Q1.

In situations where the State has not set any minimum IFR heights, the
minimum height of the aircraft over the highest obstacle or in hilly areas shall be
for an IFR flight:
A- A minimum of 2000 ft within 8 km of the estimated location
B- A minimum of 1000 ft within 8 km of the estimated location
C- A minimum of 2000 ft within 5 km of the estimated location
Q2. Aircraft which is willing to conduct an IFR flight within the recommended
airspace, but not electing the advisory service:
A- Require to file a flight plan
B- Should submit a flight plan but the changes made need not to be notified
C- Should submit a flight plan but the changes are to be notified
Q3. The white dumbbell with the black perpendicular bar depicts that:
A- Glider flying is being executed outside the landing area
B- Taxiing needs to limited to the taxiways
C- Taxiing, landing and take-off should be allowed on runway and taxiway only
Q4. In case your aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraft and the signals given
by the aircraft are in contrast with the ATC instructions what you should do:
A- Follow the instructions of the ATC
B- Follow the instructions of the intercepting aircraft
C- Select code 7500 on your transponder
Q5. A hijacked aircraft which has been forced to divert from the cleared track
without being able to communicate with the ATS should try to:
A- Continue to a height that varies from the semicircular rule with 1000 ft when above
FL 290 and 500 ft when lower than FL 290
B- Fly the emergency triangle
C- Commence emergency descent to minimize the difference between cabin pressure
and outside pressure
Q6. While flying in the traffic circuit of an aerodrome, an aircraft receives a series
of green flashes from the tower. The aircraft:
A- Is clear to land
B- Should land immediately and clear area of landing
C- Should come back to the land and the clearance would be sent in due time
Q7. While flying in the traffic circuit of an aerodrome, an aircraft receives a series
of red flashes from the tower. The aircraft:
A- Shouldn’t land irrespective of previous instructions
B- Shouldn’t land because the airport is not available for landing
C- Must return to land and that landing clearance would be communicated in the due
course
Q8. Unless a clearance has been obtained from the ATC, a VFR flight cannot enter
or leave a control zone when the ceiling is less than:
A- 2000 ft or visibility is less than 5 km
B- 1000 ft or visibility is less than 5 km
C- 1500 ft or visibility is less than 5 km
Q9. An aircraft is flying under Instrument Flight Rules in an area where the
visibility is unlimited and the sky is clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses
radio communications. The procedure to be followed is:
A- Adopt a VFR flight level and continue flight onto destination
B-Descend to En-route Minimum Safe Altitude and join closest airfield open to IFR
operations
C-Continue flight onto destination, complying with last received clearances then with
filed flight plan
D-Land on the closest appropriate aerodrome, then advise Air Traffic Services of
landing
Q10. In the “VASIS”, how many light units are in each wing bar?
A- 4
B- 3
C- 5
D- 2
Q11. Two minutes separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are
to fly on the same track, when:
A- The preceding aircraft is 10 KT or faster than the following aircraft
B- The preceding aircraft is 30 KT or faster than the following aircraft
C- The preceding aircraft is 20 KT or more faster than the following aircraft
D- The preceding aircraft is 40 kt or more faster than the following aircraft
Q12. Radar identification of a departing aircraft can be achieved if a radar blip is
observed within a certain distance from the end of the runway. Identification has
to be achieved within:
A-1NM
B- 5NM
C- 3NM
D- 2NM
Q13. A so called “Visual Approach” can be performed:
A-During IFR flights, if there is permanent site on the movement area and the
underlying ground
B-During IFR flights, if the cloud base is 1000 ft more than the appropriate DA or MDA
for that procedure
C- As in above, but in addition there should be a visibility of 5.5 km or more
D-During IFR and VFR flights in VMC;
Q14. Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of
aerodromes is a specific dimension given for the approach light system for CAT 1
ILS. What should be the length of this approach light system?
A- 900 meters
B- 1000 meters
C- 420 meters
D- 1200 meters
Q15. Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains
international standards and recommended practices for air traffic services (ATS)?
A- Annex 14
B- Annex 11
C-Annex 17
D- Annex 6
Q16. Clearance to land or any alternative clearance received from the non-radar
controller should normally be passed to the aircraft before it reaches a distance
of:
A-3 NM from touchdown
B- 5 NM from touchdown
C- 4 NM from touchdown
D- 2 NM from touchdown
Q17. When the holders of aircraft transport pilot licenses airplane and helicopter
have passed their 40th birthday the medical examination shall be reduced from:
A- 24 months to 12 months
B- 12 months to 3 months
C- None of the answers are correct
D- 12 months to 6 months
Q18. Each member state should designate an appropriate authority with its
administration to be responsible for the development implementation and
maintenance of a national aviation security program. This program should apply:
A- To all international civil air transport including aircraft engaged solely in the carriage
of cargo and yet to domestic flights at the discretion of each member state
B- Only to passengers and aircrew in international civil transport flights
C- Only to passengers and aircrew in international civil transport flights and domestic
flights D-Only to all international civil transport including aircraft engaged solely in the
carriage of cargo
Q19. According to JAR-FCL, the privileges of a newly qualified Flight Instructor
are restricted to carrying out instruction under the supervision of a FI(A),
approved for this purpose. The restrictions may be removed from the rating:
A-On the recommendation of the supervising FI (A) after the holder of the restricted
FI(A) rating has completed a competency test
B- On the recommendation of the supervising FI (A) after the holder of the restricted
FI(A) rating has completed at least 100 hours flight instruction and , in addition, has
supervised at least 25 student solo flights
C- On the recommendation of the supervising FI (A) after the holder of the restricted
FI(A) rating has supervised at least 100 solo flights
D- On the recommendation of the supervising FI (A) after the holder of the restricted
FI(A) rating has supervised at least 100 solo flights and completed a competency test.
