MODULE 11 Version Last Attemp

1. Advantage of using spoiler are

a. Reduced aileron deflection, more prone to aileron reversal
b. Reduced aileron deflection, less prone to aileron reversal
c. Increase aileron deflection and show the aircraft speed

2. Where should the high speed aileron be located for effective lateral control?
a. On the inboard part of the wings
b. On the outboard parts of the wings near the wing tips
c. On the leading edge of the wings near the wing tips

3. What will happen if the take-off flap angle is increased during take-off?
a. Wil give the best lift/drag ratio
b. Will create extra drag and slow down the rate of acceleration
c. Will give a higher stalling angle

4. What is used to assist the pilot to move the flight control surfaces?
a. Bungee fitted to the elevator system
b. Mas balance weight fitted to the ailerons
c. Pressure balance panel fitted to the ailerons

5. What is used to delay flow separation over the rear part of an aircraft wing?
a. Vortex generators
b. Wash – in at wing tip
c. Landing edge spoilers

6. What is the function of the ant- servo tab in a stabilator?

a. To assist the pilot to move the control easier
b. To create a greater ‘feel’ to the pilot
c. To assist the pilot to move the control if the air load is too great

7. Incipient shockwave is formed when the local airspeed over the airfoil reaches
a. Subsonic speed
b. Supersonic speed
c. Sonic speed

8. Which of the following wing shapes is the best for sub-sonic, transonic and
supersonic?
a. Straight wing
b. Taper Wing
c. Variable swept wing

9. What will happen to the aircraft when Mcrit is reached?

a. Oblique shock waves are formed resulting in severe buffeting
b. Blow wave and oblique shock waves are formed causing shock stall
c. Incipient shock wave is formed causing shock stall
10. An aircraft flying at a constant speed will have its
a. Mach number increases with an increase in altitude
b. Mach number decreases with an increase in altitude
c. Mach number remain constants with an increase in altitude

11. Buffeting can be eliminated by having

a. ‘T’ tail design
b. A ticker aerofoil design
c. Flight spoilers on the wings

12. Why is there a need for a diffuser in a supersonic engine intake?

a. Increase the airflow speed for better engine efficiency
b. Decrease the airflow aped to subsonic speed
c. Decrease the pressure, density and temperature of the air

13. Wing loading is defined as

a. The ratio of the span to the chord of a wing
b. The ratio of the total load of an airplane to its cabin capacity
c. The ratio of the total load of the airplane to its wing area

14. What action should be taken if a permissible crack is found on a Damage Tolerant
Structure?
a. Patch repair to be carried out immediately
b. Apply sealant to cover the crack until the major check
c. Monitor crack growth rate while aircraft is in service

15. What is the ideal material for the top wing skin panel of the modern airplane?
a. 2024
b. 7150
c. 5056

16. Chromising process is used to

a. Further stabilise the anodised layer
b. Further reduce the process timing
c. Further reduce the brittleness of the material

17. Which of the following type of rivets is also known as an ‘ice box rivet’?
a. 1100 or 5056
b. 2017 or 2024
c. 2117

18. Stiffness of a skin panel can be increased without any increase in weight by
a. Honey-comb construction
b. Corrugation
c. Flanging
19. In the fail safe construction of fuselage, the method for joining together continuous
frames and stringers is
a. Cleated construction
b. Crack Stopper
c. Inter-coastal construction

20. Keel beam is designed to take

a. Bending load
b. Torsional load
c. Compression load

21. Modern aircraft wings used as integral fuel tank will have
a. Stringers and skin machines and chemically milled from one block of material
b. Stringer riveted to the skin
c. Stringers riveted and bolted to the skin

22. Fasters used to secure the pylon to the wing spar are of
a. Lose fit for ease of removal
b. Interference fit and quick release type
c. Interference fit and close tolerance type

23. The rudder is attached to hinge fittings mounted on

a. The auxiliary spar
b. The front spar
c. The rear spar

24. The type of bolts used for attachment or for joining (using normal torque values) are
a. Close tolerance bolts
b. Hexagon headed bolts
c. Round headed corrosion resistance bolts

25. Some flight control surfaces are designed to have certain portion projecting into the
airflow when moved. These are acting as
a. Mass balance
b. Aerodynamic balance
c. Spoilers

26. The control surfaces that uses pressure differential to move control surface in
aerodynamic balancing is known as
a. Balance panels
b. Balance tab
c. Balance pressure

