Republic of the Philippines

DEPARTMENT OF EDUCATION
Region I
Schools Division of Ilocos Sur
CAOAYAN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL
Pandan, Caoayan, Ilocos Sur

DIAGNOSTIC TEST in EARTH AND LIFE SCIENCE

S.Y. 2022-2023, First Semester

Directions: Carefully read the questions and shade the letter of the best answer on the bubble sheet provided.
STRICTLY NO ERASURES!!!

1. The expansion of the universe occurred about how many years ago?
a. 100 years b. 1 million years c. 10 Billion years d. 10 million years

2. Which word means “the study of the Sun, Moon, stars and planets”?
a. Astronomy b. globe c. solar system d. temperature

3. What does the word solar system mean?

a. the earth and planets that move around it
b. the sun and planets that move around it
c. the earth and moon that moves around it
d. the sun and moon that moves around it

4. How long does it take for Earth to rotate one time around its axis?
a. one day b. two days c. one month d. one year

5. Which of the following gases contributes to the 21% of the earth's atmosphere?
a. Argon b. Nitrogen c. Carbon dioxide d. Oxygen

6. Which of the following is NOT one of the four majors’ geological subsystems of Earth?
a. Biosphere b. Geosphere C. Hemisphere d. Atmosphere

7. A nonliving, solid material that has a definite chemical make up and is found in Earth's crust.
a. Rock b. mineral c. stone d. both a & b

For numbers 8-10

a. The first statement is true and the second statement is false.
b. The second statement is true and the first statement is false
c. Both statements are true
d. Both statements are false

8. 1st Statement: Earth is the only planet in the solar system that has a large amount of water.
2nd Statement: About 70% of the surface of the Earth with it; because of this, Earth is sometimes called
"blue planet."

9. 1st Statement: Biosphere is the gaseous layer above the Earth's surface primarily
composed of different gases such as nitrogen and oxygen.
2nd Statement: Atmosphere is the zone of the Earth where all forms of life exist.

10. 1st Statement: The water part of the Earth that includes oceans and glaciers.
2nd Statement: Oceans cover 60% of the Earth and contain 97.5% of its water.

11. Which of the following is NOT a contribution of James Hutton on the understanding of the earth’s
subsystems?
I. Continental Drift Theory
II. Theory of Gradualism
III. Supercontinent Pangea

a. I only b. I and II only c. all of the above d. none of the above

12. Which among the choices is an example of a connection between atmosphere and hydrosphere?
 a. Lakes b. Rain c. Rivers d. Rocks

13. Life is supported by oxygen and carbon dioxide. Which subsystem will best describe the statement?
a. Atmosphere b. Biosphere c. Geosphere d. Hydrosphere

14. A thin layer of solid rock that makes up the outermost part of the earth is visible to which part of the
geosphere?
a. Core b. Crust c. Mantle d. Biosphere

15. Pyrite is a yellowish mineral that looks like gold and is commonly called fool’s gold. What is the property
of mineral exhibited by pyrite wherein it reflects light and with metallic look?
a. Color b. Hardness c. Luster d. Streak

16. Which property refers to the resistance of mineral to scratching?

a. Cleavage b. Fracture c. Hardness d. Luster

17. What is the process in which a plant grows into the base of a stone monument and creating a crack on it?
a. chemical weathering c. freezing
b. mechanical weathering d. thawing

18. What type of weathering occurs when stalactites and stalagmites on caves are formed? a. chemical
weathering
b. freezing and thawing
c. mechanical weathering
d. thermal and pressure change

19. What factor causes the breakdown of rocks by friction and impact?
a. abrasion b. burrowing c. frost wedging d. pressure

20. Which of the following human activities may NOT result to the movement of sediments from one place to
another?
a. building a highway b. washing the dishes
c. developing new athletic field d. cultivating soil and gardening

21. What type of weathering is exhibited when the rocks are fractured, cracked, and broken down into small
pieces?
a. chemical weathering b. oxidation
c. physical weathering d. pressure change