Q20. According to JAR-FCL, the airplane instructor categories recognized are:
A-FE (A)/TRE (A)/CRE (A)/IRE (A) and SFI authorization
B-FI (A) and IRI (A)
C- FI (A)/TRI (A)CRE(A)/IRE(A) and SFI authorization
D- FI (A)/TRI (A)/CRI (A)/IRI (A) and SFI authorization
Q21. According to JAR-FCL, an examiner’s authorization is valid for:
A- The period of validity of the class/type rating
B- Not more than two years
C- Not more than three years
D- The period of validity of the medical certificate.
Q22. Each State of ICAO Annex 17 shall ensure the establishment of a security
program
A- At each airport
B- Only for administrative staff of airport
C- For every airline operating in the State
D-That is common for all airports within State
Q23. When an aircraft subjected to an unlawful interference has landed it shall
notify by the most expeditious means of the State of registry of the aircraft and
the State of the operator of the landing and shall similarly transmit all other
relevant information to the:
A-Two aforementioned States, each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries,
each State whose citizens are known to be on board the aircraft and the ICAO
B-Two aforementioned States, each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries,
each State whose citizens were detained as hostages, each State whose citizens are
known to be on board the aircraft and the ICAO
C-Two aforementioned States, each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries
on board the aircraft and the ICAO
D- Two aforementioned States and the ICAO
Q24. The movement area of an airfield, the adjacent lands and buildings or the
parts of them with controlled access is called:
A-Terminal
B-Maneuvering area
C-Aeronautical part
D-Security program
Q25. The fuel system boost pumps are used to:
A- Feed the lines with fuel for directing it to the engine at a positive pressure
B- Feed the fuel control units, which inject the pressurized fuel into the engine
C- Avoid the bubbles accumulation
D- Avoid the bubbles accumulation and feed the lines with fuel for directing it to the
engine at a positive pressure.
Q26. To allow for failure of the normal method of system pressure limiting
control:
A- Hydraulic system often incorporates
B- Auxiliary hydraulic motors
C- A high pressure relief valve
D- A stand-by hydraulic pump.
Q27. The low pressure switch of a hydraulic circuit sets off an alarm if:
A-The reservoir level is at the normal operation limit
B-There is a leak in the reservoir return line
C-The pump power accumulator is deflated
D-The pump output pressure is insufficient.
Q28. In aviation, the reflection on ionosphere layers phenomenon is used in the
following frequencies:
A- HF
B- UHF
C- VLF
D- VHF
Q29. In aviation, the reflection on ionosphere layers phenomenon is used in the
following frequencies:
A- VHF
B- UHF
C-VLF
D- HF
Q30. The wavelength of a radio transmitted on frequency 121.95 MHz is:
A- 2.46 m
B- 24.60 cm
C-24.60 m
D- 2.46 cm
Q31. The frequency which corresponds to a wavelength of 12 cm is:
A-3600 MHz
B-2500 kHz
c) 360 MHz
D-2500 MHz
Q32. The wavelength of a radio signal transmitted at the frequency of 75 MHz is:
A- 40 m
B-7.5 m
C- 75 m
D-4 m
Q33. The wavelength of a radio signal transmitted at the frequency 118.7 MHz is:
A- 2.53 m
B- 25.3 m
C-2.53 cm
D- 25.3 cm
Q34. The wavelength of a non-directional beacon (NDB) at a frequency of 300 kHz
is:
A- 1 meter
B- 100 meters
C-1000 meters
D- 10 meters
Q35. The VHF Omni range (VOR) uses the following wavelengths:
A-hectometric
B- Dissymmetric
C- Metric
D- Centimetric
Q36. The Instrument Landing System (ILS) uses the following wavelengths:
A- Hectometric
B- Centimetric
C- Dissymmetric
D- Metric
Q37. The Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) uses the following wavelengths:
A- Hectometric
B- Centimetric
C- Dissymmetric
D- Metric
Q38. The VHF direction finder uses the following wavelengths:
A- Hectometric
B- Centimetric
C- Dissymmetric
D- Metric
Q39. The high Altitude Radio Altimeter uses the following wavelengths:
A- Hectometric
B- Centimetric
C- Dissymmetric
D- Metric
Q40. The Automatic Direction Finder uses the following wavelengths:
A- Hectometric
B- Centimetric
C- Dissymmetric
D- Metric
Q41. In the response curve of an amplifier, the bandwidth is:
A-The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain less 3 decibels
B-The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain
C- The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain, increased by 10 kHz at each
end
D- The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain less 20 decibels.
