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ĐỀ THI THỬ KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2021

(Đề thi có 05 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ SỐ 1 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
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Họ, tên thí sinh:…………………………………………………………………………
Số báo danh:....................................................................................................................

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. maintained B. promoted C. required D. argued
Question 2: A. tall B. late C. safe D. same
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. achieve B. supply C. insist D. offer
Question 4: A. tradition B. candidate C. industry D. customer
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: He's American, _________?
A. won't he B. didn't he C. doesn't he D. isn't he
Question 6: The flood victims ________ with food and clean water by the volunteers.
A. provided B. were provided C. were providing D. provide
Question 7: Many students are worried _________ the coming exam.
A. about B. on C. from D. to
Question 8: _________ it is, the more uncomfortable we feel.
A. Hotter B. The hotter C. Hottest D. The hottest
Question 9: He was fascinated by the _________ car at the exhibition.
A. red German old B. German old red C. old red German D. old German
red
Question 10: Mike _________ his favourite program on TV when the lights went out.
A. was watching B. is watching C. watched D. watches
Question 11: My uncle lives a happy life __________ his disability.
A. because of B. because C. though D. in spite of
Question 12: Mrs Brown will have worked at this school for 30 years ________.
A. by the time she retires B. when she retired
C. as soon as she had retired D. after she had retired
Question 13: _________ the report to the manager, she decided to take a rest.
A. Having handed in B. Handed in C. To hand in D. Being handed
in
Question 14: This restaurant is ________ with those who like Vietnamese food.
A. popular B. popularly C. popularise D. popularity
Question 15: Tom's brother asked him to ________ the music so that he could sleep.
A. close down B. go up C. turn down D. stand up

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Question 16: When Linda was little, her mother used to _______ her a bedtime story every night.
A. tell B. speak C. say D. talk
Question 17: Students from other schools have to pay a small ________ to join the club.
A. fee B. fare C. wage D. salary
Question 18: As the season turns from spring to summer, some people feel a bit under the ________ and
can't concentrate fully on their work.
A. storm B. weather C. climate D. rain
Question 19: James had a cosy birthday party at home last Friday in the _______ of his close friends.
A. company B. business C. atmosphere D. residence
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: It's great to go out on such a lovely day.
A. ugly B. beautiful C. old D. modern
Question 21: Josh's ambition is to become a successful businessman like his father.
A. dream B. doubt C. pleasure D. patience
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: You should dress neatly for the interview to make a good impression on the interviewers.
A. untidily B. formally C. unfairly D. comfortably
Question 23: The Covid-19 pandemic has taken a heavy toll on the country's aviation industry due to
international travel restrictions.
A. considerably benefited B. negatively changed
C. severely damaged D. completely replaced
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24: Tim is talking to Peter, his new classmate, in the classroom.
- Tim: "How far is it from your house to school, Peter?"
- Peter: “_______________”
A. About five kilometres B. A bit too old
C. Not too expensive D. Five hours ago
Question 25: Jack and David are talking about taking a gap year.
- Jack: "I think taking a gap year is a waste of time."
- David: "__________. It gives gap-year takers a lot of valuable experiences."
A. I agree with you B. I don't quite agree
C. It's right D. My pleasure
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
The Best Students
According to most professors, mature students are ideal students because they are hard-working and
become actively involved in all aspects of the learning process. The majority of mature students have a
poor educational (26) ________ but they manage to do exceptionally well at tertiary level. (27) _______
many of them have a job and children to raise, they are always present at seminars and lectures and
always hand in essays on time. They like studying and writing essays and they enjoy the class discussions

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(28) _______ take place. Consequently, they achieve excellent results. In fact, as they have experienced
many of life's pleasures, they are content with their lives and this has a positive effect on their attitude,
making them eager to learn.
On the other hand, despite their enthusiasm and commitment, mature students suffer from anxiety.
The fact that they have made (29) ______ sacrifices to get into university puts extra pressure on them to
succeed. Nevertheless, completing a degree gives mature students a sense of achievement, (30) ______
their confidence and improves their job prospects.
(Adapted from Use of English for All Exams by E. Moutsou)
Question 26: A. development B. background C. basement D. institution
Question 27: A. Although B. But C. So D. And
Question 28: A. whom B. which C. where D. when
Question 29: A. every B. another C. much D. many
Question 30: A. arises B. boosts C. mounts D. surges
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Marcel Bich, a French manufacturer of traditional ink pens, was the man turning the ballpoint pen into
an item that today almost anyone can afford. Bich was shocked at the poor quality of the ballpoint pens
that were available, and also at their high cost. However, he recognised that the ballpoint was a firmly
established invention, and he decided to design a cheap pen that worked well and would be commercially
successful.
Bich went to the Biro brothers and asked them if he could use the design of their original invention in
one of his own pens. In return, he offered to pay them every time he sold a pen. Then, for two years, Bich
studied the detailed construction of every ballpoint pen that was being sold, often working with a
microscope.
By 1950, he was ready to introduce his new wonder: a plastic pen with a clear barrel that wrote
smoothly, did not leak and only cost a few cents. He called it the 'Bic Cristal'. The ballpoint pen had
finally become a practical writing instrument. The public liked it immediately, and today it is as common
as the pencil. In Britain, they are still called Biros, and many Bic models also say 'Biro' on the side of the
pen, to remind people of their original inventors.
Bich became extremely wealthy thanks to his invention, which had worldwide appeal. Over the next
60 years his company, Société Bic, opened factories all over the world and expanded its range of
inexpensive products. Today, Bic is as famous for its lighters and razors as it is for its pens, and you can
even buy a Bic mobile phone.
(Adapted from Complete IELTS Workbook by Rawdon Wyatt)
Question 31: What could be the best title for the passage?
A. From Mobile Devices to Ballpoint Pens
B. From a Luxury Item to an Everyday Object
C. Ballpoint Pen's New Design - For Better or Worse?
D. Biros - A Business Model in Britain
Question 32: According to paragraph 1, Marcel Bich was shocked because _________.
A. a cheap pen could be designed with great commercial success
B. a firm was not established to produce high-quality ballpoint pens
C. most people could not afford such a firmly established invention
D. the ballpoint pens available were expensive despite their poor quality
Question 33: The word "practical" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. accurate B. traditional C. sharp D. useful
Question 34: The word "which" in paragraph 4 refers to ________.
A. factories B. company C. invention D. range

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Question 35: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as products of Bich's
company?
A. mobile phones B. lighters C. pencils D. razors
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
A study was set up to examine the old marriage advice about whether it's more important to be happy
or to be right. Couples therapists sometimes suggest that in an attempt to avoid constant arguments,
spouses weigh up whether pressing the point is worth the misery of marital discord. The researchers from
the University of Auckland noticed that many of their patients were adding stress to their lives by
insisting on being right, even when it worked against their well-being.
The researchers then found a couple who were willing to record their quality of life on a scale of 1 to
10. They told the man, who wanted to be happy more than right, about the purpose of the study and asked
him to agree with every opinion and request his wife had without complaint, even when he profoundly
didn't agree. The wife was not informed of the purpose of the study and just asked to record her quality of
life.
Things went rapidly downhill for the couple. The man's quality-of-life scores fell, from 7 to 3, over
the course of the experiment. The wife's scores rose modestly, from 8 to 8.5, before she became hostile to
the idea of recording the scores. Rather than creating harmony, the husband's agreeableness led to the
wife becoming increasingly critical of what he did and said (in the husband's opinion). After 12 days he
broke down, and the study was called off because of severe adverse outcomes."
The researchers concluded, shockingly, that humans need to be right and acknowledged as right, at
least some of the time, to be happy. They also noted this was further proof that if given too much power,
humans tend to "assume the alpha position and, as with chimpanzees, they become very aggressive and
dangerous." It is often said that there can be no peace without justice, and that's true of domestic sphere.
Obviously the results are to be taken with extreme caution, since this was just one couple with who-
knows-what underlying issues beforehand. But the study's chief author, Dr. Bruce Arroll, maintains that
the question of happiness vs. rightness, theoretically, could be settled by scientific inquiry with a wider
sample. "This would include a randomized controlled trial,” he says. "However, we would be reluctant to
do the definitive study because of the concern about divorce."
(Adapted from https://healthland.time.com)
Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Expert Advice: It Pays to be kind rather than to be Right
B. It's Worth Listening to Experts for a Happy Marriage
C. Marriage Experiment: It's Better to be Right than Happy
D. It Makes Sense to Avoid Marriage Conflicts
Question 37: The word "discord" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _________
A. disagreement B. status C. understanding D. disloyalty
Question 38: In paragraph 1, the study was conducted in order to ________.
A. illustrate how to live a happier life B. test an old piece of advice on marriage
C. find out the best advice for couples D. see if people are happy in their marriage
Question 39: The word "critical" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. agreeable B. disapproving C. unequal D. encouraging
Question 40: The word "They" in paragraph 4 refers to _______.
A. researchers B. results C. chimpanzees D. humans
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. The woman in the study was kept in the dark about its aim.
B. It was anticipated that people need to be regarded as right to be happy.
C. Having too much power in hand may lead to aggression among people.
D. In domestic sphere, peace can hardly be maintained without justice.
Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 5?

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A. The findings of the study are inconclusive due to its limited sample.
B. Studies of this kind will ultimately lead to divorce among the subjects.
C. Further research on the issue will definitely be conducted with a larger sample.
D. The researchers are willing to continue the study despite its bad influence.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 43: Yesterday morning, Joe arrives late for school for the first time.
А В C D
Question 44: In different parts of the world, elephants are still hunted for its ivory tusks.
A B C D
Question 45: It is essential to provide high school students with adequate career orientation, so they can
make
A B
more informative decisions about their future major.
C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 46: She last visited her home country ten years ago.
A. She hasn't visited her home country for ten years.
B. She didn't visit her home country ten years ago.
C. She has visited her home country for ten years.
D. She was in her home country for ten years.
Question 47: "I'll help you with the washing-up, Mary" he said.
A. He admitted helping Mary with the washing-up.
B. He denied helping Mary with the washing-up.
C. He promised to help Mary with the washing-up.
D. He refused to help Mary with the washing-up.
Question 48: It's necessary for you to drink enough water every day.
A. You should drink enough water every day.
B. You may drink enough water every day.
C. You needn't drink enough water every day.
D. You mustn't drink enough water every day.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: His parents are away on holiday. He really needs their help now.
A. As long as his parents are at home, they will be able to help him.
B. He wishes his parents were at home and could help him now.
C. If his parents are at home, they can help him now.
D. If only his parents had been at home and could have helped him.
Question 50: He finally contracted the disease. He was aware of the importance of preventive measures
only then.
A. But for his awareness of the importance of preventive measures, he could have contracted the
disease.
B. Hardly had he been aware that preventive measures were essential when he contracted the disease.
C. Not until he was aware of the importance of preventive measures did he contract the disease.
D. Only after he had contracted the disease was he aware that preventive measures were essential.
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ĐỀ THI THỬ KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2021
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ SỐ 2 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh:…………………………………………………………………………
Số báo danh:....................................................................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from
Question 1: A. permitted B. wanted C. stopped D. needed
Question 2: A. effect B. enter C. restore D. engage
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. effort B. actor C. perform D. area
Question 4. A. disappear B. recommend C. entertain D. fortunate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: Lady Gaga is an American singer, songwriter and actress, ______?
A. doesn’t B. is she C. isn’t Lady Gaga D. isn’t she
Question 6. Many graffiti without the permission of the owner of the wall.
A. are writing B. are written C. is writing D. is written
Question 7. She likes reading books ______ the library.
A. on B. at C. in D. from
Question 8. The more cigarettes you smoke, you will die.
A. the easier B. more sooner C. the sooner D. faster
Question 9. It's silly of him to spend a lot of money buying .
A. a thick wooden old table B. a thick old wooden table
C. an old wooden thick table D. a wooden thick old table
Question 10. When he came, I_______ in the kitchen.
A. cooked B. am cooking C. has cooked D. was cooking
Question 11. ________ he was the most prominent candidate, he was not chosen.
A. Though B. Because C. As D. Since
Question 12 ________ the destination, he will have been walking for about three hours.
A. When John will get B. By the time John gets
C. After John has got D. until John is getting
Question 13. On he had won, he jumped for joy.
A. he was told B. having told C. being told D.get fined
Question 14: His______of the generator is very famous.
A. invent B. inventive C. invention D. inventor
Question 15: The government hopes to______its plans for introducing cable TV.
A. turn out B. carry out C. carry on D. keep on
Question 16: The jury______her compliments on her excellent knowledge of the subject.
A. paid B. gave C. made D. said
Question 17: Nobody took any______of the warning and they went swimming in the contaminated water.
A. information B. attention C. sight D. notice
Question 18: I had a ______ chat with my manager and gave him an update on the project.
A. brief B. short C. quick D. lull

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Question 19:There has been a hot debate among the scientists relating to the______of using robotic
probes to study distant objects in space.
A. problems and solutions B. pros and cons
C. solutions and limitations D. causes and effects
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: The new air conditioner was installed yesterday.
A. inspected thoroughly B. put in position
C. well repaired D. delivered to the customer
Question 21: We were pretty disappointed with the quality of the food.
A. highly B. rather C. extremely D. very
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Many women prefer to use cosmetics to enhance their beauty and make them look younger.
A. improve B. maximize C. worsen D. enrich
Question 23: I think we cannot purchase this device this time as it costs an arm and a leg.
A. is cheap B. is painful C. is confusing D. is expensive
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24: Nam and Mai are having a party at Nam’s house.
- Nam: “Would you like to have some more dessert, Mai?” - Mai: “______. I’m full.”
A. That would be great B. Yes, I like your party
C. Yes, please D. No, thanks
Question 25: Tim and Peter had a quarrel last week and now Tom is giving Tim advice.
- Tom: “I think the best way to solve that problem is to keep silent.”
- Tim: “______. Silence may kill our friendship.”
A. That’s a great idea B. That’s not a good idea
C. I’m not wrong D. Yes, I think much
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Have you ever had the feeling that people older than you are hard to understand? Or, have you felt
like people from younger generations just don't get it? Maybe you find it easier to connect with people
(26) ______ are closer to your age than those who are older or younger than you. You can probably thank
the generation gap for these feelings.
There are currently six generations living in the United States: the Greatest Generation, Silent Generation,
Baby Boomers, Generation X, Millennials, and Generation Z. (27) ______ generation has its own unique
set of characteristics and norms. For (28) ______ , the Greatest Generation (born 1901-1924) is known
for its patriotism, hard workers, and loyalty to institutions. The Millennials (born 1980-2000) are
characterized by their dependence on technology, detachment from traditional institutions, optimism, and
open-mindedness. It is no (29) ______ that many people from different generations have a hard time
understanding each other.
Generation gap refers to differences in actions, beliefs, interests, and opinions that (30) ______ between
individuals from different generations. So, what causes these differences?
(Adapted from https://study.com/)
Question 26: A. who B. which C. when D. what
Question 27: A. Another B. Very C. All D. Each
Question 28: A. answer B. process C. example D. study

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Question 29: A. wonder B. picture C. business D. training
Question 30: A. trade B. exist C. credit D. target
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Stars have been significant features in the design of many United States coins and their number
has varied from one to forty-eight stars. Most of the coins issued from about 1799 to the early years of the
twentieth century bore thirteen stars representing the thirteen original colonies.
Curiously enough, the first American silver coins, issued in 1794, had fifteen stars because by that time
Vermont and Kentucky have joined the Union. At that time it was apparently the intention of mint
officials to add a star for each new state. Following the admission of Tennessee in 1796, for example,
some varieties of half dimes, dimes, and half dollars were produced with sixteen stars.
As more states were admitted to the Union, however, it quickly became apparent that this scheme would
not prove practical and the coins from 1798 were issued with only thirteen Stars - one for each of the
original colonies. Due to an error at the mint, one variety of the 1828 half-cent was issued with only
twelve stars. There is also a variety of the large cent with only 12 stars, but this is the result of a die break
and is not a true error.
Question 31: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Stars on American coins
B. The teaching of astronomy in state universities
C. Colonial stamps and coins
D. The star as national symbol of the United States
Question 32: The expression "Curiously enough" is used because the author finds it strange that _____.
A. Tennessee was the first state to use half dimes
B. Vermont and Kentucky joined the Union in 1794
C. silver coins with fifteen stars appeared before coins with thirteen
D. no silver coins were issued until 1794
Question 33: Why was a coin produced in 1828 with only twelve stars?
A. Tennessee had left the Union. B. The mint made a mistake.
C. There were twelve states at the time. D. There is a change in design policy.
Question 34: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as the denomination of an American coin?
A. Half nickel B. Half-dollar C. Hall cent D. Half dime
Question 35: The word "their" in line 1 refers to _________.
A. features B. coins C. stars D. colonies
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Do you feel like your teenager is spending most of the day glued to a phone screen? You're not
too far off. A new survey from the Pew Research Center reveals the surprising ways that technology
intersects with teen friendships – and the results show that 57 percent of teens have made at least one new
friend online. Even more surprisingly, only 20 percent of those digital friends ever meet in person.
While teens do connect with their friends face-to-face outside of school, they spend 55 percent of their
day texting with friends, and only 25 percent of teens are spending actual time with their friends on a
daily basis (outside of school hallways). These new forms of communication are key in maintaining
friendships day-to-day – 27 percent of teens instant message their friends every day, 23 percent connect
through social media every day, and 7 percent even video chat daily. Text messaging remains the main
form of communication – almost half of survey respondents say it's their chosen method of
communication with their closest friend.

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While girls are more likely to text with their close friends, boys are meeting new friends (and
maintaining friendships) in the gaming world – 89 percent play with friends they know, and 54 percent
play with online-only friends. Whether they're close with their teammates or not, online garners say that
playing makes them feel "more connected" to friends they know, or garners they've never met.
When making new friends, social media has also become a major part of the teenage identity – 62
percent of teens are quick to share their social media usernames when connecting with a new friend
(although 80 percent still consider their phone number the best method of contact). Despite the negative
consequences-21 percent of teenage users feel worse about their lives because of posts they see on social
media – teens also have found support and connection through various platforms. In fact, 68 percent of
teens received support during a challenging time in their lives via social media platforms.
Just as technology has become a gateway for new friendships, or a channel to stay connected with current
friends, it can also make a friendship breakup more public. The study reveals that girls are more likely to
block or unfriend former allies, and 68 percent of all teenage users report experiencing "drama among
their friends on social media."
(Source: https://www.realsimple.com)
Question 36: The word "digital" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to _____.
A. analogue B. numeracy C. numerous D. online
Question 37: The word "they" in paragraph 3 refers to _____.
A. friends B. online-only friends C. online gamers D. their
teammates
Question 38: According to the passage, what percentage of teens spend actual time with their friends?
A. 23% B. 25% C. 27% D. 55%
Question 39: The following sentences are true, EXCEPT _____.
A. Most teenagers use video chat to maintain relationship with friends
B. New forms of communication play an important role in keeping friendships
C. According to the survey, more than half of teens have ever made new friends online
D. Teens only meet face-to-face one fifth of online friends they have made
Question 40: What can be inferred from the passage?
A. The majority of teenage users agree that social media has negative consequences in their lives.
B. Thanks to social media, more than two thirds of teens are supported when they face with
challenges in their lives.
C. Boys are more likely to meet new friends than girls.
D. Most teens are not easy to give others their usernames when making new friends.
Question 41: What is the synonym of the word "breakup” in the last paragraph?
A. commencing B. popularity C. termination D. divorce
Question 42: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. The difference of making new friends between girls and boys.
B. Social media connects friendship.
C. Social media affects friendship too much.
D. Teenagers are making and keeping friends in a surprising way.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: What I told her a few days ago is not the solution to most of her problems.
A B C D
Question 44: Tom’s jokes are inappropriate but we have to put up with it just because he’s the boss.
A B C D

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Question 45: Modern office buildings have false floors under which computer and phone wires can be lain.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions
Question 46: The last time I saw her was three years ago.
A. I have not seen her for three years.
B. About three years ago, I used to meet her.
C. I have often seen her for the last three years.
D. I saw her three years ago and will never meet her
Question 47: She said, "John, I'll show you round my city when you're here."
A. She made a trip round her city with John.
B. She planned to show John round her city.
C. She promised to show John round her city.
D. She organized a trip round her city for John.
Question 48: It is unnecessary for you to finish the report until tomorrow afternoon
A.You needn’t finish the report until tomorrow afternoon.
B.You have to finish the report unitl tomorrow afternoon.
C.You may finish the report after tomorrow afternoon.
D.You should finish the report until tomorrow afternoon
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 49: Susan didn’t apply for the summer job in the cafe. She now regrets it.
A. Susan wishes that she applied for the summer job in the cafe.
B. Susan feels regret because she didn’t apply for the summer job in the cafe.
C. If only Susan didn’t apply for the summer job in the cafe.
D. Susan wishes that she had applied for the summer job in the cafe.
Question 50: She had only just put the telephone down when the boss rang.
A. She put the telephone down and the boss rang.
B. Hardly had she put the telephone down when the boss rang.
C. The boss rang back, but she put the telephone down.
D. She had put the telephone down, so she let it ring when the boss rang.
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ĐỀ THI THỬ KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2021
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ SỐ 3 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh:…………………………………………………………………………
Số báo danh:....................................................................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from that of the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. laughed B. sacrificed C. cooked D. explained
Question 2. A. meat B. bean C. sweat D. meaning
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. support B. slogan C. icon D. motto
Question 4. A. dominate B. disagree C. disrespect D. interfere
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. Nobody called me yesterday, ……………….?
A. didn't it B. do they C. didn't they D. did they
Question 6.This house ———————- in 1970 by my grandfather.
A. built B. was built C. was build D. has built
Question 7. What do you know .......... him?
A. on B. about C. with D. for
Question 8. The more I tried my best to help her, ……….she became.
A. less lazy B. the lazier C. the more lazy D. lazier
Question 9. She has just bought .
A. an interesting French old painting B. an old interesting French painting
C. a French interesting old painting D. an interesting old French painting
Question 10. When the boss walked into the office, his secretary ________.
A.has been typing B.was typing C. is typing D. had typed
Question 11. She got the job the fact that she had very little experience.
A. although B. because of C. despite D. because
Question 12. ________ to help, we will have finished the work.
A. By the time John comes B. Since John comes
C. When John comes D. Until John comes
Question 13: the distance was too far and the time was short, we decided to fly there instead of going
there by train.
A. To discover B. Discovered C. To have discovered D. Discovering
Question 14: She was pleased that things were going on _______.
A. satisfied B. satisfactorily C. satisfying D. satisfaction
Question 15. I was late for work because my alarm clock did not _______ .
A. turn off B. put off C. send off D. go off
Question 16: Peter______ a better understanding of Algebra than we do.
A. makes B. has C. takes D. gives
Question 17: The sight of his pale face brought ________ to me how ill he really was.

1 11
A. place B. house C. life D. home
Question 18. Ihe children had to___________in the principal’s office after they took part in a fight.
A. hit the right notes B. beat around the bush
C. play second fiddle D. face the music
Question 19: In the formal interview, it is essential to maintain good eye with the interviewers.
A. contact B. touch C. link D. connection
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: The factory is fined for discharging dangerous chemicals into the river.
A. releasing B. increasing C. decreasing D. keeping
Question 21: The new college is intended to improve the life chances of children in the inner city.
A. productions B. communities C. opportunities D. questions
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Children brought up in a caring environment tend to grow more sympathetic towards
others.
A. loving B. dishonest C. healthy D. hateful
Question 23: It’s quite disappointing that some people still turn a blind eye to acts of injustice they
witness in the street.
A. take no notice of B. have no feeling for
C. show respect for D. pay attention to
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24: Janet wants to invite Susan to go to the cinema.
- Janet: “Do you feel like going to the cinema this evening?” - Susan: “______.”
A. I don’t agree, I’m afraid B. You’re welcome
C. That would be great D. I feel very bored
Question 25: - Baker: “In my opinion, women often drive more carefully than men.”
- Barbara: “______.”
A. Never mind B. What nonsense C. Absolutely D. Yes, please
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Urban development is having a direct impact on the weather in (26) ______ cities worldwide. It has
been noticed that the difference in temperature is usually greater at night and the phenomenon occurs in
both winter and summer. Experts agree that this is due to urban development, when open green spaces are
replaced with asphalt roads and tall brick or concrete buildings. These materials retain heat generated by
the Sun and release it through the night. In Atlanta, in the US, this has even led to thunderstorms (27)
______ occur in the morning rather than, as is more common, in the afternoon.
Large cities around the world are adopting strategies to combat this issue, (28) ______ it is not
uncommon to find plants growing on top of roofs or down the walls of large buildings. In Singapore, the
government has (29) ______ to transform it into a "city within a garden" and, in 2006, they held an
international competition calling for entries to develop a master plan to help bring this about. One
outcome was the creation of 18 "Supertrees" – metal constructions resembling very tall trees. Each one is
a vertical freestanding garden and is (30) ______ to exotic plants and ferns. They also contain solar

2 12
panels used to light the trees at night and also containers to collect rainwater, making them truly self-
sufficient.
Question 26: A. one B. many C. each D. much
Question 27: A. which B. where C. what D. when
Question 28: A. however B. for C. otherwise D. and
Question 29: A. committed B. pledged C. confessed D. required
Question 30: A. land B. house C. place D. home
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Edward Patrick Eagan was born on April 26th 1897 in Denver, Colorado, and his father died in a
railroad accident when Eagan was only one year old. He and his four brothers were raised by his mother,
who earned a small income from teaching foreign languages.
Inspired by Frank Marriwell, the hero of a series of popular novels for boys, Eagan pursued an
education for himself and an interest in boxing. He attended the University of Denver for a year before
serving in the U.S. army as an artillery lieutenant during World War I. After the war, he entered Yale
University and while studying there, won the US national amateur heavyweight boxing title. He
graduated from Yale in 1921, attended Harvard Law School, and received a Rhodes scholarship to the
University of Oxford where he received his A.M. in 1928.
While studying at Oxford, Eagan became the first American to win the British amateur boxing
championship. Eagan won his first gold medal as a light heavyweight boxer at the 1920 Olympic Games
in Antwerp, Belgium. Eagan also fought at the 1924 Olympics in Paris as a heavyweight but failed to get
a medal. Though he had taken up the sport just three weeks before the competition, he managed to win a
second gold medal as a member of four-man bobsled team at the 1932 Olympics in Lake Placid, New
York. Thus, he became the only athlete to win gold medals at both the Summer and Winter Olympics.
(Adapted from "Peteson's Master TOEFL Reading Skills)
Question 31:What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Eagan's life shows that a man can be an athlete and a well-educated person.
B. Eagan's life shows that military experiences make athletes great.
C. Eagan's life shows how a wealthy student can achieve as much as a poor one.
D. Eagan's life shows how easy it is to win two gold medals in different Olympic sports.
Question 32: According to the passage, who was Frank Merriwell?
A. A teacher at Yale B. A student at Oxford
C. A fictional character D. A bobsledder at the Olympics
Question 33: The word "Inspired" in paragraph 2 in CLOSEST in meaning to ______.
A. stopped B. challenged C. calmed D. stimulated
Question 34: According to the passage, Eagan won all of the following EXCEPT ______.
A. British amateur boxing championship B. U.S. national amateur heavyweight boxing
title
C. Heavyweight boxing, Olympic gold medal D. Light heavyweight boxing, Olympic gold
medal
Question 35: The word "the competition" in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. sport B. 1932 Olympics C. gold medals D. Summer Olympics
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

3 13
It is estimated that by 2050 more than two-thirds of the world's population will live in cities, up
from about 54 percent today. While the many benefits of organized and efficient cities are well
understood, we need to recognize that this rapid, often unplanned urbanization brings risks of profound
social instability, risks to critical infrastructure, potential water crises and the potential for devastating
spread of disease. These risks can only be further exacerbated as this unprecedented transition from rural
to urban areas continues.
How effectively these risks can be addressed will increasingly be determined by how well cities
are governed. The increased concentration of people, physical assets, infrastructure and economic
activities mean that the risks materializing at the city level will have far greater potential to disrupt
society than ever before.
Urbanization is by no means bad by itself. It brings important benefits for economic, cultural and societal
development. Well managed cities are both efficient and effective, enabling economies of scale and
network effects while reducing the impact on the climate of transportation. As such, an urban model can
make economic activity more environmentally-friendly. Further, the proximity and diversity of people
can spark innovation and create employment as exchanging ideas breeds new ideas.
But these utopian concepts are threatened by some of the factors driving rapid urbanization. For
example, one of the main factors is rural-urban migration, driven by the prospect of greater employment
opportunities and the hope of a better life in cities. But rapidly increasing population density can create
severe problems, especially if planning efforts are not sufficient to cope with the influx of new
inhabitants. The result may, in extreme cases, be widespread poverty. Estimates suggest that 40% of the
world's urban expansion is taking place in slums, exacerbating socio-economic disparities and creating
unsanitary conditions that facilitate the spread of disease.
The Global Risks 2015 Report looks at four areas that face particularly daunting challenges in the
face of rapid and unplanned urbanization: infrastructure, health, climate change, and social instability. In
each of these areas we find new risks that can best be managed or, in some cases, transferred through the
mechanism of insurance.
Question 36: The word “that" in paragraph 4 refers to __________.
A. urban expansion B. socio-economic disparities
C. disease D. unsanitary conditions
Question 37:According to paragraph 3, what is one of the advantages of urbanization?
A. It minimizes risks for economic, cultural and societal development.
B. It makes water supply system both efficient and effective.
C. Weather and climate in the city will be much improved.
D. People may come up with new ideas for innovation.
Question 38:Which statement is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Urbanization brings important benefits for development as well.
B. 54% of the world's population will live in cities by 2050.
C. Risks cannot be addressed effectively no matter how well cities are governed.
D. Rapidly increasing population density can help solve poverty.
Question 39: The word "addressed" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. aimed at B. dealt with C. added to D. agreed on
Question 40: What can be inferred from the passage?
A. Poverty may be a foregone conclusion of unplanned urbanization.
B. Diseases are caused by people migrating to cities.
C. Urbanization can solve the problem of environmental pollution in cities.

4 14
D. The increasing number of people in cities can create more employment.
Question 41: Which is the most suitable title for the passage?
A. The Risks of Rapid Urbanization in Developing Countries
B. Infrastructure and Economic Activities in Cities
C. The Global Risks 2015 Report on Developing Urban Areas
D. Rapid Urbanization Put Cities in Jeopardy
Question 42: The word “spark” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. need B. start C. encourage D. design
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: The passengers, tired after a very long trip, was relaxing in every available seat in the
airport lobby.
A B C D
Question 44: He didn’t meet her even one time since they said good bye together .
A B C D
Question 45: He was so exhausted that he felt asleep at his desk.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions
Question 46: She began to play the piano three years ago.
A. She has played the piano since three years. B. She has played the piano for three years
C. She doesn’t play the piano now. D. She stops playing the piano now.
Question 47: "Don't forget to submit your assignments by Thursday," said the teacher to the students.
A. The teacher reminded the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
B. The teacher allowed the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
C. The teacher ordered the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
D. The teacher encouraged the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
Question 48: It’s very likely that the company will accept his application.
A. The company needs accept his application. B. The company might accept his application.
C. The company must accept his application. D. The company should accept his application.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 49: Marie didn’t turn up at John’s birthday party. I feel so sorry for that.
A. If only Marie turn up at John’s birthday party.
B. I wish Marie had turned up at Johns birthday party.
C. I wished Marie wouldn’t turn up at John’s birthday party.
D. It’s a shame Marie had turned up at John’s birthday party.
Question 50: The government does not know what to do with household rubbish in large cities.
A. Little does the government know what to do with household rubbish in large cities.
B. It is unknown what to do with household rubbish in large cities by the government.
C. Rarely the government knows what to do with household rubbish in large cities.
D. Hardly any government knows what to do with household rubbish in large cities.
------------------------ THE END ------------------------

5 15
ĐỀ THI THỬ KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2021
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ SỐ 4 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh:…………………………………………………………………………
Số báo danh:....................................................................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. mended B. faced C. objected D. waited
Question 2. A. breakfast B. feature C. peasant D. pleasure
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. confide B. gather C. divide D. maintain
Question 4. A. compulsory B. certificate C. category D. accompany
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. She didn’t go yesterday, _________?
A. does she B. doesn't she C. did she D. didn’t she
Question 6. .Laura . . . . . . . . in Boston.
A. are born B. were born C. was born D. born
Question 7.These facts may be familiar .......... you.
A. with B. about C. to D. into
Question 8 . ………I get to know Jim, the more I like him.
A. For more B. More C. The more D. The most
Question 9.We like policies.
A. American recent economic B. economic recent American
C. recent American economic D. recent economic American
Question 10. He fell down when he towards the church.
A. run B. runs C. was running D. had run
Question 11. He managed to win the race hurting his foot before the race.
A. in spite of B. despite of C. although D. because of
Question 12 the letter, Tom will have left for Paris.
A. By the time we receive B. before we receive
C. when we receive D. after we receive
Question 13: UNESCO criteria for outstanding universal value to humanity, Trang An Scenic
Landscape Complex was added to the World Heritage List in 2014.
A. Meeting B. Met C. To meet D. Having met
Question 14: The teacher likes her essay because it’s very ______
A. imagination B. imaginable C.imaginative D. imaginary
Question 15: When being interviewed, you should ……… what the interviewer is saying or asking you.
A. be related to B. be interested in C. express interest to D. concentrate on
Question 16: We have been working hard. Let’s a break.
A. make B. find C. do D. take
Question 17: The ______ prices of property in big cities may deter people on low incomes from owning
a house there.

1 16
A. competitive B. forbidding C. prohibitive D. inflatable
Question 18. We were so looking forward to stretching out on the beach in the sunshine, but it _______
the whole time we were there.
A. poured with rain B. rained dogs and cats
C. dropped in the bucket D. made hay while the sun shined
Question 19. Environmental groups try to stop farmers from using harmful _______ on their crops.
A. economy B. Agriculture C. investments D. chemicals
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: My uncle, who is an accomplished guitarist, taught me how to play.
A. skillful B. famous C. perfect D. modest
Question 21: Dozens of valuable works of art disappeared during shipment to the US.
A. authority B. security C. activity D. delivery
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Some vegetables are grown without soil and artificial light.
A. real B. natural C. genuine D. true
Question 23: It is very difficult to tell him to give in because he is so big-headed.
A. wise B. generous C. modest D. arrogant
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24: Jane had difficulty carrying her suitcase upstairs, and Mike, her friend, offered to help.
– Mike: “Need a hand with your suitcase, Jane?” – Jane: “______”
A. Not a chance. B. That’s very kind of you.
C. Well done! D. I don’t believe it.
Question 25: Julia and Phoebe is talking about Peter.
- Julia: “Peter was born and brought up in Hastings and he must know it very well.”
- Phoebe: “______. He even couldn’t tell me where to have some street food there.”
A. I can’t agree with you more. B. You must be right.
C. I'm of the opposite opinion D. I don't think that's a good idea
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
In the year 1900, the world was in the midst of a machine revolution. (26) _____ electrical power
became more ubiquitous, tasks once done by hand were now completed quickly and efficiently by
machine. Sewing machines replaced needle and thread. Tractors replaced hoes. Typewriters replaced
pens. Automobiles replaced horse-drawn carriages.
A hundred years later, in the year 2000, machines were again pushing the boundaries of (27) _____
was possible. Humans could now work in space, thanks to the International Space Station. We were
finding out the composition of life thanks to the DNA sequencer. Computers and the world wide web
changed the way we learn, read, communicate, or start political revolutions.
So what will be the game-changing machines in the year 2100? How will they (28) _____ our lives
better, cleaner, safer, more efficient, and (29) _____ exciting?
We asked over three dozen experts, scientists, engineers, futurists, and organizations in five
different disciplines, including climate change, military, infrastructure, transportation, and space
exploration, about how the machines of 2100 will change humanity. The (30) _____ we got back were
thought-provoking, hopeful and, at times, apocalyptic.
(Adapted from https://www.popularmechanics.com/)
2 17
Question 26: A. Despite B. However C. Although D. As
Question 27: A. what B. that C. who D. which
Question 28: A. notice B. taste C. make D. hope
Question 29: A. much B. more C. little D. less
Question 30: A. answers B. programs C. contacts D. services
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Right now, the biggest source of energy in the world is fossil fuel. Fossil fuels are oil, gas, and coal.
More than 80 percent of the world's energy comes from fossil fuel. There are many problems with fossil
fuel. One problem is that when fossil fuel is burned, it pollutes the air. Also, when we take fossil fuel
from the Earth, we often cause a lot of damage. Another problem is that we are running out of it. That is
why we need new sources of energy. A big source of energy for many countries is nuclear power. Thirty-
one countries use nuclear power. Many ships also use it.
Nuclear power has some advantages. First of all, we can't run out of nuclear power. Nuclear power
does not make the air dirty. Also, if a country has nuclear power, it doesn't need to buy as much as oil
from other countries.
However, there are also a lot of problems that come with nuclear power. For example, nuclear
accidents are very serious. In 1986, there was a nuclear accident in Ukraine. In the next 20 years, about
4,000 people got sick and died. In 2011, there was another very serious nuclear accident in Japan. Japan is
still trying to clean up the nuclear waste from the accident.
Many people don't want nuclear power in their countries. They say that it is not safe. A lot of
people want their countries to use safer and cleaner ways to get electricity. There have been protests
against nuclear energy in the United States, Russia, France, Taiwan, Japan, India, and many other
countries.
Although many people hate nuclear energy, more and more countries are using it. One reason for
this is that the world is using more and more energy. We just don't have enough fossil fuel. However, if
we use nuclear power, then we may have more serious problems in the future.
Question 31: Which of the following is NOT true about fossil fuel?
A. It can pollute the air.
B. We don't use much of it.
C. Its sources are limited.
D. Mining fossil fuel can bring harm to the environment.
Question 32: All of the following are true about nuclear accidents EXCEPT that ______.
A. they have been very serious
B. their effects can last many years
C. it doesn't take us much time to clean up the nuclear waste from the accident
D. there were serious nuclear accidents in Ukraine in 1986 and in Japan in 2011
Question 33: The phrase "clean up" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. block B. evacuate C. disappear D. remove
Question 34: What does the word "They" in paragraph 4 refer to?
A. countries B. protesters C. officials D. supporters
Question 35:Which of the following statements would the author of the passage support most?
A. Some governments are wrong when they are using nuclear energy.
B. We should consider seriously nuclear power because it has both advantages and disadvantages.
C. We can continue using nuclear energy until there is an accident.
D. Many people don't want nuclear power in their countries and governments should follow their
people.

3 18
Contrary to popular belief, one does not have to be trained programmer to work online. Of course,
there are plenty of jobs available for people with high-tech computer skills, but the growth of new
media has opened up a wide range of Internet career opportunities requiring only a minimal level of
technical expertise. Probably one of the most well-known online job opportunities is the job of
webmaster. However, it is hard to define one basic job description for this position. The qualifications
and responsibilities depend on what tasks a particular organization needs a webmaster to perform.
To specify the job description of a webmaster, one needs to identify the hardware and software
that the website the webmaster will manage is running on. Different types of hardware and software
require different skill sets to manage them. Another key factor is whether the website will be running
internally (at the firm itself) or externally (renting shared space on the company servers). Finally, the
responsibilities of a webmaster also depend on whether he or she will be working independently, or
whether the firm will provide people to help. All of these factors need to be considered before one can
create an accurate webmaster job description.
Webmaster is one type of Internet career requiring in-depth knowledge of the latest computer
applications. However, there are also online jobs available for which traditional skills remain in high
demand. Content jobs require excellent writing skills and a good sense of the web as a “new media”.
The term “new media” is difficult to define because it encompasses a constantly growing set of
new technologies and skills, specifically, it includes websites, email, Internet technology, CD-ROM,
DVD, streaming audio and video, interactive multimedia presentations, e-books, digital music,
computer illustration, video games, virtually reality, and computer artistry.
Additionally, many of today’s Internet careers are becoming paid-by-the-job professions. With
many companies having to downsize in tough economic items, the outsourcing and contracting of
freelance workers online has become common business practice. The Internet provides an infinite pool
of buyers from around the world with whom freelancers can contract their services. An added benefit to
such online jobs is that freelancers are able to work on projects with companies outside their own
country of residence.
How much can a person make in these kinds of career? As with many questions related to todays
evolving technology, there is no simple answer. There are many companies willing to pay people with
technical Internet skills salaries well above $70,000 a year. Generally, webmasters start at about
$30,000 per year, but salaries can vary greatly. Freelance writers working online have been known to
make between $40,000 and $70,000 per year.
Question 36: What is the best title for this passage?
A. The definition of “new media” B. Internet jobs
C. The job of Webmasters D. People with Internet skills
Question 37: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE of webmasters?
A. They work either independently or collaboratively.
B. The duties they perform stay almost unchanged.
C. Their jobs require a minimal level of expertise
D. They hardly support hardware and software products.
Question 38: The word “identity” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to____________
A. find out B. pick up on C. come across D. look into
Question 39: The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to____________.
A. websites B. tasks C. hardware and software D. skill sets
Question 40: Which of the followings is NOT true about the job of the freelance writers?
A. It may involve working with foreign companies.
B. It is considered a “content” job.
C. There is a high demand for traditional skills.

4 19
D. It requires deep knowledge of computer applications.
Question 41: The word “downsize” in paragraph 5 most likely means____________.
A. dismiss workers B. decrease salary C. go bankrupt D. win new contracts
Question 42: It can be inferred from the passage that____________.
A. only well-trained workers are advised to work online.
B. online workers can work full-time online.
C. becoming a webmaster is really easy.
D. workers with limited computer skills cannot make good money.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: The man, a poor man, is invited to the Clambake last night.
A B C D
Question 44: : Their free trip, which they won on a television game show, include four days in London
and a
A B C
D
week in Paris.
Question 45: Today's students also appear more formerly dressed and conservative- looking these days.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions
Question 46: This is the first time we have been to the circus.
A. We have been to the circus some times before.
B. We had been to the circus once before.
C. We have ever been to the circus often before.
D. We have never been to the circus before.
Question 47: "I’ll take the children to the park," said the husband to his wife.
A. The husband asked the wife to take the children to the park.
B. The husband offered to take the children to the park.
C. The husband insisted on taking the children to the park.
D. The husband requested to take the children to the park.
Question 48: Is it necessary to meet the manager at the airport?
A. Did the manager have to be met at the airport?.
B. Does the manager have to be met at the airport?
C. Is the manager had to be met at the airport?
D. Does the manager have to meet at the airport?
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 49: Nam was so rude to them last night. Now he feels regretful.
A. Nam regrets to have been so rude to them last night.
B. Nam regrets having so rude to them last night.
C. Nam wishes he hadn’t been so rude to them last night.
D. Nam wishes he weren’t so rude to them last night.
Question 50: He started computer programming as soon as he left school.
A. No sooner had he started computer programming than he left school.
B. Hardly had he started computer programming when he left school.
C. No sooner had he left school than he started computer programming.
D. After he left school, he had started computer programming.

