Air Law Quiz 1

1) Flying flight level (FL), altimeter setting is:

A. QNH
B. QFE
C. 1013.25
D. None of the above

2) At aerodrome with an elevation of 100ft, what will your altimeter read if you are on the
ground and altimeter is set to QFE?
A. 100ft
B. 0ft
C. 50ft
D. None of the above

3) Smoking in a private aircraft

A. Is prohibited
B. Is allowed if it is written in the C of A
C. Is only allowed for pilots
D. None of the above

4) 2 red ball mass with 2 crosses means?

A. Take off and landing must be in the same direction
B. Gliding is taking place
C. Take off and landing direction is not necessarily coincide
D. Wind is too strong for landing

5) What is SVFR?
A. Special visual flight rules
B. Flexibility provided to pilots who are unable to comply with IFR, or to fly at night
C. A cross country flight at night
D. None of the above

6) Where can you fly SVFR?

A. CTR
B. TMA
C. FIR
D. A and B

7) VFR and IFR outside controlled airspace above 3000 feet, you will fly
A. Semi circular rule
B. According to ATC clearance
C. Quadrantal rule
D. At pilot's discretion

8) A PPL holder
A. Can Fly for reward
B. Can Give instructions in flight
C. Can Fly in any condition
D. Cannot fly for reward

9) What is the validity of PPL if a pilot is below 35 years old

A. 1 year
B. 6 months
C. 15 months
D. 2 years

10) What is VMC?

A. Conditions that allow a pilot to fly under VFR
B. Conditions that allow a pilot to fly under IFR
C. Conditions that allow a pilot to fly at night
D. B and C

11) Your heading is 350, flying quadrantal, you will fly at what height?
A. 5000ft
B. 6500ft
C. 7000ft
D. 8000ft

12) If there is an accident

A. Case should be investigated immediately by anybody at the scene
B. Case should be covered up as soon as possible
C. Nothing from the scene should be removed until the authority arrives
D. None of the above

13) 2 aircrafts on a converging course

A. Aircraft which has the other on the right has the right of way
B. Both turn right
C. Aircraft which has the other aircraft on the left must give way
D. Aircraft which has the other aircraft on the right must give way

14) A distress frequency is? And what should be transmitted?

A. 121.5, Mayday,
B. 121.5 Pan Pan
C. 121.5, distress
D. 125.1 Mayday

15) In controlled airspace, you can fly VFR up to

A. FL150
B. FL250
C. FL110
D. FL130

16) When must you bring on route charts?

A. When flying in an airway
B. When flying standard instrument departure
C. During take off and landing
D. By day or by night

17) What are the minima for VFR in controlled airspace (class C) at or above 10,000ft?
A. Visibility 10km, clear of clouds
B. Visibility 8 km, clear of clouds
C. Visibility 8 km, 1500m horizontally and 1000ft vertically clear of cloud
D. Visibility 8km, 1500ft horizontally and 1000m vertically clear of cloud

18) A standard circuit is a

A. Left hand circuit
B. Right hand circuit
C. Left hand in a controlled airspace, right hand in an uncontrolled airspace
D. Left hand in both controlled and uncontrolled airspace

19) In flight, if you see series of red flashes

A. Continue circling, do not land
B. Keep clear of the approach path
C. Cleared to land
D. Aerodrome unsafe, land at other aerodrome

20) When aircraft needs to land as soon as possible but does not require immediate
assistance, which of the following visual signals should be shown by the aircraft?
A. Turn lights on and off at irregular interval
B. Turn off navigation lights
C. Turn on taxi/landing lights
D. None of the above

21) When do you fly using quadrantal rules?

A. IFR in controlled airspace, at or above 3000ft
B. VFR in uncontrolled airspace
C. IFR in uncontrolled airspace
D. B and C

22) In KK FIR, what is the transition altitude?

A. 11,000ft
B. FL150
C. FL130
D. FL250

23) Flight plan should be submitted

A. 30 minutes before reaching destination
B. 30minutes before departure
C. 30 minutes after departure
D. 30 minutes after reaching destination

24) What is the definition of night?

