- operator
d- state of design.
2- ICAO annex 6 deals with:
a- certificate of registration.
b- aircraft maintenance.
c- certificate of airworthiness.
d- operation of aircraft
3- Which of the following statements is true regarding DA?
1- decision altitude is referenced to MSL.
2- A specified height in the precision approach to a runway at which a missed approach must be
initiated if the required established.
a- 1 only
b- Both 1 and 2.
c- 2 only.
d- Neither 1 nor 2.
4- Which of the following is the responsibility of the operator?
1- The operator must establish and maintain an accident prevention and training and safety
program.
2- The operator must ensure that its pilots in command have available on board the aero plane all
essential information concerning the search and rescue survives in those areas over which aero plane
will be flown, this information may be made available by means of an operations manual.
a- 2 only.
b- 1 and 2
c- Neither 1 nor 2.
d- 1 only.
5- To whom does the first part of JAR-OPS apply?
a- Operators over flying Europe.
b- Government and military air transport operators.
c- International civil air transport operators.
d- commercial air transport operator
6-During the time the aer plane is in the air, the operator is required to retain what document on the ground?
a- ATC flight plane.
b- Journey logbook.
c- Met information.
d- Operational flight plane
7- When an emergency arises, the pilot in command shall notify the appropriate authority ……………………
and may required to submit a report to ATC director………………………
a- Within 7 days ……. Within 10 days.
b- within 10 days…….within 10 days.
c- immediately……..within 10 days
d- immediately…….within 7 days .
8- Which of the following must an aero plane carry?
1- operations manual.
2- training manual.
3- flight manual.
4- current and suitable charts to cover the route of the proposed flight.
a- 2,3 and 4.
b- 1,3 and 4
c- 1,2 and 3.
d- 1,2 and 4.
9- A portable electronic device can be used:
a- when it does not adversely affect the performance of the aero plane systems.
b- when the captain agrees .
c- when the operator agrees.
d- all the answers are correct
10- MEL stands for:
a- minimum equipment list
b- maximum equipment list.
c- minimum equipment loading.
d- maximum equipment loading .
11- A JAA operator may lease-in aero planes at short notice from an operator from outside the JAA for a
maximum of:
a- 5 consecutive flights.
b- 5 consecutive days
c- 5 consecutive weeks.
d- 5 consecutive months.
12- Who shall provide the flight operations with the operations manual and also issue the amendments to
keep it up to date?
a- aircraft operator
b- aircraft producer.
c- Owner of the aircraft.
d- ATS authority of the state registry.
13- Where is the general information about the carriage of the dangerous goods be found?
a- Aircraft flight notes.
b- AIC.
c- Journey log book.
d- operations manual
14- The aero plane must comply with the mass limitations for:
1- Takeoff.
2- En-route-one power units inoperative.
3- En-route-tow power units inoperative
4- En-route-three power units inoperative.
5- Landing.
a- all are true except 1.
b- all are true except 2.
c- all are true except 4
d- all statements are true.
15- The flight deck door should be capable of:
a- locked from within the compartment
b- Directly locked from outside the compartment.
c- Remotely locked by cabin crew operation from outside the compartment.
d- Remotely locked from either inside or outside of the compartment.
16- What is minimum RVR for CAT III c approach?
a- 75m.
b- No minimum
c- 50m.
d- 100m.
17- A category c aircraft will have VAT:
a- From 121 knots to 140 knots
b- From 91 knots to 120 knots.
c- From 141 knots to 165 knots.
d- From 166 knots to 210 knots.
18- A category B aircraft will have VAT:
a- From 91 knots to 120 knots
b- From 121 knots to 140 knots.
c- From 141 knots to 165 knots.
d- From 166 knots to 210 knots.
19- Oxygen shall be supplied for all crew and some passengers above which altitude?
a- 13000 ft.
b- 12000ft.
c- 10000 ft
d- 11000ft.
20- Above what height must equipment to measure the dose rate of cosmic radiation be carried?
a- 55000 ft.
b- 30000 ft.
c- 50000 ft.
d- 49000 ft
21- When are the live jackets required?
a- 50 nm from land.
b- 100 nm from land.
c- 300 nm from land.
d- 400 nm from land.
22- Break-in points are painted in:
a- White or red.
b- Black and yellow.
c- Red or yellow
d- Yellow or white.
23- For an aircraft with 200 passengers how many first aid kits must be carried?
a- 1.
b- 2.
c- 3
d- 4.
24- Maintenance records must be kept for a period of:
a- 60 days.
b- 90 days
c- 3 months.
d- 6 months.
25-The takeoff alternate is to be located within which distance for a 2 engined aircraft?
a- 1 hour with one engine operating .
b- 1 hour with both engines operating.
c- 2 hours with 1 engine operating.
d- 2 hours with 2 engines operating.