22. What process by which heat is directly transmitted through a substance when there is a difference of
temperature or between adjoining regions, without movement of the material?
a. Conduction b. Convection c. Radiation

23. True or false: Radiogenic heat is released as a result of spontaneous nuclear disintegration.
a. True b. False

24. 1st Statement: Conduction carries heat from the earth’s core and radiation from the sun to the earth’s
surface.
2nd Statement: Convection is the least important mode of heat transport in the earth.
a.The first statement is true and the second statement is false.
b. The second statement is true and the first statement is false
c. Both statements are true
d. Both statements are false

25. It is a semi-liquid hot molten rocks found on the surface of earth once a volcano erupts.
a. Lava b. Magma c. Sand d. Rocks

26. During partial melting of magma, where does decompression melting take place?
a. Convergent boundary b. mid-ocean ridge
c. subduction zone d. all of the above

27. 1st Statement: Magma and lava are not molten rocks.
2nd Statement: Igneous rocks are created when magma solidifies.
a.The first statement is true and the second statement is false.
 b. The second statement is true and the first statement is false
c. Both statements are true
d. Both statements are false

28. 1st Statement: Metamorphism is a process that changes preexisting rocks into new forms because of
increases in temperature, pressure, and chemically active fluids.
2nd Statement: Metamorphism may not affect igneous, sedimentary, or other metamorphic rocks.
a. The first statement is true and the second statement is false.
b. The second statement is true and the first statement is false
c. Both statements are true
d. Both statements are false

29. 1st Statement: There are seven (7) types of tectonic plate movements.
2nd Statement: There are three (3) major tectonic plates.
a. The first statement is true and the second statement is false.
b. The second statement is true and the first statement is false
c. Both statements are true
d. Both statements are false

30. These are traces of remains of organisms that lived long ago.
a. Rocks b. Column c. Fossils d. Sand

31. These rocks may be formed by erosion, compression or dissolution.

a. Igneous rock b. Sedimentary rock c. Metamorphic rock

32. It is a tool used by geologists in order to classify and date rocks and fossils.
a. GTS b. BTS c. ICS d. all of these

33. For more than 70 years, Pluto was one of nine planets recognized in our Solar System but it was relegated
to the status of dwarf planet by the International Astronomical Union (IAU). When was Pluto no longer a
planet?
a. 2006 b. 1996 c. 2016

34. The age of the earth is believed to be:

a. 5.4 Billion years b. 4.534 Billion years c. 5.435 Billion years

35. 1ST Statement: Cambrian Period is the time when many kinds of invertebrates and the first vertebrates
appeared in the fossil record.
2nd Statement: This period lasted 53.4 million years from the end of the preceeding Ediacaran Period.
a. The first statement is true and the second statement is false.
b. The second statement is true and the first statement is false
c. Both statements are true
d. Both statements are false

36. 1st Statement: Fossils are tangible connection to life, landscapes, and climate of the past.
2nd Statement: Fossils also show how animals change over time and how they are related to one another.
a. The first statement is true and the second statement is false.
b. The second statement is true and the first statement is false
c. Both statements are true
d. Both statements are false

37. Which of the following makes use of the position of rocks to determine its age?
a. Relative dating b.Absolute dating c.Historical Dating d. Geological Dating

38. The oxygen revolution changed Earth’s environment dramatically. Which of the following adaptations took
advantage of the presence of free oxygen in the oceans and atmosphere?
a. The evolution of cellular respiration, which used oxygen to help harvest energy from organic molecules.
b. The evolution of chloroplasts after early protists incorporated photosynthetic cyanobacteria
c. The evolution of multicellular eukaryotic colonies from communities of prokaryotes.
d. The evolution of photosynthetic pigments that protected early algae from the corrosive effects of oxygen

39. Why did it take millions of years for life to appear on Earth after the planet had formed?
a. It took millions of years for RNA to replace DNA.
b. The planet had warmed up enough to sustain life.
c. The planet had cooled down enough to sustain life
d. Life on Earth could begin only when seedlings arrived on our planet from other worlds.

