2022 U.S.

NATIONAL
CHEMISTRY OLYMPIAD
NATIONAL EXAM PART I
Prepared by the American Chemical Society Chemistry Olympiad Examinations Task Force

OLYMPIAD EXAMINATIONS TASK FORCE

Seth N. Brown, Chair, University of Notre Dame, Notre Dame, IN
James Ayers, Colorado Mesa University, Grand Junction, CO Valerie Ferguson, Moore HS, Moore, OK (retired)
Jerry Bell, Simmons University, Boston, MA (retired) Kimberly Gardner, United States Air Force Academy, CO
Jesse Bernstein, Miami Country Day School, Miami, FL (retired) Paul Groves, South Pasadena HS, South Pasadena, CA (retired)
Mark DeCamp, University of Michigan, Dearborn, MI (retired) John Kotz, State University of New York, Oneonta, NY (retired)
Joshua de Groot, College of Southern Idaho, Twin Falls, ID Sarah Leite, Hopkins School, New Haven CT
James Dohm, ExxonMobil, Houston, TX Michael A. Morgan, Francisco Bravo Medical Magnet HS, Los Angeles, CA
Xu Duan, Holton-Arms School, Bethesda, MD Jane Nagurney, Scranton Preparatory School, Scranton, PA (retired)

DIRECTIONS TO THE EXAMINER

The USNCO Subcommittee is conducting a survey in an effort to determine the impact of the Olympiad program on students. At the
end of the exam there are four questions, which should be answered on the same Scantron sheet students use for the exam. These
questions may be administered after the 90 minutes allotted for the exam, each student should be encouraged to answer these questions.
Part I of this test is designed to be taken with a Scantron answer sheet on which the student records his or her responses. Only this
Scantron sheet is graded for a score on Part I. Testing materials, scratch paper, and the Scantron sheet should be made available to the
student only during the examination period. All testing materials including scratch paper should be turned in and kept secure until May
14, 2022, after which tests can be returned to students and their teachers for further study.
Allow time for students to read the directions, ask questions, and fill in the requested information on the Scantron sheet. The answer
sheet must be completed using a pencil, not pen. When the student has completed Part I, or after one hour and thirty minutes has
elapsed, the student must turn in the Scantron sheet, Part I of the testing materials, and all scratch paper.
There are three parts to the National Chemistry Olympiad Examination. You have the option of administering the three parts in any
order, and you are free to schedule rest breaks between parts.
Part I 60 questions single answer, multiple-choice 1 hour, 30 minutes
Part II 8 questions problem-solving, explanations 1 hour, 45 minutes
Part III 2 lab problems laboratory practical 1 hour, 30 minutes
A periodic table and other useful information are provided on page 2 for student reference.
Students should be permitted to use non-programmable calculators. The use of a programmable calculator, cell phone, watch,
or any other device that can access the internet or make copies or photographs during the exam is grounds for disqualification.
DIRECTIONS TO THE EXAMINEE – DO NOT TURN THE PAGE UNTIL DIRECTED TO DO SO.
Answers to questions in Part I must be entered on a Scantron answer sheet to be scored. Be sure to write your name and assigned ID
number on the answer sheet. Make a record of this ID number because you will use the same number on Parts II and III. Each
item in Part I consists of a question or an incomplete statement that is followed by four possible choices. Select the single choice that
best answers the question or completes the statement. Then use a pencil to blacken the space on your answer sheet next to the same letter
as your choice. You may write on the examination, but the test booklet will not be used for grading. Scores are based on the number of
correct responses. When you complete Part I (or at the end of one hour and 30 minutes), you must turn in all testing materials, scratch
paper, and your Scantron answer sheet.
Do not forget to turn in your U.S. citizenship/Green Card Holder statement before leaving the testing site today.