A. The time between 20 mins. after sunset and 20 mins. before sunrise, excluding both the times,
determined at surface level
B. The time between 20 mins. after sunset and 20 mins. before sunrise, excluding both the times,
determined in flight
C. The time between 20 mins. after sunset and 20 mins. before sunrise, including both times,
determined at surface level
D. None of the above

25) Which of the following aircraft has right of way

A. Boeing 737
B. Boeing 747
C. Aircraft on finals to land
D. Aircraft in distress

26) When can you drop object in flight?

A. In writing from the authority
B. At anytime the pilot thinks it is safe to do so
C. Prohibited at anytime
D. In an uncontrolled airspace

27) Following failure of navigation light, you should

A. Land as soon as practicable to do so
B. Continue flying
C. Turn on your landing lights
D. Inform ATC

28) Before landing at a private aerodrome

A. Make sure the runway is clear
B. Make all turns to the left
C. Keep clear of the landing area as soon as you land
D. Prior permission must be obtained from the owner

29) Aircraft at an aerodrome with air traffic control unit

A. Must follow the taxi line when taxing
B. Can taxi without clearance
C. Must not enter the runway without permission
D. Can enter the runway whenever it is clear and pilot thinks that it is safe to do so
Air Law Quiz 3

Q1 MSA provides 1000 ft obstacle clearance rounding the resulting value up to next
higher 100 ft. increment, within a radius of:
(a) 30 nm
(b) 10 nm
(c) 15 nm
(d) 25 nm

Q2 Air Traffic Services will notify aircrew well in advance of any activation of areas
subject to intermittent activity by:
(a) Telephone
(b) NOTAM
(c) AIC
(d) AIS

Q3 For VFR flight outside controlled airspace at below 3000 ft. you must:
(a) Remain clear of cloud and stay in sight of the surface
(b) Fly not less than 1000 ft. above the highest obstacle within 5 nm
(c) Select cruising level according to the quadrantal flight rules
(d) None of the above

Q4 An aircraft flying IFR outside controlled airspace, altitude 5000 ft. must:
(a) Fly quandrantals
(b) Fly under air traffic control instructions
(c) Fly according to the semi-circular rule
(d) No restriction to his flight

Q5 VOLMET service is available from Singapore Radio through:

(a) Any radio frequencies
(b) Only on VHF frequencies
(c) Only on UHF frequencies
(d) On HF frequencies

Q6 Within Control Zones, air traffic clearance is required for:

(a) All types of flight
(b) IFR flight at night
(c) VFR flight in daylight
(d) None of the above

Q7 What is the VHF Distress frequency used in KLATCC?

(a) 125.1
(b) 121.5
(c) 243.0
(d) 500

Q8 When the flight crew of an aircraft becomes aware that the aircraft is flying in a
restricted, prohibited or danger area, the pilot should:
(a) Fire into the air a series of projectiles which burst to show red and green lights or stars
(b) Leave the area immediately and do not descend whilst in the area
(c) Maintain normal flight
(d) Turn 90 degree starboard and descend

Q9 An aircraft flying IFR outside controlled airspace, altitude 5000 ft. must:
(a) Fly quandrantals
(b) Fly under air traffic control instructions
(c) Fly according to the semi-circular rule
(d) No restriction to his flight

Q10 The ground/air visual signal “V” used at a crash site means:
(a) Survivors proceeding in this direction
(b) No assistance required
(c) Assistance required
(d) Search cancelled

Q11 A Flight Plans must be submitted for a flight from KL to KK at least:

(a) 30 mins before departure
(b) 60 mins. Before departure
(c) 90 mins before departure
(d) 45 mins. Before departure

Q12 Flying at 7000 feet amsl outside controlled airspace. Your track lies between:
(a) 000 to 089 inclusive
(b) 090 to 179 inclusive
(c) 180 to 269 inclusive
(d) 270 to 359 inclusive

Q13 During an initial climb in uncontrolled airspace, the pilot:

(a) may use any desired pressure setting
(b) must use QFE
(c) must set 1013.2
(d) must use local QNH

Q14 Speed limitation of 250 KT IAS below 10000 ft. AMSL is applicable to:
(a) All classes of airspace
(b) Only class B, C and G
(c) Only class C and G
(d) Only class C in VFR and G in IFR and VFR

Q15 What is meant by the abbreviation “TODA?”

