AIR LAW NEW QUESTIONS
CAE Oxford Aviation Academy
In this document we tried our best to remember and organize all the new questions we got in Air Law, but we encourage you to
double check the answers yourselves so you can be sure that you have the right answer on the day of the exam.
Document compiled by:
AP382
AP380
APRIL 17, 2016
What should the pilot set if subjected to an emergency: 7700 Mode A or Mode C?
CMC is a: A paper or a Card or …
1- A card only ans
2- A crad and paper
3- A paper only
A question about the procedure to do if subjected to unlawful interference:
When the pilot should / must put navigation lights?
In civil aviation, pilots must keep navigation lights on from sunset to sunrise. Navigation lights: All aircraft are equipped with a steady
light near the leading edge of each wingtip. When facing forward from the perspective of the pilot, the light on the right wingtip is
green while that on the left wing is red. The different colours make it possible for an outside observer, such as the pilot of another
aircraft, to determine which direction the plane is flying. These navigation lights are most useful at night when it is more difficult to
tell the direction the plane is going without them.
Navigation Lights indicate the relative path of the aircraft to an observer. They are to be illuminated from sunset to sunrise or
during any period specified by the appropriate authority (Book air Law p. 105)
1- day only
2- day + night
3- night only Ans (be illuminated from sunset to sunrise)
4- in IMC
Where is the annex 13 applicable? (Book air law p.487)
Unless otherwise stated, the specifications in this Annex apply to activities following accidents and incidents wherever they
occurred.
Note.— The application of this specification with respect to accidents or serious incidents occurring in the territory of anon-
Contracting State, in an area of undetermined sovereignty or on the high seas is addressed in 5.2 and 5.3.
Definition of Essential Local traffic (Book air law p.309)
Any a/c, vehicle or personnel on or near the runway….
What the pilot doesn’t need to give when he uses mode C? The Altitude
Mode C equipment enables the ATC to see the aircraft altitude or flight level automatically.
When QNH is set to the subscale above the transition level?
I found this in an electronic version of the book that I have on my computer
a- when approach clearance is given and levelling off above the transition level is not anticipated ans (check please with the
instructor)
b- When there is a big difference between QNH and subscale and levelling off is not anticipated above the transition level (wrong
ans from feedback )
c- never above the transition level
d- only if you stated that in the flight plan item 18
When must the flight deck door must be closed?
Source: https://www.tc.gc.ca/eng/civilaviation/standards/commerce-circulars-ac0215-1711.htm
When in doubt about a baggage of a passenger what to do?
They said the choices were:
a- You consider screening all the baggage even the baggage which was already checked in
b- You consider screening only the baggage of the passenger in doubt (ans)
c- banana
When a glider is converging with an airplane which of them has the right of way?
If the 2 in conflict are not of the same time we use the mnemonic FAGB which means:
FAGB: a Flying machine always gives way to Aircraft which gives way to Gliders which gives way to Balloons
In this case: they’re not of the same type so the glider has the right of way
When cruising what do you use:
a- flight level if you’re at or above the lowest flight level (ans)
b- altitude if you’re at or the transition level
c- etc
What is OCA measured reference to?
Mean sea level because it’s an altitude
A heavy A/C is landing and a light A/C is taking off in the opposite direction what is the minimum separation:
a- 2 min ans
b- 0 min
c- 3 min
d- 5 min
Minimum flying hours to obtain CPL
a- 150 hours flight time, of which 5 hours may be instrument ground time ans
b- 150 hours flight time
c- 200 hours flight time, of which 10 hours may be instrument ground time
d- 200 hours flight time, of which 5 hours may be instrument ground time
What should the commander do before going in an IFR flight?
a- Check the navigation charts carefully
b- Check the mass and balance data
c- Check the fuel (ans: not sure)
d- Brief the crew
Each pilot in command shall, before beginning a flight, become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. This
information must include: "(a) For a flight under IFR or a flight not in the vicinity of an airport, weather reports and forecasts, fuel
requirements, alternatives available if the flight cannot be completed, and any known traffic delays of which the pilot in
command has been advised by ATC.
What is the purpose of the final segment of an instrument approach?
- This is the segment in which alignment and descent for landing are made
What is the segment between the initial segment and the final one in an instrument approach called? Intermediate approach
segment:
- start form IF and end at FAF
When does the initial instrument approach start and end?