Property of ACS USNCO – Not for use as USNCO National Exam after May 1, 2022
Distributed by the American Chemical Society, 1155 16th Street, N.W., Washington, DC 20036
All rights reserved. Printed in U.S.A.
 ABBREVIATIONS AND SYMBOLS CONSTANTS
amount of substance n Faraday constant F molar mass M
ampere A free energy G mole mol R = 8.314 J mol–1 K–1
atmosphere atm frequency ν Planck’s constant h R = 0.08314 L bar mol–1 K–1
atomic mass unit u gas constant R pressure P
F = 96,500 C mol–1
Avogadro constant NA gram g rate constant k
Celsius temperature °C hour h reaction quotient Q F = 96,500 J V–1 mol–1
centi– prefix c joule J second s NA = 6.022 × 1023 mol–1
coulomb C kelvin K speed of light c
h = 6.626 × 10–34 J s
density d kilo– prefix k temperature, K T
electromotive force E liter L time t c = 2.998 × 108 m s–1
energy of activation Ea measure of pressure mm Hg vapor pressure VP 0 °C = 273.15 K
enthalpy H milli– prefix m volt V 1 atm = 1.013 bar = 760 mm Hg
entropy S molal m volume V
equilibrium constant K molar M year y Specific heat capacity of H2O =
4.184 J g–1 K–1

EQUATIONS

RT  −∆H o   1   k2  Ea  1 1 
E Eo −
= ln Q =ln K     + constant ln=
   − 
nF  R  T   k1  R  T1 T2 

1 PERIODIC TABLE OF THE ELEMENTS 18

1A 8A
1 2
H 2 13 14 15 16 17 He
1.008 2A 3A 4A 5A 6A 7A 4.003

3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Li Be B C N O F Ne
6.941 9.012 10.81 12.01 14.01 16.00 19.00 20.18
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 Al Si P S Cl Ar
22.99 24.31 3B 4B 5B 6B 7B 8B 8B 8B 1B 2B 26.98 28.09 30.97 32.07 35.45 39.95

19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
39.10 40.08 44.96 47.88 50.94 52.00 54.94 55.85 58.93 58.69 63.55 65.39 69.72 72.61 74.92 78.97 79.90 83.80
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
85.47 87.62 88.91 91.22 92.91 95.95 (98) 101.1 102.9 106.4 107.9 112.4 114.8 118.7 121.8 127.6 126.9 131.3
55 56 57 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
Cs Ba La Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn
132.9 137.3 138.9 178.5 180.9 183.8 186.2 190.2 192.2 195.1 197.0 200.6 204.4 207.2 209.0 (209) (210) (222)
87 88 89 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118
Fr Ra Ac Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Rg Cn Nh Fl Mc Lv Ts Og
(223) (226) (227) (261) (262) (263) (262) (265) (266) (281) (272) (285) (286) (289) (289) (293) (294) (294)

58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
140.1 140.9 144.2 (145) 150.4 152.0 157.3 158.9 162.5 164.9 167.3 168.9 173.0 175.0
90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
232.0 231.0 238.0 (237) (244) (243) (247) (247) (251) (252) (257) (258) (259) (262)

Page 2 Property of ACS USNCO – Not for use as USNCO National Exam after May 1, 2022
 DIRECTIONS
 When you have selected your answer to each question, blacken the corresponding space on the answer sheet using a soft, #2
pencil. Make a heavy, full mark, but no stray marks. If you decide to change an answer, erase the unwanted mark very carefully.
 There is only one correct answer to each question. Any questions for which more than one response has been blackened will not
be counted.
 Your score is based solely on the number of questions you answer correctly. It is to your advantage to answer every question.

1. 0.125 g of strontium metal reacts with excess liquid
ammonia to form strontium amide and hydrogen gas.
How many moles of hydrogen are produced?
(A) 7.13 × 10-4 mol (B) 1.43 × 10-3 mol
(C) 2.14 × 10-4 mol (D) 2.85 × 10-3 mol
2. A diamagnetic compound is 71.4% arsenic by mass.
What is its molecular formula?
(A) CH3AsN (B) C2H6As
(C) C2H6As2N2 (D) C4H12As2
3. Weighed samples of iron are added in increments to a
given amount of liquid bromine and allowed to react
completely. The reaction produces a single product that
is isolated and weighed. Which statement best describes
the experiments summarized by the graph?
5. The hypochlorite concentration in bleach can be
determined by treating it with excess iodide ion in acidic
solution, which causes the formation of triiodide ion
according to the following balanced reaction:
OCl–(aq) + 3 I–(aq) + 2 H3O+(aq) →
Cl–(aq) + I3–(aq) + 3 H2O(l)
The triiodide can then be titrated with sodium thiosulfate:
I3–(aq) + 2 S2O32-(aq) → 3 I–(aq) + S4O62-(aq)
A 75.0-mL sample of liquid bleach is treated with excess
KI and acid, and then titrated with 0.0235 M sodium
thiosulfate solution. The endpoint is observed on the
addition of 21.23 mL of this solution. What is the
hypochlorite concentration in the bleach?
(A) 4.99 × 10-4 M (B) 1.66 × 10-3 M
(C) 3.33 × 10-3 M (D) 6.65 × 10-3 M

