Allen: Content

REVISION OF ZOOLOGY CONCEPT (RZC) Serial Page
No.
CONTENT No.
1. Structural organisation in animals 01-07
2. Animal Kingdom 08-12
3. Digestion and Absorption 13-18
4. Breathing and Exchange of Gases 19-24
5. Body Fluids and Circulation 25-29
6. Excretory products and Their elimination 30-35
7.
8.
EN Movement and Locomotion
Neural control and Coordination

36-39
40-44
9. Chemical Coordination and Integration 45-48

LL
10. Human reproduction and
Reproductive Health 49-54
11. Human Health & Disease 55-58

A
12. Evolution 59-62
13. Domestication of Animal 63-64
E
EN
LL
A
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REVISION OF ZOOLOGY CONCEPT (RZC) 1
REVISION OF ZOOLOGY CONCEPT (RZC)

STRUCTURAL ORGANISATION IN ANIMALS
1. In earthworm, blood corpuscles are produced 7. Trapped dust particles are pushed out of the
by :- respiratory tract by :-
(1) Lateral heart (2) Blood Gland (1) Mast cells (2) Plasma Cells
(3) Anterior loop (4) Blood vessel (3) Cilia (4) Fibroblasts
2. Mark the false statement regarding the heart of 8. "Stratum germinativum" consists of :-
cockroach ? (1) Squamous epithelium
(1) Heart lies mid dorsally
(2) Cuboidal epithelium
(2) It is 13 chambered (3) Ciliated epithelium
(3) It is neurogenic
(4) Columnar epithelium
(4) It is myogenic EN 9. Epithelial cells of the intestine are involved in
3. Stomodeal valve prevents regurgitation of food absorption because :-
partially digested food from :-
(1) Pinocytic vesicles are found
(1) Midgut into gizzard
(2) Microvilli are found
(2) Pre-oral cavity
(3) Zymogen granules are found
LL
(3) Midgut into hind gut
(4) Phagocytic vesicles are found
(4) None of these
10. The epithelium present in the inner layer of
4. Position of head in relation to body axis of
stomach and intestine is :-
cockroach is known as :-
A
(1) Columnar (2) Squamous

(1) Epignathous (2) Hypognathous
(3) Cuboidal (4) Ciliated
(3) Prognathous (4) All of these
11. The cells of connective tissue which do not
NODE02\B0BA-BB\BIOLOGY AT ITS PEAK\ZOOLOGY_(RZC)\ENG\ZOOLOGY_ENGLISH(1)
5. Which of the following junctions help to stop

secrete the matrix are :-
substances from leaking across a tissue ?
(1) Adhering junction (2) Gap junction (1) Mast cells
(3) Tight Junction (4) Both (1) & (2) (2) Fibroblasts
6. Presence of tissue in a multicellular organism (3) Macrophages

ensures :- (4) All of the above
(1) Faster development 12. The most widely distributed connective tissue
(2) Division of labour in the animal's body is:-
(3) Higher reproductive potential (1) Areolar (2) Adipose
(4) Body strength (3) Cartilage (4) Tendons & ligaments
E
2 REVISION OF ZOOLOGY CONCEPT (RZC)
13. Which type of muscle helps in peristaltic 20. Which of the following is mismatched ?
movements in the gastro intestinal tract? (1) Clitellum - 14 - 16 segments in mature
(1) Striated (2) Smooth earthworm
(3) Cardiac (4) Skeletal (2) Female genital pore - Mid-ventral line of 14th
segment
14. Which one of the following contains the largest
quantity of extracellular material ? (3) Pair of male genital pore - Dorsol lateral
sides of the 18th segment
(1) Striated muscle
(4) Setae - Present in each segment except - Ist,
(2) Areolar tissue
last and clitellar segments
(3) Striated Epithelium
21. Which types of tissues our heart is made up of ?
(4) Myelinated nerve fibres
(A) Epithelial (B) Connective
15. Earthworm can feel the vibrations of the ground
(C) Muscular (D) Nervous.
due to the presence of :-
(1) A only (2) A and B only
(1) Buccal receptor (2) Photoreceptor
(3) A, B & C (4) A, B, C & D
(3) Epidermal receptor (4) Chemoreceptor
16.
EN
The surface area of intestine in an earthworm
22. Conglobate gland is a part of male reproductive
system of :-
is greatly increased by the presence of :-
(1) Prawn (2) Cockroach
(1) Gizzard
(3) Earthworm (4) Frog
(2) Typhlosole
LL
(3) Buccal Cavity 23. Structure that helps the Cockroach to walk on
the smooth surface is :
(4) Calciferous glands
(1) Trochanter (2) Plantulae
17. In earthworm, haemoglobin is present in the
(3) Cardo (4) Scape
A
dissolved state in :-
(1) Lymph (2) Plasma 24. Which of the two parts in cockroach are
fundamentaly similar in function ? NODE02\B0BA-BB\BIOLOGY AT ITS PEAK\ZOOLOGY_(RZC)\ENG\ZOOLOGY_ENGLISH(1)
(3) Bile (4) Blood corpuscles

(1) Anal style and labrum
18. In earthworm, the humic acid is neutralised in
(2) Maxillae and anal cerci
stomach by the secretion of :-
(3) Maxillae & Legs
(1) Prostate gland (2) Blood gland
(4) Mandibles and gizzard
(3) Calciferous gland (4) Gizzard
25. In cockroach, elytra are articulated to the
19. In earthworm, 14th to 16th segments are covered tergites of :-
by a prominent dark band of glandular tissue
(1) Prothorax
called :-
(2) Mesothorax
(1) Typhlosole (2) Gizzard (3) Metathorax
(3) Prostomium (4) Clitellum (4) Abdomen
E
26. Which type of movement is not perfomed by 32. Choose wrong statement with respect to
frog? connective tissue:-
(1) Burrowing (1) It is the most abundant tissue in the body
of complex animals.
(2) Climbing & Running
(2) In all connective tissues including blood the
(3) Leaping & Walking
cell secretes fibers of structural protein
(4) Leaping & Burrowing called collagen or elastin.
27. What is correct about the most common species (3) Cartilage, bone and blood are various types
of Frog in India? of specialised connective tissue.
(4) Loose connective tissue is present beneath the
(1) Colour of dorsal side is olive green
skin.
(2) 5 digits in forelimbs & 4 digits in hindlimb
33. Which is not a character of Periplaneta?
(3) Male Frog lacks vocal cords (1) Segmented body
(4) Performs hibernation, but not aestivation (2) Jointed legs
28. The length of alimentary canal of an adult (3) Compound eyes

frog is :- (4) 1- pair wings
(1) Long, as it is carnivore

EN 34. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:
(1) Gizzard – Digestive system
(2) Long, as it is herbivore
(2) Malpighian tubules – Excretory system
(3) Short, as it is carnivore
(3) Spiracles – Circulatory system
(4) Short, as it is herbivore
LL
(4) Ganglia – Nervous system
29. Respiration in tadpole of frog takes place by :- 35. Match the epithelial tissue given in column-I
with its location given in column-II and choose
(1) Lungs (2) Gills
the correct option.
(3) Buccal cavity (4) Skin
A
Column I Column II
30. Vasa-efferentia in male frog opens into : (Epithelial tissue) (Location)
A Cuboidal I Epidermis of skin
(1) Vas-deferens (2) Bidder's canal
B Ciliated II Inner lining of

(3) Cloaca (4) Urino-genital duct blood vessels
31. Identify the given diagram and choose the C Columnar III Inner surface of
structure which represents this condition:- gall bladder
D Squamous IV Inner lining of
fallopian tube
E Keratinized V Lining of
squamous pancreatic duct
(1) A – V; B – IV; C – II, D – III; E – I
(2) A – III; B – IV; C – V, D – II; E – I
(1) Cartilage (2) Ligament (3) A – V; B – IV; C – III, D – II; E – I
(3) Skin (4) Bone (4) A – III; B – IV; C – V, D – I; E – II
E
36. Match column-I (Type of epithelium) with 38. In the given diagram of areolar connective
column-II (Descriptions) and choose the tissue, the different cells and parts have been
correct option. marked by alphabets (A, B, C & D). Choose
the option in which these alphabets are correctly
Column I Column II
(Types of epithelium) (Descriptions) matched with the parts and cells they indicate.
A Squamous I It is composed of a
epithelium single-layer of cube-
A
like cells B
B Cuboidal II Have cilia on their free C
epithelium surface
C Columnar III It is composed of a
epithelium single layer of tall and D
slender cells
(1) A-Adipocyte, B-Collagen fibres,
D Ciliated IV It is made up of a
epithelium single thin layer of
C-Microfilament, D-Mast cell
flattened cells with (2) A-Macrophage, B-Collagen fibres,
irregular boundaries
C-Microfilament, D-Mast cell
(1) A – IV; B – I; C – III, D – II
(2) A – I; B – IV; C – III, D – II
EN (3) A-Macrophage,
C-Microtubule, D-RBC
B-Collagen fibres,
(3) A – IV; B – I; C – II, D – III

(4) A-Macrophage, B-Fibroblast, C-Collagen
(4) A – IV; B – III; C – I, D – II fibres, D-Mast cell
37. Match the types of connective tissue given in
39. The following figure shows the external features
LL
column-I with their examples given in column-II of cockroach with few structures labelled as
and choose the correct option. A, B, C, D & E.
Filiform antennae
Column I
Column II Compound eye Head
(Types of connective
(Examples)
A
tissue) A
B D
A Loose connective I Tendons and Prothoracic leg
tissue ligaments Hind wing
C NODE02\B0BA-BB\BIOLOGY AT ITS PEAK\ZOOLOGY_(RZC)\ENG\ZOOLOGY_ENGLISH(1)
Mesothoracic leg
B Dense regular II Skin
tissue Metathoracic leg Abdomen
E
C Dense irregular III Cartilage,
tissue bones, blood
Identify A to E :-
D Specialised IV Fibroblasts,
connective tissue macrophages (1) A-Mesothorax, B-Pronotum,
and mast cells C-Metathorax, D-Tegmina, E-Anal style
(2) A-Pronotum, B-Metathorax,
(1) A – I; B – IV; C – II, D – III C-Mesothorax, D-Tegmina, E-Sterna
(3) A-Pronotum, B-Mesothorax,
(2) A – I; B – IV; C – III, D – II
C-Metathorax, D-Tegmina, E-Anal cerci
(3) A – IV; B – I; C – II, D – III
(4) A-Pronotum, B-Mesothorax,
(4) A – IV; B – II; C – I, D – III C-Metathorax, D-Tegmina, E-Anal style
E
40. The given figure shows the nephridial system 42. Haversian canal system is a feature of -
of earthworm. (1) Mammalian spongy bone
(2) Mammalian compact bone
X (3) Avian compact bone

(4) Reptilian compact bone
43. The diagram given below represents the
reproductive organ of male cockroach. Choose
the correct labelling of the parts marked as
A, B, C and D.
Select the option which shows the correct

A
identification and the function of the structure C B
D
marked as "X".
(1) Lateral heart - It is a blood pumping organ (1) A-9th sternum, B-Anal cercus,
(2) Calciferous glands - They neutralize the C-10th tergum, D-Anal style
humic acid present in humus. EN (2) A-10 th tergum, B-Anal cercus,
(3) Nephridia - It regulates the volume and C-Anal style, D-8th sternum
composition of the body fluids. (3) A-Anal style, B-Anal cercus,
(4) Blood glands - They produce blood cells
C-10th tergum, D-8th sternum
and haemoglobin which is dissolved in
(4) A-Anal cercus, B-8 th sternum,
blood plasma.
C-10th tergum, D-Anal style
LL
41. A student was given a sample of two tissues.
He observes the tissues under the microscope 44. Identify figures-I and II :-
and draws their figures (1 and 2) as shown Collagen
below. Matrix fibre
Fibroblast
A
Matrix
Collagen Fibroblast
1 2 fibre
Identify the tissues (1 and 2) Fig-I Fig-II
(1) 1 : Columnar cells bearing cilia;
Figure-I Figure-II
2 : Unicellular glandular epithelium
(1) Dense regular Dense irregular
(2) 1 : Cuboidal cells bearing cilia;
connective tissue connective tissue
2 : Multicellular glandular epithelium (2) Loose irregular Loose regular
(3) 1 : Compound cells bearing cilia; connective tissue connective tissue
2 : Unicellular glandular epithelium (3) Adipose tissue Specialised
connective tissue
(4) 1 : Columnar cells bearing cilia;
(4) Connective tissue Areolar tissue
2 : Multicellular glandular epithelium proper
E
45. The figure given below shows the head region (1) A-Gizzard, B-Crop, C-Hepatic caecae,
D-Malpighian tubules
of cockroach. Identify A to F.
(2) A-Crop, B-Gizzard, C-Hepatic caecae,
A
Antennae B D-Malpighian tubules
(3) A-Crop, B-Gizzard, C-Malpighian tubules,
D-Hepatic caecae
D
C (4) A-Gizzard, B-Crop, C-Malpighian tubules,
E D-Hepatic caecae
F 47. The given figure shows open circulatory
system of cockroach with structures marked as
(1) A-Compound eye, B-Ocellus, C-Maxilla, A, B and C. Which structure is a 12 pair of wing
D-Mandible, E-Labrum, F-Labium shaped involuntary muscles and mantain blood
circulation ?
(2) A-Ocellus, B-Compound eye,
A
C-Mandible, D-Maxilla,, E-Labrum,
Haemocoel
F-Labium
EN C
(3) A-Ocellus, B-Compound eye, C-Mandible,
D-Maxilla, E-Labium, F-Labrum
(4) A-Ocellus, B-Compound eye, C-Maxilla, B

LL
D-Mandible, E-Labrum, F-Labium
46. The given figure shows the digestive system of

cockroach with few structures marked as A, B, (1) A (2) B
C and D. (3) C (4) Both A and B
A
Pharynx 48. Identify the figure with its correct function :-

Salivary gland
Salivary reservoir NODE02\B0BA-BB\BIOLOGY AT ITS PEAK\ZOOLOGY_(RZC)\ENG\ZOOLOGY_ENGLISH(1)
Oesophagus
A
B
C
(1) Areolar connective tissue - Serves as a
Midgut support framework for epithelium.
D
(2) Adipose tissue - Store fats and act as heat
Rectum
Ileum insulator
Colon (3) Dense regular tissue - Provide flexibility

(4) Dense irregular tissue - Provide strength
Identify structures A to D :-
and elasticity
E
49. The following figures A, B and C are types of 50. The blood of cockroach contains no respiratory
muscle tissue. Identify A, B and C :- pigment. It means that :-
(1) Cockroach does not respire
(2) Respiration is anaerobic
(3) Oxygen goes directly into tissues by
diffusion
(4) Oxygen goes directly into tissues by
A B C intracellular capillary system
(1) A-Smooth muscle, B-Cardiac muscle,
C-Skeletal muscle
(2) A-Skeletal muscle, B-Smooth muscle,
C-Cardiac muscle
(3) A-Cardiac muscle, B-Smooth muscle,
C-Skeletal muscle
(4) A-Smooth muscle, B-Skeletal muscle,
C-Cardiac muscle EN
LL
A
BIOLOGY ANSWER KEY

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 4 1 2 3 2 3 2 2 1 3 1 2 2 1
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 2 2 3 4 3 4 2 2 4 2 2 1 3 2 2
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 2 2 4 3 3 1 3 4 3 4 4 2 1 1 2
Que. 46 47 48 49 50
Ans. 2 3 2 2 4
E
ANIMAL KINGDOM
1. Excretory organs of Arthropods are :- 10. Tissue level of body organisation is present in
(1) Malpighian tubules (2) Coxal glands phylum :-
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Nephridia (1) Platyhelminthes (2) Aschelminthes
(3) Annelida (4) Coelenterata
2. Example of living fossil is :-
11. Pseudocoelom is present in :-
(1) Anopheles (2) Locusta
(1) Platyhelminthes (2) Annelida
(3) Limulus (4) Aedes
(3) Arthropoda (4) Aschelminthes
3. Pneumatic bones are present in :-
12. Identify the phylum in which animals are
(1) Corvus (2) Psittacula
bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic,
(3) Hyla (4) Both (1) and (2)
acoelomate and have organ level of
4. Metameric segmentation is found in phylum :-
organisation?
(1) Coelenterata (2) Porifera
(1) Aschelminthes (2) Platyhelminthes
(3) Platyhelminthes (4) Annelida
(3) Annelida (4) Arthropoda
5. Notochord is :-
13. Features of aschelminthes are :-
(1) Ectodermal in origin
(2) Endodermal in origin
(3) Mesodermal in origin
EN (1) Tissue level of organisation & acoelomate
(2) Organ Level of organisation & acoelomate
(4) Some part is ectodermal and some part is (3) Organ system level of organisation and
of endodermal origin coelomate
6. All protozoans are :- (4) Organ system level of organisation and
LL
(1) Autotrophs and live as predators pseudocoelomate

(2) Autotrophs and live as parasites 14. Locomotory structure in annelida are :-
(3) Heterotrophs and live as predators or parasites (1) Parapodia
(4) Heterotrophs and live as only predators. (2) Setae
A
7. Disease which has a staggering effect on (3) Longitudinal and Circular muscles
human population is :- (4) All of these
(1) Typhoid (2) Common cold
15. Circulatory system of arthropods is :- NODE02\B0BA-BB\BIOLOGY AT ITS PEAK\ZOOLOGY_(RZC)\ENG\ZOOLOGY_ENGLISH(1)
(3) Mumps (4) Malaria

(1) Closed type
8. Collar cells or choanocytes are found in :-
(2) Open type
(1) Lining of spongocoel
(3) Some members have closed and some have
(2) Lining of canals.
open circulatory system.
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Absent
(4) Outer layer of body wall. 16. Larvae and adults of Echinoderms have
9. Fertilisation and development in sponges is :- respectively :-
(1) External & direct (1) Radial and bilateral symmetry
(2) External & Indirect (2) Bilateral and radial Symmetry
(3) Internal & direct (3) Both have radial symmetry
(4) Internal & indirect (4) Both have bilateral symmetry
E
17. Excretory organ of hemichordates are known 23. Air sacs of birds helps in :-
as:- (1) Gaseous exchange
(1) Nephridia (2) Internal perspiration
(2) Green gland (3) Respiration but never in gaseous exchange
(3) Proboscis gland (4) Both (2) and (3)
(4) Organ of Bojanus 24. Reptilian origin of birds are marked by :-
18. Worm like, fossorial marine animals are found (1) Presence of pneumatic bones
in- (2) Presence of feathers
(1) Arthropoda (3) Presence of oil gland at the base of tail
(2) Echinodermata (4) Presence of scales on hind limbs