(a) Total Descent Angle
(b) Total Distance Available
(c) Take-off Distance Available
(d) None of the above

Q16 The “X” used by the survivors meant:

(a) Require assistance
(b) Require Medical Assistance
(c) Does not require assistance
(d) We are at present position

Q17 To operate under IFR or VFR within controlled airspace, an aircraft shall be
equipped with the following minimum equipments
(a) A VHF RTF equipment and a Radio Compass
(b) One VHF RT equipment
(c) One Radio Compass
(d) One GPS

Q18 VFR flights shall not be operated:

(a) between sunset and sunrise in all airspace
(b) by day above FL 150 in all controlled airspace
(c) by day above FL 250 in uncontrolled airspace
(d) all the above

19 During IMC or between the hours of sunset and sunrise in a controlled zone, a pilot
who is unable to comply with IFR may have to:
(a) Cancel take-off
(b) Delay take-off until weather permits
(c) Request for special VFR clearance
(d) Disregard the ruling

Q20 VFR flight outside of controlled airspace, below 10000 feet shall:
(a) Remain 1500m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically clear of cloud and a flight visibility of at least 8
km
(b) Remain 1500m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically clear of cloud and a flight visibility of at least 3
km
(c) Remain 1500m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically clear of cloud and a flight visibility of at least 5
km
(d) None of the above

Q21 In class A airspace, you can:

(a) fly VFR
(b) fly VFR on IFR
(c) fly IFR only
(d) Any of the above

Q22 Class A airspace within KL & KK FIRs is from:

(a) Ground to FL460
(b) FL250 to FL460
(c) FL150 to FL469
(d) FL150 to unlimited

Q23 Communication failure whilst under Radar Control

(a) Squawk 7700
(b) Squawk 7600
(c) Squawk 7500
(d) Squawk 2000

Q24 A control zone means controlled airspace:

(a) Which extends upwards from a specified height to an upper limit
(b) Extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified upper limit
(c) I the form of a corridor equipped with radio navigation aids
(d) None of the above

Q25 Transport Category (Passenger & Cargo) aircraft can:

(a)Fly for cargo only
(b) Fly for passengers only
(c) Fly for passengers and cargoes only
(d) None of the above

Q26 What are the colours of the lights to be displayed by an aircraft at night?
(a) Green starboard, Red port and White tail
(b) Red starboard, Green port and White tail
(c) Green starboard, White port and Red tail
(d) Red starboard, White port and green tail

Q27 If an intermittent red light is directed at an aircraft in flight within ATZ it must:
(a) Leave the circuit and land elsewhere, as the aerodrome is not available for landing
(b) Land immediately and report to ATC
(c) Continue in the circuit and await further clearance
(d) None of the above

Q28 The maximum range from the Approach end of the runway, that a pilot can make
the “Final” calls:
(a) 3 nm
(b) 2 nm
(c) 4 nm
(d) 6 nm

Q29 The light signal used to indicate to an aircraft on the ground that it must move clear
of the landing area is:
(a) A white light
(b) A steady red
(c) A series of red flashes
(d) A series of green flashes

Q30 With a gathering of more than 1000 people at an open air organized event, an
aircraft must not fly within:
(a) 3000 feet
(b) 2000 feet
(c) 1500 feet
(d) 1000 feet
Air Law Quiz 4

1. At night while flying level, you see the red navigation light of another aircraft at a
similar height on a steady relative bearing of 030 . What is the situation and what
should you do
there is a collision risk; you should change the height to avoid a collision
there is no collision at risk ; no action required
there is a collision at risk ; you should turn right
there is a collision at risk ; no need to take avoiding action as you have the right way