------------------------ THE END ------------------------


5 20
ĐỀ THI THỬ KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2021
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ SỐ 5 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh:…………………………………………………………………………
Số báo danh:....................................................................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. culture B. student C. institution D. university
Question 2: A. enjoyed B. turned C. joined D. helped
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. present B. appeal C. dissolve D. eject
Question 4: A. employer B. reunite C. understand D. recommend
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5 . She didn't close the door, ___?
A. does she B. doesn't she C. did she D. didn’t she
Question 6 : This house is going . . . . . . . .. by my mother
A. sold B. to be sold C. to sold D. to sell
Question 7 : Gas is made .......... coal.
A. of B. from C. with D. to
Question 8………..he worked, the more he earned.
A. The more hard B. The hard C. The harder D. The hardest
Question 9. Indiana University, one of the largest in the nation, is located in a town.
A. small beautiful Midwestern B. beautiful Midwestern small
C. Midwestern beautiful small D. beautiful small Midwestern
Question 10: At this time last night She was cooking and he _______ the newspaper.
A. is reading B. was reading C. is reading D. read
Question 11. I knew they were talking about me they stopped when I entered the room.
A. because B. so that C. despite D. therefore
Question 12. I think by the time we ________ there, Jim will have left
A. by the time we get B. after we get C. when we get D. until we get
Question 13. the email - supposedly from Boyd's Bank - to be genuine, she was tricked into disclosing her
credit card details.
A. Believe B. Being believed C. To believe D. Believing
Question 14: The fire was believed to have been caused by an fault.
A. electrical B. electric C. electricity D. electronic
Question 15: The party starts at 9 o'clock so I’ll at 8.30.
A. look for you B. pick you up C. bring you along D. bring up
Question 16: The internship in this company an influence on him for the rest of his life.
A. had B. made C. took D. gave
Question 17: The Giant Panda has been on the of extinction for many years.
A. border B. verge C. margin D. rim
Question 18: She's a woman with no pretensions.
A. ambitious B. creative C. idealistic D. down-to-earth
Question 19: She took a course in fine arts startingher own business in interior design.
A. with a view to B. in terms of C. in order to D. with reterence to
1 21
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: He sounded panic-stricken on the phone.
A. terrified B. hilarious C. happy D. disappointed
Question 21: ANU has maintained its position as Australia's top university.
A. conserve B. remain C. complain D. conquer
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: We are very grateful to Professor Humble for his generosity in donating this wonderful painting to
the museum.
A. meanness B. sympathy C. gratitude D. churlishness
Question 23: The works of such men as the English philosophers John Locke and Thomas Hobbes helped pave the
way for academic freedom in the modern sense.
A. terminate B. prevent C. initiate D. lighten
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24: - “Shall we go boating tomorrow?” - “______. The weather report says a storm is coming”.
A. I’m afraid we can’t B. Sure
C. That’s a good idea D. That’s a deal
Question 25: - Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response
to complete the following exchange.
Sarah and Kathy are talking about bad habits of children
Sarah: “Children under ten shouldn't stay up late to play computer games.”
Kathy: “ .”
A. I don't quite agree with you B. Yes, I share your opinion.
C. You are absolute right. D. Surely, they shouldn't
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
No one runs the internet. It’s organized as a decentralized network of networks. Thousands of
companies, universities, governments, and other (26) ______ operate their own networks and exchange
traffic with (27) ______ other based on voluntary interconnection agreements.
The shared technical standards (28) ______ make the internet work are managed by an organization
called the Internet Engineering Task Force. The IETF is an open organization; anyone is free to attend
meetings, propose new standards, and recommend changes to existing standards. No one is required to
adopt standards endorsed by the IETF, but the IETF’s consensus-based decision-making process helps to
(29) ______ that its recommendations are generally adopted by the internet community.
The Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers (ICANN) is sometimes described as
being (30) ______ for internet governance. As its name implies, ICANN is in charge of distributing
domain names (like vox.com) and IP addresses. But ICANN doesn’t control who can connect to the
internet or what kind of information can be sent over it.
(Adapted from https://www.vox.com/)
Question 26: A. entities B. terms C. amounts D. states
Question 27: A. another B. every C. each D. all
Question 28: A. that B. who C. when D. what
Question 29: A. function B. stress C. exchange D. ensure
Question 30: A. curious B. responsible C. cheerful D. interested
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
2 22
Dolphins are one of the most intelligent species on the planet, which makes them a very
interesting animal to scientists. In their natural habitats, dolphins use various vocalization techniques.
They whistle and squeak to recognize members of their pod, identify and protect their young, and call
out warnings of danger. They also make clicking sounds used for echolocation to find food and
obstacles in dark and murky waters.
Amazingly, the whistling sound that the bottlenose dolphin makes has been found to have a
similar pattern to human language. They always make conversational sounds when they greet each
other. If you listen to dolphins' squeaks and squeals, it will sound like they are having a conversation.
Dolphins usually use both sound and body language to communicate with each other. It is through
gesture and body language, however, that most of their communication with humans comes. Dolphins
can be trained to perform complicated tricks. This suggests they have a high level of intelligence and
communication capacity. If they work for a long time with a trainer, they are able to recognize and
understand human commands.
A lot of dolphin communication has been studied using dolphins in captive environments. These
studies have been criticized because some marine biologists believe that dolphins living in aquariums or
research centers cannot be considered "normal." Even so, most believe that studying dolphin
communication in captivity is useful for beginning to understand the complexity of dolphin
communication. After all, dolphins are one of the most intelligent animals. Their ability to
communicate is impressive and worthy of study.
Question 31: What would be the most suitable title for the passage?
A. Communications in dolphins
B. Intelligent mammals in captivity
C. Dolphins' social tendencies with humans
D. Complex patterns in dolphin life
Question 32: In line 2, the word vocalization is closest in meaning to____________.
A. making gestures B. creating words C. producing sounds D. closing eyes
Question 33: According to paragraph 4, what do some marine biologists think about captive
dolphins?
A. Their relationships are too personal with marine biologists.
B. They can't be considered accurate subjects for biological studies.
C. They can communicate exactly the same as humans do.
D. They easily demonstrate how dolphins act in the wild.
Question 34: All of the following are true about dolphin communication EXCEPT____________
A. dolphins' squeals and squeaks sound conversational to the human ear
B. dolphins' clicking sounds are sometimes used to greet humans
C. communication using sounds and gestures occurs between dolphins
D. body language and gestures are used for communication with humans
Question 35: In line 17, the word “most” refers to ____________
A. the majority of marine biologists B. a few bottlenose dolphins
C. a lot of bottlenose dolphins D. the minority of marine biologists

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
There are many theories of aging, but virtually all fall into the category of being hypotheses with
a minimum of supporting evidence. One viewpoint is that aging occurs as the body's organ systems
become less efficient. Thus failures in the immune system, hormonal system, and nervous system could
all produce characteristics that we associate with aging. Following a different vein, many current

3 23
researchers are looking for evidence at the cellular and sub cellular level.
It has been shown that cells such as human fibroblasts (generalized tissue cells) grown in culture divide
only a limited number of times and then die. (Only cancer cells seem immortal in this respect).
Fibroblast cells from an embryo divide more times than those taken from an adult. Thus some
researchers believe that aging occurs at the cellular level and is part of the cell's genetic makeup. Any
event that disturbs the cell's genetic machinery such as mutation, damaging chemicals in the cell's
environment, or loss of genetic material, could cause cells to lose their ability to divide and thus bring
on aging. Other theories of aging look at different processes. Chronological aging refers to the passage
of time since birth and is usually measured in years. While chronological age can be useful in
estimating the average status of a large group of people, it is a poor indicator of an individual person's
status because there is a tremendous amount of variation from one individual to the next in regard to the
rate at which biological age changes occur. For example, on the average, aging results in people losing
much of their ability to perform strenuous activities, yet some elderly individuals are excellent
marathon runners.
Another type of aging is cosmetic aging, which consists of changes in outward appearance with
advancing age. This includes changes in the body and changes in other aspects of a person's
appearance, such as the style of hair and clothing, the type of eyeglasses, and the use of a hearing aid.
Like chronological aging, it is frequently used to estimate the degree to which other types of aging have
occurred. However, it is an inaccurate indicator for either purpose because of variation among
individuals and because a person's appearance is affected by many factors that are not part of aging,
including illness, poor nutrition, and exposure to sunlight
Question 36: What is the best title for this passage?
A. Different Processes of Aging
B. Outstanding Characteristics Associated with Aging
C. Theories of Aging: Well Proven Hypotheses
D. Theories of Aging: Poorly Supported Hypotheses
Question 37: The author points out that cancer cells_____________
A. seem to live forever
B. divide and then die
C . divide more in embryos than in adults
D. lose their ability to divide
Question 38: The phrase “an embryo” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to_____________.
A. a descendant B. an infant C. a parent D. an internal organ
Question 39: The word “strenuous” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to_____________.
A. basic B. troublesome C. mental D. intense
Question 40: According to the passage, chronological aging is not a good indicator of an
individual’s status regarding aging because_____________ .
A. elderly people are often athletic
B. there is individual variation in the rate of biological aging
C. strenuous activities are not good measures of age
D. it is difficult to get accurate records of birth dates
Question 41: In the last paragraph, the word “this” refers to_____________
A. cosmetic aging B. type of aging C. outward appearance D. advancing age
Question 42. The author implies all of the following about cosmetic aging EXCEPT_____________
A. It does not occur at the same rate for all people
B. It is a poor indicator of chronological age
C. Illness, poor nutrition, and exposure to sunlight cause aging to occur

4 24
D. It is described by changes in outward appearance.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 43: Mrs. Mai and her friends from Vietnam plan to attend the festival now
A B C D
Question 44: Some manufacturers are not only raising their prices but also decreasing the production of
its
A B C
D
products.
Question 45: The whole matter is farther complicated by the fact that Amanda and Jo refuse to speak
to
A B C
each other.
D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions
Question 46: She has known how to play the piano for 5 years.
A. She didn’t play the piano 5 years ago.
B. She started to play the piano 5 years ago.
C. She played the piano 5 years ago.
D. The last time she played the piano was 5 years ago.
Question 47: Conan said to me, “If I were you, I would read different types of books in different ways.”
A. Conan ordered me to read different types of books in different ways.
B. I said to Conan to read different types of books in different ways to me.
C. I read different types of books in different ways to Conan as he told me.
D. Conan advised me to read different types of books in different ways.
Question 48: Every student is required to write an essay on the topic.
A. Every student might write an essay on the topic. B. Every student must write an essay on the
topic. C. They require every student can write an essay on the topic. D. Every student should
write an essay on the topic.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 49: His parents are away on holiday. He really needs their help now.
A. As long as his parents are at home, they will be able to help him.
B. He wishes his parents were at home and could help him now.
C. If his parents are at home, they can help him now.
D. If only his parents had been at home and could have helped him.
Question 50: Helen wrote a novel. He made a cowboy film, too
A. Helen wrote not only a novel but also made a cowboy film.
B. Helen both wrote a novel as well as made a cowboy film.
C. Helen either wrote a novel or made a cowboy film.
D. Not only did Helen write a novel but she also made a cowboy film.
------------------------ THE END ------------------------

5 25
ĐỀ THI THỬ KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2021
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ SỐ 6 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh:…………………………………………………………………………
Số báo danh:....................................................................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1 . A. shortlist B. temporary C. afford D. accordingly
Question 2. A. waited B. decided C. cooked D. contaminated
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
Question 3. A. confide B. gather C. divide D. maintain
Question 4. A. compulsory B. certificate C. category D. accompany
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. He went to Ha noi yesterday , ___?
A. doesn’t he B. did he C. does he D. didn’t he
Question 6. The road to our village . . . . . . . . next year.
A. is widened B. will widened C. can widened D. will be widened
Question 7. He suffers .......... headaches.
A. from B. with C. in D. by
Question 8. The more he slept,…………….irritable he became.
A. the most B. the vey more C. much more D. the more
Question 9. My aunt gave me a hat on my 16th birthday.
A. nice yellow new cotton B. new nice cotton yellow
C. new nice yellow cotton D. nice new yellow cotton
Question 10: I saw Lisa at the museum when I ________ to restaurant.
A. was going B. went C. have gone D. was going
Question 11. _______ he had enough money, he refused to buy a new car.
A. In spite B. Although C. Despite D. In spite of
Question 12: , . his employees will have worked for two hours.
A. By the time the boss arrives B. when the boss arrives
C. after the boss arrives D. only when the boss arrives
Question 13: every major judo title, Mark retired from international competition.
A. When he won B. Having won C. On winning D. Winning
Question 14: In spite of her abilities, Laura has been overlooked for promotion.
A. repeat B. repeatedly C. repetitive D. repetition
Question 15: Some high school students often_____helping the disadvantaged or handicapped
children.
A. look after B. clean up C. make out D. participate in
Question 16: A few kind words at the right time all the difference.
A. make B. give C. do D. take
Question 17. She made a big____________about not having a window seat on the plane.
A. fuss B. complaint C. interest D. excitement
Question 18 I’ve never really enjoyed going to the ballet or the opera; they’re not really my_______.
A. piece of cake B. sweets and candy C. biscuit D. cup of tea

1 26
Question 19: Tony and Toby have a lot in with each other.
A. common B. competition C. regard D. similar
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: Around 150 B.C. the Greek astronomer Hipparchus developed a system to classify stars
according to brightness.
A. record B. shine C. categorize D. diversify
Question 21: Before the advent of the railways, communications were slow and difficult.
A. import B. disappearance C. introduction D. arrival
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Unless the two signatures are identical, the bank won’t honour the check.
A. genuine B. different C. fake D. similar
Question 23: She’s a bit down in the dumps because she’s got to take her exam again.
A. sad B. embarrassed C. confident D. happy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24: - A: “Would you like me to send this package for you?” - B: “______”
A. That would be nice. Any problems? B. Yes, please, if you don’t mind.
C. I’m sorry, but here you are. D. No, thanks. I’m really busy.
Question 25: Nancy and James are talking about their school days.
– Nancy: "I think school days are the best time of our lives." – James: . We had sweet
memories together then."
A. Absolutely B. That's nonsense C. I'm afraid so D. I doubt it
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Christ the Redeemer is an Art Deco statue of Jesus Christ in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, created by
Polish-French sculptor Paul Landowski and built by the Brazilian engineer Heitor da Silva Costa, in
collaboration with the French engineer Albert Caquot. The face was created by the Romanian (26)
______ Gheorghe Leonida. The statue is 30 metres tall, not including its 8-metre pedestal, and its arms
stretch 28 metres wide. By (27) ______ , it is approximately two-thirds the height of the Statue of
Liberty’s height from base to torch.
The statue weighs 635 metric tons (625 long, 700 short tons), and is (28) ______ at the peak of the
700-metre Corcovado mountain in the Tijuca Forest National Park overlooking the city of Rio. A symbol
of Christianity across the world, the statue has also become a cultural icon of both Rio de Janeiro and
Brazil, and is listed as (29) ______ of the New Seven Wonders of the World. The statue, (30) ______ was
constructed between 1922 and 1931, is made of reinforced concrete and soapstone.
(Adapted from https://world.new7wonders.com/)
Question 26: A. artist B. guitarist C. stylist D. scientist
Question 27: A. package B. comparison C. pleasure D. occasion
Question 28: A. connected B. scratched C. located D. pointed
Question 29: A. other B. each C. another D. one
Question 30: A. why B. which C. who D. that
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

2 27
The relationship between Britain and the US has always been a close one. Like all close
relationships it has had difficult times. The US was first a British colony, but between 1775 and 1783 the
US fought a war to become independent. The US fought the British again in the War of 1812.
In general, however, the two countries have felt closer to each other than to any other country, and
their foreign policies have shown this. During World War I and World War II, Britain and the US
supported each other. When the US looks for foreign support, Britain is usually the first country to come
forward and it is sometimes called “the 51st state of the union”.
But the special relationship that developed after 1945 is not explained only by shared political
interests. An important reason for the friendship is that the people of the two countries are very similar.
They share the same language and enjoy each other's literature, films and television. Many Americans
have British ancestors, or relatives still living in Britain. The US government and political system is based
on Britain's, and there are many Anglo-American businesses operating on both sides of the Atlantic. In
Britain some people are worried about the extent of US influence, and there is some jealousy of its
current power. The special relationship was strong in the early 1980s when Margaret Thatcher was Prime
Minister in Britain and Ronald Reagan was President of the US.
(Adapted from Background to British and American Cultures)
Question 31: What is the passage mainly about?
A. The strong friendship between the UK and the US.
B. The close relationship between Britain and the US.
C. A special relationship the UK developed during the World Wars.
D. A special influence the US had on the UK during the World Wars.
Question 32: The phrase "come forward” in paragraph 2 mostly means _______.
A. be willing to help B. be able to help C. be reluctant to help D. be eager to help
Question 33:The word “They” in paragraph 3 prefers to __________.
A. countries B. people C. political interests D. British ancestors
Question 34: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a reason for the special relationship between
Britain and the US?
A. The people of the two countries are very similar.
B. Many Americans have British ancestors.
C. British Prime Minister and the US President are close friends.
D. Many Anglo-American businesses are operating in the two countries.
Question 35: Britain and the US are close to each other NOT because of their ___________.
A. foreign policies B. power C. political interests D. language
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
There are two basic types of glaciers, those that flow outward in all directions with little regard
for any underlying terrain and those that are confined by terrain to a particular path.
The first category of glaciers includes those massive blankets that cover whole continents,
appropriately called ice sheets. There must be over 50,000 square kilometers of land covered with ice
for the glacier to qualify as an ice sheet, when portions of an ice sheet spread out over the ocean, they
form ice shelves.
About 20,000 years ago the Cordilleran Ice sheet covered nearly all the mountains in southern Alaska,
western Canada, and the western United States. It was about 3 kilometers deep at its thickest point in
northern Alberta. Now there are only two sheets left on Earth, those covering Greenland and Antarctica.
Any domelike body of ice that also flows out in all directions but covers less than 50,000 square
kilometers is called an ice cap. Although ice caps are rare nowadays, there are a number in northeastern
Canada, on Baffin Island, and on the Queen Elizabeth Islands.

3 28
The second category of glaciers includes those of a variety of shapes and sizes generally called
mountain or alpine glaciers. Mountain glaciers are typically identified by the landform that controls
their flow. One form of mountain glacier that resembles an ice cap in that it flows outward in several
directions is called an ice field. The difference between an ice field and an ice cap is subtle.
Essentially, the flow of an ice field is somewhat controlled by surrounding terrain and thus does not
have the domelike shape of a cap. There are several ice fields in the Wrangell. St. Elias, and Chugach
mountains of Alaska and northern British Columbia.
Less spectacular than large ice fields are the most common types of mountain glaciers: the cirque
and valley glaciers. Cirque glaciers are found in depressions in the surface of the land and have a
characteristic circular shape. The ice of valley glaciers, bound by terrain, flows down valleys, curves
around their corners, and falls over cliffs.
Question 36: what does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Where major glaciers are located
B. How glaciers shape the land
C. The different kinds of glaciers
D. How glaciers are formed
Question 37: The word “terrain” in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by____________.
A. the seabed B. area of land C. countryside D. prairie
Question 38: It can be inferred from paragraph 2 that ice sheets are so named
because____________
A. they are thicker in some areas than the others
B. they are identified by the landform that controls their flow
C. they cover large areas of land
D. they are confined to cirque glaciers
Question 39: According to the passage, where was the Cordilleran Ice Sheet thickest?
A. Alaska B. Antarctica C. Greenland D. Alberta
Question 40: The word “subtle” in paragraph 5 could best be replaced by____________.
A. slight B. substantial C. regional D. obvious
Question 41: The word “their” in last paragraph refers to____________.
A. ice fields B. cirque glaciers C. valley glaciers D. valleys
Question 42: All of the following are alpine glaciers EXCEPT____________.
A. cirque glaciers B. ice caps C. ice fields D. Valley glaciers
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 43: My brother usually asked me for help when he has difficulty with his homework.
A B C D
Question 44: They are having her house painted by a construction company.
A B C D
Question 45: I’m becoming increasingly forgetable. Last week I locked myself out of the house twice.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 46: We have been cooking for the party for four hours.
A. We didn’t start cooking for the party until four.
B. We started cooking for the party four hours ago.
C. We have four cooks for the party
D. Cooking for the party will be done in four hours

4 29
Question 47: "Don't forget to submit your assignments by Thursday," said the teacher to the students.
A. The teacher reminded the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
B. The teacher allowed the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
C. The teacher ordered the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
D. The teacher encouraged the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
Question 48: I’m sure that they had practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals.
A. They couldn’t have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals
B. They must have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals
C. They shouldn’t have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals
D. They might have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 49: Jenifer rejected the job offer. She now regrets it.
A. Jenifer regrets not having rejected the job offer.
B. If only Jenifer didn’t reject the job offer.
C. Jenifer wishes she hadn’t rejected the job offer.
D. Jenifer regrets to reject the job offer.
Question 50: We couldn't solve the problem until our teacher arrived.
A. Not until we solved the problem could our teacher arrive.
B. When our teacher arrived, we solved the problem.
C. Until our teacher arrived, we were able to solve the problem.
D. Not until our teacher arrived could we solve the problem.

------------------------ THE END ------------------------

5 30
ĐỀ THI THỬ KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2021
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ SỐ 7 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh:…………………………………………………………………………
Số báo danh:....................................................................................................................

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from
Question 1. A. cleaned B. played C. snowed D. brushed
Question 2. A. spoon B. flood C.food D. soon
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. culture B. nature C. mature D. vulture
Question 4. A. fortunate B. genuine C. accelerate D. genocide
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. I’m getting better at this job,______?
A. am I B. am not I C. isn’t I D. aren’t I
Question 6. We can’t go along here because the road........................
A. is repairing B. is repaired C. is being repaired D. repairs
Question 7. When asked about their preference for movies, many young people say that they are in favor
science fiction.
A. for B. of C. in D. with
Question 8. Air pollution is getting serious in big cities in the world.
A. more and more B. the more and the more
C. the most and the most D. most and most
Question 9. . On my birthday, my mother gave me a .
A. new blue German car B. blue German new car C. new German blue car D. German new
blue car
Question 10: He fell down when he towards the church.
A. run B. runs C. was running D. had run
Question 11: He always did well at school_________having his early education disrupted by illness.
A. Because of B. because C. though D. in spite of
Question 12: ________to my country, I will have been away from home for more than three years.
A. By the time I returned B. By the time I return
C. When I return D. Only when I return
Question 13: for 4 hours, they decided to stop to have lunch at a cheap restaurant.
A. Having been walked B. Having walked
C. Walking D. Walked
Question 14: Her family and friends have given her lots of
A. supports B. support C. supporters D. supportive
Question 15: The trouble with James is that he never on time for a meeting.
A. turns up B. takes off C. takes up D. turns down
Question 16: The course was so difficult that I didn’t any progress at all.
A. do B. make C. produce D. create

1 31
Question 17: Peter has a separate room for his musical .
A. instruments B. equipment C. tools D. facilities
Question 18: The human criterion for perfect vision is 20/20 for reading the standard lines on a Snellen
eye chart without .
A. a hitch B. glasses C. little D. method
Question 19: You’re putting the cart before the of you work on Project B before Project A
because the former is a sequel to the latter.
A. horse B. dog C. buffalo D. ox
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: Her style of dress accentuated her extreme slenderness.
A. betrayed B. emphasized C. revealed D. disfigured
Question 21: Shopping on the internet can be safe if you follow a few simple rules.
A. uncomplicated B. unimportant C. unlucky D. unsociable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: She decided to remain celibate and devote her life to helping the homeless and orphans.
A. divorced B. separated C. single D. married
Question 23: Driver are advised to get enough petrol because filling stations are few and far between on
the highway.
A. unlikely to happen B. difficult to access C. easy to find D. impossible to
reach
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24: - “Would you like some more chicken?” - “______ I’m full”.
A. Yes, please. B. No, thanks. C. Yes, I would. D. No, I wouldn’t.
Question 25: - “Do you think they will fail in the examination?” - “No, ______”
A. I hope they will. B. I don’t think so. C. I don’t hope. D. I don’t think.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Those who work at home may find that the solitude can be a double-edged sword. It is, of course,
easier to (26) ______ when you're in your own home with no co-workers coming by your desk to chat at
random times. But while this solitude can feel blissful at times, when we have no mandate for social
interaction during the workday—when we don't automatically run across people outside of those we live
with—we can become lonely before we realize it.
Social media can feel like a lifeline to others, but this type of (27) ______ can sometimes feel
isolating as well, as these interactions can feel less personal than face-to-face encounters and
conversations. (28) ______ we may not need to resort to painting a face on a volleyball and talking to it,
the feelings of isolation can sneak up and we can feel (29) ______ alone than we expect. And given the
research on loneliness, this doesn't always feel good. Social isolation was a factor mentioned in the UN
study (30) ______ was related to increased stress of home-based workers.
(Adapted from https://www.verywellmind.com/)
Question 26: A. relax B. focus C. protect D. continue
Question 27: A. introduction B. marketing C. community D. interaction
Question 28: A. While B. Unless C. Because D. Despite
Question 29: A. few B. less C. a few D. more
Question 30: A. where B. whom C. that D. who

2 32
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Who talk more men or women? Most people believe that women talk more. However, linguist
Deborah Tannen, who has studied the communication style of men and women, says that this is a
stereotype. According to Tannen, women are more verbal - talk more in private situations, where they
use conversation as the “glue” to hold relationships together. But, she says, men talk more in public
situations, where they use conversation to exchange information and gain status. Tannen points out that
we can see these differences even in children. Little girls often play with one "best friend", their play
includes a lot of conversation. Little boys often play games in groups; their play usually involves more
doing than talking. In school, girls are often better at verbal skills, boys are often better at mathematics.
A recent study at Emory University helps to shed light on the roots of this difference. Researchers
studied conversations between children aged 3-6 and their parents. They found evidence that parents talk
very differently to their sons than they do to their daughters. The startling conclusion was that parents
use more language with their girls. Specifically, when parents talk with their daughters, they use more
descriptive language and more details. There is also far more talk about emotions, especially with
daughters than with sons.
Question 31: Which sentence best expresses the main idea of the first paragraph?
A. Little girls and little boys have different ways of playing.
B. Women talk more than men on the whole.
C. It's a stereotype that women talk more than men.
D. Women talk more in private, and men talk more in public.
Question 32: The word "they" in the first paragraph refers to ___________.
A. situations B. men and women C. men D. women
Question 33: Which of the following statements is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Parents use more language to talk with their daughters.
B. Parents give more love to their daughters than their sons.
C. Boys don't like showing their emotions.
D. Boy's play usually involves more talking than doing.
Question 34: Which word could best replace "startling" in the second paragraph?
A. beginning B. annoying C. interesting D. surprising
Question 35: Which of the following statements is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. Women use conversation as the "glue" to hold relationships together.
B. One little girl often plays with many of her best friends.
C. Parents talk to their sons and their daughters very differently.
D. Men use conversation to exchange information and gain status.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer for each of the blanks.
Scientists believe they now have scientific evidence to prove that ecosystems work better when
there is a greater variety of species within them. This biodiversity is being lost destroying natural
mechanisms that could repair the damage caused by man.
Findings show that losing plants and animals is not only reducing our quality of life but
actually endangering our very existence. We cut down rich rainforests and replace them with one species

3 33
plantations, such as pine and eucalyptus. We plough up meadows rich in different grasses and herbs and
replace them with one grass, for instance rye or wheat.
When a natural ecosystem is simplified the basic processes in the ecosystem are altered and
even damaged. Without their biodiversity, they are not able to serve as the natural cleaners of our planet.
No longer are they able to absorb the carbon dioxide that is being produced in excess. The result is
global warming, caused by the increase in the 'greenhouse effect', and ultimately, or even sooner, there
will be a change in the world's climate.
Question 36: Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. How Ecosystems Work Better B. The Loss of Biodiversity
C. The Variety of Species D. Natural Mechanisms
Question 37: Which of the following is not a species used to replace a rich ecosystem?
A. Herbs B. Pine C. Eucalyptus D. Rye
Question 38: What is the purpose of paragraph 2?
A. To show natural mechanisms at work. B. To give examples of the loss of biodiversity
C. To give example of variety of species. D. To show how ecosystems can work better.
Question 39: What, according to the passage, might be the final result of the simplification of
natural ecosystems?
A. The basic processes are altered B. There is a loss of biodiversity
C. There is global warming D. There is a change in the climate.
Question 40: The word "them" in paragraph 2 refers to __________.
A. Animals B. Plants C. rain forests D. species
Question 41: The word "Findings" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. Expressions B. Information C. Inventions D. Excavation
Question 42: As used in paragraph 3, the word “absorb” could be beat replaced which of the following?
A. take in B. draw back C. get rid of D. pay back
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 43: Caroline has worn her new yellow dress only once since she buys it.
A B C D
Question 44. The puppy stood up slowly, wagged their tail, blinked its eyes, and barked.
A B C D
Question 45: Many successful film directions are former actors who desire to expand their experience in
the
A B C D
film industry.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 46: The last time I saw her was three years ago.
A. I have not seen her for three years.
B. About three years ago, I used to meet her.
C. I have often seen her for the last three years.
D. I saw her three years ago and will never meet her
4 34
Question 47. “Would you like to come out to dinner with me tonight, Jenny?” Paul said.
A. Paul suggested that Jenny go out to dinner with him that night.
B. Paul insisted on Jenny going out to dinner with him that night.
C. Paul invited Jenny to go out to dinner with him that night.
D. Pau offered Jenny to go out to dinner with him that night
Question 48. I’m sure that they had practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals.
A. They couldn’t have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals
B. They must have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals
C. They shouldn’t have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals
D. They might have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 49: : I really regret that you haven't told me about her family.
A. If only you would tell me about her family.

B. If only I didn't regret that you hadn't told me about her family.
C. If only you had told me about her family.
D. If only you hadn't told me about her family.

Question 50: John didn’t understand what the story was about until he saw the film based on it.
A. He doesn't understand what the story is about.
B. Not until Jonh saw the film based on the story did he understand what it was about.
C. It was until he saw the film based on it that John understood what the story was about.
D. John went to see the film before she read the story.
------------------------ THE END ------------------------

5 35
ĐỀ THI THỬ KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2021
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ SỐ 8 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh:…………………………………………………………………………
Số báo danh:....................................................................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from
Question 1. A. decided B. appeared C. threatened D. engaged
Question 2. A. shown B. flown C. grown D. crown
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. struggle B. certain C. action D. police
Question 4. A. considerate B. continental C. territorial D. economic
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. He'd finished doing his homework when you arrived, ?
A. didn't he B. had he C. would he D. hadn’t he
Question 6. Something funny ...........................in class yesterday
A. happened B. was happened C. happens D. is happened
Question 7. Americans account 12% of the US population.
A. for B. with C. of D. 0
Question 8. The more you study during this semester, the week before the exam.
A. you have to study the less B. the less you have to study
C. the least you have to study D. the study less you have
Question 9. John lost the bicycle he bought last week and his parents were very angry with him.
A. new beautiful blue Japanese B. beautiful blue Japanese new
C. beautiful new blue Japanese D. Japanese beautiful new blue
Question 10: We ________ TV when it started to rain.
A. are watching B. have watched C. had watched D. were watching
Question 11: The building work is still on schedule a problem in digging the foundation.
A. due to B. despite C. so as D. only if
Question 12: He will take the dog out for a walk dinner.
A. as soon as he finishes B. as soon as he finish
C. While he will finish D. before he shall have finished
Question 13: , Joe was annoyed to find that he had left his key at the coffee shop.
A. After returned to his office B. To have just returned to his office
C. Upon returning to his office D. Having been returned to his office
Question 14: Email and instant messaging services have global communication.
A. revolutionised B. revolutionary C. revolution D. revolutionarily
Question 15: My mother often complains, “You’re so messy. I always have to _______ after you.”
A. put on B. go up C. clean up D. keep on
Question 16: Make sure you us a visit when you are in town again.
A. give B. do C. pay D. have
Question 17: I gave the waiter a $50 note and waited for my .
A. supply B. change C. cost D. cash

1 36
Question 18: Unluckily, David's dangerous and incredible journey in search of the Blue Fairy is
in_______.
A. advance B. danger C. end D. vain
Question 19: Jenny has an command of Japanese cuisine.
A. intensive B. utter C. impressive D. extreme
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: The most important thing is to keep yourself occupied.
A. busy B. comfortable C. free D. relaxed
Question 21: It is our case that he was reckless and negligent in the way he drove.
A. inharmonious B. ingenious C. intangible D. incautious
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: With the final examinations coming very soon his anxiety was rising to almost unbearable
limits.
A. joy B. confidence C. boredom D. apprehension
Question 23: The captain ordered the soldiers to gather on the double even though they were sleeping.
A. willingly B. immediately C. slowly D. intensively
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24: - Customer: “Can I try this jumper on?” - Salesgirl: “______”
A. No, the shop is closed in half an hour. B. Sorry, only cash is accepted here.
C. Yes, it costs one hundred and fifty dollars. D. Sure, the changing rooms are over there.
Question 25: Tom and Linda are talking about jobs they would like to choose.
- Tom: “I think working as a doctor is a challenging job.”
- Linda: “______”
A. It’s a good idea. B. Not at all.
C. I’m sorry, but I agree with you. D. That’s exactly what I think.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
The United States of America, due to its immense size and diverse heritage, has one of the most
complex cultural identities in the world. Millions of immigrants from all over the globe have journeyed to
America (26) ______ the Europeans discovered and colonised the land back in the 17th and 18th
centuries. The blending of cultural (27) ______ and ethnicities in America led to the country becoming
known as a “melting pot.” As the third largest country in both area and population, America’s size has
enabled the formation of subcultures within the country. These subcultures are often geographical as a
result of settlement (28) ______ by non-natives as well as regional weather and landscape differences.
While there are countless ways to divide the U.S. into regions, here we have referenced the four regions
that are West, Midwest, North East and South. People from (29) ______ region may have different
lifestyles, cultural values, business practices and dialects. While there are qualities and values (30)
______ most Americans commonly share, it is important not to generalise or assume that all Americans
think or act the same way.
(Adapted from https://www.londonschool.com/)
Question 26: A. because B. as C. for D. since
Question 27: A. backgrounds B. reference C. expression D. importance
Question 28: A. chapter B. revenue C. patterns D. unions
Question 29: A. each B. other C. all D. another

2 37
Question 30: A. when B. that C. why D. who
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
GIRLS' EDUCATION
Improving girls' educational levels has been demonstrated to have clear impacts on the health
and economic future of young women, which in turn improves the prospect of their entire community.
Research shows that every extra year of school for girls increases their lifetime income by 15%.
Improving female education, and thus the earning potential of women improves the standard of living for
their own children.
Yet, many barriers to education for girls remain. In some African countries, such as Burkina Faso,
girls are unlikely to attend school for such basic reasons as a lack of private toilet facilities for girls.
Higher attendance rates of high schools and university education among women, particularly in
developing countries, have helped them make inroads into professional careers with better-paying
salaries and wages.
Education increases a woman's (and her partner's and the family's) level of health and health
awareness. Furthering women's levels of education and advanced training also tends to lead to later ages
of initiation of sexual activity, later ages at first marriage, and later ages at first childbirth, as well as an
increased likelihood to remain single, have no children, or have no formal marriage and alternatively,
have increasing levels of long-term partnerships. It can lead to higher rates of barrier and chemical
contraceptive use (and a lower level of sexually transmitted infections among women and their partners
and children), and can increase the level of resources available to women who divorce or are in a situation
of domestic violence. It has been shown, in addition, to increase women's communication with their
partners and their employers, and to improve rates of civic participation such as voting or the holding of
office.
Question 31: What can be the best title for the reading passage?
A. Education and Violence Against Women B. Women's Rights to Lifelong Education
C. Female Education and its Social Benefits D. Education and Women's Empowerment
Question 32: It is stated in the first paragraph that
A. women's educational levels have an influence on the prospect of their community
B. it is the children's schooling that helps their mothers increase their lifetime income
C. women who have little schooling often have no idea of raising their children
D. earning their own living, women take the responsibility of running the household
Question 33: The word "barriers" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. strains B. challenges C. stresses D. obstacles
Question 34: The phrase “make inroads into” in paragraph 2 can be best replaced by______.
A. celebrate achievement in B. succeed in taking
C. make progress in D. take the chance in
Question 35: The word "It" in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. higher attendance rates of high schools and university education
B. increasing levels of long-term partnerships
C. a woman's level of health and health awareness
D. furthering women's levels of education and advanced training
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

3 38
In science, a theory is a reasonable explanation of observed events that are related. A theory
often involves an imaginary model that helps scientists picture the way an observed event could be
produced. A good example of this is found in the kinetic molecular theory, in which gases are pictured as
being made up of many small particles that are in constant motion.
A useful theory, in addition to explaining past observations, helps to predict events that have not as
yet been observed. After a theory has been publicized, scientists design experiments to test the theory.
If observations confirm the scientists' predictions, the theory is supported. If observations do not confirm
the predictions, the scientists must search further. There may be a fault in the experiment, or the theory
may have to be revised or rejected.
Science involves imagination and creative thinking as well as collecting information and
performing experiments. Facts by themselves are not science. As the mathematician Jules Henri Poincare
said: "Science is built with facts just as a house is built with bricks, but a collection of facts cannot be
called science any more than a pile of bricks can be called a house."
Most scientists start an investigation by finding out what other scientists have learned about a
particular problem. After known facts have been gathered, the scientist comes to the part of the
investigation that requires considerable imagination. Possible solutions to the problem are formulated.
These possible solutions are called hypotheses. In a way, any hypothesis is a leap into the unknown. It
extends the scientist's thinking beyond the known facts. The scientist plans experiments, performs
calculations and makes observations to test hypotheses. For without hypotheses, further investigation
lacks purpose and direction. When hypotheses are confirmed, they are incorporated into theories.
Question 36: In the fourth paragraph, the author implies that imagination is most important to
scientists when they ________
A. gather known facts. B. formulate possible solutions to a problem.
C. evaluate previous work on a problem. D. close an investigation.
Question 37: The word "this" in line 3 refers to ______.
A. the kinetic molecular theory B. an observed event
C. an imaginary model D. a good example
Question 38: According to the second paragraph, a useful theory is one that helps scientists to ______
A. find errors in past experiments. B. publicize new findings.
C. observe events. D. make predictions.
Question 39: The word "related" in line 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. completed B. identified C. described D. connected
Question 40: The word "supported" is closest in meaning to _______.
A. upheld B. investigated C. finished D. adjusted
Question 41: In the last paragraph, what does the author imply a major function of hypotheses?
A. Communicating a scientist's thoughts to others. B. Sifting through known facts.
C. Linking together different theories. D. Providing direction for scientific research.
Question 42: Which of the following statements is supported by the passage?
A. A good scientist needs to be creative.
B. It is better to revise a hypothesis than to reject it.
C. Theories are simply imaginary models of past events.
D. A scientist's most difficult task is testing hypotheses.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
4 39
Question 43. The man is invited to the Clambake by Mary last night.
A B C D
Question 44. Opening the letter from his boyfriend, she felt extremely excited.
A B C D
Question 45. They have carried out exhausting research into the effects of smartphones on
schoolchildren’s
A B
behaviour and their academic performance.
C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 46. We last went to that cinema 2 months ago.
A. We have been to the cinema for 2 months.
B. We haven't been to the cinema for 2 months.
C. We didn't want to go to the cinema anymore.
D. We didn't go to the cinema for 2 months.
Question 47. “Would you like to go to the show with me?” Anna said to Bella.
A. Anna reminded Bella to go to the show with her.
B. Anna persuaded Bella to go to the show with her.
C. Anna invited Bella to go to the show with her.
D. Anna encouraged Bella to go to the show with her.
Question 48. You shouldn't have allowed them to watch too much TV.
A. You were wrong to let them watch too much TV.
B. You allowed them to watch too much TV which is wrong.
C. It was not necessary to allow them to watch too much TV.
D. Watching too much TV is not good for them.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 49. Nam was so rude to them last night. Now he feels regretful.
A. Nam regrets to have been so rude to them last night.
B. Nam regrets having so rude to them last night.
C. Nam wishes he hadn’t been so rude to them last night.
D. Nam wishes he weren’t so rude to them last night.
Question 50. We arrived at the cinema. Then we realized our tickets were still at home.
A. No sooner had we realized that our tickets were still at home than we arrived at the cinema.
B. Not until we arrived at the cinema that we realized that our tickets were still at home
C. Only after we had arrived at the cinema did we realize that our tickets were at home.
D. Hardly had we arrived at the cinema than we realized that our tickets were still at home.
------------------------ THE END ------------------------

5 40
ĐỀ THI THỬ KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2021
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ SỐ 9 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh:…………………………………………………………………………
Số báo danh:....................................................................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from
Question 1. A. complained B. roared C. existed D. decayed
Question 2. A. mechanic B. chemistry C. charge D. campus
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. adapt B. damage C. award D. prefer
Question 4. A. authority B. associate C. television D. essential
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. Everyone likes him, ?
A. doesn't he B. doesn't she C. don't they D. don't you
Question 6. The story I’ve just read................... by Agatha Christie
A. were written B. was written C. was written from D. wrote by
Question 7. His parents object strongly his playing too much computer games.
A. at B. to C. in D. against
Question 8. It gets when the winter is coming.
A. cold and cold B. cold and colder
C. more and more cold D. colder and colder
Question 9. She has just bought .
A. a Swiss beautiful brand-new watch B. a Swiss brand-new beautiful watch
C. a brand-new beautiful Swiss watch D. a beautiful brand-new Swiss watch
Question 10: When I last saw him, he________in London.
A. is living B. has been living C. was living D. lived
Question 11: _________there have been many changes in his life, he remains a nice man to everyone.
A. However B. Although C. Because D. Despite
Question 12: _________him, I will give him your regards.
A. When I see B. Before I saw C.since I saw D. while I see
Question 13: _________the instruction, he snatched up the fire extinguisher.
A. Read B. Having read C.Being read D.Being done
Question 14: An only child often creates an friend to play with.
A. imagery B. imaginable C. imaginary D. imaginative
Question 15: Jack's mother ______a birthday cake with seventeen lighted candles on it.
A. brought out B. showed off C. turned up D. took over
Question 16: The players’ protests _______ no difference to the referee’s decision at all.
A. did B. made C. caused D. Created
Question 17: She likes meeting people and travelling so she wants to apply for_______ a receptionist or
tourist guide.
A. location B. position C. site D. place

1 41
Question 18: The poor child was in floods of because his bicycle had been stolen.
A. tears B. sorrow C. sadness D. upset
Question 19: The problems of the past few months have taken their…… toll on her health and there are
shadows under her eyes.
A. toll B. effected C. food D. changes
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: By the end of the storm, the hikers had depleted even their emergency stores.
A. lost B. greatly dropped
C. destroyed D. used almost all of
Question 21: Her parents are growing increasingly concerned by her erratic behaviour.
A. answerable B. angelic C. anxious D. ancestral
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: This product is hazardous to the eyes and should be kept out of reach of children.
A. dangerous B. useful C. safe D. interesting
Question 23: After their long-standing conflict had been resolved, the two families decided to bury the
hatchet.
A. become enemies B. become friends
C. give up weapons D. reach an agreement
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24: - May: "From my point of view, all family members should share the chores equally." -
Tam: “______”
A. It's a breathtaking view. B. You lied to me.
C. But you're right. D. There's no doubt about it.
Question 25: - Nam: “Would you like something to drink?” - Hoa: “______”
A. Could I have some water? B. For sure.
C. I didn’t. D. That’s right.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
A large majority of Americans believe that social media companies favor some news organizations
over others. About eight-in-ten U.S. adults say social media sites treat some news organizations
differently than others, about five times the share saying all news organizations are treated the same.
Social media companies do have established policies (26) ______ it comes to publishers, including
prioritizing certain news sources, banning or limiting others that produce lower-quality content, and using
their monetization policies to discourage particular behaviors.
Among those U.S. adults (27) ______ say social media companies treat some news organizations
differently than others, there is broad agreement that they (28) ______ three types: those that produce
attention-grabbing articles, those with a high number of social media followers and those whose coverage
has a certain political stance.
While large social media companies have announced (29) ______ to favor high-quality news
publishers in an effort to improve the news on their sites, (30) ______ who say some news organizations
are treated differently believe social media companies favor organizations that are well-established, have
high reporting standards or have politically neutral coverage.
(Adapted from https://www.journalism.org/)