25. Egg laying mammals connect :-
(3) Mollusca
(1) Mammalia to aves
(4) Hemichordata
19. Four pairs of gills with an operculum is present (2) Mammalia to reptilia
in :- (3) Mammalia to amphibia
(1) Trygon (2) Myxine
(4) Mammalia to bony fishes
(3) Clarias (4) Pristis EN 26. Features used for animal classifications are :-
20. Body of amphibians is generally divided into:-
(1) Arrangement of cells and body symmetry.
(1) Head and tail
(2) Nature of Coelom and pattern of alimentary
(2) Head, neck and tail
canal
(3) Head and trunk
(3) Patterns of digestive, circulatory and
LL
(4) Head, neck, trunk and tail reproductive systems.
21. Epidermal scales are found in :- (4) All of the above
(1) Hemidactylus (2) Ichthyophis 27. Select the correct option with the reference of
(3) Scoliodon (4) Betta pseudocoelomate animals:
(1) These animals are diploblastic
A
22. Match the column-I and column-II and select

(2) They may be free living or parasitic in plants
the correct answer :-
and animals
Column-I Column-II (3) They have blind-sac type of body plan
(4) These animals are gregarious in habit

(1) Chameleon (i) Garden Lizard
28. How many statements are correct for the second
(2) Calotes (ii) Wall lizard largest phylum of the animal kingdom ?
(A) Animals of this phylum are terrestrial or
(3) Hemidactylus (iii) Tree lizard
only marine.
(4) Bangarus (iv) Krait (B) The mouth contains a file-like rasping
(v) Viper organ for feeding called radula.
(C) They are bilaterally symmetrical and
(1) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-v
enterocoelomate animals.
(2) 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iv
(D) Animals have only open type of blood
(3) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv
vascular system.
(4) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-v (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
E
29. Study the given list of animals: 35. Presence of dry and cornified skin with scales
Aurelia, Lepisma, Petromyzon, Hippocampus, and scutes is character of:
Asterias, Sting ray (1) Aves (2) Mammalia
How many are true fish in the given list ?
(3) Reptilia (4) Amphibia
(1) 4 (2) 6
36. Which of the following is an oviparous
(3) 2 (4) 3
30. Which of the following is the most distinctive mammal?
feature of echinodermata? (1) Ornithorhynchus (2) Macropus
(1) Presence of larva (3) Pteropus (4) Macaca
(2) Organ system level of body organisation 37. Identify the character of class- Aves:
(3) Presence of water vascular system (1) Skin is dry and generally without glands
(4) All of these
(2) They are able to maintain a constant body
31. Which of the following animal is the connecting
temperature
link between non chordates and chordates?
(3) Fertilisation is internal
(1) Ascidia (2) Myxine
(3) Balanoglossus (4) Branchiostoma (4) All of these
32. Presence of sucking and circular mouth without 38. Read the following characters:
jaws is character of: EN -They have two pairs of limbs
(1) Osteichthyes (2) Chondrichthyes - Homoiothermous and heart is four-chambered
(3) Cephalochordata (4) Cyclostomata - Fertilisation is internal
33. Match the column I with column II: - Different types of teeth are present in jaw
Column-I Column-II Above characters belong to-
A Saw fish i Magur (1) Aves (2) Reptilia

LL
(3) Mammalia (4) Amphibia

B Fresh water fish ii Limbless amphibian
39. Study the given table and select the correct
C Cuttle fish iii Pristis option:
D Ichthyophis iv Trygon Animal Character Taxa
A
v Sepia Phylum -
(1) Lancelet Exclusively marine
Cephalochordata
A B C D
Close type of Division -
(1) iv i v ii (2) Hagfish
circulatory system Gnathostomata

(2) i iii iv v
Skin is moist,
(3) iii i v ii (3) Hyla Class - Amphibia
Oviparous
(4) iii iv v i
Skin is moist,
34. Identify the correct option for sea horse: (4) Struthio Class - Aves
fertilisation is internal
(1) It is a fresh water fish
40. Identify the correct match:
(2) Mouth is located ventrally and skin is
covered with cycloid scales (1) Ophiura – Brittle star – Arthropoda
(3) It has bony endoskeleton and air bladder (2) Dentalium – Chiton – Mollusca
is present
(3) Limulus – King crab – Echinodermata
(4) Gill slits are separate and without
operculum (4) Ancylostoma – Hookworm – Aschelminthes
E
41. Study the given animal and select the correct A B C

option for this animal :- (1) Sycon Euspongia Spongilla
(2) Euspongia Spongilla Sycon
(3) Spongilla Sycon Euspongia
(4) Euspongia Sycon Spongilla
44. Identify the figures A, B and C and choose the
correct option :-
(1) It respires by tracheal system

(2) Presence of three pairs of legs
(3) Bilateral symmetry and triploblastic
(4) All of these
42. Refer the given figures A, B, C and D and
identify the option which shows their correct
name.
A B C
(1) A-Male Ascaris, B-Hirudinaria (leech),
EN C-Nereis
A B (2) A-Female Ascaris, B-Nereis,
C-Hirudinaria (leech)
LL
(3) A-Female Ascaris, B-Hirudinaria (leech),
C-Nereis
(4) A-Male Ascaris, B-Nereis,

C D C-Hirudinaria (leech)
A
A B C D
(1) Pleurobrachia Cnidoblast Aurelia Adamsia 45. Identify the animals show in the given figures
(2) Aurelia Adamsia Cnidoblast Pleurobrachia
(3) Cnidoblast Pleurobrachia Adamsia Aurelia A, B and C from the options given below :-
(4) Adamsia Aurelia Pleurobrachia Cnidoblast
43. Examine the figures A, B and C. In which one

of the four options all the items A, B and C are
correctly identified?
A B C
(1) A-Octopus, B-Asterias, C-Ophiura
B
A (2) A-Asterias, B-Ophiura, C-Octopus
(3) A-Echinus, B-Octopus, C-Ophiura
(4) A-Ophiura, B-Echinus, C-Octopus

C
E
46. Refer the figures A, B and C and choose the 47. Which one of the following animals body is
correct option which shows animals that covered by calcareous shell and is
regulate buoyancy with the help of air bladder:- unsegmented with a distinct head, muscular
foot, and visceral hump ?
(1) (2)
A B C
(3) (4)
(1) A and B (2) A and C
(3) B and C (4) All of the above
EN
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A
BIOLOGY ANSWER KEY

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 3 4 4 3 3 4 3 4 4 4 2 4 4 2
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 2 3 4 3 3 1 3 3 4 2 4 2 1 3 3
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 3 4 3 3 3 1 4 3 3 4 3 2 1 2 1
Que. 46 47
Ans. 1 3
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DIGESTION AND ABSORPTION

1. Match the column-I and column-II and select 5. Given figure shows structure of alimentary canal
the correct option ? of human. Identify the labelled parts (P – S),
match, them with their function and select
correct option?
Column-I Column-II (i) Synthesis of glycogen.
(ii) Stores and makes concentrated bile juice.
Inadequate enzyme (iii) In herbivores, cellulose digestion.
(i) Vomiting (a)
secretion (iv) Mastication of food.
Irregular bowel
(ii) Diarrhoea (b) S
movement
Increase liquidity of
(iii) Constipation (c) P
faecal discharge Q
(iv) Indigestion (d) A feeling of nausea
R
Option :- Option :-
(1) i–a ; ii–c ; iii–b ; iv–d EN P Q R S
(2) i–d ; ii–b ; iii–c ; iv–a
(3) i–d ; ii–c ; iii–b ; iv–a (1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) i–a ; ii–b ; iii–c ; iv–d (2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
2. Which organ is mainly affected in jaundice ?
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(1) Gall Bladder (2) Liver
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(3) Lungs (4) Kidney (4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

3. Read the following four statements (a – d) and 6. Given below the diagrammatic representation
select the option which includes all the correct of "T.S. of Gut". Select the correct option in
ones ? which labelled part and their comments are not
matched correctly ?
A
(a) Scatole gives foul odour to the faeces.

Option :-
(b) No significant digestive activities occur in
A
large intestine.
C
(c) Serosa is made up by tunica adventitia and

B
mesothelium. D
(d) pH of succus entericus is 1.5 to 3.0.
Option :- (1) A = serosa :- outer most layer and is made up
(1) only a & b (2) only b & c of thin mesothelium with some connective
tissues.
(3) a, b & d (4) a, b & c (2) B = Submucosa :- It is made up of loose
4. "Steapsin" is the group of :- connective tissue containing nerves, blood
(1) Carbohydrate digesting enzymes in & lymph vessels.
(3) D = Mucosa :- This layer forms irregular,
pancreatic juice.
finger like folds in stomach.
(2) Protein digesting enzymes in gastric juice (4) C = Muscularis layer :- It is formed by
(3) Fat digesting enzymes in pancreatic enzymes striated muscles and usually arranged into
an inner longitudinal and outer circular
(4) Fat soluble vitamins
layer.
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7. Enamel is composed principally of :- 10. Select the correct option which gives correct
(1) Ca-phosphate matching of the end products of digestion in human
(2) Ca-sulphate with the site and mechanism of absorption ?
(3) Ca-chloride
End product Site of Mechanism of
(4) Na-phosphate of digestion Absorption Absorption
8. Match the column-I, II and III and select the 1. Galactose Buccal cavity Active absorption
correct option
2. Proline Stomach Passive absorption
Column-I Column-II Column-III
Fatty acids
A. salivary (a) Emulsification 3. + Small intestine Active absorption
(i) Acinar cells
gland of fat Glycerol
B. Brunner's (ii) Submandibular (b) Secretion of 4. Glucose Small intestine Active absorption
gland gland pancreatic juice
(c) Secretion of 11. What is the correct function of enterokinase ?

(iii) Submucosa of
C. Pancreas nonenzymatic (1) It stimulates the secretion of pancreatic juice
duodenum
alkaline juice
containing enzymes
D. Bile (iv) sodium (d) Wharton's
(2) It inhibits the mobility of stomach
juice glycocholate duct EN (3) It activates trypsinogen into trypsin
(1) A-ii-c ; D-iv-b ; C-iii-a ; B-i-d
(4) It digests or hydrolyses protein into Amino
(2) C-i-c ; B-ii-b ; A-iv-d ; D-iii-a acids
(3) A-ii-d ; D-iv-a ; C-i-b ; B-iii-c 12. Given below the list of enzymes :-
(4) D-iv-a ; C-i-c ; B-ii-b ; A-iii-d Disaccharidases, Dipeptidases, Nuclease,
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9. Given below the diagram of large intestine in Pepsinogen, Lipase and nucleosidases.
which some parts are labelled by A, B, C and Two enzymes are not involved as ingredients
D. Select the option in which all the parts are of intestinal juice find out the name of enzymes
and select the correct option ?
correctly labelled ?
(1) Nuclease and nucleosidase
A
D
(2) Dipeptidase and pepsinogen
(3) Nuclease and pepsinogen
C A
(4) Lipase and pepsinogen
B 13. Lysozyme is secreted through :-

(a) Brunner's gland
(b) Paneth cells
Option :- A B C D (c) Salivary gland
(1) Teniae coli Haustra

Ascending Transverse (d) Gastric gland
colon colon
(e) Tear gland
Descending Ascending Sigmoid
(2) Huastra
colon colon colon Out of these which are the correct sources of
(3)
Ascending
Haustra
Descending Transverse lysozyme?
colon colon colon
Option :-
Transverse Sigmoid Ascending
(4) Haustra
colon colon colon (1) a and b (2) b, c and e
(3) c and d (4) a, d and e
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14. Glucose, galactose and amino acids are 18. Which one of the following four secretions is
absorbed through :- correctly matched with its source, target and
(1) Active transportation
nature of action ?
(2) Passive transportation
(3) Facilitate diffusion Secretion Source Target Action
(4) Simple diffusion (1) Enterokinase Duodenum Gall Release of
15. Identify a,b,c,d and e in the given diagram:- bladder bile juice
(2) Gastrin Stomach Oxyntic Production of
a lining cells HCl
(3) Salivary Salivary Mouth Breakdown
b amylase gland of starch into
c
maltose
d
e (4) Rennin Saliva Small Emulsification
intestine of fats
19. Match column I (food type) with column II their
(enzymes) and choose the correct option.
(1) a-Serosa, b-longitudinal, c-circular,
d-submucosa, e-mucosa Column I Column II
(2) a-Serosa, b- circular, c-longitudinal,
EN (Food type) (Enzymes)
d-submucosa, e-mucosa A Starch I Nucleases
(3) a-mucosa, b- longitudinal, c-circular,
d-submucosa, e-serosa B Protein II Lipase
(4) a-mucosa, b- circular, c-longitudinal, C Fats III Amylase
d-submucosa, e-serosa
16. Which one of the following statements is true D Nucleic acid IV Trypsin
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regarding digestion and absorption of food in (1) A – III; B – IV; C – II, D – I

humans ?
(2) A – I; B – IV; C – III, D – IV
(1) About 60% of starch is hydrolysed by
salivary amylase in our mouth. (3) A – II; B – III; C – IV, D – V
(2) Oxyntic cells in our stomach secrete the (4) A – IV; B – I; C – II, D – III
A
proenzyme pepsinogen. 20. The given figure shows a section of small

(3) Glucose and amino acids are absorbed
intestinal mucosa showing villi. What is the
through intestinal mucosa with the help of
function of structure marked as I in the given
carrier ions like Na+.
(4) Chylomicrons are small lipoprotein figure ?

particles that are transported from intestine
into blood capillaries.
17. Which of the following is not the function of (I)
digestive system ?
(1) It allows your body to get the nutrients and
energy it needs from the food you eat.
(2) It breaks down large food molecules into
smaller molecules that can be used by cells.
(3) It converts foods to larger substances that (1) To absorb amino acids
can be absorbed and used by the cells of
(2) To carry blood
the body.
(4) It converts food into soluble and diffusible (3) To absorb fat
products that can be absorbed by the blood. (4) To transport glucose
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21. Which of the following best describes the role 24. Read the statement given below and answer
of the structure marked as Y in the given figure? the question "Even though the contents of
stomach are very acidic, the stomach usually
does not cause damage to itself".
Identify the reasons (i to iv) given below which
Y are responsible for the above statement.
(i) The release of gastric juices is controlled
to avoid too high a concentration.
(ii) The stomach lining is quick to repair itself.
(iii)Mucus forms a thick protective coating for
the stomach.
(iv)Food and water dilute the gastric juices.
(1) Connects the buccal cavity to the stomach, (1) (i), (ii) and (iii) (2) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
where no digestion occure. (3) (i) and (iv) only (4) All of the above
(2) Mucus is secreted to protect the oesophagus 25. Intrinsic factor is secreted by
from the stomach enzymes. (1) Parietal cells and essential for absorption
(3) Digestive enzymes are secreted as food
EN of Vit-A.
passes from the oesophagus to the stomach.
(2) Chief cells and essential for absorption of
(4) Connects the mouth to the stomach and has
Vit-B 12
significant role in fat digestion.
(3) Oxyntic cells and essential for absorption
22. Which of the following is the correct
of Vit-B12
chronological order for flow of food from
(4) Peptic cells and essential for absorption of
mouth to anus ?
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Vit-B 12
(1) Oesophagus Stomach Small intestine
Large intestine 26. Absorption of water, simple sugars and alcohol
(2) Large intestine Oesophagus Stomach take place.

Small intestine (1) Mouth (2) Colon
A
(3) Small intestine Large intestine (3) Stomach (4) All of these
Oesophagus Stomach 27. Inadequate enzymes, over-eating and spicy
(4) Stomach Small intestine Large food causes. NODE02\B0BA-BB\BIOLOGY AT ITS PEAK\ZOOLOGY_(RZC)\ENG\ZOOLOGY_ENGLISH(1)
intestine Oesophagus (1) Diarrhoea (2) Vomiting

23. Following are given parts of small and large (3) Constipation (4) Indigestion
intestine. 28. Dental formula in human being is represented
(i) Caecum (ii) Colon by
(iii) Jejunum (iv) Rectum (1) Arrangement of teeth in each half of the upper
(v) Duodenum (vi) Ileum and lower jaw in the order I, C, PM, M
Choose the arrangement that lists the structures (2) Number of teeth only in complete upper
in the order food passes through them from
jaw
the small intestine to the anus.
(3) Number of teeth only in complete lower
(1) (i) – (ii) – (iii) – (iv) – (v) – (vi)
jaw
(2) (v) – (iii) – (vi) – (i) – (ii) – (iv)
(4) Number of teeth in upper half jaw and
(3) (iv) – (v) – (ii) – (iii) – (i) – (vi)
(4) (iii) – (v) – (vi) – (ii) – (i) – (iv) complete lower jaw
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29. What is correct position of stomach in human 33. The diagram given below shows the human
body? digestive system. Few structure are marked as
I, II, III and IV. Which region of the human
(1) In the lower right portion of abdominal
digestive system produce bile juice?
cavity.
(2) In the upper left portion of thoracic cavity
(3) In the upper right portion of abdominal

cavity
(4) In the upper left portion of abdominal cavity I

30. Choose the correct answer for salivary gland II
III
(1) These glands situated just outside the buccal IV
cavity
(2) Sub-maxillary glands are situated at the

junction of jaw (1) I (2) II (3) III (4) IV
EN 34. Refer the given diagram of digestive system to
(3) These are three pairs in human being
answer the question :-
(4) All of these
31. Select the correct option for hepatic lobule
(1) These are structural and functional unit of

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largest endocrine glands

x
(2) Each lobule is covered by a thin connective
tissue sheath called Glisson's capsule
(3) Cells of hepatic lobule synthesize bile juice

A
and insulin hormone
(4) All of these

Which of the following is associated with the
32. Which of the following is correct in reference structure marked as "x"?

of pancreas?
(1) It is a small blind sac which hosts some
(1) It is situated between the limbs of the 'C'
symbiotic microorganism.
shaped jejunum
(2) The undigested, unabsorbed substances
(2) It is a compound elongated organ and its
enter into this structure through ileo-ceacal
exocrine part secretes an acidic pancreatic
valve.
juice
(3) It helps in mechanical churning and
(3) Its endocrine portion secretes hormones
chemical digestion of food.
insulin and glucagon
(4) Both (1) and (3)
(4) All of these
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35. Sphincter of Oddi controls the flow of digestive 36. Which ducts are responsible for the formation
juice by guarding which duct? of a duct that carry bile from the gall bladder
and conduct it into the first section of the small
intestine?
1 4
2 4
1
2
3
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
3
(1) 1 and 2 (2) 2 and 3
(3) 3 and 4 (4) 4 and 1
EN
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A
BIOLOGY ANSWER KEY

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 2 4 3 3 4 1 3 1 4 3 3 2 1 1
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 3 3 3 1 3 1 1 2 4 3 3 4 1 4 4
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36
Ans. 2 3 1 3 3 4
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BREATHING AND EXCHANGE OF GASES

1. Read the following statements and select the 5. At the alveolar site where different CO 2
incorrect ? compounds like carbamino compound,
(1) Respiratory rhythm centre present in bicarbonates etc. are dissociated and release the
CO 2 . Find out the suitable factor which is
medulla region.
responsible for dissociation for CO 2 -
(2) A chemosensitive area is highly sensitive compounds ?
to CO2 & H+.
(1) PCO2 is high
(3) Pneumotaxic centre can reduce the duration
(2) PCO2 is low
of inspiration and there by decrease the
(3) Bohr's effect
respiratory rate.
(4) The role oxygen in the regulation of respiratory (4) High H+ concentration
rhythm is quite insignificant. 6. Given below the diagram represents the
2. Read the following statements:- exchange of gases at the alveolar level and
tissue level in which several parts are labelled
(A) It is a chronic disorder
by alphabetes A, B, C & D. Select the correct
(B) Major cause of it is cigarette smoking.
option regarding them.
(C) Alveolar walls are damaged EN
(D) Respiratory surface is decreased. lungs
(E) It is due to inflammation of bronchi & A B
bronchioles.
How many of the above statements are correct C D
about "emphysema" disorder ?
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(1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) All Body cells
3. What will happen when pneumotaxic centre (1) A is the pulmonary vein in which PO 2 &
provides weak signal? PCO2 are respectively 95 & 45 mmHg.
(1) Respiratory rate will be increased (2) B is the systemic artery in which PO2 &
(2) Respiratory rate will be decreased PCO2 are quite similar with PO2 & PCO2
A
(3) Respiratory rate will not change pulmonary artery respectively.