2. An applicant for EASA PPL (aeroplanes) must have completed at least :

35 hours flight time, including 5 hours of solo
50 hours of flight time plus an additional 15 hour of solo
45 hours of flight time, including 10 hours of solo
45 hour of flight time plus an additional 10 hours of solo

3. An aircraft is flying at 2300ft AMSL and 90kts IAS in uncontrolled airspace. In

order to comply with VMC minima the required conditions are :
5km flight visibility, clear of cloud , 1500m horizontally and 1000ft vertically clear of cloud
1.5nm flight visibility, clear of cloud, insight of the surface
1500m flight visibility, clear of cloud, insight of the surface
5km flight visibility, clear of cloud

4. How long is an EASA PPL License valid for ?

1 year
2 years
Lifetime
5 years

5. In the air you are approaching an aircraft head on :

one aircraft should climb and the other descend
both aircraft turn to the right
the faster aircraft should turn left
both aircraft should turn left

6. Which of the following would cause a Certificate of Airworthiness to be no longer

valid ?
If the aircraft was in a State other than the State of issue
during a refueling stop until the refueling is completed
the Check A servicing has not been signed for the Technical Log
if the aeroplane, or any equipment, is overhauled, repaired or modified other than in an approved
manner

7. In Class D airspace, to remain within VMC minima below 3000ft AMSL when
flying below 140kts IAS, the minimun flight visibility is
5km
3km
7km
1.5km

8. How should the pilot of an aircraft that has been intercepted by another aircraft
attempt to establish radio contact with the intercepting aircraft ?
call on published interception frequency for that FIR
call on frequency currently being used to speak to ATC
call on emergency frequency 121.5 MHz
call on local Flight Information Service frequency

9. In which class of airspace do these three conditions apply : 1. IFR and VFR flights
are permitted and all flights are subject to air traffic control service. 2. IFR flights
are separated from other IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of
VFR flights. 3. VFR flights receive traffic information in respect of all other flights
Class G Airspace
Class F Airspace
Class C Airspace
Class D Airspace

10. What is the best definition for The Transition Level :

the lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude
a level published for aerodrome in the ENR section of the AIP
a level calculated and declared for an approach by the Pilot-in-Command
the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been established

11. When does the duration of the period of an initial general medical examination
begin
on the date the license is delivered to the pilot
on the date the license is issued or renewed
on the date the medical certificate is issued
on the date of the medical assessment

12. What colour does ICAO recommend the taxiway markings should be ?
Yellow
Orage
White
Green

13. What features should a low intensity obstacle light have on vehicles, other than
emergency or security vehicles ?
flashing yellow
flashing blue
fixed yellow
flashing red
 14. What is the sole objective of an investigation into an accident of incident ?
the prevention of accidents and incidents and establishment of liability
the prevention of accidents and incidents and to provide the aircraft manufacturer with data for the
improvement of the aircraft
the prevention of the accidents and the incidents
the prevention of accidents and incidents and to provide legal evidence for an subsequent court case

15. A person on the ground is struck and seriously injured by a component which has
fallen from an aircraft in flight, but the aircraft's flight is not impaired, how would
ICAO define this occurrence ?
An aircraft accident
an aircraft incident
a non-attributable act of God
a reportable occurrence

16. In which part of the AIP can a list with location indicators be found ?
AD
ENR
GEN
LOG

17. The secondary surveillance Radar (SSR) transpoder code of 7000 is used to
indicate :
The aerobatics conspicuity code
an emergency / distress
the VFR conspicuity code
radio communication failure

18. Which of the following are objectives of the Air Traffic Services. 1. To prevent
collisions between aircraft. 2.To prevent collisions between aircraft on the
manoeuvring area. 3. To expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic. 4. To
provide advised and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of
flights. 5. To notify appropriate organisations regarding aircraft in need of search
and rescue assistance, and to assist these organisations
2, 4 and 5 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
1, 3 and 5 only

