Blue Ray Aviation Pvt.
Ltd
CPL/REG/FULL01
1. The aircraft commander may, when he/she
has reasonable grounds to believe that a
person has committed or is about to commit an
offence against penal law on board the aircraft:
a. Ask the person to disembark.
b. Ask the crew to assist in restraining the
person.
c. Order the passengers to assist the crew in
restraining the person.
d. Deliver the person to the competent
authority.
2. The international convention concerning the
responsibilities of international air carriers for
the carriage of passengers, baggage and
freight is the:
a. Tokyo convention.
b. Hague convention.
c. Montreal convention.
d. Warsaw convention.
3. The State of Design is to ensure that a
continuing structural integrity programme,
including information concerning corrosion
control, is maintained in respect of aeroplanes:
a. with maximum certificated take‑off mass less
than 5700kg.
b. with maximum certificated take‑off mass
greater than 5700kg.
c. with maximum certificated take‑off mass
equal to 5700kg.
d. with maximum certificated take‑off mass not
more than 5700kg.
4. The continuing validity of a Certificate of
Airworthiness of an aircraft is subject to the
laws of:
a. the State of Registration.
b. the State of Registration or the State of the
Operator.
c. the State of Operator.
d. the State of Registration and the State of
Design.
5. According to Annex 7, the registration mark
shall be letters, numbers or a combination of
letters and numbers and shall be that assigned
by:
a. the State of Registry or Common Mark
Registering Authority.
b. the State of Registry only.
c. the International Civil Aviation Organization.
d. the International Telecommunication Union.
6. Which of the following registration marks
would not be permitted?
a. G-PRAT
b. SY‑PAN
c. 3T-SSS
d. YT‑LLL
7. Any damage caused in territory of state or in
a ship or aircraft registered, by an aircraft of
another state shall be which convention?
a. Tokyo Convention
b. Cape Town Convention
c. Montreal Convention 1971
d. Rome Convention
8.The holder of a pilot license when acting as
co-pilot under supervision of the PIC and
performing the functions and duties of the PIC
shall be entitled to be credited:
a. with 50% of the flight time towards the total
time required for a higher grade of
licence.
b. in full, but not more than 300hrs towards the
total time required for a higher grade of
licence.
c. the flight time in full towards the total time
required for a higher grade of licence.
d. the flight time in full towards the total time
required for a higher grade of pilot licence
according to the requirements of the licensing
authority.
9. Which of these is not a distress frequency?
1. 121.5 MHz
2. 2182 KHz
3. 243.0 KHz
4. 2430 KHz
Blue Ray Aviation Pvt. Ltd
CPL/REG/FULL01
a. 4 only.
b. 2 only.
c. 2, 3 and 4.
d. 3 and 4.
10. Aircraft A is a VFR flight operating in a CTR
under an ATC clearance. Aircraft B is entering
the CTR without clearance. As they converge,
which one has the right of way?
a. B has right of way regardless of aircraft type
and position.
b. A has right of way regardless of aircraft type
and position.
c. A has right of way if B is on the right.
d. B has right of way if A is on the left.
11. If a pilot wishes to cancel an IFR flight plan
and proceed under VFR in VMC, he/she must
inform ATC and include the phrase:
a. “cancelling my flight plan”.
b. “cancelling my flight”.
c. “cancelling my IFR flight”.
d. “cancelling my IMC flight plan”.
12.What does the abbreviation OIS stand for?
a. Obstacle identification surface.
b. Obstacles in surface.
c. Obstacle identification slope.
d. Obstruction identification surface.
13.When following a SID, the pilot must:
a. calculate the track required and request ATC
clearance to follow it.
b. fly the heading without wind correction.
c. adjust the track specified to allow for the
wind.
d. fly the heading to make good the required
track allowing for the wind.
14.What is the maximum interception angle
which is allowed to the intermediate approach
segment from the initial approach segment for
a non-precision approach?
a. 30°
b. 45°
c. 120°
d. 15°
15. On an instrument approach, part of the
procedure enables the aircraft to return
inbound from outbound with tracks flown being
reciprocal. This is called:
a. base turn.
b. procedure turn.
c. reverse procedure.
d. racetrack.