(4) Respiratory rate will be more increased (3) C is the systemic vein in which PCO2 & PO2
4. Match the following column-I and column-II are 45 mmHg and 40 mmHg respectively
and select the correct option? (4) D is the pulmonary artery in which PO2 &
PCO 2 are 97 mmHg and 40 mmHg.
Column-I Column-II
respectively.
(A) Eupnoea. (i) O2 conc. low at tissue level 7. During the strenuous conditions 100 ml
oxygenated blood transport the .....(A).... ml of
(B) Hypoxia (ii) Decreased respiratory rate O2 while .......(B)........ ml O2 delivers to the
body tissues.
(C) Anoxia (iii) Normal respiratory rate
Fill in the blanks and select the correct option?
(D) Bradypnoea (iv) O2 Conc. absent at tissue level (1) A = 20 ml and B = 5 ml
(2) A = 20 ml and B = 15 ml.
(1) C-iii, D-ii, A-iv, B-i (2) C-ii, D-iv, A-i, B-iii (3) A = 100 ml and B = 25 ml.
(3) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii (4) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i (4) A = 25 ml and B = 4 ml.
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8. Given below the three oxyhaemoglobin 11. The contraction of ................ muscles lifts up
dissociation curves A, B and C are plotted at the ribs and outward movement of sternum
different conditions of body temperature. causing an increase in the volume of thoracis
chamber at the dorso-ventral axis.
C
% saturation of Hb
97 A Which muscles are responsible for above

B statement ?
75
with O2
(1) External intercostal muscles.

50
(2) internal intercostal muscles.
(3) Phrenic muscles.
(4) Abdominal muscles.
30 40 95 12. Vocal cords are attached between :-
PO2 (mmHg)
(1) Thyroid and cricoid cartilages.
On the basis of above 'ODC' which is the curve
(2) Thyroid and arytenoid cartilages.
plotted at the condition the body-temperature
(3) Cricoid and arytenoid cartiloges.
below to the 37° C ?
(4) Cricoid and cartilages of sentorini.
(1) Curve -A
13. Which has least diameter from following ?
(2) Curve-B
(1) Respiratory bronchioles
(3) Curve - C
(4) Both curve A & B
EN (2) Terminal bronchioles
(3) Alveolar duct
9. Which pulmonary capacity is correctly
matched with its formula and value ? (4) Secondary bronchi
14. Given figure shows respiratory system of
Option Respiratory Formula Value human in which some parts are labelled through
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capacity
P, Q, R and S. Select the option in which
1. Functional ERV + TV 2300 ml labelled part is not correctly matched with its
residual their function or property ?
capacity
R
2. Expiratory TV + ERV 1200 ml.
A
Q
capacity
3. Vital ERV + 4000 ml
capacity IRV + TV S NODE02\B0BA-BB\BIOLOGY AT ITS PEAK\ZOOLOGY_(RZC)\ENG\ZOOLOGY_ENGLISH(1)
4. Total lung RV + IRV 5800 ml.

capacity + ERV P
10. Respiratory rate increases during :- (1) R = Epiglottis : It is a cartilagenous flap like
(a) The time of fever. structure and covers the glottis during
deglutination.
(b) The time of fear
(2) Q = Tracheal Rings: They prevents the
(c) High CO2 concentration in venous blood.
collapsing of trachea.
(d) Low pH of arterial blood.
(3) P= Diaphragm :- Muscular septum and main
Out of these, which are correct situation?
muscles of breathing mechanism.
(1) Only a & b (2) Only c & d (4) S = Alveoli :- Forms the conduction zone
(3) a, b & d (4) a, b & c and functional unit of lungs.
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15. What will be the PO2 and PCO2 in the atmospheric 20. Select the correct option for conducting
air compared to those in the alveolar air? system of respiratory system?
(1) PO lesser, PCO higher
2 2 (1) It is noncollapsable part.
(2) PO higher, PCO lesser
2 2
(2) It is the site of actual diffusion of oxygen
(3) PO higher, PCO higher and carbondioxide between blood and
2 2
atmospheric air.
(4) PO lesser, PCO lesser
2 2
(3) it clears the air from foreign particles and
16. Match the column I with column II
humidifies.
Column-I Column-II (4) Both 1 and 3.
A Tracheal tubes I Scorpion 21. Thoracic chamber is formed by :-
B Gills II Frog Dorsally Ventrally Laterally
C Moist skin III Insect (1) Sternum Ribs Ribs
D Book lungs IV Aquatic arthropods (2) Vertebral column Sternum Diaphragm
A B C D (3) Vertebral column Sternum Ribs

(1) III IV II I EN Vertebral
(4) Sternum Ribs
(2) III I IV II column
(3) IV III II I
(4) IV II I III 22. Inspiration can occur if :-
17. Which of the following statement is correct? (1) intrapulmonary pressure is higher than the
(1) Flatworms exchange Oxygen with atmospheric pressure.

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carbondioxide by simple diffusion over (2) intrapulmonary pressure and atmospheric

their entire body surface. pressure are equal.
(2) Larynx is a bony box which help in sound (3) intrapulmonary pressure is less than
production. atmospheric pressure.
A
(3) Epiglottis is made up of collagen fibrous (4) muscles of diaphragm relaxes.

connective tissue. 23. Select the correct option for expiration?
(4) In birds larynx is a sound producing organ. (1) expiration is a passive process.
18. What is the function of pleural fluid? (2) during this process diaphragm and sternum
(1) reduces friction on the lung surface. returns to their normal position.
(2) protection from external shocks. (3) intrapulmonary pressure is slightly
(3) provide moisture. higher to the atmospheric pressure.
(4) all of the above. (4) all of the above.
19. Which of the following part of respiratory 24. In which of the following respiratory volume is
system form exchange part? correctly match with their value?
(1) external nostrils to terminal bronchioles.
Volume Value (in ml)
(2) alveoli and their ducts. (1) IRV 250 - 300
(3) larynx to primary bronchi. (2) ERV 1000 - 1100
(3) TV 1100 - 1200
(4) primary bronchi to terminal bronchioles. (4) RV 500
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25. (A) inspiratory capacity. 31. Respiration is the physiological process in
(B) expiratorycapacity. which :-
(C) functional residual capacity. (1) breathing occur.
Choose the correct option for A , B and C ? (2) breathing and external respiration occurs.
(1) A–TV+ERV,B–TV+IRV,C–ERV+RV (3) only inspiration occurs.
(2) A–TV+ERV,B–TV+ERV,C–TV+IRV (4) breathing , external respiration and cellular
(3) A–TV+IRV,B–TV+ERV,C–ERV+RV respiration occurs.
(4) A–TV+ERV,B–TV+IRV,C–ERV+RV 32. The primary role of oxygen in body is to :-
26. Which of the following statement is correct (1) help to build amino acids.
about alveoli? (2) allow glycolysis within the mitochondria of
(1) alveoli are primary sites for gaseous the cell.
exchange.
(3) accept electrons in the electron transport
(2) its walls are one celled thick. system.
(3) partial pressure of oxygen in alveoli is (4) facilitate lipolysis within the adipose cells.
104 mm Hg.
33. Neither the trachea nor the bronchi contain :-
(4) all of the above.
EN (1) hyaline cartilage.
27. How much amount of oxygen deliver to tissue
(2) goblet cells.
under normal physiological condition by every
100 ml of oxygenated blood ? (3) ciliated columnar epithelium.
(1) 5 ml (2) 25 ml (4) simple squamous epithelium.

(3) less than 1 ml (4) more than 50 ml 34. When 1200 ml , air is left in the lungs , it is
called :-
28. Consider the given statements and select correct
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statement for transport of oxygen? (1) Tidal volume.

(a) seventy percent of oxygen is carried as (2) Inspiratory reserve volume.
bicarbonates. (3) Vital capacity.
(b) about ninty seven percent of oxygen is (4) Residual volume.
A
transported by RBCs in blood. 35. Asthama is caused due to :-

(c) it is carried by haemoglobin as carb-amino (1) infection of lungs.
haemoglobin.
(2) bleeding into pleural cavity. NODE02\B0BA-BB\BIOLOGY AT ITS PEAK\ZOOLOGY_(RZC)\ENG\ZOOLOGY_ENGLISH(1)
(1) a , b (2) b , c
(3) infection of trachea.
(3) only b (4) only c
29. Pneumotaxic center is found in :- (4) spasm of bronchial muscles.
(1) pons region of brain. 36. Oxyhemoglobin dissociates into oxygen and
(2) medulla region of brain. deoxyhemoglobin at tissue level due to :-
(3) cerebrum region of brain. (1) low oxygen pressure in tissues.
(4) optic lobes.
(2) high oxygen pressure in tissues.
30. Chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are
(3) equal oxygen pressure inside and outside tissue.
damaged is :-
(1) Asthama. (4) all times irrespective of oxygen pressure.
(2) Emphysema. 37. At which thoracic vertebrae does trachea divide
(3) Pneumonia. into right and left primary bronchii?
(4) Occupational respiratory disorders. (1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 9 (4) 4
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38. Which of the following structure is present (1) raise in pCO2
inside the larynx of the respiratory system?
(2) fall in pH.
(1) Glottis (2) Epiglottis
(3) raise in temperature.
(3) Vocal cords (4) Gullet
(4) All of the above.
39. If a large number of people are enclosed in a
room then :- 43. The mucus produced by the goblet cells
(1) oxygen decreases and CO2 increases. (a) moistens the incoming air
(2) oxygen increases and CO2 decreases.
(b) trap the fine dust particles
(3) oxygen and CO 2
decreases.
(c) filter out large dust particles
(4) oxygen and CO2 increases.
40. Identify the type of pulmonary volume / capacity (d) warms the incoming air
on the basis of quantity of air present in the (1) a , b , c are correct.
lungs given below.
(2) only a is correct.
(I) 1100 ml to 1200 ml.
(II) 500 ml. (3) b and d are correct.
(III) 5000 ml to 6000 ml. (4) a and c are incorrect.

Choose the correct option ?
EN
(1) I – Vital capacity , II – Functional residual
44. How much amount of carbondioxide is
transported by plasma?
capacity , III – Residual volume (1) 75 % to 78%
(2) I – Residual volume , II – Tidal volume ,
(2) 5% to 7%
III – Total lung capacity
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(3) 20% to 25%

(3) I – Expiratory capacity , II – Inspiratory
capacity , III – Residual volume (4) 93%
(4) I – Tidal volume , II – Inspiratory reserve 45. The given diagram represents the human
volume , III – Expiratory reserve volume respiratory system with few structures labelled
A
41. How many layers are present in the diffusion as I, II, III and IV.
membrane of alveolar capillary ?
(1) 5 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 4
42. Shifting of the curve to right takes place in the I

case of :
II III
IV
The exchange of gases takes place in which

labelled structure?
(1) I (2) II
(3) III (4) IV
E
46. In the given diagram of human respiratory 48. In the given diagram of human respiratory
system what is the function of structure marked system, few parts are marked as I, II, III, IV, V
as X ? & VI. Choose the correct combination of
labelling from the given options?
X
I
III
V II
VI
IV
(1) To prevent the entry of food in to the larynx. (1) I-Nose, II-Bronchus, III-Larynx,
IV-Diaphragm, V-Trachea, VI-Lung
(2) To filter and warm the air.
(2) I-Nose, II-Larynx, III-Bronchus,
(3) To help in exchange of gases. IV-Lung, V-Diaphragm, VI-Trachea
(3) I-Mouth, II-Trachea, III-Larynx,
47.
(4) To catch dust and bacteria.
In the given diagram of human respiratory
EN
system which marked label (I, II, III & IV) is
IV-Lung, V-Diaphragm, VI-Bronchus
(4) I-Mouth, II-Diaphragm, III-Trachea,
the common passageway where the nasal and IV-Bronchi, V-Larynx, VI-Lung
oral cavities meet? 49. In the given figure, label A represents _______
while label B represents ________.
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I II
III A
B
IV
A
(1) I (2) II (3) III (4) IV

(1) A-Trachea, B-Bronchus
(2) A-Alveolus, B-Bronchiole

(3) A-Bronchiole, B-Trachea
(4) A-Trachea, B-Bronchiole
BIOLOGY ANSWER KEY

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 3 2 3 2 3 2 3 3 3 1 2 3 4 2
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 1 1 4 2 4 3 3 4 2 3 4 1 3 1 2
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 4 3 4 4 4 1 1 3 1 2 3 4 1 1 4
Que. 46 47 48 49
Ans. 1 2 1 1
E
BODY FLUIDS AND CIRCULATION

1. Which is required for the conversion of inactive 6. "Lacteals" are the lymph capillaries which are
prothrombin into active thrombin during found in :-
(1) Large intestine (2) Small intestine
coagulation of blood ?
(3) Neck region (4) Right leg
(1) Fibrinogen
(2) Thromboplastin 7. In given below figure, identify A, B, C and D:-
(3) Thrombokinase
(B)
Kidney (C)
(4) Antihaemophilic globulin
IVC
2. "Erythroblastosis foetalis" is a disorder in which:-
O2 Blood De O2 Blood
(1) Foetus undergoes blood cancer
(A)
(2) Foetus would be die due to excessive loss of blood De O2 Blood
(3) Foetus would be suffered by severe anaemia
and jaundice (D)
(4) Adult would be suffered by severe anaemia and
jaundice EN Option A B C D
3. In RBCs, cytoskeleton is found as the form of
(1) Renal Hepatic Renal Abdominal
"stromatin". It is made up of :- portal artery vein parts &
(1) Fat, carbohydrate & mucopolysaccharides vein hind limbs
(2) Fat, starch & carbohydrate (2) Renal Renal Renal Alimentary
portal artery vein canal
(3) Fat, protein & cholesterol vein
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(4) Protein, starch and glycerol (3) Renal Renal Renal Abdominal
4. (a) It is colourless fluid containing specialized portal artery vein parts &
lymphocytes. vein hind limbs
(b) It is important carrier for nutrients, hormones (4) Renal Renal Renal Gut wall
artery vein portal
A
etc.
vein
(c) It has clotting capacity.
(d) It has not RBC, WBC and platelets. 8. Select the correct pathway of pulmonary
(e) Exchange of nutrients, gases etc. between the

circulation ?
blood and the cells always occurs through this Pulmonary vein
(1) Right ventricle Lungs
fluid. CO 2 Blood
Pulmonary artery
(f) It has more No. of WBC than blood. O2 Blood Left atrium.
Pulmonary artery
How many statements are correct for lymph ? (2) Right ventricle Lungs
CO 2 Blood
(1) Two (2) Three Pulmonary vein
O2 Blood Left atrium.
(3) Four (4) Five
Aorta
5. Lymphatic system of human and frog are (3) Left ventricle Body tissues
O2 Blood
respectively :- Vena cava
CO2 Blood Right ventricle.
(1) Open type and close type
(2) Closed type and open type (4) Left atrium Left Ventricle O2 Blood Body
(3) Open type and open type CO2 Blood
tissues Right atrium Right
(4) Close type and close type ventricle.
E
9. A special system of blood vessels is present in Option :-
our body exclusively for the circulation of blood
to and from the cardiac musculature. Such type (1) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
of blood circulation is known as :- (2) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii)
(1) Pulmonary circulation (3) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii)
(2) Systemic circulation
(3) Coronary circulation (4) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
(4) Double circulation 14. High blood pressure affects our vital organs like:-
10. Which is the condition of valves occured
(a) Heart (b) Kidney
during isovolumetric contraction of ventricle in
cardiac cycle ? (c) Spleen (d) Brain
(1) Closure of semilunar valves and opening of (e) Liver
AV valves occur.
Which are mainly affected ?
(2) Closure of AV valves and semilunar valves
are still close. (1) a, b & d (2) a, b & c
(3) Opening of semilunar valves and opening (3) c, d & e (4) b, c & d
of AV valves. 15. An artificial pacemaker is implanted under
(4) Opening of semilunar valves and closing
subcutaneous tissue and connected to the heart
of AV valves.
11. Match the followings and select the correct option?
EN in patients of :-
A. Papillary muscles a. Atrial wall (1) Having 90% blockage in the two main
B. Comb muscles b. Ventricular wall
coronary arteries
C. Semilunar valve c. Endocardium
D. Endothelium d. Tricuspid valve (2) Having a very high blood pressure
Option :- (3) With irregularity in the heart rhythm
(1) A-a, B-b, C-d, D-c (2) D-b, C-d, B-a, A-c
(4) Suffering from arteriosclerosis
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(3) A-b, B-a, C-d, D-c (4) A-b, B-a, C-c, D-d
12. What happens when right chordae tendineae 16. Tick mark the correct statements ?
are cut down ? (1) Weak condition of heart leads to bradycardia
(1) Deoxygenated blood starts the back flow in
(2) Vagal secretion leads to tachycardia
heart.
(3) Strong condition of heart leads to bradycardia
A
(2) The rate of pumping of deoxygenated blood

into aorta become slower. (4) Excessive lose of blood leads to decrease
(3) The rate of pumping of oxygenated blood heart beat
into aortic arches become slower NODE02\B0BA-BB\BIOLOGY AT ITS PEAK\ZOOLOGY_(RZC)\ENG\ZOOLOGY_ENGLISH(1)
17. Neural signals through parasympathatic