- IAF to IF
2 or more aerodromes in close proximity to each other each one of them has its own transition altitude flying over them what do
you use:
a- The transition altitude that they agree on
b- The lowest
c- The highest (ans)
d- The average
What is the ICAO role and objective?
Who gives the certificate of airworthiness?
a- State of registry (ans)
b- State of design
c- ICAO
d- Operator
Who must or should make sure that everything is written in aerodrome? (not sure about this one)
a- Eurocontrol = also wrong
b- ECAC = European Civil Aviation Conference = I don’t think so
c- ATS
d- Contracting state
C or D I’m not sure
State who on board an aircraft is primarily responsible for the operation of the aircraft in accordance with the Rules of the Air
1-operator
2-commander ans
Class A airspace visibility below 10000 ft?
For VMC flight what is the visibility and ceiling?
a- 1000ft / 5km RVR
b- 1500ft / 5km RVR
c- 1500ft / 1.5 km RVR
d- 1500ft / 8km (ans)
What is the lowest altitude for VFR flight over congested areas?
a- 1000ft (ans)
b- 300ft
c- 600ft
d- 500ft
IFR flight over mountains must clear obstacles by:
a- 1000ft vertically 8nm radius
b- 2000ft / 8nm
c- 1000ft / 8nm
d- 2000 ft / 8km (ans)
ILS/MLS max angle of intersection or something (I don’t remember exactly) the answer is: 30 degrees
How restricted (R), prohibited (P), dangerous (D) areas represented?
a- Letters R, P and D
b- Letters R, P, D with a ID number (ans)
c- Letters R, P, D for each area with a ID number
d- Banana
What do you do when you are subject to an unlawful interference and cannot contact an ATS unit:
In this question be careful we had it in both ops and air law in ops we all went for considering flying in an intermediate flight level
(because we all remembered the rule for the MNPS Air Space) but I reality you have three things you can do if face this problem:
1- you have to broadcast your situation on an emergency frequency (121.5 MHz) If you can’t then
2- consult the ICAO doc 7030
3- take an intermediate level
So if you get the question and in the choices there is 1 go with it, else go with 2 and if 2 doesn’t exist then go with 3.
For Omni-directional Aerodrome normally you can depart from where ever you want but when there is restriction it will be given
as:
a- GPS
b- Bearing and distance (ans)
c- Lat and long
d- Flight time and speed
In case of an emergency what do you squawk:
a- 7700 mode A (ans)
b- 7500 mode A
c- 7700 mode C
d- 7500 mode C
When the VISA is not required for a crew member or a pilot:
When entering on duty and seeking temporary access
What is the mission of IATA? (International Air Transport Association)
- Key word: trade international organisation body
Smoke in the cockpit and the crew manage to locate its source what should they do:
a- Divert at max speed
b- Continue towards destination if flight time remaining is less than 90 min
c- Isolate the fire by cutting power using the circuit breaker (ans)
d- Call cabin crew to extinguish the fire using water
What is ASDA?
Runway available plus the length of the stopway
What is runway strip?
Runway + stopway
A defined area including the runway stop-way, if provided, intended firstly to reduce the risk of damage to aircraft running off a
runway, and secondly, to protect aircraft flying over it during take-off or landing operations (ICAO).
Can you use QNH above the transition level?
a- Yes when you obtain a clearance to start approach and intermediate levelling off is not expected (ans???)
b- Yes when the difference between the QNH and the SPS is very significant.(I went for this one but from the results file I think I
got it wrong)
c- Never (wrong see photo below)
d- Yes, if you’ve specified that in you flight plan item 18 (that’s banana)
When the authority add some time to your license before its expiry date this is called (the question was given by giving the
complete definition and they say this definition is for what):
a- Revalidation
b- Extension (this is not the correct answer for sure)
c- Renewal ( I will go for this not sure but 80% ^^)
d- Fulfilment
Who helps the authority of the state in securing airports?
a- The local police department (ans)
b- ICAO
c- Banana
You are flying VFR in control airspace.what if you are going to IMC contition? = Unsafe Behaviour and Risks
a- fly VFR in VMC and land nearest airport ans
b- Request VFR on top
c- bla bla
What is the maximum VFR flight level?