6. Which aqueous solution has the highest normal boiling

point?
(A) 0.10 M Na3PO4 (B) 0.30 M Na2HPO4
(C) 0.50 M NaH2PO4 (D) 0.70 M H3PO4

7. Which element gives a red flame test?

(A) Aluminum (B) Boron
(C) Sodium (D) Strontium
(A) When 1.00 g of Fe is added, Fe is the limiting
8. Combining which solutions would produce a color
reactant.
change?
(B) When 2.00 g of Fe is added, 10.6 g of FeBr2 is
(A) NaCl(aq) and Br2(aq)
formed.
(B) Na2CO3(aq) and HNO3(aq)
(C) When 2.50 g of Fe is added, both reactants are used
completely. (C) K2C2O4(aq) and FeCl3(aq)
(D) When 3.50 g of Fe is added, there is an excess of (D) CH3COOH(aq) and Co(NO3)2(aq)
Br2.
9. Which metal resists oxidation in air because it forms a
4. A copper ore consists of a mixture of Cu2S and CuS. An protective oxide coating?
89.0 g sample of this ore is smelted to produce 67.5 g of
(A) Al (B) Ca (C) Fe (D) Sr
elemental copper. What is the mass of CuS in the ore
sample?
(A) 13.3 g (B) 26.6 g (C) 37.5 g (D) 64.1 g

Property of ACS USNCO – Not for use as USNCO National Exam after May 1, 2022 Page 3
 10. Which experiment would be most appropriate for
determining the number of components in a commercial
nail polish remover?
(A) Gas chromatography
(B) Paper chromatography
(C) Boiling point determination
(D) Combustion analysis
11. A solution containing a divalent metal ion forms a
precipitate when treated with hydrogen sulfide which
does not dissolve in 1 M HCl. Which ion is present?
(A) Ca2+ (B) Mn2+ (C) Cd2+ (D) Ba2+
12. An unknown metal M reacts with aqueous sulfuric acid
to form hydrogen gas and the divalent metal ion M2+(aq).
A student collects the hydrogen over water and calculates
the molar mass of M based on the volume of hydrogen
collected. Which error will result in a value of the
calculated molar mass that is higher than the true molar
mass?
(A) The concentration of sulfuric acid is 2.0 M rather
than 1.0 M as recommended by the procedure.
(B) Some of the metal sample has oxidized to the metal
oxide.
(C) The barometric pressure is assumed to be 760 torr
when in fact it is 740 torr.
(D) The vapor pressure of water is not included in the
calculation.
13. A 1.0-L container with 1.00 atm Ar gas is connected by a
stopcock to a 2.0-L container containing 0.5 atm Kr gas.
Which statement accurately describes the system after the
stopcock is opened and the system is allowed to reach
equilibrium? The temperature is 25 °C throughout the
experiment.
(A) The total pressure is 1.00 atm.
(B) The number of moles of Ar in the 2.0-L container is
equal to the number of moles of Kr in the 1.0-L
container.
(C) The average speed of the Ar atoms is equal to the
average speed of the Kr atoms.
(D) The partial pressure of Ar is equal to the partial
pressure of Kr.
Page 4 Property of ACS USNCO – Not for use as USNCO National Exam after May 1, 2022
14. The normal boiling point of CH2Br2 is 97 °C while the
normal boiling point of CHBr3 is 149 °C. Differences in
which interactions are most responsible for this
difference in boiling points?
(A) London dispersion forces
(B) Dipole-dipole interactions
(C) Hydrogen bonding
(D) Carbon-bromine covalent bonding
15. The triple point of ethyne, C2H2, is 192.4 K and 1.2 atm.
What may be concluded from this information?
(A) Solid ethyne sublimes rather than melting at 1 atm
pressure.
(B) Solid ethyne is less dense than liquid ethyne.
(C) Solid ethyne is not thermodynamically stable at
193.0 K.
(D) A sample of ethyne at 192.4 K must have a pressure
of 1.2 atm.
16. The volume of a sample of gaseous SF6 would increase
by more than a factor of two under which of these
conditions?
I. It is heated from 300.0 K to 600.0 K at a
pressure of 1.00 atm.
II. The pressure is decreased from 2.00 atm to 1.00
atm at 300 K.
(A) I only (B) II only
(C) Both I and II (D) Neither I nor II
17. A pure sample of benzene (C6H6) melts sharply at 5.5 °C,
while a pure sample of hexafluorobenzene (C6F6) melts
sharply at 5.2 °C. However, an equimolar mixture of
C6H6 and C6F6 melts sharply at 23.7 °C. Which is the
best explanation for this observation?
(A) C6H6 and C6F6 are immiscible in the liquid phase.
(B) C6H6 and C6F6 form a crystal containing equal
amounts of the two substances.
(C) Fluorocarbons characteristically show negative
freezing point depression constants.
(D) The enthalpy of mixing of C6H6 and C6F6 is
negative.
 18. A unit cell of a crystalline compound with the formula 23. The graph below shows how the standard entropy of
ABC3 is shown below. What is the arrangement of vaporization, ΔSovap, varies with molar mass for straight-
nearest neighbors around the atoms of type C? chain alkanes CH3(CH2)nCH3.