2 42
Question 26: A. despite B. when C. during D. since
Question 27: A. who B. why C. whom D. when
Question 28: A. appear B. obtain C. accept D. favor
Question 29: A. intentions B. conclusions C. initiatives D. signatures
Question 30: A. fewer B. most C. more D. a lot of
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
One way of training for your future occupation in Germany is by pursuing a dual vocational training
programme. Such programmes offer plenty of opportunities for on-the-job training and work experience.
Programmes usually last between two and three and a half years and comprise theoretical as well as
practical elements. You will spend one or two days a week, or several weeks at once, at a vocational
school where you will acquire the theoretical knowledge that you will need in your future occupation. The
rest of the time will be spent at a company. There you get to apply your newly acquired knowledge in
practice, for example by learning to operate machinery. You will get to know what your company does,
learn how it operates and find out if you can see yourself working there after completing your training.
This combination of theory and practice gives you a real head start into your job: by the time you
have completed your training, you will not only have the required technical knowledge, but you will also
have hands-on experience in your job. There are around 350 officially recognised training programmes
in Germany, so chances are good that one of them will suit your interests and talents. You can find out
which one that might be by visiting one of the jobs vocational training fairs which are organised in many
German cities at different times in the year.
Employment prospects for students who have completed a dual vocational training programme are
very good. This is one of the reasons why this kind of training is very popular with young Germans:
around two thirds of all students leaving school go on to start a vocational training programme.
(Source: http://www.make-it-in-germany. com)
Question 31:How many German school leavers choose this vocational training programme?
A. around one out of five B. less than a third C. well over 75% D. about 70%
Question 32: The word "it" in the first paragraph refers to _______.
A. company B. organisation C. machinery D. knowledge
Question 33: Which of the following statements best describes the dual vocational training programmes?
A. These programmes provide you with both theoretical knowledge and practical working
experience.
B. These programmes require you to have only practical working time at a certain company
C. These programmes offer you some necessary technical skills to do your future job.
D. These programmes consist of an intensive theoretical course of two and a half years at a
vocational school.
Question 34: The word "hands-on" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ______.
A. technical B. practical C. theoretical D. integral
Question 35: Which of the following is probably the best title of the passage?
A. Employment Opportunities and Prospects in Germany
B. Combination of Theory and Practice in Studying in Germany
C. Dual Vocational Training System in Germany
D. Higher Education System in Germany
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
3 43
A surgical mask is a loose-fitting, disposable device that creates a physical barrier between the
mouth and nose of the wearer and potential contaminants in the immediate environment. Surgical masks
are regulated under 21 CFR 878.4040. Surgical masks are not to be shared and may be labelled as
surgical, isolation, dental, or medical procedure masks. They may come with or without a face shield.
These are often referred to as face masks, although not all face masks are regulated as surgical masks.
Surgical masks are made in different thicknesses and with different ability to protect you from
contact with liquids. These properties may also affect how easily you can breathe through the face mask
and how well the surgical mask protects you.
If worn properly, a surgical mask is meant to help block large-particle droplets, splashes, sprays, or
splatter that may contain germs (viruses and bacteria), keeping it from reaching your mouth and nose.
Surgical masks may also help reduce exposure of your saliva and respiratory secretions to others.
While a surgical mask may be effective in blocking splashes and large-particle droplets, a face
mask, by design, does not filter or block very small particles in the air that may be transmitted by
coughs, sneezes, or certain medical procedures. Surgical masks also do not provide complete protection
from germs and other contaminants because of the loose fit between the surface of the face mask and your
face.
Surgical masks are not intended to be used more than once. If your mask is damaged or soiled, or if
breathing through the mask becomes difficult, you should remove the face mask, discard it safely, and
replace it with a new one. To safely discard your mask, place it in a plastic bag and put it in the trash.
Wash your hands after handling the used mask.
(Source: https://www.fda.gov/)
Question 36: Which of the following best serves as the title of the article?
A. How to Make Surgical Face Masks B. Uses of Surgical Face Masks
C. Surgical Face Masks in the Past D. Surgical Face Masks
Question 37: 21 CFR 878.4040 is most likely mentioned in paragraph 1 as a ______.
A. standard to follow B. design of masks
C. mask serial number D. mask model number
Question 38: The word “They” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. Physical barrier B. Contaminants C. Surgical masks D. Face shields
Question 39: The word “contain” in paragraph 3 most probably means ______.
A. reflect B. carry C. require D. protect
Question 40: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the article?
A. All surgical masks have the same thickness and protecting ability.
B. Exposure to saliva and respiratory secretions may be reduced with surgical masks.
C. Surgical masks can block splashes and droplets including very small particles.
D. You have to replace your mask with a new one only when it is damaged.
Question 41: The word “transmitted” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. transferred B. introduced C. produced D. committed
Question 42: Why do surgical masks NOT provide complete protection from germs?
A. Surgical masks are not designed to wear with face shields.
B. There are too many saliva and respiratory secretions in the air.
C. Very small particles may transmit through loose fit between the mask and the face.
D. Surgical masks are easily soiled.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: Next week, when there will be an English club held here, I will give you more information
about it.
D A B C
4 44
Question 44: Mrs. Mai, along with his friends from Vietnam, is planning to attend the festival.
A B C D
Question 45: I don’t think it would be political to ask for loan just now
A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions
Question 46: We last went to that cinema 2 months ago.
A. We have been to the cinema for 2 months.
B. We haven't been to the cinema for 2 months.
C. We didn't want to go to the cinema anymore.
D. We didn't go to the cinema for 2 months.
Question 47: “Don’t forget to submit your assignments by Friday,” said the teacher to the students.
A. The teacher reminded the students to submit their assignments by Friday.
B. The teacher allowed the students to submit their assignments by Friday.
C. The teacher ordered the students to submit their assignments by Friday.
D. The teacher encouraged the students to submit their assignments by Friday.
Question 48: Cheating is not allowed in the GCSE .
A. You may cheat in the GCSE.
B. You musn’t cheat in the GCSE
C. You don’t have to cheat in the GCSE
D. You should cheat in the GCSE

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 49: I really regert that you haven’t told me about her family.
A. If only you would tell me about her family.
B. If only I didn’t regret that you hadn’t told me about her family.
C. If only you had told me about her family.
D. If only you hadn’t told me about her family.
Question 50: We couldn’t have managed our business successfully without my father’s money.
A. We could have managed our business successfully with my father’s money.
B. If we could manage our business successfully, my father would give us his money.
C. Hadn’t it been for my father’s money, we couldn’t have managed our business successfully.
D. Had it not been for my father’s money, we couldn’t have managed our business successfully.
------------------------ THE END ------------------------

5 45
ĐỀ THI THỬ KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2021
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ SỐ 10 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh:…………………………………………………………………………
Số báo danh:....................................................................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from
Question 1. A. extended B. skipped C. looked D. watched
Question 2. A. suggest B. support C. summer D. survive
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. tonight B. reason C. promise D. furnish
Question 4. A. interpreter B. internal C. interior D. infinite
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. You couldn’t give me a helping hand,______?
A. could you B. do you C. couldn’t you D. don’t you
Question 6. The telephones..............by Alexander Graham Bell
A. is invented B. is inventing C. invented D. was invented
Question 7. We should make full use the Internet as it is an endless source of
information.
A. of B. in C. with D. from
Question 8. Air pollution is getting serious in big cities in the world.'
A. more and more B. the more and the more
C. the most and the most D. most and most
Question 9. There is in my bedroom.
A. an old square wooden table B. a square wooden old table
C. an old wooden square table D. a wooden old square table
Question 10: When we came in, they ……the meal for us.
A. prepared B. prepare C.preparing D. were preparing
Question 11: The house felt terribly cold the fact that the central heating had been on all
day.
A. because of B. in spite of C. because D. although
.Question 12: , he will tell us about the match.
A. When he arrives B. After he arrived
C. Until he was arriving D. While he had arrived
Question 13:: for 4 hours, they decided to stop to have lunch at a cheap restaurant.
A. Having been walked B. Having walked C. Walking D. Walked
Question 14: As an Mr. Pike is very worried about the increasing of juvenile delinquency.
A. educate B. education C. educator D. educative
Question 15. Many parents tend to make their children study hard in the belief that good education will
enable them to in the future.
A. get on B. turn up C. turn away D. get out
Question 16. Several measures have been proposed to the problem of unemployment among
university graduates.
1 46
A. create. B. address. C. pose. D. admit.
Question 17. You must not any step in the process; otherwise, you would not be able to cook the
dish properly.
A. leave. B. quit. C. skip. D. hide.
Question 18: I'd like to speak to the person in_______please.
A. duty B. responsibility C. obligation D. charge
Question 19: The image of Vietnamese women with creativeness, dynamism, success has become
popular in Vietnam’s society.
A. contemporary B. temporary C. permanent D. conventional
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: The charming old buildings and cottages are a throwback to the colonial past.
A. cunning B. exciting C. interesting D. fascinating
Question 21: The 1960s building boom in Zürich completely changed the rural landscape.
A. thoroughly B. quickly C. easily D. highly
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Overpopulation in big cities has severely affected the air and water quality.
A. seriously B. insignificantly C. largely D. commonly
Question 23: I'm sure it won't rain, but I'll take an umbrella just to be on the safe side.
A. careful B. easy C. careless D. difficult
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24: Daisy wants to invite her classmate, Joe, to her birthday party.
- Daisy: “Listen, I am having a birthday party next Friday. Do you want to come?”
- Joe: “______ What time does it start?”
A. Sure, I’d love to. B. Sorry. I’m busy then.
C. I can’t agree with you. D. I like a party.
Question 25: Hana and Jenifer are talking about a book they have just read.
- Hana: “The book is really interesting and educational.” - Jenifer: “______”
A. That’s nice of you to say so. B. I’d love it.
C. Don’t mention it. D. I couldn’t agree more.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Wind is a clean source of renewable energy that produces no air or water pollution. And since the
wind is free, operational costs are nearly zero (26) ______ a turbine is erected. Mass production and
technology advances are making turbines cheaper, and (27) ______ governments offer tax incentives to
spur wind-energy development.
Drawbacks include complaints from (28) ______ that wind turbines are ugly and noisy. The slowly
rotating blades can also kill birds and bats, but not nearly as many as cars, power lines, and high-rise
buildings do. The wind is also variable: If it's not blowing, there's no electricity generated.
Nevertheless, the wind energy industry is (29) ______ . Thanks to global efforts to combat climate
change, such as the Paris Agreement, renewable energy is seeing a boom in growth, in (30) ______ wind
energy has led the way. From 2000 to 2015, cumulative wind capacity around the world increased from
17,000 megawatts to more than 430,000 megawatts. In 2015, China also surpassed the EU in the number
of installed wind turbines and continues to lead installation efforts.
(Adapted from https://www.nationalgeographic.com/)

2 47
Question 26: A. so that B. though C. therefore D. once
Question 27: A. many B. little C. much D. a little
Question 28: A. foreigners B. masters C. locals D. levels
Question 29: A. worrying B. booming C. informing D. relating
Question 30: A. who B. when C. why D. which
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34.
The coronavirus is usually transmitted by droplets, such as those produced when coughing and
sneezing, and by direct or indirect contact with secretions infected by the virus. The virus may also shed
in blood, urine and faeces, and, therefore, there is potential for transmission through contact with a wide
range of bodily fluids. Certainly, person-to-person spread has been confirmed in community and
healthcare settings across Asia and into Europe. There is also a possibility that asymptomatic carriers may
be able to infect people. Public Health England (PHE) has classified the COVID-19 infection as an
airborne, high consequence infectious disease (HCID) in the UK.
The application of infection prevention and control (IPC) principles are already widely used by
healthcare professionals within hospital and community settings to both prevent the spread of infections
and to control outbreaks when they do occur. The WHO has issued interim guidance regarding IPC when
COVID-19 is suspected. This advice is echoed by guidance issued by PHE.
PHE suggests the coronavirus may pose complications, such as illness pneumonia or severe acute
respiratory infection. They also suggest that patients with long-term conditions or are
immunocompromised are at risk of these complications. It is important that as first-line staff, midwives
are also familiar with the recommended IPC principles and measures, and ensure they have the
appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) when caring for a patient with suspected COVID-19.
Question 31: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. the problems related to the coronavirus
B. epidemic situation in England caused by coronavirus
C. advice for those who infected with coronavirus
D. how the coronavirus is transmitted and ways to prevent infection
Question 32: The coronavirus can be found in all of the following EXCEPT ______.
A. blood B. clothes C.urine D. faeces
Question 33: The word “interim” in paragraph 2 mostly means ______.
A. temporary B. everlasting C. permanent D. effective
Question 34: According to the last paragraph, who are at risk of illness pneumonia or severe acute
respiratory infection?
A. people working in the WHO B. employees of Public Health England
C. those with long-term conditions D. first-line staff like midwives
Question 35: What does the word “They” in the last paragraph refer to?
A. IPC B. WHO C. PHE D. COVID-19
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
The authors noted that while other forms of pollution are decreasing, noise pollution has been
increasing. This conclusion is reinforced by the fact that there has been an increase in the number of
people who have been complaining about excessive noise in the WHO region. Populations that are
exposed to high noise levels can be afflicted by other symptoms such as: stress reactions, sleep-stage
changes, and clinical symptoms like hypertension and cardiovascular diseases. All these impacts can
contribute to premature mortality. It is important to note that these adverse health problems impact all
age groups including children and adolescents. In fact, it has been reported that children who live and or

3 48
study in an area afflicted with noise pollution tend to suffer from stress, impairments in memory and
attention as well as difficulty reading.
“In Western Europe, the guidelines say, traffic noise results in an annual loss of at least one million
healthy years”. Traffic noise is currently ranked second among environmental threats to public health.
The danger of noise pollution is more present to us when we are asleep. Because the human ear is
so sensitive, it never rests, it is always working, picking up and transmitting sounds for our brains to
interpret. This always on working process is where the danger lies, though you may be sleeping, sounds
are still being picked up and processed. The most common side effects of this phenomenon are sleep
disturbance and tiredness, impaired memory, judgment, and psychomotor skills. The other more serious
outcomes of this can be the triggering of the body’s acute stress response, which raises blood pressure and
heart rate as the body and brain go into a state of hyperarousal. According to the European Environment
Agency, at least 10,000 cases of premature deaths from noise exposure occur each year, although
incomplete data mean this number is significantly underestimated.
(Adapted from https://www.encida.dk/)
Question 36: Which of the following best serves as the title for the article?
A. Noise in the WHO region B. Increase in noise, Increase in risk
C. Health problems and Age groups D. Side effects of tiredness
Question 37: The word “afflicted” in paragraph 1 most probably means ______.
A. assumed B. illustrated C. described D. affected
Question 38: Which is NOT mentioned in the article as a symptoms caused by exposure to high noise
levels?
A. stress reactions B. hypertension
C. staying highly alert D. cardiovascular diseases
Question 39: The word “premature” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. early B. quick C. late D. slow
Question 40: In Western Europe, an annual loss of at least one million healthy years is resulted from
______.
A. guidelines B. public health C. environmental threats D. traffic noise
Question 41: Which of the following is infered according to the article?
A. Many forms of pollution, except for noise pollution, are decreasing.
B. Adverse health problems impact children and adolescents only.
C. The danger of noise pollution is less serious when we are asleep.
D. At least 100,000 cases of premature deaths from noise exposure occur each year.
Question 42: The word “This” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. side effect B. sound C. human ear D. the danger
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: His parents are satisfied with his result when he was at high school yesterday.
A B C D
Question 44: Her weight has increased remarkably since they began receiving treatment.
A B C D
Question 45: The sign says that we should read the constructions carefully before proceeding.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions
Question 46: It started to rain at 2 o’clock and it is still raining.
A. It has been raining at 2 o’clock.
4 49
B. It has been raining since 2 o’clock
C. It has been raining for 2 o’clock.
D. It has been raining in 2 o’clock.
Question 47: “Mum, please don’t tell Dad my mistake!” the boy said.
A. The boy insisted his mother not tell his father his mistake.
B. The boy told his mother not to mention his mistake any more.
C. The boy asked his mother not to tell his father his mistake.
D. The boy wanted his mother to keep his mistake in her heart.
Question 48: You are able to go out with your friend this evening
A. You musn’t go out with your friend this evening.
B. You should go out with your friend this evening.
C. You needn’t go out with your friend this evening.
D. You can go out with your friend this evening.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 49: Julian dropped out of college after his first year. Now he regrets it.
A. Julian regretted having dropped out of college after his first year.
B. Julian wishes he didn’t drop out of college after his first year.
C. Julian regrets having dropped out of college after his first year.
D. Only if Julian had dropped out of college after his first year.
Question 50: Right after the boy got out of his house, it started to rain heavily.
A. It had rained heavily before the boy got out of his house.
B. No sooner had the boy got out of his house than it started to rain heavily.
C. Not until it started to rain heavily did the boy got out of his house.
D. Hardly had it started to rain heavily when the boy got out of his house.
------------------------ THE END ------------------------

5 50
ĐỀ THI THỬ KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2021
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ SỐ 11 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh:…………………………………………………………………………
Số báo danh:....................................................................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from
Question 1. A. kite B. bite C. favorite D. quite
Question 2. A. coached B. needed C. wanted D. beloved
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. lemon B. physics C. decay D. decade
Question 4. A. satisfactory B. alternative C. evaluate D. continue
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. “Never say that again, ?”
A. don’t you B. will you C. do you D. won’t you
Question 6. Gold in California in the 19th century
A. was discovered B. has been discovered C. was discover D. they discover
Question 7. Vietnam is the top exporters of rice.
A. in B. of C. between D. among
Question 8. It gets when the winter is coming.
A. more and more cold B. colder and colder
C. cold and colder D. cold and less cold
Question 9. Charles was wearing at the party.
A. a tie yellow silk funny B. very funny wide yellow silk tie
C. a yellow silk funny tie D. a funny wide yellow silk tie
Question 10. She was cooking while I my homework.
A.was done B.was doing
C. am doing D.have done
Question 11: ______ I heard the phone ring, I didn’t answer it.
A. Because B. Only if C. Even though D. Provided that
Question 12: ______, she often wears in red.
A. After I met her B. Whenever I meet her
C. By the time I met her D. Until I will meet her
Question 13: ______ high school, Nam attended a university in the city centre.
A. Having finished B. To have finished
C. Having been finished D. To finish
Question 14: Judo players are______to their opponents and bow to each other before and after a contest.
A. respectfully B.respectful
C. respectable D. respect
Question 15: I ______ love with him because of his kind nature.
A. Fell down B. fell to C. fell about D. fell in
Question 16: They have ______some measures to control traffic jam at rush hours.
A. imagined B. taken C. done D. carried

1 51
Question 17: After a momentary of concentration, Simon managed to regain
his focus and completed the test.
A. failure. B. lapse. C. fault. D. error
Question 18: Mr Nam knows Hanoi City like the back of his____.He used to be a taxi driver there for
10 years.
A. head B. mind C. hand D. life
Question 19: Some people have the opinion that more developing countries should be given the
light to become hosts of such international sporting events as Olympics and World Cup.
A. red B. blue C. green D. yellow
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: Around 150 B.C. the Greek astronomer Hipparchus developed a system to classify stars
according to brightness.
A. record B. shine C. categorize D. diversify
Question 21: Before the advent of the railways, communications were slow and difficult.
A. import B. disappearance C. introduction D. arrival
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Unless the two signatures are identical, the bank won’t honour the check.
A. genuine B. different C. fake D. similar
Question 23: She’s a bit down in the dumps because she’s got to take her exam again.
A. sad B. embarrassed C. confident D. happy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24: - A: “Would you like me to send this package for you?” - B: “______”
A. That would be nice. Any problems? B. Yes, please, if you don’t mind.
C. I’m sorry, but here you are. D. No, thanks. I’m really busy.
Question 25: - Roger: “Wow! You look terrific in that new dress!” - Tina: “______”
A. Oh, what a pity! B. I’m afraid so!
C. Thank you. I’m glad you think so. D. Why dare you say so?
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Christ the Redeemer is an Art Deco statue of Jesus Christ in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, created by
Polish-French sculptor Paul Landowski and built by the Brazilian engineer Heitor da Silva Costa, in
collaboration with the French engineer Albert Caquot. The face was created by the Romanian (26)
______ Gheorghe Leonida. The statue is 30 metres tall, not including its 8-metre pedestal, and its arms
stretch 28 metres wide. By (27) ______ , it is approximately two-thirds the height of the Statue of
Liberty’s height from base to torch.
The statue weighs 635 metric tons (625 long, 700 short tons), and is (28) ______ at the peak of the
700-metre Corcovado mountain in the Tijuca Forest National Park overlooking the city of Rio. A symbol
of Christianity across the world, the statue has also become a cultural icon of both Rio de Janeiro and
Brazil, and is listed as (29) ______ of the New Seven Wonders of the World. The statue, (30) ______ was
constructed between 1922 and 1931, is made of reinforced concrete and soapstone.
(Adapted from https://world.new7wonders.com/)
Question 26: A. artist B. guitarist C. stylist D. scientist
Question 27: A. package B. comparison C. pleasure D. occasion
Question 28: A. connected B. scratched C. located D. pointed

2 52
Question 29: A. other B. each C. another D. one
Question 30: A. why B. which C. who D. that
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34.
Culture is the lens with which we evaluate everything around us; we evaluate what is proper or
improper, normal or abnormal, through our culture. If we are immersed in a culture that is unlike our
own, we may experience culture shock and become disoriented when we come into contact with a
fundamentally different culture. People naturally use their own culture as the standard to judge other
cultures; however, passing judgment could reach a level where people begin to discriminate against others
whose “ways of being” are different than their own—essentially, we tend to fear that which we do not
understand.
Cultural diversity is important because our country, workplaces, and schools increasingly consist of
various cultural, racial, and ethnic groups. We can learn from one another, but first we must have a level
of understanding about each other in order to facilitate collaboration and cooperation. Learning about
other cultures helps us understand different perspectives within the world in which we live and helps
dispel negative stereotypes and personal biases about different groups.
In addition, cultural diversity helps us recognize and respect “ways of being” that are not
necessarily our own, so that as we interact with others, we can build bridges to trust, respect, and
understanding across cultures. Furthermore, this diversity makes our country a more interesting place to
live, as people from diverse cultures contribute language skills, new ways of thinking, new knowledge,
and different experiences.
(Adapted from https://www.purdueglobal.edu/)
Question 31: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. What is the function of culture?
B.How do people use own culture?
C.Why is cultural diversity a “good thing”?
D.How can we learn from one another?
Question 32: The word “their” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. evels B. people C. others D. ways of being
Question 33: What is mentioned in paragraph 1 as the main reason for discrimination?
A. valuating everything B. immersing in a culture
C. ontacting with a different culture D. making judgment
Question 34: The word “dispel” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. liminate B. contain C. realize D. discuss
Question 35: Before we can learn from people from other cultures, we need to ______.
A. understand one another B. facilitate collaboration
C. have different perspectives D. form personal biases
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
There are several ways to measure how often men and women appear in news photos. One way is to
think about all the photos together as making up one big crowd of people and estimating what share are
women versus men. Women made up 33% of all the 53,067 individuals identified in news post images,
while men made up the other 67%.
Another way to look at the data is to examine the mix of people who appear in each image. Across
the 22,342 posts with photos containing identifiable human faces, more than half of them exclusively
showed men, while less than a quarter showed exclusively women. The remaining images show at least
one man and one woman.

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All 17 news outlets included in the study showed more men than women in news images on
Facebook during the study period. The share of individuals who were identified as women by the model
ranges from 25% to 46%, by outlet.
While these findings are striking, there is no perfect benchmark or “true ratio” for how often men
and women should be portrayed in news images on social media. Yes, the U.S. population is divided
nearly in half, male versus female. But, for example, all the representational coverage of professional
football teams would return results overwhelmingly dominated by male faces. Coverage of the U.S.
Senate – currently 25% female – might do the same. In addition, the analysis did not address whether the
content of the news stories that accompanied the images was more focused on men or women.
The analysis also reveals other ways that men are more prominent in news images on Facebook. In
photos that showed two or more people, men tend to outnumber women. And men’s faces take up more
space when shown, with the average male face being 10% larger than the average female face across all
photos with people.
(Adapted from https://www.pewresearch.org/)
Question 36: Which of the following best serves as the title for the article?
A. Big Crowd of People and the Share of Women and Men
B. Men and Women in News Images by Outlet
C. Men Appear Twice as Often as Women in News Photos on Facebook
D. The analysis of news images on Facebook
Question 37: How many of the 22,342 posts with photos containing identifiable human faces showed
only women?
A. 25% B. 33% C. 75% D. 46%
Question 38: The word “exclusively” in paragraph 2 most probably means ______.
A. perfectly B. uniquely C. honestly D. naturally
Question 39: The word “striking” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. impressive B. impartial C. creative D. inactive
Question 40: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the article?
A. Women accounted for 67% of all the 53,067 individuals identified in news post images.
B. More than half of the 22,342 posts with photos show at least one man and one woman.
C. Currently 25% of the U.S. Senate are female.
D. Women’s faces take up more space when shown.
Question 41: The word “that” in paragraph 4 refers to ______.
A. the analysis B. the content C. the images D. the news stories
Question 42: What may be the reason why men are more prominent in news images?
A. Women are whiter than men. B. Men’s face was bigger than women’s.
C. Women didn’t like taking photos. D. Men didn’t make up.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: My mother and her friends always went out together every weekend
A B C D
Question 44: He is a handsome, intelligent and friendly student in her school.
A B C D
Question 45: They have carried exhausting research into the effects of smartphone on schoolchildren’s
A B
behaviour and their academic performce
C D

4 54
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions
Question 46: I have never listened to jazz music before.
A. This is the first jazz music I listen to.
B. This is the first time I listen to jazz music.
C. This is the first time I have listened to jazz music.
D. This is the first time I listened to jazz music.
Question 47: “Please, let my child go!” she begged the kidnapper.
A. She begged the kidnapper to let her child to go.
B. She pleaded with the kidnapper to release her child.
C. She solemnly ordered the kidnapper to set her child free.
D. She pleaded the kidnapper to let her child go.
Question 48: It is necessary to do your homework everyday.
A.You needn’t do your homework everyday.
B. You must do your homework everyday.
C. You shouldn’t do your homework everyday.
D. You are able to do your homework everyday.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 49: Marie didn’t turn up at John’s birthday party. I feel so sorry for that.
A. If only Marie turn up at John’s birthday party.
B. I wish Marie had turned up at Johns birthday party.
C. I wished Marie wouldn’t turn up at John’s birthday party.
D. It’s a shame Marie had turned up at John’s birthday party.
Question 50: John didn’t understand what the story was about until he saw the film based on it.
A. He doesn't understand what the story is about.
B. Not until Jonh saw the film based on the story did he understand what it was about.
C. It was until he saw the film based on it that John understood what the story was about.
D. John went to see the film before she read the story.
------------------------ THE END ------------------------

5 55
ĐỀ THI THỬ KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2021
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ SỐ 12 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh:…………………………………………………………………………
Số báo danh:....................................................................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. talked B. painted C. asked D. liked
Question 2: A. park B. start C. card D. catch
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. offer B. enter C. allow D. follow
Question 4: A. confidence B. computer C. document D. maximum
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: They haven’t finished their homework, _______ ?
A. do they B. haven’t they C. don’t they D. have they
Question 6: It is _______ funniest book that I have ever read.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø (no article)
Question 7: _______ the end of the book, they get married and live happily ever after.
A. At B. On C. In D. For
Question 8: Most children enjoy _______ with their parents and siblings.
A. play B. to play C. playing D. played
Question 9: If we really _______ to succeed, we must work hard every day.
A. want B. wants C. wanted D. had wanted
Question 10: She has________________________
A. a pair of sport new French shoes B. a pair of new sport French shoes
C. a pair of new French sport shoes D. a pair of French new sport shoes
Question 11. Our visit to Japan was delayed _______my wife’s illness.
A. because B. because of C. in spite of D. although
Question 12: A few months ago I moved into a very small flat _______ for years with my parents.
A. after I have lived B. before I had lived
C. before I was living D. after I had lived
Question 13: Many of the pictures _______ from outer space are presently on display in the public
library.
A. to send B. sent C. sending D. were be sent
Question 14: The interviews with parents showed that the vast majority were _______ of teachers.
A. support B. supportive C. supporter D. supporting
Question 15: “Sorry for being late. I was _______ in the traffic for more than an hour.”
A. carried on B. held up C. put off D. taken after
Question 16: In my company, the director deputy usually___________ the responsibility for organizing
meetings and conferences.
A. makes B. gets C. becomes D. takes
Question 17:The athlete failed in his last _______ to break the world record
A. trial B. effort C. attempt D. experience

1 56
Question 18: We have decided to _______ our research into environmental waste to ensure high health
standards in this city.
A. broaden B. outweigh C. exaggerate D. boost
Question 19: The children are really getting in my_______ tell them to go and play outside.
A. hair B. nerves C. mouth D. books

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 2 0: I can’t stand people who treat animals cruelly.
A. gently B. cleverly C. reasonably D. brutally
Question 2 1: The maintenance of these old castles must cost a lot of money.
A. building B. foundation C. destruction D. preservation

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. Never punish your children by hitting them. This might teach them to become hitters.
A. bring B. reward C. give D. accept
Question 23: If you are at a loose end this weekend, I will show you round the city.
A. free B. confident C. occupied D. reluctant
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24: Jane had difficulty carrying her suitcase upstairs, and Mike, her friend, offered to help.
– Mike: “Need a hand with your suitcase, Jane?”
– Jane: “______”
A. Not a chance. B. That’s very kind of you.
C. Well done! D. I don’t believe it.
Question 25: Hana and Jenifer are talking about a book they have just read.
- Hana: “The book is really interesting and educational.”
- Jenifer: “______”
A. That’s nice of you to say so. B. I’d love it.
C. Don’t mention it. D. I couldn’t agree more.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
The "greenhouse effect" is the warming that happens when certain gases in Earth's atmosphere (26)
________ heat. These gases let in light but keep heat from escaping, like the glass walls of a greenhouse.
First, sunlight shines onto the Earth's surface, (27) ________ it is absorbed and then radiates back into the
atmosphere as heat. In the atmosphere, “greenhouse gases trap some of this heat, and the rest escapes into
space. The more greenhouse gases are in the atmosphere, the more heat gets trapped.
Scientists have known about the greenhouse effect since 1824, when Joseph Fourier calculated that
the Earth would be much colder if it had no atmosphere. This greenhouse effect is what keeps the Earth's
climate (28) ________ . Without it, the Earth's surface would be an average of about 60 degrees
Fahrenheit cooler. Scientists often use the term "climate change" instead of global warming. This is
because as the Earth's average temperature climbs, winds and ocean currents move heat around the globe
in ways that can cool some areas, warm (29) ________, and change the amount of rain and snow falling.
(30) ________, the climate changes differently in different areas.
(Source: https://www.open.edu/openlearncreate/mod/oucontent)

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Question 26: A. seize B. capture C. trap D. grasp
Question 27: A. who B. where C. that D. when
Question 28: A. energetic B. animate C. livable D. active
Question 29: A. others B. another C. one D. the other
Question 30: A. However B. In addition C. On the contrary D. As a result

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
In most families, conflict is more likely to be about clothing, music, and leisure time than about
more serious matters such as religion and core values. Family conflict is rarely about such major issues as
adolescents' drug use and delinquency. Nevertheless, it has been estimated that in about 5 million
American families (roughly 20 percent), parents and adolescents engage in intense, prolonged, unhealthy
conflict. In its most serious form, this highly stressful environment is associated with a number of
negative outcomes, including juvenile delinquency, moving away from home, increased school dropout
rates, unplanned pregnancy, membership in religious cults, and drug abuse (Steinberg & Morris, 2001).
Many of the changes that define adolescence can lead to conflict in parent- adolescent
relationships. Adolescents gain an increased capacity for logical reasoning, which leads them to demand
reasons for things they previously accepted without question, and the chance to argue the other side
(Maccoby,1984). Their growing critical-thinking skills make them less likely to conform to parents'
wishes the way they did in childhood. Their increasing cognitive sophistication and sense of idealism may
compel them to point out logical flaws and inconsistencies in parents' positions and actions. Adolescents
no longer accept their parents as unquestioned authorities. They recognize that other opinions also have
merit and they are learning how to form and state their own opinions. Adolescents also tend toward ego-
centrism, and may, as a result, be ultra-sensitive to a parent's casual remark. The dramatic changes of
puberty and adolescence may make it difficult for parents to rely on their children's preadolescent
behavior to predict future behavior. For example, adolescent children who were compliant in the past may
become less willing to cooperate without what they feel is a satisfactory explanation.

Question 31: What is the passage mainly about?


A. The dramatic changes of puberty and adolescence.
B. How to solve conflict in family.
C. The conflict in parent-adolescent relationship.
D. A satisfactory explanation for family conflict.
Question 32: According to the passage, what is probably TRUE about the conflict often arising in a
family?
A. adolescents’ drug use and delinquency B. clothing, leisure time and music
C. religion and core values D. children‘s behavior
Question 33: The word “unplanned” the first paragraph is closest in meaning to ________?
A. unintended B. designed C. developed D. shaped
Question 34: Adolescents become less likely to comfort to parents' wishes the way they did in the past
because ________.
A. the environment is highly stressful
B. their critical-thinking skills is growing
C. it is related to drug abuse
D. parent-adolescent relationships lead to conflicts
Question 35: According to the passage, the word “they” may refer to ________.
A. changes B. adolescents

3 58
C. reasons D. parents

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Even before the turn of the century, movies began to develop in two major directions: the realistic
and the formalistic. Realism and formalism are merely general, rather than absolute, terms. When used to
suggest a tendency toward either polarity, such labels can be helpful, but in the end, they are still just
labels.
Few films are exclusively formalist in style, and fewer yet are completely realist. There is also an
important difference between realism and reality, although this distinction is often forgotten. Realism is a
particular style, whereas physical reality is the source of all the raw materials of film, both realistic and
formalistic. Virtually all movie directors go to the photographable world for their subject matter, but what
they do with this material - how they shape and manipulate it determines their stylistic emphasis.
Generally speaking, realistic films attempt to reproduce the surface of concrete reality with a
minimum of distortion. In photographing objects and events, the filmmaker tries to suggest the
copiousness of life itself. Both realist and formalist film directors must select (and hence emphasize)
certain details from the chaotic sprawl of reality. But the element of selectivity in realistic films is less
obvious. Realists, in short, try to preserve the illusion that their film world is unmanipulated, an objective
mirror of the actual world. Formalists, on the other hand, make no such pretence. They deliberately
stylize and distort their raw materials so that only the very naive would mistake a manipulated image of
an object or event for the real thing.
We rarely notice the style in a realistic movie; the artist tends to be self-effacing. Some filmmakers
are more concerned with what is being shown than how it is manipulated. The camera is used
conservatively. It is essentially a recording mechanism that reproduces the surface of tangible objects
with as little commentary as possible. A high premium is placed on simplicity, spontaneity, and
directness. This is not to suggest that these movies lack artistry, however, for at its best the realistic
cinema specializes in art that conceals art.

Question 36: What does the article mainly discuss?


A. Acting styles B. Film plots
C. Styles of filmmaking D. Filmmaking 100 years ago
Question 37: Which statement is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Realism and formalism are outdated terms.
B. Most films are neither exclusively realistic nor formalistic.
C. Realistic films are more popular than formalistic ones.
D. Formalistic films are less artistic than realistic ones.
Question 38: According to the passage, who is primarily responsible for the style of a film?
A. The director B. The actors
C. The producer D. The camera operator
Question 39: The word "preserve" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. encourage B. maintain C. reflect D. attain
Question 40: The word "They" in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. films B. realists C. formalists D. raw materials
Question 41: According to paragraph 3, how can one recognize the formalist style?
A. It uses familiar images. B. It is very impersonal.
C. It mirrors the actual world. D. It obviously manipulates images.
Question 42: The word "tangible" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.

4 59
A. concrete B. complex C. various D. comprehensible

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 43: A heavy police presence, including mounted policemen, were on hand to control protesters.
A. heavy B. including C. were D. protesters
Question 44: What I need from you is going to school on time, learning properly, and get good marks.
A. What B. is C. learning D. get
Question 45: Her father used to be a distinguishable professor at the university. Many students
worshipped him.
A. distinguishable B. at C. Many students D. worshipped
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 46: Tom is less intelligent than his brother.
A. Tom’s brother is less intelligent than he is. B. Tom is more intelligent than his brother.
C. Tom is not as intelligent as his brother. D. Tom’s brother is not as intelligent as he is
Question 47: “I went to the supermarket to buy some vegetable yesterday,” Linda said.
A. Linda said that she went to the supermarket to buy some vegetable yesterday.
B. Linda said that I had gone to the supermarket to buy some vegetable yesterday.
C. Linda said that I would go to the supermarket to buy some vegetable the day before.
D. Linda said that she had gone to the supermarket to buy some vegetable the day before.
Question 48: Perhaps the thief will be arrested today.
A. The thief should be arrested today. B. The thief can’t be arrested today.
C. The thief may be arrested today. D. The thief mustn’t be arrested today.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: You can use my phone. Make sure you don’t drop it.
A. You can’t use my phone if you don’t drop it.
B. You can use my phone provided you don’t drop it.
C. You can use my phone unless you don’t drop it.
D. You can’t use my phone in case you drop it.
Question 50: He is very intelligent. He can solve all the problems in no time.
A. So intelligent a student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.
B. An intelligent student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.
C. So intelligent is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.
D. He is very intelligent that he can solve all the problems in no time.
------------------------ THE END ------------------------

5 60
ĐỀ THI THỬ KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2021
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ SỐ 13 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh:…………………………………………………………………………
Số báo danh:....................................................................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. passed B. wished C. touched D. moved
Question 2. A. shame B. drank C. cable D. blaze

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. escape B. before C. enough D. welfare
Question 4. A. situation B. examination C. generation D. education

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. Lady Gaga is an American singer, songwriter and actress, __?
A. doesn’t B. is she C. isn’t Lady Gaga D. isn’t she
Question 6. Many graffiti without the permission of the owner of the wall.
A. are writing B. are written C. is writing D. is written
Question 7. She likes reading books ______ the library.
A. on B. at C. in D. from
Question 8. The more cigarettes you smoke, you will die.
A. the easier B. more sooner C. the sooner D. faster
Question 9. It's silly of him to spend a lot of money buying .
A. a thick wooden old table B. a thick old wooden table
C. an old wooden thick table D. a wooden thick old table
Question 10. When he came, I_______ in the kitchen.
A. cooked B. am cooking C. has cooked D. was cooking
Question 11. ___ he was the most prominent candidate, he was not chosen.
A. Though B. Because C. As D. Since
Question 12. ________ the destination, he will have been walking for about three hours.
A. When John will get B. By the time John gets
C. After John has got D. until John is getting
Question 13. On he had won, he jumped for joy.
A. he was told B. having told C. being told D.get fined
Question 14. His______of the generator is very famous.
A. invent B. inventive C. invention D. inventor
Question 15. The government hopes to_its plans for introducing cable TV.
A. turn out B. carry out C. carry on D. keep on
Question 16. The jury______her compliments on her excellent knowledge of the subject.
A. paid B. gave C. made D. said
Question 17. Nobody took any______of the warning and they went swimming in the contaminated
water.

1 61
A. information B. attention C. sight D. notice
Question 18. I had a ______ chat with my manager and gave him an update on the project.
A. brief B. short C. quick D. lull
Question 19. There has been a hot debate among the scientists relating to the______of using robotic
probes to study distant objects in space.
A. problems and solutions B. pros and cons
C. solutions and limitations D. causes and effects
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. He sounded panic-stricken on the phone.
A. terrified B. hilarious C. happy D. disappointed
Question 21. ANU has maintained its position as Australia's top university.
A. conserve B. remain C. complain D. conquer
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. We are very grateful to Professor Humble for his generosity in donating this wonderful
painting to the museum.
A. meanness B. sympathy C. gratitude D. churlishness
Question 23. The works of such men as the English philosophers John Locke and Thomas Hobbes helped
pave the way for academic freedom in the modern sense.
A. terminate B. prevent C. initiate D. lighten
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24. Hoa is talking to Mai, her best friend, in the classroom.
Hoa: “Shall we go boating tomorrow?”
Mai: “______. The weather report says a storm is coming”.
A. I’m afraid we can’t B. Sure
C. That’s a good idea D. That’s a deal
Question 25. Sarah and Kathy are talking about bad habits of children
Sarah: “Children under ten shouldn't stay up late to play computer games.”
Kathy: “ .”
A. I don't quite agree with you B. Yes, I share your opinion.
C. You are absolute right. D. Surely, they shouldn't
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
INTERNSHIPS
Just like any institution, a family also needs rules. Rules are very important because they keep
things in (26) ________. For a family, rules are as necessary as food and clothing. The rules are very
important because they remain peace and order in the family. For example, children should respect and
listen to their parents.
If there are (27) _______to be made, for examples, it is not only the parents who are going to decide
especially if the children are already grown up. It would be better if everybody is involved in making the
decision of important matter.

Rules are needed to maintain a harmonious relationship (28)_________ family members. Parents
are there the pillars of the family and guide children to be responsible and practice good values.

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Rules teach children to become more responsible and have discipline not only at home but
especially outside of the home. When there are rules to follow, children will know (29)_______ they
should do or should not do. Rules help to avoid conflict and misunderstanding that may lead to fights and
aggression especially among children. Parents should set rules for the children to follow to avoid quarrels
and fights. There are times when the children fight over simple matters and this happens if the parents do
or not interfere but when parents set the rule and let the children follow, there will be
(30)_______conflicts.

