Subject: Communications: Theoretical Knowledge Examination For Obtaining PPL (H)

PPL (H) - Communications
FLIGHT CREW LICENSING DEPARTMENT
Theoretical Knowledge Examination for obtaining PPL (H)
Subject:
COMMUNICATIONS
Period of validity: March 2011th – December 31st, 2011.
Belgrade, March, 2011.
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FLIGHT CREW LICENSING DEPARTMENT THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE EXAMINATION FOR PPL(H)
NOTE:
The correct answer is under letter a. During exam the order of answers will be
different
1. Aerodrome traffic is:

a. All traffic on the maneuvering area of an aerodrome and all aircraft operating in
the vicinity of an aerodrome.
b. All vehicles on an aerodrome.
c. All aircraft on an aerodrome.
d. All traffic on the movement area of an aerodrome.
2. VHF frequencies used for communication which is the range:

a. From 118,0 to 135,975 MHz.
b. From 108,0 to 135,975 MHz.
c. From 118,0 to 121,5 MHz.
3. The maximum VHF communications range that can be expected by an aircraft at

FL100 is:
a. 120nm.
b. 1200nm.
c. 150nm.
d. 100nm.
4. An aircraft will be in the best range for VFR communications if it is:

a. At high altitude in the vicinity of the airfield.
b. At high altitude and long range.
c. At low altitude and long range.
5. What is the meaning of the term ”IMC”?

a. Instrumental meteorological conditions.
b. Flight according to instrumental flight rules.
c. Flight according to visual flight rules.
d. Visual meteorological conditions.
6. The term ”CVFR flight” stands for:

a. Special VFR flight.
b. Sector VFR flight.
c. Schooling VFR flight.
d. Search and rescue VFR flight.
7. The term ”CVFR flight” stands for:

a. Controlled VFR flight.
b. VFR flight of civil aircraft.
c. Schooling VFR flight.
d. VFR flight visibility to the ground.
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8. What is the meaning of the term ”VMC”?

a. Visual meteorological conditions.
b. A flight accordingly to the instrumental flight rules.
c. Visual flight rules.
d. Instrumental flight rules.
9. What is the meaning of the term ”VFR flight”?

a. Flight according to the visual flight rules.
b. Flight according to the instrumental flight rules.
c. Training flight.
d. Flight without passengers on board.
10. What does the phrase ”WILCO” mean?

a. I understand your message and will comply with it.
b. I have received all of your last transmission.
c. My message is ended and I expect a response from you.
d. Permission granted.
11. What is the meaning of the phrase "VERIFY"?

a. Check and confirm with the originator.
b. No, or permission not granted or that is not correct.
c. Repeat all or the following part of your last transmission.
d. I hereby indicate the separation between two portions of the message.
12. What is the meaning of the phrase "ROGER"?

a. I have received all of your last transmission.
b. I understand your message and will comply with it.
c. My transmission is ended and I expect a response
from you.
d. Permission for proposed action granted.
13. What is the meaning of the phrase "ACKNOWLEDGE"?

a. Let me know that you have received and understood this
message. b. I have received all of your last transmission.
b. Repeat all or the following part of your last transmission.
c. My transmission is ended and I expect a response from you.
14. “VACATE RIGHT” means:

a. Turn right to leave the runway.
b. Clear the runway immediately.
c. The next runway exit is on the right.
d. Turn right after take off.
15. 'GO AROUND' means:

a. Carry out a missed approach.
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b. Overtake the aircraft ahead.

c. Make a 360 degree turn.
d. Taxi past the aircraft at the holding point.
16. 'STANDBY' means:

a. Wait and I will call you again.
b. Select STANDBY on the SSR Transponder.
c. Hold your present position.
d. Continue on present heading and listen out.
17. What does the phrase "MONITOR" mean?

a. Listen out on (frequency).
b. Establish radio contact with ...
c. I repeat for clarity or emphasis.
d. Watch the instruments.
18. What does the phrase "REPORT" mean?

a. Pass me the following information.
b. Say again.
c. Pass your message.
d. Proceed with your message.
19. Which of the following options best describes the purpose of Special VFR
clearance?
a. It enables a pilot flying VFR to fly in a Control Zone where normally an IFR
clearance would be required.
b. It enables a pilot to fly in the Open FIR with weather minima which are lower
than for VFR.
c. It enables a pilot flying VFR to cross an airway.
d. It permits a pilot flying VFR to operate at his discretion within Control Zone.
20. 'ORBIT RIGHT' means:

a. Continue to make right hand turn until advised.
b. Right hand circuits in use.
c. Turn right to avoid other traffic.
d. Make a 360 degrees turn to the right.
21. A pilot receives the clearance to hold over an en-route reporting point until a
specified time. This time is called:
a. Expected approach time.
b. Estimated over time.
c. Estimated time of arrival.
d. Holding time.
22. What does the term ALTITUDE

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mean?
a. Altitude above mean sea level.
b. Height above an airfield.
c. Flight level.
d. Standard altitude.
23. What is the meaning of the term "FLIGHT LEVEL"?