Which of the following graphs best shows how ΔSovap

(solid squares, dashed line) varies with molar mass for
(A) Linear arrangement of B atoms straight-chain primary alcohols CH3(CH2)nOH?
(B) Square planar arrangement of A atoms (A)
(C) Cubic arrangement of A atoms
(D) Cubic arrangement of C atoms

19. When a helium-filled balloon is immersed in liquid

nitrogen, which statements accurately describe the
changes as the balloon deflates?
I. The nitrogen does work on the balloon.
II. The entropy of the nitrogen increases.
(B)
(A) I only (B) II only
(C) Both I and II (D) Neither I nor II

20. Solid KOH (M = 56.11, ∆H°soln = –57.6 kJ mol-1) is

slowly added to distilled water contained in a well-
insulated vessel, initially at 25.0 °C. What is the pH
when the temperature of the solution reaches 26.0 °C?
You may assume that the density of the solution remains
at 1.00 g mL-1 and its heat capacity remains at 4.184 J g-1 (C)
K-1 throughout the experiment.
(A) 9.1 (B) 9.9 (C) 12.1 (D) 12.9

21. What is ∆G°f (at 298 K) for ClF3(g)?

Substance ∆H°f, kJ mol-1 S°, J mol-1 K-1
F2(g) 0 202.8
Cl2(g) 0 223.1
ClF3(g) –158.9 281.6 (D)
(A) –78.9 kJ mol -1
(B) –83.9 kJ mol -1

(C) –118.9 kJ mol -1

(D) –242.8 kJ mol-1

22. The triple point of bromine is 265.9 K and 0.058 bar, and
the standard entropy of vaporization of bromine is 89.0 J
mol-1 K-1. What is the standard enthalpy of vaporization
of bromine?
(A) 17.4 kJ mol-1 (B) 23.7 kJ mol-1
(C) 26.5 kJ mol-1 (D) 30.0 kJ mol-1

Property of ACS USNCO – Not for use as USNCO National Exam after May 1, 2022 Page 5
 24. The natural logarithm of the molar solubility S of sodium
iodate monohydrate as a function of the reciprocal of the
absolute temperature is plotted below.
28. The kinetics of the reaction of crystal violet with excess
sodium hydroxide to form colorless products is
monitored using a spectrophotometer. A plot of the
natural logarithm of the absorbance of green light by the
system as a function of time is linear with a negative
slope. Which conclusions may be drawn from the data?
I. The reaction is first-order in crystal violet.
II. The reaction is first-order in hydroxide ion.
(A) I only (B) II only
(C) Both I and II (D) Neither I nor II

29. A reaction initially contains pure reactant R, which forms

product P reversibly. Which reaction coordinate diagram
corresponds to the reaction in which P achieves a
concentration within 5% of its equilibrium value the
What is the standard enthalpy of dissolution for
fastest?
NaIO3•H2O?
(A) (B)
(A) 2.1 kJ mol-1 (B) 17.4 kJ mol-1
(C) 26.0 kJ mol-1 (D) 34.7 kJ mol-1