Question 26. A. need B. order C. time D. shape


Question 27. A. calls B. problems C. changes D. decisions
Question 28. A. in B. between C. inside D. among
Question 29. A. which B. that C. how D. what
Question 30. A. fewer B. more C. little D. less

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
The relationship between Britain and the US has always been a close one. Like all close relationships it
has had difficult times. The US was first a British colony, but between 1775 and 1783 the US fought a
war to become independent. The US fought the British again in the War of 1812.
In general, however, the two countries have felt closer to each other than to any other country, and their
foreign policies have shown this. During World War I and World War II, Britain and the US supported
each other. When the US looks for foreign support, Britain is usually the first country to come forward
and it is sometimes called “the 51st state of the union”.
But the special relationship that developed after 1945 is not explained only by shared political interests.
An important reason for the friendship is that the people of the two countries are very similar. They share
the same language and enjoy each other's literature, films and television. Many Americans have British
ancestors, or relatives still living in Britain. The US government and political system is based on Britain's,
and there are many Anglo-American businesses operating on both sides of the Atlantic. In Britain some
people are worried about the extent of US influence, and there is some jealousy of its current power. The
special relationship was strong in the early 1980s when Margaret Thatcher was Prime Minister in Britain
and Ronald Reagan was President of the US.
(Adapted from Background to British and American Cultures)
Question 31. What is the passage mainly about?
A. The strong friendship between the UK and the US.
B. The close relationship between Britain and the US.
C. A special relationship the UK developed during the World Wars.
D. A special influence the US had on the UK during the World Wars.
Question 32. The phrase "come forward” in paragraph 2 mostly means _.
A. be willing to help B. be able to help
C. be reluctant to help D. be eager to help
Question 33. The word “They” in paragraph 3 prefers to __________.
A. countries B. people C. political interests D. British ancestors
Question 34. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a reason for the special relationship between
Britain and the US?
A. The people of the two countries are very similar.
B. Many Americans have British ancestors.
C. British Prime Minister and the US President are close friends.
D. Many Anglo-American businesses are operating in the two countries.
3 63
Question 35. Britain and the US are close to each other NOT because of their ___________.
A. foreign policies B. power C. political interests D. language
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
There are two basic types of glaciers, those that flow outward in all directions with little regard
for any underlying terrain and those that are confined by terrain to a particular path.
The first category of glaciers includes those massive blankets that cover whole continents, appropriately
called ice sheets. There must be over 50,000 square kilometers of land covered with ice for the glacier
to qualify as an ice sheet, when portions of an ice sheet spread out over the ocean, they form ice
shelves.
About 20,000 years ago the Cordilleran Ice sheet covered nearly all the mountains in southern Alaska,
western Canada, and the western United States. It was about 3 kilometers deep at its thickest point in
northern Alberta. Now there are only two sheets left on Earth, those covering Greenland and Antarctica.
Any domelike body of ice that also flows out in all directions but covers less than 50,000 square
kilometers is called an ice cap. Although ice caps are rare nowadays, there are a number in northeastern
Canada, on Baffin Island, and on the Queen Elizabeth Islands.
The second category of glaciers includes those of a variety of shapes and sizes generally called
mountain or alpine glaciers. Mountain glaciers are typically identified by the landform that controls
their flow. One form of mountain glacier that resembles an ice cap in that it flows outward in several
directions is called an ice field. The difference between an ice field and an ice cap is subtle. Essentially,
the flow of an ice field is somewhat controlled by surrounding terrain and thus does not have the
domelike shape of a cap. There are several ice fields in the Wrangell. St. Elias, and Chugach mountains
of Alaska and northern British Columbia.
Less spectacular than large ice fields are the most common types of mountain glaciers: the
cirque and valley glaciers. Cirque glaciers are found in depressions in the surface of the land and have a
characteristic circular shape. The ice of valley glaciers, bound by terrain, flows down valleys, curves
around their corners, and falls over cliffs.
Question 36. what does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Where major glaciers are located B. How glaciers shape the land
C. The different kinds of glaciers D. How glaciers are formed
Question 37. The word “terrain” in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by____________.
A. the seabed B. area of land C. countryside D. prairie
Question 38. It can be inferred from paragraph 2 that ice sheets are so named because____________
A. they are thicker in some areas than the others
B. they are identified by the landform that controls their flow
C. they cover large areas of land
D. they are confined to cirque glaciers
Question 39. According to the passage, where was the Cordilleran Ice Sheet thickest?
A. Alaska B. Antarctica C. Greenland D. Alberta
Question 40. The word “subtle” in paragraph 5 could best be replaced by____________.
A. slight B. substantial C. regional D. obvious
Question 41. The word “their” in last paragraph refers to__________.
A. ice fields B. cirque glaciers C. valley glaciers D. valleys
Question 42. All of the following are alpine glaciers EXCEPT_______.
A. cirque glaciers B. ice caps C. ice fields D. Valley glaciers

4 64
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 43. The man, a poor man, is invited to the Clambake last night.
A B C D
Question 44. Their free trip, which they won on a television game show, include four days in London and
A B C
a week in Paris.
D
Question 45. Today's students also appear more formerly dressed and conservative- looking these days.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 46. He visited London three years ago.
A. He hasn’t visited London for three years. B. He was in London for three years.
C. He didn’t visit London three years ago. D. He has been in London for three years.
Question 47. "Why don't you participate in the volunteer work in summer?", said Sophie.
A. Sophie asked me why not participate in the volunteer work in summer.
B. Sophie made me participate in the volunteer work in summer.
C. Sophie suggested my participating in the volunteer work in summer.
D. Sophie suggested me to participate in the volunteer work in summer.
Question 48. It isn’t necessary for us to get a visa for Singapore.
A. We mustn’t get a visa for Singapore. B. We needn’t get a visa for Singapore.
C. We mayn’t get a visa for Singapore. D. We shouldn’t get a visa for Singapore.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. Jenifer rejected the job offer. She now regrets it.
A. Jenifer regrets not having rejected the job offer.
B. If only Jenifer didn’t reject the job offer.
C. Jenifer wishes she hadn’t rejected the job offer.
D. Jenifer regrets to reject the job offer.
Question 50. We couldn't solve the problem until our teacher arrived.
A. Not until we solved the problem could our teacher arrive.
B. When our teacher arrived, we solved the problem.
C. Until our teacher arrived, we were able to solve the problem.
D. Not until our teacher arrived could we solve the problem.
-------------------- HẾT -----------------

5 65
ĐỀ THI THỬ KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2021
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ SỐ 14 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh:…………………………………………………………………………
Số báo danh:....................................................................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. laughed B. sacrificed C. cooked D. explained
Question 2. A. moon B. food C. pool D. foot

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. defend B. preceed C. decent D. expand
Question 4. A. initiate B. epidemic C. opponent D. enthusiast

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. Nobody called me yesterday, ……………….?
A. didn't it B. do they C. didn't they D. did they
Question 6.This house ———————- in 1970 by my grandfather.
A. built B. was built C. was build D. has built
Question 7. What do you know .......... him?
A. on B. about C. with D. for
Question 8. The more I tried my best to help her, ……….she became.
A. less lazy B. the lazier C. the more lazy D. lazier
Question 9. She has just bought .
A. an interesting French old painting B. an old interesting French painting
C. a French interesting old painting D. an interesting old French painting
Question 10. When the boss walked into the office, his secretary ______.
A.has been typing B.was typing C. is typing D. had typed
Question 11. She got the job the fact that she had very little experience.
A. although B. because of C. despite D. because
Question 12. ________ to help, we will have finished the work.
A. By the time John comes B. Since John comes
C. When John comes D. Until John comes
Question 13._______the distance was too far and the time was short, we decided to fly there instead of
going there by train.
A. To discover B. Discovered C. To have discovered D. Discovering
Question 14. She was pleased that things were going on _______.
A. satisfied B. satisfactorily C. satisfying D. satisfaction
Question 15. I was late for work because my alarm clock did not _______ .
A. turn off B. put off C. send off D. go off
Question 16. Peter______ a better understanding of Algebra than we do.
A. makes B. has C. takes D. gives
Question 17. The sight of his pale face brought ________ to me how ill he really was.
A. place B. house C. life D. home

1 66
Question 18. Ihe children had to__________in the principal’s office after they took part in a fight.
A. hit the right notes B. beat around the bush
C. play second fiddle D. face the music
Question 19. In the formal interview, it is essential to maintain good eye with the interviewers.
A. contact B. touch C. link D. connection
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: The factory is fined for discharging dangerous chemicals into the river.
A. releasing B. increasing C. decreasing D. keeping
Question 21: The new college is intended to improve the life chances of children in the inner city.
A. productions B. communities C. opportunities D. questions
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Children brought up in a caring environment tend to grow more sympathetic towards
others.
A. loving B. dishonest C. healthy D. hateful
Question 23: It’s quite disappointing that some people still turn a blind eye to acts of injustice they
witness in the street.
A. take no notice of B. have no feeling for
C. show respect for D. pay attention to
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24: Janet wants to invite Susan to go to the cinema.
- Janet: “Do you feel like going to the cinema this evening?”
- Susan: “______.”
A. I don’t agree, I’m afraid B. You’re welcome
C. That would be great D. I feel very bored
Question 25: Baker and Barbara are talking about habits of women’ driving.
- Baker: “In my opinion, women often drive more carefully than men.”
- Barbara: “______.”
A. Never mind B. What nonsense C. Absolutely D. Yes, please
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Mobile phones: a benefit or social nuisance?
Few people under 30 will be able to imagine a time before the existence of mobile phones. Neither
will they be (26)_________of the harmful effect that many people predicted text language would have on
young people’s language skills.
Interestingly, linguists nowadays believe that expressing oneself clearly in texts is evidence of a
good background in grammar and sentence structure. Mobile phones are credited with encouraging
people to communicate more. They can also provide reassurance to people (27)_________are alone in
dangerous situations. Some people use mobile phones as a kind of barrier to unwelcome social contact;
texting can signal your unavailability to (28)_________people in the same way that wearing sunglasses
and headphones does.
Some issues with mobile phones are still controversial. Talking loudly on the phone while on
public transport is thought to be rude and (29)_________by many people in the UK. (30)_________, a
significant minority of people still do it, despite the sighing and other obvious signs of disapproval from
their fellow passengers.

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(Adapted from “AdvancedExpert’’ by Jan Bell and Roger Gower)
Question 26. A. anxious B. alert C. aware D. forgetful
Question 27. A. which B. when C. where D. who
Question 28. A. other B. another C. every D. one
Question 29. A. inconsiderate B. insignificant C. inflexible D. inattentive
Question 30. A. Therefore B. However C. Moreover D. Otherwise
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Deep brain stimulation (DBS), an experimental technology that involves implanting a pacemaker-
like device in a patient’s brain to send electrical impulses, is a hotly debated subject in the field of
medicine. It is an inherently risky procedure and the exact effects on the human brain aren’t yet fully
understood.
But some practitioners believe it could be a way to alleviate the symptoms of depression or even help
treat Alzheimer’s — and now they suspect it could help with drug addiction as well. In a world’s first,
according to the Associated Press, a patient in Shanghai’s Ruijin Hospital had a DBS device implanted in
his brain to treat his addiction to methamphetamine. And the device has had an astonishingly positive
effect, the patient says. “This machine is pretty magical. He adjusts it to make you happy and you’re
happy, to make you nervous and you’re nervous,” he told the Associated Press. “It controls your
happiness, anger, grief and joy.”
Other studies in China have yielded mixed results trying to treat opioid addictions using DBS,
according to the AP. In the United States, at least two studies that tried to treat alcoholism with DBS were
dropped for not being able to justify the risks. The idea of using DBS to treat drug addiction has raised
concerns in medical communities across the globe about brain hemorrhage, seizures, or personality
changes.
Question 31. What is the passage mainly about?
A. Symptoms of depression B. Curing addiction
C. Deep brain simulation D. Brain diseases
Question 32. The word “alleviate” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to_____.
A. demolish B. ease C. destroy D. devalue
Question 33. The word “It” in paragraph 3 refers to__________________.
A. Deep brain simulation B. a pacemaker-like device
C. the field of medicine D. a patient’s brain
Question 34. According to the passage, the use of DBS_____________.
A. has been thoroughly studied by scientists.
B. has been approved by all Chinese practitioners.
C. has achieved both positive and negative results.
D. has successfully cured opioid addictions in China.
Question 35. All of the following are mentioned in the passage as concerns about the use of DBS to treat
drug addiction in medical communities worldwide EXCEPT______________.
A. Seizures B. Personality changes
C. Brain hemorrhage D. Alcoholism
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Most parents want their sons and daughters to have equal chances of success when they grow
up. Today, equality of the sexes is largely mandated by public policy and law. However, old-
fashioned ideas and a lot of prejudice are still part of our culture and present challenging
questions for parents.

3 68
Gender stereotypes are rigid ideas about how boys and girls should behave. We all know what
these stereotypes are: A "feminine" girls should be insecure, accommodating and a little illogical
in her thinking. A "masculine" boy should be strong, unemotional, aggressive, and competitive.
How are children exposed to these stereotypes? According to the researchers David and Myra Sadker
of the American University of Washington, D.C., boys and girls are often treated differently in
the classroom. They found out that when boys speak, teachers usually offer constructive
comments, when girls speech, teachers tend to focus on the behavior. It's more important how the
girls act rather than what they say.
The emphasis on differences begins at birth and continues throughout childhood. For
example, few people would give pink baby's clothes to a boy or a blue blanket to a girl. Later, many of
us give girls dolls and miniature kitchenware, while boys receive action figures and construction
sets. There's nothing wrong with that. The problem arises when certain activities are deemed
appropriate for one sex but not the other. According to Heather J. Nicholson, Ph.D., director of the
National Resource Center for Girls, Inc., this kind of practice prevents boys and girls from acquiring
important skills for their future lives.
"The fact is," says Nicholson, "that society functions as a kind of sorting machine regarding
gender. In a recent survey, fifty-eight percent of eighth-grade girls but only six percent of boys
earned money caring for younger children. On the other hand, twenty-seven percent of boys but
only three percent of girls earned money doing lawn work". If we are serious about educating a
generation to be good workers and parents, we need to eliminate such stereotypes as those
mentioned previously.
Gender stereotypes inevitably are passed to our children. However, by becoming aware of
the messages our children receive, we can help them develop ways to overcome these incorrect
ideas. To counteract these ideas, parents can look for ways to challenge and support their
children, and to encourage confidence in ways that go beyond what society's fixed ideas about
differences of sext are.
(Source: https://en.isicollective.com)

Question 36. Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?
A. Deep-seated stereotypes about genders and their effects.
B. Different prejudice about how girls and boys should behave and be treated.
C. The role of culture in the behavior of different genders.
D. The influence of education and society on gender stereotypes.
Question 37. The word "deemed" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ___.
A. celebrated B. supposed C. designed D. established
Question 38. According to the second passage, David and Myra Sadker of the American University
of Washington, D.0 found that_____.
A. schoolboys and schoolgirls are treated equally in the classroom.
B. teachers often concentrate on boys' behavior and girls' manners.
C. boys are commented usefully whereas girls are paid attention to behavior.
D. girls are taught to be insecure, accommodating and illogical while boys are strong,
unemotional, aggressive, and competitive.
Question 39. According to the passage, which of the following is UNTRUE about gender
stereotypes?
A. Male and female children are expected to behave the same as what adults think they should.
B. The distinctions in treatment to boys and girls commence when they were given birth.
C. Its beneficial for children to practice fundamental skills if they are treated unequally quite early
D. Children are differently treated not only at homes but also at schools.
4 69
Question 40. The word "counteract" in the last paragraph could be best replaced by __.
A. promote B. frustrate C. encourage D. inspire
Question 41. What does the word "that" in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. The differences between boys and girls begin at birth and continue throughout childhood.
B. People often give pink clothes to a boy and a blue blanket to a girl.
C. Many people give girls dolls and miniature kitchen and boys receive action figures and
construction sets when they were born.
D. People give different genders of children distinct kinds of presents or clothes.
Question 42. What can be inferred from the passage?
A. Parents are able to help reduce the influence of gender stereotypes on their children.
B. Teachers and parents have to join hands to encourage children's confidence in social activities.
C. Society functions often categorize jobs regardless genders.
D. The problems males and females get when they are adults may originate from gender stereotypes.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 43. My brother usually asked me for help when he has difficulty with his homework.
A B C D
Question 44. Tom’s jokes are inappropriate but we have to put up with it just because he’s the boss.
A B C D
Question 45. He was so exhausted that he felt asleep at his desk.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 46. The last time I saw her was three years ago.
A. I have not seen her for three years.
B. About three years ago, I used to meet her.
C. I have often seen her for the last three years.
D. I saw her three years ago and will never meet her
Question 47. “Would you like to come out to dinner with me tonight, Jenny?” Paul said.
A. Paul suggested that Jenny go out to dinner with him that night.
B. Paul insisted on Jenny going out to dinner with him that night.
C. Paul invited Jenny to go out to dinner with him that night.
D. Pau offered Jenny to go out to dinner with him that night.
Question 48. I’m sure that they had practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals.
A. They couldn’t have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals
B. They must have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals
C. They shouldn’t have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals
D. They might have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. Nam was so rude to them last night. Now he feels regretful.
A. Nam regrets to have been so rude to them last night.
B. Nam regrets having so rude to them last night.
C. Nam wishes he hadn’t been so rude to them last night.
D. Nam wishes he weren’t so rude to them last night.
Question 50. He started computer programming as soon as he left school.
A. No sooner had he started computer programming than he left school.
B. Hardly had he started computer programming when he left school.
C. No sooner had he left school than he started computer programming.
D. After he left school, he had started computer programming.
-------------------- HẾT -----------------
5 70
ĐỀ THI THỬ KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2021
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ SỐ 15 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh:…………………………………………………………………………
Số báo danh:....................................................................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1 . A. shortlist B. temporary C. afford D. accordingly
Question 2. A. talked B. naked C. liked D. asked
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
Question 3. A. confide B. gather C. divide D. maintain
Question 4. A. compulsory B. certificate C. category D. accompany
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. Let’s begin our discussion now, ________?
A. shall we B. will we C. don’t we D. won’t we
Question 6. My sister _________ for you for an hour.
A. was looking B. is looking C. has been looking D. looked
Question 7. Susan is fed ________ with the housework.
A. of B. up C. at D. on
Question 8. The more he slept,…………….irritable he became.
A. the most B. the vey more C. much more D. the more
Question 9. There are many ______ in our library.
A. old American interesting history books B. interesting old American history books
C. interesting American old history books D. American interesting old history books
Question 10: Before I ___________ for that job, I _________________ my parents for advice.
A. applied/ had asked B. applied/ asked
C. had applied/ asked D. applied/ have asked
Question 11. _______ he had enough money, he refused to buy a new car.
A. In spite B. Although C. Despite D. In spite of
Question 12: , . his employees will have worked for two hours.
A. By the time the boss arrives B. when the boss arrives
C. after the boss arrives D. only when the boss arrives
Question 13: every major judo title, Mark retired from international competition.
A. When he won B. Having won C. On winning D. Winning
Question 14: Judo players are______to their opponents and bow to each other before and after a contest.
A. respectfully B.respectful C. respectable D. respect
Question 15: Lucy was late for school this morning because the alarm didn’t __________as usual.
A. ring off B. get off C. go off D. take off
Question 16: ________ these books to the library, as they will soon overdue.
A. Bring B. Take C. Fetch D. Leave

1 71
Question 17. He sent his children to the park so that he could have some______.
A. fresh and quiet B. quiet and peace C. peace and quiet D. fresh and peace
Question 18. I’ve never really enjoyed going to the ballet or the opera; they’re not really my_______.
A. piece of cake B. sweets and candy C. biscuit D. cup of tea
Question 19: ___________ are that they'll be late anyway, so we’d better wait for them for another
moment.
A. Opportunities B. Chances C. Fortunes D. Lucks
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: When the protestor entered the meeting clad only in a beach tower, the audience was
dumbfounded.
A. speechless B. excited C. content D. applauding
Question 21: She is always diplomatic when she deals with angry students.
A. strict B. outspoken C. tactful D. firm
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Ships crossing the oceans can receive signals from satellites that enable them to calculate
their position accurately.
A. carelessly B. imprecisely C. uneasily D. untruthfully
Question 23: He is very absent – minded . He is likely to forget things or to think about something
different from what he should be thinking about.
A. retentive B. unforgettable C. old – fashioned D. easy – going
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24: Maria: "It was very kind of you to help me out, John." – John: “_______.”
A. You can say that again. B. I’m glad you like it.
C. That was the least I could do. D. Thanks a million
Question 25: Customer: "Can I try this jumper on?"
Salesgirl: "_____"
A. No, the shop is closed in half an hour B. Sorry, only cash is accepted here
C. Yes, it costs one hundred and fifty dollars D. Sure, the changing rooms are over there
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Some people return to college as mature students and take full- or part-time training courses in a skill will
help them to get a job. The development of open learning, (26)______ it possible to study when it is
convenient for the students, has increased the opportunities available (27)_______ many people. This
type of study was formerly restricted to book-based learning and (28)________ course but now includes
courses on TV, CD-ROM or the Internet, and self-access courses at language or computer centers.
Americans believe that education is important at all stage of life and should not stop (29)________ people
get their first job. About 40% of adults take part in some kind of formal education. About half of them are

2 72
trying to get qualifications and skills to help them with their jobs, the (30)_________ are taking
recreational subjects for personal satisfaction. Schools and community colleges arrange evening classes,
and a catalog of courses is published by local boards of education.
Question 26: A. making B. keeping C. enabling D. finding
Question 27: A. about B. with C. to D. by
Question 28: A. corresponding B. corresponded C. correspondent D. correspondence
Question 29: A. whereas B. that C. when D. otherwise
Question 30: A. remains B. rest C. excess D. left
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
The relationship between Britain and the US has always been a close one. Like all close relationships it
has had difficult times. The US was first a British colony, but between 1775 and 1783 the US fought a
war to become independent. The US fought the British again in the War of 1812.
In general, however, the two countries have felt closer to each other than to any other country, and
their foreign policies have shown this. During World War I and World War II, Britain and the US
supported each other. When the US looks for foreign support, Britain is usually the first country to come
forward and it is sometimes called “the 51st state of the union”.
But the special relationship that developed after 1945 is not explained only by shared political
interests. An important reason for the friendship is that the people of the two countries are very similar.
They share the same language and enjoy each other's literature, films and television. Many Americans
have British ancestors, or relatives still living in Britain. The US government and political system is based
on Britain's, and there are many Anglo-American businesses operating on both sides of the Atlantic. In
Britain some people are worried about the extent of US influence, and there is some jealousy of its
current power. The special relationship was strong in the early 1980s when Margaret Thatcher was Prime
Minister in Britain and Ronald Reagan was President of the US.
(Adapted from Background to British and American Cultures)
Question 31: What is the passage mainly about?
A. The strong friendship between the UK and the US.
B. The close relationship between Britain and the US.
C. A special relationship the UK developed during the World Wars.
D. A special influence the US had on the UK during the World Wars.
Question 32: The phrase "come forward” in paragraph 2 mostly means _______.
A. be willing to help B. be able to help C. be reluctant to help D. be eager to help
Question 33:The word “They” in paragraph 3 prefers to __________.
A. countries B. people C. political interests D. British ancestors
Question 34: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a reason for the special relationship between
Britain and the US?
A. The people of the two countries are very similar.
B. Many Americans have British ancestors.
C. British Prime Minister and the US President are close friends.
D. Many Anglo-American businesses are operating in the two countries.
Question 35: Britain and the US are close to each other NOT because of their ___________.
A. foreign policies B. power C. political interests D. language

3 73
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
There are two basic types of glaciers, those that flow outward in all directions with little regard
for any underlying terrain and those that are confined by terrain to a particular path.
The first category of glaciers includes those massive blankets that cover whole continents,
appropriately called ice sheets. There must be over 50,000 square kilometers of land covered with ice
for the glacier to qualify as an ice sheet, when portions of an ice sheet spread out over the ocean, they
form ice shelves.
About 20,000 years ago the Cordilleran Ice sheet covered nearly all the mountains in southern Alaska,
western Canada, and the western United States. It was about 3 kilometers deep at its thickest point in
northern Alberta. Now there are only two sheets left on Earth, those covering Greenland and Antarctica.
Any domelike body of ice that also flows out in all directions but covers less than 50,000 square
kilometers is called an ice cap. Although ice caps are rare nowadays, there are a number in northeastern
Canada, on Baffin Island, and on the Queen Elizabeth Islands.
The second category of glaciers includes those of a variety of shapes and sizes generally called
mountain or alpine glaciers. Mountain glaciers are typically identified by the landform that controls
their flow. One form of mountain glacier that resembles an ice cap in that it flows outward in several
directions is called an ice field. The difference between an ice field and an ice cap is subtle.
Essentially, the flow of an ice field is somewhat controlled by surrounding terrain and thus does not
have the domelike shape of a cap. There are several ice fields in the Wrangell. St. Elias, and Chugach
mountains of Alaska and northern British Columbia.
Less spectacular than large ice fields are the most common types of mountain glaciers: the cirque
and valley glaciers. Cirque glaciers are found in depressions in the surface of the land and have a
characteristic circular shape. The ice of valley glaciers, bound by terrain, flows down valleys, curves
around their corners, and falls over cliffs.
Question 36: what does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Where major glaciers are located
B. How glaciers shape the land
C. The different kinds of glaciers
D. How glaciers are formed
Question 37: The word “terrain” in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by____________.
A. the seabed B. area of land C. countryside D. prairie
Question 38: It can be inferred from paragraph 2 that ice sheets are so named
because____________
A. they are thicker in some areas than the others
B. they are identified by the landform that controls their flow
C. they cover large areas of land
D. they are confined to cirque glaciers
Question 39: According to the passage, where was the Cordilleran Ice Sheet thickest?
A. Alaska B. Antarctica C. Greenland D. Alberta
Question 40: The word “subtle” in paragraph 5 could best be replaced by____________.
A. slight B. substantial C. regional D. obvious
Question 41: The word “their” in last paragraph refers to____________.
A. ice fields B. cirque glaciers C. valley glaciers D. valleys
Question 42: All of the following are alpine glaciers EXCEPT____________.

4 74
A. cirque glaciers B. ice caps C. ice fields D. Valley glaciers
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 43: My brother usually asked me for help when he has difficulty with his homework.
A B C D
Question 44: They are having her house painted by a construction company.
A B C D
Question 45: I’m becoming increasingly forgetable. Last week I locked myself out of the house twice.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 46: We have been cooking for the party for four hours.
A. We didn’t start cooking for the party until four.
B. We started cooking for the party four hours ago.
C. We have four cooks for the party
D. Cooking for the party will be done in four hours
Question 47: "Don't forget to submit your assignments by Thursday," said the teacher to the students.
A. The teacher reminded the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
B. The teacher allowed the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
C. The teacher ordered the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
D. The teacher encouraged the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
Question 48: I’m sure that they had practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals.
A. They couldn’t have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals
B. They must have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals
C. They shouldn’t have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals
D. They might have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 49: Jenifer rejected the job offer. She now regrets it.
A. Jenifer regrets not having rejected the job offer.
B. If only Jenifer didn’t reject the job offer.
C. Jenifer wishes she hadn’t rejected the job offer.
D. Jenifer regrets to reject the job offer.
Question 50: We couldn't solve the problem until our teacher arrived.
A. Not until we solved the problem could our teacher arrive.
B. When our teacher arrived, we solved the problem.
C. Until our teacher arrived, we were able to solve the problem.
D. Not until our teacher arrived could we solve the problem.
-------------------- HẾT -----------------

5 75
ĐỀ THI THỬ KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2021
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ SỐ 16 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh:…………………………………………………………………………
Số báo danh:....................................................................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from
Question 1. A. complained B. roared C. existed D. decayed
Question 2. A. creature B. creamy C. creative D. crease
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. struggle B. answer C. confide D. comfort
Question 4. A. inflation B. maximum C. applicant D. character
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. Tom invited us to come to his party, ?
A.couldn't he B.wasn't he C. hadn't he D. didn't he
Question 6. The injured ———————- to the hospital in an ambulance.
A. were taking B. was taking C. were taken D. have taken
Question 7. Sometimes she does not agree her husband about child rearing but they soon
find the solutions.
A. with B. for C. on D. of
Question 8. The greater the demand, the price.
A. the highest B. the high C. higher D. the higher
Question 9. Indiana University, one of the largest in the nation, is located in a town.
A. small beautiful Midwestern B. beautiful Midwestern small
C. Midwestern beautiful small D. beautiful small Midwestern
Question 10: Câu 7: I broke my teeth when I dinner.
A. had B. was having C. am having D. am having
Question 11: _______ I’d like to help you out, I’m afraid I just haven’t got any spare money at the
moment.
A. Although B. However C. Despite D. In spite of
Question 12: John will look for a job __________.
A. after he had passed his exams B. as soon as he passes his exams
C. while he was passing his D. before he passed his exams
Question 13: ________ a scholarship, I entered one of the most privileged universities of the United
Kingdom.
A. To award B. Being awarded
C. Having awarded D. Having been awarded
Question 14: Euthanasia, also a mercy killing, is the practice of ending a life so as to release an
individual from an incurable disease or _________ suffering.
A. tolerated B. tolerant C. tolerate D. intolerable
Question 15:There are other problems of city life which I don't propose to ____ at the moment.
A. go into B. go around C. go for D. go up
Question 16: The government should take some measures to that tourism
develops in harmony with the environment.
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A. promote B. ensure C. facilitate D. improve
Question 17: With a good _________ of both Vietnamese and English, Miss Loan was assigned the task
of oral interpretation for the visiting American delegation.
A. insight B. knowledge C. command D. proficiency
Question 18: Jimmy always takes the ________ by the horns at every chance in order to become a
famous pop star, which is why he is so successful now.
A. bull B. horse C. cow D. buffalo
Question 19: Tourism is changing rapidly as nature, heritage, and recreational destinations become more
important, and as conventional tourism is forced to _______ tougher environmental requirements.
A. meet B. impose C. lay D. set
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 20: The protesters were angry with the council’s plan to do away with a lovely old building
and put a car park there instead.
A. destroy B. replace C. remain D. keep
Question 21: There are many TV commercials which distracting viewers from watching their favorite
films.
A. economics B. businesses C. contests D. advertisements
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Many people perished in the Kobe earthquake because they were not prepared for it.
A. survived B. departed C. lost their lives D. declined
Question 23: The writer was really hot under the collar when his novel was mistaken for another.
A. angry B. worried C. calm D. curious
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of
the following exchanges
Question 24: Mai and Lan are friends.Lan asks Mai about Mai's plan. Select the most suitable
response to fill in the blank.
Lan: “Are you going to see the live show by Son Tung today?”
Mai: “__________”.
A. Yes, I enjoyed it very much B. Maybe I'll be out
C. Yes, I'm going to stay in D. I think so
Question 25: Mary invited her friend, Sarah, to have dinner out that night and Sarah accepted.
Choose the most suitable response to fill in the blank in the following exchange.
Mary: “Shall we eat out tonight?” - Sarah: “___________.”
A. It's kind of you to invite B. You are very welcome
C. That's a great idea D. That's acceptable

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29.
In such a costly and competitive society and world, no one of us can live without money. We need
money to fulfill our basic needs of the life such as buying food, and (26) ________ many basic necessities
of life which are almost impossible to buy without money. People in the society (27)______are rich and
have property are looked as honourable and respectful person of the society however a poor person is
seen as hatred without any good impression.
Money increases the position of the person in the society and (28)______a good impression to him.
All of us want to be rich by earning more money through good job or business in order to fulfil all the

2 77
increasing demands of the modern age. (29)______, only few people get this chance of completing their
dreams of being a millionaire.
So, money is the thing of great importance all through the life. Money is required by everyone
whether he/she is rich or poor and living in urban areas or rural areas. People in the urban areas are
earning more money than the people living in backward or rural areas as the people of the urban areas
have more (30)______to the technologies and get more opportunity because of the easy sources.
(Adapted from https://www.indiacelebrating.com)
Question 26: A. other B. some C. many D. few
Question 27: A. where B. what C. who D. which
Question 28: A. gives B. does C. takes D. draws
Question 29: A. Besides B.Therefore C. Moreover D. However
Question 30: A. way B. exit C. access D. order
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
In 2007, at a heavily hyped press event in San Francisco, Apple co-founder Steve Jobs stood on
stage and unveiled a revolutionary product that not only broke the mould but also set an entirely new
paradigm for computer-based phones. The look, interface and core functionality of nearly every
smartphone to come along since is, in some form or another, derived from the original iPhone’s
innovative touchscreen-centric design.
Among some of the ground-breaking features was an expansive and responsive display from which
to check email, stream video, play audio, and browse the internet with a mobile browser that loaded full
websites, much like what is experienced on personal computers. Apple’s unique iOS operating system
allowed for a wide range of intuitive gesture-based commands and eventually, a rapidly growing
warehouse of downloadable third-party applications.
Most importantly, the iPhone reoriented people’s relationship with smartphones. Up to then, they
were generally geared toward businesspeople and enthusiasts who saw them as an invaluable tool for
staying organized, corresponding over email, and boosting their productivity. Apple’s version took it to a
whole other level as a full-blown multimedia powerhouse, enabling users to play games, watch movies,
chat, share content, and stay connected to all the possibilities that we are all still constantly rediscovering.
(Adapted from https://www.thoughtco.com/)
Question 31: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Apple co-founder Steve Jobs B. press event in San Francisco
C. Apple’s unique iOS operating system D. Apple’s iPhone
Question 32: The word “paradigm” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. media B. pattern C. role D. area
Question 33: Which is NOT mentioned in paragraph 1 as a characteristic of the new iPhone?
A. new look B. interface C. excellent sound D. core functionality
Question 34: The word “that” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. mobile browser B. internet C. email D. audio
Question 35: The iPhone reoriented people’s relationship with smartphones and geared toward ______.
A. businesspeople B. organizers C. producers D. gamers
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Today, Snyder is seeing the fruits of the collaboration. In a recent issue of the Journal of
Comparative Psychology (Vol. 117, No. 3), the research group published the first study of giant panda
cub-rearing and separation. The study is the first step in examining the impact of a common breeding

3 78
practice in China: separating captive cubs before they are six months old so that the mothers will be able
to reproduce again sooner. Cubs in the wild stay with their mothers for 1.5 to 2.5 years.
Snyder and her co-authors, including Maple and psychologist Mollie Bloomsmith, PhD, theorize
that separating cubs from their mothers too early may harm their social development, and could underlie
why so many captive pandas fail to breed. Captive males often show little sexual interest in females or are
too aggressive.
The research team has also conducted urinary and behavioral analyses of female giant pandas
during the breeding season, which is generally in the spring, and is examining the behavior of giant panda
mothers. Graduate student Megan Wilson, who also has worked in Chengdu, is investigating sequences of
play-fighting for her dissertation. And former graduate student and Chengdu researcher Loraine Tarou,
PhD, examined giant panda cognition.
Tarou, now an assistant professor at Grand Valley State University in Michigan, is the first to
examine how captive pandas forage for food and learn to adapt to changes in their environment. She
compared her findings with the cognition of the spectacled bear and found that while both use spatial
memory to find food, the spectacled bears used visual cues the pandas did not pick up on.
The finding indicates that giant pandas' reliance on spatial memory alone may cause them to have
difficulty when their food sources are abruptly changed or moved--a big problem for an animal that
consumes nearly 30 pounds of bamboo a day.
While such basic research may not have immediate application, says Tarou, it is contributing to
scientists' growing knowledge of the species.
(Adapted from https://www.apa.org/)
Question 36: Which of the following best serves as the title for the article?
A. Learning about pandas B. Understanding breeding practice of pandas
C. Snyder and her co-authors’ theory D. How captive pandas forage for food
Question 37: Naturally, panda cubs stay with their mothers for ______.
A. 1 to 1.5 years B. 1.5 to 2.5 years C. 2.5 to 3 years D. 3 to 4 years
Question 38: The word “underlie” in paragraph 2 most probably means ______.
A. obtain B. generate C. explain D. develop
Question 39: What analyses has been done on female giant pandas during the breeding season?
A. spatial memory analyses B. environment interaction analyses
C. food analyses D. urinary and behavioral analyses
Question 40: The word “conducted” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. look for B. carry out C. get on D. set off
Question 41: Which of the following is infered according to the article?
A. Captive panda cubs in China are often separated from mothers before they are six months.
B. Separating cubs from their mothers early may be beneficial to their social development.
C. Megan Wilson and Loraine Tarou examined panda breeding season.
D. A panda consumes nearly 300 pounds of bamboo a day.
Question 42: The word “them” in paragraph 5 refers to ______.
A. difficulties B. memories C. food sources D. giant pandas
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 43: Many students took part in the entrance examination at university highly every year
A B C D
Question 44: Many successful film directors are former actors who desire to expand his
A B C D

4 79
experience in the film industry.
Question 45: I don’t think it would be political to ask for loan just now
A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions
Question 46: It has been a long time since they met.
A. They haven’t met since a long time. B. They haven’t met for a long time.
C. They didn’t meet for a long time. D. They didn’t meet a long time ago.
Question 47: “I will pay back the money, Gloria.” Said Ivan.
A. Ivan apologized to Gloria for borrowing her money.
B. Ivan offered to pay Gloria the money back.
C. Ivan promised to pay back Gloria’s money.
D. Ivan suggested paying back the money to Gloria.
Question 48: My children are possibly in the living room.
A. My children will be playing in the living room.
B. My children cannot be in the kitchen.
C. I do not know whether my children are in the living room.
D. My children might be in the living room.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 49: I regret not booking the seats in advance.
A. I wish I book the seats in advance.
C. If only I booked the seats in advance.
B. I wish I have booked the seats in advance.
D. If only I had booked the seats in advance
Question 50: We arrived at the cinema. Then we realized our tickets were still at home.
A. No sooner had we realized that our tickets were still at home than we arrived at the cinema.
B. Not until we arrived at the cinema that we realized that our tickets were still at home
C. Only after we arrived at the cinema did we realize that our tickets were at home.
D. Hardly had we arrived at the cinema than we realized that our tickets were still at home.

------------------------ THE END ------------------------

5 80
ĐỀ THI THỬ KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2021
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ SỐ 17 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh:…………………………………………………………………………
Số báo danh:....................................................................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. walked B. ended C. started D. wanted
Question 2. A. species B. invent C. medicine D. tennis

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. parent B. seldom C. unique D. over
Question 4. A. scenery B. festival C. atmosphere D. location

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. It’s a lovely day__________?
A. isn’t it B. was it C. doesn’t it D. did it
Question 6. The steam engine __________ by James Watt.
A. is invented B. was invented C. has been invented D. is being invented
Question 7. Simon Lake drew the inspiration ____ La submarine of undersea travel and exploration from
Twenty Thousand Leagues Under the Sea.
A. at B. by C. for D. of
Question 8. The fatter I become, __________I run.
A. the quickest B. the more slowly C. the slower D. the more fast
Question 9. Mai wants to buy_____________
A. a pair of sport new French shoes B. a pair of new sport French shoes
C. a pair of new French sport shoes D. a pair of French new sport shoes
Question 10. When I saw Bob, he __________his car
A. washed B. had washed C. was washing D. is washing
Question 11. Parents should start teaching them how to manage more complicated duties ____ children
graduate from toddlerhood and move toward preschool.
A. yet B. when C. and D. so
Question 12 Richard will look for a job __________.
A. after he had passed his exams B. before he passed his exams
C. while he was passing his exams D. as soon as he passes his exams
Question 13: UNESCO criteria for outstanding universal value to humanity, Trang An Scenic
Landscape Complex was added to the World Heritage List in 2014.
A. Meeting B. Met C. To meet D. Having met
Question 14: They are going to _______ the pool to 1.8 meter.
A. deepen B. depth C. deep D. deeply
Question 15: He is disappointed at not being offered the job, but I think he will ______ it.
A. turn off B. get over C. fill in D. take after
Question 16: Though she lost her job last month, she still wanted to save_____ so she said that she had
left it willingly.
1 81
A. mouth B. face C. reputation D. fame
Question 17: The final winner will be the one who breaks through ______ and survives till the last
minutes.
A. obstacles B. difficulty C. hindrance D. impediment
Question 18. In a formal interview, it is essential to maintain good eye__________with the interviewers.
A. link B. connection C. touch D. contact
Question 19. There are other problems of city life which I don't propose to ____ at the moment.
A. go into B. go around C. go for D. go up
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: Face-to-face socializing is not as preferred as virtual socializing among the youth.
A. instant B. available C. direct D. facial
Question 21: Mary has a strong desire to make independent decisions.
A. dependent B. self-confident C. self-confessed D. self-determining

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Jane found herself in conflict with her parents over her future career.
A. disagreement B. harmony C. controversy D. fighting
Question 23: It was obvious that the deal was no longer tenable, so we kicked it into touch.
A. measure it B. mention it C. forgot it D. approved it

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24: Rachel and Mark are at home.
- Rachel: “Can I get you something to drink?”
- Mark: “___________. I’m not thirsty.”
A. No, thank you B. Yes please C. You’re welcome D. Thank you
Question 25: Molly is talking to her sister about online shopping.
- Molly: “Shopping online is super convenient and trouble-free.”
- Molly’s sister: “___________. Sometimes a lot of serious problems arise.”
A. That’s it B. I take your view C. Absolutely D. That’s not entirely true

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
In an educational context, the term ‘learner independence’ has gained increasing importance in recent
years. It is of particular (26)_______to language learning and commonly refers to the way students
confidently control and organise their own language learning process. While some people seem to have
an almost instinctive flaw for languages, (27) _______ have to rely on strategies to maximise their skills
and learn a foreign language more effectively.
The main thing to remember is that becoming a truly independent learner ultimately depends above all
on taking responsibility for your own learning and being prepared to take every opportunity available to
you to learn. You also increase your chances of (28)_________by learning according to your own needs
and interests, using all available resources. Research shows that learners (29)__________adopt this
approach will undoubtedly manage to broaden their language abilities considerably and, (30)_________
are mote likely to achieve their objectives in the longer term.
(Adapted from “Complete Advanced” by Laura Mathews and Barbara Thomas)

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Question 26. A. resemblance B. acceptance C. relevance D. acquaintance
Question 27. A. each B. every C. others D. Few
Question 28. A. interest B. failure C. suspicision D. success
Question 29. A. who B. why C. which D. where
Question 30. A. though B. as a result C. because D. in contrast

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Vietnam’s population is ageing quickly. In 2017, more than 10 per cent of the population will be
60 and older, and in 15-20 years the elderly will account for one third of the total population. This raises
concerns about healthcare, welfare and pensions for the elderly at a time when Vietnam is focusing on
economic integration and requires a large labor force. So far two solutions have been proposed: to loosen
the two-child policy and to increase the retirement age to 58 for women and 62 for men. By ending the
two-child policy the government expects to make up for the ageing population within the next 20 years.
But its effect could be creating an uncontrollable boom in the Vietnamese population. When the
government loosened the two-child policy in 2015 in a trial period, in the first 6 months of 2016 the third
child birth rate increased remarkably by 7.5 per cent
Raising the retirement age has been proposed by the Ministry of Labor pending parliamentary
evaluation in May 2017. While the policy is beneficial in utilizing the work experience of the elderly
while creating savings in the pension budget, it also means fewer job prospects and promotion
opportunities for younger generations. It is also not in the interest of all the elderly, especially the 70 per
cent of Vietnam's labor force working in manual labor-intensive sectors such as agriculture,
manufacturing and construction where working above the age of 50 can be dangerous and unproductive.
Despite these drawbacks, raising the retirement age is still considered by policymakers as one of the key
solutions to the ageing population problem in Vietnam. However, these are only temporary solutions.
Question 31. The best title for this passage could be ________.
A. Vietnam struggling with ageing population
B. Stopping the two-child policy in Vietnam
C. Raising the retirement age in Vietnam
D. How to solve the aging population in Vietnam
Question 32. Which statement is probably TRUE according to the information in the paragraph 1?
A. In 2017, the elderly take up for one third of the total population, this leads to more concerns
about healthcare, welfare and pensions for the elderly.
B. In 2015, the two-child policy has been officially tightened and succeeded.
C. The government would promote families to have two children to compensate for the ageing
population within the next 20 years.
D. In the next 15-17 years, Vietnam's economy will need a large labor force to integrate with
global economy.
Question 33. The word "temporary" in paragraph 2 means ________.
A. constant B. permanent C. short-term D. long-term
Question 34. The word “its" in paragraph 1 refers to ________?
A. two-Child policy B. aging population
C. retirement age D. economic integration
Question 35. In the 2rd paragraph, the writer suggests that ________.
A. The Ministry of Labor has applied raising the retirement age in May 2017.
B. Raising the retirement age can reduce job opportunities for younger generations.
C. The elderly whose age is 50 would be dangerous if they continued to work

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D. Raising the retirement age and stopping two-child policy can be considered as long-term and
effective solutions.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Have you ever entered a tropical rainforest? It's a special, dark place completely different from
anywhere else. A rainforest is a place where the trees grow very tall. Millions of kinds of animals, insects,
and plants live in the rainforest. It is hot and humid in a rainforest. It rains a lot in the rainforest, but
sometimes you don‘t know it's raining. The trees grow so closely together that rain doesn't always reach
the ground.
Rainforests make up only a small part of the Earth's surface, about six percent. They are found in
tropical parts of the world. The largest rainforest in the world is the Amazon in South America. The
Amazon covers 1.2 billion acres, or almost five million square kilometers. The second largest rainforest is
in Western Africa. There are also rainforests in Central America, Southeast Asia, Northeastern Australia,
and the Pacific Islands.
Rainforests provide us with many things. In fact, the Amazon Rainforest is called the “lungs of
our planet” because it produces twenty percent of the world's oxygen. One fifth of the world's fresh water
is also found in the Amazon Rainforest. Furthermore, one half of the world's species of animals, plants,
and insects live in the Earth's rainforests. Eighty percent of the food we eat first grew in the rainforest. For
example, pineapples, bananas, tomatoes, corn, potatoes, chocolate, coffee, and sugar all came from
rainforests. Twenty-five percent of the drugs we take when we are sick are made of plants that grow only
in rainforests. Some of these drugs are even used to fight and cure cancer. With all the good things we get
from rainforests, it’s surprising to find that we are destroying our rainforests. In fact, 1.5 acres, or 6,000
square meters, of rainforest disappear every second. The forests are being cut down to make fields for
cows, to harvest the plants, and to clear land for farms. Along with losing countless valuable species, the
destruction of rainforests creates many problems worldwide. Destruction of rainforests results in more
pollution, less rain, and less oxygen for the world.
Question 36: What is the author's purpose in the passage?
A. To provide factual information about tropical rainforests for readers.
B. To prove that rainforests are indispensable in our lives.
C. To explain why people have destroyed a large area of tropical rainforests.
D. To prevent people from damaging tropical rainforests.
Question 37. Why don't people know it‘s raining in the rainforests?
A. Because the trees grow very tall there.
B. Because they are the habitats of millions of flora and fauna.
C. Because the branches are too dense for the rain to touch the ground.
D. Because it hardly rains in the rainforests.
Question 38. The word “humid” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to __
A. dry B. moist C. cloudy D. overwhelmed
Question 39. The word “that” in paragraph 3 refer to ___________.
A. plants
B. the drugs
C. rainforests
D. pineapples, bananas, tomatoes, corn, potatoes, chocolate, coffee, and sugar
Question 40. The word “countless” in paragraph 3 could be best replaced by ___.
A. trivial B. meaningless C. numberless D. derisive
Question 41: The following are the facts about rainforests, EXCEPT ______.
A. The only places to see rainforests are in tropical zones.
B. The rainforest in Western Africa ranks second after the Amazon in South America in the
covered area.