19. What should an aircraft's identification plate, be made of ?

aluminium
a fireproof metal
plastic
titanium
 20. At an aerodrome where take offs and landings are not confined to a runway, the
pilot of an aeroplane about to take off shall position and manoeuvre in such a
way to leave clear... any aircraft which is taking off :
On the pilot's right if the circuit is right hand and on the left is it is left hand
On the pilot's left
On the pilot's right
On the pilot's left if the circuit is right hand and on the right it is left hand

21. If you have a radio communications failure you should squawk :

7600
7700
7500
7000

22. The ground air visual signal to indicate REQUIRE ASSISTANCE is :

V
N
Y
X

23. What should high intensity obstacle lights be

Flashing red
Fixed green
Fixed red
Flashing white

24. A runways Landing Distance Available (LDA) is defined as :

TORA + Clearway
TORA + Stopway
TODA - Clearway
TODA + Clearway

25. What classification of ATS Airspace has these rules ? 1. IFR and VFR flights are
permitted 2. All flights are subject to air traffic control service. 3. IFR flights are
separated from both IFR and VFR flights. 4. VFR flights are separated from IFR
flights and receive traffic information in respect to other VFR flights
Class C airspace
Class D airspace
Class A airspace
Class E airspace

26. Air traffic airspace where both IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are
subject to air traffic control and all flights are separated from each other except
for VFR to VFR flights where ATC provide traffic information is :
Class B Airspace
Class D Airspce
Class A Airspace
Class C Airspce

27. What are the minimum required instruments for a VFR flight ?
attitude indicator, magnetic compass, sensitive pressure altimeter and an airspeed indicator
magnetic compass, sensitive pressure altimeter and an airspeed indicator
magnetic compass, accurate timepiece, sensitive pressure altimeter and an airspeed indicator
turn coordinator or indicator, sensitive pressure altimeter, airspeed indicator and an engine RPM
gauge

28. Where are approved limitations within which the aircraft is considered airworthy
stated ?
ICAO Airworthiness Technical Manual
the flight manual and placards in the cockpit
Aircraft maintenance manual
manufacturer's handbook

29. What configuration should aerodrome signals be ?

Mandatory signs : red background with black inscription
Mandatory signs : black background with red inscription
Information signs : yellow or black background with black or yellow inscription
information signs : orange background with black inscription

30. What kind of light is an Aerodrome Identification Beacon at a civil land

aerodrome?
red in colour with identification given by morse code
white in colour with identification given by morse code
green in colour with identification given by morse code
alternating white/green flashing signal

31. What is the definition of "Air Traffic " ?

all aircraft in flight or in the process of taking off or landing
all aircraft in flight or operating on the maoeuvring area and apron of an aerodrome
all aircraft in flight within the FIR
all aircraft in flight or operating on the manoevring area of an aerodrome

32. The privileges of the holder of a PPL (A) are to act as Pilot-in-Command or
co-pilot of any aeroplane :
for remuneratiom
engaged in non-revenue earning flights for which they are appropriately certified
engage in revenue earning flights for which they are appropriately certified
for business or pleasure
 33. How long is a Part-Med Class 2 medical certificate valid for ?
60 months for a person under 40 years of age
24 months for a person under 40 years of age
60 months for a person under 50 years of age
36 months for a person under 50 years of age

34. What does a series of white flashes directed towards an aircraft in flight from
aerodrome control mean ?
cleared to land
do not land; give way to other aircraft and continue circling
land at this aerodrome and proceed to the apron after clearances have been given
return to the aerodrome and await clearance to land

35. If the pilot-in-command of an aircraft receives an air traffic control clearance that
they consider to be unsuitable, the pilot should :
Request an amended clearance
not take off
follow the clearance in spite of it being considered unsuitable
ignore the clearance and continue the flight as originally planned

36. What additional information is sent when Mode C is selected on the aircraft SSR
Transponder ?
Aircraft height based on sub-scale setting
Altitude based on regional QNH
Height based on QFE
Pressure altitude based on 1013.25 hPa