a- FL10
b- FL29
c- FL20 ans
d- FL25
What is the mission statement of EASA?
a- EASA suggests new rules to National Aviation Authorities, which these authorities are free to implement if they see fit.
b- EASA suggests the implementation of rules to the European Commission, and promotes the highest common standards of civil
aviation safety and environmental protection in Europe and worldwide.
c- EASA produces guidelines for National Aviation Authorities, and promotes the highest common standards of civil aviation
safety and environmental protection in Europe and worldwide.
d- EASA produces rules and regulations, and promotes the highest common standards of civil aviation safety and
environmental protection in Europe and worldwide. ans
What is the definition of a RESA? A Runway End Safety Area (this question has been added to aviation exam ID 505600)
a- An area at the end of a runway, adjacent to the strip, prepared or suitable for reducing the risk of damage to airplanes in
the event of an undershoot, overshoot, or excursion from the runway. ans
b- (A second answer which was really similar to the first)
c- An area clear of obstructions that can be used in the case of an emergency
d- An area including taxiways that can be used for aircraft movements
An area symmetrical about the extended runway centre line and adjacent to the end of the strip primarily intended to reduce the
risk of damage to an aeroplane undershooting or overrunning the runway is the definition for:
a- Clearway
b- Runway end safety area ans
c- Stopway
d- None of the above
A runway end safety area includes
a- The stopway and a symmetrically disposed area either side of the centreline which can be used by aircraft in an emergency
ans
b- The clearway and a symmetrically disposed area either side of the centreline which can be used by aircraft in an emergency.
c- Something else which sounded equally plausible
d- Something else which sounded equally plausible
When intercepted you are required to Squawk
a- 7500 Mode A
b- 7700 Mode C
c- 7600 Mode C
d- 7700 Mode A ans
You are flying along at X feet and there is a DME station Y miles away, what is the Slant Range?
a- Why
b- Is
c- this question
d- in Air Law???
So just use Pythagoras theorem
𝐒𝐥𝐚𝐧𝐭 𝐫𝐚𝐧𝐠𝐞 = √(𝐗² + 𝐘²)
And don’t forget to change feet to mile (lol ^^) at the end.
When flying from A to B, you intercept an emergency transmission from an aircraft in distress. Your actions will include, where
possible:
a- Acknowledge the transmission, and begin to search (I’m not sure but I will go with this ans)
b- Record the bearing of the transmission, and continue on your way (i don’t think so)
c- Hold at the point and coordinate the SAR operation
d- Enter a holding pattern and await instructions
When you are intercepting a distress signal and/or message, you shall: record the position of the aircraft in distress if given; if
possible take a bearing of the transmission inform the appropriate RCC or ASS and while awaiting instructions proceed at your own
discretion towards the position given in the transmission
Mode C-equipped Transponders are accurate to
a- 100m
b- 20m
c- 25ft
d- 100ft ans
If an aircraft is on the ground, how far should it be from other buildings/ac?
- (100M) ans
Who signs the general declaration form:
- Authorized Agent or PIC
How to confirm you understood instructions from ground signalling during the DAY time
- By rocking your wings
Emergency code question
- 7700 Mode A
Volcanic ash question
Notifying by ASHTAM
The volcano alert code used in field E of an ASHTAM is: a colour code
- RED: Volcanic eruption in progress or likely. Ash plume/cloud reported/expected above FL250.
- ORANGE: Volcanic eruption in progress or likely. Ash plume/cloud not reported/expected above FL250.
- YELLOW: Volcano known to be active or activity increased or decreased from RED or ORANGE. Not currently dangerous but
exercise caution.
- GREEN: Volcanic activity has ceased or returned to normal state.
When during flight must a transition level be provided?
- The flight crew shall be provided with the transition level in due time prior to reaching it during descent. This may be
accomplished by voice communications, ATIS broadcast or data link
How altimeter should be rounded
a- 1000ft ans rounded up to the nearest 1000.
b- 100ft
c- 500ft
d- 50ft
You are on the ground at an airfield with a 0 - 50,000ft altimeter in your aircraft. You move to a position of known elevation at the
airfield and set local QNH. Your altimeter will read the elevation of that point plus the following:
a- The height of the altimeter from the ground with a +/- 80ft tolerance
b- The height of the altimeter from the ground with a +/- 60ft tolerance
c- +/- 25ft tolerance
d- +/- 80ft tolerance ans
50000ft altimeter is accurate to 80ft and a 30000ft altimeter to 60ft
Simple light system extended
a- 420 ans
b- 600
c- 300
d- ???