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C. Rainforests account for about one sixth of the Earth's surface.
D. There’s a considerable variety of plants and animals in the rainforests.
Question 42: What can be inferred from the last passage?
A. People are not aware of the significance of the rainforests.
B. The consequences of deforestation are greater than what people can imagine.
C. The more rainforests are destroyed, the harder people's life will become.
D. People’s economic benefits are more important than environmental problems.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 43. Mrs. Mai and her friends from Vietnam plan to attend the festival now
A B C D
Question 44. Some manufacturers are not only raising their prices but also decreasing the production of
its products.
D A B C
Question 45. The whole matter is farther complicated by the fact that Amanda and Jo refuse to speak
A B C
to each other.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 46. She began to play the piano three years ago.
A. She has played the piano since three years.
B. She has played the piano for three years
C. She doesn’t play the piano now.
D. She stops playing the piano now.
Question 47. She said, "John, I'll show you round my city when you're here."
A. She made a trip round her city with John.
B. She planned to show John round her city.
C. She promised to show John round her city.
D. She organized a trip round her city for John.
Question 48. It is unnecessary for you to finish the report until tomorrow afternoon
A.You needn’t finish the report until tomorrow afternoon.
B.You have to finish the report unitl tomorrow afternoon.
C.You may finish the report after tomorrow afternoon.
D.You should finish the report until tomorrow afternoon

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. Susan didn’t apply for the summer job in the cafe. She now regrets it.
A. Susan wishes that she applied for the summer job in the cafe.
B. Susan feels regret because she didn’t apply for the summer job in the cafe.
C. If only Susan didn’t apply for the summer job in the cafe.
D. Susan wishes that she had applied for the summer job in the cafe.
Question 50. She had only just put the telephone down when the boss rang.
A. She put the telephone down and the boss rang.
B. Hardly had she put the telephone down when the boss rang.
C. The boss rang back, but she put the telephone down.
D. She had put the telephone down, so she let it ring when the boss rang.

-------------------- HẾT -----------------

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ĐỀ THI THỬ KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2021
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ SỐ 18 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh:…………………………………………………………………………
Số báo danh:....................................................................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. permitted B. wanted C. stopped D. needed
Question 2. A. effect B. enter C. restore D. engage

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. support B. slogan C. icon D. motto
Question 4. A. dominate B. disagree C. disrespect D. interfere

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5 . Your sister seldom cooks meals,___________?
A. did she B. didn’t she C. does she D. doesn’t she
Question 6 : Lots of houses _______ by the earthquake.
A. are destroying B. destroyed C. were destroying D. were destroyed
Question 7 : I think that married couples should be financially independent ___________ their parents.
A. to B. of C. with D. on
Question 8. The more confidence you look, ___________ you will feel.
A. the best B. the gooder C. better D. the better
Question 9. Mai bought___________which she dreamed of
A. a new interesting English book B. an English new interesting book
C. an interesting English new book D. an interesting new English book.
Question 10: They ____ football when the lights in the stadium went out.
A. were playing B. played C. were playing D. playing
Question 11. __________ they are delicious, hamburgers and French fries are too high in fat.
A. However B. Although C. Because D. Despite
Question 12. By the time you finish cooking they their homework.
A. will have finished B. will finish C. had finished D. have finished
Question 13. the email - supposedly from Boyd's Bank - to be genuine, she was tricked into disclosing
her credit card details.
A. Believe B. Being believed C. To believe D. Believing
Question 14: Thirty-one people have been injured in____________incidents throughout the day.
A. violent B. violence C. violently D. violate
Question 15: The what chemical is this? It's____________a horrible smell.
A. giving over B. giving off C. giving down D. giving up
Question 16: a momentary of concentration, Simon managed to regain his focus and completed the
test.
A. failure B. lapse C. fault D. error
Question 17: He may be shy now, but he will soon come out of his __________ when he meets the right
girl.
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A. shoe B. hole C. shed D. shell
Question 18: She's a woman with no pretensions.
A. ambitious B. creative C. idealistic D. down-to-earth
Question 19: The new management board is often described as the ______ force behind the company’s
rapid expansions.
A. driving B. leading C. rising D. heading
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19: I hope things will start to look up in the new year.
A. get better B. get worse C. become popular D. get bored
Question 20: Drunk driving can lead to some tragic results.
A. miserable B. peaceful C. delighted D. lasting
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions.
Question 21: He was so insubordinate that he lost his job within a week.
A. fresh B. disobedient C. obedient D. understanding
Question 22: If you are at a loose end this weekend, I will show you round the city.
A. free B. confident C. occupied D. Reluctant

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24: John is talking to Daisy about her new blouse
- John : "You really have a beautiful blouse, Daisy, I’ve never seen such a perfect thing on you !"
- Daisy : “____________________.”
A. I'm sorry to hear that. B. Thanks, That’s a nice compliment .
C. Don't mention it. D. Thanks for your gift!
Question 25: Mai and Tuan are talking about modern Robot
Mai: I believe that modern robots will be more intelligent and replace humans in many dangerous
jobs. Tuan: ____
A. That's just what I think of course. B. That sounds interesting.
C. That's a good idea. D. Why not? Believe me!
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
No one runs the internet. It’s organized as a decentralized network of networks. Thousands of
companies, universities, governments, and other (26) ______ operate their own networks and exchange
traffic with (27) ______ other based on voluntary interconnection agreements.
The shared technical standards (28) ______ make the internet work are managed by an organization
called the Internet Engineering Task Force. The IETF is an open organization; anyone is free to attend
meetings, propose new standards, and recommend changes to existing standards. No one is required to
adopt standards endorsed by the IETF, but the IETF’s consensus-based decision-making process helps to
(29) ______ that its recommendations are generally adopted by the internet community.
The Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers (ICANN) is sometimes described as being
(30) ______ for internet governance. As its name implies, ICANN is in charge of distributing domain
names (like vox.com) and IP addresses. But ICANN doesn’t control who can connect to the internet or
what kind of information can be sent over it.
(Adapted from https://www.vox.com/)
Question 26: A. entities B. terms C. amounts D. states

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Question 27: A. another B. every C. each D. all
Question 28: A. that B. who C. when D. what
Question 29: A. function B. stress C. exchange D. ensure
Question 30: A. Curious B. Responsible C. cheerful D. interested
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
We first learn about loving and caring relationships from our families. Family is defined as a domestic
group of people with some degree of kinship - whether through blood, marriage, or adoption. Ideally,
each child is nurtured, respected, and grows up to care for others and develop strong and healthy
relationships. This does not mean that it is always easy to make and keep friends; it just means that we
share the goal of having strong relationships.
"Family" includes your siblings and parents, as well as relatives who you may not interact with every day,
such as your cousins, aunts, uncles, grandparents, and stepparents. These are probably the people you are
closest to and with whom you spend the most time. Having healthy relationships with your family
members is both important and difficult.
Families in the 21st century come in all shapes and sizes: traditional, single parent, blended (more than
one family together in the same house], and gay and lesbian parents -just to name a few. No matter the
"type" of family you have, there are going to be highs and lows - good times and bad. Many times,
however, families become blocked in their relationships by hurt, anger, mistrust, and confusion. These are
natural and normal, and few families do not have at least a few experiences with them. The worst time for
most families, is during a divorce. By making a few simple changes in the way we look at the world and
deal with other people, it is possible to create happier, more stable relationships. Families need to be units
of mutual caring and support; they can be sources of lifelong strength for all individuals.
(Adapted from http://www.pamf.org)
Question 31. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. The importance of sharing housework in a family.
B. The importance of having children in a family.
C. The role of members in family.
D. The healthy relationships among members in family.
Question 32. Ideally, each child is nurtured, respected, and grows up________?
A. to keep in touch with the people around them.
B. to keep a track of the people around them.
C. to be familiar with the people around them.
D. to be concerned about the people around them.
Question 33. Which of the following is closest in meaning to "siblings" in paragraph 2?
A. brothers & sisters B. husband & wife C. children D. friends
Question 34. What does the word "These" in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. good and bad times B. feelings C. relationships D. high sand
lows
Question 35. According to the passage, which example below is probably NOT TRUE about the
definition of family?
A. wife &husband relationship B. step- father &daughter relationship
C. nanny &baby relationship D. god- mother & god-son relationship

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

3 88
There are many theories of aging, but virtually all fall into the category of being hypotheses with a
minimum of supporting evidence. One viewpoint is that aging occurs as the body's organ systems become
less efficient. Thus failures in the immune system, hormonal system, and nervous system could all
produce characteristics that we associate with aging. Following a different vein, many current researchers
are looking for evidence at the cellular and sub cellular level.
It has been shown that cells such as human fibroblasts (generalized tissue cells) grown in culture divide
only a limited number of times and then die. (Only cancer cells seem immortal in this respect). Fibroblast
cells from an embryo divide more times than those taken from an adult. Thus some researchers believe
that aging occurs at the cellular level and is part of the cell's genetic makeup. Any event that disturbs the
cell's genetic machinery such as mutation, damaging chemicals in the cell's environment, or loss of
genetic material, could cause cells to lose their ability to divide and thus bring on aging. Other theories of
aging look at different processes. Chronological aging refers to the passage of time since birth and is
usually measured in years. While chronological age can be useful in estimating the average status of a
large group of people, it is a poor indicator of an individual person's status because there is a tremendous
amount of variation from one individual to the next in regard to the rate at which biological age changes
occur. For example, on the average, aging results in people losing much of their ability to perform
strenuous activities, yet some elderly individuals are excellent marathon runners.
Another type of aging is cosmetic aging, which consists of changes in outward appearance with
advancing age. This includes changes in the body and changes in other aspects of a person's appearance,
such as the style of hair and clothing, the type of eyeglasses, and the use of a hearing aid. Like
chronological aging, it is frequently used to estimate the degree to which other types of aging have
occurred. However, it is an inaccurate indicator for either purpose because of variation among individuals
and because a person's appearance is affected by many factors that are not part of aging, including illness,
poor nutrition, and exposure to sunlight
Question 36: What is the best title for this passage?
A. Different Processes of Aging
B. Outstanding Characteristics Associated with Aging
C. Theories of Aging: Well Proven Hypotheses
D. Theories of Aging: Poorly Supported Hypotheses
Question 37: The author points out that cancer cells_____________
A. seem to live forever B. divide and then die
C . divide more in embryos than in adults D. lose their ability to divide
Question 38: The phrase “an embryo” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to_____________.
A. a descendant B. an infant C. a parent D. an internal organ
Question 39: The word “strenuous” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to_____________.
A. basic B. troublesome C. mental D. intense
Question 40: According to the passage, chronological aging is not a good indicator of an individual’s
status regarding aging because_____ .
A. elderly people are often athletic
B. there is individual variation in the rate of biological aging
C. strenuous activities are not good measures of age
D. it is difficult to get accurate records of birth dates
Question 41: In the last paragraph, the word “this” refers to________
A. cosmetic aging B. type of aging
C. outward appearance D. advancing age
Question 42. The author implies all of the following about cosmetic aging EXCEPT_____________
A. It does not occur at the same rate for all people

4 89
B. It is a poor indicator of chronological age
C. Illness, poor nutrition, and exposure to sunlight cause aging to occur
D. It is described by changes in outward appearance.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 43. My brother usually asked me for help when he has difficulty with his homework.
A B C D
Question 44. They are having her house painted by a construction company.
A B C D
Question 45. : I’m becoming increasingly forgetable. Last week I locked myself out of the house twice.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 46: We have been cooking for the party for four hours.
A. We didn’t start cooking for the party until four.
B. We started cooking for the party four hours ago.
C. We have four cooks for the party
D. Cooking for the party will be done in four hours
Question 47: "Don't forget to submit your assignments by Thursday," said the teacher to the students.
A. The teacher reminded the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
B. The teacher allowed the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
C. The teacher ordered the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
D. The teacher encouraged the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
Question 48: I’m sure that they had practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals.
A. They couldn’t have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals
B. They must have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals
C. They shouldn’t have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals
D. They might have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 49: Jenifer rejected the job offer. She now regrets it.
A. Jenifer regrets not having rejected the job offer.
B. If only Jenifer didn’t reject the job offer.
C. Jenifer wishes she hadn’t rejected the job offer.
D. Jenifer regrets to reject the job offer.
Question 50: We couldn't solve the problem until our teacher arrived.
A. Not until we solved the problem could our teacher arrive.
B. When our teacher arrived, we solved the problem.
C. Until our teacher arrived, we were able to solve the problem.
D. Not until our teacher arrived could we solve the problem.
------------------------ THE END ------------------------

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ĐỀ THI THỬ KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2021
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ SỐ 19 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh:…………………………………………………………………………
Số báo danh:....................................................................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from
Question 1. A. complained B. roared C. existed D. decayed
Question 2. A. creature B. creamy C. creative D. crease
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. struggle B. answer C. confide D. comfort
Question 4. A. inflation B. maximum C. applicant D. character
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. Tom invited us to come to his party, ?
A.couldn't he B.wasn't he C. hadn't he D. didn't he
Question 6. The injured ———————- to the hospital in an ambulance.
A. were taking B. was taking C. were taken D. have taken
Question 7. Sometimes she does not agree her husband about child rearing but they soon
find the solutions.
A. with B. for C. on D. of
Question 8. The greater the demand, the price.
A. the highest B. the high C. higher D. the higher
Question 9. Indiana University, one of the largest in the nation, is located in a town.
A. small beautiful Midwestern B. beautiful Midwestern small
C. Midwestern beautiful small D. beautiful small Midwestern
Question 10: Câu 7: I broke my teeth when I dinner.
A. had B. was having
C. am having D. am having
Question 11: _______ I’d like to help you out, I’m afraid I just haven’t got any spare money at the
moment.
A. Although B. However C. Despite D. In spite of
Question 12: John will look for a job __________.
A. after he had passed his exams B. as soon as he passes his exams
C. while he was passing his D. before he passed his exams
Question 13: ________ a scholarship, I entered one of the most privileged universities of the United
Kingdom.
A. To award B. Being awarded
C. Having awarded D. Having been awarded
Question 14: Euthanasia, also a mercy killing, is the practice of ending a life so as to release an
individual from an incurable disease or _________ suffering.
A. tolerated B. tolerant C. tolerate D. intolerable
Question 15:There are other problems of city life which I don't propose to ____ at the moment.
A. go into B. go around C. go for D. go up
Question 16: The government should take some measures to that tourism
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develops in harmony with the environment.
A. promote B. ensure C. facilitate D. improve
Question 17: With a good _________ of both Vietnamese and English, Miss Loan was assigned the task
of oral interpretation for the visiting American delegation.
A. insight B. knowledge C. command D. proficiency
Question 18: Jimmy always takes the ________ by the horns at every chance in order to become a
famous pop star, which is why he is so successful now.
A. bull B. horse C. cow D. buffalo
Question 19: Tourism is changing rapidly as nature, heritage, and recreational destinations become more
important, and as conventional tourism is forced to _______ tougher environmental requirements.
A. meet B. impose C. lay D. set
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 20: The protesters were angry with the council’s plan to do away with a lovely old building
and put a car park there instead.
A. destroy B. replace C. remain D. keep
Question 21: There are many TV commercials which distracting viewers from watching their favorite
films.
A. economics B. businesses C. contests D. advertisements
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Many people perished in the Kobe earthquake because they were not prepared for it.
A. survived B. departed C. lost their lives D. declined
Question 23: The writer was really hot under the collar when his novel was mistaken for another.
A. angry B. worried C. calm D. curious
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of
the following exchanges
Question 24: Mai and Lan are friends.Lan asks Mai about Mai's plan. Select the most suitable
response to fill in the blank.
Lan: “Are you going to see the live show by Son Tung today?”
Mai: “__________”.
A. Yes, I enjoyed it very much B. Maybe I'll be out
C. Yes, I'm going to stay in D. I think so
Question 25: Mary invited her friend, Sarah, to have dinner out that night and Sarah accepted.
Choose the most suitable response to fill in the blank in the following exchange.
Mary: “Shall we eat out tonight?” - Sarah: “___________.”
A. It's kind of you to invite B. You are very welcome
C. That's a great idea D. That's acceptable
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29.
In such a costly and competitive society and world, no one of us can live without money. We need
money to fulfill our basic needs of the life such as buying food, and (26) ________ many basic necessities
of life which are almost impossible to buy without money. People in the society (27)______are rich and
have property are looked as honourable and respectful person of the society however a poor person is
seen as hatred without any good impression.
Money increases the position of the person in the society and (28)______a good impression to him.
All of us want to be rich by earning more money through good job or business in order to fulfil all the

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increasing demands of the modern age. (29)______, only few people get this chance of completing their
dreams of being a millionaire.
So, money is the thing of great importance all through the life. Money is required by everyone
whether he/she is rich or poor and living in urban areas or rural areas. People in the urban areas are
earning more money than the people living in backward or rural areas as the people of the urban areas
have more (30)______to the technologies and get more opportunity because of the easy sources.
(Adapted from https://www.indiacelebrating.com)
Question 26: A. other B. some C. many D. few
Question 27: A. where B. what C. who D. which
Question 28: A. gives B. does C. takes D. draws
Question 29: A. Besides B.Therefore C. Moreover D. However
Question 30: A. way B. exit C. access D. order
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
In 2007, at a heavily hyped press event in San Francisco, Apple co-founder Steve Jobs stood on
stage and unveiled a revolutionary product that not only broke the mould but also set an entirely new
paradigm for computer-based phones. The look, interface and core functionality of nearly every
smartphone to come along since is, in some form or another, derived from the original iPhone’s
innovative touchscreen-centric design.
Among some of the ground-breaking features was an expansive and responsive display from which
to check email, stream video, play audio, and browse the internet with a mobile browser that loaded full
websites, much like what is experienced on personal computers. Apple’s unique iOS operating system
allowed for a wide range of intuitive gesture-based commands and eventually, a rapidly growing
warehouse of downloadable third-party applications.
Most importantly, the iPhone reoriented people’s relationship with smartphones. Up to then, they
were generally geared toward businesspeople and enthusiasts who saw them as an invaluable tool for
staying organized, corresponding over email, and boosting their productivity. Apple’s version took it to a
whole other level as a full-blown multimedia powerhouse, enabling users to play games, watch movies,
chat, share content, and stay connected to all the possibilities that we are all still constantly rediscovering.
(Adapted from https://www.thoughtco.com/)
Question 31: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Apple co-founder Steve Jobs B. press event in San Francisco
C. Apple’s unique iOS operating system D. Apple’s iPhone
Question 32: The word “paradigm” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. media B. pattern C. role D. area
Question 33: Which is NOT mentioned in paragraph 1 as a characteristic of the new iPhone?
A. new look B. interface C. excellent sound D. core
functionality
Question 34: The word “that” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. mobile browser B. internet C. email D. audio
Question 35: The iPhone reoriented people’s relationship with smartphones and geared toward ______.
A. businesspeople B. organizers C. producers D. gamers
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Today, Snyder is seeing the fruits of the collaboration. In a recent issue of the Journal of
Comparative Psychology (Vol. 117, No. 3), the research group published the first study of giant panda
cub-rearing and separation. The study is the first step in examining the impact of a common breeding

3 93
practice in China: separating captive cubs before they are six months old so that the mothers will be able
to reproduce again sooner. Cubs in the wild stay with their mothers for 1.5 to 2.5 years.
Snyder and her co-authors, including Maple and psychologist Mollie Bloomsmith, PhD, theorize
that separating cubs from their mothers too early may harm their social development, and could underlie
why so many captive pandas fail to breed. Captive males often show little sexual interest in females or are
too aggressive.
The research team has also conducted urinary and behavioral analyses of female giant pandas
during the breeding season, which is generally in the spring, and is examining the behavior of giant panda
mothers. Graduate student Megan Wilson, who also has worked in Chengdu, is investigating sequences of
play-fighting for her dissertation. And former graduate student and Chengdu researcher Loraine Tarou,
PhD, examined giant panda cognition.
Tarou, now an assistant professor at Grand Valley State University in Michigan, is the first to
examine how captive pandas forage for food and learn to adapt to changes in their environment. She
compared her findings with the cognition of the spectacled bear and found that while both use spatial
memory to find food, the spectacled bears used visual cues the pandas did not pick up on.
The finding indicates that giant pandas' reliance on spatial memory alone may cause them to have
difficulty when their food sources are abruptly changed or moved--a big problem for an animal that
consumes nearly 30 pounds of bamboo a day.
While such basic research may not have immediate application, says Tarou, it is contributing to
scientists' growing knowledge of the species.
(Adapted from https://www.apa.org/)
Question 36: Which of the following best serves as the title for the article?
A. Learning about pandas B. Understanding breeding practice of pandas
C. Snyder and her co-authors’ theory D. How captive pandas forage for food
Question 37: Naturally, panda cubs stay with their mothers for ______.
A. 1 to 1.5 years B. 1.5 to 2.5 years C. 2.5 to 3 years D. 3 to 4 years
Question 38: The word “underlie” in paragraph 2 most probably means ______.
A. obtain B. generate C. explain D. develop
Question 39: What analyses has been done on female giant pandas during the breeding season?
A. spatial memory analyses B. environment interaction analyses
C. food analyses D. urinary and behavioral analyses
Question 40: The word “conducted” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. look for B. carry out C. get on D. set off
Question 41: Which of the following is infered according to the article?
A. Captive panda cubs in China are often separated from mothers before they are six months.
B. Separating cubs from their mothers early may be beneficial to their social development.
C. Megan Wilson and Loraine Tarou examined panda breeding season.
D. A panda consumes nearly 300 pounds of bamboo a day.
Question 42: The word “them” in paragraph 5 refers to ______.
A. difficulties B. memories C. food sources D. giant pandas
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: Many students took part in the entrance examination at university highly every year
A B C D
Question 44: Many successful film directors are former actors who desire to expand his
A B C D
experience in the film industry.

4 94
Question 45: I don’t think it would be political to ask for loan just now
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions
Question 46: It has been a long time since they met.
A. They haven’t met since a long time. B. They haven’t met for a long time.
C. They didn’t meet for a long time. D. They didn’t meet a long time ago.
Question 47: “I will pay back the money, Gloria.” Said Ivan.
A. Ivan apologized to Gloria for borrowing her money.
B. Ivan offered to pay Gloria the money back.
C. Ivan promised to pay back Gloria’s money.
D. Ivan suggested paying back the money to Gloria.
Question 48: My children are possibly in the living room.
A. My children will be playing in the living room.
B. My children cannot be in the kitchen.
C. I do not know whether my children are in the living room.
D. My children might be in the living room.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 49: I regret not booking the seats in advance.
A. I wish I book the seats in advance.
C. If only I booked the seats in advance.
B. I wish I have booked the seats in advance.
D. If only I had booked the seats in advance
Question 50: We arrived at the cinema. Then we realized our tickets were still at home.
A. No sooner had we realized that our tickets were still at home than we arrived at the cinema.
B. Not until we arrived at the cinema that we realized that our tickets were still at home
C. Only after we arrived at the cinema did we realize that our tickets were at home.
D. Hardly had we arrived at the cinema than we realized that our tickets were still at home.
------------------------ THE END ------------------------

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ĐỀ THI THỬ KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2021
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ SỐ 20 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh:…………………………………………………………………………
Số báo danh:....................................................................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from
Question 1. A. wanted B. stopped C. decided D. hated
Question 2. A. work B. stork C. force D. form
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. confide B. approach C. install D. enter
Question 4. A. volunteer B. protection C. conclusion D. attention
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. He usually gets up at 6 o’clock , ?
A. does he B. doesn’t he C. do they D. don’t they
Question 6. A modern hospital , in this town soon.
A. will be built B. will build C. will built D. will be build
Question 7. I think jeans will not go of style soon.
A. down B. away C. out D. off
Question 8. The better the weather is, _.
A. the most crowded the beaches get B. the most the beaches get crowded
C. the more crowded the beaches get D. the more the beaches get crowded
Question 9. She has just bought .
A. an interesting French old painting B. an old interesting French painting
C. a French interesting old painting D. an interesting old French painting
Question 10: When it started to rain, they ______through the forest.
A. was walking B. were walking C. walked D. are walking
Question 11: ______________ they do not have much experience; their applications have been
approved.
A. Because B. Although C. Because of D. In spite of
Question 12: I will call you ______.
A. when I get off the plane B. as soon as I got off the plane
C. until I got off the plane D. after I had got off the plane
Question 13: ______. twice, he didn’t want to try again.
A. Fail B. Having failing C. Is failing D. To fail
Question 14: What__________views do Americans and Asians have about love and marriage?
A. tradition B. traditionally C. traditionalism D. traditional
Question 15. The online game “Dumb ways to die” quickly_____________with young people after
being released in 2013.
A. took on B. caught up C. caught on D. took up
Question 16: He always _____________ the crossword in the newspaper before breakfast.
A. writes B. makes C. does D. works
Question 17: He applied for a teaching _______at Bales University with great confidence.
A. employment B. post C. work D. career
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Question 18: You left your purse in ________sight, so it’s not very surprising that somebody stole it.
A. good B. clear C. near D. plain
Question 19: Due to widespread deforestation, the _______of wild animals is being severely damaged.
A. accommodation B. location C. house D. habitat
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: The charming old buildings and cottages are a throwback to the colonial past.
A. cunning B. exciting C. interesting D. fascinating
Question 21: The 1960s building boom in Zürich completely changed the rural landscape.
A. thoroughly B. quickly C. easily D. highly
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Overpopulation in big cities has severely affected the air and water quality.
A. seriously B. insignificantly C. largely D. commonly
Question 23: I'm sure it won't rain, but I'll take an umbrella just to be on the safe side.
A. careful B. easy C. careless D. difficult
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24: Daisy wants to invite her classmate, Joe, to her birthday party.
- Daisy: “Listen, I am having a birthday party next Friday. Do you want to come?”
- Joe: “______ What time does it start?”
A. Sure, I’d love to. B. Sorry. I’m busy then.
C. I can’t agree with you. D. I like a party.
Question 25: Tom and Linda are talking about jobs they would like to choose.
- Tom: “I think working as a doctor is a challenging job.”
- Linda: “______”
A. It’s a good idea. B. Not at all.
C. I’m sorry, but I agree with you. D. That’s exactly what I think.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
The 1918 influenza pandemic was the most severe pandemic in recent history. It was caused by an
H1N1 virus with genes of avian origin. (26) ______ there is not universal consensus regarding where the
virus originated, it (27) ______ worldwide during 1918-1919. In the United States, it was first identified
in military personnel in spring 1918.
It is estimated that about 500 million people or one-third of the world’s population became infected
with this virus. The (28) ______ of deaths was estimated to be at least 50 million worldwide with about
675,000 occurring in the United States. Mortality was high in people younger than 5 years old, 20-40
years old, and 65 years and older. The high mortality in healthy people, including those in the 20-40-year
age group, was a unique (29) ______ of this pandemic.
While the 1918 H1N1 virus has been synthesized and evaluated, the properties that made it so
devastating are not well understood. With no vaccine to protect against influenza infection and no
antibiotics to treat secondary bacterial infections that can be associated with influenza infections, control
efforts worldwide were limited to non-pharmaceutical interventions such as isolation, quarantine, good
personal hygiene, use of disinfectants, and limitations of public gatherings, (30) ______ were applied
unevenly.
(Source: https://www.cdc.gov/)
Question 26: A. Because of B. Although C. In spite of D. Because

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Question 27: A. engage B. attack C. adopt D. spread
Question 28: A. number B. amount C. deal D. plenty
Question 29: A. project B. evidence C. figure D. feature
Question 30: A. when B. where C. which D. that

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Oil prices dropped on Friday as traders feared that an Opec deal to slash global supplies by 10%
would not offset a historic drop in demand due to the coronavirus outbreak.
The price of Brent crude fell nearly 2.5% to $31.82 per barrel on Friday, despite news that the oil
cartel and allies, known as Opec+, had reached a deal that would end a price war between Saudi Arabia
and Russia that threatened to flood the market with more oil than the world could use.
Mexico initially cast some doubt over Opec’s plans, after apparently refusing to sign up to its share
of cuts, which would have been 400,000 barrels per day (bpd). The country instead offered to cut 100,000
bpd. The country signalled on Friday that the US may be willing to make further cuts to its production in
order to allow Mexico to make less stringent reductions. Mexican president Andrés Manuel López
Obrador said that US president Donald Trump had agreed to help out by cutting additional US output.
However, G20 energy ministers did not mention production cuts in a statement released after a
virtual summit hosted by Saudi Arabia on Friday. The meeting had been expected to seal the deal on
production cuts, but the statement pledged that the G20 would work together to ensure oil “market
stability”. “We commit to ensure that the energy sector continues to make a full, effective contribution to
overcoming Covid-19 and powering the subsequent global recovery,” the statement said.
(Adapted from https://www.theguardian.com/)
Question 31: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. A historic drop in in oil demand
B. Mexico’s doubt over Opec’s plans
C. Oil prices fall again despite Opec+ deal to cut production
D. G20 energy ministers and production cuts
Question 32: What is the result of the price war between Saudi Arabia and Russia?
A. OPEC+ will reached a deal.
B. The world market will have too much oil.
C. Mexico will share Opec’s plans.
D. The world will have no oil to use.
Question 33: The word “which” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. share of cuts B. some doubt C. Opec’s plans D. 400,000 barrels
Question 34: The word “stringent” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. real B. uneven C. inventive D. strict
Question 35: According to paragraph 4, G20 would work together to ensure ______.
A. oil market stability B. effective control of Covid-19
C. faster global recovery D. statement after a virtual summit

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
A two-time winner of People magazine's "Sexiest Man Alive" title (1995 and 2000), Pitt began
dating Jennifer Aniston, star of the TV sitcom Friends, in 1998. Pitt and Aniston married on July 29,
2000, in Malibu, California. The couple announced their separation in January 2005, divorcing in October
of that year.

3 98
Soon after their separation, Brad Pitt began dating Angelina Jolie, with the actress later revealing
that the two developed feelings for each other on the set of Mr. and Mrs. Smith. In May 2006, the couple
had a baby girl, Shiloh Nouvel Jolie-Pitt. In July 2008, Pitt and Jolie had twins: a boy, Knox Leon, and a
girl, Vivienne Marcheline. They also have three adopted children: Maddox, Pax Thien and Zahara.
The couple became engaged in 2012 and tied the knot in a private ceremony on August 23, 2014, in
France. However, Jolie filed for divorce in September 2016, requesting sole physical custody of their six
children.
The drama surrounding their contentious split played out the media, with Jolie in June 2018
reported to be in danger of losing custody due to her insistence on keeping the children from seeing their
father. In August, Jolie filed court documents that claimed her estranged husband had "paid no
meaningful child support since separation." Pitt's legal team followed with their own filing in which they
asserted that the actor had paid more than $1.3 million in bills for the family and helped his wife buy her
current home through an $8 million loan.
The actor faced more legal problems that month when an attorney announced plans to sue Pitt's
Make It Right Foundation on behalf of residents of an area of New Orleans that was devastated by
Hurricane Katrina. The foundation built more than 100 "green" houses in 2008, and allegedly promised to
return to make necessary fixes. The lawyer claimed his clients endured infrastructural issues and illnesses
at their homes.
(Adapted from https://www.biography.com/)
Question 36: Which of the following best serves as the title for the article?
A. Pitt’s personal life B. Brad Pitt and Angelina Jolie
C. Brad Pitt and his current home D. Pitt's Make It Right Foundation
Question 37: Brad Pitt and Angelina Jolie had a baby girl, Shiloh Nouvel Jolie-Pitt in ______.
A. 1995 B. 2000 C. 2012 D. 2006
Question 38: The word “They” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. Mr. and Mrs. Smith B. Mrs. Smith and Shiloh Nouvel Jolie-Pitt
C. Pitt and Jolie D. Knox Leon and Vivienne Marcheline
Question 39: The word “custody” in paragraph 3 most probably means ______.
A. management B. combination C. insurance D. guardianship
Question 40: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the article?
A. Pitt won People magazine's "Sexiest Man Alive" title in 1995 and 1998.
B. Brad Pitt began dating Angelina Jolie after separation with Jennifer Aniston.
C. Jolie wanted to divorce in September 2016.
D. Brad Pitt paid much money to support his children.
Question 41: The word “contentious” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. adventurous B. controversial C. emotional D. glamorous
Question 42: Why was Jolie in danger of losing custody of her children in 2018?
A. She played too much out the media.
B. She asked for too much of money from Pitt.
C. She didn’t let the children see their father.
D. She helped her friend with an $8 million loan.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: Peter and David are playing the piano in the living room in the morning yesterday
A B C D
Question 44: Upon reaching the destination, a number of personnel are expected to change its
A B C

4 99
reservations and proceed to Hawaii.
D
Question 45: In Italy public opinion as a whole was favourite to the visit, especially as it was not
A B C
considered an obstacle to the protected increase of the army and navy
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions
Question 46: This is the most interesting man I’ve ever met.
A. I’ve ever met a more interesting man than this one before.
B. I’ve never met the most interesting man before.
C. I’ve never met an interesting man before.
D. I’ve never met a more interesting man than this one before.
Question 47: “Would you like to come out to dinner with me tonight, Jenny?” Paul said.
A. Paul suggested that Jenny go out to dinner with him that night.
B. Paul insisted on Jenny going out to dinner with him that night.
C. Paul invited Jenny to go out to dinner with him that night.
D. Pau offered Jenny to go out to dinner with him that night
Question 48: You are required to clean the house instead of your brother
A. you needn’t clean the house instead of your brother
B. You must clean the house instead of your brother
C. You don’t have to clean the house instead of your brother
D. You might clean the hosue instead of your brother

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 49: Jack bought that second-hand car. He then recognized that he shouldn't have done that.
A. Jack wished that he has not bought that second-hand car.
B. Jack wished that he did not buy that second-hand car.
C. Jack regretted to buy that second-hand car.
D. If only Jack hadn’t bought that second-hand car.
Question 50: Seth informed us of his retirement from the company. He did it when arriving at the
meeting.
A. Only after his retiring from the company did Seth tell us about his arrival at the meeting.
B. Not until Seth said to us that he would leave the company did he turn up at the meeting
C. Hardly had Seth notified us of his retiring from the company when he arrived at the meeting.
D. No sooner had Seth arrived at the meeting than we were told about his leaving the company.

------------------------ THE END ------------------------

5 100
ĐỀ THI THỬ KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2021
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ SỐ 21 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh:…………………………………………………………………………
Số báo danh:....................................................................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from
Question 1. A. considered B. received C. picked D. stayed
Question 2. A. throw B. crow C. slow D. brow
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. report B. conclude C. deter D. sanction
Question 4. A. advertise B. definite C. composite D. communicate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. Her parents let her stay out late, ___________?
A. do they B. don’t they C. does she D. doesn’t she
Question 6. The English grammar _____by our teacher.
A. has explained B. has been explained C. have beee explained D. have explained
Question 7. He seems friendly__________ everyone in the village.
A. on B. to C. for D. about
Question 8: The larger the city, …………… the crime rate.
A. highest B. higher C. the highest D. the higher
Question 9: Visitors to the local museum are mostly attracted by___________. rocking chair.
A. an old wooden European beautiful B. a beautiful old European wooden
C. an old beautiful wooden European D. a wooden old beautiful European
Question 10:We______lunch when we heard the news.
A. were having B. was having C. had D. are having
Question 11: ______ his father’s being there, I said nothing about his bad mark of the test.
A. Because of B. although C. because D. despite
Question 12: I will call and tell you something interesting ______.
A. before I came home after work B. after I had come home after work
C. while I was coming home after work D. when I come home after work
Question 13: ______His own boss for such a long time, he found it hard to accept orders from another.
A Having been B. Is C. be D. been
Question 14: Children who are isolated and lonely seem to have poor language and ______.
A. communicate B. communication C. communicative D. communicator
Question 15: My responsibility is to wash dishes and ______ the garbage.
A. take off B. take out C. take care of D. take over
Question 16: My friend lives in a (n) ______warehouse in a very fashionable part of town.
A. transformed B. altered C. changed D. converted
Question 17: Points will be added to the Entrance Examination scores for those who hold an excellent
high school______.
A. degree B. certificate C. diploma D. qualification
Question 18: The residents are fighting tooth and ______ to stop the new development.
A. nail B. hair C. mouth D. tongue
Question 19: He committed the crime under the ______ of drugs.
A. connection B. touch C. influence D. impact
1 101
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: Students from that university have conducted a survey to find out the most effective study
habit.
A. organized B. delayed C. encouraged D. proposed
Question 21: There is concern about several confidential documents which have gone missing.
A. attentive B. secretive C. diplomatic D. healthy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The government is not prepared to tolerate this situation any longer.
A. disallow B. discourage C. discount D. distinguish
Question 23: You should pat yourself on the back for having achieved such a high score in the
graduation exam.
A. praise yourself B. criticize yourself C. check up your back D. wear a backpack
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24: Mary and her friend, Encobeill, are in a coffee shop.
- Mary: “Would you like Matcha ice-cream or Caramen?” - Encobeill: “______”
A. Thanks, that’s fine. B. Yes, I’d love too.
C. It doesn’t matter. D. Neither is fine. They are good.
Question 25: Hana and Jenifer are talking about a book they have just read.
- Hana: “The book is really interesting and educational.” - Jenifer: “______”
A. That’s nice of you to say so. B. I’d love it.
C. Don’t mention it. D. I couldn’t agree more.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Wind is a clean source of renewable energy that produces no air or water pollution. And since the
wind is free, operational costs are nearly zero (26) ______ a turbine is erected. Mass production and
technology advances are making turbines cheaper, and (27) ______ governments offer tax incentives to
spur wind-energy development.
Drawbacks include complaints from (28) ______ that wind turbines are ugly and noisy. The slowly
rotating blades can also kill birds and bats, but not nearly as many as cars, power lines, and high-rise
buildings do. The wind is also variable: If it's not blowing, there's no electricity generated.
Nevertheless, the wind energy industry is (29) ______ . Thanks to global efforts to combat climate
change, such as the Paris Agreement, renewable energy is seeing a boom in growth, in (30) ______ wind
energy has led the way. From 2000 to 2015, cumulative wind capacity around the world increased from
17,000 megawatts to more than 430,000 megawatts. In 2015, China also surpassed the EU in the number
of installed wind turbines and continues to lead installation efforts.
(Adapted from https://www.nationalgeographic.com/)
Question 26: A. so that B. though C. therefore D. once
Question 27: A. many B. little C. much D. a little
Question 28: A. foreigners B. masters C. locals D. levels
Question 29: A. worrying B. booming C. informing D. relating
Question 30: A. who B. when C. why D. which
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

2 102
CDC strives to safeguard the health and improve the quality of life of all people with diabetes.
Central to that effort is helping them prevent or reduce the severity of diabetes complications, including
heart disease (the leading cause of early death among people with diabetes), kidney disease, blindness,
and nerve damage that can lead to lower-limb amputations.
Diabetes self-management education and support (DSMES) programs help people meet the
challenges of self-care by providing them with the knowledge and skills to deal with daily diabetes
management: eating healthy food, being active, checking their blood sugar, and managing stress. These
programs have been shown to reduce A1C levels (average blood sugar over the last 2 to 3 months),
reduce the onset and severity of diabetes complications, improve quality of life, and lower health care
costs.
Diabetes is about 17% more prevalent in rural areas than urban ones, but 62% of rural counties do
not have a DSMES program. The use of telehealth (delivery of the program by phone, Internet, or
videoconference) may allow more patients in rural areas to benefit from DSMES and the National DPP
lifestyle change program. CDC funds state and local health departments to improve access to,
participation in, and health benefit coverage for DSMES, with emphasis on programs that achieve
American Association of Diabetes Educators accreditation or American Diabetes Association recognition.
These programs meet national quality standards and may be more sustainable because of reimbursement
eligibility.
(Adapted from https://www.cdc.gov/)
Question 31: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Diabetes Complications and CDC’s Response
B. Diabetes self-management education and support programs
C. Knowledge of A1C levels
D. American Association of Diabetes Educators
Question 32: The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. programs B. people C. challenges D. skills
Question 33: Which is NOT mentioned in paragraph 2 as a skill to deal with daily diabetes management?
A. eating healthy food B. checking blood sugar
C. working effectively D. managing stress
Question 34: The word “lower” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. borrow B. prepare C. approach D. reduce
Question 35: According to paragraph 3, money that state and local health departments use to improve the
effectiveness of DSMES is funded by ______.
A. A1C B. DSMES C. National DPP D. CDC
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Advocates of the laws and journalists who cover the issue often neglect to ask what will replace
plastic bags and what the environmental impact of that replacement will be. People still need bags to
bring home their groceries. And the most common substitute, paper bags, may be just as bad or worse,
depending on the environmental problem you are most concerned about.
That is leading to a split in the anti-bag movement. Some bills, like in Massachusetts, try to reduce
the use of paper bags as well as plastic, but still favour paper. Others, like in New York City, treat all
single-use bags equally. Even then, the question remains as to whether single-use bags are necessarily
always worse than reusable ones.
Studies of bags’ environmental impacts over their life cycle have reached widely varying
conclusions. Some are funded by plastic industry groups, like the ironically named American Progressive
Bag Alliance. Even studies conducted with the purest of intentions depend on any number of

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assumptions. How many plastic bags are replaced by one cotton tote bag? If a plastic bag is reused in the
home as the garbage bag in a bathroom waste bin, does that reduce its footprint by eliminating the need
for another small plastic garbage bag?
If your chief concern is climate change, things get even muddier. One of the most comprehensive
research papers on the environmental impact of bags, published in 2007 by an Australian state
government agency, found that paper bags have a higher carbon footprint than plastic. That is primarily
because more energy is required to produce and transport paper bags.
“People look at paper and say it’s degradable, therefore it’s much better for the environment, but
it’s not in terms of climate change impact,” says David Tyler, a professor of chemistry at the University
of Oregon who has examined the research on the environmental impact of bag use. The reasons for
paper’s higher carbon footprint are complex but can mostly be understood as stemming from the fact that
paper bags are much thicker than plastic bags. “Very broadly, carbon footprints are proportional to mass
of an object,” says Tyler. For example, because paper bags take up so much more space, more trucks are
needed to ship paper bags to a store than to ship plastic bags.
(Adapted from https://www.wired.com/)
Question 36: Which of the following best serves as the title for the article?
A. Paper bags are a good substitute for plastic ones.
B. Is plastic really worse than paper?
C. Activities of American Progressive Bag Alliance
D. What people think about paper bags
Question 37: The word “their” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. people B. groceries C. paper bags D. plastic bags
Question 38: American Progressive Bag Alliance is the name of a ______.
A. plastic bag seller B. paper bag company
C. law company D. plastic industry group
Question 39: The word “muddier” in paragraph 4 most probably means ______.
A. uglier B. luckier C. rarer D. vaguer
Question 40: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the article?
A. Paper bags can be the substitute for plastic bags.
B. New York City prefers single-use bags.
C. Studies reach the same conclusion on bags’ environmental impacts.
D. Plastic bags have a higher carbon footprint than paper according to research in 2007.
Question 41: The word “stemming” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. looking for B. asking for C. deriving from D. keeping from
Question 42: What can be infered the reason for paper’s higher carbon footprint?
A. Paper bags are difficult to ship.
B. Paper bags are much thicker than plastic bags.
C. Paper bags take less space.
D. Paper bags are easily torn.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: Since he started primary school, he helped his mother prepare meals,
A B C
do the washing up and take care of his younger sister.
D
Question 44: Kate didn't enjoy the roller coaster ride because it was the most terrifying experience
A B C
of their life.
D
Question 45: I am deeply impressive by the beauty of Ancient capital of Hue
A B C D

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions
Question 46: I have never read such a good book before.
A. This is the first time I read a good book .
B. This is the first time I have read a good book.
C. This book is the best I have never read.
D. This book is the best I read .
Question 47: “He should to go to bed before 11p: m everyday”, I said to him.
A. I advised him to go to bed before 11p: m everyday
B. He shouldn’t go to bed before 11p: m everyday
C. I prayed him to to go to bed before 11 p: m everyday
D. I ordered him you should stay in bed.
Question 48: Smoking is not allowed in the museum.
A. You mustn’t smoke in the museum.
B. You can smoke in the museum
C. You don’t have to smoke in the museum
D. You may smoke in the museum
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 49: Jenifer missed her chance to be promoted. What a shame!
A. Jenifer regretted having wasted her chance to be promoted.
B. Despite feeling ashamed, Jenifer lost her chance of promotion.
C. If only Jenifer had seized her chance of promotion.
D. That Jenifer missed her chance to be promoted is shameful.
Question 50: Mariah sings well. She writes good songs, too.
A. Mariah can either sing well or write good songs.
B. Mariah can neither sing well or write good songs.
C. Not only does Mariah sing well but she also writes good songs.
D. Well as Mariah sings, she writes good songs.

