ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 10 NĂM HỌC 2021-2022

Môn: TIẾNG ANH
SECTION B: VOCABULARY, GRAMMAR, READING AND WRITING (80 POINTS)
PART A: PHONETICS (1.0/20 POINTS)
I. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation.
1. A. rejection B. regardless C. represent D. religiously
2. A. assessment B. passages C. passionate D. pessimism
II. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from
the rest in the position of the main stress.
3. A. amicable B. agreeable C. admirable D. arguable
4. A. position B. financial C. creative D. personnel
5. A. negative B. condition C. impartial D. descendent
PART B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (7.0/20 POINTS)
I. Choose the correct answer (A, B, C, or D) to complete each sentence below. Write your
answers in the numbered boxes. (3.0 points)
1. He has impressed his employers considerably and _____ he is soon to be promoted.
A. nevertheless       B. accordingly          C. yet                    D. eventually
2. The climbers sought _____ from the storm.
A. escape B. refuge C. solace D. defence
3. The more expensive carpet is a good choice _____ it will last longer.
A. by means of B. due to C. in that D. in view of
4. The police caught the thief _____.
A. red-handed B. in the red C. true blue D. in black and white
5. The charge of murder brought against Mr. Good was _____.
A. dismissed B. dispelled C. dispensed D. disapproved
6. It is recommended that tourists bring _____ shoes when visiting Trang An Complex in Ninh Binh
as they might do some hiking.
A. sensible B. sensitive C. sentimental D. sensational
7. The dealer wanted 400 pounds, I wanted to pay 300 pounds and we finally agreed to _____ the
difference.
A. divide B. split C. drop D. decrease
8. She was dismissed. She _______ the report as required.
A. must have submitted B. should have submitted
C. would have submitted D. could have submitted
9. It’s difficult to tell identical twins _____.
A. on B. out C. apart D. over
10. Several passengers received minor injuries when the train unexpectedly came to a _____.
A. delay B. stand C. brake D. halt
11. It takes time and effort to _____ new relationship.
A. accumulate B. cultivate C. spread D. activate

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12. You can buy goods on the Internet with a credit card, but there is a danger of _____ if someone
else obtains the number.
A. corruption B. fraud C. embezzlement D. disruption
13. Olivia has always _____ to visit Bai Dinh pagoda, one of the grandest in the world.
A. favoured B. yearned C. urged D. inclined
14. I like that photo very much. Could you make an _____ for me?
A. increase B. enlargement C. extension D. expansion
15. The full _____ of the damage done by the storm only became clear at daybreak.
A. degree B. amount C. summary D. extent
Your answers:
II. Give the correct form of each word in brackets to complete the passage. Write your
answers in the numbered boxes. (2.0 points)
Three or four cups of coffee a day may not sound (1) ________ (EXCESS), yet some of the
minor symptoms many of us experience (like headaches, indigestion or high blood  (2) ________
(PRESS) may be related to caffeine (3) ________ (TAKE). A cup of real coffee contains about 100
mg of caffeine. It stimulates the nervous system, heart and kidneys. Heavy coffee (4)
________ (CONSUME) is likely to produce a general feeling of anxiety.
The effects that caffeine has on the human body depends to some extent on personality
and (5) ________ (PSYCHOLOGY) factors. People, for example, who take tranquillizers are
often (6) ________ (SENSE) to caffeine. Drinking more coffee only makes their symptoms worse.
The long-term dangers of caffeine - such as cancer and heart disease - have been the subject
of much debate, but a recent study has found no significant association between coffee consumption
and any major cause of (7) ________ (DEAD).
However, it might be (8) ________ (WORTH), trying to find out if caffeine is responsible
for minor illnesses by gradually reducing the coffee intake. Switching to tea does not help much
because tea also contains caffeine. The same applies to cocoa and cola drinks. Decaffeinated coffee
is not the answer either because it tends to have a greater effect on your stomach, causing (9)
________ (DIGEST) and diarrhoea. (10) ________ (HERB) teas, which contain low levels of
caffeine, fruit juices and plenty of water are the best substitutes. Also watch out for caffeine in
painkillers and in cold remedies; you could end up ingesting several hundred milligrams of caffeine
a day without even realizing it.
III. Find out and correct the mistake in each sentence below. Write your answers in the
numbered boxes. (2.0 points)
1. Swimming is a very popular sporting activity so that many people have taken up in order
A B C
to keep fit or relax.
D
2. Too many parents have a tough time get clear and accessible information about the public
A B C
schools in their communities.
D
3. After the first year I couldn’t cope with university, so I decided to drop off.