a. A level in atmosphere for vertical separation which is determined by setting
the altimeter to 1013.2 hPa.
b. A level in atmosphere for vertical separation which is determined by setting
the altimeter to local QNH.
c. A level in atmosphere for vertical separation which is determined by setting
the altimeter to local QFE.
d. A pressure level based on regional QNH.
24. Phase of flight: climb, take off, descent, start-up, approach, cruise, push back, final
approach, taxi, take off roll, touch down i line-up were mixed. Their order is:
a. Start up, push back, taxi, line-up, take off roll, take off, climb, cruise, descent,
approach, final approach, touch down.
b. Line-up, take off roll, take off, climb, cruise, descent, approach, start up, push
back, taxi, final approach, touch down.
c. Push back, taxi, line-up, take off roll, start up, take off, descent, climb, cruise,
touch down, approach, final approach.
25. Which altitude has been reported by a pilot using the phrase "FIVE THOUSAND
FEET QFE"?
a. Height above the airfield.
b. Flight level.
c. Altitude above mean sea level.
d. Adequate altitude in International Standard Atmosphere (ICAO).
26. When a pilot reports FIVE THOUSAND FEET, the controller concludes:
a. The altitude of the aircraft is 5,000 ft above mean sea
level.
b. The altimeter of the aircraft is set to the local QFE.
c. The altitude of the aircraft is 5,000 ft above the airfield.
d. The altimeter of the aircraft is set to the standard pressure 1013.2hpa.
27. An altitude of 4,500 ft QNH should be pronounced as:

a. FOUR THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED FEET.
b. FORTY FIVE THOUSAND.
c. FOUR POINT FIVE.
d. FORTY FIVE HUNDRED FEET ABOVE SEA LEVEL.
28. An altitude of 5,000 ft should be broadcasted as:

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a. FIVE THOUSAND FEET.

b. FIVE NULL NULL NULL.
c. FIVE ZERO ZERO ZERO FEET.
d. FIFTY HUNDRED.
29. An altitude of 11,000 ft should be broadcasted as:

a. WUN WUN THOUSAND FEET.
b. ELEVEN THOUSAND FEET.
c. WUN WUN ZERO ZERO ZERO FEET.
d. ELEVEN THOUSAND ZERO FEET.
30. Altitude 10,500 ft should be broadcasted as:

a. TEN THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED FEET.
b. TEN POINT FIVE.
c. WUN ZERO THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED FEET.
d. WUN ZERO FIVE HUNDRED FEET ABOVE SEA LEVEL.
31. COMM frequency 118.125 MHz should be transmitted by pronouncing:

a. WUN WUN EIGHT DECIMEL WUN –TOO using 5/4 Digit Phraseology or
WUN WUN EIGHT DECIMEL WUN TOO FIVE using 6/4 Digit Phraseology
b. WUN WUN EIGHT WUN TOO FIVE.
c. WUN WUN EIGHT DECIMAL WUN TOO.
32. When broadcasting numbers in radiotelephony communication, the number 583 is

transmitted as:
a. FIVE EIGHT THREE.
b. FIVE HUNDRED EIGHTY THREE.
c. FIFTY EIGHT THREE.
d. FIVE HUNDRED EIGHT THREE.
33. When broadcasting numbers in radiotelephony communication, the number 496 is

transmitted as:
a. FOUR NINER SIX.
b. FOUR HUNDRED AND NINETY SIX.
c. FOUR HUNDRED AND NINER SIX.
d. FOUR NINETY SIX.
34. When broadcasting numbers in radiotelephony communication, the number 4501

is transmitted as:
a. FOUR FIVE ZERO WUN.
b. FOUR THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED WUN.
c. FOUR FIVE ZERO POINT WUN.
d. FORTY FIVE HUNDRED WUN.
35. The number 600 should be broadcasted as:

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a. SIX HUNDRED.
b. SIX ZERO ZERO.
c. SIX NULL NULL.
d. SIXTY ZERO.
36. COMM frequency 118.0 MHz should be broadcasted by pronouncing:

a. WUN WUN EIGHT DECIMAL ZERO.
b. WUN HUNDRED EIGHTEEN POINT NULL.
c. WUN WUN EIGHT.
d. WUN WUN EIGHT POINT ZERO.
37. In aviation broadcasting, how do we pronounce COMM frequency 118.1 MHz?

a. WUN WUN EIGHT DECIMAL WUN.
b. WUN WUN EIGHT POINT WUN.
c. WUN HUNDRED ELEVEN POINT WUN.
d. WUN WUN EIGHT WUN.
38. In aviation broadcasting, how do we pronounce COMM frequency 118.150 MHz?