Q42. Skip distance is the:
A-Thickness of the ionosphere
B-Range from the transmitter to the first sky wave
C- Wavelength distance of a certain frequency
D-Highest critical frequency distance
Q43. A radio signal looses strength as range from the transmitter increases, this
is called:
A- Propagation
B-attenuation
C- Refraction
D- Ducting
Q44. The skip zone of HF-transmission will increase when the following change in
circumstance occurs:
A-Higher frequency and lower position of the reflecting ionospheric layer
B-Lower frequency and lower position of the reflecting ionospheric layer
C- Lower frequency and higher position of the reflecting ionospheric layer
D- Higher frequency and higher position of the reflecting ionospheric layer
Q45. When AC generators are operated in parallel, they must be of the same:
A- Amperage and kVAR
B- Frequency and amperage
C- Voltage and frequency
D- Voltage and amperage.
Q46. In the propagation of MF waves, the phenomenon of FADING is particularly
found:
A- At night and when raining
B- At night, due to the combination of the sky and ground waves
C- By day, due to the combination of sky and ground waves
D- By day and when raining.
Q47. The pressure usually produced by the Boost Pumps (BP) of the fuel supply
system of a large jet transport airplane is within the following range:
A- 3000 to 5000 psi
B- 20 to 50 psi
C- 300 to 500 psi
D- 5 to 10 psi
Q48. A propeller blade is twisted, so as to
A- Keep the local Angle of Attack constant along the blade
B- Decrease the blade tangential velocity from the blade root to the tip
C-Allow a higher mechanical stress
D- Avoid the appearance of sonic phenomena.
Q49. When increasing true airspeed with a constant engine RPM, the angle of
attack of a fixed pitch propeller
A-stays constant
B- Increases
C-reduces
D- Stays constant because it only varies with engine RPM
Q50. The ‘slipstream effect’ of a propeller is most prominent at:
A- Low airspeeds with low power setting
B- Low airspeeds with high power setting
C- High airspeeds with high power setting
D- High airspeeds with low power setting
Q51. An impulse coupling does not function at such speeds above those
encountered in starting. Its engaging pawls are prevented from operating at
higher speeds by
A- Engine oil pressure
B- Centrifugal force
C- A coil spring
D- electro-magnetic action of operating magneto.
Q52. An aircraft magneto is switched off by
A- Opening the secondary circuit
B- Opening the primary circuit
C- Grounding the secondary circuit
D- Grounding the primary circuit
Q53. The indication of the fire detection systems is performed by a:
A- Gear warning
B- Warning light and a warning
C-warning bell
D- Warning light
Q54. The crash/fire axe is part of the safety equipment fitted to passenger aircraft.
Its function is to:
A-activate a radio survival beacon by cutting off the red colored top
B-settle an escalating conflict with unreasonable passengers, who threaten flight safety
C-free exits in case of evacuation via the sides
D- Obtain forced access to a fire behind a panel and a general purpose tool during
evacuation.
Q55. A manual inflation handle:
A- Operates a hand pump for manual inflation of a slide
B- Serves to inflate a life jacket when the normal inflation function fails
C- Is generally not applied on slides
D- Serves to actuate inflation of a slide when automatic inflation fails
Q56. Generally, when the fire handle of the fire-extinguishing system on an
aircraft is pulled, the effects are:
1. Closing of the LP valve of the fuel system
2. Opening of the air bleed valves and HP valves on the engine concerned
3. Setting of extinguishing systems
4. Closing of the isolation and de-icing valves
5. Isolation of the associated electric current generators 6. Immediate discharge of
extinguishing agent
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 2,3,4,5 b) 1,3,4,5 c) 1, 3,
and 4 d) 1,2,5,6
Q57. In the cockpit of a transport airplane, at least one manual fire-extinguisher
must be conveniently located containing:
A- Halon
B- Powder
C- Special fluids
D- Water
Q58. The purpose of the proximity of the emergency evacuation path marking
system is to:
A-replace the overhead emergency lighting in case of failure
B- Guide the emergency evacuation during night only
C- Mark only the thresholds exits
D- Give additional guidance during an emergency evacuation with a thick smoke

Answers
1-A
2-C
3-A
4-C
5-B
6-C
7-C
8-C
9-A
10-C
11-B
12-A
13-A
14-A
15-A
16-B
17-A
18-C
19-B
20-B
21-C
22-B
23-B
24-B
25-C
26-B
27-A
28-A
29-A
30-C
31-C
32-B
33-C
34-C
35-A
36-A
37-B
38-B
39-B
40-A
41-B
42-B
43-B
44-B
45-A
46-C
47-B
48-C
49-C
50-B
51-A
52-C
53-B
54-A
55-B
56-A
57-B
58-B