26- After obtaining an oceanic ATC clearance, the pilot should pass the revised estimate for oceanic
entry if this changed by:
a- 3 mins or more
b- 2 mins or more.
c- 5 mins or more.
d- 10 mins or more.
27- For flights subjected to ATFM flight plan must be submitted at least:
a- 1 hour before EOBT for controlled flights.
b- 1 hour before EOBT for uncontrolled flights.
c- 3 hours before EOBT
d- 1 hour before takeoff.
28- In the EUR region, ATC must be informed when the Mach number changes by more than:
a- 0.01 mach
b- 0.02 mach.
c- 0.1 mach.
d- 0.05 mach.
29- you are flying in the MNPSA and in the event of communication failure are required to climb or
descend 500 ft when:
a- Above fl 410.
b- Below fl 410
c- At fl 410.
d- None of the alternatives are correct.
30- Who makes MMEL?
a- The authority.
b- The operator.
c- The state of registry.
d- The manufacturer must be approved by the state of certification
31- Anti-icing hold over times is affected by:
1- Ambient temperature.
2- Temperature of the skin.
3- Type and intensity of precipitation.
4- Relative humidity.
5- Wind speed and direction.
a- 1,2,3,5.
b- 1,3,5.
c- All statements are correct
d- 2,3,4.
32- Which habitat is the least favorable for birds?
a- Long grass
b- Rubbish tips.
c- Short grass cut by gang mowers.
d- Areas that flood.
33- On what type of fire would you use a CO2 extinguisher?
a- A fire involving electricity
b- Paper.
c- Hydrocarbon.
d- Plastic.
34- How should fireman approach a heavy aircraft that has an aborted takeoff?
a- From the side.
b- Not at all (don’t approach).
c- From any angle.
d- From the front/rear
35- Oxygen should be used after rapid decompression in an emergency descends until what altitude?
a- 13000 ft.
b- 10000 ft
c- 14000 ft.
d- 15000 ft.
36- An aero plane suffers cabin decompression at 31000 ft, what is the crew’s initial reaction?
a- Put” fasten seat belts” sign on.
b- Don oxygen masks
c- Disconnect autopilot.
d- Declare “mayday”.
37- Gradual decompression is caused by:
1- Window leak.
2- Door leak.
3- Window blown.
4- Emergency escape hatch open.
a- 1,2
b- 1,2,3,4.
c- 1,3.
d- 3,4.
38- When a flight has been unlawfully interfered with, the PIC is required to inform:
1- The state of operator.
2- ICAO.
3- The state of registration of the aircraft.
4- JAA.
a- 1,3,4.
b- 1,2,3
c- 2,3,4.
d- All statements are correct.
 39- Procedures for evacuation are detailed in which document?
a- Operational flight pal.
b- Journey log book.
c- Operating manual.
d- Operations manual
1- Dynamic pressure is proportional to the square of the __________ .
a) speed
b) pressure
c) density

2- RAS = IAS + ………….

a) CEC (Compressibility Error Correction)
b) EAS (Equivalent Air Speed)
c) PEC (Pressure Error Correction)

3- Mach no.= ………………..

a) Velocity / acceleration
b) TAS / sound speed
c) A/C speed / airflow speed

4- The point, usually on the chord line, through which the total reaction of lift may be considered to act, is
called …..
a) CP
b) CG
c) LE

5- The layer nearest the surface is known as the ……………….

a) stratosphere
b) troposphere
c) mesosphere

6- ________is caused by the downward pull of gravity.

