AIRLAW CAT

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

1) An aircraft is flying at 2300ft AMSL and 90kts IAS in uncontrolled airspace. In order to
comply with VMC minima the required conditions are:
a) 1.5nm flight visibility, clear of cloud, in sight of the surface
b) 5km flight visibility, clear of cloud, 1500m horizontally and 1000ft vertically clear of cloud
c) 1500m flight visibility, clear of cloud and insight of the surface
d) 5km flight visibility, clear of cloud

2) A runways Landing Distance Available (LDA) is defined as:

a) TORA plus any displaced threshold
b) TORA plus Stopway
c) TODA plus Clearway
d) TODA minus Clearway and any displaced threshold

3) Which of the following rules of precedence on the ground is correct:

a) Aircraft have priority over aircraft being towed
b) Aircraft taking off and landing have priority over aircraft being towed
c) Aircraft being towed have priority over aircraft taking off and landing
d) Vehicles & people have priority over aircraft

4) For an aircraft within Class F & G airspace what is the lowest flight visibility a competent
authority can prescribe for VMC
a) 1,500ft
b) 1,500m at indicated airspeeds above 140kts
c) 1,500m at indicated airspeeds below 140kts
d) 5km

5) What does TMZ stand for?

a) Transmission Mandatory Zone
b) Transponder Mode Zone
c) Traffic Migration Zone
d) Transponder Mandatory Zone

6) What color are runway markings?

a) Red.
b) Yellow.
c) White.
d) Green.

7) Which of the cruising flight level listed is appropriate for a VFR flight over 3,000 ft MSL,
while maintaining true course 170° and if the local variation value is 20°W?
a) FL 30.
b) FL 40.
c) FL 65.
d) FL 55.

8) When overtaking an aircraft in flight, you should

a) Fly below or above it.
b) Alter your course to the left.
c) Alter your course to the right.
d) Fly below it exclusively.

9) An aerodrome beacon (ABN) is a:

a) rotating beacon installed at the beginning of the final approach to indicate its location to
aircraft pilots from the air.
b) rotating beacon installed at an airport or aerodrome to indicate its location to aircraft pilots
from the air
c) rotating beacon installed at an airport or aerodrome to indicate its location to aircraft pilots
from the ground
d) fixed beacon installed at an airport or aerodrome to indicate its location to aircraft pilots
from the air

10) You are on final approach and you see a steady red light from ATC. This means:
a) Continue approach and await a green light
b) Do not land. Divert to your alternate airfield.
c) Do not land. Continue circling.
d) Do not land. Airfield closed.

11) Aircraft A with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC conditions within a control area. Aircraft B
with no ATC clearance is approaching at approximately the same altitude and on a converging
course. Which has the right of way?
a) Aircraft B regardless of the direction A is approaching.
b) Aircraft B if A is on its left.
c) Aircraft A regardless of the direction which B is approaching.
d) Aircraft A if B is on its right.
12) Where must the Certificate of Registration be kept while the aircraft is flying?
a) By the authority of the State of registration.
b) In the aircraft.
c) On the ground at the point of departure.
d) In the registered office of the owner.

13) If a PPL holder who has no additional ratings, while receiving a Radar Advisory Service,
receives instructions to change heading, climb or descend, such that if the instructions are
complied with the pilot will be unable to maintain Visual Meteorological Conditions, the pilot
should:
a) Continue on the present heading, at the present altitude, and tell air traffic why he cannot
comply.
b) Comply with instructions, anyway, but go onto instruments early.
c) Continue on present heading and at present altitude, say nothing, and wait for the
controller's next instruction.
d) Comply as closely as he can with the controller's instructions but on no account go into
Instrument Meteorological Conditions.

14) How long are single pilot single engine class ratings valid?
a) 3 years.
b) 2 years.
c) 6 months.
d) 1 year.

15) What does the term "solo flight time" mean?

a) Solo flight time of a student-pilot.
b) Entire flight time, when a pilot is alone in the aircraft, and 50% of the co-pilot flight time.
c) Entire flight time when a pilot is alone in the aircraft.
d) Flight time as a pilot-in-command.