16.The Approach speed for a Category B
aircraft is:
a. up to 91 kts.
b. 90 to 121 kts inclusive.
c. 141 to 165 kts inclusive.
d. 91 to 120 kts inclusive.
17. A circling approach is:
a. a flight manoeuvre performed only under
radar vectoring.
b. a flight manoeuvre where visual contact with
the underlying terrain is maintained.
c. a visual manoeuvre keeping the runway in
sight.
d. a visual manoeuvre only conducted in IMC.
18. In a holding pattern turns are to be made
at:
a. rate of turn = 3°/sec.
b. rate of turn = 3°/sec or 20° bank angle
whichever is less.
c. rate of turn = 3°/sec or 25° bank angle
whichever is less.
d. 25° bank angle.
19. A procedure to alter level in a holding
pattern is known as:
a. shuttle.
b. procedure turn.
c. base turn.
d. racetrack.
20. Transition from altitude to flight level, and
vice‑versa, is done:
a. at transition level during the climbs and at
transition altitude in the descent.
Blue Ray Aviation Pvt. Ltd
CPL/REG/FULL01
b. only at transition altitude.
c. only at transition level.
d. at transition altitude during the climbs and at
transition level in the descent.
21. In the vicinity of an aerodrome that is going
to be used by the aircraft, the vertical position
of the aircraft shall be expressed as:
a. flight level at or below the transition level.
b. flight level at or below the transition altitude.
c. altitude above sea level at or below the
transition altitude.
d. altitude above sea level at or above the
transition altitude.
22. Which of the following correctly lists special
purpose codes that are used in conjunction
with SSR?
a. Distress 7700; Unlawful Interference 7600;
Communications failure 7500
b. Distress 7500; Unlawful Interference 7700;
Communications failure 7600
c. Distress 7600; Unlawful Interference 7500;
Communications failure 7700
d. Distress 7700; Unlawful Interference 7500;
Communications failure 7600
23. When an aircraft caries a serviceable
transponder, the pilot is to operate the
transponder:
a. only when the aircraft is flying within the
airspace where SSR is used for ATC purposes.
b. only when the aircraft is flying in CAS.
c. only when direct by ATC.
d. at all times during flight regardless of
whether or not the aircraft is within or outside
airspace where SSR is used for ATC purposes.
24. A Control Zone has to exist to at least:
a. 5 nms from the center of the airfield or
airfields concerned in the direction from where
approaches can be made.
b. 20 nms from the center of the airfield or
airfields concerned in the direction from where
approaches can be made.
c. 15 nms from the center of the airfield or
airfields concerned in the direction from where
approaches can be made.
d. 10 nms from the center of the airfield or
airfields concerned in the direction from where
approaches can be made.
25. What is the useful consciousness at
45,000ft in rapid decompression?
a. 18 seconds
b. 40 seconds
c. 12 seconds
d. 30 seconds
26. What defines the alert phase (ALERFA)?
a. A situation in which an aeroplane and
passengers are known to be in serious and
imminent danger.
b. A situation where it is certain that fuel is
exhausted.
c. A situation where apprehension exists about
an aeroplane and its safety.
d. A situation in which an aeroplane and its
passengers are in emergency.
27.Who is responsible for initiating the Alert
Phase?
a. FIC
b. The ATC
c. The Area Control and the RCC
d. RCC and the FIR
28. ATSU clocks and other time recording
devices shall be checked as necessary to
ensure correct time to within UTC plus or
minus:
a. 10 seconds.
b. 1 minute.
c. 30 seconds.
d. 15 seconds.
29. RNAV distance based separation may be
used at the time the level is crossed, provided
that each aircraft reports its distance to or from
the same ‘on track’ waypoint. The minimum is:
a. 60 nm.
b. 50 nm.
Blue Ray Aviation Pvt. Ltd
CPL/REG/FULL01
c. 20 nm.
d. 80 nm.
30. The longitudinal separation minima based
on distance using DME where each aircraft uses
‘on track’ DME stations is:
a. 10 nm when the leading aircraft maintains a
TAS 20kts faster than the succeeding
aircraft.
b. 10 nm when the leading aircraft maintains a
TAS 40kts faster than the succeeding
aircraft.
c. 20 nm when the leading aircraft maintains a
TAS 10kts faster than the succeeding aircraft.
d. 10 nm when the leading aircraft maintains a
TAS 10kts faster than the succeeding
aircraft.