27. The skin and cowling of the nacelle are usually made of
a. Steel, molybdenum, chromium and vibration-absorbing pods
b. Aluminium alloy, stainless steel, magnesium or titanium
c. Nickel, molybdenum, forged steel and steel longerons
28. For using the pneumatic ground cart for air conditioning system,
a. The bleed valve must be opened
b. The pack valve must be opened
c. Both mix valves must be closed

29. The circuit shows an AC Fan Motor with thermal switches operated by a switch.
What is the advantages of this type of circuit?

a. The high voltage to the fan is controlled by a low voltage with low current
b. The high voltage to the fan is controlled by a low voltage with high current
c. The low voltage has no effect on the high voltage going to the fan

30. Gasper fan air to individual outlets is taken from

a. The bleed air before the air condition pack valve
b. The air after the water separator
c. The air after the mixing chamber

31. In air vapour system, the refrigerant leaving the outlet of the compressor will be in
the following form
a. Low pressure, low temperature vapour
b. High pressure, low temperature liquid
c. High pressure, high temperature vapour

32. Bleed air flow through a ‘bootstrap’ system is through

a. Primary heat exchanger > compressor (ACM) > Secondary heat exchanger >
turbine (ACM) > outlet
b. Primary > Secondary heat exchanger > turbine (ACM) > outlet
c. Primary hear exchanger > turbine (ACM) > Secondary heat exchanger >
Compressor (ACM) > outlet

33. Operating the needle valve during manual operation of pneumatic pressure
controller will
a. Control the safety valve
b. Provide isobaric selection
c. Dump the cabin pressure
34. An aircraft descent from the cruise altitude will result in
a. An increase in cabin pressure and cabin altitude
b. An increase in cabin pressure and cabin rate of climb
c. An increase in cabin pressure and a decrease in cabin altitude

35. What action will the pilot take if No.1 and No.2 computer in the Electronic Pressure
Controller fails?
a. Select Manual AC or DC to control the airflow valve
b. Select spill valve and dump valve to the open position
c. Select Ground/Flight switch to Ground and control the Safety Valve

36. As the aircraft is descending the

a. Air density decrease, Temperature increase, Air pressure decrease
b. Air density increase, Temperature increase, Air pressure increase
c. Air density increase, Temperature increase, Air pressure decrease

37. There are two types of instruments

a. Remote sensing and indirect sensing
b. Remote sensing and direct sensing
c. Internal Sensing and Direct sensing

38. On the EICAS display which was switched to the compacted mode, you need to check
status messages. Where these would be positioned
a. Bottom left on the lower EICAS display
b. Top right on the upper EICAS display
c. Top right on the Lower EICAS display

39. In a direct reading Altimeter

a. The static pressure is fed to the sealed case affecting the expansion/contraction
of the aneroid and the position of the pointer
b. The pitot pressure is fed to the sealed case affecting the expansion/contraction
of the aneroid and the position of the pointer
c. The static pressure is fed aneroid affecting the expansion/contraction and the
position of the pointer

40. Evacuated capsules are used in altimeters in order to provide

a. A linear expansion and contraction
b. Lightweight, temperature sensitive, springy operation
c. Continued operation when punctured

41. Two pressure instrument A and B using Bourdon Tubes have the same oil pressure
applies but instrument A indicates a lower pressure
a. Instrument A Bourdon Tube is leaking or the zero adjustment was incorrect
b. Instrument A Bourdon Tube is leaking
c. Instrument B Bourdon Tube is leaking
42. The heaters on the pitot probe failed when the sea level temperature was 15
degrees C
a. The pitot probe will freeze up at low and high altitudes causing incorrect readings
b. The pitot probe will freeze up at low altitudes causing incorrect readings
c. The pitot probe will freeze up at high altitudes causing incorrect readings

43. The aircraft is landed on an airfield that is 2000ft above sea level and the Altimeter
indicates altitude of 2000ft. How is the altimeter adjusted to read 0 feet?
a. Setting the QNH of the airfield using the Baro pressure adjustment knob
b. Setting the QFE of the airfield using the Baro pressure adjustment knob
c. There is no adjustment and the altimeters indication is correct

44. A RTD is used for

a. Measuring the fuel pressure
b. Measuring the fuel flow
c. Measuring the fuel temperature

45. Which of the following VHF COMM frequencies is reserved for emergency?
a. 1215
b. 123.5
c. 125.5

46. What type of information does the ILS provide?

a. Distance and altitude
b. Azimuth and slant distance
c. Localiser and glide slope information