------------------------ THE END ------------------------

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ĐỀ THI THỬ KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2021
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ SỐ 22 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh:…………………………………………………………………………
Số báo danh:....................................................................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from
Question 1. A. watched B. stopped C. lived D. cooked
Question 2. A. clean B. bread C. lean D. lead
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. deploy B. maintain C. border D. attain
Question 4. A. referee B. kangaroo C. cigarette D. technique
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. Let’s begin our discussion now, ___________?
A. shall we B. will we C. don’t we D. won’t we
Question 6. The accident______in this city by some drunk drivers.
A. was caused B. caused C. were caused D. causes
Question 7. The man standing next to our father is a persuasive speaker with a natural
talent___________leadership.
A. for B. at C. in D. of
Question 8. The more paper we save, __________preserved.
A. more is wood pulp B. the more wood pulp is
C. wood pulp is D. the much wood pulp is
Question 9. The report form is available on the two___________discs in my drawer.
A. small green round B. round small green
C. green small round D. small round green
Question 10: I_____on the computer when the fire broke out.
A. working B. am working C. was working D. worked
Question 11: She doesn’t feel confident at interviews______ her English is not very good.
A. although B. however C. because D. whenever
Question 12: I will tell him to call you______.
A. as soon as he returned B. until I saw him C. when he returns D. after I’d seen him.
Question 13:______ for twelve hours, I felt marvelous.
A. Having slept B. have slept
C. Having been slept D. have been slept
Question 14: It can be an amazing experience for those who have the______ to leave their family and
friends to live in a new place.
A. courageously B. courageous C. courage D. encourage
Question 15: People are advised to______ smoking because of its harm to their health.
A. cut up B. cut down on C. cut off D. cut in
Question 16: He wasn't aware that only one mistake could________his chances of getting the job.
A. destroy B. damage C. ruin D. devastate
Question 17: The company is moving its headquarters to a new______ with better links to the airport.
A. position B. situation C. location D. place
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Question 18: He has been caught in the rain, and has been wet______.
A. through and through B. once for all C. to and fro D. over and over
Question 19: Nowadays, teachers should encourage students to debate different questions in class to
boost their ______ thinking skills.
A. complex B. controversial C. civilized D. critical

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: People in the mountainous areas are still in the habit of destroying forests for cultivation.
A. planting B. farming C. industry D. wood
Question 21: It is difficult to assess the building's value properly without seeing it.
A. originate B. congratulate C. estimate D. evaluate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The forces behind the women's liberation movement vary from culture to culture.
A. change quickly B. increase sharply C. move forward D. stay unchanged
Question 23: John's decision to drop out of university to go to a vocational school drove his mother up
the wall. She thought that it is really a stupid decision.
A. made his mother pleased B. made his mother angry
C. made his mother worried D. made his mother ashamed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24: - Huy: “I would like some more tea.” - Dung: “______”
A. Well, I’d rather have coffee. B. Certainly you are.
C. I’m sorry. I haven’t got any left. D. No. I’ve had enough.
Question 25: - Nam: “Do you enjoy the movie yesterday?” - Mai: “_________”
A. Not really. I couldn’t follow the story. B. Yes, it’s warmer than today.
C. No, I dislike moving. D. Certainly, I’d be glad to.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Spectacular, played today on all kinds of surfaces by tens of millions of people, for fun or in
competition, tennis has spread (26) ______ over the world. Designed and codified in England in the
1870s, it is the direct descendant of jeu de paume, invented in France in the 11th century. The
developments of this mediaeval (27) ______ , originally practised with bare hands, like the invention of
the racket in the 16th century and the special scoring system (15, 30, 40, game), led directly to tennis,
(28) ______ its name, from the French word “tenez!” (in the sense of “here it comes!”), which you said to
your opponent as you were about to serve.
The popularity of tennis in England quickly (29) ______ that of croquet. Indeed, barely three years
passed between the publication of A Portable Court of Playing Tennis by Welsh Major Walter Clopton
Wingfield in 1874, the defining work in terms of codifying lawn tennis, and the holding of the first
Wimbledon tournament in 1877. The decisive element introduced by Wingfield was the use of a rubber
ball, (30) ______ could bounce on grass.
(Adapted from https://www.olympic.org/)
Question 26: A. each B. any C. all D. every
Question 27: A. score B. screw C. smoke D. sport
Question 28: A. including B. before C. without D. except
Question 29: A. pretended B. overtook C. pressured D. guided
Question 30: A. which B. that C. what D. where

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Health promotion and disease prevention programs focus on keeping people healthy. Health
promotion programs aim to engage and empower individuals and communities to choose healthy
behaviours and make changes that reduce the risk of developing chronic diseases and other morbidities.
Defined by the World Health Organization, health promotion is: “The process of enabling people to
increase control over, and to improve, their health. It moves beyond a focus on individual behaviour
towards a wide range of social and environmental interventions.”
Disease prevention differs from health promotion because it focuses on specific efforts aimed at
reducing the development and severity of chronic diseases and other morbidities.
Wellness is related to health promotion and disease prevention. Wellness is described as the
attitudes and active decisions made by an individual that contribute to positive health behaviours and
outcomes.
Health promotion and disease prevention programs often address social determinants of health,
which influence modifiable risk behaviours. Social determinants of health are the economic, social,
cultural, and political conditions in which people are born, grow, and live that affect health status.
Modifiable risk behaviours include, for example, tobacco use, poor eating habits, and lack of physical
activity, which contribute to the development of chronic disease.
(Adapted from https://www.ruralhealthinfo.org/)
Question 31: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Understanding Health Promotion
B. Social Determinants of Health
C. Defining Health Promotion and Disease Prevention
D. What do you know about disease prevention?
Question 32: The word “empower” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. affect B. pursue C. allow D. insist
Question 33: What does disease prevention focus on?
A. Wide range of social and environmental interventions
B. Specific efforts reducing the development and severity of chronic diseases
C. Attitudes and active decisions made by an individual
D. Positive health behaviours and outcomes
Question 34: The word “that” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. attitudes active decisions B. wellness
C. health behaviours D. outcomes
Question 35: According to the last paragraph, modifiable risk behaviours contribute to the development
of ______.
A. tobacco use B. eating habits
C. physical activity D. chronic disease
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
According to a mobiThinking.com report on global mobile statistics, as of February 2013, 96.2
percent of the world's population has a subscription to mobile cellular service. As an average, that means
that almost everyone in the world has a mobile phone! Even for the region with the lowest use level in the
study, the market saturation is just over 63 percent. In highly developed nations, the saturation is well
over 100 percent, meaning that people have more than one mobile phone service.
Even though most of the world's population has mobile service, it doesn't mean that an organization
can blast a call or message to everyone, though it might be technically possible. In addition to laws that

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prohibit this type of communication, phone conversations are still one-to-one (or one-to-few with
conference calling) connections.
As well, text messages, even though they can technically be broadcast to millions, cannot legally be
sent unless the mobile subscriber opts in to receive. So, in one sense, text message campaigns could be
classified as mass media since they are a one-to-many communication. But due to the opt-in nature of
these campaigns, the mass that they reach will be limited.
That being said, there is no doubt that mass media communications delivered via mobile devices,
particularly through mobile apps and push notifications (alert messages that pop up on a mobile device
screen), will become a primary delivery system of the future.
Similarly, email is often a one-to-many communication, particularly for communications such as
email marketing and newsletters. Like text messaging and cell phone calls, a person must share an email
address (opt-in) in order to receive messages. Broadcasting to the masses without permission violates the
Federal Trade Commission's CAN-SPAM Act. As with mobile text messages, email can be a mass media
communication but will be limited.
(Adapted from https://toughnickel.com/)
Question 36: Which of the following best serves as the title for the article?
A. Are Mobile Phones and Email Mass Media?
B. Mobile Phones versus Email in Competition to be Mass Media
C. How to use Mobile Phones as Mass Media
D. When can Email Become Mass Media?
Question 37: Blasting a call or message to everyone is ______.
A. technically possible B. legal
C. technically impossible D. old-fashioned
Question 38: The word “that” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. this type B. laws C. conversations D. connections
Question 39: The word “opts in” in paragraph 3 most probably means ______.
A. deliver B. extend C. submit D. agree
Question 40: What type of communication can be inferred for emails?
A. many-to-one B. one-to-few C. one-to-many D. few-to-one
Question 41: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the article?
A. The global market saturation of mobile phone is 63%.
B. Phone can allow connections to lots of people at the same time.
C. Mass media communications could not be delivered via mobile devices.
D. The CAN-SPAM Act does not allow broadcasting to the masses without permission.
Question 42: The word “violates” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. qualifies B. complies C. defies D. denies

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: Van Cliburn studies piano from 1951 to 1954 and won multiple awards between
A B C D
1958 and 1960.

Question 44: Preventing the soil from erosion, the trees planted by the farmer many years before
A B
were what stopped the flood from reaching their house.
C D
Question 45: Hot soup is very comfortable on a cold winter's day.
A B C D

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions
Question 46: I haven’t stayed in a hotel for years.
A. It’s years since I stayed in a hotel. B. It’s years when I stayed in a hotel.
C. It’s years since I stay in a hotel. D. I haven’t stayed in a hotel years ago.
Question 47: “Would you like to have dinner with me?”, Miss Hoa said to me
A. Miss Hoa asked me if would I like to have dinner with her?
B. Miss Hoa suggested me if I would like to have dinner with her or not.
C. Miss Hoa told me to like to have dinner with her or not.
D. Miss Hoa invited me to have dinner with her.
Question 48: It is probable to rain heavily this evening.
A. It may rain heavily this evening
B. It will not rain heavily this evening
C. It must rain heavily this evening
D. It will be able to rain this evening
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 49: Nam was so rude to them last night. Now he feels regretful.
A. Nam regrets to have been so rudeto them last night.
B. Nam regrets having so rude to them last night.
C. Nam wishes he hadn’t been so rude to them last night.
D. Nam wishes he weren’t so rude to them last night.
Question 50: Smoking is unhealthy. It also costs governments billions of dollars in health-care costs.
A. Not only is smoking unhealthy but it also costs government billions of dollars in health-care costs.
B. Whereas smoking is unhealthy, it costs government billions of dollars in health-care costs.
C. If smoking is unhealthy, it will cost government billions of dollars in health-care costs.
D. Smoking is so unhealthy that it costs government billions of dollars in health-care costs.

------------------------ THE END ------------------------

5 110
ĐỀ THI THỬ KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2021
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ SỐ 23 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh:…………………………………………………………………………
Số báo danh:....................................................................................................................
Mark the letter A,B,C,D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. invited B. played C. existed D. extended

Question 2: A. light B. knife C. kite D. ship

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. occur B. listen C. apply D. prefer
Question 4: A. character B. adventure C. convention D. condition
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: Susan usually stays up late, ?
A. is she B. isn’t she C. does she D. doesn’t she
Question 6: The story I’ve just read................... by Agatha Christie.
A. were written B. was written C. was written from D. wrote by
Question 7:Due to severe weather condition, we had to wait long hours _____the airport.
A. in B. at C. from D. on
Question 8: The sooner you take the medicine, ________ you will feel.
A. the best B. the better C. better D. best
Question 9: She has just bought a watch.
A. Swiss beautiful brand-new B. Swiss brand-new beautiful
C. brand-new beautiful Swiss D. beautiful brand-new Swiss
Question 10: When I last saw him, he________in London.
A. is living B. has been living C. was living D. lived
Question 11: Spider monkeys are the best climbers in the jungle, ________ they do not have thumbs.
A. because of B. because C. despite D. although
Question 12: Mrs Jenny will have lived here for 30 years ________.
A. by the time she retires B. when she retired
C. as soon as she had retired D. after she had retired
Question 13: ________classical dance for five years, Akiko finally felt ready to perform in public.
A. Being studied B. Studying C. Having studied D. To study
Question 14:The local authority asked for a __________contribution from the community to repair roads
and bridges.
A. volunteer B. voluntary C. voluntarily D. voluntariness
Question 15: Such approaches should be supported and mainstreamed in health interventions in order
to________ positive behavior change.
A. put off B. set off C. bring about D. hold up
Question 16:The principal will ____________a speech at the meeting.
A. make B. think C. speak D. take
Question 17:It's wise to think about choosing a ____________ before leaving school.
A. business B. career C. living D. profession

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Question 18: After congratulating his team, the coach left, allowing the players to let their
____________ down for a while.
A. hearts B. hair C. souls D. heads
Question 19: Your store needs a bold sign that will catch the________ of anyone walking down the
street. That may help to sell more products.
A. eye B. peek C. flash D. glimpse

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlinded word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: Her courage not only inspired her followers but moved her rivals as well.
A. depressed B. motivated C. overlooked D. rejected
Question 21: The African rhino is an endangered species and needs protecting.
A. unstable B. dangerous C. insecure D. indefensible

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlinded word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: 'If we continue to deplete our planets natural resources, we will damage the environment
significantly.
A. use up B. add to C. reduce D. exhaust
Question 23: Sorry, I can‟t come to your party. I am snowed under with work at the moment.
A. relaxed about B. busy with C. interested in D. free from

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 24: Albert and Bill are having dinner in Bill’s house.
- Albert: "This dish is really nice!"
- Bill:"________. It's called yakitori, and it's made with chicken livers."
A. It's my pleasure. B. Sure, I'll be glad to.
C. I'm glad you like it. D. I guess you're right.
Question 25: Paul and Daisy are discussing about life in the future.
Paul: “I believe space travel will become more affordable for many people in the future.”
Daisy:“_________________”
A. It doesn’t matter at all. B. I am sorry to hear that.
C. It is very kind of you to say so. D. There’s no doubt about that.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Pets can improve your life.
The role of animals in helping people recover from a range of health and emotional problem has
long been widely recognized. Now a survey (25) _______is reported in the Journal of Personality and
Social Psychology appears to show that owning a pet can benefit healthy individuals, too. A number of
experiments, (26) _______ by two universities in the United States, indicate that pet owners are generally
happier, healthier, fitter, more confident and better able to cope with everyday issues than non – owners.
The researchers discovered that individuals have just as close a relationship with the key people in their
lives in other words family and friends, (27) _______ they have with their pets. Andalthough they found
no (28) _______that people choose emotional relationship with pets over relationships with (29) _______
people, a study of universities showed that owning a pet helped them get over the break-up of a
relationship with a partner.
(Source: www.the first trainer.com/)

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Question 26. A. which B. who C. where D. when
Question 27. A. carried B. conducted C. governed D. operated
Question 28. A. because B. because of C. as D. although
Question 29. A. testimony B. support C. evidence D. indication
Question 30. A. other B. a lot of C. another D. every

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions

The generation gap that was so in evidence during the 60s has resurfaced, but it is not the disruptive
force that it was during the Vietnam era, a 2009 study suggests. The Pew Research Center study found
that 79% of Americans see major differences between younger and older adults in the way they look at
the world. In 1969, a Gallup Poll found that a smaller percentage, 74%, perceived major differences.
Today, however, although more Americans see generational differences, most do not see them as
divisive. That is partly because of the areas of difference. The top areas of disagreement between young
and old, according to the Pew Research Study, are the use of technology and taste in music. Grandparents
are likely to have observed these differences in their grandchildren who are tweens, teens, and young
adults.
If large differences between the generations exist, why don't they spawn conflict? The answer is
twofold.
First, the two largest areas of difference—technology and music—are less emotionally charged than
political issues. The older generation is likely to be proud of the younger generation's prowess in
technology rather than to view it as a problem. As for the musical differences, each generation wants its
own style of music, and the older generation generally can relate to that desire.
Second, in the other areas of difference, the younger generation tends to regard the older generation
as superior to their own generation—clearly a difference from the 1960s with its rallying cry of "Don't
trust anyone over thirty." According to the Pew study, all generations regard older Americans as superior
in moral values, work ethic and respect for others.
(Adapted from www.verywellfamily.com)
Question 31: Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?
A. Generation gap doesn’t cause a big problem in American families.
B.Different points of view are the main problem between generations in America.
C.The generation gap in the past was different from that in modern time.
D.The areas of differences in generation gap have changed over the years.
Question 32: The word “divisive” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to _________.
A. agreeing B.positive C.serious D.discordant
Question 33: What are the two reasons why large differences between generations don’t cause
disagreement?
A. The generosity of the elder generation and the attitude of the younger generation.
B.The different styles of music and the knowledge of the elder generation.
C.The major aspects of differences between generations and the respect to the elder generation.
D.The pride of the elder generation and the obedience of the younger one
Question 34: The word “their” in the last paragraph refers to __________.
A. the older generation’s B.the younger generation’s
C.supervisor’s D.over-thirty people’s
Question 35: According to the passage, which is NOT true?
A. The majority of Americans agree generations’ viewpoint to be the major differences.
B.Technology is one of the two biggest areas creating the gap between the old and the young.
C.Grandparents feel uncomfortable with their grandchildren because of their better technology skills.
D.The elderly in America are admired in moral values, work ethic and respect for others.

3 113
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions.

People are living longer and, in some parts of the world, healthier lives. This represents one of the
crowning achievements of the last century, but also a significant challenge. Longer lives must be planned
for. Societal aging may affect economic growth and lead to many other issues, including the sustainability
of families, the ability of states and communities to provide resources for older citizens, and international
relations. The Global Burden of Disease, a study conducted by the World Health Organization, predicts a
very large increase in age-related chronic disease in all regions of the world. Dealing with this will be a
significant challenge for all countries’ health services.
Population aging is driven by declines in fertility and improvements in health and longevity. In more
developed countries, falling fertility beginning in the early 1900’s has resulted in current levels being
below the population replacement rate of two live births per woman. Perhaps the most surprising
demographic development of the past 20 years has been the pace of fertility decline in many less
developed countries. In 2006, for example, the total fertility rate was at or below the replacement rate in
44 less developed countries.
One central issue for policymakers in regard to pension funds is the relationship between the official
retirement age and actual retirement age. Over several decades in the latter part of the 20th century, many
of the more developed nations lowered the official age at which people become fully entitled to public
pension benefits. This was propelled by general economic conditions, changes in welfare philosophy, and
private pension trends. Despite the recent trend toward increased workforce participation at older ages, a
significant gap between official and actual ages of retirement persists. This trend is emerging in rapidly
aging developing countries as well. Many countries already have taken steps towards much-needed
reform of their old-age social insurance programs. One common reform has been to raise the age at which
workers are eligible for full public pension benefits. Another strategy for bolstering economic security for
older people has been to increase the contributions by workers. Other measures to enhance income for
older people include new financial instruments for private savings, tax incentives for individual
retirement savings, and supplemental occupational pension plans.
As life expectancy increases in most nations, so do the odds of different generations within a family
coexisting. In more developed countries, this has manifested itself as the ‘beanpole family,’ a vertical
extension of family structure characterized by an increase in the number of living generations within a
lineage and a decrease in the number of people within each generation. As mortality rates continue to
improve, more people in their 50’s and 60’s will have surviving parents, aunts, and uncles. Consequently,
more children will know their grandparents and even their great-grandparents, especially their great-
grandmothers. There is no historical precedent for a majority of middle-aged and older adults having
living parents.
(Adapted from https://www.ielts-mentor.com)
Question 36. Which of the following best describes the main purpose of the author in the passage?
A. To present a synopsis of the causes and effects of the aging population.
B.To provide an overview of the drawbacks of the world’s aging population.
C.To suggest some effective solutions to deal with the rapid increase of the aging population.
D.To prove the significant contribution of the aging population to the world economy.
Question 37: As mentioned in the first paragraph, the following aspects will be influenced by the aging
in the society, EXCEPT ___________.
A. the stable progress of families B.social welfare
C.medical care D.technology achievements
Question 38: What does the word “this” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. public pension benefits
B.the reduction of the official age entirely pensioned
C.the relationship between the official retirement age and actual retirement age
D.central issue
Question 39: The word “eligible” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. entitled B.unqualified C.mature D.devoted
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Question 40: According to paragraph 3, which of the following is the measure of old-age social insurance
programs?
A. The decrease in the age the elderly can receive pension.
B. The encouragement the elderly to contribute more in economy.
C. Enacting many policies to increase their income before retirement.
D. Widening the gap between official and actual ages of retirement.
Question 41: The word “manifested” in the last paragraph could be best replaced by ________.
A. illustrated B.demonstrated C.proved D.recognized
Question 42: What is the benefit of aging mentioned in the last paragraph?
A. The mortality rates are decreasing.
B.People will have the chance to live with their parents longer.
C.Children are likely to live in an extended family with more brothers and sisters.
D.The life expectancy is being improved.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: He didn’t meet her even one time since they said goodbye together.
A B C D
Question 44: I bought an interesting book last week, but I cannot find them now.
A B C D
Question 45: He's such a bored guy because he only ever talks about himself.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 46: She began to play the piano three years ago.
A. She has played the piano since three years. B. She has played the piano for three years
C. She doesn’t play the piano now. D. She stops playing the piano now.
Question 47: “I’ll help you repair this washing machine, Jenny”, he said.
A. He admitted helping Jenny repair that washing machine.
B. He denied helping Jenny repair that washing machine.
C. He promised to help Jenny repair that washing machine.
D. He refused to help Jenny repair that washing machine.
Question 48: You are supposed to be here at 9 a.m, but it is 11 a.m now.
A. You needn’t have been here two hours ago.
B. You must have been here two hours ago.
C. You should have been here two hours ago.
D. You oughtn’t to have been here two hours ago.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: You didn’t help me.I couldn’t overcome the problem.
A.As long as you helped me, I could overcome the problem.
B. If you didn’t help me, I couldn’t overcome the problem.
C. If only you helped me to overcome the problem.
D. I wish you had helped me to overcome the problem.
Question 50:I posted the letter. I realized that I had forgotten to put on a stamp.
A. Only after posting the letter did I realize that I had forgotten to put on a stamp.
B. Hardly had I realized that I had forgotten to put on a stamp when I posted the letter.
C.Not only did I realize that I had forgotten to put a stamp on the letter but I posted it as well.
D. No sooner had I posted the letter than I forgot to put on a stamp.
---------------------------HẾT-------------------------
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ĐỀ THI THỬ KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2021
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ SỐ 23 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh:…………………………………………………………………………
Số báo danh:....................................................................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. mended B. faced C. objected D. waited
Question 2. A. breakfast B. featrure C. peasant D. pleasure
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. suggest B. suffer C. impress D. become
Question 4. A. impression B. improvement C. family D. pollutant
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: The headmaster is the most popular figure at our school, ________?
A. isn’t he B. was he C. doesn’t he D. did he
Question 6: This house is going ________ by my mother.
A. sold B. to be sold C. to sold D. to sell
Question 7: Is there anything interesting ________ the newspaper today?
A. above B. at C. in D. on
Question 8: ________ he worked, the more he earned.
A. The more hard B. The hard C. The harder D. The hardest
Question 9: My aunt gave me a hat on my 16th birthday.
A. nice yellow new cotton B. new nice cotton yellow
C. new nice yellow cotton D. nice new yellow cotton
Question 10: I saw Lisa at the museum when I ________ to restaurant.
A. was going B. went D. had gone D. were going
Question 11: I didn’t get a job ________ I had all the necessary qualifications.
A. although B. in spite of C. because D. because of
Question 12: I will have completed my first two years’ study at university ________.
A. by the time I finish the final term exams B. after I had finished the final term exams
C. when I was finishing the final term exams D. until I finished the final term exams
Question 13: UNESCO criteria for outstanding universal value to humanity, Trang An Scenic
Landscape Complex was added to the World Heritage List in 2014.
A. Meeting B. Met C. To meet D. Having met
Question 14: He has always been highly ________ in his work.
A. success B. succeed C. successful D. successfully
Question 15: If you want to take part in volunteer organizations, you will have to ________ an
application form.
A. find out B. fill in C. put on D. look up
Question 16: We have been working hard. Let’s a break.
A. make B. find C. do D. take
Question 17: Teachers’ _________ would rise an average of $1000 under the proposal.
A. pensions B. salaries C. wages D. incomes
Question 18: I just couldn’t remember her name even though it was on the ______ of my tongue.
A. edge B. tip C. top D. front

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Question 19: The scientists are encountering the difficulties of _____ of radioactive waste.
A. depleting B. preserving C. eliminating D. disposing
Mark the letter A, B, C, or Don your Answer sheet to Indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: The use of lasers in surgery has become relatively commonplace in recent years.
A. absolutely B. relevantly C. comparatively D. almost
Question 21: From the beginning, not so many people realized the danger of the Corona so they did not
do to protect themselves.
A. forgot B. understood C. questioned D. suffered
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to Indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) In each of the following questions.
Question 22: Social psychologists have recently noticed strange behavior from people having suffered
from terrible shocks.
A. rare B. common C. negative D. formal
Question 23: I didn’t tell her that he was sick because I didn’t want to cause her any alarm.
A. worry B. inform C. comfort D. warn
Mark the letter A, 8, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24: Ben is talking to a school staff at the registration office.
Ben: “I would like to register for a class today.”
Staff: “________”
A. I hope that you are doing well with the course. B. Well, what class would you like to take?
C. There are two classes that are still open. D. Enjoy your life at the college, dear
Question 25: Thanh and Nadia have just listened to Lan’s song.
Thanh: “Lan’s the best singer in our school.”
Nadia: “______.I really love her beautiful voice.”
A. Yes, tell me about it! B. I can’t agree with you more!
C. That’s OK! D. Yes, please.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered Weeks from 26 to 30
More and more routine, repetitive assembly tasks will be taken over by machines. But as certain
jobs disappear, new ones open up in (26) _____ parts of the factory. Germany in many ways exemplifies
this trend. Today, German manufacturers deploy three times more robots than U.S. companies, (27)
______ they also still employ more humans. Relative to the size of our economies, German’s
manufacturing workforce is twice the size of America’s.
From its very beginning, the fourth Industrial revolution has never (28) ________ manufacturers
with an either - or choice - robots or humans. It has always been about combining the talents of both.
Ultimately, it is the convergence of artificial and human intelligence (29) _____ will enable
manufacturers to achieve a new era of speed, flexibility, efficiency and connectivity in the 21st century.
Machines have the ability to assemble things faster than any human ever could, but humans possess the
domain expertise and (30) ______ knowledge required to solve problems and optimize factory floor
production.
(Adapted from: http://time.com/4940374/joe-kaeser-siemens-robots-jobs/)
Question 26: A. another B. other C. every D. one
Question 27: A. but B. or C. so D. for
Question 28: A. finished B. assembled C. presented D. deployed
Question 29: A. who B. when C. why D. which
Question 30: A. valuable B. artificial C. potential D. comparable
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Read the following passage and mark the letter A. B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Nanotechnology is the creation and use of materials or devices at extremely small scales. These
materials or devices fall in the range of 1 to 100 nanometers (nm). One nm is equal to one-billionth of a
meter (.000000001 m), which is about 50,000 times smaller than the diameter of a human hair. Scientists
refer to the dimensional range of 1 to 100 nm as the nanoscale, and materials at this scale are called
nanocrystals or nanomaterials.
The nanoscale is unique because nothing solid can be made any smaller. It is also unique because
many of the mechanisms of the biological and physical world operate on length scales from 0.1 to 100
nm. At these dimensions materials exhibit different physical properties; thus scientists expect that many
novel effects at the nanoscale will be discovered and used for breakthrough technologies.
A number of important breakthroughs have already occurred in nanotechnology. These developments
are found in products used throughout the world. Some examples are catalytic converters in automobiles
that help remove air pollutants, devices in computers that read from and write to the hard disk, certain
sunscreens and cosmetics that transparently block harmful radiation from the Sun, and special coatings
for sports clothes and gear that help improve the gear and possibly enhance the athlete’s performance.
Still, many scientists, engineers, and technologists believe they have only scratched the surface of
nanotechnology’s potential.
Nanotechnology is in its infancy, and no one can predict with accuracy what will result from the full
flowering of the field over the next several decades. Many scientists believe it can be said with
confidence, however, that nanotechnology will have a major impact on medicine and health care; energy
production and conservation; environmental cleanup and protection; electronics, computers, and sensors;
and world security and defense.
(Adapted from: Encarta DVD 2009)
Question 31: What is the passage mainly about?
A. A new physical property of matters in nature
B. A way of manufacturing technological products
C. An introduction to a new technology
D. An overview of how technology will develop
Question 32: The word “that” in paragraph 3 refers to ________ .
A. converters B. automobiles C. technologies D. properties
Question 33: The word “novel” is closest in meaning to ________ .
A. causing a chemical reaction to happen faster B. being different from anything known before
C. being important enough to be noticed D. being the only one of its kind
Question 34: Which of the following statements is NOT true about nanotechnology according to the
passage?
A. No other products are smaller than those made by nanotechnology.
B. Nanotechnology allows the production of things at extremely small scales.
C. Nanotechnology has seen a number of important breakthroughs.
D. Medicine and healthcare will be greatly affected by nanotechnology.
Question 35: According to scientists, materials at the nanoscale are called ________.
A. nanocrystals or nanomaterials B. nanotechnology’s potential
C. nanotechnology’s potential D. catalytic converters
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42
To quote CREST founder Dr. Martha Honey, we earnestly believe that ecotourism is “simply a better
way to travel.” Here’s a look at how this transformational approach to travel benefits conservation,
increases cross-cultural understanding, and ultimately turns travelers into environmental advocates:
To see how ecotourism benefits nature and wildlife, let’s look at endangered species such as African
Elephants. Ivory from Elephant tusks is worth $1500 a pound on the black market, which has led to a
dramatic increase in poaching. But Elephants are worth 76 times more alive than dead. When you
consider the revenue from wildlife photography tours, luxury safari camps, and other ecotourism
offerings, a single Elephant is worth $1.3 million over the course of its lifetime! Ecotourism offers a long-

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term alternative to exploitation, generating sustainable revenue and ensuring better overall health of the
ecosystem.
Nature reserves and national parks help prevent deforestation and pollution, while also protecting the
habitat of endemic species. The revenue that ecotourism provides can help replace profits from
exploitative practices such as mining or slash ‘n’ burn agriculture. It can also help ensure the long-term
financial viability of the area. Naturalist guides also help travelers understand the value of a pristine
ecosystem, and teach them about the importance of conservation. This ultimately help to create a more
mindful and conscious legion of travelers.
When managed properly, ecotourism can offer locals alternative revenue streams. In wildlife-rich
countries such as Rwanda, former poachers are often employed as guides or trackers, capitalizing on their
knowledge of the animals and their habitat. In Costa Rica, unemployment has fallen to less than 10%
since the country started building its ecotourism infrastructure in the 1970s. Involving local communities
in tourism management empowers them by ensuring that more revenue is reinvested locally. Ecotourism
also offers indigenous peoples an opportunity to remain on ancestral land, conserve it, and preserve
traditional culture.
Sure, being a responsible traveler takes a greater level of commitment to being conscious and mindful
of the impact we have on the destinations we visit. But ecotourism also offers us incredible,
transformative experiences, allowing us to develop closer personal relationships to the nature, wildlife,
and local people we encounter during our adventures. Learning about ecotourism can permanently change
your understanding of mankind’s role in our planetary ecosystem. And once you’ve had that sort of travel
experience, you’ll never want to travel the traditional way again.
(Adapted from: https://www.ith.org.za/what-is-eco-tourism/)
Question 36. The most suitable title for the passage could be ______.
A. The benefits of ecotourism.
B. Making the most of ecotourism.
C. An introduction to ecotourism.
D. Encourage conservation or adding to exploitation?
Question 37. The word “revenue” in paragraph 2 most likely means _______.
A. reward B. benefit C. profit D. interest
Question 38. According to paragraph 3, in what direction can ethical tourism help the society?
A. Green tourism maintains the balance between animals and human.
B. Ecotourism provides financial support for local communities.
C. Sustainable tourism yields substantial environmental benefits.
D. Ecotourism encourages open dialogue about deforestation.
Question 39. The word “pristine” in paragraph 3 most likely means _______.
A. natural B. untouched C. beautiful D. dirty
Question 40. The word “them” in paragraph 4 refers to _____.
A. species B. relationships C. poachers D. locals
Question 41. According to paragraph 5, why did the author claim that people will prefer ecotourism over
normal one?
A. Because it is such an awakening and mind-expanding experience.
B. Because the author is a trend-setting writer who believes in his words’ influence.
C. Because anything with a green label on it is all the craze now.
D. Because the standard of ecotourism service is more satisfying than other types.
Question 42. Which of the following statements is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Momentary profits are more recommended than long-term ones.
B. Indigenous inhabitants are forced to resettle to develop sites for tourism.
C. Income from ecotourism can partly be substituted for environmentally harmful industry.
D. People engage in green tourism only for their self-image.
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 43: The man, a poor man, is invited to the Clambake last night.
A B C D
Question 44: Some manufacturers are not only raising their prices but also decreasing the production of its
A B C D
products.
Question 45. Jessie looked so frightened when she was in that white costume with long black hair.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 46: This is the first time we have been to the circus.
A. We have been to the circus some times before.
B. We had been to the circus once before.
C. We have ever been to the circus often before.
D. We have never been to the circus before.
Question 47: "I’ll take the children to the park," said the husband to his wife.
A. The husband asked the wife to take the children to the park.
B. The husband offered to take the children to the park.
C. The husband insisted on taking the children to the park.
D. The husband requested to take the children to the park.
Question 48: It isn’t necessary for you to finish the report by Sunday.
A. You don’t have to finish the report by Sunday.
B. You might finish the report by Sunday.
C. You must finish the report by Sunday.
D. You can’t finish the report by Sunday.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: Nam was so rude to them last night. Now he feels regretful.
A. Nam regrets to have been so rude to them last night.
B. Nam regrets having so rude to them last night.
C. Nam wishes he hadn’t been so rude to them last night.
D. Nam wishes he weren’t so rude to them last night.
Question 50: Olga was about to say something about the end of the movie. He was stopped by his friends
right then.
A. Hardly had Olga intended to say something about the end of the movie when he was stopped by
his friends.
B. Only after Olga had said something about the end of the movie was he stopped by his friends.
C. Not until Olga was about to say something about the end of the movie was he stopped by his
friends.
D. It was not until Olga was stopped by his friends that he started to say something about the end
of the movie.
------------------------ THE END ------------------------

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ĐỀ THI THỬ KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2021
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ SỐ 25 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh:…………………………………………………………………………
Số báo danh:....................................................................................................................

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from
Question 1. A. complained B. roared C. existed D. decayed
Question 2. A. creature B. creamy C. creative D. crease
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. struggle B. answer C. confide D. comfort
Question 4. A. inflation B. maximum C. applicant D. character
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. Tom invited us to come to his party, ?
A.couldn't he B.wasn't he C. hadn't he D. didn't he
Question 6. The injured ———————- to the hospital in an ambulance.
A. were taking B. was taking C. were taken D. have taken
Question 7. Sometimes she does not agree her husband about child rearing but they soon
find the solutions.
A. with B. for C. on D. of
Question 8. The greater the demand, the price.
A. the highest B. the high C. higher D. the higher
Question 9. Indiana University, one of the largest in the nation, is located in a town.
A. small beautiful Midwestern B. beautiful Midwestern small
C. Midwestern beautiful small D. beautiful small Midwestern
Question 10: Câu 7: I broke my teeth when I dinner.
A. had B. was having
C. am having D. am having
Question 11: _______ I’d like to help you out, I’m afraid I just haven’t got any spare money at the
moment.
A. Although B. However C. Despite D. In spite of
Question 12: John will look for a job __________.
A. after he had passed his exams B. as soon as he passes his exams
C. while he was passing his exams D. before he passed his exams
Question 13: ________ a scholarship, I entered one of the most privileged universities of the United
Kingdom.
A. To award B. Being awarded
C. Having awarded D. Having been awarded
Question 14: Euthanasia, also a mercy killing, is the practice of ending a life so as to release an
individual from an incurable disease or _________ suffering.
A. tolerated B. tolerant C. tolerate D. intolerable
Question 15:There are other problems of city life which I don't propose to ____ at the moment.
A. go into B. go around C. go for D. go up
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Question 16: The government should take some measures to that tourism
develops in harmony with the environment.
A. promote B. ensure C. facilitate D. improve
Question 17: With a good _________ of both Vietnamese and English, Miss Loan was assigned the task
of oral interpretation for the visiting American delegation.
A. insight B. knowledge C. command D. proficiency
Question 18: Jimmy always takes the ________ by the horns at every chance in order to become a
famous pop star, which is why he is so successful now.
A. bull B. horse C. cow D. buffalo
Question 19: Tourism is changing rapidly as nature, heritage, and recreational destinations become more
important, and as conventional tourism is forced to _______ tougher environmental requirements.
A. meet B. impose C. lay D. set
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 20: The protesters were angry with the council’s plan to do away with a lovely old building
and put a car park there instead.
A. destroy B. replace C. remain D. keep
Question 21: There are many TV commercials which distracting viewers from watching their favorite
films.
A. economics B. businesses C. contests D. advertisements
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Many people perished in the Kobe earthquake because they were not prepared for it.
A. survived B. departed C. lost their lives D. declined
Question 23: The writer was really hot under the collar when his novel was mistaken for another.
A. angry B. worried C. calm D. curious
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of
the following exchanges
Question 24: Mai and Lan are friends.Lan asks Mai about Mai's plan. Select the most suitable
response to fill in the blank.
Lan: “Are you going to see the live show by Son Tung today?”
Mai: “__________”.
A. Yes, I enjoyed it very much B. Maybe I'll be out
C. Yes, I'm going to stay in D. I think so
Question 25: Mary invited her friend, Sarah, to have dinner out that night and Sarah accepted.
Choose the most suitable response to fill in the blank in the following exchange.
Mary: “Shall we eat out tonight?” - Sarah: “___________.”
A. It's kind of you to invite B. You are very welcome
C. That's a great idea D. That's acceptable

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29.
In such a costly and competitive society and world, no one of us can live without money. We need
money to fulfill our basic needs of the life such as buying food, and (26) ________ many basic necessities
of life which are almost impossible to buy without money. People in the society (27)______are rich and
have property are looked as honourable and respectful person of the society however a poor person is
seen as hatred without any good impression.