25. The isotope actinium-226 undergoes both beta decay,

with a half-life of 35.4 d, and electron capture, with a
half-life of 173 d. What is the overall half-life for the
radioactive decay of 226Ac? (C) (D)
(A) 29.4 d (B) 78.3 d (C) 104 d (D) 208 d

26. The rate of the gas-phase reaction of nitrogen dioxide

with carbon monoxide at 177 °C was measured under
three different sets of concentrations as shown. What is
the rate law for this reaction under these conditions?
NO2(g) + CO(g) → NO(g) + CO2(g)
Initial [NO2], Initial [CO], Initial rate,
mol L-1 mol L-1 mol L-1 min-1
Ex 1 4.0 × 10-4 1.7 × 10-2 1.70 × 10-7 Continued on next page
Ex 2 4.0 × 10 -4
3.4 × 10 -2
1.70 × 10 -7

Ex 3 1.2 × 10 -3
3.4 × 10 -2
1.53 × 10-6
(A) Rate = k[NO2] (B) Rate = k[NO2]2
(C) Rate = k[CO] (D) Rate = k[NO2][CO]

27. Which statement best describes the properties of the

activation energy of a reaction?
(A) It increases in the presence of a catalyst.
(B) It decreases with increasing temperature.
(C) It must be larger than the energy change for forming
any intermediates in the reaction.
(D) It must be positive for endothermic reactions and
negative for exothermic reactions.

Page 6 Property of ACS USNCO – Not for use as USNCO National Exam after May 1, 2022
 30. The reaction between A and B involves an intermediate I 33. The Ksp of BaCrO4 is 1.2 × 10-10. What is the minimum
whose concentration remains very low throughout the volume of 1.5 × 10-5 M Na2CrO4 that would need to be
reaction. The initial rates of a reaction as a function of added to 1.0 L of 1.5 × 10-5 M Ba(NO3)2 solution to
[B] (at constant [A]) are shown below. Which statement induce precipitation of BaCrO4?
about the mechanism is most consistent with the data?
(A) 0.53 L
(B) 0.73 L
(C) 1.0 L
(D) No amount of this Na2CrO4 solution will cause
precipitation of BaCrO4.

34. A reaction has Keq = 0.020 at 300 K, and its Keq value
increases with increasing temperature. What can be
inferred about the values of ∆H°rxn and ∆S°rxn, assuming
(A) A initially reacts reversibly to form the intermediate that they are independent of temperature?
I, which then reacts irreversibly with B in a process
that is first-order in B. I. ∆H°rxn < 0
(B) A initially reacts reversibly to form the intermediate II. ∆S°rxn < 0
I, which then reacts irreversibly with B in a process (A) I only (B) II only
that is second-order in B.
(C) Both I and II (D) Neither I nor II
(C) B initially reacts reversibly in a first-order process to
form the intermediate I, which then reacts 35. Silver ion forms the complex Ag(CN)2– with Kf = 9.8 ×
irreversibly with A.
1021. What is the minimum amount of HCN that would
(D) B initially reacts reversibly in a second-order need to be added to 1.00 L of a suspension of 0.010 mol
process to form the intermediate I, which then reacts AgCl in order to dissolve all the solid? The Ksp of AgCl
irreversibly with A. is 1.8 × 10-10 and the Ka of HCN is 6.2 × 10-10.
(A) 0.020 mol (B) 0.079 mol
31. Carbon monoxide reacts with hydrogen in the presence of
a catalyst to give methanol: (C) 0.26 mol (D) 1.7 mol
CO(g) + 2 H2(g) ⇆ CH3OH(g)
A metal container at 400 K is charged with 2.00 bar of an
equimolar mixture of CO and H2. A catalyst for the Continued on next page
reaction is introduced and the pressure falls to 1.29 bar
once equilibrium is achieved. What is Kp for this reaction
at 400 K?
(A) 1.32 (B) 6.54 (C) 8.44 (D) 29.1

32. A 0.10 M solution of glycolic acid is 3.8% ionized. What

is the percent ionization of a 0.50 M solution of glycolic
acid?
(A) 1.7% (B) 3.8% (C) 8.5% (D) 19.0%