47. The computers that process the AFDS input signals and provide output commands is
a. The one Flight Management System Computer (FMSC)
b. The three Flight Control Computer (FCC)
c. The three Flight Management System Computer (FMSC)

48. What are the aircraft control surfaces normally associated with the roll and yaw
channel?
a. Ailerons, spoilers and rudder
b. Elevators, rudder and ailerons
c. Ailerons, elevator and spoilers

49. The aircraft GPS system calculates

a. Latitude, longitude and clock bias only
b. Latitude, longitude, heading, track, altitude and clock bias
c. Latitude, longitude, altitude and clock bias

50. What is the output power of the ram air turbine (RAT)?
a. 7.5KW
b. 7.5KVA
c. 5.0 KVA
51. While the aircraft is on the ground, how does the 115V AC ground service bus
receive its power?
a. Ground power unit or battery
b. Auxiliary power unit or battery
c. Ground power unit or auxiliary power unit

52. In an intergrated drive generator (IDG) system the putput frequency fluctuates at a
constant engine speed. What could cause this?
a. The permanent magnet generator (PMG)
b. The hydraulic trim units not functioning correctly
c. The constant speed drive (CSD) gearing

53. After failure of all ac power sources, which AC bus is still supplying power?
a. The standby ac bus
b. The hot ac bus
c. The essential ac bus

54. In an integrated drive generator (IDG) system, how is the output of the main
generator monitored and maintained at the correct level
a. Checking the Revs Per Minute (RPM) of the generator and varying the exciter
voltage via the generator control unit (GCU)
b. Monitoring the 3 phases output using 3 current transformers and varying the
exciter voltage via the generator control unit (GCU)
c. Monitoring the 3 phases output using 3 voltage transformers and varying the
exciter voltage via the generator control unit (GCU)

55. The ac voltage between each phase is a star or ‘Y’ generator configuration is 200V
AC. What is the voltage between b phase and neutral?
a. 230V AC
b. 200V AC
c. 115V AC

56. Life jackets must have attached to them

a. A light and whistle
b. A light and pyrotechnics
c. A means of buoyancy and pyrotechnics

57. A dry cell battery installed on life jackets is to be replaced

a. Only when it is activated by water immersion
b. Annually
c. Every 6 months

58. To check the serviceability of the flight crew inertia reel, the harness should be
a. Given a jerk and the reel should lock automatically
b. Given a jerk and the reel should release the harness
c. Pull slowly and the reel should lock automatically
59. In a typical IFE system, main multiplexer is connected to sub multiplexer by
a. Twisted pair of wires
b. RJ 43 cable
c. Single coaxial cable

60. The cargo handling control panel will be automatically activated when
a. Battery switch is ON and the cargo door is closed
b. Ground power is ON and cargo door is closed
c. Ground power is ON and cargo door I opened

61. One requirement of a fire warning system is to

a. Inhibit fire warning during aircraft take-off and landing
b. Provide a continuous indication when fire exists
c. Extinguish the fire automatically as soon a it is detected

62. The responder unit of Systron-Doner system has in in (inside)

a. Integrity switch
b. Bell disable switch
c. Test switch

63. Electrical continuous loop fire detector systems will

a. Detect a fire even when the sensing element is broken
b. Not detect a fire when the sensing element is broken
c. Not detect a fire and cannot be test when the sensing element is broken

64. To know what that a hand-held fire extinguisher has not been used before, check
that
a. The extinguisher is attached to the mounting bracket
b. The expiration date is still valid
c. The safety pin is installed

65. Aircraft oscillatory instability characterised by combined rolling and yawing motions
is known as
a. Dutch roll
b. Uncoordinated turn
c. Phugoid

66. Something about ‘safetied’

a. Witness holes
b. Fully threaded into the shank
c. The lock nut must be tightened and secured with safety wire

67. Movement of the control column forward and to the right will cause
a. Left aileron move up and right aileron up, elevator up
b. Left aileron move down and right aileron up, elevator up
c. Right aileron moves up and left aileron down, elevator down
68. How is cable tensioning carried out on a system fitted with a cable tension regulator?
a. Tension the cable until the regulator releases the cables
b. Tension the cables to the regulator scale position (units) as required
c. Tension the cable to the value in pounds as required

69. American cables are designed by

a. Nominal diameter and minimum breaking load in pounds
b. Nominal diameter and maximum breaking load in pounds
c. Its length and extreme diameter