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 A B C D
4. President Clinton has announced an initiative requiring all states to produce annual reports
A B C
cards that are easily understood.
D
5. It is clear that at some stage of history, humans began to carry their food to central places,
A B
calling home bases, where it was shared and consumed by the young and other adults.
C D

6. The world was in threat from alien invaders - and everyone carried a slide rule in a holster
A B C
on their belts.
D

7. This autumn sees the changeover between keyboards and mice to using the human voice to
A B C
dictate directly onto the screen.
D
8. MacDonald made his name creating the type of dresses that major celebrities like to see
A B
wearing at high-profile events such as film premieres and awards ceremonies.
C D
9. His house is nothing out of ordinary; it’s just an average five-room house.
A B C D
10. China is one of the most densely populating areas in the world.
A B C D
PART C: READING (7.0/20 POINTS)
I. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. Write
your answer in the numbered boxes. (3.0 points)
From the moment they leave the security of their accustomed environment, travellers are at
risk. (1) _____ arise not just from strange diseases they meet on their travels but from other factors
too: seemingly uninspiring home (2) _____ such as safe water (3) _____ sanitation and public
hygiene controls, legal safety standards for motor vehicles and road (4) _____, are easily taken for
granted, but simply do not exist in many countries. Environmental factors such as arduous
conditions, (5) _____ climate, and high altitude may constitute a danger; and so may travellers’ own
behavior, free from the (6) _____ of the daily routine, and determined to have good time with scant
(7) _____ for the consequences.
When illness or injury occur abroad, travellers are again at a disadvantage – from (8) _____
to communicate with a doctor on account of language or cultural difficulties, or being unable to find
a doctor owing to (9) _____ of the (10) _____ medical system. There may be a complete (11) _____

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of skilled medical care, or of medical facilities of a (12) _____ acceptable to travellers from
technologically sophisticated countries.
When symptoms of an illness (13) _____ abroad do not appear until after return home a final
hazard becomes apparent: the symptoms may be (14) _____, may pass (15) _____, and the correct
diagnosis may not be considered until it is too late.
1. A. Questions B. Changes C. Hazards D. Complications
2. A. comforts B. helps C. cares D. aids
3. A. stores B. collections C. levels D. supplies
4. A. correction B. maintenance C. improvement D. quality
5. A. worsening B. unusual C. sudden D. adverse
6. A. restraints B. assurances C. certainties D. regulations
7. A. knowledge B. awareness C. regard D. need
8. A. inability B. difficulty C. inflexibility D. timidity
9. A. misuse B. doubt C. ignorance D. disbelief
10. A. local B. district C. neighborhood D. area
11. A. breakdown B. failure C. disruption D. absence
12. A. type B. design C. standard D. degree
13. A. received B. formed C. gained D. acquired
14. A. unfamiliar B. unlikely C. unpleasant D. uncovered
15. A. unrecognized B. unknown C. unforeseen D. unearthed
II. Reading the following passage and choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) to each of the
questions. Write your answer in the numbered boxes. (2.0 points)
For many people who live in cities, parks are an important part of the landscape. They
provide a place for people to relax and play sports, as well as a refuge from the often harsh
environment of a city. What people often overlook is that parks also provide considerable
environmental benefits.
One benefit of parks is that plants absorb carbon dioxide - a key pollutant - and emit oxygen,
which humans need to breathe. According to one study, an acre of trees can absorb the same amount
of carbon dioxide that a typical car emits in 11,000 miles of driving. Parks also make cities cooler.
Scientists have long noted what is called the Urban Heat Island Effect: building materials such as
metal, concrete, and asphalt absorb much more of the sun’s heat and release it much more slowly than
organic surfaces like trees and grass. Because city landscapes contain so much of these building
materials, cities are usually warmer than surrounding rural areas. Parks and other green spaces help to
mitigate the Urban Heat Island Effect.
Unfortunately, many cities cannot easily create more parks because most land is already
being used for buildings, roads, parking lots, and other essential parts of the urban environment.
However, cities could benefit from many of the positive effects of parks by encouraging citizens to
create another type of green space: rooftop gardens. While most people would not think of starting a
garden on their roof, human beings have been planting gardens on rooftops for thousands of years.
Some rooftop gardens are very complex and require complicated engineering, but others are simple
container gardens that anyone can create with the investment of a few hundred dollars and a few
hours of work.