16) A VFR flight should adhere to the table of prescribed flight level at flight altitudes, higher
than
a) 3,000 ft GND.
b) 2,200 ft GND.
c) 700 ft MSL.
d) 3,000 ft MSL.
17) What action should be taken if a pilot receives a clearance that will cause a deviation from
a rule?
a) Accept the clearance and advise Air Traffic Control that he believes a rule deviation will
occur.
b) Refuse the clearance as stated and request that it be amended.
c) Accept the clearance and advise Air Traffic Control when deviation occurs.
d) Accept the clearance, because the pilot is not responsible for the deviation.

18) During a cross-country flight you find yourself in the vicinity of an unknown airport. A
military aircraft approaches, turns around your aircraft, rocks the wings and finally lowers the
landing gear. What does this mean?
a) Leave the airport zone immediately!
b) Leave the airport zone and land at the nearest sport airfield!
c) You may proceed!
d) You have been intercepted, land at the airport below you!

19) Who is responsible for ensuring that all relevant aircraft documentation is carried on an
international flight?
a) The pilot in command.
b) The air traffic organization to whom the flight plan is submitted.
c) The flying supervisor at the airfield of departure.
d) The organization hiring out the aircraft.

20) What is the minimum safe altitude required to operate an aircraft over settlements or over
open-air assembly of people?
a) 150 m (500 ft) above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 300 m of the aircraft.
b) 300 m (1,000 ft) above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 600 m of the
aircraft.
c) 150 m (500 ft) above ground and not closer than 150 m from any person, vessel or
structure.
d) An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to
persons or property on the surface.

21) What is a "PAPI"?

a) A visual aid that provides guidance information to help a pilot acquire and maintain the
correct departure track when departing from an aerodrome or an airport
b) An instrumental aid that provides guidance information to help a pilot acquire and maintain
the correct approach to an aerodrome or an airport
c) A visual aid that provides guidance information to help a tower controller acquire and
maintain the correct approach to an aerodrome or an airport
d) A visual aid that provides guidance information to help a pilot acquire and maintain the
correct glide path to an aerodrome or an airport

22) A pilot-in-command of a VFR cruising flight at the altitudes over 3,000 ft MSL, should fly
odd flight levels plus 500 ft, if maintaining:
a) Magnetic headings between 180° and 359°.
b) True headings between 000° and 179°.
c) Magnetic courses between 000° and 179°.
d) True courses between 180° and 359°.

23) Except when taking off or landing, or under certain other defined circumstances, an
aircraft may not fly closer than a), b), or to any person, vessel, vehicle or structure?
a) 1000 feet.
b) 800 feet.
c) 1500 feet.
d) 500 feet

24) Visual flying of aircraft in class G airspace at altitudes above 900 m (3,000 ft) MSL or 300 m
(1,000 ft) from ground, whichever is higher, up to 3,050 m (10,000 ft), is permitted if the
horizontal visibility is at least
a) 8 km.
b) 1.5 km.
c) 5 km.
d) 3 km.

25) Who is responsible for the issue of a Certificate of Airworthiness?

a) The EASA.
b) The authority of the state of registration.
c) The operator.
d)ICAO.

26) What action should the pilots of an airplane and a glider take if on a head-on collision
course?
a) The airplane pilot should give way, because his aircraft is more controllable.
b) The glider pilot should give way, because a glider is more controllable than an airplane.
c) The airplane pilot should give way.
d) Both pilots should give way to the right.
27) Which designators are correct for 2 parallel runways?
a) "24A" and "24B"
b) "18" and "18-2"
c) "06L" and "06R"
d) "26" and "26R"

28) What colour are paved taxiway markings?

a) Yellow.
b) Red.
c) White.
d) Green.

29) Which aircraft, and under which conditions, may a holder of a private pilot licence fly,
provided he is properly endorsed?
a) All single-engine airplanes provided no payment or refund is done for such flight.
b) All airplanes up to the maximum takeoff mass 1,500 kg, provided no payment or refund is
given to the pilot.
c) All airplanes without exceptions provided no payment or refund is done for such flight.
d) All airplanes without exceptions provided no payment or refund is given to the pilot.

30) During a cross-country flight you notice the military aircraft approaching your left wingtip
and flying along; after a short time it makes an abrupt break-away maneuver of a climbing turn
to the left. What does this mean?
a) You have been intercepted. Follow me!
b) Land at the aerodrome in the direction of my flight!
c) Leave the prohibited area immediately!
d) You may proceed!

----------GOOD LUCK----------