What does approach start and end?
a- IAF , FAF ans
b- IF , FAF
c- blah
The restrictions placed on an ATPL holder between the ages of 60 - 65 are
a- Multi-crew operations only ans
b- No restrictions as long as the other crew member is younger than 40
c- May still fly commercial air transport operations as long as the other pilot is a Captain
d- May only fly single pilot operations
Qs about the pilot restriction age at or above 60:
1-one of multi crew and the other is younger than 60 (correct ans)
2- One of multi crew and the other is the captain
3-4 can’t remember
Question like how you do position report?
In the next few pages you’ll find some of the new question added by aviation exam we found that’s it’s better to put them here for
you because it’ll be difficult to find them especially after you’ve done some of the questions already: (up until now the last new
question added to aviation exam database has the ID 505601)
I think is 6 not 5 (please check with your instructors)
.
Altimeter settings provided to aircraft shall be rounded up or down
Rounded up to the nearest 1000.
Transition altitude is 3000 feet and QNH is 990. Transition level is:
a- FL 20
b- FL 25
c- FL 35
d- FL 40
If you use 30ft per hpa or 27ft in this case it doesn't matter
1013-990 = 23Hpa
23hpa x 30ft = 690 ft
Trans alt is 3000ft based on QNH, so above msl, but your flight level is measured off 1013Hpa which
is 690ft below the 990 level- so at 3000ft on the QNH, you will be at 3690ft above the 1013 level, so
nearest FL above that will be at 4000ft.
In the real world transition altitude is calculated by ATC and given in ATIS.
Simplified landing lights:
Simple approach lighting system & precision approach lighting systems.
What is EASA?
When should transition level be given?
Before commencing an approach to an aerodrome, the pilot is to obtain the transition level. Before
descending below the transition level, the latest QNH for the aerodrome is to be obtained. (This
does not preclude a pilot using QFE for terrain clearance purposes during the final approach to a
runway.)
Something about the registration mark of an heavier than an air aircraft ...
a- Upperside Left
b- Upperside right
c- downside left ans
d- downside right
Resolution Advisory :
a- Never deviate
b- May deviate in case of jeopardize safet ans
c- ATC instructions ... don't remember
If an RA is generated, the pilot is to respond immediately unless in doing so the safety of the
aeroplane would be jeopardized.
If you intercepted from another aircraf what is the unknow position sign
a- AM LOST (ans)
b- lost position
c- lost instrument
What an intercepting A/C telling you to get your call sign:
a- CALL SIGN (ans)
b- Who are you
c- don't remember what was c and d
What does the term CLEARANCE LIMIT mean?
- The point to which an aircraft is granted an air traffic control clearance
The qs asks about how many characters in a designator route:
a- 4
b- 5
c- 6 ans
d- 7
Principles governing RNP and ATS route designators
The ATS routes designations should have a least 2 and no more than 6 characters.
Each ATS route minimum altitude should be at least 1.000ft above the highest obstacle inside the
area.
IMC communication failure in airspace where procedural separation is being
applied, maintain the last assigned speed and level, or minimum flight
altitude if higher, for a period of
= uncontrolled air space
a- 20 minutes (ans)
b- 5 minutes
c- 10 minutes
d- 15 minutes
Altimeter setting procedures - flight level when at or above the "lowest
useable flight level" - if it doesn't state climbing or descending. in the qs said
you r in the cruise.
What should a pilot do at night when wanting to acknowledge an
instruction...