(4) Oxygenated blood starts the back flow in
heart nervous system can :-
13. Match the column-I and column-II and choose (a) Increase the heart beat rate.
the correct option ? (b) Decrease the heart beat rate.
Column-I Column-II (c) Increase the strength of ventricular contraction.
(d) Decrease the speed of conduction of action
A. Cardiac arrest (i) Heart is not
pumping blood potential.
effectively (e) Increase cardiac output.
B. Heart failure (ii) Heart muscles are (f) Decrease cardiac output.
suddenly damaged
Option :-
C. Heart attack (iii) Acute chest pain
(1) b, c & e (2) a, d & f
D. Angina (iv) Heart stop beating (3) b, d & f (4) a, c & e
pectoris
E
18. Which hormone decreases heart beat rate 23. Open type of circulatory system is found in
thereby decreases the cardiac output ? (1) Toad (2) Prawn
(3) Lizard (4) Pigeon
(1) Thyroxin (2) Sympathin
24. Blood will lose maximum Oxygen when pass
(3) Acetylcholin (4) Adrenaline through
19. Given below the list of animals they have open (1) alveolar capillaries (2) left atrium
typed of circulatory system :- (3) arteries (4) tissue capillaries
(A) Ascidia (B) Cockroach 25. As compared to artery , a vein has
(C) Earthworm (D) Prawn (1) thinner walls (2) larger lumen
(3) less musculature (4) all of the above
(E) Silver fish (F) Snail
26. Normally , the greater portion of circulating
(G) Squid
blood is present in the
Which is the correct option with respect to (1) heart (2) Large arteries
animal having open circulatory system ? (3) Capillaries (4) Large veins
Option :- 27. The given figure represents the pathway of
(1) B, C, D & F (2) A, B, D & F blood throughout the body
(3) C, D, E & G (4) B, D, E & G

20. The component of cardiac tissue having the EN
highest propagation velocity is :-
(1) Purkinje fibres (2) AV node
(3) Bundle of His (4) AV bundle
21. ECG depicts the depolarization and
Identify the correct of marked a , b , c and d
repolarization processes during the cardiac (1) a – artery
cycle. In the ECG of a normal healthy
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(2) b – pulmonary vein
individual one of following waves is not (3) c – pulmonary artery
represented. (4) d – systemic vein
(1) Depolarisation of atria 28. If due to some injury chordae tendenae of the
bicuspid valve of the human heart is partially
(2) Repolarisation of atria
nonfunctional , what will be the immediate
A
(3) Depolarisation of ventricles

effect?
(4) Repolarisation of ventricles (a) the flow of blood into the pulmonary artery
22. Match column I with column II: will be reduced
Column-I Column-II
(b) the flow of blood into the aorta will be
slowed down
(a) Eosinophils (i) Coagulation
(c) the pacemaker will stop working
(b) RBC (ii) Universal Recipient (d) the blood will tend to flow back into the
(c) AB Group (iii) Resist Infections left atrium
(1) a and b (2) b and c
(d) Platelets (iv) Contraction of Heart (3) b and d (4) c and d
(e) Systole (v) Gas transport 29. Which of the following events take place in
a b c d e cardiac cycle after the end of first heart sound
and before the onset of second heart sound?
(1) iii v ii i iv
(1) atrial systole and ventricular systole
(2) iii v i ii iv
(2) atrial systole and ventricular diastole
(3) iii v ii iv i (3) atrial diastole and ventricular systole
(4) iii ii iv v i (4) joint diastole
E
30. In order for the blood to flow from right (c) arteries are thin walled and have narrow
ventricle to left ventricle in mammalian heart, lumen as compared to veins
it must flow through :- (d) the stage of cardiac cycle where all the four
(I) RIGHT VENTRICLE chambers are in relaxed stage is called joint
(II) PULMONARY VEINS Diastole
(III) LEFT ATRIUM How many of the above statements are
(IV) LUNGS correct?
(V) PULMONARY ARTERIES (1) one (2) two (3) three (4) four
(1) I–V–IV–II–III (2) I–II–III–IV–V 34. Which of the following statements are
(3) III–V–I–II–IV (4) III–II–I–IV–V incorrect?
31. Which of the following statements are (1) among all the four chambers of heart left
incorrect? ventricle has the thickest walls
(1) among all the four chambers of heart left (2) contraction of the ventricle in the heart
ventricle has the thickest walls begins by the command from SA node
(2) contraction of the ventricle in the heart (3) QRS complex in ECG is related with
begins by the command from SA node ventricular contraction and atrial relaxation
(3) QRS complex in ECG is related with (4) hardening of the arteries due to deposition
ventricular contraction and atrial relaxation EN of cholesterol is called arteriosclerosis
(4) human heart is myogenic 35. Blood clotting is initiated by
32. Match the following columns and choose the (1) Ca ions and thromboplastin
correct answer from the options given below (2) Prothrombin and thromboplastin
(3) Ca ions and fibrinogen
Column-I Column-II
(4) fibrinogen and thromboplastin
36. Total number of valves in human heart are
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Most abundant white blood cells
(A) Erythrocytes (i)
and the phagocytic in nature (1) four (2) six
(B) Eosinophils (ii) Least abundant white blood cells (3) seven (4) eleven
Resist infections and are 37. Significance of heart valves is
(C) Monocyte (iii)
associated with allergic reactions (1) to allow the flow of blood in one direction,
A
Blood cells that count i.e. from ventricles to atria and from the
(D) Neutrophils (iv)
haemoglobin and transport oxygen ventricles to the pulmonary artery or aorta
(2) to allow the flow of blood in one direction,
(E) Basophils (v) Macropoliceman
i.e. from atria to ventricles and from the

A B C D E ventricles to the pulmonary artery or aorta
(1) iv iii v i ii (3) to allow the flow of blood in one direction,
(2) i ii iii iv v i.e. from atria to ventricles and from the
(3) ii iii i v iv pulmonary artery or aorta to the ventricles
(4) iv i ii iii v (4) to allow the flow of blood in one direction,
33. Given below are four statements regarding i.e. from ventricles to atria and from the
human blood vascular system :- pulmonary artery or aorta to the ventricles
38. Systemic heart comprises
(a) there is no role of Calcium ions in blood
(1) Left atrium and left ventricle
clotting
(2) Left atrium and right atrium
(b) cardiac output is the amount of blood
(3) Right atrium and left ventricle
pumped by each ventricle in one second
(4) Left atrium and right ventricle
E
39. For safe blood transfusions :- Which labelled structure receives carbon
(1) Donors RBC should not contain antibodies dioxide rich blood from the body ?
against recipient serum (1) I (2) II
(2) Recepient serum should not contain antigens (3) III (4) IV
against donors antibodies 44. Refer the given figure of human heart and
(3) Recepient serum should not contain identify the chamber (marked as 1, 2, 3 & 4)
antibodies against donors RBCs which receives most of the blood returning
(4)Recepient RBCs should not contain from the brain :-
antibodies against donors antigens
40. Ruptured RBCs cannot be trapped at one of
the following sites :
(1) Blood (2) Liver 4
(3) Bone marrow (4) Spleen 1
41. When the heart muscle is suddenly damaged 3 2
by an inadequate blood supply . This condition
is called :-
(1) Angina pectoris (2) Heart failure (1) 1 (2) 2
42.
(3) Heart attack (4) Heart arrest
EN
First heart sound is associated with the closure 45.
(3) 3 (4) 4
The given figure represents diagrammatic
presentation of an ECG. Each peak in the ECG
of _____valves whereas second heart sound
is associated with the closure of is identified with a letter from P to T that
_______valves. corresponds to a specific electrical activity of
(1) semilunar , atrioventricular the heart.
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(2) atrioventricular , semilunar R

(3) bicuspid , tricuspid
(4) tricuspid , bicuspid P T
Q S
43. The given diagram represents human heart with
A
four chambers labelled as I, II, III & IV ? Which of the following letter shows the
incorrect activity of heart ?
(1) QRS - Depolarization of the ventricles
(2) R wave - Marks the beginning of the systole

(3) P - Electrical excitation (or depolarization)
I
III of the atria
II
(4) T wave - Return of the ventricles from
IV excited to normal state (repolarization)
BIOLOGY ANSWER KEY

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 3 3 3 4 2 3 2 3 2 3 1 2 1 3
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 3 3 3 2 1 2 1 2 4 4 4 3 3 3 1
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 3 1 1 3 1 1 2 1 3 1 3 2 3 4 2
E
EXCRETORY PRODUCTS AND THEIR ELIMINATION

1. Tick mark the correct option ? 4. Which one is the primary function of sweat
glands in human?
(1) Aquatic amphibians Ammonotelic.
(1) To facilitate a cooling effect on the body
(2) Terrestrial amphibians Uricotelic surface.
(3) Marine fishes Ammonotelic (2) To help in removal of some of the wastes
like NaCl, urea, Lactic acid etc.
(4) Land snail Ureotelic.
(3) It helps in osmoregulation.
2. Read the following four statements (A-D) and
(4) It maintains the NaCl in our body fluid.
select the correct option ones ?
5. Dialysing unit (Artificial kidney) contains a
(A) The medulla is divided into a few conical fluid which is almost same as plasma except that
masses projecting into the calyces. it has -
(B) The cortex extends in between the medullary (1) High nutrients
pyramids as renal columns called columns (2) High nitrogenous wastes.
of Bertini. EN (3) No nitrogenous wastes
(C) Kidneys are blackish brown, bean shaped (4) High NaCl & urea
structures situated between the levels of last 6. Match the abnormal conditions given in
thoracic and third lumbar vertebra close to the column-A, with their explanations given in
ventral inner wall of the abdominal cavity. column-B and select the correct option ?
(D) Each kidney of an adult human measures

LL
Column-A Column-B
10-12 cm in length, 5-7 cm in width, (A) Uremia (i) Accumulation
2-3 cm in thickness with an average weight of urea in urine
of 120-170 gm. (B) Renal calculi Accumulation of
(ii)
(1) Statements A, B & C uric acid in joints.
A
(C) Glomerulone- (iii) Mass of crystallised

(2) Statements B, C & D phritis salt within kidney
(3) Statement A, B & D (D) Gout (iv) Inflammation in NODE02\B0BA-BB\BIOLOGY AT ITS PEAK\ZOOLOGY_(RZC)\ENG\ZOOLOGY_ENGLISH(1)
glomeruli.
(4) Statement B and C
(v) Accumulation of
3. Which are the excretory products of liver from urea in blood.
following ? (1) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i (2) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(a) Urea (b) Cholesterol. (3) A-v, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii (4) A-v, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
(c) Bilirubin (d) Biliverdin 7. We have to observe that glucose and ketone
bodies pass through urine in a person. Such
(e) Bilesalts condition indicates the sign of :-
(f) Degraded steroid hormones. (1) Diabetes insipidus
(1) a, b, c, d & e (2) b, c, d & f (2) Glomerulonephritic

(3) Diabetes mellitus
(3) Only 'c' and 'd' (4) All
(4) Renal failure.
E
8. Read the following statements (a-e) and select 12. Given below the diagrammatic representation of
the correct option which includes all the correct a nephron and vasa recta showing counter-
ones? current mechanism in which some substances
(a) Micturition is a reflex process are labelled by alphabates A, B and C. These
(b) pH of human urine is approximately 6.0. substances are exchanged between 'Loop of
Henle' and vasa-recta. Select the correct option
(c) 25-30 mg of urea is excreted out per day
in which labelled alphabetes are correctly given?
along with urine.
(AL-Ascesding limb, DL-Desecending limb,
(d) An adult human excretes 1 to 1.5 litres of
LOH-Loop of Hesle, VR-Vasa recta)
urine per day.
(e) During the micturition reflex contraction AL of VR
DL of AL of VR Collecting
signal provides to urethral sphincter and LOH AL of duct
simultaneously relaxation signal provides LOH A
to smooth muscles of wall of urinary B A
bladder. A
B A
(1) Statements a, b and c A
(2) statements b, c and e A
B A
(3) statements a, b and d
C
(4) statements c, d and e
9. The functioning of the kidneys is efficiently
EN
monitered and regulated by :- (1) A = NaCl (2) A = Water
(1) Neural feedback mechanism B = Urea B = Urea
(2) Hormonal feedback mechanism C = Water C = NaCl
(3) Renal feedback mechanism (3) A = NaCl (4) A = Urea
(4) Both 1 & 2
B = Water B = Water
10. Which of the following statements is correct ?
C = Urea D = NaCl
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(1) ADH : Prevents conversion of

13. Read the following points with respect to distal
angiotensinogen in blood to angiotensin. convoluted tubule of nephron :-
(2) Aldosterone :- Reabsorption of Na+ and water. (a) Its wall is made up by simple cuboidal
(3) ANF :- Enhance Na+ reabsorption. epithelium.
A
(4) Renin :- Causes vasodilation. (b) Conditional reabsorption of H2 O & NaCl

takes place in it.
11. Which one is incorrect about mechanism of
conentration of the filtrate ? (c) It is also capable of reabsorption of HCO3–
ions.
(1) NaCl is transported by the ascending limb

(d) It helps in Na+–K+ balance in blood.
of 'Loop of Henle' which is the exchanged
with the descending limb of vasa-recta. (e) It also helps in maintainance of pH of body
fluid.
(2) Help in maintaining an increasing How many points are correct ?
osmolarity towards the inner medullary
(1) Two (2) Three (3) One (4) All
interstitum..
14. Substances like amino acid and glucose in the
(3) The proximity between the 'Loop of Henle' filtrate are reabsorbed .....(A)..... in the tubular
and vasa recta as well as counter current in epithelial cells whereas the nitrogenous wastes
them help in maintaining the osmolarity of product are reabsorbed by .....(B)...... What are
medullary interstitium. the A & B and select the correct option ?
(4) Small amount of urea enter in the thick (1) A = Actively; B = passively
segment of ascending limb of 'Loop of (2) A = Passively; B = Actively
Henle' which is transported back by (3) A = Actively; B = Actively
collecting duct. (4) A = Passively; B = Passively
E
15. Fill in the blanks :- a b c d
(a) The glomerular capillary blood pressure (1) true true true false
cause filteration of blood through 3 layers
i.e. the ......(a)...... of glomerular blood (2) false true false false
vessel, the ......(b)...... of bowman's capsule (3) True false false true
and .....(c).... between these two layers. (4) false true true false
(b) On an average .....(d)..... of blood is filtered
18. Which type of tissue is found in PCT and DCT?
by the kidneys per minute which constitute
roughly.........(e)..... of the blood pumped-out (1) simple cuboidal brush border and simple
by each ventricle of the heart in a minute. squamous
a b c d e (2) simple cuboidal brush border and simple
1. Endothelium Epithelium Basement 600-800 ml 1/8 th
cuboidal ciliated
membrane
(3) simple cuboidal brush border and simple
2. Epithelium Endothelium Basement 1100-1200 ml 1/5th
membrane cuboidal
3. Endothelium Epithelium Basement 1100-1200ml 1/5 th
(4) simple cuboidal brush border and simple
membrane
squamous
4. Endothelium Epithelium Basement 1500 ml 1/4th
membrane 19. Read the given terms and select the correct
16. Match the items of column I with those of EN option with their appropriate explaination :-
column II : (a) uremia
(b) ANF
Column-I Column-II
(c) micturition
(a) Ammonotelism (i) Birds
(d) glycosuria
(b) Bowman's (ii) Water reabsorption (1) (a) accumulation of urea in blood
capsule
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(b) process of release of urine and it is a

(c) Micturition (iii) Bony fish
involuntary process
(d) Uricotelism (iv) Urinary bladder (2) (b) release from atria of heart
(e) ADH (v) Renal tubule (c) process by which urine is concentrated
A
a b c d e (3) (d) presence of glucose in urine

(1) iii v i iv ii (b) can cause dilation of blood vessels
(2) iii v iv i ii (4) (a) accumulation of uric acid in blood NODE02\B0BA-BB\BIOLOGY AT ITS PEAK\ZOOLOGY_(RZC)\ENG\ZOOLOGY_ENGLISH(1)
(3) i v iv iii ii (d) presence of glucose in urine

(4) iii v iv ii i 20. JGA plays a complex regulatory role
17. Consider the given statements and choose the when
correct option :- (1) there is fall in glomerular blood pressure
(a) many bony fishes , tadpole larva of frog and (2) ADH secretion is maximum
terrestrial insects areammonotelic in nature
(3) glucose level is high in blood
(b) in frog kidneys are mesonephric
(4) vitamin C absorption is minimum
(c) GFR falls –activation of JG cells –
21. JG cells of Juxta glomerular apparatus release
release rennin—GFR normal
to :-
(d) NaCl is transported by the ascending
limb of Henles loop which is exchanged (1) ANF (2) Rennin
with the ascending portion of vasa recta (3) ADH (4) Renin
E
22. Match the columns :- 26. How many statements are correct ?
Column-I Column-II (a) vasa recta is absent or highly reduced in
cortical nephrons
A Sweat glands I Sterols , hydrocarbons
(b) ammonia is less toxic as compared to urea
B Sebaceous glands II Carbondioxide
and requires large amount of water for its
C Liver III Cholesterol , bilirubin elimination
D Lungs IV NaCl , small amount of urea (c) GFR in a healthy individual is approximately
A B C D 125 ml / minute
(1) I III IV II (d) PCT also help to maintain the pH and ionic
balance of the body fluid
(2) III I IV II
(1) one (2) two (3) three (4) four
(3) IV I III II
27. What will happen when excessive loss of fluid
(4) IV III II I
from the body then ?
23. Identify the correct combination :- (1) activates receptors which stimulates the
(1) Green glands – crustacean – uricotelic hypothalamus to release ADH from the
(2) Malpighian tubule – insect – uricotelic EN neuro hypophysis
(3) Nephridia – annelida – uricotelic (2) osmoreceptors switch off and secretion of
(4) Flame cells – Aschelminthes - ammonotelic vasopressin reduces
(3) release of aldosterone from adrenal medulla
24. Which of the following is incorrect option?
(4) angiotensinogen is converted into
(1) inflammation of glomeruli of kidney is
angiotensin-I
called glomerulonephritis
LL
28. Study the given chart and choose the correct