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 Rooftop gardens provide many of the same benefits as other urban park and garden spaces,
but without taking up the much-needed land. Like parks, rooftop gardens help to replace carbon
dioxide in the air with nourishing oxygen. They also help to lessen the Urban Heat Island Effect,
which can save people money. In the summer, rooftop gardens prevent buildings from absorbing
heat from the sun, which can significantly reduce cooling bills. In the winter, gardens help hold in
the heat that materials like brick and concrete radiate so quickly, leading to savings on heating bills.
Rooftop vegetable and herb gardens can also provide fresh food for city dwellers, saving them
money and making their diets healthier. Rooftop gardens are not only something everyone can
enjoy, they are also a smart environmental investment.
1. Based on its use in paragraph 2, it can be inferred that mitigate belongs to which of the following
word groups?
A. exacerbate, aggravate, intensify B. obliterate, destroy, annihilate
C. allay, alleviate, reduce D. absorb, intake, consume
2. Using the information in paragraph 2 as a guide, it can be inferred that _____.
A. cities with rooftop gardens are cooler than those without rooftop gardens
B. some plants are not suitable for growth in rooftop gardens
C. most people prefer parks to rooftop gardens
D. most people prefer life in the country over life in the city
3. According to the passage, the Urban Heat Island Effect is caused by the fact(s) that _____.
i. cities are warmer than nearby rural areas
ii. building materials absorb more of the sun’s heat than organic surfaces
iii. building materials release the sun’s heat more slowly than organic surfaces
A. i. only B. i. and ii. only C. ii. and iii. only D. i., ii., and iii.
4. Based on the information in paragraph 3, which of the following best describes the main
difference between parks and rooftop gardens?
A. Parks are expensive to create while rooftop gardens are not.
B. Parks are public while rooftop gardens are private.
C. Parks absorb heat while rooftop gardens do not.
D. Parks require much space while rooftop gardens do not.
5. The author claims all of the following to be the benefits of rooftop gardens except _____.
A. increased space for private relaxation
B. savings on heating and cooling costs
C. better food for city dwellers
D. improved air quality
6. According to the author, one advantage that rooftop gardens have over parks is that they _____.
A. decrease the Urban Heat Island Effect
B. replenish the air with nourishing oxygen
C. do not require the use of valuable urban land
D. are less expensive than traditional park spaces
7. The author’s tone in the passage is best described as _____.
A. descriptive B. passionate C. informative D. argumentative

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8. Which of the following pieces of information would, if true, most weaken the author's claim that
rooftop gardens are good for the environment?
A. Parks have many benefits that rooftop gardens do not share.
B. More pollution is produced during rooftop garden construction than rooftop plants
can remove from the air.
C. Extremely high winds atop tall city buildings can severely damage some plants.
D. The overall environmental benefits that result from driving less exceed those of
planting a rooftop garden.
9. Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?
A. A hypothesis is stated and then analyzed.
B. A proposal is evaluated and alternatives are explored.
C. A viewpoint is established and then defended.
D. A thesis is presented and then supported.
10. It can be inferred from the passage that the author would most likely endorse a program that _____.
A. permitted the construction of buildings in city park land provided they have
rooftop gardens
B. extended discounts on plants to customers who use them to create rooftop gardens
C. offered free admission to schools willing to take their students on field trips to the
city park
D. promised vacation getaways to cooler destinations for those trapped in the city at
the peak of summer
III. Fill in each numbered blank with ONE suitable word to complete the passage below.
Write your answer in the numbered boxes. (2.0 points)
IQ TESTS
Psychologists have long been interested in (1) _____ we judge intelligence in strangers. Now
scientists have designed tests (2) _____ try to discover which cues help people to judge IQ
accurately, and which cause them to get (3) _____ wrong. High school pupils were videotaped
answering thought-provoking questions and the videos were then shown to groups of ‘judges’ who
were asked to assess the students’ physical type and monitor a variety of behavioral cues. Next the
judges were asked to rate the students’ intelligence. At the (4) _____ time, each student was (5)
_____ required to sit a standard IQ test. Certain cues matched the (6) _____ of the IQ tests more
closely than others. While speaking quickly, using a lot of words or displaying ease (7) _____
understanding caused the judges to rate the students’ intelligence highly, and was reflected in the
IQ tests, other cues seemed to give the judges an entirely (8) _____ impression of intelligence as
measured by the IQ test. Among the cues that led judges to assess students as dull were factors (9)
_____ as using halting speech or slang. Cues that led judges to view students as bright included
talking loudly and using proper English. (10) _____ of these traits correlated with measured IQ,
however.