- switch landing lights on/off twice or navigation lights if not so equipped
Towing a glider, who has right of way
Always gliders have priority over aircraft towing gliders, airships and motorised heavier-than-air
aircraft
In case of other new qs you should know:
Balloons have priority over gliders, aircraft towing gliders, airships and motorised heavier-than-air
aircraft
Aircraft towing gliders have priority over airships and motorised heavier-than-air aircraft
An aircraft towing or refuelling other aircraft has the right-of-way over all other engine-driven
aircraft
Describe the lights to be displayed by aircraft :
- navigation light
State on which setting at least one altimeter shall be set prior to take off
50000
- 80 ft or 25 m
The requested navigation performance ( RNP ) is determined by :
a- Aircraft performance classification, communication and navigation services provided in the
concerned airspace
b- Airspace classification, navigation and ATC services provided in the concerned airspace
c- Communication, navigation and ATC services provided in the concerned airspace ans
d- Terrain clearance, communication and ATC services provided in the concerned airspace
ICAO : RNP types shall be prescribed by States. When applicable, the RNP type(s) for designated
areas, tracks or ATS routes shall be prescribed on the basis of regional air navigation agreements.
The prescribed RNP type shall be appropriate to the level of communications, navigation and air
traffic services provided in the airspace concerned.
A question about “Essential Local Traffic” something …..
Ans = Essential local traffic is considered to consist of any aircraft, vehicle or personnel on or near
the manoeuvring area, or traffic operating in the vicinity of the aerodrome, at the end of approach
or final approach segment ..
The choices are so close but I think the longest one is the correct one.
Describe where a threshold should normally be located
- At the extremity of the runway.
two main groups of approach lighting systems
the answer is:
- simple approach lighting system
- precision approach lighting
PIC should do if the aircraft is unable to notify an ATS unit of the unlawful
interference
a- skwaq = 7700
b- 500 ft in separation 2000
c- 200 ft in separation 1000
d- Follow doc 7030 (ans)
What info is included in the general declaration:
a- name of the crew ( I think is the right ans )
b- licence number (wrong ans)
c- date of birth
d- place of birth
Who assist the establishing of the security in the airport?
a- security committee of airport
b- Police Compartment (ans)
c- air force
d- Eurocontrol
If there is any danger in the route how will inform pilot
a- give him latitude and longitude
b- distance and bearing (ans)
c- separation time and distance
d- GPS
Who fill the airway bill?
a- operator
b- commander
c- agent (IATA cargo agent) (ans)
d- can’t remember
for knowledge :
Air waybills have eleven digit numbers which can be used to make bookings, check the status of
delivery, and current position of the shipment. The number consists of:
1. The first three digits are the airline prefix. Each airline has been assigned a 3-digit number by
IATA, so from the prefix we know which airline has issued the document.
2. The next seven digits are the running number/s - one number for each consignment
3. The last digit is what is called the check digit. It is arrived at in the following manner:
Class A medical for a pilot of 45 age single commercial
a- 6 month (ans)
b- 24 month
c- 36 month
d- 12 month
If we add height to the OCH
a- minimum descent height (ans)
b- minimum decision height
How you know u r under controlled aerodrome
a- ats traffic
b- TMA.... CTR
c- aerdrome should contain a radar (ans)
altimeter 0-50000 ft. error
- reaches its largest absolute value, the absolute value should not exceed 80ft (25 m)
Definition cross country flight:
- ICAO
A flight between a point of departure and a point of arrival following a pre-planned route
using standard navigation procedures.
- EASA
A flight between a point of departure and a point of arrival following a pre-planned route
using standard navigation procedures
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Expired type rating 3 years:
You need to renew your Type Rating with refresher training (To pass a proficiency check and to
safely operate the relevant type again)
Refresher training =Theory TEST + 2 hours in FFS (Fitness-For-Service)
If an aircraft is missing ======> it's classed as an accident.
Accident =
1- person is fatally or seriously injured
2- the aircraft sustains damage or structural failure which adversely affects the structural strength
3- the aircraft is missing or is completely inaccessible.
When you are the first to enter a holding pattern you enter at:
a- at a level as close to what you're already on, correct ans
b- at the lowest level,
c- at the highest level,
d- bananas
The Conventions and Protocols designed to cover liability towards persons
and goods on the ground based on the International Convention for rules
relating to Damage Caused by
a- Rome 1933/1954 correct ans
b- Montreal 1999
c- Warsaw
Definition of occurrence
Accidents and serious incidents do not therefore result from "occurrences" in the EU definition. They
are, however, types of "safety occurrence" in the ICAO definition.
The EU Directive contains the following definition of "occurrence":
Operational interruption, defect, fault or other irregular circumstance that has or may have
influenced flight safety and that has not resulted in an accident or serious incident, referred to as
‘accident or serious incident’.
