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The Hindu News Analysis – 01st December 2022 – Shankar IAS Academy
S. Page Number*
News Articles
No. C B D H T

1 GDP growth dips to 6.3% as manufacturing slides 1,10 1,8 1,10 1,10 1,8

T&C T&C T&C T&C T&C


2 Are ransomware attacks increasing in India? 1 1 1 1 1

3 100 monuments to be lit up to mark India’s G20 Presidency 11 9 11 11 9

4
Kerala’s man-animal conflict mitigation team selected for 7 - - - -
Wildlife Trust of India award

5 16 drones shot down along Pak. border this year: BSF 10 8 10 10 8

*C – Chennai; B – Bengaluru; D – Delhi; H – Hyderabad; T – Thiruvananthapuram


The Hindu News Analysis – 01st December 2022 – Shankar IAS Academy
S. Page Number*
News Articles
No. C B D H T

6 Towards a robust triumvirate 9 7 7 9 7

7 Unseemly conflict 8 6 6 8 6

8
SC seeks Centre’s response on evolving a programme to 12 10 12 12 10
protect Great Indian Bustard

9
Metaverse, Web 3.0 and other technologies to propel 5 - - - -
State’s $1 trillion economy dream
10 Prelims Practice Questions
@ end of the video
11 Mains Practice Questions
*C – Chennai; B – Bengaluru; D – Delhi; H – Hyderabad; T – Thiruvananthapuram
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Pg: 1,10 - C, D, H;

Pg: 1,8 – B, T.
• Construction sector – 6.6% GVA growth rate.

News • Real estate & finance – 7.2% GVA growth rate.

• July-September quarter GDP growth • Growth rate in April-September period – 9.7%

rate – 6.3%

• 14.7% (gross value) - Trade, hotels,


transport and communication services.

• Agriculture sector – 4.6% GVA growth


rate.

• Manufacturing – (-4.6%) GVA contracted

• Mining – (-2.8%) GVA contracted


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Gross Domestic Product (GDP)

Money value of all final goods & services produced within the boundary of a nation during a year.
Gross Value Added (GVA)

Account total value addition in a economy in


a particular time period.

• GVA(basic price) = GDP(Market price) + CURRENT AFFIARS DAILY - MIZO


Product Subsidy - Product taxes

• GDP(Market Prices) = ∑ GVA at basic


prices + product taxes – product
subsidies
Text & Context Page: 1
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Part A — Preliminary Examination


Paper I - (200 marks)
Ransomware
• Current events of national and international importance.
• A type of malicious software.

Part B — Main Examination • To block access to the stored data by

PAPER - IV encrypting files.

General Studies-III: General Studies‐III: Technology,


Economic Development, Bio diversity, Environment, Security
and Disaster Management.
• Challenges to internal security through communication
networks, role of media and social networking sites in
internal security challenges, basics of cyber security;
money-laundering and its prevention.
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Seriousness
Agencies in India to deal with cyber-attacks
• Target & attack commercial & critical
infrastructure. • Indian Computer Emergency Response Team

 Ex: AIIMS Delhi’s cyber attack  Set up in 2004.

• Interpol’s Global Crime Trend report  National nodal agency - collects, analyses &
circulates inputs on cyber-attacks.
• National Cyber Coordination Centre

 Creates awareness about existing & potential


• Cyber Swachhta Kendra
threats.
 For detection of malware programmes.
• National Critical Information Infrastructure
Protection Centre  A Botnet Cleaning & Malware Analysis
Centre.
 Protects national critical information
infrastructure.  Set up in accordance with "National
Cyber Security Policy".
 Critical Information Infrastructure (CII)
 Operated by CERT-In
 Destruction of Computer resource.

 Impacts on national security, economy,


public health or safety.
Practice Question – Mains
GS – III
Q. Analyse India’s capacity to deal with the CURRENT AFFIARS DAILY - MIZO
increasing ransomware attacks.
(150 words, 10 marks)
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Pg: 11 - C, D, H;
Pg: 9 - B, T.
DHAMEK STUPA

Stupa

• Refers to burial mounds prevalent in


India from Vedic period

• Structure of relics & ashes of dead


SANCHI STUPA
• Pre-Buddhist origin

• Reached climax during Asokan period


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Practice Question – Prelims
Q. Consider the following pairs
Stupas States
1. Kesaria stupa - Bihar
2. Bharhut stupa - Madhya Pradesh
3. Amaravati stupa - Andhra Pradesh
4. Dhamek stupa - Uttar Pradesh
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Which of the pairs given above is/are
correctly matched?
a) One pair only
b) Two pair only
c) Three pair only
d) All four pairs
Pg: 7 - Chennai Edition
Wildlife Trust of India (WTI)
Different projects of WTI
• NGO founded in year 1998

• Initially formed by a three-person team

• Now functioning with 150 full time


professionals operating from remote parts of
our country

Goal of WTI

• Conserve nature, endangered species &


threatened habitats.