a) Lift
b) weight
c) drag

7- As density decreases, pressure will _________.

a) increase
b) decrease
c) be the same

8- Distance between CP and CG causing a ________ moment.

a) pitching
b) yawing
c) rolling

9- The distance between the leading and trailing edge is called ……….
a) moment arm
b) CG margin
c) chord length
10- The t/c ratio = ………… /…………….

a) Thickness / camber
b) torque / chord length
c) max. thickness / chord length
11- An airplane always _____ when the critical angle of attack is exceeded.
a) be stabilized
b) stalls
c) be in equilibrium

12- The tendency to stall first at the wing root is a ________ characteristic.
a) good
b) bad
c) worthless

13- as angle of attack increases, the lift will _______

a) increase
b) decrease
c) be the same

14- total lift depends on :

a) airspeed
b) angle of attack
c) both

15- High lift devices _______ the stalling speed.

a) increase
b) decrease
c) doesn't affect

16- ground effect is a phenomenon causing the induced drag to ____

a) increase
b) decrease
c) be the same

17- As aspect ratio increases, lift will _______.

a) increase
b) decrease
c) be the same

18- as speed increases, parasite drag ________

a) increases
b) decreases
c) be the same
 19- _____ is the angle formed by the wing chord line and A/C longitudinal axis.

a) incidence angle
b) angle of attack
c) dihedral angle

20- ________is retarding force which limits the speed of the aircraft.
a) Lift
b) weight
c) drag

21- As humidity decreases, density will _________.

a) increase
b) decrease
c) be the same

22- in level flight, if the weight decreased, speed must be ____ (at a constant angle of attack)

a) increased
b) decreased
c) the same

1- The definition of the DISTRESS condition is that:

a. there is concern for the safety of the aircraft or a person on board or other vehicle
but there is no need for immediate assistance
b. the aircraft is in imminent danger and requires immediate assistance
c. the aircraft has crashed
d. the aircraft is being hi-jacked
2- The words preceding an URGENCY message should be:
a. Urgency UrgencyUrgency
b. Pan PanPanPanPanPan
c. Pan PanPan
d. Mayday MaydayMayday
3- The Q code on which height is based on:
a. QNH
b. QFF
c. QFE
d. QUJ
4- The frequency on which ATIS can be found is
a. Discrete VHF or VOR frequency
b. Discrete VHF only
c. VOR frequency only
d. any ATC frequency
5- The call from an aircraft for a missed approach is:
a. OVERSHOOTING
b. TOUCH AND GO
c. GOING AROUND
d. ABORTING
7 When asking for a repeat of a message, you should say:
a. WORDS TWICE
b. REPEAT MESSAGE
c. SPEAK SLOWER
d. SAY AGAIN
8- When reporting a frequency the use of the word “DECIMAL” can be omitted:
a. When there is no likelihood of confusion
b. After the initial call
c. Never
d. By the ground station only
9 -The selection of the code 7600 on a transponder indicates:
a. loss of comms
b. distress
c. urgency
d. hi-jacking
10 -If you are unable to contact a station on a designated frequency you should:
a. try a another appropriate frequency
b. start transmitting blind
c. land at the nearest suitable aerodrome
d. transmit words twice
11 -The best signals for VHF communications are obtained when the position of the
aircraft is at:
a. high altitude at long range
b. high altitude and in the vicinity of the aerodrome
c. low altitude and short range
d. low level and long range
12 -The callsign of a station controlling surface vehicles in the manoeuvring area would be:
a. TOWER
b. CLEARANCE
c. GROUND
d. APRON
13 -The instruction “ORBIT” from ATC means that the aircraft should:
a. carry out a go around
b. continue with 360 degree turns
c. carry out one 360 degree turn only
d. reverse the direction of the turn
14-The time given in aeronautical communications is:
a. Local mean time
b. in minutes only
c. UTC
d. daylight saving time
15- Clearance limit is defined as:
a. the flight level to which an aircraft is granted ATC clearance
b. the time at which the ATC clearance expires
c. the point to which aircraft is granted ATC clearance
d. the height below which you will hit the first obstacle
16 -The term “DISREGARD” means:
a. Ignore
b. Cancel the last clearance
c. You have not been cleared
d. Pay no attention to what I say
17- The response to general call from ATC is for the aircraft to:
a. respond in alphabetic order
b. respond in numerical order
c. give no response
d. request a repeat of the message
18- Readability 2 means that your transmission is:
a. readable but with difficulty
b. readable
c. readable now and then
d. two way communications have been established
19- . The procedure to be followed in the event of communications failure after departure for
an aircraft receiving radar vectors is to:
a. maintain the last cleared level and speed for 20 minutes and then continue with
the flight plan
b. hold cleared level for 7 minutes and then continue in accordance with the
current flight plan
c. land at the nearest suitable aerodrome
d. make a ninety degree turn and depart controlled airspace
20- The definition of the instruction “MONITOR …” is:
a. listen out on frequency
b. establish communications on frequency
c. watch out for visual signals on frequency
d. you are being watched
21. How does ATC report RVR?
a. In kilometres along the final approach
b. In metres at touchdown, midpoint and stop end of runway
c. In nautical miles along the runway
d. In feet and inches
22. What cannot be left out from a position report?
a. Call sign, Flight level and Time
b. Call sign, Position and Time
c. Position, Time, Flight level, Next position and ETA
d. Your signature
23. The phrase “BRAKING COEFFICIENT 20” from ATC means that the braking action is:
a. poor
b. medium to poor
c. medium
d. slippery
24. If you make a mistake in transmission you should use the phrase:
a. CORRECTION
b. CORRECT
c. I SAY AGAIN
d. SORRY
26. An example of a general call is:
a. STOP IMMEDIATELY I SAY AGAIN STOP IMMEDIATELY
b. BRAKING ACTION UNRELIABLE
c. ALL STATIONS
d. GOOD DAY
27. The frequency 121.5 MHz is the:
a. international flight safety frequency
b. one way air to ground emergency frequency
c. international emergency frequency
d. air to air chat frequency
1-At a certain position, the temperature on the 300 hPa chart is -48°C; according to the tropopause
chart, the tropopause is at FL 330 . What is the most likely temperature at FL 350?
a- -54 c
b- -50 c
c- -56.5 c
d- -58 c
2-The 0°C isotherm is forecast to be at FL 50. At what FL would you expect a temperature of -6°C?
a . FL 80
b . FL 20
c . FL 100
d . FL 110
3- What is the boundary layer between troposphere and stratosphere called?
a .Tropopause .
b .Ionosphere .
c .Stratosphere .
d .Atmosphere .
4- The temperature at FL 110 is -5°C. What will the temperature be at FL 50 if the ICAO standard
lapse rate is applied?
a . +3°C
b . 0°C
c. -3°C
d . +7°C
5- The lowest assumed temperature in the ICAO Standard Atmosphere is :
a. -273°C
b. -44.7°C
c. -100°C
d. -56.5°C
6- The 850 hPa pressure level can vary in height In temperate regions which of the following average
heights is applicable?
a- FL100
b- FL 300
c- FL 390
d- FL 50
7- The station pressure used in surface weather charts is
a- QNE
b- QFF
c- QFE
d- QNH
8- At the top of orographic waves, in mountainous regions, the cloud most likely to be encountered is