(2) the epithelial cells of Bowmans capsule are
option with appropriate alphabets
called podocytes
(3) PCT and DCT of nephron are situated urinary bladder stretch receptors
fills with urine stimulate
in the cortical region of kidney
A
send
(4) the ascending limb of loop of henle is signals to
permeable to water but allows transport A
electrolytes only actively passes on motor message

25. Select the correct option with the reference of smooth muscles B
hemodialysis :- of urinary bladder
D
(1) when glucose concentration is high in blood contraction
than glucose molecules are removed by
A B C
hemodialysis
(1) PNS urethral relaxation
(2) anticoagulant like heparin used during Sphincter
hemodialysis (2) CNS urethral relaxation
Sphincter
(3) it is also used for removal of ketone bodies (3) CNS urethral contraction
during diabetes mellitus Sphincter
(4) PNS urethral contraction
(4) all of the above Sphincter
E
29. Kidneys do not help in 37. Glomerular filtration is possible if :-
(1) osmoregulation (1) afferent arteriole has more diameter than
(2) maintaninig body temperature the efferent arteriole
(2) afferent arteriole has less diameter than the
(3) maintaining composition of body plasma
efferent arteriole
(4) regulation of body pH
(3) both have the same diameter
30. Renal cortex contain cup like structure called :-
(4) afferent capillaries have less diameter than
(1) loop of henle (2) renal capsule efferent capillaries
(3) Bowman's capsule (4) glomerulus capsule 38. A patient who excretes large quantity of sodium
31. On the concave side of the each kidney there is in urine has diseased :-
a depression called (A) where (B) enters (1) adrenal medulla
(1) hilum, renal vein (2) adrenal cortex
(3) thymus
(2) hilum, renal artery
(4) parathyroid
(3) hilum, ureter
39. Bowman's capsule is lined by
(4) hilum, urinary bladder (1) ciliated cuboidal epithelium
32. If the kidney fails to function :- EN (2) simple squamous epithelium
(1) other organs can carry all the functions of (3) nonciliated cuboidal epithelium
excretion for some times (4) nonciliated columnar epithelium
(2) renal failure becomes a life threatening 40. A person passes excessive urine and drinks a
event lot of water but his glucose level is normal. It is
(3) they rapidly degenerate their nephrons due to :-
LL
(4) cells store their own metabolic wastes until (1) increased secretion of glucagon
the kidney functions again (2) fall in glucose released in urine
33. Which of the following blood vessel contain (3) reduction in insulin secretion
maximum amount of urea? (4) reduction in vasopressin secretion by
(1) dorsal aorta (2) hepatic vein posterior pituitary
A
(3) renal artery (4) hepatic artery 41. The yellow color of urine is due to :-
34. Glucose and 75% water is absorbed in :- (1) uric acid (2) urea
(1) proximal convoluted tubule (3) urochrome (4) melanin
(2) distal convoluted tubule 42. The main function of loop of henle is the
(3) collecting duct reabsorption of water from the contents of renal
(4) loop of henle tubules . In which of the following will the loop
35. The synthesis of urea in liver takes place by :- of Henle be poorly developed or even absent?
(1) ornithine cycle (2) Kreb's cycle (1) deseret mouse (2) carnivorous bird
(3) Glycolysis (4) Cori's cycle (3) fresh water fish (4) garden lizard
36. Which of the following part of nephron is least 43. If kidneys fail to absorb water , the effect on
permeable to water? tissue would :-
(1) Proximal convoluted tubule (1) remains unaffected
(2) Descending limb of loop of henle (2) shrink and shrivel
(3) ascending limb of loop of henle (3) absorb water from blood plasma
(4) collecting duct (4) take more oxygen from blood
E
44. Identify A , B , C and D Directions for (Q. 47-49) : Refer the given
Prpximal convoluted tubule Distal convoluted tubule diagrammatic representation of a nephron of
NaCl Nutrients
HCO3 H2O K
+ NaCl H2O HCO3 human excretory system and answer the
following questions.
+ +
H
+
K H
NH3 Afferent Efferent
Cortex
Descending
arteriole arteriole
Thick segment of A
limb of loop ascending limb
of Henle
B E
Collecting duct
B
A F
Outer medulla C
Thin segment of
ascending limb D
C
X Y
D
H2O
Inner medulla 47. The label X represents __________ that

function in ___________.
A B C D EN (1) Vasa recta- Reabsorption of water, minerals
(1) water NaCl NaCl Urea and digestive end products.
(2) NaCl Water NaCl Urea (2) Henle's loop - Filtration of plasma leaving
(3) water water NaCl urea the blood.
(4) urea water water NaCl
(3) Vasa recta - Filtration of plasma leaving the
45. Inflammation of glomeruli in kidney is called blood
LL
(1) glomerulonephritis (2) renal calculi (4) Henle's loop - Reabsorption of water,
(3) diabetes insipidus (4) diabetes mellitus
minerals and digestive end products.
46. The given figure shows the longitudinal section
of kidney with few structures labelled as I, II, 48. Which blood component would not usually
III & IV identify renal vein in the given figure. pass through the membranes from region A to
region B ?
A
IV
(1) Mineral salts (2) Red blood cells
I (3) Urea (4) Water
II 49. After the blood enters the kidney, it travels to
III the __________.

(1) A (2) B
(1) I (2) II (3) III (4) IV (3) C (4) D
BIOLOGY ANSWER KEY

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 3 2 1 3 3 3 3 4 2 4 3 4 1 3
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 2 2 3 3 1 4 3 2 4 2 3 1 2 2 3
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 2 2 2 1 1 3 1 2 2 4 3 3 2 1 1
Que. 46 47 48 49
Ans. 2 1 2 1
E
MOVEMENT AND LOCOMOTION

1. The number of bones in the lower jaw of human 5. The pectoral and pelvic girdles and the bones
is : of limb form :-
(1) 1 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 8 (1) Axial skeleton
(2) Appendicular skeleton
2. Out of 'X' pairs of ribs in humans only 'Y' pairs
(3) Visceral skeleton
are true ribs. Select the option that correctly
(4) Outer skeleton
represents values of X and Y and provides their
6. In children the bones are more flexible and
explanation.
brittle because their bones have :-
True ribs are attached dorsally to (1) Large quantity of salts and little organic
(1) X=12,Y=7 vertebral column and ventrally to substance
the sternum
(2) Large quantity of organic substances and little
True ribs are attached dorsally to salts
(2) X=12,Y=5 vertebral column and sternum on
the two ends (3) Well developed Haversian system
EN (4) Large number of osteoblasts
True rubs are dorsally attached to
(3) X=24,Y=7 vertebral column but are free on 7. In mammals each half of pectoral girdle consists
ventral side of:-
True ribs are dorsally attached to (1) Supra scapula (2) Scapula
(4) X=24,Y=12 vertebral column but are free on (3) Coracoid (4) All the above
ventral side
8. When the head of humerus fits into glenoid
LL
3. Symphysis contains :- cavity, joint is :-

(1) Hyaline cartilage (2) Fibrous cartilage (1) Ball and socket joint (2) Hinge joint
(3) Pivot joint (4) Saddle joint
(3) Calcified cartilage (4) Elastic cartilage
9. Which of the following pairs, is correctly
4. Choose the correct option regarding a normal
A
matched?
human :-
(1) Hinge joint – Between vertebrae
A. The skull is dicondylic (2) Gliding joint – Between zygapophysis of the NODE02\B0BA-BB\BIOLOGY AT ITS PEAK\ZOOLOGY_(RZC)\ENG\ZOOLOGY_ENGLISH(2)
B. Metacarpals are five in numbers successive vertebrae

C. Patella is a cup-shaped bone covering the knee (3) Cartilaginous joint – Skull bones
dorsally (4) Fibrous joint – Between phalanges
10. See the figure of actin (thin) filaments. Identify
D. Scapula is a large triangular flat bone,
A, B and C
situated on the ventral side of the thorax
E. The pelvic girdle has two coxal bones
(1) A and E are wrong
(1) A – Troponin, B – Tropomyosin, C– F-actin
(2) A and B are wrong
(2) A – Troponin, B – Tropomyosin, C– F-Myosin
(3) B and E are wrong (3) A – Troponin, B – Myosin, C– F-Tropomyosin
(4) C and D are wrong (4) A – Tropomyosin, B – Troponin, C– F-actin
E
11. The dark bands (Black bands) of a skeletal 16. Which one of the following statements is true?
muscle are known as :- (1) Head of humerus bone articulates with
(1) Anisotropic or A-band acetabulum of pectoral girdle
(2) Isotropic or I-band (2) Head of humerus bone articulates with
(3) Z-band glenoid cavity of pectoral girdle
(4) Both in A and I-band
(3) Head of humerus bone articulates with a
12. Match the following and mark the correct
cavity called acetabulum of pelvic girdle
option:-
(4) Head of humerus bone articulates with
Column-I Column-II
glenoid cavity of pelvic girdle
A. Sternum i. Synovial fluid
17. A sarcomere is best described as a :-
B. Glenoid Cavity ii. Vertebrae
C. Freely movable joint iii. Pectoral girdle (1) movable structural unit within a myofibril
D. Cartilagenous joint iv. Flat bones bounded by H zones.
Option :- (2) fixed structural unit within a myofibril

(1) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv bounded By Z lines.
(2) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
(3) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
EN (3) fixed structural unit within a myofibril
bounded by A bands.
(4) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii (4) movable structural unit within a myofibril
13. Macrophages and leucocytes exhibit :- bounded by Z lines.
(1) Ciliary movement 18. An example of gliding joint is :-
LL
(2) Flagellar movement
(1) humerus and glenoid cavity
(3) Amoeboid movement
(2) femur and tibio-fibula
(4) Gliding movement
(3) occipital condyle and odontoid process
14. Which one of the following is not a disorder of
(4) zygapophysis of adjacent vertebrae
A
bone ?
(1) Arthritis 19. Function of long bones in adult mammals is to
(2) Osteoporosis provide :-
(3) Rickets (1) support only

(4) Atherosclerosis (2) support and produce RBCs only
15. Which one of the following statement is (3) support and produce WBCs only
incorrect? (4) support and produce RBCs and WBCs
(1) Heart muscles are striated and involuntary.
20. In humans, coccyx is formed by the fusion of :-
(2) The muscles of hands and legs are striated
(1) 3 vertebra (2) 4 vertebra
and voluntary.
(3) 5 vertebra (4) vertebra
(3) The muscles located in the inner walls of
21. Which of the following vertebrae are fused ?
alimentary canal are striated and involunatry.
(4) Muscles located in the reproductive tracts (1) Cervical (2) Sacrum
are unstriated and involuntary. (3) Lumbar (4) Thoracic
E
22. Hyoid bone is located :- 28. Which one of the following is the correct
description of certain part of a normal human
(1) at the top of the buccal cavity
skeleton ?
(2) at the base of the buccal cavity (1) Parietal bone and the temporal bone of the
(3) in front of the skull skull are joined by fibrous joint.
(4) behind the skull (2) First vertebra is axis which articulates with
the occipital condyles.
23. Part of the body having a single pair of bones
(3) The 9th and 10th pairs of ribs are called the
is called :-
floating ribs.
(1) pelvic girdle (2) external ear (4) Glenoid cavity is a depression to which the
(3) wrist (4) lower jaw thigh bone articulates.
24. Which of the following is a single U-shaped 29. The given diagram of human skeleton system
shows different type of joints. Identify which
bone, present at the base of the buccal cavity
of the following from I, II, III, IV and V as
and it is also included in the skull ? marked below are ball and socket joints.
(1) Hyoid (2) Malleus
I
(3) Sacrum (4) Scapula
25. Which of the following statement is incorrect ? II
(1) All movements lead to locomotion EN III
(2) Ciliary movement help in passage of ova
IV
through female reproductive tract
(3) Microfilaments are involved in amoeboid
movement V
(4) In Paramecium, the cilia help in movement
LL
of food through cytopharynx and in

locomotion as well
26. Which of the following is not the feature of red (1) I and II (2) II and IV
muscle fibres ? (3) III and IV (4) IV and V
(1) They have plenty of mitochondria 30.
A
(2) They have high content of myoglobin

(3) They have high amount of sarcoplasmic
reticulum NODE02\B0BA-BB\BIOLOGY AT ITS PEAK\ZOOLOGY_(RZC)\ENG\ZOOLOGY_ENGLISH(2)
(4) They are called aerobic muscles IV

27. Read the following statements (A to D) and I
select the one option that contains both correct
statements. II
III
A. Z-line is present in the centre of the light
band.
B. Thin filaments are firmly attached to the
M-line.
C. The central part of thick filaments, not I II III IV
overlapped by thin filaments is called (1) Clavicle Ulna Radius Humerus
Z-band. (2) Humerus Radius Ulna Scapula
D. Light band contains only thin filaments. (3) Scapula Radius Ulna Clavicle
(1) A and D (2) B and C (4) Humerus Ulna Radius Scapula
(3) A and C (4) B and D
E
31. Which two bones in the given figure form a

I II III IV
hinge joint ? (1) Tibia Fibula Radius Ulna
(2) Radius Ulna Fibula Tibia
(3) Ulna Radius Tibia Fibula
(4) Fibula Tibia Radius Ulna
34. The given figure represents the cross bridge
IV
I cycle in skeletal muscle. What does the step B
in the figure represents ?
II
III
Myosin head ADP
(high-energy P1
configuration)
A
Thin filament
(1) I and II (2) I and III
(3) I and IV (4) II and III ATP ADP Thick filament ADP
hydrolysis
32. The label X in the given figure of an actin P1
filament represents
X
EN D B
Myosin head
ATP
ATP (low-energy
(1) actin (2) myosin configuration)
(3) tropomyosin (4) troponin C
33. The given diagram shows a human skeleton.

LL
Which of the following correctly identifies the (1) Attachment of myosin head to actin forming
bones marked as I, II, III & IV ? cross bridge.
(2) Release of phosphate, Myosin changes
shape to pull actin.
A
(3) Attachment of new ATP to myosin head.

The cross bridge detaches.
I (4) Splitting of ATP into ADP and Pi. Myosin
II
cocks into its high energy conformation.
III
IV
BIOLOGY ANSWER KEY

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 1 2 4 2 2 4 1 2 1 1 2 3 4 3
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 2 4 4 4 2 2 2 1 1 1 3 1 1 2 2
Que. 31 32 33 34
Ans. 2 4 2 2
E
NEURAL CONTROL AND COORDINATION

1. The photosensitive compounds in the human 7. Which of the following statement is not
eyes is composed of A (a protein) and B correct ?
(an aldehyde of vitamin A). Light induces (A) During conduction of impulse, the rise in
dissociation of retinal from opsin resulting in the stimulus induced permeability to Na+ is
changes in the structure of C :- extremely short lived.
(1) A-Retinal, B-Opsin, C-Retinal (B) Resting membrane potential of the
(2) A-Opsin, B-Opsin, C-Retinal membrane at the site of excitation is
(3) A-Retinal, B-Opsin, C-Opsin re-establish by the influx of Na+.
(4) A-Opsin, B-Retinal, C-Opsin (C) Na+–K+ pump transports, 3 Na+ to outside
2. Macula lutea is present :- and 2K+ to inside of axon.
(1) Slightly above the posterior pole of eye ball (D)Neuron recognise information of nerve
(2) At the posterior pole of eye ventral to the impulse but never transmit it.
blind spot (E) Positive charge on inner axonal membrane
(3) At the anterior pole of eye lateral to the is due to outflux and influx of K+.
blind spot (1) A, B & E (2) B, D and E
(4) Slightly below the anterior pole of eye ball (3) A, D and E (4) A, B, D and E
3. Scala media is filled with :- EN 8. Neurotransmitters in chemical synapses :-
(1) Blood & lymph (1) Are released by synaptic vesicle in post
(2) Perilymph synaptic membrane and are received by the
(3) Endolymph receptors in pre synaptic membrane
(4) Serous & mucus fluid (2) Are released in synaptic cleft and always
4. Semi circular canals are :- have excitatory effect.
(1) Three is number and lies at right angle to (3) Are attached to receptors in post synaptic
each other
LL
membrane & transmit inpulses faster than
(2) Three in number & present in cochlea near electrical synapse.
helicotrema. (4) Are released by synaptic vesicles through
(3) Present in middle ear presynaptic membrane in the synaptic cleft
(4) Four in number and lies at right angle to & are received by receptors in post synaptic
each other. membrane.
A
5. Crista ampullaris and macula in internal ear are 9. Which of the following option is correctly
responsible for :- matched ?
(1) Both hearing & equilibrium of the body (1) Cerebellar hemisphere – corpus callosum NODE02\B0BA-BB\BIOLOGY AT ITS PEAK\ZOOLOGY_(RZC)\ENG\ZOOLOGY_ENGLISH(2)
(2) Maintenance of balance of the body & posture – smallest commissure

(3) Perception of vision (2) Complex regions (cerebral cortex) –
(4) Collection of sound vibrations. Association area – memory &
6. Which of the following statement is correct ? communication
(1) Neural system of cockroach consists of (3) Hindbrain – hypothalamus – intelligence
network of neurons only. and memory
(2) Afferent nerve fibres transmit impulses (4) Midbrain – thalamus – largest choroid
from CNS to peripheral tissues plexus
(3) Autonomous nervous system is divided into 10. Brain stem is formed by :-
somatic neural system and peripheral (1) Hypothalamus, mid brain & cerebellum
neural system. (2) Corpora quadrigemina, thalamus &
(4) The neural system of all animals is medulla oblongata
composed of highly specialised cells called (3) Diencephalon, pons and cerebellum
neurons which can detect, receive & (4) Mid brain, pons & medulla oblongata
transmit impulse different kinds of stimuli.
E
11. Which of the following cranial nerves are pure 17. Structure in brain which is surrounded by
sensory in nature ? cerebrum and is the major coordinating centre
for sensory and motor signaling :-
(1) Olfactory, optic and vagus
(1) Epithalamus (2) Crura cerebri
(2) Olfactory, abducens and accessory spinal
(3) Thalamus (4) Aqueduct sylvius
(3) Olfactory, optic and auditory 18. Damage in vestibular apparatus, results in the
(4) Optic, trochlear and hypoglossal loss of :-
12. Reflex action is :- (1) Hearing
(1) Involuntary, without conscious effort or (2) Body balance
thought and requires the involvement of a (3) Air pressure maintenance
part of the CNS. (4) Vision
(2) Involuntary, with conscious effort & 19. What is the correct sequence of eyeball layers
from outside to inside?
thought & does not require the involvement
(1) Sclera – Retina –Choroid
of a part of the CNS
(2) Choroid – Sclera –Retina
(3) Both voluntary and involuntary, without (3) Choroid – Retina – Sclera
thought but with conscious effort & involve (4) Sclera – Choroid – Retina
a part of the CNS. 20. Tube that connects the middle ear cavity with
(4) Involuntary, without thought but with the pharynx is called :-
consious effort, and does not involve CNS. (1) Eustachian tube (2) Semicircular canal
(3) Cochlea (4) Crus commune
13.
sensory stimuli towards spinal cord?
(1) Multipolar neuron
EN
During reflex action, which neuron transports
21. Which of the following is true for cochlea?
(1) It is the coiled portion of membranous
labyrinth and is filled with perilymph.
(2) Pseudounipolar neuron (2) The space within cochlea is called scala
(3) Unipolar neuron media which is filled with endolymph.
(4) Bipolar neuron (3) Malleus is attached to the tympanic
LL
14. Which of the following statement is correct ? membrane.