• Collaborate with local communities &


governments in preserving wildlife

• Projects – range from species rehabilitation


to prevention of illegal wildlife trade
CURRENT AFFIARS DAILY - MIZO

Pg: 10 - C, D, H;
Pg: 8 - B, T.
Anti-drone system

• Radar-based system

• Used to detect & intercept unwanted drones &


UAVs

DRDO’s anti-drone system

• Indigenous technology

• Ability toboth detection & counter attack

• Soft kill - jamming of communication channels

• Hard Kill - laser enabled counter measure to destroy


drone
Features of DRDO’s Anti Drone System

• Capable of detecting & jamming micro


drones from a distance of up to 3
kilometres

• Uses laser to knock down a target from a


distance of up to 1 – 2.5 kilometres

• Four-kilometre radar detection range

• Two-kilometre jamming range

• One kilometre kill range


Practice question – Prelims
Q. With reference to Defence Research and
Development Organisation (DRDO), consider
the following statements:
1. It functions under the Ministry of Home
Affairs (MHA).
2. Integrated Guided Missile Development
Programme (IGMDP) was one of the CURRENT AFFIARS DAILY - MIZO
programmes of ISRO.
Which of the statements given above is/are
incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Pg: 9 - C, H;

Pg: 7 – B, D, T.
Part A — Preliminary Examination
Paper I - (200 marks)
• Current events of national and international importance.
• Indian Polity and Governance- Constitution, Political System, Panchayati Raj, Public Policy, Rights Issues, etc.

Part B — Main Examination


PAPER - IV
General Studies-II: Governance, Constitution, Polity, Social Justice and International relations.
• Indian Constitution—historical underpinnings, evolution, features, amendments, significant provisions and basic
structure.
• Structure, organization and functioning of the Executive and the Judiciary—Ministries and Departments of the
Government; pressure groups and formal/informal associations and their role in the Polity.
• Appointment to various Constitutional posts, powers, functions and responsibilities of various Constitutional Bodies.
Appointment of Election Commissioners - Possibilities

• Selected and appointed by the executive:

 Article 324(2) - President appoints the CEC and EC.

 On the advice of the Council of Ministers.

• Selected by a collegium and appointed by President:

 Collegium - group of senior most officials with equal rank and power.

 Awaited electoral reform.

 Need:

 Possibility of ruling party appointing a partisan person as Election Commissioner.


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Committee on Electoral Reforms (1990)

• Chairperson – Mr. Dinesh Goswami.

 Dinesh Goswami Committee.

• Recommendation on mode of appointment:


National Commission to Review the Working
 CEC – appointment after a consultation with of the Constitution (2000)
the CJI and the Leader of the Opposition
• Chairperson - Justice M.N.
(LoP).
Venkatachaliah.
 Absence of LoP - consultation with the
• Report submitted in 2002.
leader of the largest opposition group in the
Lok Sabha.

 ECs - appointment after a consultation with


the CJI + LoP + CEC.

 Statutory backing for consultation process.