a. cirrus.
b. cumulus mediocris.
c. altocumulus lenticularis.
d. cirrostratus.
9- What positions are connected by isobars on the surface weather chart?
a- Positions with the same relative pressure heights
b- Positions with the same air pressure at a given level
c- Positions with the same temperature at a given level
d- Positions with the same wind velocity at a given level
10- When planning a flight at FL 110, which upper wind and temperature chart would be nearest your
flight level?
a- 700 hPa
b- 850 hPa
c- 300 hPa
d- 500 hPa
11- The vertical extent of the friction layer depends primarily on
a. roughness of surface, temperature, local time
b. temperature, local time, environmental lapse rate
c. stability, wind speed, roughness of surface
d. wind speed, roughness of surface, temperature
12. Low level wind shear is likely to be greatest
a. at the top of a marked surface-based inversion.
b. at the condensation level when there is no night radiation.
c. at the condensation level when there is strong surface friction.
d. at the top of the friction layer.
13- Low level vertical wind shear can be expected during the night
a. in association with radiation inversions
b. in unstable atmospheres
c. and early morning only in winter
d. and early morning only in summer
14- A wide body aircraft takes off on a clear night in Dhahran, Saudi Arabia. Shortly after take off the
aircraft‟s rate of climb drops to zero. This can be due to
a. very pronounced downdrafts
b. low relative humidity
c. a very strong temperature inversion
d. sand/dust in the engines
15- What is normally the most effective measure to reduce or avoid CAT effects?
a. Change of flight level.
b. Change of course.
c. Increase of speed.
d. Decrease of speed.
16- In which zone of a jet stream is the strongest CAT to be expected?
a. The warm air side of the core.
b. Exactly in the centre of the core.
c. About 12000 FT above the core.
d. The cold air side of the core.
17- What units are used to report vertical wind shear?
a. kt.
b. m/100 FT.
c. m/sec.
d. kt/100 FT.
18- At the top of orographic waves, in mountainous regions, the cloud most likely to be encountered is
a. cirrus.
b. cumulus mediocris.
c. altocumulus lenticularis.
d. cirrostratus.
19- All pilots encountering Clear Air Turbulence are requested to report it. You experience CAT which
causes passengers and crew to feel definite strain against their seat belt or shoulders straps. Unsecured
objects are dislodged. Food service and walking are difficult. This intensity of CAT should be reported as
a. severe
b. extreme
c. moderate
d. light
20- Under which of the following conditions is the most severe CAT likely to be experienced?
a. A westerly jet stream at low latitudes in the summer
b. A straight jet stream near a low pressure area
c. A curved jet stream near a deep trough
d. A jet stream, with great spacing between the isotherms
21- Flying conditions in Ci cloud and horizontal visibility
a. Less than 500m vis, light/mod clear icing
b. Greater than 1000m vis, light/mod rime ice
c. Less then 500m vis, no icing
d. Greater than 1000m vis, no icing
22- What is the composition of Ci cloud?
a. Super cooled water droplets
b. Ice crystals
c. Water droplets
d. Smoke particles
23- Fallstreaks or virga are?

a. strong katabatic winds in mountainous areas and accompanied by heavy precipitation

b. water or ice particles falling out of a cloud that evaporate before reaching the ground
c. strong downdraughts in the polar jet stream, associated with jet streaks
d. gusts associated with a well developed Bora
24 - Under which of the following conditions is the most severe CAT likely to be experienced?

a. A westerly jet stream at low latitudes in the summer

b. A straight jet stream near a low pressure area
c. A curved jet stream near a deep trough
d. A jet stream, with great spacing between the isotherms
25. Low level wind shear is likely to be greatest

a. at the top of a marked surface-based inversion.

b. at the condensation level when there is no night radiation.
c. at the condensation level when there is strong surface friction.
d. at the top of the friction layer.
1. The value of variation:
a. is zero at the magnetic equator
b. has a maximum value of 180°
c. has a maximum value of 45° E or 45° W
d. cannot exceed 90°
2. The maximum difference between mean noon (1200LMT) and real/apparent noon occurs in________?
a. January/July
b. March/September
c. November/February
d. December/June
3. The maximum difference between Mean Time and Apparent Time is:
a. 21 minutes
b. 16 minutes
c. 30 minutes
d. there is no difference
4. „The Calendar Year and the Tropical Year are of different lengths. The difference is adjusted partly by
using leap years every fourth calendar year. However, some years are not designated as leap years‟. Which of
the following years will be a leap year?
a. 2001
b. 2100
c. 2300
d. 2400
5. Compass swings should be carried out:
a. on the apron.
b. only on the compass swinging base or site.
c. at the holding point.
d. on the active runway.
6. What is the approximate compression of the Earth?
a. 3%
b. 0.03%
c. 0.3%
d. 1/3000
7. The maximum difference between mean noon (1200LMT) and real/apparent noon occurs
in________?
a. January/July
b. March/September
c. November/February
d. December/June
8- An aircraft of T.A.S. 250k is flying from A to B on Tr 150º, and distance of 300 NM. The W/V is 330º/30 k.
The distance to critical point will be ……….
A-150 NM
B- 132 NM
C-168 NM
9- You are flying from A to B, which is a required track of 045°. You find that your position is 80 nm
outbound from A and 4 NM left of the required track. What is your track made good?
A-045°