(1) Electrical synapses are rare in our body. (4) Both 2 and 3
(2) Neurons are excitable cells because their 22. The saccule and utricle contain a projecting
membranes are in a polarised state. ridge called :-
(1) Macula (2) Cristae
(3) Piamater is the outermost meninge and is
A
(3) Organ of Corti (4) Ampulla

in contact with brain tissues.
23. Which of the following statement is not correct
(4) 1 & 2 both
regarding exciting stage of neuron?
15. Corpora quadrigemina, the four round (1) Generation of action potential
swellings are present :- (2) More permeability for Na+ as compared to K+

(1) On ventral portion of mid brain (3) Depolarisation of axonal membrane
(2) On lower region of pons (4) More negative charge inside
(3) In front of hypothalamus 24. Consider the given statements
(4) On the dorsal portion of midbrain (a) Integrated system in our body, coordinate
all activities of the organs
16. The A transmit the impulse via a dorsal nerve
(b) Neural part of integrated system provides
root into the CNS. The B then carries signals
chemical integration
from CNS to the effector. A & B in the above (c) Endocrine part of integrated system provides
statements are:- organised connectivity for quick
(1) A-Afferent nerve fibre, B-Afferent nerve fibre coordination
(2) A-Efferent nerve fibre, B-Efferent nerve fibre (1) a and c are true, c is false
(3) A-Efferent nerve fibre, B-Afferent nerve fibre (2) a is true , b and c are false
(3) a and c are true, b is false
(4) A-Afferent nerve fibre, B-Efferent nerve fibre
(4) c is true , a and b are false
E
25. Which of the following is true for human neural 31. Read the following
system? - Conductivity - Excitability
(1) It is ectodermal in origin - Contractibility - Elasticity
(2) Somatic neural system relays impulses from - All or none
CNS to skeletal muscles. How many properties are shown by a nerve cell?
(1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) Five
(3) Neurons show unidirectional conduction of
32. Which of the following is not the function of
impulse
hypothalamus?
(4) All of these (1) Control body temperature
26. Which of the following is absent in a nerve cell? (2) Synthesis of hormones which are released
(1) Mitochondria (2) Nissl's granules by neurohypophysis
(3) Nucleus (4) Centriole (3) Storage of memory and seat of intelligence
27. When outer surface of the axonal membrane (4) Control the secretion and inhibition of
possesses a positive charge while its inner hormones of the adenohypopysis
surface is negatively charged it is called 33. Observe the given diagram and select the correct
(1) Depolarisation option regarding labeled part A
(2) Polarisation
(3) Repolarisation
(4) Both 2 and 3
28. Choose the correct option with reference to EN
structures with their characteristics and location
Structure Characte ris tic Location
Medullated nerve fibres
C onductivity are found in C N S
(1) N euron
excitability formed by S chwann
cells
(1) It may be either excitatory or inhibitory
(2) It is synthesized by mitochondria
C onsist of 4 Between forebrain and
LL
(2) M idbrain
optic lobes pons (3) It is stored in synaptic vesicles of synaptic
Secretion of O n ventral surface of knob
(3) Hypothalamus
hormones cerebellum (4) All of these
Highly vascular 34. Identify A , B , C and D in the given diagram
(4) P iamater outer most Around brain
meninx
A
29. Which of the following is incorrect for the

neuron?
(1) Dendrites and axon contain Nissl's granules
(2) Energy consumption is less during
conduction of impulse by myelinated

neuron as compared to the non-myelinated
neuron
(3) Bipolar neurons are found in the retina of
eye A B C D
(4) Unmyelinated nerve fibres is enclosed by a Medulla Spinal cord
Schwann cell (1) Pons Cerebellum
oblongata
30. During repolarisation, outer surface of axonal
Medulla
membrane is positively charged due to the :- (2) Cerebellum Spinal cord Pons
oblongata
(1) Efflux of Na+ ions
Medulla
(2) Efflux of Cl– ions (3) Cerebellum Pons Spinal cord
oblongata
(3) Efflux of K+ ions
Medulla
(4) Influx of K+ ions (4) Pons Cerebellum Spinal cord
oblongata
E
35. Match the column I with column II 38. In the given diagram, which stage of
conduction of nerve impulse through a nerve
Column-I Column-II
fibre is observed?
(A) Amygdala (I) Largest part of brain
+ +
+ K 3Na
(B) Cerebrum (II) Midbrain K Channel
+ +
Na K
(C) Cerebellum (III) Limbic lobe +
Na Channel + VGC
2K VGC
Na + ATP ADP + iP
(D) Corpora quadrigemina (IV) Hindbrain
A B C D (1) Polarisation
(1) II I III IV
(2) III I IV II (2) Resting stage
(3) III IV I II
(4) IV III II I (3) Repolarisation
36. Which of the following region of brain is
incorrectly paired with its function? (4) Depolarisation
(1) Hypothalamus - autonomic control
39. Given below is a diagrammatic cross section
(2) Limbic system - emotional behaviour
(3) Cerebellum - voluntary control of muscle
EN of a single loop of human cochlea with few
(4) Medulla oblongata - homeostatic control parts labelled as A, B, C & D.
37. The following diagram represent the reflex arc.
Identify the parts labelled as A, B, C, D, E, F
and G and choose the correct option :-
A C
B B
LL
A D
F
E
A
G D
(1) A - receptor; B - sensory nerve;
C - dorsal horn; D - interneuron; Which one of the following options correctly
E - ventral horn; F - motor nerve; represents the name of three different parts ?
G - effector
(2) A - receptor; B - sensory nerve; (1) A : Perilymph, B : Tectorial membrane,
C - ventral horn; D - interneuron; C : Endolymph
E - dorsal horn; F - motor nerve;
G - effector (2) B : Tectorial membrane, C : Perilymph,
(3) A - effector; B - motor nerve; D : Secretory cells
C - dorsal horn; D - interneuron;
E - ventral horn; F - sensory nerve; (3) A : Endolymph, D : Sensory hair cells,
G - effector A : Serum
(4) A - effector; B - motor nerve;
C - ventral horn; D - interneuron; (4) D : Sensory hair cells, A : Endolymph,
E - dorsal horn; F - sensory nerve; B : Tectorial membrane
G - receptor
E
40. The given diagram shows the axon terminal 41. The given diagram shows different parts of a
and synapse with parts labelled as A, B, C human eye with one part labeled as X.
& D. Choose the correct combination of
labelling from the given options.
X
Ca+2
B
Axon of D
presynaptic
neuron
A
C Which of the following statement is correct
Ion channel
regarding X ?
Ion channel
(closed) (open)
(1) It is the opening in lens that permits light
into the inner chambers of the eye.
(1) A - Synaptic vesicle, B - Axon terminal, (2) It is the coloured portion of vascular tunic.
C - Synaptic cleft, D - Postsynaptic (3) It is a biconcave structure that changes
membrane shape to bring objects into focus.
(2) A - Axon terminal, B - Synaptic vesicle,
C - Postsynaptic membrane, D - Synaptic
EN 42.
(4) It is thick, jelly-like substance in the
posterior compartment of the eye.
Refer the given figure of ear with few structures
cleft.
(3) A - Synaptic vesicle, B - Synaptic cleft, marked as I, II, III & IV. Which labelled
C -Axon terminal, D - Post synaptic structure receive vibrations and converts it into
membrane voltage?
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(4) A - Post synaptic membrane, B - Axon

terminal, C - Synaptic vesicle, D - Synaptic
cleft
I III
A
II
IV
(1) I (2) II (3) III (4) IV
BIOLOGY ANSWER KEY

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 4 1 3 1 2 4 2 4 2 4 3 1 2 4 4
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 4 3 2 4 1 2 1 4 2 4 4 4 2 1 3
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42
Ans. 2 3 4 1 2 3 1 3 1 1 2 3
E
CHEMICAL COORDINATION AND INTEGRATION

1. Consider the given diagrammatic 2. Receptor for protein hormones are located
representation of the mechanism of action for
(1) In cytoplasm
2 categories of hormones. In which of the
following option, correct answer for blanks A (2) On cell surface
to I are indicated ? (3) In nucleus
A (4) On endoplasmic reticulum
B Cell
membrane 3. Which one of the following flows directly into
Response 1 blood from the site of its production to act on
an organ away from it ?
Generation of C
(1) Enzyme (2) Hormone (Renin)
Biochemical Responses
(3) Blood (4) Lymph
Physiological Responses
4. Select the right match of endocrine gland and
Figure-I
their hormones among the options given below.
A. Pineal i. Epinephrine
Cell membrane
D
EN B. Thyroid
C. Ovary
ii. Melatonin
iii. Estrogen
D. Adrenal medulla iv. Tetraiodothyronine
E
G Options
(1) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
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F H
(2) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
I
(3) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii
Physiological responses
(4) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i
Figure-II
5. Listed below are the hormones of anterior
A
(1) A-Steroid hormone, B-Enzyme, C-Second

pituitary. Tick the wrong entry
messenger, D-Non-steroid hormone,
(1) Growth hormone
E-Nucleus, F-Hormone - enzyme complex,
(2) Follicle stimulating hormone
G-Genome, H-mRNA, I-protein

(2) A-Steroid hormone, B-Receptor, C-Primary (3) Oxytocin
messenger, D-Non-steroid hormone, (4) Adrenocorticotrophic hormone
E-Nucleus, F-Hormone-receptor complex, 6. Naina is about to face an interview. But during
G-Genome, H-mRNA, I-protein the first five minutes before the interview she
(3) A-Non-Steroid hormone, B-Receptor, experiences sweating, increased rate of heart beat,
C-Second messenger, D-Steroid hormone, respiration etc. Which hormone is responsible for
E-Nucleus, F-Hormone receptor complex, her restlessness ?
G-Genome, H-mRNA, I-Protein (1) Estrogen and progesterone
(4) A-Steroid hormone, B-Receptor, (2) Oxytocin and vasopressin
C-Second messenger, D-Non-steroid (3) Adrenaline and noradrenaline
hormone, E-Nucleus, F-Hormone-receptor
(4) Insulin and glucagon
complex, G-Genome, H-mRNA, I-protein
E
7. Hormones are called chemical signals that 11. The correct set of a single endocrine gland
stimulate specific target tissues. Their hormone is.
specificity is due to the presence of signal
(1) Oxytocin, prolactin, ACTH
receiving 'receptors' only in the respective
target tissues. Where are these receptors present (2) Oxytocine, vasopressin, ANF
in case of hormones of protein nature ? (3) Thyroxine, secretin, ACTH

(1) Extra cellular matrix (4) Epinephrine, cortisol, ICSH
(2) Blood 12. Antidiuretic hormone's secretion increases
(3) Plasma membrane when the hypothalamus is stimulated by:
(4) Nucleus (1) Angiotensin receptors
8. Choose the correct answer among the following (2) Glucose receptors
options. (3) Osmoreceptors
A. Epinephrine i. Increase in muscle (4) Renin receptors
growth
13. Which of the following hormone has no action
B. Testosterone ii. Decrease in blood on gene expression?
pressure
EN (1) Cortisol (2) Aldosterone
C. Glucagon iii. Decrease in liver
(3) Progesterone (4) Glucagon
glycogen content
D. Atrial natriuretic iv. Increase heart beat 14.
factor
Options
(1) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
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(2) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii

(3) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(4) A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii
9. Blood calcium level is a resultant of how much Which function is not related with above
A
dietary calcium is absorbed, how much calcium gland?
is lost in the urine, how much bone dissolution (1) Sugar metabolism
releasing calcium into the blood and how much (2) Fight or flight response NODE02\B0BA-BB\BIOLOGY AT ITS PEAK\ZOOLOGY_(RZC)\ENG\ZOOLOGY_ENGLISH(2)
calcium from blood enters in tissue. A number (3) Electrolyte balance

of factors play an important role in these (4) Ca2+ regulation
processes. Mark the one which has no role.
15. Select the correct matching of gland with
(1) Vitamin D
hormone and function
(2) Parathyroid hormone
Endocrine Hormone Function
(3) Thyrocalcitonin gland
(4) Thymosin
(1) Parathyroid Thyrocalcitonin Ca2+ regulation
10. All the following tissues in mammals except
one consists of a central 'medullary' region (2) Pancreas Insulin Hypoglycemia
surrounded by a cortical region. (3) Pineal Melanin Pigmentation
(1) Ovary (2) Adrenal
(4) Thymus Thyroxine Immunity
(3) Liver (4) Kidney
E
16. Which of the following statement is wrong 19. Which one of the following hormones interact
related to pituitary gland? with membrane-bound receptors ?
(1) Degeneration in neuron of posterior part (1) Iodothyronine
cause diabetes insipidus. (2) Estradiol
(2) Oxytocin is released from anterior pituitary (3) Glucagon
(3) Anterior pituitary is related with body (4) Cortisol
growth
20. ADH, responsible for reabsorption of water and
(4) Hypothalamus regulates posterior pituitary reduction of urine secretion, is synthesized by:-
directly
(1) Posterior pituitary gland
17.
(2) Juxtaglomerular apparatus
(3) Hypothalamus
(4) Anterior pituitary gland
21. Pick the odd one out from each given words
and then match it with the correct option.
EN I. Thyroid, Adrenal, Pituitary, Prostate
II. Cretinism, Goitre, Myxodema, Scurvy
The above gland X is not related with the III. Insulin, Blood sugar, Adrenaline,
following function :- Thyroxine
(1) Metabolism IV. Estrogen, Progesterone, Testosterone,
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(2) Metamorphosis Prolactin

(3) Erythropoiesis
(1) I-Prostate, II-Scurvy, III-Blood sugar,
(4) Immuno suppression
IV-Prolactin
18. Match the hormones given in column-I with the
A
(2) I-Adrenal, II-Goitre, III-Insulin,

terms given in column-II
IV-Prolactin
Column-I Column-II (3) I-Thyroid, II-Cretinism, III-Adrenaline,
A ADH I Pituitary IV-Estrogen
B ACTH II Mineralocorticoid (4) I-Pituitary, II-Myxodema, III-Thyroxine,

C Aldosterone III Diabetes mellitus IV-Progesterone
D Insulin IV Diabetes insipidus 22. The hormones that initiate ejection of milk,
stimulates milk production and growth of
Vasodilator in
E Adrenaline V ovarian follicles, are respectively known as :-
skeletal muscle
(1) PRL, OT Oxytocin and LH
(1) A–I, B–IV, C–II, D–III, E–V
(2) OT Oxytocin, PRL and FSH
(2) A–IV, B–II, C–I, D–III, E–V
(3) A–IV, B–I, C–II, D–III, E–V (3) LH, PRL and FSH
(4) A–IV, B–I, C–III, D–II, E–V (4) PRH, OT Oxytocin and LH
E
23. The given diagram represents the location of 25. The Hypophyseal portal system transports
human endocrine glands I, II, III, IV and V. releasing and inhibiting hormones from the
hypothalamus into which of the following parts
I
marked as I, II, III and IV ?
II
I
III
IV
Which of the following is correctly matched IV

with their secretions ?
Hormones Their secretions
III
I Melatonin
II Thymosin
II
III Epinephrine EN
IV Aldosterone
(1) I (2) II (3) III (4) IV
V Testosterone
26. Which endocrine gland secretes the hormone
(1) I, II and III only (2) I, IV and V only
that causes the abnormalities shown in the
(3) II, IV and V only (4) II, III and V only
below picture ?
24. The hormone released by label "X" in the given
figure helps to restore Y. Identify X and Y.
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2m
1m
A
X Y NODE02\B0BA-BB\BIOLOGY AT ITS PEAK\ZOOLOGY_(RZC)\ENG\ZOOLOGY_ENGLISH(2)
(1) Thyroxine Too much calcium in the

blood.
(2) PTH Lowered levels of calcium in (1) Hypothalamus
blood.
(2) Pancreas
(3) Thymosin Decreased level of blood
sugar. (3) Adenohypophysis
(4) Adrenaline Excessive loss of sodium in
extracellular fluid. (4) Neurohypophysis
BIOLOGY ANSWER KEY

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 2 2 4 3 3 3 2 4 3 1 3 4 4 2
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26
Ans. 2 4 3 3 3 1 2 2 2 2 3
E
HUMAN REPRODUCTION & REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH

1. In which year Indian government had legalized 7. Find out the option which represents incorrect
the MTP ? match :-
(1) 1973 (2) 1970 (1) Sertoli cells - Nutrition to the germ cells
(2) Male germ cells - by meiotic division form
(3) 1971 (4) 1917
sperms
2. MTP is considered safe up to how many weeks
(3) Interstitial cells - Secrete androgens
of pregnancy :-
(4) Immunologically competent cells present in
(1) Six weeks (2) Eight weeks
seminiferous tubules
(3) Twelve weeks (4) Eighteen week
8. How many structures are intratesticular:
3. Which one of the following is not a method of Rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis, vas
contraception :- deferens, ejaculatory duct. :-
(1) Multiload -375 (1) 2 (2) 3
(2) Condoms (3) 1 (4) 5
(3) Pills of combination of oxytocin and 9. Which one of the following gland release
vasopressin EN lubricant at the time of coitus ?
(4) Lippes loop (1) Seminal visicles
4. Which of the following is a wrong match (2) Bulbourethral glands
between the type of contraception and its (3) Prostate gland
function? (4) Both (1) and (3)
Contraceptive Method Function 10. In human females, ovaries are primary sex
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(1) Contraceptive pills –Suppress the secretions organs because :-

of gonadotropins (1) Produce female gametes
(2) Secrete Female sex hormones
(2) IUDs – Inhibit the implantation
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(3) Natural methods – Avoid chances of ovum &
(4) Have role in lactation
sperm meeting
A
11. Find out incorrect match :-

(4) Sterilisation – Inhibits gamete formation
(1) Ampulla - widest part of fallopian tube
5. Which one of the following can not be detected
(2) Cervix and vagina - Birth canal
in a developing foetus by amniocentesis ? (3) Uterine endometrium - non glandular