a. WUN WUN EIGHT DECIMAL WUN FIVE.
b. WUN WUN EIGHT DECIMAL WUN FIVE ZERO.
c. WUN WUN EIGHT POINT WUN FIVE ZERO.
d. WUN WUN EIGHT DASH WUN FIVE.
39. Frequency 121.725 MHz should be transmitted as:

a. WUN TOO WUN DECIMAL SEVEN TOO FIFE, using 6/4 Digit Phraseology,
and WUN TOO WUN DECIMAL SEVEN TOO, using 5/4 Digit Phraseology.
b. WUN TWO WUN POINT SEVEN TWO.
c. WUN TOO WUN POINT SEVEN TOO.
d. WUN TWENTY WUN DECIMAL SEVEN TWENTY FIVE.
40. The pilot may abbreviate the call sign of an aircraft:

a. Only after the ground station has used the abbreviated call sign.
b. Not at all.
c. After radio contact with the ground station has been established.
d. Any time at his discretion.
41. A time of 1020 hours is transmitted as:

a. 'ONE ZERO TWO ZERO' or 'TWO ZERO'.
b. TEN TWENTY HOURS.
c. TEN TWO ZERO.
d. ONE ZERO TWENTY.
42. A time of 1020 hours is transmitted at 0910 hours as:

a. 'ONE ZERO TWO ZERO'.
b. TEN TWENTY HOURS.
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c. TEN TWO ZERO.

d. 'TWO ZERO'.
43. Phonetic transcription for the label 70-VEL pronounced as:

a. SEVEN, ZERO, VICTOR, ECHO, LIMA.
b. SEVEN, ZERO, WHISKEY, ECHO, LMA.
c. SEVENTY, VICTOR, ECHO, LIMA.
44. Phonetic transcription for the label EXTRA pronounced as:

a. ECHO, XRAY, TANGO, ROMEO, ALFA.
b. EXTRA.
c. ECHO,XRAY,TORONTO,ROMEO,ALFA
d. ECHO, IKS, TORONTO, ROMEO, ALFA.
45. Phonetic transcription for the label C-MNXY pronounced as:

a. CHARLIE, MIKE, NOVEMBER, XRAY, YANKEE.
b. COCA, MIKE, NECTAR, XRAY, YANKEE.
c. CHARLIE, METRO, NOVEMBER, EXTRA, YANKEE.
46. Phonetic transcription for the label B9-DFF pronounced as:

a. BRAVO, NINER, DELTA, FOXTROT, FOXTROT.
b. BRAVO, NINE, DELTA, FOXTROT, FOXTROT.
c. BRAVO, NINE, DELTA, TWO FOXTROT.
47. A pilot shall ask for a QFE as follows:

a. Request QUEBEC FOXTROT ECHO.
b. Request QUEBEC FOX ECHO.
c. Request QUEEN FOX EASY.
d. Request QUEBEC FOX EASY.
48. What is the correct way of spelling out FRI-VOR in a radio message?
a. FOXTROT ROMEO INDIA VOR.
b. FOXTROT ROMEO INDIA VICTOR OSCAR ROMEO.
c. FRIDAY VOR.
d. FOX ROMEO INDIA VOR.
49. The abbreviation for a control zone is:

a. CTR.
b. MATZ.
c. CTA.
d. CTZ.
50. Which of the following abbreviations must be broadcast to individual letters?

a. Y-BC.
b. ILS.
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c. RVR.
d. CAVOK.
51. What is the Q code for the measurement of relative heights above an airfield?
a. QFE.
b. ELT.
c. QNH.
d. QBA.
52. What is the Q code for the measurement of altitude?

a. QNH.
b. QFF.
c. QNE.
d. QFE.
53. What is the Q code for the measurement of flight level?

a. QNE.
b. QFF.
c. QNH.
d. QFE.
54. What is the Q code for a magnetic bearing to a station?

a. QDM.
b. QDR.
c. QGH.
d. QNH.
55. What is the Q code for a magnetic bearing from a station?

a. QDR.
b. QGH.
c. QDM.
d. QNH.
56. What is the Q code for a true bearing from a station?

a. QTE.
b. QDR.
c. QNH.
d. QFE.
57. What does the phrase "QDM" mean?

a. Magnetic direction from an aircraft to the goniometric station.
b. Atmospheric pressure at airfield elevation.
c. Atmospheric pressure at airfield elevation, reduced to sea level.
d. Actual weather at an airfield.
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58. What does "QNH" mean?

a. Altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain elevation when on ground.
b. Atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation.
c. True bearing from a station.
d. Magnetic bearing from a station.
59. If you want to request a service from a ground station:

a. You must do so in your initial call.
b. You must do so after you have established two way communications with the
station.
c. You must monitor the ground station frequency until you hear the ground station
giving the service you require to another aircraft.
d. As a private pilot you are not entitled to request a service.
60. Which of the following lists are all ATC messages that must read back in full:
a. Clearance to enter, land on, take-off on, backtrack, cross or hold short of an
active runway; SSR instructions.
b. Level instructions, altimeter settings, surface wind, and runway information.
c. ATC route clearances, runway clearances, actual weather reports.
d. VOR information, frequency changes, type of radar service.
61. A pilot is required to read back:

a. SSR operating instructions, take-off clearances, altimeter settings, VDF
information, frequency changes.
b. ATC route clearances, runway clearances, conditional clearances, actual
weather reports.
c. Altimeter settings, taxi information, terminal weather, runway clearances,
approach aid serviceability.
d. Route clearances, speed instructions, weather reports, taxi clearances, runway
state information.
62. Which of the following statements is correct?