PART D: WRITING (5.0/20 POINTS)

I. Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it has the same meaning as the
sentence printed before it. (1.0 point)

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1. It was to be another twenty-five years before Michael returned to his hometown.
Not until …………………………………………………………………………………………
2. Mrs. Wilson says she’s sorry she didn’t attend the meeting yesterday morning.
Mrs. Wilson sends
…………………………………………………………………………………………
3. It’s almost nine months since I stopped subscribing to that magazine.
I cancelled ………………………………………………………………………………………….
4. The northwest of Britain has more rain each year than the southeast.
The annual …………………………………………………………………………………………..
5. You could be arrested for not giving a breath sample to the police.
Refusal …………………………………………………………………………………………..
II. Complete each of the following sentences in such a way that it has the same meaning as the
sentence printed before it, using the exact words in bold. (1.0 point)
1. I could only afford that house because of the loan you gave me. lent
Had ……………………………………. money, I wouldn't have been able to afford the house.
2. You don't have to come and see the new house if you don't wish. obligation
You are ………………………………….…………… and see the new house if you don't wish.
3. You should have seen the boss as soon as you arrived. You knew he wanted to see you.
supposed
You …………………………….…………….………………. boss when you arrived.
4. You don't need to concern yourself with the new tax laws till October. effect
The new tax laws
……………………………………………………………………………………………
5. Janet has never passed any exams, as far as I'm aware. knowledge
To ………………………………………………………. no formal qualifications.

PART B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (4, 5 POINTS)

I. Choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) to complete each of the sentences. Write your
answers in the numbered boxes. (1.5 point)
1. Fiona didn’t like but she gave rather _____ a picture of the situation.
A. defaced B. distorted C. disfigured D. disguised
2. Honesty and generosity are among the obvious _____ of Ninh Binh people.
A. possessions B. traits C. ethics D. characters
3. In this ever-changing world, you should sometimes be _____ to prophecies from futurologists.
A. unaffected B. invulnerable C. impervious D. aloof
4. Only the highest standards of conduct are _____ for a man in his position.
A. admissible B. accessible C. approving D. favorable
5. According to the latest _____ poll, the government is more popular now than at any time since
the election.
A. opinion B. conviction C. belief D. idea

6. The boy _____ with astonishment when he heard he got the scholarship.
A. gasp B. seize C. grasp D. catch

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7. It is impossible to say at what point along the continuum a _____ becomes a separate language.
A. dialect B. tongue C. speech D. communication
8. The students had no money left and took out a loan to _____ him over until the end of term.
A. last B. tend C. keep D. tide
9. They appear _____ these days. It seems that their work is not going quite well.
A. within limits B. out of line C. on edge D. off limits
10. He asked the dentist to give him a local anesthetic because he has a low _____ of pain.
A. tolerance B. endurance C. level D. capacity
11. Many students spend tremendous amount of time on social networks and they are always _____
adequate sleep.
A. derived from B. deprived of C. run out D. taken away
12. The most powerful force in a teenager’s life is probably _____ pressure.
A. friend B. peer C. company D. youth
13. Lack of money will _____ a change of the plan.
A. maximize B. reiterate C. necessitate D. reciprocate
14. John refused to put his career in _____ by opposing his boss.
A. jeopardy B. hazard C. risk D. stake
15. Some students in Ninh Binh were _____ with extraordinary abilities.
A. entitled B. entrusted C. endowed D. ensured
II. Complete each of the following sentences below with a suitable particle. Write your
answers in the numbered boxes. (1.0 point)
1. Scientists are mystified by the sudden rise in global temperature. They are unable to account
_____ it.
2. I’m looking forward to the match between Vietnam and UAE. What time do they kick _____?
3. At weekends, many people like to immerse themselves _____ the peaceful and quiet atmosphere
of the Thung Nham valley in Ninh Binh.
4. She stood _____ her opponents’ criticisms and was eventually proved right.
5. She was quite disappointed because her rival had done her _____ the reward.
6. I was lucky to light _____ a knowledgeable tour guide during my trip to Phat Diem cathedral.
7. Son Tung rounded _____ the concert with his greatest hits. So everyone went home happy.
8. The little girl decided to go _____ game show “Who is millionaire” in the hope that she would
win a prize.
9. The new teacher has a very pleasant manner. I’m sure the children will take _____ her at once.
10. We’ve had some hard times recently, but I think things are beginning to look _____.
III. Complete each of the following sentences below with the correct form of the word given in
the brackets. Write your answers in the numbered boxes. (1.0 point)
1. She gave him a __________ smile. (SISTER)
2. The car veered onto the wrong side of the road and collided with a(n) __________ truck.
(COME)
3. That the math teacher in Ho Chi Minh city kept silent for a long time really __________ her
students. (NERVE)
4. Those clothes do nothing for your __________. (STREET)
5. Looking into her face, he felt an __________ joy in seeing his child many times. (EXPRESS)
6. They had a (n) __________ party after the victory of Vietnam football team over Japan team and
it lasted until small hours. (ROAR)
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7. The talks were totally __________. We didn’t reach agreement on anything at all. (PRODUCE)
8. A(n) __________ person always tries to be fair and reasonable, and always listens to other
people’s opinions. (MIND)
9. His complicated instructions made it __________ difficult for the students to follow the
procedure. (NEED)
10. Many youngsters are suffering from __________ which is now recognized as a serious medical
condition. (SHOP)
IV. The passage below contains 10 errors. Underline the errors and write the correct forms in
the boxes provided. (1.0 point)