Property of ACS USNCO – Not for use as USNCO National Exam after May 1, 2022 Page 7
 36. A vessel containing an equilibrium mixture of NO2(g)
and N2O4(g) at a certain temperature and 1.00 bar total
pressure is represented below.
Which is the best representation of the system at
equilibrium after a certain amount of argon is added to
the vessel, while keeping both the temperature and the
total pressure constant?
39. An aqueous solution containing both Cu(II) ions and
Rh(III) ions is electrolyzed. After passage of 0.153 A for
16400 s, 0.826 g of metal has been deposited. What is
the composition of the deposited metal?
(A) Cu only
(B) Rh only
(C) A mixture of Cu and Rh
(D) It cannot be determined from the information given.
40. Which statements about the following cell are correct?

(A) Zn(s) + 2 AgI(s) → Zn2+(aq) + Ag(s) + 2 I–(aq)

Species ∆H°f, kJ mol-1 S°, J mol-1 K-1
Zn(s) 0 41.6
AgI(s) –61.84 115.5
(B) Zn2+(aq) –153.89 –112.1
Ag(s) 0 42.6
I–(aq) –55.19 111.3

(C) I. The standard cell potential at 298 K is 0.54 V.

II. The cell potential increases with increasing
temperature.

(D) (A) I only (B) II only

(C) Both I and II (D) Neither I nor II

41. The cell potential of the following at 298 K is 1.05 V.

Ni(s)|Ni2+(aq, 1.00 M)||Ag+(aq, 1.00 M)|Ag(s)
37. In which species does the underlined element have the Sodium cyanide is added to each half-cell until the
highest oxidation state? concentration of free CN– reaches 1.00 M. What is the
new observed cell potential? The Kf of Ni(CN)42- is 2.0 ×
(A) HPO42- (B) MnO42-
1031 and the Kf of Ag(CN)2– is 9.8 × 1021.
(C) HSO3– (D) NO3–
(A) 0.68 V (B) 0.78 V (C) 1.33 V (D) 1.43 V
38. Oxalic acid reacts with acidified potassium permanganate
42. What is the standard reduction potential of hydrogen
according to the unbalanced equation below. What is the
selenate ion to form elemental selenium under acidic
coefficient for H2O when the equation is balanced with
conditions at 298 K?
the smallest whole number coefficients?
Half-reaction E°, V
__H2C2O4 + __MnO4– + __H+ → H2SeO3(aq) + 4 H (aq) + 4e →
+ – 0.74
Se(s) + 3 H2O(l)
__CO2 + __Mn2+ + __H2O
HSeO4–(aq) + 3 H+(aq) + 2e– → 1.15
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 8 H2SeO3(aq) + H2O(l)
HSeO4–(aq) + 7 H+(aq) + 6e– → ???
Se(s) + 4 H2O(l)
(A) 0.88 V (B) 0.94 V (C) 1.56 V (D) 1.89 V

Page 8 Property of ACS USNCO – Not for use as USNCO National Exam after May 1, 2022
 43. What is the ground-state electron configuration of Ni2 48. A gas-phase hydrogen atom absorbs a photon of visible
+
(g)? light and then emits a photon of ultraviolet light. What
may be concluded about its initial and its final values of
(A) 1s22s22p63s23p63d64s2
the principal quantum number n?
(B) 1s22s22p63s23p63d84s2
(A) Initially n = 1 and finally n = 2
(C) 1s22s22p63s23p63d104s2
(B) Initially n = 2 and finally n = 1
(D) 1s22s22p63s23p63d8
(C) Initially n = 2 and finally n = 4
44. Question removed (D) This scenario is impossible because ultraviolet light
is more energetic than visible light.