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Money increases the position of the person in the society and (28)______a good impression to him.
All of us want to be rich by earning more money through good job or business in order to fulfil all the
increasing demands of the modern age. (29)______, only few people get this chance of completing their
dreams of being a millionaire.
So, money is the thing of great importance all through the life. Money is required by everyone
whether he/she is rich or poor and living in urban areas or rural areas. People in the urban areas are
earning more money than the people living in backward or rural areas as the people of the urban areas
have more (30)______to the technologies and get more opportunity because of the easy sources.
(Adapted from https://www.indiacelebrating.com)
Question 26: A. other B. some C. many D. few
Question 27: A. where B. what C. who D. which
Question 28: A. gives B. does C. takes D. draws
Question 29: A. Besides B.Therefore C. Moreover D. However
Question 30: A. way B. exit C. access D. order
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
In 2007, at a heavily hyped press event in San Francisco, Apple co-founder Steve Jobs stood on
stage and unveiled a revolutionary product that not only broke the mould but also set an entirely new
paradigm for computer-based phones. The look, interface and core functionality of nearly every
smartphone to come along since is, in some form or another, derived from the original iPhone’s
innovative touchscreen-centric design.
Among some of the ground-breaking features was an expansive and responsive display from which
to check email, stream video, play audio, and browse the internet with a mobile browser that loaded full
websites, much like what is experienced on personal computers. Apple’s unique iOS operating system
allowed for a wide range of intuitive gesture-based commands and eventually, a rapidly growing
warehouse of downloadable third-party applications.
Most importantly, the iPhone reoriented people’s relationship with smartphones. Up to then, they
were generally geared toward businesspeople and enthusiasts who saw them as an invaluable tool for
staying organized, corresponding over email, and boosting their productivity. Apple’s version took it to a
whole other level as a full-blown multimedia powerhouse, enabling users to play games, watch movies,
chat, share content, and stay connected to all the possibilities that we are all still constantly rediscovering.
(Adapted from https://www.thoughtco.com/)
Question 31: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Apple co-founder Steve Jobs B. press event in San Francisco
C. Apple’s unique iOS operating system D. Apple’s iPhone
Question 32: The word “paradigm” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. media B. pattern C. role D. area
Question 33: Which is NOT mentioned in paragraph 1 as a characteristic of the new iPhone?
A. new look B. interface C. excellent sound D. core functionality
Question 34: The word “that” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. mobile browser B. internet C. email D. audio
Question 35: The iPhone reoriented people’s relationship with smartphones and geared toward ______.
A. businesspeople B. organizers C. producers D. gamers

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Today, Snyder is seeing the fruits of the collaboration. In a recent issue of the Journal of
Comparative Psychology (Vol. 117, No. 3), the research group published the first study of giant panda
cub-rearing and separation. The study is the first step in examining the impact of a common breeding
practice in China: separating captive cubs before they are six months old so that the mothers will be able
to reproduce again sooner. Cubs in the wild stay with their mothers for 1.5 to 2.5 years.
Snyder and her co-authors, including Maple and psychologist Mollie Bloomsmith, PhD, theorize
that separating cubs from their mothers too early may harm their social development, and could underlie
why so many captive pandas fail to breed. Captive males often show little sexual interest in females or are
too aggressive.
The research team has also conducted urinary and behavioral analyses of female giant pandas
during the breeding season, which is generally in the spring, and is examining the behavior of giant panda
mothers. Graduate student Megan Wilson, who also has worked in Chengdu, is investigating sequences of
play-fighting for her dissertation. And former graduate student and Chengdu researcher Loraine Tarou,
PhD, examined giant panda cognition.
Tarou, now an assistant professor at Grand Valley State University in Michigan, is the first to
examine how captive pandas forage for food and learn to adapt to changes in their environment. She
compared her findings with the cognition of the spectacled bear and found that while both use spatial
memory to find food, the spectacled bears used visual cues the pandas did not pick up on.
The finding indicates that giant pandas' reliance on spatial memory alone may cause them to have
difficulty when their food sources are abruptly changed or moved--a big problem for an animal that
consumes nearly 30 pounds of bamboo a day.
While such basic research may not have immediate application, says Tarou, it is contributing to
scientists' growing knowledge of the species.
(Adapted from https://www.apa.org/)
Question 36: Which of the following best serves as the title for the article?
A. Learning about pandas B. Understanding breeding practice of pandas
C. Snyder and her co-authors’ theory D. How captive pandas forage for food
Question 37: Naturally, panda cubs stay with their mothers for ______.
A. 1 to 1.5 years B. 1.5 to 2.5 years C. 2.5 to 3 years D. 3 to 4 years
Question 38: The word “underlie” in paragraph 2 most probably means ______.
A. obtain B. generate C. explain D. develop
Question 39: What analyses has been done on female giant pandas during the breeding season?
A. spatial memory analyses B. environment interaction analyses
C. food analyses D. urinary and behavioral analyses
Question 40: The word “conducted” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. look for B. carry out C. get on D. set off
Question 41: Which of the following is infered according to the article?
A. Captive panda cubs in China are often separated from mothers before they are six months.
B. Separating cubs from their mothers early may be beneficial to their social development.
C. Megan Wilson and Loraine Tarou examined panda breeding season.
D. A panda consumes nearly 300 pounds of bamboo a day.
Question 42: The word “them” in paragraph 5 refers to ______.
A. difficulties B. memories C. food sources D. giant pandas

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: Many students took part in the entrance examination at university highly every year
A B C D
Question 44: Many successful film directors are former actors who desire to expand his
A B C D
experience in the film industry.
Question 45: I don’t think it would be political to ask for loan just now
A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions
Question 46: It has been a long time since they met.
A. They haven’t met since a long time. B. They haven’t met for a long time.
C. They didn’t meet for a long time. D. They didn’t meet a long time ago.
Question 47: “I will pay back the money, Gloria.” Said Ivan.
A. Ivan apologized to Gloria for borrowing her money.
B. Ivan offered to pay Gloria the money back.
C. Ivan promised to pay back Gloria’s money.
D. Ivan suggested paying back the money to Gloria.
Question 48: My children are possibly in the living room.
A. My children will be playing in the living room.
B. My children cannot be in the kitchen.
C. I do not know whether my children are in the living room.
D. My children might be in the living room.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 49: I regret not booking the seats in advance.
A. I wish I book the seats in advance.
C. If only I booked the seats in advance.
B. I wish I have booked the seats in advance.
D. If only I had booked the seats in advance
Question 50: We arrived at the cinema. Then we realized our tickets were still at home.
A. No sooner had we realized that our tickets were still at home than we arrived at the cinema.
B. Not until we arrived at the cinema that we realized that our tickets were still at home
C. Only after we arrived at the cinema did we realize that our tickets were at home.
D. Hardly had we arrived at the cinema than we realized that our tickets were still at home.
------------------------ THE END ------------------------

5 125
ĐỀ THI THỬ KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2021
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ SỐ 26 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh:…………………………………………………………………………
Số báo danh:....................................................................................................................

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. looked B. laughed C. opened D. stepped
Question 2. A. seat B. leave C. increase D. ready
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. precede B. offer C. visit D. finish
Question 4. A. charity B. agency C. origin D. disaster
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. Michael rarely returns to his hometown, _______?
A. doesn’t he B. hasn’t he C. does he D. has he
Question 6. Acupuncture is part of traditional Chinese medicine (TCM) and______ in China for
thousands of years.
A. has been used B. has using C. has used D. has been using
Question 7. My father is interested ________ playing chess with his friends.
A. on B. with C. of D. in
Question 8. _______the time passes, _______I feel! The deadline of my thesis is coming, but I have just
finished half of it.
A. The faster / the nervous B. The more fast / the nervous
C. The fast / the more nervous D. The faster / the more nervous
Question 9. I remember she wore a ______dress to go out with her boyfriend last week.
A. cotton white Vietnamese B. Vietnamese white cotton
C. white Vietnamese cotton D. white cotton Vietnamese
Question 10. When I last saw him, he ______ in London.
A. has lived B. is living C. was living D. has been living
Question 11. Many exam candidates lose marks simply ________ they do not read the questions
properly.
A. because of B. because C. due to D. owing that
Question 12. The car ______ ready for him by the time he comes tomorrow.
A. will be B. will have been C. will being D. are going to be
Question 13. ________ the homework, he was allowed to go out with his friends.
A. Finishing B. Finish C. To finish D. Having finished
Question 14. John’s ________ and efficiency at the company led to his promotion to Sales Manager.
A. punctuality B. punctual C. punctuate D. punctually

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Question 15. The manager is good at ________ difficult customers.
A. relying on B. dealing with C. showing off D. wiping off
Question 16. Nobody took any ________ of the warning and they went swimming in the contaminated
water.
A. regard B. recognition C. notice D. attention
Question 17. Even if you are rich, you should save some money for a ________ day.
A. windy B. rainy C. foggy D. snow
Question 18. It is alleged that mothers and grandmothers spoil the children by______ their mistakes.
A. neglecting B. overlooking C. avoiding D. passing
Question 19. Pesticide residues in fruit and vegetable can be ________ to health.
A. crucial B. supportive C. receptive D. destructive
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 20. The discovery of the new planet was regarded as a major breakthrough in astronomy.
A. promised B. doubted C. considered D. refused
Question 21. His physical conditions were no impediment to his career as a violinist.
A. help B. impotence C. hindrance D. impossibility
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions.
Question 22. 2008 is a memorable year for people around the world because of the global financial
recession that hit practically every sector of world economy.
A. prosperity B. downturn C. crisis D. depression
Question 23. Jose had a hard time comparing the iPhone to the Samsung phone because to him they were
apples and oranges.
A. containing too many technical details B. very similar
C. completely different D. very complicated
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 24. A student is asking the librarian to help her to fax a report.
- Student: “Could you help me to fax this report?”
- Librarian: “________”
A. Sorry, I have no idea. B. It’s very kind of you to say so.
C. What rubbish! I don’t think it’s helpful. D. Certainly, what’s the fax number?
Question 25. David is talking to Linda after a party.
- David: “Would you like me to give you a ride home?”
- Linda: “________”
A. That’s be great, thanks. B. Sorry, you’re not my type.
C. Yes, I’m riding home now D. No, thanks. I don’t like riding.

2 127
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase
that best fits each the numbered blanks.
The knock-on effect of volunteering on the lives of individuals can be profound. Voluntary work
helps foster independence and imparts the ability to deal with different situations, often simultaneously,
thus teaching people how to (26) ________ their way through different systems. It therefore brings people
into touch with the real world; and, hence, equips them for the future.
Initially, young adults in their late teens might not seem to have the expertise or knowledge to impart
to others that say a teacher or agriculturalist or nurse would have, (27) ________ they do have many skills
that can help others. And in the absence of any particular talent, their energy and enthusiasm can be
harnessed for the benefit of their fellow human beings, and ultimately themselves. From (28)
________this, the gain to any community no matter how many volunteers are involved is (29) ________.
Employers will generally look favorably on people (30) ________ have shown an ability to work as
part of a team. It demonstrates a willingness to learn and an independent spirit, which would be desirable
qualities in any employee.
Question 26. A. give B. work C. put D. take
Question 27. A. so B. but C. or D. for
Question 28. A. all B. none C.above D. both
Question 29. A. unattainable B. immeasurable C. undetectable D. impassible
Question 30. A. which B. whose C. who D. what
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the
question.
Some doctors think that you should drink a glass of water each morning. You should drink this water
first thing, before doing anything else. The temperature of the water should be similar to body
temperature; neither too hot nor too cold.
Why should you drink this water? Water helps your body in many ways. It helps clean out your
kidneys. It prepares your stomach for digestion. Water can also help your intestines work better. After
drinking water, the intestines can more easily take out nutrients from our food. Water also helps us go to
the bathroom more easily.
Scientists suggest that people take in 1,600 milliliters of water each day. But don’t drink all of that
water in one sitting. If you do, your kidneys will have to work much harder to eliminate it. It’s better to
drink some in the morning and some in the afternoon. Some people think it’s better to drink between
meals and not during meals. They think water dilutes the juices produced in our stomachs. This can
interfere with normal digestion.
Are you drinking enough water every day? Check the color of your urine. If it is light yellow, you are
probably drinking enough. If your urine is very dark yellow, you probably need to drink more water. A
little more water each day could make you much healthier.
(Adapted from Reading Challenge 1 by Casey Malarcher and Andrea Janzen)
Question 31. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. The importance of water B. The advice of the doctors
C. How to drink water correctly? D. The best amount of water to drink
Question 32. According to the passage, water is good for the following organs of the body, EXCEPT
________.
A. kidneys B. stomach C. intestines D. livers
Question 33. The pronoun “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ________.
A. your body B. your kidney C. water D. your stomach
Question 34. The word “eliminate” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. preserve B. remove C. absorb D. process
Question 35. Which of the following is NOT true?
A. The first thing you should do every morning is to drink water.
B. You shouldn’t drink too much water at the same time.
C. Drinking water while having meals may interfere with normal digestion.
D. You need to drink more water if your urine is light yellow.
3 128
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the
question.
Carnegie Hall, the famous concert hall in New York City, has again undergone a restoration. While
this is not the first, it is certainly the most extensive in the building’s history. As a result of this new
restoration, Carnegie Hall once again has the quality of sound that it had when it was first built. Carnegie
Hall owes its existence to Andrew Carnegie, the wealthy owner of a steel company in the late 1800s. The
hall was finished in 1891 and quickly gained a reputation as an excellent performing arts hall where
accomplished musicians gained fame. Despite its reputation, however, the concert hall suffered from
several detrimental renovations over the years. During the Great Depression, when fewer people could
afford to attend performances, the directors sold part of the building to commercial businesses. As a
result, a coffee shop was opened in one corner of the building, for which the builders replaced the brick
and terra cotta walls with windowpanes. A renovation in 1946 seriously damaged the acoustical quality of
the hall when the makers of the film Carnegie Hall cut a gaping hole in the dome of the ceiling to allow
for lights and air vents. The hole was later covered with short curtains and a fake ceiling but the hall never
sounded the same afterwards.
In 1960, the violinist Isaac Stern became involved in restoring the hall after a group of real estate
developers unveiled plans to demolish Carnegie Hall and build a high-rise office building on the site.
This threat spurred Stern to rally public support for Carnegie Hall and encourage the City of New
York to buy the property. The movement was successful, and the concert hall is now owned by the city.
In the current restoration, builders tested each new material for its sound qualities, and they replaced the
hole in the ceiling with a dome. The builders also restored the outer walls to their original appearance and
closed the coffee shop. Carnegie has never sounded better, and its prospects for the future have never
looked more promising.
Question 36. This passage is mainly about ________.
A. changes to Carnegie Hall
B. the appearance of Carnegie Hall
C. Carnegie Hall’s history during the Great Depression
D. damage to the ceiling in Carnegie Hall
Question 37. The word “it” in the first paragraph refers to ________.
A. Carnegie Hall B. New York City C. a restoration D. a plan
Question 38. What major change happened to the hall in 1946?
A. The acoustic dome was damaged.
B. Space in the building was sold to commercial businesses.
C. The walls were damaged in an earthquake.
D. The stage was renovated.
Question 39. Who was Andrew Carnegie?
A. A violinist B. An architect
C. A steel mill owner D. Mayor of New York City
Question 40. What was Isaac Stern’s relationship to Carnegie Hall?
A. He made the movie “Carnegie Hall” in 1946.
B. He performed on opening night in 1891.
C. He tried to save the hall, beginning in 1960.
D. He opened a coffee shop in Carnegie Hall during the Depression
Question 41. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “detrimental” in paragraph 2?
A. dangerous B. trivial C. impressive D. damaging
Question 42. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “unveiled” in paragraph 3?
A. announced B. restricted C. overshadowed D. located
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Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 43. We are going to visit our grandparents when we will finish our final exams.
A. are going to B. our C. when D. will finish
Question 44. A good artist like a good engineer learns as much from their mistakes as from successes.
A. like B. as C. their D. from
Question 45. Many successful film directions are former actors who desire to expand their experience in
the film industry.
A. successful B. film directions C. former D. expand
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 46. I haven't met my grandparents for five years.
A. I often met my grandparents five years ago.
B. I last met my grandparents five years ago.
C. I have met my grandparents for five years.
D. I didn't meet my grandparents five years ago.
Question 47. “Would you like to come out to dinner with me tonight, Jenny?” Paul said.
A. Paul suggested that Jenny go out to dinner with him that night.
B. Paul insisted on Jenny going out to dinner with him that night.
C. Paul invited Jenny to go out to dinner with him that night.
D. Pau offered Jenny to go out to dinner with him that night
Question 48. I don’t think Max broke your vase because he wasn’t here then.
A. Max wouldn’t have broken your vase because he wasn’t here then.
B. Max was likely to break your vase because he wasn’t here then.
C. Max can’t have broken your vase because he wasn’t here then.
D. Max wasn’t able to break your vase because he wasn’t here then.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 49. I deeply regret having spoken to her so severely yesterday. She was badly hurt.
A. If only I could apologize to her for having spoken to her so severely yesterday.
B. I wish I hadn’t spoken to her so severely yesterday.
C. She must have been badly hurt because I had spoken to her so severely yesterday.
D. If I hadn’t spoken to her so severely yesterday, she wouldn’t be badly hurt.
Question 50. The student was very bright. He could solve all the math problems.
A. He was such bright student that he could solve all the math problems.
B. The student was very bright that he could solve all the math problems.
C. He was such bright a student that he could solve all the math problems.
D. So bright was the student that he could solve all the math problems.
------------------------ THE END ------------------------

5 130
ĐỀ THI THỬ KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2021
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ SỐ 27 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh:…………………………………………………………………………
Số báo danh:....................................................................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. helped B. cleaned C. played D. runed
Question 2. A. tangle B. dangerous C. battle D. calculate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. deploy B. maintain C. focus D. attain
Question 4. A. uncertain B. arrogant C. familiar D. impatient
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. Everyone was taken to hospital last night, _______?
A. weren’t they B. were they C. wasn’t he D. was he
Question 6. The application form______to the university before May 31st.
A. must send B. sent C. must be sending D. must be sent
Question 7. Brain’s attitude _______ his work has always been very positive.
A. with B. into C. at D. towards
Question 8. The faster we walk,_______we will get there.
A. the soonest B. the soon C. the more soon D. the sooner
Question 9. Indiana University, one of the largest ones in the nation, is located in a ______town.
A. small beautiful Midwestern B. beautiful Midwestern small
C. Midwestern beautiful small D. beautiful small Midwestern
Question 10. While my father______a film on TV, my mother was cooking dinner.
A. watched B. was watching C. had watched D. watches
Question 11. _______, the young mother appeared visibly very happy after the childbirth.
A. Tired as she was B. She was tired C. As tired D. Despite tired
Question 12. _______, they will have done their homework.
A. By the time you finish cooking B. By the time you finished cooking
C. When you finish cooking D. While you finish cooking
Question 13. _______ yesterday, we saw many deer.
A. While we hiking through the woods B. Hiking through the woods
C. During hiked through the woods D. Hiking through the woods we
Question 14. It is desirable that the hotel manager remember to call the _______ staff every 6 months to
clean up the air conditioners.
A. maintaining B. maintain C. maintainable D. maintenance
Question 15. While I was looking through my old albums the other day, I _______ this photograph of my
parents’ wedding.
A. took after B. made up C. turned down D. came across
Question 16. We were so looking forward to stretching out on the beach in the sunshine, but it _______
the whole time we were there.
A. poured with rain B. rained dogs and cats
C. dropped in the bucket D. made hay while the sun shined
Question 17. Last year, the company went _______ up after the one of its senior executives offered his
resignation.
A. straight B. belly C. stomach D. cloud
Question 18. Volunteers may be required to obtain Red Cross _______ in order to serve through
hospitals and healthcare organizations or provide disaster relief.
A. diploma B. certification C. license D. degree

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Question 19. A new TV show has sparked ________ by showing the positive side of dropping out of college.
A. controversy B. argument C. contention D. debate
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 20. I knew she was only flattering me because she wanted to borrow some money.
A. teasing B. threatening C. praising D. helping
Question 21. An indecisive commander is unlikely to win the confidence of his men.
A. slow B. determined C. hesitant D. reliant
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions.
Question 22. Some vegetables are grown without soil and artificial light.
A. real B. natural C. genuine D. true
Question 23. I was going to have a go at parachuting but lost my nerve at the last minute.
A. was determined to go ahead B. lost my temper
C. was discouraged from trying D. grew out of it
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 24. Tom is in Ho Chi Minh city and asks a passer-by the way to the railway station.
- Tom: “Can you show me the way to the railway station, please?”
- Passer-by: “_______”
A. No way. B. Just round the comer over there.
C. Look it up in a dictionary! D. There’s no traffic near here.
Question 25. Two students are discussing their previous English class.
- Student 1. “I think the teacher should give us more exercises.”
- Student 2. “_______”
A. Yes, let’s B. Ok
C. That’s rubbish D. That’s what I was thinking
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase
that best fits each the numbered blanks.
Speech is one of the most important (26) ______ of communicating. It consists of far more than just
making noises. To talk and also to be understood by (27) ______ people, we have to speak a language.
That is, we have to use combinations of sounds that everyone agrees to stand for a particular object or
idea. Communication would be impossible it everyone made up their own language.
Learning a language properly is very (28) ______. The basic vocabulary of English is not very large,
and only about 2,000 words are needed to speak it quite well. (29) ______ the more idea you can express,
the more precise you can be about their exact meaning. Words are the main thing (30) ______ we use in
communicating what we want to say. The way we say the words is also very important. Our tone of voice
can express many emotions and show whether we are pleased or angry, for instance.

Question 26. A. rules B. reasons C. ways D. tests


Question 27. A. other B. another C. others D. The other
Question 28. A. easy B. expensive C. simple D. important
Question 29. A. Although B. Therefore C. But D. However
Question 30. A. where B. which C. who D. whom
2 132
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the
question.
The concept of traffic-free shopping areas goes back a long time. During the Middle Ages, traffic- free
shopping areas known as souks were built in Middle Eastern countries to allow people to shop in comfort
and safety. As far back as 2,000 years ago, road traffic was banned from central Rome during the day to
allow for the free movement of pedestrians, and was only allowed in at night when shops and markets had
closed for the day.
The modern, traffic-free shopping street was born in Europe in the 1960s, when both city populations
and car ownership increased rapidly. Dirty exhaust fumes from cars and the risks involved in crossing the
road were beginning to make shopping an unpleasant and dangerous experience. Many believed the time
was right for experimenting with car-free streets, and shopping areas seemed the best place to start.
At first, there was resistance from shopkeepers. They believed that such a move would be bad for
business. They argued that people would avoid streets if they were unable to get to them in their cars.
When the first streets in Europe were closed to traffic, there were even noisy demonstrations as many
shopkeepers predicted they would lose customers.
However, research carried out afterwards in several European cities revealed some unexpected
statistics. In Munich, Cologne and Hamburg, visitors to shopping areas increased by 50 percent. On
Copenhagen’s main shopping street, shopkeepers reported sales increases of 25-40 percent. Shopkeepers
in Minneapolis, USA, were so impressed when they learnt this that they even offered to pay for the
construction and maintenance costs of their own traffic-free streets.
With the arrival of the traffic–free shopping street, many shops, especially those selling things like
clothes, food and smaller luxury items, prospered. Unfortunately, it wasn’t good news for everyone, as
shops selling furniture and larger electrical appliances actually saw their sales drops. Many of these were
forced to move elsewhere, away from the city centre. Today they are a common feature on the outskirts of
towns and cities, often situated in out- of-town retail zones with their own car parks and other local
facilities.
(Adapted from Complete IELTS Band 4-5 by Rawdon Wyatt)

Question 31. What can be the best tittle of the passage?


A. How traffic-free shopping streets developed
B. How towns and cities are planned and built
C. Removing cars and other vehicles from streets in towns and cities
D. The difference between towns and cities now, and towns and cities in the past
Question 32. The word “revealed” in paragraph 4 could best be replaced by ______.
A. hide B. uncovered C. kept D. met
Question 33. Why was there resistance from shopkeepers?
A. Because they were unable to get in their cars.
B. Because they disagreed with an idea and refused to accept it.
C. Because they wanted to experiment with car-free streets.
D. Because they were trying something in order to discover what it is like.
Question 34. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as one of traffic-free shopping areas’
accomplishments?
A. There was a 50% increase in the number of shoppers in Munich, Cologne and Hamburg.
B. Shopkeepers in Minneapolis, USA even offered to pay for the construction and maintenance costs
of their own traffic–free streets.
C. Shops selling furniture and larger electrical appliances saw their sales growths.
D. Many clothing, food, or smaller luxury item stores thrived.

3 133
Question 35. The word “their” in the third paragraph refers to _______.
A. shopkeepers B. people C. cars D. streets
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the
question.
Times are tough. The nightly news is filled with stories of people who have lost their jobs due to the
economic crisis, or lost their homes in a fire or natural disaster. Have you ever seen people who have just
endured an awful situation? Some focus on what they have lost, and this is easy to understand. But other
people focus on what they did not lose, and they start thinking about a better future.
One good piece of advice to remember is that you cannot always control situations or other people.
The only thing you can control is your own personal reaction to bad situations. Sometimes a situation
may really be overwhelming. However, in many cases, you really can influence our own moods by the
way you think about negative situations.
Imagine two families: Both have lost their homes and all their belongings in a devastating storm. One
family cannot mask their grief. They feel that everything they hold dear has been destroyed. They cannot
imagine how they will ever be able to replace things and start over again. Their normal life seems to have
been completely lost. In contrast, a second family is crying with joy. All of the people in their family are
unharmed and safe. This family is just happy that everyone has survived. This family is already trying to
figure out how they can recover. You can’t really blame the first family for experiencing a very normal
reaction to a terrible situation. However, the second family certainly seems to be better off. They are
thinking about making progress rather than focusing on the tragic events.
Though this scenario is extreme, everyone experiences setbacks that seem just awful at the time.
This could be a job loss, illness, or problems with family members. Nobody gets through life without
having some bad things happen. In these situations, try to focus on the steps you can take to remedy the
situation, instead of how awful the setback is. By doing this, you will be laying the foundation for a better
tomorrow. And you will not suffer as much pain today.
Actually, controlling how you feel and trying to maintain a positive attitude can help you through
many tough situations. The bottom line is, no matter what the problem is, you are more likely to fix it if
you can stay positive and work out a plan. Also, never be afraid to seek help when you need it. The
advice of a friend, family member, or even a professional may be all it takes to get back on track.
It may sound like a cliché. While a positive attitude may not be the answer to every problem, it can
certainly give you an advantage in surviving most of life’s minor setbacks.
(Adapted from “Select Readings – Upper Intermediate” by Linda Lee and Erik Gundersen)
Question 36. Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?
A. Being optimistic is an effective way to get over bad situations.
B. Keeping positive or negative thoughts is the own choice of each person.
C. Positive thoughts are necessary conditions to be successful.
D. There seems to have more pessimists than optimists.
Question 37. The word “grief” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. problem B. sorrow C. disappointment D. damage
Question 38. What does the word “they” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. tragic events B. all of the people C. the first family D. the second family
Question 39. It can be inferred from the third paragraph that _______.
A. disappointment and sadness are all people’s common emotions in terrible situations.
B. your attitude in terrible situations is more important than how serious the problems are.
C. optimists often suffer less terrible situations than pessimists.
D. your attitude will decide the way you react to terrible situations.
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Question 40. The word “scenario” in paragraph 4 mostly means _______.
A. trouble B. background C. circumstance D. imagination
Question 41. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. The thing people have to remember is managing their own reaction to bad situations.
B. Everyone will suffer some terrible experiences in their life.
C. Paying attention to the solutions of the setback is better than focusing on the damage it causes.
D. To have a good foundation for the future, you should not undergo bad situations today.
Question 42. According to paragraph 5, what is the major thing you should do when you have troubles?
A. Be optimistic and make out a plan. B. Ask other people for help when necessary.
C. Control your emotions. D. Determine how serious the problem is.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 43. She has disappeared three days ago, and they are still looking for her now.
A. has disappeared B. and C. are still D. for her
Question 44. Ozone has his origin in a number of sources, a prime one being the automobile engine.
A. his B. prime C. being D. the
Question 45. It is said that these good life skills will make young people become more confidential.
A. is said B. these C. become D. confidential
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 46. He last visited London three years ago.
A. He has been in London for three years. B. He hasn't visited London for three years.
C. He didn't visit London three years ago. D. He was in London for three years.
Question 47. “You’d better work harder if you don’t want to retake the exam!” the teacher said to Jimmy.
A. The teacher advised Jimmy to work harder if he didn't want to retake the exam.
B. The teacher ordered Jimmy to work harder if he didn't want to retake the exam.
C. The teacher reminded Jimmy to work harder if he didn't want to retake the exam.
D. The teacher warned Jimmy to work harder if he didn't want to retake the exam.
Question 48. I'm sure Luisa was very disappointed when she failed the exam.
A. Luisa must be very disappointed when she failed the exam.
B. Luisa must have been very disappointed when she failed the exam.
C. Luisa may be very disappointed when she failed the exam.
D. Luisa could have been very disappointed when she failed the exam.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 49. Jack dropped out of school at the age of 15. He now regrets it.
A. If only Jack had dropped out of school when he was 15.
B. If Jack dropped out of school when he was 15, he would regret it.
C. Jack wishes he hadn’t dropped out of school when he was 15.
D. Jack regrets not having dropped out of school when he was 15.
Question 50. Linda's final exam is important. She realizes little of it
A. Under no circumstances does Linda realize how important her final exam is.
B. Rarely does Linda realize how important her final exam is.
C. Little does Linda realize how important her final exam is.
D. Never does Linda realize how important her final exam is.
------------------------ THE END ------------------------
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ĐỀ THI THỬ KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2021
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ SỐ 28 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh:…………………………………………………………………………
Số báo danh:....................................................................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. visited B. played C. hated D. needed
Question 2. A. academic B. grade C. behave D. examination
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. cartoon B. answer C. reason D. paper
Question 4. A. survival B. industry C. endanger D. commercial
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. Neither of the boys came to school yesterday, ________?
A. didn’t they B. does they C. did they D. doesn’t they
Question 6. It is claimed that new nuclear power plants designed to be safer than the current ones______.
A. were built B. build C. are soon built D. built
Question 7. Television can make things memorable for the reason that it presents information ________
an effective way.
A. over B. with C. in D. on
Question 8. :_______you study for these exams,_______you will do.
A. The harder / the better B. The more / the much
C. The hardest / the best D. The more hard / the more good
Question 9. Her husband bought her ______ when he went on holiday in Singapore last week.
A. a beautiful silk yellow scarf B. a beautiful yellow silk scarf
C. a beautiful yellow silk scarf D. a beautiful yellow scarf silk
Question 10. When Carol _______ last night, I _______ my favorite show on television.
A. called / was watching B. had called / watched
C. called / have watched D. was calling / watched
Question 11. Students can only use technological devices to complete their work _______ investment on
notebooks and books.
A. rather than B. instead of C. but for D. in case
Question 12. By next Saturday, Tom _______ a whole month without smoking a cigarette.
A. will go B. will have gone C. has gone D. has been going
Question 13. ______ in large quantities in the Middle East, oil became known as black gold because of
the large profit it brought.
A. Discovered B. Discovering
C. Which was discovered D. That when discovered
Question 14. If you don't have anything ________ to say, it's better to say nothing.
A. construct B. construction C. constructive D. constructor
Question 15. There are other problems of city life which I don't propose to ________at the moment.
A. go into B. go around C. go for D. go up
Question 16. Your store needs a bold sign that will catch the ________ of anyone walking down the
street. That may help to sell more products.
A. eye B. peek C. flash D. glimpse
Question 17. Sometimes in a bad situation, there may still be some good things. Try not to “throw out the
________ with the bathwater”.
A. fish B. duck C. baby D. child
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Question 18. The storm did a lot of ________to our village. All the crops were drastically destroyed and
many houses were washed away.
A. injury B. hardship C. harm D. damage
Question 19. He decided to withdraw from the powerboat race as he had a (n) ________ of danger.
A. omen B. premonition C. foreboding D. prediction
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 20. Emissions from factories and exhaust fumes from vehicles can have detrimental effects on
our health.
A. beneficial B. neutral C. needy D. harmful
Question 21. By being thrifty and shopping wisely, housewives in the city can feed an entire family on
as little as 500.000 VND a week.
A. luxurious B. economical C. sensible D. miserable
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions.
Question 22. His physical condition was not an impediment to his career as a violinist. He has won a lot
of prizes.
A. advantage B. obstacle C. barrier D. disadvantage
Question 23. Tom may get into hot water when driving at full speed after drinking wine.
A. get into trouble B. stay safe C. fall into disuse D. keep calm
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 24. Nam and Lan are talking about the jobs which only men or women can do.
- Nam: “Do you think that there are any jobs which only men or only women can or should do?"
- Lan: “________”
A. Men are better at certain jobs than women.
B. I agree. This really depends on their physical strengths and preferences.
C. Women and men should cooperate with each other.
D. Men are often favoured in certain jobs.
Question 25. Mary is talking to her professor in his office.
- Mary: “Can you tell me how to find material for my science report, professor?”
- Professor: “________”
A. I like it that you understand. B. Try your best, Mary.
C. You can borrow books from the library. D. You mean the podcasts from other students?

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase
that best fits each the numbered blanks.
The first thing that is included in the "living together” (26) ________ is the expected good relations
with your family. This also involves sharing equally the housework. (27) ________of people think that
everyone should share the housework equally, but in many homes parents do most of it. To certain minds,
many families can't share the housework whereas they should try it. In fact, sharing the housework
equally is not very possible because of the families' timetable. So, it is somehow believed that children
and parents must do things together. For this they can establish a housework planning.
(28) ________, housework's contributions of the teenager make him more responsible. He will think
that he has an important role in his family. According to researchers, teenagers should share the
housework because (29) ________ will help them when they have to establish their own family in the
future. Too many teenagers and young adults leave home without knowing how to cook or clean, but if
parents delegate basic housework to teens as they are old enough to do it, they won't be destabilized by
doing the housework in their new grown-up life.
It can be (30) ________concluded that many parents don't really prepare their children for future,
because they don't stimulate them to learn how to run a house. If parents get them responsible, teens will
be more responsible and that will improve family's life.
(Source: https://www.sciencedaily.com/releases/2013)

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Question 26. A. custom B. tradition C. notion D. trend
Question 27. A. lots B. few C. little D. a lot of
Question 28. A. In addition B. However C. In contrast D. In case
Question 29. A. which B. what C. that D. who
Question 30. A. likely B. probably C. auspiciously D. possibly
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the
question.
Vietnam’s population is ageing quickly. In 2017, more than 10 per cent of the population will be 60
and older, and in 15-20 years the elderly will account for one third of the total population. This raises
concerns about healthcare, welfare and pensions for the elderly at a time when Vietnam is focusing on
economic integration and requires a large labor force. So far two solutions have been proposed: to loosen
the two-child policy and to increase the retirement age to 58 for women and 62 for men. By ending the
two-child policy the government expects to make up for the ageing population within the next 20 years.
But its effect could be creating an uncontrollable boom in the Vietnamese population. When the
government loosened the two-child policy in 2015 in a trial period, in the first 6 months of 2016 the third
child birth rate increased remarkably by 7.5 per cent
Raising the retirement age has been proposed by the Ministry of Labor pending parliamentary
evaluation in May 2017. While the policy is beneficial in utilizing the work experience of the elderly
while creating savings in the pension budget, it also means fewer job prospects and promotion
opportunities for younger generations. It is also not in the interest of all the elderly, especially the 70 per
cent of Vietnam's labor force working in manual labor-intensive sectors such as agriculture,
manufacturing and construction where working above the age of 50 can be dangerous and unproductive.
Despite these drawbacks, raising the retirement age is still considered by policymakers as one of the key
solutions to the ageing population problem in Vietnam. However, these are only temporary solutions.
Question 31. The best title for this passage could be ________.
A. Vietnam struggling with ageing population B. Stopping the two-child policy in Vietnam
C. Raising the retirement age in Vietnam D. How to solve the aging population in Vietnam
Question 32. Which statement is probably TRUE according to the information in the paragraph 1?
A. In 2017, the elderly take up for one third of the total population, this leads to more concerns about
healthcare, welfare and pensions for the elderly.
B. In 2015, the two-child policy has been officially tightened and succeeded.
C. The government would promote families to have two children to compensate for the ageing
population within the next 20 years.
D. In the next 15-17 years, Vietnam's economy will need a large labor force to integrate with global
economy.
Question 33. The word “its" in paragraph 1 refers to ________?
A. two-Child policy B. aging population C. retirement age D. economic integration
Question 34. In the 2rd paragraph, the writer suggests that ________.
A. The Ministry of Labor has applied raising the retirement age in May 2017.
B. Raising the retirement age can reduce job opportunities for younger generations.
C. The elderly whose age is 50 would be dangerous if they continued to work
D. Raising the retirement age and stopping two-child policy can be considered as long-term and
effective solutions.
Question 35. The word "temporary" in paragraph 2 means ________.
A. constant B. permanent C. short-term D. long-term

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the
question.
Coral reefs are some of the most diverse ecosystems in the world, housing tens of thousands of
marine species. With their hardened surfaces, corals are sometimes mistaken as being rocks. And,
because they are attached, “taking root” to the seafloor, they are often mistaken for plants. However,
unlike rocks, corals are alive. And unlike plants, corals do not make their own food. Corals are in fact
animals. Appearing as solitary forms in the fossil record more than 400 million years ago, corals are
extremely ancient animals that evolved into modern reef-building forms over the last 25 million years.
Coral reefs are the largest structures on earth of biological origin. Coral reefs are unique and complex
systems. Rivaling old growth forests in longevity of their ecological communities, well-developed reefs
reflect thousands of years of history.
Corals are ancient animals related to jellyfish and anemones. The branch or mound that we often call
“a coral” is actually made up of thousands of tiny animals called polyps. A coral polyp is an invertebrate
that can be no bigger than a pinhead to up to 30 centimeters (1 foot) in diameter. The polyps extend their
tentacles at night to sting and ingest tiny organisms called plankton and other small creatures. Each polyp
has a saclike body and a mouth that is encircled by stinging tentacles. The polyp uses calcium carbonate
(limestone) from seawater to build a hard, cup-shaped skeleton. This skeleton protects the soft, delicate
body of the polyp.
Reefs only occur in shallow areas that are reachable by sunlight because of the relationship between
coral and algae. Various types of microscopic algae, known as Symbiodinium, live inside of the coral,
providing them with food and helping them to grow faster.
There are over 2,500 kinds (species) of corals. About 1,000 are the hard corals that build coral reefs.
Other corals are soft corals. Soft corals have skeletons that are flexible and can bend with the water. The
three main types of coral reefs are fringing reefs, barrier reefs, and coral atolls. The most common type of
reef is the fringing reef. This type of reef grows seaward directly from the shore. They form borders
along the shoreline and surrounding islands. When a fringing reef continues to grow upward from a
volcanic island that has sunk entirely below sea level, an atoll is formed. Atolls are usually circular or
oval in shape, with an open lagoon in the center. Any reef that is called a barrier reef gets its name
because its presence protects the shallow waters along the shore from the open sea. That protection
promotes the survival of many types of sea plant and animal life.
(Adapted from http://justfunfacts.com)
Question 36. Which of the following could best reflect the main purpose of the author in the passage?
A. To prove that coral reefs are animals.
B. To provide the facts about coral reefs.
C. To explain that coral reefs are the most diverse ecosystems in the ocean.
D. To distinguish coral reefs with other animals.
Question 37. The word “solitary” in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by ________.
A. single B. private C. general D. typical
Question 38. The word “Rivaling” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. Differing from B. Comparing with C. Relating to D. Changing from
Question 39. According to the passage, the following are true about coral reefs, EXCEPT ________.
A. Coral reefs are mistaken for rocks and plants because of their hardened surface and “roots”.
B. Polyps are the composition of corals.
C. The skeleton of a polyp is created from calcium carbonate in seawater.
D. Corals absorb food in the sunlight using their tentacles.
Question 40. With the help of myriad species of tiny algae, reefs ________.
A. are likely to develop more rapidly.
B. can protect the soft and delicate body of the polyp.
C. are able to find food inside their polyps.
D. find it easier to bend with the water.

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Question 41. What does the word “They” in paragraph 5 refer to?
A. coral atolls B. barrier reefs C. fringing reefs D. the shores
Question 42. As mentioned in the last paragraph, why a reef is called a barrier reef?
A. As it keeps developing from a volcanic island that has sunk entirely below sea level.
B. Because its skeleton is flexible enough to defend many marine organisms.
C. Since it saves the low waters along the coastline from the open sea.
D. Because it is one kind of 1,000 hard corals that protect the shoreline.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 43. The composer Verdi has written the opera Aida to celebrate the opening of the Suez Canal,
but the opera was not performed until 1871.
A. has written B. to celebrate C. opening of D. was not performed
Question 44. Those of us who have a family history of heart disease should make yearly appointments
with their doctors.
A. who B. should make C. yearly D. their
Question 45. Modern office buildings have false floors under which computer and phone wires can be
lain.
A. office buildings B. false floors C. which D. can be lain
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 46. It is over twenty years since I last got in touch with them.
A. I can’t help keeping getting in touch with them for over 20 years.
B. I haven’t gotten in touch with them for over 20 years.
C. I used to get in touch with them for over 20 years.
D. I have been getting in touch with them for over 20 years.
Question 47. She said, "John, I'll show you round my city when you're here."
A. She made a trip round her city with John. B. She planned to show John round her city.
C. She promised to show John round her city. D. She organized a trip round her city for John.
Question 48. It’s possible that Joanna didn’t receive my message.
A. Joanna shouldn’t have received my message. B. Joanna needn’t have received my message.
C. Joanna mightn’t have received my message. D. Joanna can’t have received my message.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 49. Peter moved abroad for a fresh start. He regrets it now.
A. Peter wishes he hadn’t moved abroad for a fresh start.
B. If Peter moved abroad for a fresh start, he would regret it.
C. Peter regrets not having moved abroad for a fresh start.
D. If only Peter had moved abroad for a fresh start.
Question 50. We came in the room. Our boss was sitting in the front desk.
A. We came in the room, our boss was sitting in the front desk.
B. When we came in the room, our boss had been sitting in the front desk.
C. When we came in the room, in the front desk was sitting our boss.
D. Hardly had we come in the room when our boss sat in the front desk.
------------------------ THE END ------------------------

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ĐỀ THI THỬ KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2021
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ SỐ 29 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh:…………………………………………………………………………
Số báo danh:....................................................................................................................