1 In Britain, as children’s rights to citizens have strengthened over recent years, a

2 strong presumption in favor of involving children in decisions on matters that
3 directly affect them have adopted in a number of areas of law, public policy and
4 professional practice, for example, school councils. Yet surprisingly few is known
5 about how far children’s participation extends to their home lives and the routine
6 business of everyday life. A recent study, as regards discussions and in-deep
7 interviews with 117 children aged between eight and ten, examined how and by
8 what extent the children were involved in shaping their own and their families’
9 domestic lives. Many of the findings were illuminated. The ways in which families
10 made decisions involved a subtle, complex and dynamic set of processes on what
11 children could exert a decisive influence. Most families operated democracy but
12 children would accept the ultimate authority of their parents provided that they felt
13 their parents acted “fairly”. For children, “fairness” had more to do with being
14 treated equitably than simple having the decision made in their favor. Children could
15 use claims to fairness like a moral lever in negotiations with parents.
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Line Error Correction Line Error Correction

1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.

PART C: READING COMPREHENSION (6.0 POINTS)

I. Read the passage and fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answer in the
numbered boxes. (2.0 points)
Because of their exceptional hearing capabilities, their echolocation sense and the importance
of sound in the underwater world, all dolphins were (1) _____ of as primarily “auditory animals.”
Vision was believed to be not particularly well developed, even in oceanic dolphins, and of
secondary importance at (2) _____. We now know, however, that oceanic dolphins have excellent
(3) _____ and that vision plays an important part in their natural world. Research has shown that
dolphins can see (4) _____ well both underwater and in air. In contrast, we humans are visually (5)
_____ underwater unless we wear weak facemask or goggles. The dolphin instead seems to rely on
adaptations of the optical qualities of is cornea and lens to allow it to see well in air or underwater.
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The dolphin eye, though lacking color vision, is highly (6) _____ to light in the blue region of the
visible spectrum, which is in keeping with its off-shore blue-green underwater world. Dolphins, like
dogs and cats see well at night or in the dim light of its underwater world. Dolphin eyes are laterally
placed, providing a wide field of view enabling the dolphin to see (7) _____, laterally, and even
rearward. Also, unlike our eyes, the dolphin’s eyes act independently. In air vision helps the dolphin
to keep in contact with more instant leaping members of its group, to detect circling birds that may
(8) _____ the presence of prey fish, and to recognize land features in its coastal habitat. Laboratory
studies have confirmed that vision is an important information (9) _____ for the dolphin. It is clear,
therefore, that we should regard dolphins as both (10) _____ and visual specialists, making their
way through their world through both sound and vision, just like us.
II. Reading the following passage and choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) to each of the
questions. Write your answers in the numbered boxes. (2.0 points)
The term “art deco” has come to encompass three distinct but related design trends of the
1920’s and 1930’s. The first was what is frequently referred to as “zigzag moderne” - the exotically
ornamental style of such skyscrapers as the Chrysler Building in New York City and related
structures such as the Paramount Theater in Oakland, California The word “zigzag” alludes to the
geometric and stylized ornamentation of zigzags, angular patterns, abstracted plant and animal
motifs, sunbursts, astrological imagery, formalized fountains, and related themes that were applied
in mosaic relief and mural form to the exterior and interior of the buildings. Many of these buildings
were shaped in the ziggurat form, a design resembling an ancient Mesopotamian temple tower
that recedes in progressively smaller stages to the summit, creating a staircase-like effect.
The second manifestation of art deco was the 1930’s streamlined moderne” style – a
futuristic-looking aerodynamic style of rounded corners and horizontal bands known as “speed
stripes”. In architecture, these elements were frequently accompanied by round windows, extensive
use of glass block, and flat rooftops.
The third style, referred to as cither “international stripped classicism,” or simply “classical
moderne,” also came to the forefront during the Depression, a period of severe economic difficult