40. Which types of organisms developed first due to the early environmental conditions on Earth?
a. eukaryotic and aerobic b. eukaryotic and anaerobic c. prokaryotic and aerobic d. prokaryotic and anaerobic

41. Living organisms cannot live alone, they are interacting with the abiotic factors for sustainability of life.
Which among the organisms is considered as abiotic?
a. bacteria b. plant c. light d. man

42. Chameleons shift colors wherever they go. They are able to turn any colors or combine colors depending on
where the environment is. What trait is being described?
a. adaptation b. interaction c. inheritance d. reproduction

43. The diversity of life arises by change leading to the present biodiversity that we see. This is what we called
______________.
a. evolution b. adaptation c. inheritance d. reproduction

44. The field of science is changing the lives of all organisms through technology and research. This is
explained by ________.
a. biology and society b. adaptation c. energy and life d. inheritance

45. Salmon and other bony fish are examples of ___.

a. oviparous b. viviparous c. both a and b d. none of a and b

46. I – Enzymes help in recombinant DNA technology by carrying and integrating the desired gene. II - Host
organisms are used to propagate the recombinant DNA.
a. The first statement is true and the second statement is false.
b. The second statement is true and the first statement is false
c. Both statements are true
d. Both statements are false

47. The urinary system gets rid of _____.

a. Cartilage b. Nutrients c. Oxygen d. Waste

48.Which system delivers oxygen and nutrients to every cell in the body?
a. Circulatory b. Integumentary c. Muscular d. Respiratory

49.What can you infer about carbon dioxide from the function of the respiratory system? a. It helps you
breathe b. It is more common the oxygen
c. It is harmful to your body d. It is not found in the body

50. The circulatory system and the nervous system both:

a. Deliver blood to vital organs b. Extend throughout the body
c. Sends electrical signals to the brain d. Guard the body against infections

51. What is the main function of your stomach?

a. To hold food b. To mix food with digestive juices
c. To absorb food into the blood stream d. To hold waste materials

52. How does feedback mechanism maintain your body temperature when your surroundings are very hot?
a. The brain sends a message to the skin. The muscles in the skin contract, or shiver, to cool the body.
b. The muscles in the skin contract, which sends a message to the brain that you feel hot. The brain sends a
message to the skin’s heat receptors.
c. Heat receptors in the skin send a message to the brain. The brain sends a response to start sweating, which
cools the body.
d. The skin starts sweating. The sweat sends a message to the brain, which sends a response to stop sweating.

53. What two organs make up the central nervous system?

a. brain and spinal cord b. neurons and receptors
c. cerebrum and cerebellum d. somatic nerves and autonomic nerve

54.Who proposed the theory of evolution?

a. Alfred Russel Wallace b. Carolus Linnaeus c. Charles Darwin d. Jean Baptiste de Lamarck

55. Elmo was bitten by a mosquito. Mosquitoes, tapeworms, hookworms and leeches are examples of what type
of organisms?
a. Parasites b. Predators c. Prey d. Producers
 56. Which of the following is an essential factor that determine biotic potential?
a. Competition b. Diseases c. Number of offspring d. Predators

57. What do you call the part of the flower that function as receptacle for the pollen?
a. Stigma b. Ovule c. Ovary d. Filament

58. What structure that is not only protect the seeds of plants but also aid in their dispersal?
a. Flower b. Roots c. Petal d. Fruit

59. What method of asexual reproduction occurs when an animal’s body breaks into different parts which later
regenerate to form several individuals?
a. Budding b. Fragmentation and Regeneration c. Fission d. Pathogenesis

60. Which of the following BEST describe VIVIPARITY?

a. It is when after the eggs are fertilized internally, it would complete its development outside the mother’s
body.
b. It is where the eggs are fertilized internally and receive its nourishment through its yolk.
c. It is the type of internal fertilization that occurs when the eggs are developed internally and receive
nourishment directly from the mother’s blood through placenta rather than from the yolk.
d. None of the above
39.