(1) Sex of the foetus (4) Uterus - Inverted pear shape
(2) Down Syndrome 12. Which one of the following structure is not a
(3) Metabolic disorders part of female external genitalia :-
(4) Cleft palate (1) Labia majora (2) Labia minora
6. Which one of the following statement is not (3) Hymen (4) Cervical canal
correct about testis ? 13. Which hormone regulates spermatogenesis and
(1) About 250 testicular lobules in each testes also binds to receptors of leydig cells :-
(2) Spermatogonia are the immature male germ (1) Luteinizing hormone
cells of testes. (2) Testosterone
(3) Width of testes is about 4 cm to 5 cm. (3) Follicle stimulating hormone
(4) Testes are extra abdominal in human males. (4) Progesterone
E
14. Which statement is not true about oogenesis :- 19. Which one of the following hormone mainly
(1) Follicular atresia occurs due to apoptosis helps in parturition . :-
(2) Granulosa cells form 2 layers : Theca interna (1) Progesterone
and theca externa. (2) Thyroid hormone
(3) The cumulus oophorus is derived from a layer (3) Oxytocin
of granulosa cells surrounding the oocyte. (4) Luteinizing hormone
(4) oocyte goes through the 2nd meiotic division 20. Blood flowing in the umbilical cord of
before being released from the ovary. mammalian embryo is :-
15. Match the hormone in column I with their (1) 100% foetal
function in column II :- (2) 50% maternal and 50% foetal
(3) 100% maternal
Column-I Column-II
(4) 75% foetal and 25% maternal
Increases secretory nature of 21. Drugs such as thalidomide taken by woman in
(a) FSH (p)
endometrium
first trimester of pregnancy cause all the
Develops female secondary sexual following malformations in the developing
(b) LH (q)
characters embryo except:-
(c) Progesterone (r) Contraction of uterine wall (1) Limb deformity
(2) Teratogenesis
(d) Estrogen (s)
(t)
Development of corpus luteum
Follicular development
EN (3) Phocomelia
(4) Heart disorders
(1) a-t, b-s, c-p, d-q (2) a-s, b-t, c-q, d-p
(3) a-s, b-r, c-q, d-t (4) a-t, b-p, c-q, d-s 22. Secretions from which one of the following are
rich in fructose, calcium and some enzymes :-
16. Which one of the following is incorrect
matching pair :- (1) Liver
LL
(1) Development of corpus luteum- In secretory (2) Pancreas

phase (3) Salivary glands
(2) Menstrual flow - Break down of (4) Male accessory glands
myometrium
23. In which of the following method of
(3) Ovulation - LH and FSH attain peak level
A
(4) Proliferative phase - maturation of graffian contraception no medicines devices are used?
follicle (1) Lactational amenorrhea
17. Which one of the following acrosomal enzyme
dissolve the zona pellucida of ovum. :- (2) Coitus withdrawal
(1) Hyaluronidase (3) Periodic abstinence

(2) Acrosin
(3) Corona penetrating enzyme (4) All of the above
(4) Erepsin 24. Which contraceptive method inhibit ovulation
18. Placenta acts as an endocrine structure and
and implantation as well as after the quality of
produce several harmones like :-
(a) Human chorionics gonadotropin (hCG) cervical mucus to prevent/retard entry of
(b) Human placental lactogen (hPL)
sperm?
(c) Estrogen
(d) Progesterone (1) Copper T
(e) LH (2) Oral contraceptives
Select the correct option
(1) a and b only (2) b only (3) Condoms
(3) a, b, c and e (4) a, b, c and d (4) cervical cap
E
25. Which hormones is not involved in progress 30. The figure given below shows a flowchart on
of induction of parturition? spermatogenesis. Identify the correct label
(1) Cortisol marked as A, B, C and D.
Chromosomes
(2) Estrogen Number
At Puberty Per Cell
(3) Oxytocin Spermatogoni
46
(4) Prolactin A
26. Oral contraceptive pills act- Primary spermatocytes
(1) By preventing sperm motility B

(2) By preventing ovulation
Secondary spermatocytes
23
(3) By inhibiting motility of cilia of fallopian tube
C
(4) All of the above
Spermatids
23
27. Which event does not occur if fertilization not
occur in menstrual cycle.
Spermatozoa (D)
(1) Progesterone is decreased after 22nd day.
(1) A : first meiotic division; B : second meiotic
(2) Corpus luteum degenerates.
EN
(3) Degeneration and shedding of endometrium.
division; C : Differentiation; D : 23.
(2) A : second meiotic division; B : Differentiation;
(4) Degeneration of ovary C : first meiotic division; D : 46.
28. The male sex accessory ducts include (3) A : Differentiation; B : second meiotic
(1) Rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis, division; C : first meiotic division; D : 46.
LL
bulbourethral, prostate (4) A : Mitosis differentiation; B : first meiotic

(2) vasa efferentia, epididymis, seminal vesicle division; C : second meiotic division; D : 23.
31. Study the given statement and answer the
(3) vas deference, rete testis, vasa efferentia,
question. If pregnancy doesn't happen,
epididymis
A
"During 'P' phase of the menstrual cycle, the

(4) epididymis, seminal vesicle, vas deference,
'Q' starts to degenerate usually around day 22
vasa efferentia in a 28-day cycle. The drop in 'R' levels causes
29. Find the incorrect statement? the lining of the uterus to fall away. This is
(1) hCG, hPL and relaxin are produced in known as 's'.
women only during pregnancy Identify P, Q, R and S.

(1) P Menstrual, Q Graafian follicle,
(2) Blastocyst is embedded in the endometrium
R Estrogen, S Menarche
of the uterus and it leads to pregnancy
(2) P Luteal, Q Corpus luteum,
(3) The first sign of growing fetus may be R Progesterone, S Menstruation
noticed by listening to the heart sound (3) P Ovulatory, Q Endometrium,
carefully through the stethoscope. R Follicle stimulating hormone,
(4) The first movement of fetus & appearance S Menopause
of hair in the head are observed during 6th (4) P Follicular, Q Secondary oocyte,
month. R Luteinizing hormone, S Menstruation
E
32. The given diagram shows a human female's 37. Fertilization can only occurs if :-
reproductive system. Select the part (labelled (1) Sperm reaches to the ampullary – isthmic
as A, B, C & D) where semen is released into junction before the ovum.
the female by the penis during copulation. (2) Ovum reaches to the ampullary – isthmic
junction before sperm.
B
(3) Sperms are transported to the uterus and
ovum to the fallopian tube simultaneously.
(4) Sperms and ovum are transported
A
simultaneously to the ampulla
38. The given figure shows the male reproductive
C
system. Some structures are marked as A, B,
C and D. Identify the structure whose removal
D
will cause lack of lubrication during coitus.
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
33. The placenta is formed from the ________ of A
EN B
the embryo and the ________ of the mother :-
C
(1) uterus, trophoblast
(2) chorion, endometrium
(3) endometrium, chorion
D
(4) inner cell mass, endometrium
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
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34. ________ is a sticky white or yellow fluid 39. Given below is a diagramatic sketch of a portion
secreted by the breast during the second half of human male reproductive system. Select the
of pregnancy and for a few days after birth, correct set of the names of the parts marked as
before breast milk comes in :- A, B, C and D.
A
(1) Placenta (2) Colostrum

(3) Egg yolk (4) Blood cells A
B
35. Which of the following is not a paired structure C
in male ? D
(1) Urethra (2) Vas deferens
(3) Epididymis (4) Ejaculatory duct
36. Study the statement given below and answer
the question. "Vigorous contraction of the 'X'
at the end of the 'Y' causes expulsion of the A B C D
foetus." Identify X and Y :- (1) Ureter Seminal Prostate Bulbourethral
vesicle
(1) X - Vagina ; Y - Fertilisation (2) Ureter Prostateq Seminal Bulbourethral
vesicle gland
(2) X - Uterus ; Y - Pregnancy
(3) Vas Seminal Prostate Bulbourethral
(3) X - Placenta ; Y - Implantation deferens vesicle gland
(4) Vas Seminal Bulbourethral prostate
(4) X - Embryo ; Y - Ovulation deferens gland
E
40. Given below is the diagrammatic sectional view 42. Which of the following hormone/hormones
of seminfiferous tubule with their parts marked is/are released during pregnancy ?
as A, B, C and D. Select the option which shows (1) hCG
the correct identification of the structure with (2) hPL
its characteristics. (3) Relaxin
(4) All of the above
A
43. The figure given below shows the various
B
events occurring during a menstrual cycle with
C
few structures marked as A, B, C and D. Which
D of the following options shows the correct
(1) A : Spermatozoa, secretes testicular labeling ?
hormones that control spermatogenesis
(2) B : Spermatogonium, it is also called germ
call which undergo meiotic divisions
A
finally leading to sperm formation.
spaces and store and transport the sperms

from the testis to the outside through th
EN
(3) C : Interstitial cells, present in the interstitial
B
urethra.
(4) D : Sertoli cells, it maintains low temperature
of the testis.
LL
41. Identify the figure(A) show sectional view Menses

below and match with its characteristics (B) and Days
its location (C).
C D E
A
(1) A LH, B Ovulation, C Menstruation,
D Proliferative phase, E Luteal phase

(2) A FSH, B Implantation,

A B C
C Follicular phase,
(1) Graafian Involved in Ovary
follicle the formation D Menstruation phase, E Luteal phase
of ovum
(2) Seminiferous Involved in Testis (3) A Estrogen, B Parturition,
tubule the formation
of sperm C Luteal phase, D-Follicular phase,
(3) Ovum Process of Graafian E-Follicular phase
surrounded fertilization follicle
by sperm (4) A Progesterone, B Fertilization,
(4) Mammary Involved in Female
gland milk reproductive C Menstruation phase,
secretion system
D Secretory phase, E-Follicular phase
E
44. The given diagram shows the uterine tubes of 46. The given figure shows one of the elements
four women (P, Q, R and S). releasing intrauterine device. Select the option
complete blockage which shows the correct identification of the
partial blockage
device and its feature :-
complete blockage complete blockage
(1) CuT; suppress sperm motility and its

In which two women is fertilization impossible
fertilizing capacity.
at present?
(1) P and Q (2) Q and R (2) CuT; make uterus unsuitable for the
(3) R and S (4) S and P attachment of blastocysts.
45. In the given figure which marked number (3) Lippes loop; protect the users from
(1, 2, 3, 4) is operated for terminal contraception. contracting AIDS and STDs.
(4) LNG-20; acts as spermicidal means and
EN decrease the contraceptive efficiency.
2
LL
3
4
A
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
BIOLOGY ANSWER KEY

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 3 3 4 4 3 4 1 2 3 3 4 1 2 1
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 2 2 4 3 1 4 4 4 2 4 2 4 3 4 4
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 2 4 2 2 1 2 4 4 3 2 2 4 1 3 1
Que. 46
Ans. 1
E
HUMAN HEALTH & DISEASE

1. Choose the correct pair :- 5. Neoplastic transformation by DNA damage can
(1) Physical barrier – HCl in stomach, saliva in be brought about by several factors. Choose the
mouth factors which lead to oncogenic transformation
(2) Cellular barrier – PMNL, NK cells within exposed cells :-
(3) Physiological barrier – Mucosa of gut, and
(a) U.V. rays (b) X-rays
urinogenital tract
(4) Cytokine barrier – Exotoxins (c) Gamma-rays (d) Tobacco smoke
2. Thalassemic child needed repeated blood (e) Retrovirus

transfusions, got infected by HIV and it (1) a, b, c (2) a, b, c, d
deteriorated child's immunity. Read the following
questions :- (3) a, b, d (4) b, d
(A) HIV virus attacks which types of cells ? 6. Read the following paragraph containing four
(B) Why did the increased number of the HIV blanks, A, B, C, D. Non-ionizing radiation like
virus deteriorate child's immunity ?EN A cause DNA damage leading to neo plastic
(C) Which cells is/are called as HIV factory ? transformation. B is the most feared property
(D) Which test showed that the infective virus of malignant tumors. Computed tomography
is HIV ? uses C to generate a three dimensional image
Choose the option with all correct answers for of the internal of an object. D uses strong
A, B, C, D :- magnetic fields and non-ionizings rediations to
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(1) A - T4 cells, B - HIV destroys T4 cells and accurately detect pathological and physiological
macrophages, C - macrophages, D - ELISA changes in the living tissue :-
(2) A - T4 and macrophages, B - HIV depletes
Choose the option which correctly fill in the
macrophages, C - Helper T-cells, D - ELISA
blanks A, B, C, D.
A
(3) A - T4 cells with CD4 receptors, B - HIV

depletes T 4 cells count, C - Macrophage,
A B C D
D - ELISA
(1) UV rays Metastasis X-rays CT

(4) A - T4 cells, B - HIV depletes all T4 cells, (2) X-rays Metastasis X-rays MRI
C - Helper T cells, D - Western blot
(3) UV rays Metastasis X-rays MRI
3. There is always a time lag between the infection
(4) UV rays Contact X-rays MRI
and appearance of AIDS symptoms. This inhibition
period may vary from :-
(1) 5 to 10 years (2) 1 - 2 months 7. Sexually transmitted disease is :-
(3) 3 - 4 months (4) 5 - 10 months (1) Hepatitis A
4. The AIDS virus has :- (2) Hepatitis B
(1) ds DNA (2) ds RNA (3) Hepatitis E
(3) ss RNA (4) ss DNA (4) Filariasis
E
8. Find correct match :- 12. The diagram given here is the standard ECG of
a normal person. The P wave represent the :-
Column-I Column-II
R
(A) Gynaecomastia (i) AA + XO
(B) Turner's (ii) AA + XXY P T
syndrome Q S
(C) Down's (iii) Autosomal

syndrome recessive gene (1) Initiation of the ventricular contraction
(D) Thalassemia (iv) AA + 1 + XX/XY (2) Ending of ventricular systole

(1) A - (ii), B - (i), C - (iv), D - (iii) (3) Atrial repolarisation
(2) A - (ii), B - (i), C - (iii), D - (iv)
(4) Contraction of both the atria
(3) A - (i), B - (ii), C - (iv), D - (iii)
13. Match these columns with regard to innate
(4) A - (iv), B - (i), C - (ii), D - (iii) immunity:
9. Which of the following STD cannot be cured
EXAMPLE BARRIER
by antibiotics ?
(1) Chlamydiasis (2) Gonorrhea

EN (A ) Gastric juice, saliva, (i)
tears & sweat
Cytokine
(3) Genital herpes (4) Syphilis (first stage) (B ) Interferons (ii) Physical
10. In a standard ECG, which one of the following (C ) Mucosa & skin (iii) Cellular
alphabets is the correct representation of the
LL
(D ) PMNL-Neutrophils (iv) Physiological
respective activity of the human heart ? monocyte, NK-Cell
(1) S-start of systole

(1) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
(2) T-end of diastole
(2) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
A
(3) P-depolarisation of the atria

(3) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
(4) R-repolorisation of the ventricles
(4) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii
11. Given below is the ECG of a normal human.

Which one of its components is correctly 14. Find out the incorrect matching of disease,
interpreted below ?
pathogen and mode of transmission:
R
Disease Pathogen Transmission
P Q S T (1) Common Rhino virus Droplet infection
cold
(1) Peak P and peak R together - systolic and
(2) Malaria Plasmodium Female Aedes
diastolic blood pressure mosquito
(2) Peak P - initiation of left atrial contraction only (3) Pneumonia Streptococcus Droplet infection
(3) Complex QRS - one complete pulse pneumoniae
(4) Typhoid Salmonella Contaminated
(4) Peak T - initiation of total cardiac contraction typhi food & water
E
15. Read the following statements (A-D) 19. Consider the given statements and select the
(A) Haemophilus influenzae infects the alveoli true ones :-
of lungs. (A) Health could be defined as a state of
complete physical , mental and social well
(B) Intestinal perforation and death may occur
being.
in severe cases of typhoid
(B) Pathogens can enter our body by various
(C) Rhino virus infect the nose and respiratory means, multiply and not interfere with
passage but not the lungs normal vital activities.
(D) Symptoms of amoebiasis are abdominal (C) Salmonella typhi is a pathogenic virus
pain and cramps, stool with excess mucous which causes typhoid fever.
and blood clots. (D) Plague and diphtheria are bacterial diseases
in man.
How many of the above statements are correct ?
(1) A and B (2) C and D
(1) One (2) Two
(3) A and D (4) A,C and D
(3) Three (4) Four
20. How many diseases are caused by bacteria?
16. Withdrawal symptoms are characterized by :- Common cold, Pneumonia, Malaria, Dengue,
(a) Reckless behavior (b) Anxiety Leshmaniasis, Typhoid, Chikungunya, Tetanus
(c) Nausea (d) Vandalism EN (1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 6 (4) 2
(e) Sweating (f) Violence 21. Select the symptoms of the disease caused by
(g) Shakiness round worm :-
(1) a,d,f (2) a,d,e,g (1) Internal bleeding and scaly lesions on
(3) b,c,e,g (4) d,e,f various parts of body
17. Choose the incorrect statement from the (2) Muscular pain and sustained high fever
LL
following : (3) Fever, anemia and internal bleeding

(1) The cell mediated immune response is (4) Blockage of the intestinal passage and
responsible for graft rejection sustained high fever
(2) Metastasis is the most feared property of 22. Which of the following diseases are caused by
A
malignant tumour protozoans?

(3) Cocaine and L.S.D. are sedatives (1) Ringworm and amoebic dysentery
(4) T-cells do not form antibody but help B-cells (2) Malaria and trichomoniasis
produce them (3) Genital warts and Chlamydiasis

18. Which one of the following statements is (4) Amoebic dysentry and genital herpes
incorrect? 23. Identify the correct option :-
(1) The injection containing preformed Disease Symptoms Caused by
antibodies provide passive immunity to the - increase in appetite Salmonella
(1) Typhoid
host. - chill and high fever typhii
(2) Hepatitis-B vaccine is produced from yeast - cough and headache Streptococcus
Pneumonia and
(2) - in severe cases the lips may pneumoniae
common cold
by recombination DNA technology turn gray to bluish in color
(3) The causative agent of AIDS, HIV (3) Filariasis

- slowly developing chronic Wuchereria
inflammation of the organs malayi
retrovirus enters helper T-lymphocytes thus
Progressive decrease
reducing their number Bacterium
(4) AIDS in the number of helper
T-lymphocytes
(4) Cannabinoids are always taken by injection.
E
24. Which of the following option is correct for 28. Which of the following option properly define
cancer?
innate immunity?
(1) Cells of malignant tumor grow very rapidly,
invading and damaging the surrounding (1) Immunity that is pathogen specific
normal tissue (2) Immunity that is produced by artificial method
(2) Benign tumor does not exhibit the locality (3) Immunity that is nonspecific for pathogen
character
(3) Cancer cells show metagenesis (4) Immunity that is specific but present at the
(4) All of the above time of birth
25. Which of the following option is true for 29. Identify the molecules (a) and (b) given below
opioids ?
and select the right option giving their source
(1) They bind to specific opioid receptors
present in nervous system and use.
(2) Obtained from Papaver somniferum
(3) Obtained from coca plant CH3
N
(4) Both (1) and (2) O
26. Choose the incorrect option :- CH3
(1) Response of antibodies is also called O
humoral immune response (a) H
O
(2) Colostrum provide passive immunity
(3) Blymphocytes produces an army of protein
in response to pathogens in our blood to
EN H O
fight against them.