in the 1930’s. This was a more conservative style, blending a simplified modernistic style with a
more austere form of geometric and stylized relief sculpture and other ornament, including interior
murals. May buildings in this style were erected nationwide through government programs during
the Depression.
Although art deco in its many forms was largely perceived as thoroughly modern, it was
strongly influenced by the decorative arts movements that immediately preceded it. For example,
like “art nouveau” (1890-1910), art deco also used plant motifs, but regularized the forms into
abstracted repetitive patterns rather than presenting them as flowing, asymmetrical foliage, Like the
Viennese craftspeople of the Wiener Werkstatte, art deco designers worked with exotic materials,
geometricized shapes, and colorfully ornate patterns. Furthermore, like the artisans of the Arts and
Crafts Movement in England and the United States, art deep practitioners considered it their mission
to transform the domestic environment through well-designed furniture and household accessories.
1. What aspect of art deco does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The influence of art deco on the design of furniture and household accessories.
B. Ways in which government programs encouraged the development of art deco.
C. Architectural manifestations of art deco during the 1920’s and 1930’s.
D. Reasons for the popularity of art deco in New York and California.
2. The word “encompass” in line 1 is closest in meaning to _____.
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 A. separate B. include C. replace D. enhance
3. The phrase “The first” refers to _____.
A. the term “art deco” B. design trends
C. the 1920’s and 1930’s D. skyscrapers
4. The author mentions “an ancient Mesopotamian temple tower” in order to _____.
A. describe the exterior shape of certain “art deco” buildings
B. explain the differences between ancient and modern architectural steles
C. emphasize the extent of architectural advances
D. argue for a return to more traditional architectural design
5. The streamlined moderne style is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT _____.
A. animal motifs B. flat roofs C. round windows D. “speed stripes”
6. The phrase “came to the forefront” is closest in meaning to _____.
A. grew in complexity B. went through a process
C. changed its approach D. became important
7. According to the passage, which of the following statements most accurately describes the
relationship between art deco and art nouveau?
A. They were art forms that competed with each other for government support during the
Depression era.
B. They were essentially the same art form.
C. Art nouveau preceded art deco and influenced it.
D. Art deco became important in the United States while art nouveau became popular in
England.
8. According to the passage, a building having an especially ornate appearance would most
probably have been designed in the style of _____.
A. zigzag moderne B. streamlined moderne
C. classical moderne D. the Arts and Crafts Movement
9. According to the passage, which of the following design trends is known by more than one name?
A. Zigzag moderne B. Streamlined moderne
C. International stripped classicism D. Arts and Crafts Movement
10. The passage is primarily developed as _____.
A. the historical chronology of a movement
B. a description of specific buildings that became famous for their unusual beauty
C. an analysis of various trends within an artistic movement
D. an argument of the advantages of one artistic form over another
III. Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow. Write your answers in the
numbered boxes. (2.0 points)
A. A constellation is a group of stars which when viewed collectively appear to have a
physical proximity’ in the sky. Constellation boundaries and definitions as used today in Western
culture, and as defined by the International Astronomical Union (IAU), were formalised in 1930 by
Eugene Delporte. There are 88 official constellations as recognised by the IAU, those visible in the
northern hemisphere being based upon those established by the ancient Greeks, the constellations of
the southern hemisphere – since invisible to the Greeks due to geographical location – were not
defined until later in the early modem era.
B. Arguably, the twelve constellations through which the sun passes – as used to represent
the signs of the zodiac to define birth characteristics – are the most culturally significant and well
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known of those established by the ancient Greeks. Cultural differences in Interpretation and
definition of star constellations mainly relate to these zodiac interpretations, Chinese constellations,
for example, which are different to those defined in the western world due to the independent
development of ancient Chinese astronomy, includes 28 ‘Xiu’ or ‘mansions’ instead of the 12