"In ground to air communications the controller will always":
a. Say your call sign first.
b. Say your call sign last.
c. Say your call sign first only on initial contact.
63. Call sign of ATC for control of aircraft and vehicles on maneuvering area?
a. GROUND.
b. TOWER.
c. DISPATCH.
d. APRON.
64. The prescribed phrase for obtaining a permission to taxi to the runway for departure
is :
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a. REQUEST TAXI.
b. WHAT IS MY TAXI CLEARANCE.
c. REQUEST PERMISSION TO TAXI.
d. REQUEST TAXI CLEARANCE.
65. When a control tower transmits the phrase "REPORT DOWNWIND", the pilot is
instructed to report:
a. Aircraft position in traffic pattern between the second turn and the third turn,
abeam of the halfway point of the runway.
b. Estimated wind direction and velocity at the altitude of flying.
c. Maximum allowed tail wind for landing.
d. Aircraft position "final" in traffic pattern.
66. The controller wants to obtain the information about the level at which an aircraft is
flying, using the phrase:
a. REPORT LEVEL.
b. WHAT IS YOUR LEVEL?
c. REQUEST LEVEL.
d. TRANSMIT YOUR LEVEL.
67. Which phrase is used by an ATC when advising the pilot that the position report
over the compulsory reporting point is not required?
a. OMIT POSITION REPORT OVER ... (fix).
b. CANCEL POSITION REPORT OVER ... (fix).
c. NO POSITION REPORT OVER ... (fix).
d. DO NOT REPORT OVER ... (fix).
68. When the aircraft pilot is not able to execute a command, control informs the flight
phrase:
a. UNABLE TO COMPLY.
b. UNABLE TO ACCEPT.
c. REQUEST RECLEARANCE.
d. I CANNOT COMPLY.
69. How do you ask for a message to be repeated?

a. SAY AGAIN.
b. PLEASE SAY THE MESSAGE AGAIN.
c. REPEAT MESSAGE.
d. SAY ALL AGAIN.
70. Which of the following messages has the highest priority?

a. REQUEST QDM.
b. TAXI TO THE REFUELLING PUMPS.
c. CAUTION, WORK IN PROGRESS ON THE T AXIWAY.
d. REPORT FINAL NUMBER 1.
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71. If a controller passes an instruction and you understand it and will comply, the
standard reply is:
a. WILCO.
b. VERIFY.
c. ROGER.
d. CONFIRM.
72. If the pilot is unable to make contact with a station on a designated frequency, then
he should:
a. Try transmitting on another related frequency.
b. Make a blind transmission.
c. Transmit on 121.5 MHz.
d. Transmit using words twice.
73. When transmitting a message preceded by the phrase "Transmitting blind due to
receiver failure" the aircraft station shall also:
a. Advise the time of its next intended transmission.
b. Proceed to the alternate airport.
c. Hold for 5 minutes at its present position.
74. You are at the holding point of the runway in use, have completed all your pre-flight
vital checks and are ready to enter the runway and take off. What RT phraseology
would you use to inform ATC of your readiness?
a. (CALLSIGN) READY FOR DEPARTURE.
b. (CALLSIGN) READY FOR TAKE OFF.
c. (CALLSIGN) READY FOR LINE UP.
d. (CALLSIGN) READY TO PROCEED.
75. If the pilot cannot follow the instructions and orders, he should advise the air traffic
control by transmitting the phrase
a. UNABLE TO COMPLY.
b. UNABLE TO ACCEPT.
c. REQUEST RECLEARANCE
d. I CANNOT COMPLY.
76. You are flying at FL50 in YU-ABC. When asked by the controller to report your
level, what is the correct response?
a. MAINTAINING FL50, Y-BC.
b. FL50, Y-BC.
c. AT FL50, Y-BC.
d. Y-BC, FL50.
77. Having obtained a clearance to cross a Military Aerodrome Traffic Zone (MATZ), a
pilot is required to maintain 2,500 feet on the MATZ QFE. All references to the
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aircraft’s vertical position should, from that point, be made in the terms of its:
a. Height.
b. Altitude.
c. Flight Level.
d. Minimum Vertical Separation Distance.
78. When requesting a clearance to cross a Military Aerodrome Zone, a pilot should
pass information to the military controller with the following content and in the
following order:
a. Call-sign, Aircraft Type, Departure Point and Destination, Present Position,
Altitude or Level, Additional Details or Intentions.
b. Call-sign, Heading, Route, Present Position, Intentions.
c. Aircraft Type, Route, Present Position, Additional Details or Intentions, Call-sign.
d. Call-sign, Altitude, Position, Intentions.
79. You are flying on a NE heading at 2500 ft. You would report your heading and level
as:
a. HEADING 045 AT TOO TOUSAND FIFE HUNDRED FEET.
b. HEADING 045 AT TOO FIFE ZERO ZERO FEET.
c. HEADING 045 AT 25 HUNDRED FEET.
d. FLYING AT TOO TOUSAND FIFE HUNDRED FEET ON HEADING 045.
80. How would you correctly reply to the ATC instruction "Y-CD, Change to Belgrade
Tower, 118.1”?
a. WUN WUN EIGHT DAYSEEMAL WUN, YANKEE CHARLIE DELTA.
b. Y-CD, 118.1.
c. CHANGE TO BELGRADE TOWER 118.1, Y-CD.
d. WILCO, Y-CD.
81. Which of the options below gives a correct order and content for a Position Report?
a. Call Sign, Position, Time, Level or Altitude, Next Position with ETA.
b. Call Sign, Route, Position, Level, ETA next Position, Heading, Request.
c. Position, Level or Altitude, Time, ETA at Next Position, Call Sign.
d. Route, Position, Time, Level or Altitude, ETA at Next Position, Call Sign.
82. ATC will give a descent instruction by using the phrase:

a. DESCEND TO FL...
b. MAINTAIN FL...
c. LEAVE FL... FOR FL...
d. CLEARED FL...
83. ATC will give a climb instruction by using the phrase

a. CLIMB TO FL...
b. MAINTAIN FL...
c. LEAVE FL... FOR FL...
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d. CLEARED FL...
84. You discover in your pre-flight planning that the air traffic service at your destination
airfield is provided by an Air-Ground Communications Service. What will be the
allocated RT call-sign of the ground station?
a. Information.
b. Approach.
c. Tower.
d. Radio.
85. When asked by ATC "Are you able to maintain FL 40" the correct reply contains the
phrase:
a. Information.
b. Approach.
c. Tower.
d. Radio.
86. When requesting a special VFR clearance in flight, ATC must be given details of:
a. Call sign, type, intentions and ETA at entry point.
b. Call sign, type, T AS, ETA at entry point and destination.
c. Call sign, type, position, heading, intentions and ETA at entry point.
d. Call sign, altitude, heading and ETA at entry point.
87. Which of the following is correct?

a. ”ROGER” means I have received all of your last transmission.
b. Runway 18 is passed as ”Runway Eighteen”.
c. ”With you” means that you are on frequency.
d. ”WILCO” means I have received and understood the message.
88. If requested by the control tower to report having crossed the runway, the pilot has
to use the phrase
a. RUNWAY VACATED.
b. I HAVE LEFT THE RUNWAY.
c. I AM CLEAR OF RUNWAY.
d. I AM BEYOND THE RUNWAY.
89. A "downwind" call is made:

a. Any position on downwind leg.
b. Abeam the upwind end of the runway.
c. As soon as the aircraft is on the downwind leg.
d. Just before turning on to base leg.
90. Report position base leg is done:

a. Only when required to control.
b. Always.
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c. Only the pilot will.
91. Correct phrase for final report is:

a. Y-BC ON FINAL.
b. WE ARE APPROACHING FINAL.
c. VRŠAC TOWER, FINAL.
92. That portion of the runway identified by the letter C is called? (See Fig. PPL Kom-1)
a. LINE-UP POSITION.
b. START-UP POSITION.
c. APRON.
d. BASE LEG.
93. That portion of the airport traffic circuit identified by the letter E is called? (See Fig.
PPL Kom-1)
a. DOWNWIND POSITION.
b. LINE-UP.
c. CROSSWIND LEG.
d. BASE LEG.
94. Which designator denotes part of the aerodrome traffic circuit named "Base Leg"?
(See Fig. PPL Kom-1)
a. F.
b. G.
c. E.
d. D.
95. Which letter identifies that portion of the airport traffic circuit, called "FINAL LEG"?
(See Fig. PPL Kom-1)
a. G.
b. E.
c. F.
d. C.
96. That portion of the airport identified by the letter A is called? (See Fig. PPL Kom-1)
a. APRON.
b. RUNWAY.
c. TAXIWAY.
d. BASE LEG.
97. That portion of the airport taxiway identified by the letter B is called? (See Fig. PPL
Kom-1)
a. HOLDING POINT.
b. APRON.
c. LINE-UP POSITION.
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d. CROSSWIND LEG.
98. Which of these statements is true?

a. If you are receiving a Danger Area Activity Information Service the unit providing
the service cannot also give you clearance to cross the danger area.
b. If you are receiving a Danger Area Activity Information Service the unit providing
the service can also give you clearance to cross the danger area.
c. VFR flights are allowed in Danger Areas only if aircraft are equipped with a
transponder fitted with Mode Charlie.
d. VFR flights are not allowed in Danger Area under any circumstances.
99. Taxi instructions issued by the controller will include a clearance limit which will
normally be:
a. The holding point of the runway in use.
b. The threshold of the runway in use.
c. The entrance to the parking area.
100. The phrase "CLEARANCE EXPIRES AT 02 35" means that the pilot:
a. Will be granted permission for takeoff by 02 35.
b. May takeoff after 02 35.
c. Shall wait until 02 35 asking for departure clearance.
d. Shall start up engines at 02 35.
101. Which phrase is used to annul the previously transmitted clearance?