37. A license holder suffers a personal injury and is considered unfit to function as
flight crew. The medical certificate :
must be renewed by a full initial medical
remains current if a currency check is carried out within 21 days of the injury
Shall be deemed to be suspended
is still current provided the ratings are valid
Pre Exam Quiz

1. What does the abbreviation MSA stands for

(a) Mean safe altitude
(b) Minimum sector altitude
(c) Mean sector altitude
(d) Maximum sector altitude

2. MSA provides 1000 ft. obstacle clearance rounding the resulting value up to the next
higher 100 ft. increment within a radius of
(a) 30 nm
(b) 10 nm
(c) 150nm
(d) 25 nm

3. Air Traffic Services will notify aircrew well in advance of any activation of areas
subject to intermittent activity by
(a) Telephone
(b) NOTAM
(c) AIC
(d) AIS

4. Final call is made during an approach to land on an airfield up to distance of

(a) 3 nm
(b) 2 nm
(c) 4 nm
(d) 6 nm

5. For VFR flight outside controlled airspace at and below 3000 ft. you must
(a) More than 100 nm. Seaward from the shoreline
(b) Above 10000 ft. in controlled airspace
(c) Outside of control zone and area
(d) All of the above

7. An aircraft flying IFR outside controlled airspace at an altitude of 5000 ft. must
(a) Fly under air traffic control instructions
(b) Fly quadrantal
(c) Fly according to Semi-circular rule
(d) No restriction to his flight

8. Speed limit of 250 kt. Below 10000 ft. amsl is applicable to

(a) All classes of airspace
(b) Only B, C and G airspace
(c) Only C and G airspace
(d) Only class C in VFR and G in IFR and VFR flights

9. AMSL stands for

(a) Average mean sea level
(b) Average maximum sea level
(c) Above maximum sea level
(d) Above mean sea level

10. Radar vectoring are provided in the Radar vectoring area base on the safety limits of
(a) 1000 ft. vertical clearance from terrain and obstacles
(b) 5 nm. Horizontal clearance from obstacle
(c) 10 nm. Horizontal clearance from obstacle
(d) Either A or B

11. Two way radio communication is required when flying in

a) All classes of airspace
(b) Only class A and B airspace
(c) Only class A airspace
(d) Only class A, B and C airspace

12. Control zone is an airspace which extends from

(a) From sea-level to a specified altitude
(b) From ground level to 3000 ft
(c) From ground level to a specified altitude
(d) From ground level to unlimited altitude

13. If the runway length is 1850 m or less, the lateral extend of the aerodrome traffic
zone is
(a) 3.0 nm. From the end of the runway
(b) 2.0 nm. From the end of the runway
(c) 1.5 nm. From the end of the runway
(d) 1.0 nm. From the end of the runway

14. When you are flying on a heading 1850 mag. outside controlled airspace, you should
fly
(a) Odd thousand feet
(b) Odd +500 thousand feet
(c) Even thousand feet
(d) Even +500 thousand feet

15. Flying from a controlled zone to uncontrolled airspace you should set
(a) Area QNH to Local QNH on your altimeter
(b) Local QNH to Area QNH on your altimeter
(c) Local QNH to QFE on your altimeter
(d) Local QNH to QNE on your altimeter
16. On climb passing through the transition altitude you set
(a) QNH to 1013 mb
(b) QNH to QFE
(c) QFE to 1013 mb
(d) 1013 mb to QNH

17. On descent passing through the transition level you set

(a) QNH to 1013 mb
(b) 1013 mb to QNH
(c) 1013 mb to QFE
(d) QNH to QFE

18. Which of the following is not classified as an International Airport

(a) Langkawi International Airport
(b) Pulau Tioman Airport
(c) Ipoh Airport
(d) Alor Star Airport

19. What does ICAO stands for

(a) International Carrier Air Operation
(b) International Civil Aviation Organisation
(c) Inter Continental Aviation Organisation
(d) International Cargo Air Operation

20. PAPI stands for

(a) Precision Approach Path Indicator
(b) Practice Approach Path Indicator
(c) Procedural Approach Path Indicator
(d) Precision Approach Practice Indicator