MA101: Answer Key : Tutorial - 1 Question 1: Let ¢o € R and 2 > 0. If ao < « for every positive real number «, show that 25 Solution 1: As o > 0. If t #0 then sry > 0 then by taking « = 2 we get x ty > = °F 3 which is contradiction. Hence Question 2: Let $ be a non empty bounded above subset of R. If a and /F are supre- mum of S. show that «=f. Solution 2: As a, 8 are supremum of S hence they are upper bounds of S. Now, Since a is least upper bound and f is an upper bound hence we get asp a Similarly, Since # is least upper bound and a is an upper bound hence we get 8 p? is even. This implies p is even, because if p be odd then p? is also odd. Let p= 2m, where m is an integer. Then p? = 24? = 2m? This implies q? is even and therefore q is even Thus p and q are both even and this contradicts the assumption that ged(p,q) ‘Therefore there is no rational number whose square is 2. Let suppose that ¥2+ V3 € Q, then So 3-2 € Q (multiplicative inverse of a rational number is also a rational number). => V2+ V3— V3 + v2 = WE Q (add is also a rational number) ‘Therefore, V3 € Q which is contradiction. ion or subtraction of two rational number Question 4: Show that if and y are any two numbers of bounded set of real numbers Sj, and Sp, respectively, then prove that the set S whose elements are of the form a +y is also bounded and supS, + supS: = supS, inf; + infS» = inf. Solution 4: If $;,S2C R are nonempty, we define, {e:2=e4y for some x € S1,y € So} ‘The set $ is bounded from above if and only if S, and S; are bounded from above, so supS exists if and only if both sup; and supS, exist. In that case, if x € Sy and y € Sp, then w+ y < supS, + supSy 80 supS; + supS» is an upper bound of S, + Sz and therefore supS < supS; + supS, ‘To get the inequality in the opposite direction, suppose that. « > 0. ‘Then there exists 2 S; and y € S) such that x > supSy i y > supS, — 2 It follows that 2+ y > supS) + supSe « for every ¢ > 0, which implies that supS > supS;+supSy. Thus, supS;-+supS» = supS. ‘The proof of the result for inf S + inf Sy = infS is similar.Question 5. Prove that the set S whose elements are of the form + +1, where p and q are positive integers, is a bounded set for which: inf S=0, sup S Solution 5: (Recall:) A set $C R of real numbers is bounded from above i €R, called an upper bound of A, such that there 2m for every x € S. A set is bounded if it is bounded both from above and below. Now, ‘we have: <1, YpeZ*, and, <1, Wqez* siesie where, Z* represents the sot of all positive integers, Adding the above equations, we obtain that: tiles Vp.q € Zt Pog ‘Thus, 2 is an upper bound for the set $. Next we need to show that 2 is the suprememum of the set $ Now, we know that if a set $ C R contains one of its upper bound, then this upper bound is the supremum of 8. Since for p = 1, q= 1, } +1 =2€ S, thus we have: sup $= 2 Again, we have: +50, vez, and, P 1 =>0, ve Zt 4 Adding the above equations, we obtain that: il =+=20, pg €Z* pra Psd ‘Thus, 0 is a lower bound for the set $. Next we need to show that 0 is the infimum of the set S. We prove this by contradiction. If possible, let L(> 0) be the infimum of the set S. But by Archimedian property, we know, that for every L(> 0), there exists, m € Zt and m € Z*, such that <=, and, wit Sin A NLS 1 mAdding the above equations, we obtain that there exists 2+ 4 € 11 —+n=n—-— WneN, a hence, z is an upper bound of the set X. We now claim that 7 is a supremum of the set X. Now, for each ¢ > 0, by Archimedean Property, there exists V € N such that: 1 1 >, on, Grne and therefore x —. is not an upper bound of the set X for each ¢ > 0. We conclude that zis the supremum of the set X, Question 7: Let E be a non-empty bounded above subset of R. Ifa € R is an upper bound of B and @ € B, show that a is the Lu.b of E. Solution 7: Since, £ is a non-empty bounded above subset of Rand a € B is an upper bound of B, it means that r a 0 so that 2 Ve>0 3ne€N such that i B-a>0 By statement 2 of Archimedean Prop., we have 1 SneN such that — [-s>0 By statement 2 of Archimedean Prop., we have 1 dneéN such that — a.Then by Archimedian property, there exists n € N such that 6 > a+2. Since for every n, Say € A such that a, 0, then J a m € N(set of natural number) such that Pr << Py. Now 0< 2

0). Therefore, our initial assumption was wrong. Hence x < 0. So we can say 0 is an upper bound of A. Let r € R(sct of real number) be another upper bound of A such that, asr<0,vacA . Let n € N be natural number. Let a € A (Pa,Pn4i). Then pp py. Let a € (p;,p) C A. Then p; 0.Which implies x < —3 and > 4.Which is not possible. Case 2.: (+3) > O and (3-1) <0, Which implies x > —3 and x < 4. Which is true. Hence the set. A= {xe R| 327+ 82-3 <0} = {x -3<2<3} ‘Therefore 4 is an upper bound of A. Let r € R be another bound of A such that rervreA andr < 4, Consider c € R such that, r << 4. Then ¢ € A(which is a contradiction since r is the upper bound of A). Hence our assumption is wrong, Hence there does bot exists another bound of A such that x < r,¥r and r < 4. Hence } is the supremum of A. Similarly infimum of A=-3. ct f(x) = 322+82—3, then f touch origin for « where f(x) = 0, 1/3. Since f is a continuous function, We divide domain of function into three parts (—oc, -3), (-3, 1/3),|1/3,00). for any given interval graph is either compl sitive or negative. Just pick any value of x inside all the given interval. We will have positive value when is in (~3, 1/3), like (0) = —3. Now we can say that our A will be interval (~3, 1/3). Hence supremum is 1/3 and infirsum is 3. (s.0) (o.a33,0)Question 13: Let $ and T are non-empty subsets of R, such that s € Ste T > 8 < { for every s € § and t€ T. Prove that sup $ < inf. Solution 13: let a= sup S and 6 = inf Since, s 0 for all m,n € N. So, 0 is a lower bound of the set A. If possible let Lis the infimum of A and | > 0, By the Archimedean property there exists an integer x > Osuch that lr > 1. Then! >= 442 € A. This contradicts that / is the infimum of A. Therefore, 0 is the infimum of A. () We have nt+(-i" _ fi-Lifnisodd 7” 1+ ifnis even