a. DISREGARD.
b. RECLEARED.
c. NEGATIVE.
d. CANCEL.
102. The permission to taxi to the takeoff position will be phrased

a. LINE UP.
b. TAXI TO THE TAKEOFF POSITION.
c. CLEARED INTO POSITION AND HOLD.
d. CONTINUE TO TAKEOFF POSITION AND HOLD.
103. A pilot receives the following message from ATC: "YU-ABC, After departure
cleared to zone boundary via Route Bravo, Climb to Altitude 2 500 feet, QNH 1005,
Squawk 6521." What type of clearance is this?
a. A Route Clearance.
b. A Take-off Clearance.
c. A Conditional Clearance.
d. A Departure Clearance.
104. If the pilot of an aircraft, equipped with the transponder, has been instructed
"SQUAWK 1200" by an ATC, he should set the code 1200 on the transponder and
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a. Move the switch to "ON" or "ALT", if not yet selected.

b. Push the button "IDENT".
c. Move the switch to "STANDBY".
d. Move the switch to "STANDBY" and depress on button "IDENT".
105. The phrase, which instructs the pilot to set transponder code A6620 again, is:
a. RECYCLE ALPHA 6620.
b. SQUAWK AGAIN ALPHA 6620.
c. SWITCH ON ALPHA 6620.
d. CONFIRM SQUAWKING ALPHA 6620.
106. If a transponder does not transmit on mode C although it is expected, an ATC

will instruct the pilot to switch on mode C by using the phrase
a. SQUAWK CHARLIE.
b. SQUAWK ALTIMETER.
c. SQUAWK PRESSURE ALTITUDE.
d. TRANSMIT ON MODE CHARLIE.
107. You receive the message “YU-ABC Squawk Indent". You should:
a. Operate the special position identification on the SSR transponder.
b. Select STANDBY on the SSR transponder.
c. Select ALT - altitude reporting facility (Mode C) on the SSR transponder.
d. Reply giving your call sign.
108. The phrase "Squawk Charlie" means:

a. Select 'ALT' on the transponder.
b. Transponder.
c. Confirm the transponder is selected ON.
d. Select 7700 on the transponder.
109. With the SSR transponder selected ON, the ATC message 'YU-ABC verify your
level' would be made to:
a. Check and confirm the accuracy of the Mode C level information displayed to
the controller.
b. Identify aircraft position.
c. Check your altimeter setting.
d. Check with the pilot that Mode C is selected ON.
110. In a radar environment heading information given by the pilot and heading
instructions given by controllers are in:
a. Degrees magnetic.
b. Degrees true.
c. Degrees Celsius.
d. Degrees Absolute.
________________________________________________________________________________________________
111. In the event of a radio failure the SSR transponder should be set to:
e. 7600.
f. 7700.
g. 7500.
h. 7000.
112. A pilot squawking A 7700 indicates to the ground station that

a. His aircraft is in an emergency situation.
b. His radio is unserviceable.
c. He has a sick person on board.
d. His flight is being hijacked.
113. Which transponder mode gives an altitude readout:

a. Mod C.
b. Mod A.
c. Mod B.
d. Mod D.
114. If you are flying an aircraft without a transponder, what would you say if you
were asked to SQUAWK?
a. NEGATIVE TRANSPONDER.
b. NEGATIVE SQUAWK.
c. I DO NOT HAVE A TRANSPONDER.
d. NO TRANSPONDER.
115. By which international phrase will the intercepting aircraft allows the intercepted
aircraft to continue the flight?
a. PROCEED.
b. CALL SIGN.
c. DESCEND.
d. FOLLOW.
116. The phrase "CALL SIGN", passed by a radio from a pilot of an intercepting
aircraft to the pilot of an intercepted aircraft, means:
a. What is your call sign?
b. Call the air traffic control!
c. Transmit an emergency call!
d. Return to your airport of origin!
117. What is the meaning of the phrase "YOU LAND", passed by a radio from the
pilot of an intercepting aircraft to the pilot of an intercepted aircraft?
a. Land at this aerodrome.
b. Report the name of your aerodrome of origin.
c. Follow me.
d. You may proceed.
________________________________________________________________________________________________
118. Which is the correct phrase used by the pilot of an intercepted aircraft to convey
to an intercepting aircraft his inability to comply with the received instructions?
a. CAN NOT.
b. AM LOST.
c. MAYDAY.
d. WILCO.
119. The pilot of an intercepted aircraft report to the pilot of an intercepting aircraft
that he is lost and his position is uncertain to him by transmitting the following
international radio phrase
a. AM LOST.
b. WILCO.
c. CAN NOT.
d. MAYDAY.
120. Which frequency is intended for a conversation between the intercepting aircraft
and the intercepted aircraft?
a. International emergency frequency 121.5 MHz.
b. Local air force frequency.
c. Local emergency frequency.
d. Frequency air-air.
121. By which international phrase will the intercepting aircraft direct the intercepted
aircraft to follow him?
a. FOLLOW.
b. PROCEED.
c. YOU LAND.
d. CALL SIGN.
122. What are the two classified states of Emergency Message?