western zodiac counterparts. In Hindu/Vedic astronomy, in which constellations are known as
‘rashis’, 12 rashi corresponding directly to the twelve western star signs are acknowledged; these
are however, divided again into 27 ‘Nakshatras’ or ’lunar houses’. Many cultures have an intricate
mythology behind the stars and their constellations. In Greek mythology, for example Pegasus, the
winged horse, is said to have sprung from the decapitated head of Medusa, and later was used by the
God King Zeus to carry thunder and lightning to Earth, before being put into a constellation.
C. In Western astronomy, all modern constellation names derive from Latin, some stars
within the constellations are named using the genitive form of the Latin word by using the usual
rules of Latin grammar. For example, the zodiac sign for the Fish constellation Pisces relates to
Piscium. In addition, all constellation names have a standard three-letter abbreviation as assigned by
the IAU, under which, for example, Pisces becomes PSC.
D. Some star patterns often wrongly considered constellations by laymen are actually
‘asterisms’ – a group of stars that appear to form patterns in the sky - and are not in fact one of the
88 officially divided areas truly defined as a constellation. A famous example of an asterism oft
mistaken for a constellation is the Big Dipper’ (as it is termed in North America) or the ‘Plough’ as
it is known in the UK. In astronomical terms, this famous star formation is in fact considered only
part of the larger constellation known as Ursa Major.
E. In order to identify the position of stars relative to the Earth, there are a number of
different celestial coordinate systems that cart provide a detailed reference point in space. There are
many different systems, all of which are largely similar with the exception of a difference in the
position of the fundamental plane – the division between northern and southern hemispheres. The
five most common celestial systems are the Horizontal system, the Equatorial system, the Ecliptical
system, the Galactic system and the Supergalactic system.
F. The launch of the Hubble space telescope in April 1990 changed the way that astronomers
saw the universe, providing detailed digital images of constellations, planets and gas - clouds that
had never been seen before. Compared to ground-based telescopes, Hubble is not particularly large,
with a primary mirror diameter of 2.4 meters (94.5 inches). Hubble would be considered a medium-
size telescope on the ground. However, the combination of its precision optics, state-of-the-art
instrumentation, and unprecedented pointing stability and control, allows Hubble to more than make
up for its lack of size, giving it a range of well over 12 billion light years.
G. The telescope’s location above the Earth’s atmosphere also has a number of significant
advantages over land based telescopes. The atmosphere bends light due to a phenomenon known as
diffraction (this is what causes starlight to appear to twinkle and leads to the often blurred images seen
through ground-based telescopes). The Hubble Space Telescope can also observe infrared light that
would otherwise be blocked by the atmosphere as the wavelength (distance between successive wave
crests) of ultraviolet light is shorter than that of visible light.
H. Despite early setbacks – one of the reflective mirrors had to be replaced after finding that
it had been ground incorrectly and did not produce the images expected – the telescope has reignited
interest in space amongst the general public – a requirement, given that taxpayer funding paid for
the research, deployment and maintenance of the telescope.
Questions 1-5: Choose the correct heading for paragraphs A-F from the list of headings below.
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List of Headings
i. Different methods of locating and identifying
ii. A better view of the constellations
iii. Technological advances in research and development
iv. Atmospheric weaknesses of telescopes in orbit
v. Different interpretations of star groupings
vi. Common misconceptions
vii. Bypassing terrestrial limitations
viii. Renewed interest in the stars
ix. Ethnic differences in celestial mapping
x. Formal marking of constellations
xi. Universal myths of constellations
xii. Historical and modern reference
1. Paragraph A _______
2. Paragraph B _______
3. Paragraph C _______
4. Paragraph D _______
5. Paragraph F _______
Questions 6-10: Complete the summary below using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS.
Despite an initial flaw in a (6) __________, the Hubble space telescope is superior to telescopes on
land as it can identify (7) __________ which would not normally reach the Earth’s surface. This is
all the more impressive given that Hubble is only classified as a (8) __________ telescope. Being
above the atmosphere, it also has the advantages of not being affected by (9) __________, which
would otherwise lead to (10) __________ images.