255th Report of the Law Commission
• Recommendations:
• Report on Electoral Reforms
 Same collegium for CEC and 2 Ecs:
• Chairperson - Justice A.P. Shah.
 Prime Minister
• Recommendations to strengthen ECI.
 Leader of the Opposition in the Lok
Sabha  Consultative appointment process for ECs
and the CEC.
 Leader of the Opposition in the Rajya
Sabha  3-member collegium or selection
committee - Prime Minister + Leader of
 the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
the Opposition of the Lok Sabha + CJI.
 the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
 Elevation of ECs - basis of seniority only if
 Similar procedure for SECs. collegium deems the EC fit.
CONSTITUTION OF INDIA
PART XV
Constitutional Protection to Election
ELECTIONS
Commissioners
324. Superintendence, direction and control of elections to
be vested in an Election Commission.—
• Safeguarding from arbitrary removal.
(5) Subject to the provisions of any law made by
• CEC enjoys constitutional protection - Parliament, the conditions of service and tenure of
Article 324(5) office of the Election Commissioners and the Regional
Commissioners shall be such as the President may by
 Removal only through impeachment by rule determine: Provided that the Chief Election
Parliament. Commissioner shall not be removed from his office
except in like manner and on the like grounds as a
 Need – avoids arbitrary removal by Judge of the Supreme Court and the conditions of
service of the Chief Election Commissioner shall not be
ruling govt.
varied to his disadvantage after his appointment:
 Impeachment procedure cannot be Provided further that any other Election Commissioner
influenced. or a Regional Commissioner shall not be removed from
office except on the recommendation of the Chief
Election Commissioner.
CONSTITUTION OF INDIA
PART XV
ELECTIONS
324. Superintendence, direction and control of elections to
• ECs can be removed by President on the be vested in an Election Commission.—
recommendation of the CEC. (5) Subject to the provisions of any law made by
Parliament, the conditions of service and tenure of
 No impeachment procedure.
office of the Election Commissioners and the Regional
Commissioners shall be such as the President may by
 No constitutional protection.
rule determine: Provided that the Chief Election
 Arbitrary removal possible. Commissioner shall not be removed from his office
except in like manner and on the like grounds as a
Judge of the Supreme Court and the conditions of
service of the Chief Election Commissioner shall not be
varied to his disadvantage after his appointment:
Provided further that any other Election Commissioner
or a Regional Commissioner shall not be removed from
office except on the recommendation of the Chief
Election Commissioner.
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Practice Question – Mains


Recommendation of 255th Report of the Law Commission
GS – II
• Equal constitutional protection to all members of
the Commission in matters of removability. Q. Do you agree with the view that the
appointment process of Election
 Amend Article 324(5) of the Constitution. Commissioners should be made
consultative? Give arguments
supporting your answer.
(150 words, 10 marks)
Pg: 8 - C, H;

Pg: 6 – B, D, T.
CURRENT AFFIARS DAILY - MIZO

Part A — Preliminary Examination


Paper I - (200 marks)

 Indian Polity and Governance - Constitution, Political System, Panchayati Raj, Public Policy, Rights
Issues, etc.

Part B — Main Examination


PAPER-III
General Studies-II: Governance, Constitution, Polity, Social Justice and International relations.
• Separation of powers between various organs dispute redressal mechanisms and institutions.
• Structure, organization and functioning of the Executive and the Judiciary - Ministries and Departments
of the Government; pressure groups and formal/informal associations and their role in the Polity.
Collegium

• System of appointment and transfer of


judges.

• Not enacted by Act & not by provision of


the Constitution.

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National Judicial Appointments Commission
• Composition
• Proposed to replace Collegium system.
 Chief Justice of India - chairperson,
• 2014 - 99th Constitutional Amendment Act.
 Two senior most judges of the SC
• National Judicial Appointments Commission
Act - functions.  Union law minister

 Two eminent persons

 Committee - CJI, PM and Leader of


opposition.

• Short lived - Supreme Court declared 99th


CAA & NJAC Act as unconstitutional and
void.
Conflict between Union government and the
Judiciary
• Supreme court’s response
• Union government
 Government - cannot hold the
 Asked SC Collegium to reconsider 20 recommendations without citing any reasons.
appointment files.
 Government - violating the legal system of
 Difference of opinion. appointment of Judges.

 Criticism  Government is not acting - because SC


Court had not permitted NJAC.
 Loopholes in Collegium system.

 No transparency and accountability.


Possible solutions

• Government

 Need to act - according to prevailing Practice Question – Mains


legal system. GS – II
 Need to clear - pending recommendations Q. In the light of ongoing conflict between
with due despatch. the Central government and the Judiciary,
critically analyse the Collegium system in
• Judiciary
India.
 To agree with govt’s effort - reforms in (150 words, 10 marks)
the Collegium system.

 Need to expand - range of consultations


beyond the senior most judges.
CURRENT AFFIARS DAILY - MIZO

Pg: 12 - C, D, H;

Pg: 10 – B, T.
Great Indian Bustard Characteristics

• One of the heaviest flying birds. • Male birds - taller and heavier than female.

• Endemic to Indian subcontinent. • Very slow reproductive rate.

• Primarily terrestrial birds. • Lays only one egg for one or two years.

• Specific habitat requirements - highly


vulnerable.
Habitat

• Flat open landscapes with minimal visual


obstruction & disturbance.