a. Distress and Urgency.
b. MAYDAY and PAN PAN.
c. Emergency and Security.
d. Emergency and PAN PAN.
123. „DISTRESS” is defined as a condition:

a. That threaten to become serious or immediate danger and require immediate
assistance
b. That threatens to become serious or immediate danger and do not require
urgent assistance.
c. Concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle or of some person on board
or within sight, but which does not require immediate assistance.
d. Concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle or of some person on board
or within sight and requiring immediate assistance.
________________________________________________________________________________________________
124. URGENCY is defined as a condition:

a. Concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle or of some person on board
or within sight, but which does not require immediate assistance.
b. Concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle or of some person on board
or within sight and requiring immediate assistance.
c. That threatens to become serious or immediate danger and require immediate
assistance.
d. That threatens to become serious or immediate danger and do not require
urgent assistance.
125. The frequency used for the first transmission of a 'MAYDAY' call should be:
a. The frequency currently in use.
b. The distress frequency 121.5 MHz.
c. Approach frequency of the nearest airfield.
d. Any international distress frequency.
126. In case a pilot intend to transmit by radiotelephony an urgent message,

concerning safety of the other aircraft, he should begin his broadcast by the
a. Spoken word "PANPAN".
b. Spoken word "MAYDAY".
c. Morse code "XXX".
d. Morse code "MAYDAY".
127. During overflying a remote forest area you notice a hang glider on tree canopies
and it seems to you that the pilot hangs on his harnesses. You decide to call the
nearest airport and report the accident. The phrase with which you should begin
your radiotelephony message is:
a. PANPAN, PANPAN, PANPAN
b. EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY
c. MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY.
d. MEDICAL, MEDICAL, MEDICAL.
128. During a cross-country flight you notice an emergency landing of a light

aeroplane on a meadow below. The aircraft seems undamaged and the pilot
unhurt. Which phrase will you use at the beginning of your report to the air traffic
control concerning the event?
a. PANPAN, PANPAN, PANPAN.
b. HELPHELP, HELPHELP, HELPHELP.
c. MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY.
d. EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY.
129. Which radiotelephony phrase means "WE ARE IN GRAVE AND IMMINENT
DANGER, AND IMMEDIATE ASSISTANCE IS REQUIRED"?
a. Spoken word "MAYDAY".
________________________________________________________________________________________________
b. Word "MAYDAY", transmitted by Morse code.

c. Spoken word "SECURITY".
d. Spoken word "PANPAN".
130. The phrase, with which a radiotelephony distress message is being started, is:
a. MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY.
b. PANPAN, PANPAN, PANPAN.
c. EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY.
d. HELP, HELP, HELP.
131. At outlanding you damaged your aircraft and hurt yourself however there is
nobody in the vicinity to assist you. Which is the international phrase, with which
you should start your radiotelephony call for a help?
a. MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY.
b. PANPAN, PANPAN, PANPAN.
c. MEDICAL, MEDICAL, MEDICAL.
d. EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY.
132. Which of the following frequencies is the international emergency frequency?

a. 121,500 MHz.
b. 122.500 MHz.
c. 121,050 MHz.
d. 122.050 MHz.
133. The frequency 121.5 MHz is:

a. An international emergency frequency.
b. A regional guard frequency.
c. A regional emergency frequency.
d. A frequency for air-to-air communication.
134. When an aircraft fails to establish communication with an aeronautical station or

aircraft station, the aircraft has to transmit its message twice, preceded by the
phrase
a. TRANSMITTING BLIND.
b. MAYDAY.
c. PANPAN.
d. WORDS TWICE.
135. On hearing a Distress message a pilot must:

a. Maintain radio silence and monitor the frequency to ensure assistance is
provided.
b. Acknowledge the message immediately and standby to relay further messages
if required.
c. Change frequency because radio silence will be imposed on the frequency in
use.
________________________________________________________________________________________________
d. Take control of the situation and co-ordinate the efforts of all agencies in the
rescue operation.
136. Radio test transmissions should take the following form:

a. BEOGRAD TOWER YU-ABC Radio check 118.1.
b. BEOGRAD TOWER YU-ABC 118.1 Do you read?
c. BEOGRAD TOWER YU-ABC Hoe do you read?
d. BEOGRAD TOWER YU-ABC Readability check 118.1.
137. In order to make your communications more effective, you should:

a. Use a constant speaking volume.
b. Use words twice.
c. Modulate your voice.
d. Call break between sentences.
138. Using the readability scale, “readability 5” means:

a. Perfectly readable.
b. Readable but with difficulty.
c. Unreadable.
d. Readable.

a. Readable.
b. Readable with difficulty.
c. Readable with background.
d. Unreadable.

a. Readable but with difficulty
b. Unreadable.
c. Perfectly readable.
d. Readable with background.

a. Readable now and then.
b. Unreadable.

a. Unreadable.
b. Readable but with difficulty.
________________________________________________________________________________________________
143. Which aeronautical communication service provides automated airfield and

meteorological information for departing and arriving traffic?
a. ATIS.
b. LARS
c. AFIS.
d. FIS.
144. What are the three categories of aeronautical communication service?