70. The serviceability check on a cable tension regulator is done by

a. Grasping and pulling one cable which will move both quadrants to release the
cable
b. Grasping and pulling both cables which will lock both quadrant preventing
release of the cable
c. Grasping and pulling both cables which will move both quadrants to release the
cables

71. Using cable tension meter, ensure the

a. The tensiometer is placed contacting the turnbuckle
b. The control system is operated to maximum travel position
c. The control system Is in the neutral position

72. When a flight control cable system is moved to its maximum position, cable end
a. Not come within 2 inches of a pulley
b. Not come within 4 inches of a pulley
c. Not allowed to contact the pulley or fairlead

73. Proof loading of a chain is carried out at

a. One-third of the minimum breaking load
b. One-half of the minimum break load
c. One-third of the maximum breaking load

74. When using the different ailerons correct range of movement, the down
a. The same as the up going aileron
b. Greater than the up going aileron
c. Lesser than the up going aileron

75. What is used to centralise the control column and selector in a powered flight
control system?
a. A centralising fly wheel unit
b. The interconnecting valve spring
c. The artificial spring unit
76. A rudder limiter system will
a. Provide a constant rudder travel irrespective of speed
b. Provide maximum rudder travel at high air speed
c. Provide limited rudder travel at high air speed

77. If an aircraft cruising at a constant speed climb to a higher altitude, the ‘Q’ feels unit
would
a. Provide a greater resistance force when moving the flight controls
b. Provide a less resistance force when moving the flight controls
c. Provide a constant resistance force when moving flight controls

78. In a stall warning system, the stick nudger (confirm spelling correct) will operate
a. by pushing the control column forward if no corrective action by pilot
b. by pulling the control column backward id no corrective action by pilot
c. to create a cracking sound when the speed is 5% above the stalking speed

79. What method is used for chain storage?

a. Pack chain with grease and wrapped in grease-proof paper
b. Soaked chain in paraffin, dried and wrapped in grease-proof paper
c. Soaked chain in oil and wrapped in grease-proof paper

80. Slight positive pressure in the fuel tank vent system

a. Reduces fuel vaporisation at high altitudes
b. Increase fuel vaporisation at low altitudes
c. Increase fuel vaporisation at high altitude.

81. The temperature gauge on the fuel control panel shows zero at all times
a. the temperature gauge only unserviceable
b. the temperature gauge or the fuel sensor in the centre tank is unserviceable
c. the temperature gauge or the fuel sensor in no 1 tank is unserviceable

82. To enable an engine to be fed for any desired gap of tank

a. cross-feed valves are fitted
b. it is necessary to transfer the fuel to the engines associated tank first
c. the engine’s associated tank quantity has to be depleted first

83. Booster pump fitted in isolation chamber

a. enable them to be removed and refitted without draining the tank
b. allow them to be vented to the surge/vent tank efficiently
c. cannot be connected to the cross-feed system

84. What is skydrol hydraulic fluid used with

a. pure rubber seals
b. synthetic rubber seals
c. butyl rubber seals
85. During a hydraulic system operational check on a small aircraft, the flaps cannot
be lowered using the main hydraulic system, but can be lowered by using
emergency hand pump. Which is the most likely cause?

a. the flap selector valve has a severe internal leak

b. the pressure accumulator is not supplying pressure to the system
c. the fluid level in the reservoir is low

86. In a pressure intensifier, the output pressure varies

a. proportional to the piston area
b. inversely proportional to the piston area
c. according to the piston length

87. In a landing gear circuit, a one-way restrictor valve is fitted

a. the down line to slow the gear down movement
b. the up line to slow the gear down movement
c. the up line to slow the gear up movement

88. What can cause over heating of a variable displacement pressure

a. over supply of fluid to the pump
b. pump delivery is at its maximum pressure
c. pump case drain line is blocked

89. What does the second digit in a LlII3 selector valve indicate?
a. 3 parts
b. 3 switching positon
c. 3 method of installation

90. de booster valve filer in the brake system will

a. reduces the pressure and restrict the fluid flow
b. reduces the pressure and provide higher volume fluid flow
c. increase the pressure and fluid flow

91. the flap blow back action in achieved by

a. pressure relief valve fitted in the down line
b. pressure relief valve fitted in the up line
c. thermal relief valve fitted in the system

92. hydraulic pressure is normal when the pumps are running but no hydraulic pressure
is indicated when pump is stopped. This is an indication of a
a. low accumulator fluid preload
b. leaking accumulator air valve
c. leaking selector valve
93. what action is to be taken if hydraulic fluid contamination is discovered at early
stage
a. drain and flush the system with new fluid
b. removes all hydraulic components in the system
c. ethylene glycol is added to neutralise the fluid