B- 048°

C-042°

10- A Great Circle has a Northern Vertex of 50N 100W. The Southern Vertex is?

a. 40S 100W
b. 40S 080E
c. 50S 100W
d. 50S 080E

11- What is the shortest distance in kilometres between Cairo (30°17‟N 030°10‟E) and Durban (29°48‟S
030°10‟E)?

a. 3605
b. 4146
c. 4209
d. 6676

12- An aircraft is at latitude 10N and is flying South at 444 km/hour. After 3 hours the latitude is?

a. 10S
b. 02N
c. 02S
d. 0N/S

13- An aircraft at latitude 02°20‟N tracks 180(T) for 685 km. What is its latitude at the end of the flight?

a. 03°50‟S
b. 02°50‟S
c. 02°10‟S
d. 08°55‟S

14. At a specific location, the value of magnetic variation

a. depends on the value of magnetic heading

b. depends on the value of true heading
c. varies slowly over time
d. depends on the type of compass installed
15. At the magnetic equator

a. Dip is zero
b. Variation is zero
c. Deviation is zero
d. The isogonal is an agonic line

16. The value of magnetic variation on a chart changes with time. This is due to:

a. movement of the magnetic poles, causing an increase

b. increase in the magnetic field, causing an increase
c. reduction in the magnetic field, causing a decrease
d. movement of the magnetic poles, which can cause either an increase or a decrease

17- You plan to land on R/W 14. The met forecast wind velocity is 110/30. Variation is 30°W. What crosswind
do you expect?

a. 15 kts
b. 0 kts
c. 26 kts
d. 30 kts

18- An aircraft is climbing at a constant CAS in ISA conditions. What will be the effect on TAS and Mach
No?

a. TAS increases and Mach No decreases

b. Both increase
c. Both decrease
d. TAS decreases and Mach No increases

19- A non-perspective chart:

a. is produced directly from a light projection of a Reduced Earth

b. cannot be used for navigation
c. is produced by mathematically adjusting a light projection of the Reduced Earth
d. is used for a Polar Stereographic projection

20. You are flying a VFR route and have become uncertain of your position. Which is the best course of
action?

a. set heading towards a line feature - coastline, river or motorway

b. turn round and fly your flight plan tracks in reverse until you see something you recognised before
c. fly a series of ever-expanding circles from your present position till you find your next check point
d. Turn round and fly your flight plan in reverse back to base
21. Local Mean Time (LMT) always changes by a day when crossing __________?

a. the Greenwich Meridian

b. 180°E/W
c. the International Date Line
d. the Equator
22. Zone Time (ZT) is used?
a. by aircraft on trans-oceanic routes
b. as legal time in all countries
c. by ships at sea
d. in polar regions
23. To improve the horizontality of a compass, the magnet assembly is suspended from a point:
a. on the centre line of the magnet.
b. below the centre of gravity.
c. above the centre of gravity.
d. varying with magnetic latitude.
24- A Great Circle has a Northern Vertex of 50N 100W. The Southern Vertex is?

a. 40S 100W
b. 40S 080E
c. 50S 100W
d. 50S 080E

25- What is the shortest distance in kilometres between Cairo (30°17‟N 030°10‟E) and Durban (29°48‟S
030°10‟E)?

a. 3605
b. 4146
c. 4209
d. 6676

26- A Great Circle has a Northern Vertex of 50N 100W. The Southern Vertex is?

a. 40S 100W
b. 40S 080E
c. 50S 100W
d. 50S 080E

27- What is the shortest distance in kilometres between Cairo (30°17‟N 030°10‟E) and Durban (29°48‟S
030°10‟E)?

a. 3605
b. 4146
c. 4209
d. 6676

28-You are flying an instrument approach to an airfield and the required glide slope angle is 3.00o. What
height should you be passing when you are exactly 2 nautical miles from the touchdown point? (NOTE: For
this question, assume 1 nm = 6000 feet).