a. Air Ground Communication Service, Flight Information Service, Air traffic
Control.
b. b. Air, Land and Sea.
c. Approach, Tower, Ground.
d. IFR, VFR, SVFR.
145. If no ATIS is available, the pilot asks for departure information using the phrase
a. REQUEST DEPARTURE INFORMATION.
b. REQUEST DEPARTURE INSTRUCTIONS.
c. I WOULD LIKE DEPARTURE INFORMATION.
d. REPORT DEPARTURE INFORMATION.
146. A Radar Information Service (RIS) is an ATC service:

a. In which the controller will inform the pilot of the bearing, distance and, if known,
the altitude of conflicting traffic.
b. In which the controller will provide radar separation from all other traffic.
c. In which the controller will direct the aircraft to avoid the other traffic.
d. Which may only be used by aircraft flying in accordance with the instrument
flight rules?
147. The abbreviation ATIS stands for:

a. Automatic Terminal Information Service.
b. Aircraft Technical Information Service.
c. Air Traffic Information Service.
d. Aerodrome Traffic Information Service.
148. ATIS is to be found on:

a. A discrete VHF or a VOR frequency.
b. The Approach frequency.
c. The Tower frequency.
149. Which statement is correct?

a. A VHF Direction Finding message has priority over a flight safety message.
b. A meteorological message has priority over a flight safety message.
c. An urgency message is lower priority than a flight safety message.
d. A ”windshear” warning has a higher priority than ”cleared take off”.
________________________________________________________________________________________________
150. The correct call sign of a station providing flight information service is the
location followed by:
a. INFORMATION.
b. HOMER.
c. CONTROL.
d. RADIO.
________________________________________________________________________________________________
Appendix
Fig. PPL Com - 1

Subject: Communications: Theoretical Knowledge Examination For Obtaining PPL (H)

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Subject: Communications: Theoretical Knowledge Examination For Obtaining PPL (H)

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PPL (H) - Communications

FLIGHT CREW LICENSING DEPARTMENT

Theoretical Knowledge Examination for obtaining PPL (H)

Period of validity: March 2011th – December 31st, 2011.

Belgrade, March, 2011.

1. Aerodrome traffic is:

2. VHF frequencies used for communication which is the range:

3. The maximum VHF communications range that can be expected by an aircraft at

4. An aircraft will be in the best range for VFR communications if it is:

5. What is the meaning of the term ”IMC”?

6. The term ”CVFR flight” stands for:

7. The term ”CVFR flight” stands for:

8. What is the meaning of the term ”VMC”?

9. What is the meaning of the term ”VFR flight”?

10. What does the phrase ”WILCO” mean?

11. What is the meaning of the phrase "VERIFY"?

12. What is the meaning of the phrase "ROGER"?

13. What is the meaning of the phrase "ACKNOWLEDGE"?

14. “VACATE RIGHT” means:

15. 'GO AROUND' means:

b. Overtake the aircraft ahead.

16. 'STANDBY' means:

17. What does the phrase "MONITOR" mean?

18. What does the phrase "REPORT" mean?

20. 'ORBIT RIGHT' means:

22. What does the term ALTITUDE

23. What is the meaning of the term "FLIGHT LEVEL"?

27. An altitude of 4,500 ft QNH should be pronounced as:

28. An altitude of 5,000 ft should be broadcasted as:

a. FIVE THOUSAND FEET.

29. An altitude of 11,000 ft should be broadcasted as:

30. Altitude 10,500 ft should be broadcasted as:

31. COMM frequency 118.125 MHz should be transmitted by pronouncing:

32. When broadcasting numbers in radiotelephony communication, the number 583 is

33. When broadcasting numbers in radiotelephony communication, the number 496 is

34. When broadcasting numbers in radiotelephony communication, the number 4501

35. The number 600 should be broadcasted as:

36. COMM frequency 118.0 MHz should be broadcasted by pronouncing:

37. In aviation broadcasting, how do we pronounce COMM frequency 118.1 MHz?

38. In aviation broadcasting, how do we pronounce COMM frequency 118.150 MHz?

39. Frequency 121.725 MHz should be transmitted as:

40. The pilot may abbreviate the call sign of an aircraft:

41. A time of 1020 hours is transmitted as:

42. A time of 1020 hours is transmitted at 0910 hours as:

c. TEN TWO ZERO.

43. Phonetic transcription for the label 70-VEL pronounced as:

44. Phonetic transcription for the label EXTRA pronounced as:

45. Phonetic transcription for the label C-MNXY pronounced as:

46. Phonetic transcription for the label B9-DFF pronounced as:

47. A pilot shall ask for a QFE as follows:

49. The abbreviation for a control zone is:

50. Which of the following abbreviations must be broadcast to individual letters?

52. What is the Q code for the measurement of altitude?

53. What is the Q code for the measurement of flight level?

54. What is the Q code for a magnetic bearing to a station?

55. What is the Q code for a magnetic bearing from a station?

56. What is the Q code for a true bearing from a station?

57. What does the phrase "QDM" mean?

58. What does "QNH" mean?

59. If you want to request a service from a ground station:

61. A pilot is required to read back:

62. Which of the following statements is correct?

69. How do you ask for a message to be repeated?