PART D: WRITING (4, 5 POINTS)

I. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence using
word given. Do not change the given word. (1.0 point)
1. Sonia had promised to come but she told lies. (BACK)
Sonia was ………………………………………………………………………………………..
2. Any correspondence from Camellia office must be solved before other affairs. (PRIORITY)
Any correspondence ……………………………………………………………………………
3. My daughter is determined to become a stewardess. (SIGHTS)
My daughter sets ………………………………………………………………………………..
4. Police arrested Johnson because they thought he was involved in the robbery. (SUSPICION)
Johnson was detained …………………………………………………………………………..
5. It took the fire fighters three hours to extinguish the fire. (SUCCEED)
Only after ……………………………………………………………………………………….

PART B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
I. Complete each of the following sentences with the correct answer (A, B, C or D). Identify your
answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
1. I’m really sorry. We _____ stop at a service station and phone you, but we didn’t want to waste
any more time.
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 A. were due to B. were going to C. were to D. were about to
2. It is not until December 25 _________the exam results will be announced.
th

A. which B. what C. that D. when

3. I saw a ___________ scarf in a shop near my house.
A. sweet little green silk B. little green silk sweet
C. sweet green little silk D. green little sweet silk
4. There has been a recommendation that Peter ______ the president of the country.
A. will be elected B. be elected C. is elected D. was elected
5. He kept his marriage for years, but eventually the truth ________.
A. came out B. went out C. came through D. fell out
6. It was in this house ______.
A. I was born in B. in which I was born C. where I was born D. that I was born
7. ______of half- starving wolves were roaming the snow- covered countryside.
A. Herds B. Flocks C. Packs D. Swarms
8. When ______ to explain his mistake, the new employee cleared his throat nervously.
A. asking B. to be asked C. to be asking D. being
asked
9. ______, he felt so unhappy and lonely.
A. In spite of his being wealth B. Rich as was he
C. Rich as he was D. Despite his wealthy
10. According to the _______of the contract, tenants must give six months notice if they intend to
leave.
A. laws B. rules C. terms D. details
11. It is difficult for museums to find funds to protect the nation’s_______.
A. inheritance B. heritage C. possessions D. legacy
12. A part-time job gives me the freedom to_______ my own interests.
A pursue B. chase C. seek D. catch
13. When his alarm went off, he shut it off and slept for_______15 minutes.
A. other B. others C. another D. the others
14. ____ I’ve told him not to go out with those people, but he wouldn’t listen. Just let him face the
music now.
A. Many a time B. Many the time C. Quite a time D. For a time

15. _______ in this national park declined from a few thousand to a few hundred in ten years.
A. For a number of tigers B. The number of tigers
C. A number of tigers D. That the number of tigers
16. _______ every industry in our modern world requires the work of engineers.
A. Wholly B. Hardly C. Most D. Virtually
17. Jane had a problem with her finances, so we talked _______ and now it's fine.
A. over B. it over C. over it D. over and over
18. When the electricity failed, he _______a match to find the candles.
A. rubbed B. scratched C. struck D. started
19. I usually buy my clothes _______. It’s cheaper than going to the dressmaker.
A. on the house B. off the peg C. in public D. on the shelf
20. She tried to _______.
A. talk out of me the plan B. talk me the plan out of
C. talk me out of the plan D. talk out me of the plan.
II. In most lines of this text there is one unnecessary word. It is either incorrect
grammatically, or does not fit the sense of the text. Write the unnecessary word in the space
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beside the text. Tick (√) each correct line. There are two examples at the beginning. Transfer
your answers to your answer sheet.
Talent scouts are looking for the next generation of supermodels have 0 ……are…
realized Africa’s potential. Lyndsey Mclntyre, a former model herself, 00 …√………
recently opened one agency’s first African office. “African women are 1 ……….……
being graceful and serene” she says. “These qualities could to make them 2 ………..…
do very well in this business.” However, spotting supermodels is rarely 3 ………….…
easy, as well Mclntyre discovered when she visited the Orma tribe of 4 ……..……
remote north- eastern Kenya, whose women are reported to be especially 5 ……….……
striking. “The tribal leaders were a bit suspicious and I wasn’t allowed to 6 ………….…
be meet many of their girls,” she explains. Another problem is that the 7 ………….…
reports aren’t always reliable. Mclntyre discovered this when one of 8 …………….
village’s “most beautiful girls” turned out to be its heaviest ones. She had 9 …….…….…
to explain that Western advertisers prefer far slimmer women. The Orma 10………..……
are not alone in believing fat it is beautiful. In a recent Africa-wide
beauty contest, all the Uganda contestants were disqualified for being a
little too large around the hips. “I don’t understand the fashion industry’s
obsession with small hips,” said one judge for the contest. “But because
we want the girls to succeed and to see African models working
internationally, we give the industry what it wants”
THE END

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