Where is the threshold
A threshold should be located at the extremity of a runway unless operational considerations
justify the choice of another location.
Question on CMC
All the answers said it must be accompanied by a passport or visa except one... Which was another
way of saying does not replace the logbook...or licence*
Logbook or licence*
There's no need to carry a passport or a visa if you have the CMC, providing you're only staying for a
restricted amount of time
Which convention makes acts of violence on board, destruction of aircraft in
flight and destroying or damaging any air navigation facility punishable?
Ambiguous question, as it refers to “acts of violence on board" and "destruction of aircraft in flight",
which would be covered by the Tokyo Convention, which is applicable to offences against penal law
and to any acts jeopardising the safety of persons or property on board civilian aircraft while in-flight
and engaged in international air navigation.
However, "destroying or damaging any air navigation facility" would be applied to the Montreal
Convention 1971.
The Montreal Convention 1971 addresses the issues of damage to air navigation facilities and
aircraft sabotage, and extends its scope to certain activities preceding embarkation and departure,
and subsequent to landing and disembarkation. It declares the following to be offences:
a- acts of violence likely to endanger the safety of an aircraft,
b- Destruction of or serious damage to an aircraft or air navigation facilities, and
c- Communication of false information that endangers the safety of an aircraft.
answer = The Montreal convention
To report a problem or an incident you should follow:
a- icao annex 13 (ans)
b- Regional agreement
If you’re in VMC and you can’t continue with the VMC
a- Change to IMC …..
b- Change to special VFR …..
c- Continue in VMC and report to ATS …..
d- Continue in VMC as continue as practicable & land in the nearest airport ans
Glider and aeroplane right of way
a- Glider have the right of way at any altitude ans
b- Glider have the right of way if the aeroplane can make a missed approach
If you’re the first one to arrive to an area before search and rescue what
should you do
a- Descent every 10 min see
b- Descent to 1000 feet and circling north to south
c- You r oblige to stay there and take on charge the coordination …. ans
What’s the appropriate IFR FL for a magnetic track of 230 in RVSM
a- FL380 ans
b- FL 390
c- FL 350
d- FL 420 not rvsm ^^ (rvsm fl290 –fl410)
When are you required to report your position
a- Before the reporting point
b- 5 min before the reporting point
c- at or after the reporting point (ans)
d- when ATC ask
An a/c have been subject to unlawful interference ; the PIC should park in
a- isolated aera (ans )
b- somthing about ambulances and security vehicles
c- can’t remember
The simplified landing lights was asking for a distance / length
ICAO = A simple approach lighting system shall consist of a row of lights on the extended centre line
of the runway extending, whenever possible, over a distance of not less than 420 m from the
threshold with a row of lights forming a crossbar 18 m or 30 m in length at a distance of 300 m from
the threshold.
a- 300 m
b- 420 m ans
Definition of IATA:
A question about the pilot restriction age at or above 60:
a- one of multi crew and the other is younger than 60 (correct ans)
b- One of multi crew and the other is the captain
c- can’t remember
Cargo manifest. Is it the operator?
The production and presentation of the Cargo Manifest and the air waybill(s) shall be the
responsibility of the aircraft operator or his authorized agent. The production and presentation of
the other documents required for the clearance of the goods shall be the responsibility of the
declarant.
You should know Radio altimeter operating area:
A radio altimeter operating area shall be established in the pre-threshold area of a precision
approach runway.
A radio altimeter operating area shall extend before the threshold for a distance of at least 300 m.
A radio altimeter operating area shall extend laterally, on each side of the extended centre line of
the runway, to a distance of 60 m, except that, when special circumstances so warrant, the distance
may be reduced to no less than 30 m if an aeronautical study indicates that such reduction would
not affect the safety of operations of aircraft.
On a radio altimeter operating area, slope changes shall be avoided or kept to a minimum. Where
slope changes cannot be avoided, the slope changes shall be as gradual as practicable and abrupt
changes or sudden reversals of slopes avoided. The rate of change between two consecutive slopes
shall not exceed 2per cent per 30 m.
Good luck in your exams everyone, and don’t forget to share this with your
friends so we can all defeat this painful subject ;)