OH
(4) Spleen, tonsils and Peyer's patches of
small intestine and appendix are primary
lymphoid organs (b)
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O
27. Match the following columns and choose the H
correct answer from the options given below :-
Column I Column II Molecule Source Use
(1) (a) Cocaine Erythroxylum Accelerates
A Physical barrier i PMNL coca the transport
A
of dopamine
B Physiological barrier ii Interferons (2) (b) Heroin Cannab is Depressant
sativa and slows
C Cellular barrier iii Acid in stomach
down body
Mucus coating of functions

D Cytokine barrier iv (3) (b) Cannabinoid Atropa Produces
epithelial lining
belladona hallucinations
A B C D (4) (a) Morphine Papaver Sedative and
(1) iv iii i ii somniferum pain killer
(2) iv i ii iii
(3) iii ii iv i
(4) ii iv iii I
BIOLOGY ANSWER KEY

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 3 1 3 2 3 2 1 3 3 3 4 3 2 4
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29
Ans. 3 3 4 3 2 3 2 3 1 4 4 1 3 4
E
EVOLUTION
1. Theory of natural selection given by Darwin 7. When more than one adaptive radiation
is based on :- appeared to have occured in an isolated
(1) Inheritance of acquired characters geographical area, it is called as :-
(2) Random mutation (1) Divergent evolution
(3) Use and disuse of organs (2) Convergent evolution
(3) Anthropogenic evolution
(4) Enormous power of fertility in organisms,
(4) Saltation
struggle for existence and survival of fittest
8. Tasmanian wolf and placental wolf appear
2. The first cellular form of life possibly originated
similar due to :-
about :- (1) Chemical evolution
(1)1000 mya (2) 2500 mya (2) Divergent evolution
(3) 2000 mya (4) 1500 mya (3) Biochemical evolution
3. Select the correct option among the following (4) Convergent evolution
statements :- 9. "Darwin's finches" are an excellent example of:-
(a) The fitness, according to Darwin, refers (1) Connecting links (2) Adaptive radiation
ultimately and only to reproductive fitness (3) Seasonal migration (4) Brood parasitism
(b) Those who are better fit in an environment,
EN 10. Similarities in organism with different genotype
leave more progeny than others. indicates :-
(c) Alfred Wallace, a biochemist worked in (1) Micro evolution
(2) Macro evolution
Malay Archipelago.
(3) Divergent evolution
(d) The geological history of earth closely
(4) Convergent evolution
correlates with the biological history of
11. Select the correct matching pair from column-I
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earth.
and column-II :-
(1) Only a and c (2) Only a, b and c
(3) Only a, b and d (4) Only b, c and d Column-I Column-II
4. Archaeopteryx is the connecting link between :- 1 Darwin's finches Galapagos island
(1) Reptiles and mammals of South America
A
(2) Reptiles and birds 2 Bandicoot Placental

(3) Annelids and arthropods mammal
(4) Amphibians and fishes
3 Analogous Similar in origin
5. All the following are examples of homologous structures

organs except :-
4 Bobcat Marsupial
(1) Arm of man and flipper of whale
mammal
(2) Brain of vertebrates
(3) Eye of an octopus and eye of a mammal 12. Read the names of animals given below and
(4) Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of select the correct option with respect to their
cucurbita category and the type of evolution they
represent :-
6. The convergent evolution of two species is
Sugar glider, Koala, Wombat, Flying squirrel,
usually associated with :-
Tiger cat and Bobcat :-
(1) Analogous organs (1) 4 are marsupial - convergent evolution
(2) Different habitat (2) 5 are marsupial - parallel evolution
(3) Homologous organs (3) 4 are marsupial - geographical isolation
(4) A recent common ancestor (4) 4 are marsupial - adaptive radiation
E
13. Read the following statements and answer as 17. Find out correct matching pair between
per instructions : column-I and II :-
(a) Mutations are random and directionless Column-I Column-II
(b) According to Darwin, evolution is a single Human ancestor Cranial capcity
step process.
(a) Homo habilis (i) 900cc
(c) Stabilising natural selection divides the
population into two populations. (b) Neanderthal man (ii) 1600cc
(d) Seed ferns are the ancestors of monocots
(c) Homo erectus (iii) 650-800cc
and dicots.
How many of above statements are correct ? (d) Cromagnon man (iv) 1400cc
(1) One (2) Two (3) Four (4) Three (1) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i (2) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
14. Select the wrong one from the given statements. (3) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i (4) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(a) Some land reptiles went back into water to 18. The story of evolution of modern man in
respect to brain and language appears as :-
evolve into fish like reptiles probably
(1) Convergent evolution (2) Adaptive radiation
200 mya.
(3) Divergent evolution (4) Parallel evolution
(b) Sauropsids rise to modern days reptiles and 19. Read the following statements and select the is
mammals. correct one :-
(c) About 65mya the dinosaurs suddenly
disappeared from the earth.
(d) The first mammals were like whales.
EN (1) Evolution is not a stochastic process.
(2) Stegosaurus had 3 rows of bony plates on its
back
Options : (3) Dryopithecus was more ape-like while
(1) a and b (2) c and d Ramapithecus was more man-like
(4) The evolution of fish like reptiles
(3) b and d (4) a and c
Ichthyosaurs took 300 mya
LL
15. Select the correct option for the given

20. Select the match between column I and II :-
statements :-
Column-I Column-II
(a) Natural selection is based on certain
observations which are factual. The first cellular form
(b) The essence of Darwinian theory about (1) 3000 million years ago
of life appeared
A
evolution is natural selection

(c) Acquired characters do not inherit, (2) Neanderthal Man brain size -1400cc
according to Lamarck (3) Dinosaurs extinction about 75 mya NODE02\B0BA-BB\BIOLOGY AT ITS PEAK\ZOOLOGY_(RZC)\ENG\ZOOLOGY_ENGLISH(2)
(d) Hugo de-vries believed in single step large

(4) Louis Pasteur Theory of special creation
mutation
21. Select the correct option which is right match
Options :
between column-I and column-II :-
(1) Only a and b (2) Only c and d
Column-I Column-II
(3) Only b and c (4) Only a, b and d
Golden period of Ancestor of
16. Which of the following statement is correct ? (A )
fishes
(i)
mammals
(1) Homo erectus lived in east and central Asia (B) Analogous organs (ii) Tool maker man
and used hides to protect their bodies
(C) Homo habilis (iii) Similar in function
(2) Agriculture came around 18000 yrs back
(D ) Synapsids (iv) Devonian period
(3) The skull of modern human resembles more
closely to baby chimpanzee than adult (1) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
chimpanzee (2) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
(4) Australopithecus probably lived in North (3) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
America. (4) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii
E
22. Which one of the following factors cannot 29. The Oparin-Haldane theory was experimentally
affect Hardy Weinberg's equilibrium? proved by:
(1) Natural selection (1) Darwin (2) Miller
(2) Mutation (3) Pasteur (4) deVries
(3) Genetic drift 30. Darwin’s finches are an example of:
(4) Random mating (1) Adaptive radiation
23. The forelimbs of various mammals perform (2) Convergent evolution
different functions according to their habitat (3) Retrogressive evolution
but still they have same patterns of bones within (4) Artificial selection
their anatomy. This is an example of: 31. Which among the following has largest brain
(1) Analogous organs that have evolved due capacity?
to divergent evolution (1) Australopithecus
(2) Homologous organs that have evolved (2) Homo habilis
due to convergent evolution (3) Neanderthal man
(3) Homologous organs that have evolved (4) Homo erectus
due to divergent evolution 32. Which is a character of Neanderthal man?
(4) Analogous organs that have evolved due (1) First human-like being
to convergent evolution (2) Brain capacity 900cc
24. A population may get deviation from EN (3) They buried their dead
Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, if it: (4) They started agriculture
(1) Shows random mating 33. The given diagram represents Miller's
(2) Doesn’t show gene migration experiment. Choose the correct combination
(3) Shows natural selection for labellings A, B, C and D :-
(4) Doesn’t show gene recombination
25. A process in which organisms of different A
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origin, develop similar adaptations towards a

common habitat, is called as:
(2) Convergent evolution Spark
(3) Adaptive radiation D discharge
A
(4) Natural selection

Mixture
26. If change in gene frequencies in a population
of gases Water out
occurs by chance, than it is called as: (B)
(1) Natural selection (2) Gene flow

Water in
(3) Gene migration (4) Genetic drift
27. In a population of 2000 individuals, 500 belong
to genotype AA, 500 to aa and remaining to Aa. Water containing
What is the frequency of allele A in this Boiling organic compound
water C
population?
(1) 0.3 (2) 0.5 (3) 0.6 (4) 0.25 (1) A-Electrodes, B-NH 3 +H2 +H2O+CH4 ,
28. Which of the following are analogous C-liquid water in trap, D-Vacuum pump
structures? (2) A-Electrodes, B-NH3 +H2+CO2+CH4 ,
(1) Forelimbs of mammals C-liquid water in trap, D-Vacuum pump
(2) Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of (3) A-Electrodes, B-NH3 +H2O,
cucurbita C-liquid water in trap, D-Tap
(3) Eye of octopus and Eye of mammals. (4) A-Electrodes, B-NH3 +O2+H2O + CH4 ,
(4) All of the above C-liquid water in trap, D-Vacuum pump
E
34. The diversity within the wild bird species in the 36. Following is the diagrammatic representation
diagram below can be best explained by which of the operation of natural selection of different
process? traits. Which of the following option correctly
identifies all the three graphs A, B and C.
Peak gets higher
and narrower
Phenotypes
(A)
Number of individuals
favoured by
natural Medium-sized
with phenotype
Common Ancestor Peak shifts in
selection individuals
on direction
are favoured
(B)
Two peaks form
(1) Natural selection

(2) Ecological succession (C)
(3) Adaptive radiation
(4) Both (1) and (3) EN A B C
35. The given diagram of marsupials of Australia (1) Directional Stabilising Disruptive
provides an example of :- (2) Stabilising Directional Disruptive
(3) Disruptive Stabilising Directional
(4) Directional Disruptive Stabilising
Flying Tasmanian
phalanger wolf Banded
anteater
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Australian
Marsupials
Koala
Marsupial rat
Kangaroo
A
(1) Convergent evolution

(2) Parallel evolution NODE02\B0BA-BB\BIOLOGY AT ITS PEAK\ZOOLOGY_(RZC)\ENG\ZOOLOGY_ENGLISH(2)
(3) Recapitulation
BIOLOGY ANSWER KEY

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 4 3 3 2 3 1 2 4 2 4 1 4 2 3 4
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 3 2 4 3 2 1 4 3 3 2 4 2 3 2 1
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36
Ans. 3 3 1 4 4 2
E
DOMESTICATION OF ANIMAL
1. Which of the following method of breeding 6. Find out the correct match from the following
increases the homozygosity ? table :-
(1) Inbreeding (2) Out-breeding Column-I Column-II Column-III
(3) Cross- breeding (4) Out- crossing (i) Apis indica Indian mona Mild in
2. What is the main aim of animal breeding in bee nature
animal husbandry ?
(ii) Apis dorsata Bhringa bee Aggressive
(1) Increasing the yield of animals
nature
(2) Increasing the number of animals
(iii) Apis mellifera European bee M ild in na ture
(3) Improving the desirable qualities of the
produce (1) (i) only (2) (i) and (ii)
(4) Both (1) and (3) (3) (i) and (iii) (4) only (iii)
3. How many fishes in the list given below are 7. Consider the following four statements (a-d)
marine? and select the option which includes all the
correct ones only :-
Catla, Pomfret, Salmon, Hilsa, Rohu, EN
Mackerel, Sardine (a) Poultry farm include, chicken, ducks, turkey
and geese.
(1) Six (2) Three
(b) Fisheries has an important place in Indian
(3) Four (4) Five
economy.
4. Which of the following process helps in
(c) Stilbestrol is synthetic progesterone and
overcome several problems of normal mating?
induces lactation in sterile animals
LL
(1) Out-crossing (d) The care & management of pigs is called as

(2) MOET PIGGERY
(3) Artificial insemination Option:
(4) Hypophysation (1) Statements (b), (c) and (d)
A
5. Match the column-A with column - B and find (2) Statements (a), (b) and (d)
the correct answer ? (3) Statements (c) and (d)
(4) Statements (a), (c) and (d)
Column -A Column -B
(A) Pebrine (i) Aspergillus 8. Read the following four statements (a – d) :

disease flavus (a) Fisheries include rearing, catching and
(B) Aflatoxicosis (ii) Bacillus selling of fishes, mollusca etc.
anthrasis (b) More then 70 percent of the world livestock
(C) Foot and (iii) Nosema bombysis population is in India and China.
mouth disease (c) Milk yield is primarily dependent on the
(D) Anthrax (iv) Picorna virus quality of breeds in the farm.
(d) The feeding of cattle should be carried out
(1) A - iv, B - iii C - ii D-i
in scientific manner.
(2) A - iii, B-i C - ii D - iv
How many of the above statements are right ?
(3) A - iii, B-i C - iv D - ii
(1) Four (2) One
(4) A - iv, B-i C - iii D - ii (3) Two (4) Three
E
9. Find out the correct match from the following 12. Which disease causing agent may drastically
table :- affect the production of poultry farm?
(1) Virus (2) Insects
Column-I Column-II Column-III
(3) Protozoa (4) Helminthis
(i) Mulberry Bombyx Mulberry 13. Out-crossing is a strategy of animal breeding
silk mori
programmes, which is done :
(ii) Eri silk Antheria Castor (1) To expose the harmful recessive genes
roylei
(2) To Accumulate the beneficial genes
(iii) Muga silk Antheria Oak (3) To remove the inbreeding depression
assama
(4) To increase homozygosity in animals
(1) Only (ii) (2) (ii) and (iii) 14. Cross-breeding is mating of:
(3) (i) and (iii) (4) Only (i) (1) Animal of two different breeds of different
10. If the food source is in the direction of sun and species
distance is about 90 metre from hive, then honey (2) Animals of two different breeds of same
bee will convey the direction by :- species
(1) Clockwise round dance EN (3) Superior animals of same breed
(4) Superior animals of two different species
(2) Upright down tail waging dance
15. Among the following edible fishes which is a
(3) Anticlockwise round dance
fresh water fish?
(4) Opposite to 2 option (1) Catla (2) Hilsa
11. Which one of the following pair is mismatched? (3) Sardines (4) Mackerel
LL
(1) Apis – Beewax (2) Bombyx – Silk

(3) Leghorn – Eggs (4) Musca – Honey
A
BIOLOGY ANSWER KEY

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 4 4 3 3 3 2 1 3 4 4 1 3 2 1
E
E
A
LL
IMPORTANT NOTES
EN
REVISION OF ZOOLOGY CONCEPT (RZC)
65

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REVISION OF ZOOLOGY CONCEPT (RZC) Serial Page

1. Structural organisation in animals 01-07

2. Animal Kingdom 08-12

3. Digestion and Absorption 13-18

4. Breathing and Exchange of Gases 19-24

5. Body Fluids and Circulation 25-29

6. Excretory products and Their elimination 30-35

Neural control and Coordination

9. Chemical Coordination and Integration 45-48

Reproductive Health 49-54

11. Human Health & Disease 55-58

12. Evolution 59-62

13. Domestication of Animal 63-64

REVISION OF ZOOLOGY CONCEPT (RZC)

(1) Columnar (2) Squamous

5. Which of the following junctions help to stop

(1) Adhering junction (2) Gap junction (1) Mast cells

6. Presence of tissue in a multicellular organism (3) Macrophages

(3) Bile (4) Blood corpuscles

28. The length of alimentary canal of an adult (3) Compound eyes

(1) Long, as it is carnivore

B Ciliated II Inner lining of

(3) A – IV; B – I; C – II, D – III

X (3) Avian compact bone

Select the option which shows the correct

(3) A-Ocellus, B-Compound eye, C-Mandible,

D-Maxilla, E-Labium, F-Labrum

(4) A-Ocellus, B-Compound eye, C-Maxilla, B

46. The given figure shows the digestive system of

Pharynx 48. Identify the figure with its correct function :-

Colon (3) Dense regular tissue - Provide flexibility

BIOLOGY ANSWER KEY

(1) Autotrophs and live as predators pseudocoelomate

(3) Mumps (4) Malaria

(1) Arthropoda (3) Presence of oil gland at the base of tail

(2) Echinodermata (4) Presence of scales on hind limbs

22. Match the column-I and column-II and select

(4) These animals are gregarious in habit

A Saw fish i Magur (1) Aves (2) Reptilia

(3) Mammalia (4) Amphibia

circulatory system Gnathostomata

41. Study the given animal and select the correct A B C

(1) It respires by tracheal system

(4) A-Male Ascaris, B-Nereis,

(4) Adamsia Aurelia Pleurobrachia Cnidoblast

43. Examine the figures A, B and C. In which one

(3) A-Echinus, B-Octopus, C-Ophiura

(4) A-Ophiura, B-Echinus, C-Octopus

NODE02\B0BA-BB\BIOLOGY AT ITS PEAK\ZOOLOGY_(RZC)\ENG\ZOOLOGY_ENGLISH(1)

BIOLOGY ANSWER KEY

DIGESTION AND ABSORPTION

(iv) Indigestion (d) A feeling of nausea

(3) Lungs (4) Kidney (4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(a) Scatole gives foul odour to the faeces.

(c) Serosa is made up by tunica adventitia and

(c) Secretion of 11. What is the correct function of enterokinase ?

B 13. Lysozyme is secreted through :-

(1) Teniae coli Haustra

regarding digestion and absorption of food in (1) A – III; B – IV; C – II, D – I

proenzyme pepsinogen. 20. The given figure shows a section of small

(4) Chylomicrons are small lipoprotein figure ?

(2) Large intestine Oesophagus Stomach take place.

intestine Oesophagus (1) Diarrhoea (2) Vomiting