94. what component is used to control the pressure in the constant displacement
pump system
a. pressure regulator valve
b. pressure relief valve
c. pressure release valve

95. Prior to checking the inertial charged nitrogen pressure in an accumulator, ensure
a. hydraulic system pressure is at its maximum
b. hydraulic system pressure is released
c. hydraulic system pressure is at 50% of maximum

96. Windscreen heating is controlled by

a. a sensing element mounted in the windscreen
b. by measuring the resistance of the elements
c. by an electronic filter

97. to prevent over heating of a flight deck window

a. the window system monitors he window heating using
b. the window system uses a zener diode to limit
c. there are heat sensors embedded in each of the window

98. how would you carry out a functional check on a windscreen and wing fluid
a. uses the aircraft system and inspect for fluid flow over the full length surface
b. disconnects the system and install a flow meter
c. uses a ground test rig

99. In the mechanical de-icing system, the vacuum air is essential for
a. inflation and deflation of the rubber boots
b. providing the sequence of rubber boots operation
c. fast response to hold down the rubber boots

100. the converter in a windshield wiper system is to

a. convert dc power to ac power in the motor
b. convert rotary movement to reciprocating motion
c. convert linear movement to rotary movement
101. nose gear centring cams are used in many retractable landing gear the centering
devices is to
a. engages the nose wheel steering during landing
b. aligns the nose wheel during nose gear extension
c. centre the nose wheel before it enters the wheel well (pg68)

102. a tyre on the rear axle of a bogie landing gear burst when taken for the wheels?
a. replaces the wheel with the burst tyre only
b. replaces the burst tyre wheel and the other wheel on the
c. replaces all wheel on the bogie

103. wear brake pads can often be detected

a. braking becoming less efficient
b. protrusion of the retraction pins
c. inserting feelers gauges between disc and pressure plate

104. during flight, landing gear warning Horn may sound when
a. engine throttle is at idle range and all landing gear are down
b. engine throttle is at idle range and all landing gears are in transition
c. engine throttle is at maximum power and all landing gears are down

105. if control lever selected OFF, one gear remains down lock, what are the light colour
shown? -

106. what type of bearing is used for the trunnion bearing?

a. plain roller bearing
b. taper roller bearing
c. spherical bearing

107. prior to towing an aircraft, the nose-wheel steering system is isolated by

a. putting the landing gear ground lock pin
b. ensuring hydraulic pressure is available
c. disconnecting the torque links

108. when manual extension (free fall) is selected, the landing gears
a. down-lock actuator and lock strut
b. down-lock actuator and walking beam
c. down-lock bungee and lock strut

109. landing gear servicing to ensure correct volume of oil in the oleo-pneumatic shock
absorber, it is essential to
a. charge in nitrogen before filling up the oil
b. filling the oil to push the separator down to its maximum travel
c. filling the oil to maintain separator in a mid-way position
110. What action to be taken if one of the thermal fuse plug is found to have operated

a. replace the fused thermal plug only

b. replaces all the thermal plugs in the wheel

c. replace the fused plug with one having higher temperature setting

111. Brake de booster fitted in a brake system is to

a. reduce pressure and volume flow to the brakes

b. reduce pressure and increase volumes flow to the brakes

c. increase pressure and reduce volume flow to the brakes

112. When checking the brake unit for wear, using the wear indicating pins, ensure

a. brakes must be released

B. brakes must be applied

c. parking brakes are off

113. In an electronic anti-skid system, when a skid is detected, the

a. anti-skid box (computer) will signal the brake metering value to release the brake
pressure

b. anti-skid box will signal the anti-skid value to release the brake pressure

c. anti-skid box will reduce brake pressure to the……

114. What is the component that is in contact with the pressure plate?

a. single stator

b. double stator

c. rotor

115. when halogen lamps are touched with bare hands

a. the lamps may explode at power up

b. the lamp may crack at power up
c. the service life of the lamp will be reduced
 116. The lights test of the LED push buttons is serviceable, but the light does not come
ON. What is the possible fault?
a. the LED is unserviceable
b. the LED is not being supplied the earth from the associated unit
c. ?