49. Which molecule has the shortest carbon-nitrogen bond

length?
(A) HCNO (B) HNCO
45. Which diatomic molecule has the greatest bond (C) H3CNO (D) H3CNO2
dissociation enthalpy?
50. Which statements about the structure of ClF3 are correct?
(A) F–F (B) Cl–Cl (C) Br–Br (D) I–I
I. All F–Cl–F angles are equal.
46. Which of the following best describes the trend in the
II. All Cl–F bond lengths are equal.
amount of energy released on addition of an electron to
the gas-phase atoms (electron affinity) of the group 1 and (A) I only (B) II only
group 2 elements in the same period?
(C) Both I and II (D) Neither I nor II
(A) More energy is released by the group 1 elements
because there is less electron-electron repulsion in 51. How many unpaired electrons are there in a ground-state
the ions. NF molecule in the gas phase?
(B) More energy is released by the group 1 elements (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 4
because the added electron enters an s orbital rather
than a p orbital. 52. The ionization energy of a ground-state nitrogen atom is
14.5 eV, while the ionization energy of a ground-state
(C) More energy is released by the group 2 elements
fluorine atom is 17.4 eV. What is the ionization energy
because they have more protons in the nucleus.
of a ground-state NF molecule?
(D) More energy is released by the group 2 elements
(A) 13.1 eV (B) 15.1 eV
because addition of an electron to a group 1 element
disrupts an unusually stable half-filled s subshell. (C) 16.8 eV (D) 18.8 eV

47. Two atomic orbitals have the same shape and orientation 53. Which is the best representation of the three-dimensional
but have a different number of nodes. Which statement structure of the guanidinium ion, C(NH2)3+?
about the quantum numbers of these orbitals is correct?
(A) (B)
(A) They have the same value of l but different values of
n.
(B) They have the same value of l but different values of
ml.
(C) (D)
(C) They have the same value of ml but different values
of l.
(D) They have the same value of ms but different values
of ml.
54. Which complex ion absorbs visible light of the longest
wavelength?
(A) Co(NH3)63+ (B) Co(CN)63-
(C) CoF63- (D) Co(NO2)63-

Property of ACS USNCO – Not for use as USNCO National Exam after May 1, 2022 Page 9
 55. How many isomers have the formula C3H6Cl2? 58. Which compound reacts readily with water under acidic
but not basic conditions?
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7
(A) (B)
56. Which compound produces a nitrile when treated with
sodium cyanide in DMSO?
(A) 2-Methylbutane
(B) 3-Methyl-1-butanol (C) (D)
(C) 3-Methyl-1-butene
(D) 1-Bromo-3-methylbutane

57. Which molecular orbitals are occupied in the ground state

of 1,3-butadiene? 59. Which C5H10O isomer exhibits a strong infrared
absorption band at 1717 cm-1?
I. (A) (B)

(C) (D)

II.

60. The peptide hormone insulin becomes biologically

inactive after being treated with a mild reducing agent.
Which is the best explanation for this observation?
(A) I only (B) II only
(A) The reducing agent cleaves disulfide bonds, which
(C) Both I and II (D) Neither I nor II alters the structure of the hormone.
(B) The reducing agent cleaves peptide (amide) bonds,
breaking the hormone into smaller polypeptides.
(C) The reducing agent modifies the alcohol-containing
side chains of some of the amino acids, decreasing
the affinity of the hormone for its cellular receptor.
(D) The reducing agent decreases the overall charge on
the hormone, causing it to bind unselectively to cell
membranes.

END OF TEST

Page 10 Property of ACS USNCO – Not for use as USNCO National Exam after May 1, 2022
 Olympiad 2022
USNCO Local Section Exam
KEY

Question Correct % Correct Question Correct % Correct

Answer Answers Answer Answers
1. B 58% 31. B 62%
2. D 40% 32. A 46%
3. A 60% 33. D 34%
4. B 63% 34. D 54%
5. C 66% 35. C 36%
6. C 41% 36. D 25%
7. D 71% 37. B 91%
8. C 54% 38. D 74%
9. A 67% 39. A 50%
10. A 23% 40. A or D 56%
11. C 41% 41. A 17%
12. B 41% 42. A 37%
13. D 63% 43. D 67%
14. A 50% 44. removed
15. A 67% 45. B 25%
16. C 25% 46. B 41%
17. B 46% 47. A 46%
18. A 75% 48. B 59%
19. C 39% 49. A 56%
20. D 36% 50. D 19%
21. C 46% 51. C 49%
22. D 15% 52. A 26%
23. A 47% 53. A 30%
24. D 27% 54. C 31%
25. A 40% 55. B 34%
26. B 90% 56. D 28%
27. C 76% 57. B 36%
28. A 70% 58. B 28%
29. B 47% 59. C 44%
30. A 25% 60. A 31%