• Indicator species of the grassland


ecosystems.
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Conservation status
Practice Question – Prelims
• Wildlife Protection Act 1972 - Schedule I. Q. With reference to the Great Indian Bustard,
• IUCN red list - Critically Endangered.
consider the following statements:
1. It is endemic to the Indian subcontinent.
• Convention on Migratory Species - Bonn
convention. 2. They mostly roost and build nest on the
large trees.
• CITES - Appendix I.
3. It is categorised as Endangered in the
• Integrated Development of Wildlife Habitats. IUCN’s red list of threatened species.

 Centrally Sponsored Scheme. Which of the statements given above is/are


incorrect?
 Ministry of Environment and Forests.
(a) 1 and 2
 Aim - to recover the critically endangered (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
species and their habitats.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Pg: 5 - Chennai Edition
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Metaverse

• Future iteration of the internet.

• A persistent, shared, 3D virtual spaces linked into a perceived virtual universe.

• Involves avatars, digital objects, functioning economies etc.

• Parallel to the physical world.


• Convergence of Virtual Reality (VR) and Augmented Reality (AR) applications.

• Conceptually in line with the Web 3.0.

• Aided by blockchain technology.


• Elements:

 Digital currency

 Online shopping

 Workplace automation

 Social media

 Digital Humans

 Natural Language Processing

 Infrastructure

 Device independence etc.

• Applications – all sectors - Healthcare, Agriculture, Education, Tourism, Environment Protection,


Smart Cities etc.

• Example: Virtual embassies of Governments of Maldives, Sweden, Estonia, Serbia, etc.


Practice prelims question
Q. Which among the following are included in
Gross Domestic Product (GDP) calculation of
India.
1. Salaries of officials in the Indian Embassy
which is located in USA.
2. Salaries of officials in the US embassy which is
located in India.
CURRENT AFFIARS DAILY - MIZO
3. Salaries received by foreigners working in
India.
4. Salaries received by Indians working in UAE.
Select correct code.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 2 and 4 only
Practice question – Prelims Practice Question – Prelims
Q. With reference to Defence Research and Q. Consider the following pairs
Development Organisation (DRDO), consider Stupas States
the following statements:
1. Kesaria stupa - Bihar
1. It functions under the Ministry of Home
Affairs (MHA). 2. Bharhut stupa - Madhya Pradesh
2. Integrated Guided Missile Development 3. Amaravati stupa - Andhra Pradesh
Programme (IGMDP) was one of the
programmes of ISRO. 4. Dhamek stupa - Uttar Pradesh

Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the pairs given above is/are
incorrect? correctly matched?
a) 1 only a) One pair only
b) 2 only b) Two pair only
c) Both 1 and 2 c) Three pair only
d) Neither 1 nor 2 d) All four pairs
CURRENT AFFIARS DAILY - MIZO

Practice Question – Prelims


Q. Consider the following statements about
Metaverse:
1. Virtual reality (VR) and augmented
Practice Question – Prelims
reality (AR) are combined in the
metaverse. Answers
2. It is a disruptive technology. Q1. Option B
Which of the above statements is/are Q2. Option D
correct? Q3. Option A
a) 1 only Q4. Option C
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Quiz question – Prelims (01/12/2022) Quiz Question – Prelims (01/12/2022)
Q. With reference to Wildlife Trust of India Q. With reference to the Great Indian Bustard,
(WTI), consider the following statements: consider the following statements:
1. It is a statutory body established under 1. It is endemic to the Indian subcontinent.
the Wildlife Protection Act of 1986. 2. They mostly roost and build nest on the
2. WTI functions with the core mandate of large trees.
protecting endangered species. 3. It is categorised as Endangered in the
Which of the statements given above IUCN’s red list of threatened species.
is/are correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
a) 1 only incorrect?
b) 2 only (a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3
d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
CURRENT AFFIARS DAILY - MIZO

Practice Question – Mains


GS – II
Q. In the light of ongoing conflict between Practice Question – Mains
the Central government and the Judiciary,
critically analyse the Collegium system in GS – II
India. Q. Do you agree with the view that the
(150 words, 10 marks) appointment process of Election
Commissioners should be made
Practice Question – Mains consultative? Give arguments
supporting your answer.
GS – III
(150 words, 10 marks)
Q. Analyse India’s capacity to deal with the
increasing ransomware attacks.
(150 words, 10 marks)

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