117. the aircraft is going to encounter a storm therefore the aircraft

a. illuminates all flood lighting
b. extinguishes all flood lighting
c. illuminate the front display panel flood lighting only

118. when power is applied a serviceable fluorescent tube it does not strike.
a. the cathode is open circuited
b. the starter bi-metallic switch is not operating
c. the cathode is short circuited

119. In a LED 7 segments numerical indicator, the indictor indicate a ‘2’ instead of an ‘8’. What is
the possible fault?

a). one of the segments is unserviceable

b). two of the segments are unserviceable

c). three of the segments are unserviceable

120. On a pressure demand system, the ‘normal’ selection gives a

a). 100% oxygen during inhaling

b). constant dilute supply

c). dilute supply during inhaling

121. When charging an oxygen bottle in situ

a). slacken off the retaining strap first

b). charge in accordance with the temp/pressure graph

c). charge slowly through a water trap

122. When is suspected that the aircraft’s oxygen has leak the lines and fitting should be checked
by

a). coating all suspected areas with neutral cleaning solvent will cause the solvent to
spread noticeably

b). checking the tightness of all the fittings with a torque wrench the lines for cracks
with dye check

c). bubble testing with a testing soap solution manufactured for this job
123. Once the chemical oxygen generator is activated, the low pressure oxygen supply is
continuous and lasts for

a). 15 minutes

b). 30 minutes

c). 45 minutes

124. Prior to connecting the oxygen charging hose to the aircraft, ensure that

a). proper bonding and purging are carried out

b). the hose connection adapter is torque loaded

c). the fitting is lubricated with anti-freeze grease

125. Where is the external charging valve in a conventional pneumatic system located?

a). between the pressure regulator and the air bottle

b). between the compressor and oil and water tap

c). on the inlet side of the compressor

126. Overall control of main pneumatic system pressure is provided by means of

a). isolation valve

b). pressure regulator valve

c). pressure relief valve

127. Relief valves are used in pneumatic system

a). to reduce and maintain the rate of airflow

b). for exhausting flow control to atmosphere

c). as damage preventing unit

128. The date that the pressure test was conducted on an air bottle

a). stamped on the neck of the bottle

b). stamped on the side of the bottle

c). stamped on a metal disc attached to the bottle

 129. twin compressor using a common delivery line require
a. non return valve
b. pressure regulating valve
c. a combination of non-return valve and shut off valve

130 on a bleed air duct indicator only the l pointer is visible

a. both the l and r pointer are showing the same pressure of 30
b. this is only one pointer which is showing a pressure of 30
c. both her l and r pointer are showing the same flow rate of 30

131. a spillage system leaks of extraneous fluids should be thoroughly cleaned

a. to prevent inadvertent failure of the toilet flushing system
b. to prevent the toilet flow panels becoming soggy
c. to prevent the fluid from penetrating the structure and damaging most protection

132. during servicing the portable water system, the tank

a. water overflowing from the overflow line fitting
b. water stops flowing by the automatic shut-off valve
c. indicator gage showing water full in the cockpit

133. When the aircraft is at low altitude (below 16,000 feet) the air for the
vacuum toilet is obtained from
a. the cabin differential pressure
b. the ambient pressure
c. the vacuum blower

134. In the ‘avionic and open world’ control maintenance computing system, network
server system (NSS), data loading and configuration system (DLSS) which function
enables the addition of software to the database
a. data loading function
b. the configuration management function
c. the repository function

135.The on-board maintenance system (OBMS) enables the operator

a. test the system and read the failure codes
b. test the system but does not provide any failure code
c. read the failure code

136.In the ‘avionic and open world’ central maintenance computing system network
server system (NSS) which domain house the central computing maintenance system
(CMS) servers
a. NSS avionic domain
b. NSS avionic and communication and cabin domains
c. NSS flight operation and communication and cabin domain
137. VHF comm data link uses ARINC format
a. 453
b. 618
c. 717

138. What is used to reduce the wiring from integrated display system (IDS) that interface
with the avionic world network systems?
a. controller area network (CAN) bus
b. network switch box
c. core processor input/output modulos (CPIOM)

139. in the common core system (CCS) / common service system (CSS) the passenger
complaint that the air conditioning is too cold. What action would you take?
a. request the flight crew reduce the bleed air to the air conditioning system
b. adjust the air conditioning which is electrical of the flight attendant panel
(FAP)
c. request the flight crew increase the bleed air to the air conditioning system

140). In an arinc 629 aircraft information system (AIMS) the output of the digital video to
the EFB displays is from the
a. linux system
b. VMS system
c. linux and VMS system

others:
 Function of relief valve in pneumatic systems
 Validity of oxygen and fire extinguisher bottle location
 Oxygen generator can last for how long