31. List the services that must be provided in a
FIR:
a. FIS only.
b. FIS, advisory ATC, ATS.
c. FIS, aerodrome control, and ATS
d. FIS, alerting service, and ATS.
32. When must QNH be passed to an aircraft
prior to take‑off?
a. In the taxi clearance.
b. On engine start-up request.
c. On first contact with ATC.
d. Just prior to take‑off.
33. What is the closest to touchdown that a
radar controller can request a change of speed
to an aircraft on final approach?
a. 5nm.
b. 3nm.
c. 2nm.
d. 4nm.
34. VFR cannot operate seaward more than
a. 100nm
b. 50nm
c. 25nm
d. 150nm
35. What is the co‑efficient of braking, if the
braking action is reported as medium?
a. Between.1.0 and 0.25.
b. Between 0.25 and 0.3.
c. Between 0.30 and 0.35.
d. Between 0.35 and 0.4.
36. What is CDFA?
a. Continuous descent on final approach
b. Controlled descent on final approach
c. Continuous descent after fixed approach
d. Continuous decreasing final altitude
37. An area defined about after the threshold,
primarily intended for accelerated stops:
a. clearway.
b. stopway
c. runway end safety area.
d. displaced threshold
38. Which of the following concerning
Aerodrome signs is correct?
a. Mandatory signs: Black background with red
inscription.
b. Information signs: Black or yellow
background with black or yellow inscription.
c. Mandatory signs: Red background with black
inscription.
d. Information signs: Orange background with
black inscription.
39. A precision approach will have a final
approach fix
a. True
b. False
40. PDG is applicable to all approach and
departure routes
a. True
b. False
41. A precision approach Category I lighting
system, the centerline and the barrette lights
have to be:
a. flashing green lights for which the intensity
of the light is adjustable.
Blue Ray Aviation Pvt. Ltd
CPL/REG/FULL01

b. fixed white lights for which the intensity of b. Air Traffic Services, permission to land and
the light is adjustable. the use of navigational aids.
c. flashing white lights for which the intensity of c. food and water for the occupants of the
the light is adjustable. aircraft.
d. fixed green lights for which the intensity of d. Air Traffic Services and fuel.
the light is adjustable.
48. An isolated parking area is to be provided
42. On the localizer, what is the lobe for an aircraft subjected to unlawful
frequency? interference which is never less than ............
a. 90hz left and 150hz right metres from other parking positions:
b. 150hz left and 90hz right a. 1000.
c. 90hz above and 150hz below b. 2500.
d. 150hz above and 90hz below c. 3000.
d. 100.
43.Can an oral declaration concerning the
passenger or crew baggage be acceptable? 49. An aircraft wheel gets stuck in the mud
a. Never. whilst taxiing to the runway for take‑off and
b. Yes. sustains damage. Is this:
c. Only crew baggage. a. an incident.
d. Only passenger baggage. b. an accident.
c. a serious incident.
44. The ICAO Annex which deals with the entry d. a normal operating hazard.
and departure of persons and their baggage for
international flights is: 50. Just before arrival at the apron, the aircraft
a. Annex 6 unintentionally taxies onto the grass causing
b. Annex 15 the wheel to ride into a pothole. The aircraft
c. Annex 9 has sustained damage and consequently the
d. Annex 8 crew is forced to delay the departure:
a. considering that there is no physical injury
45. If you have RCF during day, how will you and that the flight has ended, the action
indicate to the tower? that has to be taken is merely confined to
a. do a missed approach notification of the insurance company, the
b. fly parallel to runway without landing mechanic, the operator and persons who are in
c. rock wings in front of tower charge of runways and taxiways.
d. fly a triangular pattern. b. this is an accident and the crew should
follow the appropriate procedures.
46. What does the SAR signal “X” on the c. this is an incident and the captain has to
ground mean? report this to the aerodrome authority within 48
a. We need help. hours.
b. We are OK. d. this is an irregularity in the exploitation. This
c. We need medical assistance. crew should inform the operator about
d. We have gone away. the delay caused by necessary repairs.

47. An aircraft subjected to Unlawful

Interference cannot be denied: ----------------------------------------------------------
a. permission to land and fuel.