A-600 ft.

b-550 ft

c-500 ft

29- You are flying an instrument approach to an airfield and the required glide slope angle is 2.5o. You are
correctly on the glideslope and you are passing a height of 1000 feet QFE. What is your range from the
touchdown point? (Assume 1 nm = 6000 feet).

a-3.5 nm

b- 4 nm

c- 5 nm

30- Determine the value of convergency between J (5812N 00400W) and K (5812N 00600E).
A-8.5
b-9
c- 9.5
b. What is the rhumb line track from J to K?
a- 090
b- 270
c-180
c. What is the initial great circle track from K to J?
a- 274.25
b-270
c- 279
31- An aircraft at position 6000N 00522W flies 165 km due East. What is the new

position?

a- 5510N 00324W.
b- B-6000N 00224W.
c- c-5000N 00224W.
32- In which latitude is a difference of longitude of 44°11‟ equivalent to a departure of 2000nm?

A-Latitude is 33°
B- Latitude is 43°
C-Latitude is 41°
33- The Representative Fraction of a chart is given as 1: 1000,000

a. What is the Chart length of a line representing an earth distance of 50 Kilometres on this chart? Give your
answer in both Centimetres and Inches

a- 5 cm = 1.97 in
b- 7 cm = 1.75 in
c- 6 cm = 1.87 in
b. Is this scale larger or smaller than the one used in question two above?
A-Smaller
b- larger
7. The distance from the datum to the CG is:
a. the index
b. the moment
c. the balance arm
d. the station
8. In mass and balance terms, what is an index?
a. A cut down version of a force
b. A moment divided by a constant
c. A moment divided by a mass
d. A mass divided by a moment
9. Standard masses for baggage can be used when:
a. 9 seats or more
b. 20 seats or more
c. 30 seats or more
d. less than 30 seats
10. the take-off distance of an aircraft is 800m in a standard atmosphere with no wind and at
0 ft
pressure altitude. Using the following corrections:
± 20 m / 1 000 ft field elevation
- 5 m / kt headwind
+ 10 m / kt tail wind
± 15 m / % runway slope
± 5 m / °C deviation from standard temperature
The take-off distance from an airport at 2 000 ft elevation, temperature 21°C, QNH
1013.25 hPa, 2% up-slope, 5 kt tail wind is:
a. 810 m
b. 970 m
c. 890 m
d. 870 m
11. The result of a higher flap setting up to the optimum at take-off is:
a. a higher VR.
b. a longer take-off run.
c. a shorter ground roll.
d. an increased acceleration.
13- as angle of attack increases, the lift will _______
a) increase
b) decrease
c) be the same
14- total lift depends on :
a) airspeed
b) angle of attack
c) both
15- High lift devices _______ the stalling speed.
a) increase
b) decrease
c) doesn't affect
16- ground effect is a phenomenon causing the induced drag to ____
a) increase
b) decrease
c) be the same
17- As aspect ratio increases, lift will _______.
a) increase
b) decrease
c) be the same
18- as speed increases, parasite drag ________
a) increases
b) decreases
c) be the same
19- _____ is the angle formed by the wing chord line and A/C longitudinal axis.
a) incidence angle
b) angle of attack
c) dihedral angle
20-________is retarding force which limits the speed of the aircraft.
a) Lift
b) weight
c) drag
21 As humidity decreases, density will _________.
a) increase
b) decrease
c) be the same
22- in level flight, if the weight decreased, speed must be ____ (at a constant angle
of attack)
a) increased
b) decreased
c) the same
23- A stall is caused by the separation of airflow over the _______ wing surface.
a) upper
b) lower
c) total
24- As total wing area increases, lift will _______.
a) increase
b) decrease
c) be the same
25- As lift increases, stalling speed ________.
a) increase
b) decrease
c) be the same
26- comparing to the rectangular wing, swept wing gives _____ lift
a) more
b) less
c) the same
27- the airplane wing's shape is designed to take advantage of ________
a) newton's laws
b) Bernoulli's principle
c) both
28- To increase speed at level flight, you must ________ angle of attack.
a) increase
b) decrease
c) hold