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. attained B. resolved C. disused D. decreased
Question 2. A. dream B. mean C. peace D. steady
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. career B. prospect C. effort D. labour
Question 4. A. obedient B. decision C. mischievous D. biologist
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. It is impossible for him to be financially independent at such an early age, _______?
A. isn't it B. is it C. doesn't he D. does he
Question 6. We can’t go along here because the road _______.
A. is repairing B. is repaired C. is being repaired D. repairs
Question 7. He harbors a deep resentment _______ his parents for his miserable childhood.
A. on B. from C. for D. against
Question 8. The more manufacturers advise, _______ they sell.
A. the most products B. the products more C. the more products D. most products
Question 9. Her husband bought her a______ scarf when he went on holiday in Singapore last week.
A. beautiful silk yellow B. beautiful yellow silk C. yellow silk beautiful D. yellow beautiful silk
Question 10. He had a bad fall while he ______ his roof.
A. was repairing B. repaired C. repairs D. will repair
Question 11. The new supermarket is so much cheaper than the one in John Street. _______, they do free
home deliveries.
A. Moreover B. Consequently C. Nevertheless D. Instead
Question 12. By the time the software _______ on sale next month, the company ______ $2 million on
developing it.
A. went – had spent B. will go – has spent
C. has gone – will spend D. goes – will have spent
Question 13. _______ the age of 21, he was able to gamble in Las Vegas.
A. When reached B. Reached C. As reaching D. Upon reaching
Question 14. Both inventors and engineers look for ways to improve things in areas like health, food,
safety, transportation, aerospace, electronics, _______, and the environment.
A. communication B. communicative C. communicator D. communicating
Question 15. I try to be friendly but it is hard to _______ some of my colleagues.
A. get on with B. watch out for C. come up with D. stand in for
Question 16. Most people are interested in _______ about famous celebrities, which is why tabloid
magazines still exist.
A. juicy chatter B. juicy gossip C. gossip freely D. juicy talk
Question 17. Union leaders feel it is time Cabinet Ministers put their _______ on the table regarding their
long-term plans.
A. cards B. hands C. feet D. papers
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Question 18. There’s no need for you to try to _______ an argument with him. You need to calm down
or your relationship will get worse.
A. win B. beat C. defeat D. gain
Question 19. Does television adequately reflect the ethnic and cultural _______ of the country.
A. custom B. diversity C. alternation D. minority
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 20. It is firmly believed that books are a primary means for disseminating knowledge and
information.
A. inventing B. distributing C. classifying D. adapting
Question 21. The amount spent on defense is in sharp contrast to that spent on housing and health.
A. blare B. flask C. stark D. spark
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions.
Question 22. Today, illegal hunting still threatens many species, especially large mammals such as tigers,
rhinoceros, bears and even primates.
A. allowed by law B. forbidden by law C. introducing a law D. imposing a law
Question 23. Tom was too wet behind the ears to be in charge of such a difficult task.
A. full of experience B. lack of responsibility
C. without money D. full of sincerity
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 24. Two friends Diana and Anne are talking about their upcoming exams.
- Diana: “Our midterm exams will start next Tuesday, are you ready?”
- Anne: “_______”.
A. I’m half ready. B. God save you.
C. Thank you so much D. Don’t mention it!
Question 25. Two neighbors are talking to each other about their work.
- Sanji: "I'm taking a break from my gardening. There seems to be no end to the amount of work I have to
do."
- Nico: “_______”
A. I do, too. B. Not at all
C. I'm glad I'm not in your shoes. D. There's no doubt about that.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase
that best fits each the numbered blanks.
In an educational context, the term ‘learner independence’ has gained increasing importance in recent
years. It is of particular (26) _______ to language learning and commonly refers to the way students
confidently control and organise their own language learning process. While some people seem to have
an almost instinctive flaw for languages, (27) _______ have to rely on strategies to maximise their skills
and learn a foreign language more effectively.
The main thing to remember is that becoming a truly independent learner ultimately depends above
all on taking responsibility for your own learning and being prepared to take every opportunity available
to you to learn. You also increase your chances of (28) _______ by learning according to your own needs
and interests, using all available resources. Research shows that learners (29) _______ adopt this
approach will undoubtedly manage to broaden their language abilities considerably and, (30) _______,
are mote likely to achieve their objectives in the longer term.
(Adapted from “Complete Advanced” by Laura Mathews and Barbara Thomas)

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Question 26. A. resemblance B. acceptance C. relevance D. acquaintance
Question 27. A. each B. every C. others D. Few
Question 28. A. interest B. failure C. suspicision D. success
Question 29. A. who B. why C. which D. where
Question 30. A. though B. as a result C. because D. in contrast
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the
question.
The generation gap that was so in evidence during the 60s has resurfaced, but it is not the disruptive
force that it was during the Vietnam era, a 2009 study suggests. The Pew Research Center study found
that 79% of Americans see major differences between younger and older adults in the way they look at
the world. In 1969, a Gallup Poll found that a smaller percentage, 74%, perceived major differences.
Today, however, although more Americans see generational differences, most do not see them as
divisive. That is partly because of the areas of difference. The top areas of disagreement between young
and old, according to the Pew Research Study, are the use of technology and taste in music. Grandparents
are likely to have observed these differences in their grandchildren who are tweens, teens, and young
adults.
If large differences between the generations exist, why don't they spawn conflict? The answer is
twofold.
First, the two largest areas of difference—technology and music—are less emotionally charged than
political issues. The older generation is likely to be proud of the younger generation's prowess in
technology rather than to view it as a problem. As for the musical differences, each generation wants its
own style of music, and the older generation generally can relate to that desire.
Second, in the other areas of difference, the younger generation tends to regard the older generation
as superior to their own generation—clearly a difference from the 1960s with its rallying cry of "Don't
trust anyone over thirty." According to the Pew study, all generations regard older Americans as superior
in moral values, work ethic and respect for others.
(Adapted from www.verywellfamily.com)
Question 31. Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?
A. Generation gap doesn’t cause a big problem in American families.
B. Different points of view are the main problem between generations in America.
C. The generation gap in the past was different from that in modern time.
D. The areas of differences in generation gap have changed over the years.
Question 32. The word “divisive” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. agreeing B. positive C. serious D. discordant
Question 33. What are the two reasons why large differences between generations don’t cause
disagreement?
A. The generosity of the elder generation and the attitude of the younger generation.
B. The different styles of music and the knowledge of the elder generation.
C. The major aspects of differences between generations and the respect to the elder generation.
D. The pride of the elder generation and the obedience of the younger one
Question 34. The word “their” in the last paragraph refers to _______.
A. the older generation’s B. the younger generation’s
C. supervisor’s D. over-thirty people’s
Question 35. According to the passage, which is NOT true?
A. The majority of Americans agree generations’ viewpoint to be the major differences.
B. Technology is one of the two biggest areas creating the gap between the old and the young.
C. Grandparents feel uncomfortable with their grandchildren because of their better technology skills.
D. The elderly in America are admired in moral values, work ethic and respect for others.
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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the
question.
The reason women appear to be at greater risk of developing Alzheimer’s disease than men might be
due to a number of genetic, anatomical and even social influences, researchers have suggested.
Recent figures show about 65% of those with living with dementia in the UK are women, with a
similar statistic seen in the US for Alzheimer’s disease, while dementia is the leading cause of death for
women in England. Alzheimer’s disease is only one of the types of dementia, but the most common form.
While one explanation is that dementia risk increases with age, and women have longer life expectancies
than men, new research suggests there might be more to the matter, including that protein tangles found
within neurons and linked to Alzheimer’s disease might spread differently in women’s brains than men’s.
The study, presented at the Alzheimer’s Association International Conference in Los Angeles by
researchers from Vanderbilt University and which has not yet been peer-reviewed, used scans from a
method called positron emission tomography. That allowed them to look at the way clumps of a protein
called tau were spread in the brains of 123 men and 178 women without cognitive problems, as well as
101 men and 60 women with mild cognitive problems – although not yet diagnosed with Alzheimer’s
disease. Cognitively normal older people often have small amounts of tau in certain areas of their brain.
From the data the team could build maps showing which areas of the brain show similar signals
relating to tau in the scans, suggesting they are somehow connected. “Based on that we kind of try to
reconstruct the pattern of spread,” Dr Sepideh Shokouhi, who is presenting the research, told the
Guardian. “It is kind of like reconstructing a crime scene.” The team says the results suggest these maps
look different in women and men, suggesting tau might be able to spread more rapidly across the female
brain.
Other research presented at the conference – and also not yet peer reviewed – added weight to the
idea that there might be differences between men and women that affect dementia risk. Research by
scientists at the University of Miami has revealed a handful of genes and genetic variants appear to be
linked to Alzheimer’s disease in just one biological sex or the other. While the actual importance of these
factors has yet to be unpicked, and the study only looked at white participants, the team says it
underscores that there could be a genetic reason for differences in the risk of dementia in men and
women, and the way it develops.
(Adapted from https://www.theguardian.com)
Question 36. Which of the following could be the best title of the passage?
A. The differences between male and female brain and the condition for Alzheimer’s.
B. Research shines light on why women are more likely to develop Alzheimer’s.
C. The method for treating Alzheimer’s in women
D. Alzheimer’s – the leading cause of death for women.
Question 37. The following are the reasons for Alzheimer’s disease, EXCEPT _______.
A. gene B. anatomy C. age D. job
Question 38. The word “tangles” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. muddles B. orders C. arrangements D. positions
Question 39. What does the word “their” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. 123 men’s and 178 women’s without cognitive problems
B. 101 men’s and 60 women’s with mild cognitive problems
C. cognitively normal older people’s
D. people’s with Alzheimer’s disease
Question 40. According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE?
A. The data from the maps may help researchers find out the treatment for dementia.
B. The men’s life expectancies are longer than women’s, so they are less suffered from Alzheimer’s.
C. All the research at the conference has been peer-reviewed before presented.
D. Female brains are likely more convenient for tau to develop than male ones.
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Question 41. The word “revealed” in the last paragraph could be best replaced by _______.
A. discovered B. created C. experimented D. treated
Question 42. It can be inferred from the last paragraph that _______.
A. researchers are sure that the differences between genders will affect Alzheimer’s risk.
B. the influence of a handful of genes and genetic variants on Alzheimer’s has not been scientifically
illuminated.
C. the research has studied all groups of participants for the risk of dementia.
D. the results of all research on Alzheimer’s are different from each other.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 43. The composer Verdi has written the opera Aida to celebrate the opening of the Suez Canal,
but the opera was not performed until 1871.
A. has written B. to celebrate C. opening of D. was not performed
Question 44. If one has a special medical condition such as diabetes, epilepsy, or allergy, it is advisable
that they carry some kind of identification in order to avoid being given improper medication in an
emergency.
A. has B. they C. carry D. being
Question 45. The field of Artificial Intelligence research was found at a workshop held on the campus of
Dartmouth College during the summer of 1956.
A. field B. was found C. held on D. the
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 46. We started working here three years ago.
A. We worked here for three years. B. We have no longer worked here for three years.
C. We have worked here for three years. D. We will work here in three years.
Question 47. “My father doesn’t work in the factory any more” Bella told us.
A. Bella said that her father no longer worked in the factory.
B. Bella wished that her father didn’t work in the factory any more.
C. Bella hoped that her father was used to working in the factory
D. Bella denied that her father used to work in the factory.
Question 48. I’m sure that they had practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals.
A. They couldn’t have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals
B. They must have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals
C. They shouldn’t have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals
D. They might have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 49. Lan didn't apply for the job in the library and regets it now.
A. Lan wishes she had applied for the job in the library.
B. Lan wishes she have applied for the job in the library.
C. Lan wishes she has applied for the job in the library.
D. Lan wishes she applies for the job in the library.
Question 50. Helen wrote a novel. He made a cowboy film, too
A. Helen wrote not only a novel but also made a cowboy film.
B. Helen both wrote a novel as well as made a cowboy film.
C. Helen either wrote a novel or made a cowboy film.
D. Not only did Helen write a novel but she also made a cowboy film.
------------------------ THE END ------------------------

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ĐỀ THI THỬ KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2021
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ SỐ 30 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh:…………………………………………………………………………
Số báo danh:....................................................................................................................

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. borrowed B. conserved C. approached D. complained
Question 2. A. hike B. wind C. child D. tide
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. garbage B. muscle C. disease D. bottle
Question 4. A. completion B. understand C. material D. behavior
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. Her parents are really strict. They rarely let her stay out late, _______?
A. do they B. don’t they C. does she D. doesn’t she
Question 6. Every day, Peters mother drives him to school. However, today, he _______ to school by his
father.
A. was taken B. is being taken C. is taking D. took
Question 7. Students are _______ less pressure as a result of changes in testing procedures.
A. under B. above C. upon D. out of
Question 8. The more you practice speaking in public, _______.
A. the more you become confident B. the more you become confidently
C. the greater confidence you become D. the more confident you become
Question 9. The report form is available on the two _______ discs in my drawer.
A. small green round B. round small green C. green small round D. small round green
Question 10. She came into the room while they ______ television.
A. watched B. have watched C. are watching D. were watching
Question 11. Fast food is very popular. _______, a diet of hamburgers, pizzas and fried chicken is not
very healthy.
A. Consequently B. Moreover C. Unfortunately D. In contrast
Question 12. By the year 2021, 6% of all US jobs _______ by robots, report says.
A. will eliminate B. will have been eliminated
C. will be eliminating D. will have eliminated
Question 13. _______ the Nobel Prize, he retired from politics.
A. Received B. Having received C. Being received D. Receive
Question 14. In the past, the _______ and engagement ceremonies took place one or two years before the
wedding.
A. propose B. proposing C. proposal D. proposed
Question 15. My father is very talented and kind-hearted. I always _______ him.
A. look for B. look like C. look after D. look up to
Question 16. I don't like networking events - spending hours trying to _______ small talk with strangers
just isn't my cup of tea,
A. make B. take C. have D. do
Question 17. He may be shy now, but he will soon come out of his _______ when he meets the right girl.
A. shoe B. hole C. shed D. shell
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Question 18. The hospital had _______ given her up for dead, but she eventually recovered.
A. virtually B. merely C. totally D. intensively
Question 19. I had all the information at my _______ before attending the meeting.
A. fingertips B. thumbs C. hands D. fingers
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 20. A.I. algorithms can also help to detect faces and other features in photo sent to social
networking sites and automatically organize them.
A. categorize B. connect C. recognize D. remind
Question 21. Scientists warn of the impending extinction of many species of plants and animals.
A. irrefutable B. imminent C. formidable D. absolute
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions.
Question 22. There are several different kinds of faults in reading which are usually more exaggerated
with foreign learners.
A. overestimated B. understated C. overemphasized D. undertaken
Question 23. His performance stood head and shoulders above the rest.
A. was better than B. was worse than C. became higher than D. became cheaper than
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 24. Tung and Tu are talking about time management skill.
- Tung: "What do you think about time management skill?"
- Tu : “_______”
A. It's time to go. B. I quite agree with you.
C. It is an important life skill. D. I can't help thinking about it.
Question 25. Two friends are talking about the coming Christmas holiday.
-Tony :“Are you going to your family reunion this Christmas holiday?”
- Mark: “_______”
A. As a matter of fact, I don't mind it at all.
B. I do. I've been excited about it now.
C. However, My parents and I are going to take a trip abroad
D. You bet. All my uncles and aunts will take their children along, too.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase
that best fits each the numbered blanks.
The idea of going overseas to study can be daunting, with visions of baffling languages or nights
spent in isolation while you are gradually forgotten by your friends and family. (26) _______, the benefits
of studying abroad - such as broadening your mind, improving your career prospects and making friends
from all over the world - can make digging out your passport really rewarding.
“Studying abroad is an eye-opening experience,” says Anna Boyd, event manager at The Student
World. “Being immersed in (27) _______ culture, understanding differences and spotting similarities,
living on a beach or in the mountains, (28) _______ will have an impact on every student.”
Overseas study comes in many shapes and sizes. It might be a single semester abroad via an Erasmus
programme, for example. Or you might elect to follow a full three-or four-year degree programme.
Whatever your ambition, the key is starting early. Some countries require specific combinations of A-
levels from UK students, Germany looks for four A-levels including maths or science and one modern
foreign language, for instance, while others, such as the US, value extracurricular activities. Starting our
research well (29) _______ of time can help you make the right choices. "Getting involved in sports, arts
and music is also worth considering, as well as gaining experience through volunteering and work
placements," says Boyd. In fact, applying to study abroad could even work to your advantage, for
example, you might encounter lower (30) _______ requirements.
(Adapted from https://wwwindependent.caukistudent/study-abroad)

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Question 26. A. But B. However C. Therefore D. Thereby
Question 27. A. another B. other C. others D. the other
Question 28. A. where B. why C. which D. that
Question 29. A. right B. straight C. head D. ahead
Question 30. A. entry B. entrance C. enter D. entered
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the
question.
Bali, the fabled "Island of the Gods", has been enchanting visitors for centuries with its rich cultural
traditions and spectacular panoramas. From lofty, mist enshrouded volcanoes and cool mountain lakes
down through terraced rice fields to a golden strand lapped by azure waters, every square inch of Bali
offers a fresh and unforgettable image.
No less enchanting are its people, some 2.7 million souls whose artistry and piety are recognized
throughout the world Balinese Hinduism, a complex fusion of Indian cosmology. Tantric Buddhism and
homegrown mythology, is the primary faith of Bali's inhabitants, and so deeply woven into the fabric of
their daily lives that the line between the spiritual and the material is blurry at best.
Those of you keen on delving into the island's fascinating culture will have plenty of opportunities, as
colorful ceremonies and traditional performances occur with regularity of sunrise. Most hotels offer
nightly dance shows of one form or another, tailored to tourist audiences but none the less exquisite. The
hill town of Ubud, the island's premier arts center, also has a full schedule of performance, and the nearby
stone-cutter's village of Batubulan is famed for its Barong lion dances. The shoppers among you will find
Bali a treasure house of handicrafts and fine works of art. The Balinese are incredibly gifted artists and
craftsmen, and their material creations are imbued with the same sense of wonderment with which they
regard their universe. Stone and wood carvings, traditional and modern paintings and intricately designed
jewelry in gold and silver are readily in shops and galleries throughout the island.
As for recreation, there is no shortage of option. Nature walks, horseback riding, diving, surfing, even
bungy jumping, and white water rafting await the adventurous here.
(Source: https://books.google.com.vn/books)
Question 31. The topic of the given passage is _______.
A. Balinese life B. Scenery in Bali C. Tourism in Bali D. Bali for recreation
Question 32. The second paragraph of the passage mainly discusses _______.
A. Population of Bali B. artistry and piety of Bali
C. Balinese religion D. daily lives of Balinese
Question 33. The word "their" in the second paragraph refers to _______.
A. 2.7 million souls B. Bali's inhabitants
C. daily lives D. the spiritual and the material
Question 34. Which of the following might be a synonym of the word "exquisite" in the third paragraph?
A. skillful B. clever C. spiritual D. material
Question 35. You can find all these recreational activities in Bali EXCEPT _______.
A. horseback riding B. nature walks C. water rafting D. parachute jumping
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the
question.
Many people see large urban cities as a wonder of human imagination and creativity. They represent
how far the human population has come in terms of community development. Many positive things come
from urbanization, but there are also negatives. This article will discuss and present data on the
implications of urbanization on the physical health of humans living in these large urban areas.
As it would be expected, developing countries tend to see more negative physical health effects than
modern countries in regard to urbanization. One example of a developing country experiencing these

3 148
problems is China. China is a country that in the past 30–40 years went from being an agrarian based
society to a significant industrialized country. This industrialization has in effect caused the need for more
centralized cities, centralized meaning having lots of jobs and living spaces within a close proximity. This
is what is known as urbanization. In most recent decades, since China’s change to being more of an
industrial based economy, the country has experienced record high numbers of people migrating within
its borders. In effect, the number of cities with over 500,000 people has more than doubled. These
migrations are typically of people from rural areas of China moving to the new urban areas. Due to this
large influx in the urban population, there are many possibilities for health challenges among these
people.
One very common and fairly obvious negative aspect of highly congested urban areas is air
pollution. Air pollution is defined as any harmful substance being suspended in the air. This could include
particulate matter, most commonly attributed to industrial plants and refineries waste, or chemicals like
CO2 or Methane (which are also products of plants and refineries as well as cars and other modes of
transportation). Due to a vast number of people in these urbanized cities, the air pollution is known to be
very extreme. These conditions can lead to many different health problems such as: Asthma,
cardiovascular problems or disease, and different types of cancer (most commonly lung cancer). When
exposed to these conditions for a prolonged period of time, one can experience even more detrimental
health effects like: the acceleration of aging, loss of lung capacity and health, being more susceptible to
respiratory diseases, and a shortened life span.
Another way that urbanization affects the populations’ health is people’s change in diet. For instance,
urban cities tend to have lots of accessible, quick, and easy to get food. This food is also more than likely
not as high quality as well as contains a large amount of sodium and sugar. Because this food is so
accessible, people tend to eat it more. This increase in consumption of low quality food can then lead to
diabetes, hypertension, heart disease, obesity, or many other health conditions.
(Adapted from https://medium.com)
Question 36. Which of the following could be served as the best title for the passage?
A. Urbanization – Pros and cons
B. Urbanization – How people’s health is impacted?
C. Urban cities – The new opportunity for community development
D. Developing countries – The fastest urbanization
Question 37. What does the phrase “these problems” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. industrialized countries B. lots of jobs and living spaces
C. immigrants D. negative physical health effects
Question 38. The word “congested” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. overcrowded B. sparse C. contaminated D. fresh
Question 39. The word “detrimental” in paragraph 3 mostly means _______.
A. beneficial B. positive C. harmful D. dangerous
Question 40. The following are the air pollution sources mentioned in paragraph 3, EXCEPT _______.
A. industrial factories B. refineries waste
C. chemicals D. sewage
Question 41. Why are urban populations easy to get diseases from food, according to the last paragraph?
A. Because of the low quality and the high proportion of sodium and sugar in this food.
B. Because the way people get this food is rather accessible, quick and easy.
C. Because this food is so delicious that people have a tendency to eat more than normal.
D. Because of the change in people’s diet.

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Question 42. What can be inferred from the passage?
A. Living in urban areas for a long time will make the life expectancy of inhabitants shorten.
B. One of the negative health effects comes from the overpopulation in industrialized countries.
C. People in developed countries suffer less harmful health effects from urbanization than those in
developing nations.
D. The bad health effects from urbanization are not greater than the benefits it brings to people in
urban cities.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 43. Jane spent a lot of money yesterday. She had bought a dress which cost $100.
A. spent B. yesterday C. had bought D. cost
Question 44. If anyone drops by while I am away, please take a message from him
A. drops B. while C. take D. him
Question 45. We have conducted exhausting research into the effects of smartphones on students’
behaviour and their academic performance.
A. exhausting research B. into C. behaviour D. academic performance
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 46. I haven't gone to the cinema for ten years.
A. It was ten years ago I went to the cinema. B. The last time I went to the cinema was ten years.
C. I last went to the cinema ten years ago. D. It's ten years I haven't gone to the cinema.
Question 47. “You’re always making terrible mistakes.” said the teacher.
A. The teacher asked his students why they always made terrible mistakes.
B. The teacher realized that his students always made terrible mistakes.
C. The teacher complained about his student making terrible mistakes.
D. The teacher made his students not always make terrible mistakes.
Question 48. It isn’t necessary for us to discuss this matter in great detail.
A. We should discuss this matter in great detail. B. We might discuss this matter in great detail
C. We needn’t discuss this matter in great detail. D. We mustn’t discuss this matter in great detail.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 49. Marie didn’t turn up at John’s birthday party. I feel so sorry for that.
A. If only Marie turn up at John’s birthday party.
B. I wish Marie had turned up at John’s birthday party.
C. I wished Marie wouldn’t turn up at John’s birthday party.
D. It’s a shame Marie had turned up at John’s birthday party.
Question 50. Alice registered for the course. She then received the scholarship.
A. Hardly had Alice registered for the course when she received the scholarship.
B. Only after Alice registered for the course, she received the scholarship.
C. Having received the scholarship, Alice registered for the course.
D. Registering for the course helped Alice receive the scholarship.
------------------------ THE END ------------------------

5 150
ĐỀ THI THỬ KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2021
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ SỐ 31 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh:…………………………………………………………………………
Số báo danh:....................................................................................................................

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. wanted B. stopped C. decided D. hated
Question 2. A. threat B. seat C. meat D. beat
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. manage B. protect C. reform D. regard
Question 4. A. interact B. entertain C. compassion D. understand
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. I don’t suppose there is anyone there, ________?
A. do I B. isn’t there C. is there D. don’t I
Question 6. The telephone _________ by Alexander Graham Bell.
A. is invented B. is inventing C. invented D. was invented
Question 7. It is of great importance to create a good impression ________ your interviewer.
A. on B. about C.for D. at
Question 8. The faster we walk,………….. we will get there.
A. the soonest B. the soon C. the more soon D. the sooner
Question 9. - Waiter: “Can I help you, sir?” - Mr. Smith: “I’m looking for a____________ table”
A. wooden round fashionable B. round wooden fashionable
C. wooden fashionable round D. fashionable round wooden
Question 10. Last night, we ______ television when the power ______.
A. was watching/ failed B. watched/ was failing
C. were watching/ failed D. watched/ failed
Question 11. She had butterflies in her stomach ________ having prepared carefully for the interview.
A. although B. due to C. despite D. because
Question 12. _______, I will give him the report.
A. When he will return B. When he returns
C. Until he will return D. No sooner he returns
Question 13. _______ to ride a bicycle, he walked to work every morning.
A. Because he unable B. Being unable C. Be unable D. Because he were unable
Question 14. My aunt used to be a woman of great ________, but now she gets old and looks pale.
A. beauty B. beautiful C. beautifully D. beautify
Question 15. David is a rich man because he ________ a lot of money last year.
A. went through B. checked in C. fell behind D. came into
Question 16. I have a ________ on a classmate who is very near and dear to me.
A. crush B. desire C. flame D. passion
Question 17. The sight of his pale face brought ________ to me how ill he really was.
A. place B. house C. life D. home
Question 18. My grandmother ________ her whole life to looking after her children.
A. paid B. used C. spent D. devoted
Question 19. Our new classmate, John is a bit of a rough ________ but I think I’m going to like him once
I get used to him.
A. stone B. rock C. diamond D. pearl
1 151
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 20. We have achieved considerable results in the economic field, such as high economic
growth, stability and significant poverty alleviation over the past few years.
A. achievement B. development C. prevention D. reduction
Question 21. They have been forced to live in marginal environments, such as deserts and arctic
wastelands.
A. suburban B. forgotten C. abandoned D. Disadvantaged
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions.
Question 22. We should husband our resources to make sure we can make it through these hard times.
A. spend B. manage C. use up D. marry
Question 23. Don’t get angry with such a thing. It’s only a storm in a teacup.
A. serious problem B. trivial thing C. commercial tension D. financial issue
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 24. Claudia is being interviewed by the manager of the company she's applied for.
- Manager: “________”
- Claudia: "I work hard and I enjoy working with other people."
A. Can you do jobs on your own? B. Would you describe yourself as ambitious?
C. What are some of your main strengths? D. Why have you applied for this position?
Question 25. Lan and Ba are discussing a question of their teacher.
- Lan: “I think it is a good idea to have three or four generations living under one roof.”
- Ba: “________”
A. I can't agree with you any more. There will be lots of understanding.
B. No, I don't think so. They can help each other a lot.
C. That's a good idea. Many old-aged parents like to live in a nursing home.
D. You can say that again.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase
that best fits each the numbered blanks.
ROBOTS
Ever since it was first possible to make a real robot, people have been hoping for the invention of a
machine (26) _______ would do all the necessary jobs around the house. If boring and repetitive factory
work could be (27) _______ by robots, why not boring and repetitive household chores too?
For a long time the only people who really gave the problem their attention were amateur inventors.
And they came up against a major difficulty. That is, housework is actually very complex. It has never
been one job, it has always been many. A factory robot (28) _______ one task endlessly until it is
reprogrammed to do something else. It doesn’t run the whole factory. A housework robot, on the other
hand, has to do (29) _______ different types of cleaning and carrying jobs and also has to cope with all
the different shapes and positions of rooms, furniture, ornaments, cats and dogs. (30) _______, there have
been some developments recently. Sensors are available to help the robot locate objects and avoid
obstacles. We have the technology to produce the hardware. All that is missing the software- the
programs that will operate the machine.
Question 26. A. that B. what C. when D. where
Question 27. A. succeeded B. managed C. made D. given
Question 28. A. carries over B. carries out C. carries off D. carries away
Question 29. A. little B. some C. much D. few
Question 30. A. However B. Therefore C. Besides D. Moreover
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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the
question.
Some doctors think that you should drink a glass of water each morning. You should drink this water
first thing, before doing anything else. The temperature of the water should be similar to body
temperature; neither too hot nor too cold.
Why should you drink this water? Water helps your body in many ways. It helps clean out your
kidneys. It prepares your stomach for digestion. Water can also help your intestines work better. After
drinking water, the intestines can more easily take out nutrients from our food. Water also helps us go to
the bathroom more easily.
Scientists suggest that people take in 1,600 milliliters of water each day. But don’t drink all of that
water in one sitting. If you do, your kidneys will have to work much harder to eliminate it. It’s better to
drink some in the morning and some in the afternoon. Some people think it’s better to drink between
meals and not during meals. They think water dilutes the juices produced in our stomachs. This can
interfere with normal digestion.
Are you drinking enough water every day? Check the color of your urine. If it is light yellow, you are
probably drinking enough. If your urine is very dark yellow, you probably need to drink more water. A
little more water each day could make you much healthier.
(Adapted from Reading Challenge 1 by Casey Malarcher and Andrea Janzen)
Question 31. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. The importance of water B. The advice of the doctors
C. How to drink water correctly? D. The best amount of water to drink
Question 32. According to the passage, water is good for the following organs of the body, EXCEPT
________.
A. kidneys B. stomach C. intestines D. livers
Question 33. The pronoun “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ________.
A. your body B. your kidney C. water D. your stomach
Question 34. The word “eliminate” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. preserve B. remove C. absorb D. process
Question 35. Which of the following is NOT true?
A. The first thing you should do every morning is to drink water.
B. You shouldn’t drink too much water at the same time.
C. Drinking water while having meals may interfere with normal digestion.
D. You need to drink more water if your urine is light yellow.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the
question.
Plastic bags are used by everybody. From a vegetable vendor to a designer store, everyone seems to
use them. Even though they are one of the modern conveniences that we seem to be unable to do without,
they are responsible for causing pollution, killing wildlife, and using up the precious resources of the
Earth. But, most of us are blissfully unaware of the repercussions that are occurring and will take place
in the future because of the plastic bags.
Every once in a while, the government passes out an order banning store owners from providing
plastic bags to customers for carrying their purchases, with little lasting effect. Plastic bags are very
popular with both retailers as well as consumers because they are cheap, strong, lightweight, functional,
as well as a hygienic means of carrying food as well as other goods. About a hundred billion plastic bags
are used every year in the U.S. alone. And then, when one considers the huge economies and populations
of India, China, Europe, and other parts of the world, the numbers can be staggering. The problem is
further exacerbated by the developed countries shipping off their plastic waste to developing countries
like India.

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Once they are used, most bags go into landfills. Each year, more and more bags are ending up
littering the environment. Once they become litter, plastic bags find their way into our waterways, parks,
beaches, and streets. And, if they are burned, they infuse the air with toxic fumes. About 100,000 animals,
such as dolphins, turtles, whales, penguins are killed every year due to these bags. Many animals ingest
plastic bags, mistaking them for food, and therefore, die. And worse, the ingested plastic bag remains
intact even after the death and decomposition of the animal. Thus, it lies around in the landscape where
another victim may ingest it. One of the worst environmental effects is that they are non-biodegradable.
The decomposition takes about 400 years. No one will live so long to witness the decomposition of
plastic! Thus, save the environment for the future generations as well as animals.
Petroleum products are diminishing and getting more expensive by the day, since we have used this
non-renewable resource increasingly. And to make plastic, about 60-100 million barrels of oil are needed
every year around the world. Surely, this precious resource should not be wasted on producing plastic
bags, should it? Petroleum is vital for our modern way of life. It is necessary for our energy requirements
- for our factories, transportation, heating, lighting, and so on. Without viable alternative sources of
energy yet on the horizon, if the supply of petroleum were to be turned off, it would lead to practically the
entire world grinding to a halt.
So, what can be done? A tote bag can make a good substitute for carrying groceries and the shopping.
You can keep the bag with the cashier, and then put your purchases into it instead of the usual plastic bag.
Recycling the bags you already have is another good idea. These can come into use for various purposes,
like holding your garbage, instead of purchasing new ones. While governments may be working out ways
to lessen the impact of plastic bags on the environment; however, each of us should shoulder some of the
responsibility for this problem, which ultimately harms us. Plastics are not only non-biodegradable, but
are one of the major pollutants of the sea. For a clean and green environment, try to use alternatives to
plastic whenever and wherever possible. Cut down your use of plastic, and do your bit to save our planet.
(Source: https://helpsavenature.com/)
Question 36. Which of the following could be the best tittle of the passage?
A. Plastic pollution – Problems and solutions.
B. Harmful effects of plastic bags on the environment.
C. Plastic pollution – What should we do?
D. Plastic bags - New threat for the environment.
Question 37. What is the synonym of the word “repercussions” in the first paragraph?
A. situation B. interference C. contamination D. consequence
Question 38. According to the second paragraph, what is NOT true about the reality of plastic bags?
A. The more population a country has, the more complicated the plastic pollution is.
B. Plastic bags are often used because of their convenience.
C. Importing plastic waste from developed countries makes the problem more sophisticated.
D. The governments do not prohibit the use of plastic bags at the stores.
Question 39. The following are the negative effects of plastic bags on the environment, EXCEPT
________.
A. They make water, soil and air polluted.
B. Marine animals may die because of eating plastic bags.
C. It takes plastic bags a very long time to be biodegraded.
D. People do not live long enough to check whether plastic bags are decomposed or not.
Question 40. The word “intact” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. undamaged B. broken C. harmful D. dangerous
Question 41. What does the word “it” in the last paragraph refer to?
A. the cashier B. the bag C. the shopping D. a good substitute

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Question 42. What does the author suggest in the last paragraph?
A. Plastic bags should be limited as much as possible to save the Earth from their harmful impacts.
B. Each individual should reuse their plastic bags to save money for other purchases.
C. The governments should cooperate with every citizen in cleaning the plastic bags in the polluted
oceans.
D. It is easier to keep the environment clean at first than to save it after it is polluted.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 43. Next week, when there will be an English club held here, I will give you more information
about it.
A. will be B. held C. will give D. about
Question 44. The Gray Wolf, a species reintroduced into their native habitat in Yellowstone National
Park, has begun to breed naturally there.
A. reintroduced B. their native habitat C. has begun D. naturally
Question 45. The new trade agreement should felicitate more rapid economic growth.
A. The B. should felicitate C. more D. economic growth
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 46. We haven’t written to each other for two months.
A. It is two months that we wrote to each other.
B. It is two months since we wrote together.
C. There are two months for us to write to each other.
D. It is two months since we last wrote to each other.
Question 47. "I’ll take the children to the park," said the husband to his wife.
A. The husband asked the wife to take the children to the park.
B. The husband offered to take the children to the park.
C. The husband insisted on taking the children to the park.
D. The husband requested to take the children to the park.
Question 48. I don’t think Max broke your vase because he wasn’t here then.
A. Max wouldn’t have broken your vase because he wasn’t here then.
B. Max was likely to break your vase because he wasn’t here then.
C. Max can’t have broken your vase because he wasn’t here then.
D. Max wasn’t able to break your vase because he wasn’t here then.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 49. Marie didn’t turn up at John’s birthday party. I feel so sorry for that.
A. If only Marie turn up at John’s birthday party.
B. I wish Marie had turned up at John’s birthday party.
C. I wished Marie wouldn’t turn up at John’s birthday party.
D. It’s a shame Marie had turned up at John’s birthday party.
Question 50. You can feel more at ease by taking part in group dating. It’s the only way.
A. By taking part in group dating can you only feel more at ease.
B. Only by taking part in group dating can you feel more at ease.
C. The only way you are by taking part in group dating can feel more at ease.
D. The way you can feel more at ease is taking part in only group dating.
------------------------ THE END ------------------------

5 155
ĐỀ THI THỬ KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2021
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ SỐ 32 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh:…………………………………………………………………………
Số báo danh:....................................................................................................................

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. permitted B. wanted C. stopped D. needed
Question 2. A. effect B. enter C. restore D. engage

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. support B. slogan C. icon D. motto
Question 4. A. dominate B. disagree C. disrespect D. interfere

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5 . Your sister seldom cooks meals,___________?
A. did she B. didn’t she C. does she D. doesn’t she
Question 6 : Lots of houses _______ by the earthquake.
A. are destroying B. destroyed C. were destroying D. were destroyed
Question 7 : I think that married couples should be financially independent ___________ their parents.
A. to B. of C. with D. on
Question 8. The more confidence you look, ___________ you will feel.
A. the best B. the gooder C. better D. the better
Question 9. Mai bought___________which she dreamed of
A. a new interesting English book B. an English new interesting book
C. an interesting English new book D. an interesting new English book.
Question 10: They ____ football when the lights in the stadium went out.
A. were playing B. played C. were playing D. playing
Question 11. __________ they are delicious, hamburgers and French fries are too high in fat.
A. However B. Although C. Because D. Despite
Question 12. By the time you finish cooking they their homework.
A. will have finished B. will finish C. had finished D. have finished
Question 13. the email - supposedly from Boyd's Bank - to be genuine, she was tricked into disclosing
her credit card details.
A. Believe B. Being believed C. To believe D. Believing
Question 14: Thirty-one people have been injured in____________incidents throughout the day.
A. violent B. violence C. violently D. violate
Question 15: The what chemical is this? It's____________a horrible smell.
A. giving over B. giving off C. giving down D. giving up
Question 16: a momentary of concentration, Simon managed to regain his focus and completed the test.
A. failure B. lapse C. fault D. error
Question 17: He may be shy now, but he will soon come out of his __________ when he meets the right
girl.
A. shoe B. hole C. shed D. shell
1 156
Question 18: She's a woman with no pretensions.
A. ambitious B. creative C. idealistic D. down-to-earth
Question 19: The new management board is often described as the ______ force behind the company’s
rapid expansions.
A. driving B. leading C. rising D. heading
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19: I hope things will start to look up in the new year.
A. get better B. get worse C. become popular D. get bored
Question 20: Drunk driving can lead to some tragic results.
A. miserable B. peaceful C. delighted D. lasting
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions.
Question 21: He was so insubordinate that he lost his job within a week.
A. fresh B. disobedient C. obedient D. understanding
Question 22: If you are at a loose end this weekend, I will show you round the city.
A. free B. confident C. occupied D. Reluctant

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24: John is talking to Daisy about her new blouse
- John : "You really have a beautiful blouse, Daisy, I’ve never seen such a perfect thing on you !"
- Daisy : “____________________.”
A. I'm sorry to hear that. B. Thanks, That’s a nice compliment .
C. Don't mention it. D. Thanks for your gift!
Question 25: Mai and Tuan are talking about modern Robot
Mai: I believe that modern robots will be more intelligent and replace humans in many dangerous
jobs. Tuan: ____
A. That's just what I think of course. B. That sounds interesting.
C. That's a good idea. D. Why not? Believe me!
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
No one runs the internet. It’s organized as a decentralized network of networks. Thousands of
companies, universities, governments, and other (26) ______ operate their own networks and exchange
traffic with (27) ______ other based on voluntary interconnection agreements.
The shared technical standards (28) ______ make the internet work are managed by an organization
called the Internet Engineering Task Force. The IETF is an open organization; anyone is free to attend
meetings, propose new standards, and recommend changes to existing standards. No one is required to
adopt standards endorsed by the IETF, but the IETF’s consensus-based decision-making process helps to
(29) ______ that its recommendations are generally adopted by the internet community.
The Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers (ICANN) is sometimes described as being
(30) ______ for internet governance. As its name implies, ICANN is in charge of distributing domain
names (like vox.com) and IP addresses. But ICANN doesn’t control who can connect to the internet or
what kind of information can be sent over it.
(Adapted from https://www.vox.com/)
Question 26: A. entities B. terms C. amounts D. states
Question 27: A. another B. every C. each D. all
Question 28: A. that B. who C. when D. what
Question 29: A. function B. stress C. exchange D. ensure
Question 30: A. Curious B. Responsible C. cheerful D. interested
2 157
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
We first learn about loving and caring relationships from our families. Family is defined as a domestic
group of people with some degree of kinship - whether through blood, marriage, or adoption. Ideally,
each child is nurtured, respected, and grows up to care for others and develop strong and healthy
relationships. This does not mean that it is always easy to make and keep friends; it just means that we
share the goal of having strong relationships.
"Family" includes your siblings and parents, as well as relatives who you may not interact with every day,
such as your cousins, aunts, uncles, grandparents, and stepparents. These are probably the people you are
closest to and with whom you spend the most time. Having healthy relationships with your family
members is both important and difficult.
Families in the 21st century come in all shapes and sizes: traditional, single parent, blended (more than
one family together in the same house], and gay and lesbian parents -just to name a few. No matter the
"type" of family you have, there are going to be highs and lows - good times and bad. Many times,
however, families become blocked in their relationships by hurt, anger, mistrust, and confusion. These are
natural and normal, and few families do not have at least a few experiences with them. The worst time for
most families, is during a divorce. By making a few simple changes in the way we look at the world and
deal with other people, it is possible to create happier, more stable relationships. Families need to be units
of mutual caring and support; they can be sources of lifelong strength for all individuals.
(Adapted from http://www.pamf.org)
Question 31. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. The importance of sharing housework in a family.
B. The importance of having children in a family.
C. The role of members in family.
D. The healthy relationships among members in family.
Question 32. Ideally, each child is nurtured, respected, and grows up________?
A. to keep in touch with the people around them.
B. to keep a track of the people around them.
C. to be familiar with the people around them.
D. to be concerned about the people around them.
Question 33. Which of the following is closest in meaning to "siblings" in paragraph 2?
A. brothers & sisters B. husband & wife C. children D. friends
Question 34. What does the word "These" in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. good and bad times B. feelings C. relationships D. high sand
lows
Question 35. According to the passage, which example below is probably NOT TRUE about the
definition of family?
A. wife &husband relationship B. step- father &daughter relationship
C. nanny &baby relationship D. god- mother & god-son relationship

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
There are many theories of aging, but virtually all fall into the category of being hypotheses with a
minimum of supporting evidence. One viewpoint is that aging occurs as the body's organ systems become
less efficient. Thus failures in the immune system, hormonal system, and nervous system could all
produce characteristics that we associate with aging. Following a different vein, many current researchers
are looking for evidence at the cellular and sub cellular level.

3 158
It has been shown that cells such as human fibroblasts (generalized tissue cells) grown in culture divide
only a limited number of times and then die. (Only cancer cells seem immortal in this respect). Fibroblast
cells from an embryo divide more times than those taken from an adult. Thus some researchers believe
that aging occurs at the cellular level and is part of the cell's genetic makeup. Any event that disturbs the
cell's genetic machinery such as mutation, damaging chemicals in the cell's environment, or loss of
genetic material, could cause cells to lose their ability to divide and thus bring on aging. Other theories of
aging look at different processes. Chronological aging refers to the passage of time since birth and is
usually measured in years. While chronological age can be useful in estimating the average status of a
large group of people, it is a poor indicator of an individual person's status because there is a tremendous
amount of variation from one individual to the next in regard to the rate at which biological age changes
occur. For example, on the average, aging results in people losing much of their ability to perform
strenuous activities, yet some elderly individuals are excellent marathon runners.
Another type of aging is cosmetic aging, which consists of changes in outward appearance with
advancing age. This includes changes in the body and changes in other aspects of a person's appearance,
such as the style of hair and clothing, the type of eyeglasses, and the use of a hearing aid. Like
chronological aging, it is frequently used to estimate the degree to which other types of aging have
occurred. However, it is an inaccurate indicator for either purpose because of variation among individuals
and because a person's appearance is affected by many factors that are not part of aging, including illness,
poor nutrition, and exposure to sunlight
Question 36: What is the best title for this passage?
A. Different Processes of Aging
B. Outstanding Characteristics Associated with Aging
C. Theories of Aging: Well Proven Hypotheses
D. Theories of Aging: Poorly Supported Hypotheses
Question 37: The author points out that cancer cells_____________
A. seem to live forever B. divide and then die
C . divide more in embryos than in adults D. lose their ability to divide
Question 38: The phrase “an embryo” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to_____________.
A. a descendant B. an infant C. a parent D. an internal organ
Question 39: The word “strenuous” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to_____________.
A. basic B. troublesome C. mental D. intense
Question 40: According to the passage, chronological aging is not a good indicator of an individual’s
status regarding aging because_____ .
A. elderly people are often athletic
B. there is individual variation in the rate of biological aging
C. strenuous activities are not good measures of age
D. it is difficult to get accurate records of birth dates
Question 41: In the last paragraph, the word “this” refers to________
A. cosmetic aging B. type of aging
C. outward appearance D. advancing age
Question 42. The author implies all of the following about cosmetic aging EXCEPT_____________
A. It does not occur at the same rate for all people
B. It is a poor indicator of chronological age
C. Illness, poor nutrition, and exposure to sunlight cause aging to occur
D. It is described by changes in outward appearance.

4 159
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 43. My brother usually asked me for help when he has difficulty with his homework.
A B C D
Question 44. They are having her house painted by a construction company.
A B C D
Question 45. : I’m becoming increasingly forgetable. Last week I locked myself out of the house twice.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 46: We have been cooking for the party for four hours.
A. We didn’t start cooking for the party until four.
B. We started cooking for the party four hours ago.
C. We have four cooks for the party
D. Cooking for the party will be done in four hours
Question 47: "Don't forget to submit your assignments by Thursday," said the teacher to the students.
A. The teacher reminded the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
B. The teacher allowed the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
C. The teacher ordered the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
D. The teacher encouraged the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
Question 48: I’m sure that they had practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals.
A. They couldn’t have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals
B. They must have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals
C. They shouldn’t have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals
D. They might have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 49: Jenifer rejected the job offer. She now regrets it.
A. Jenifer regrets not having rejected the job offer.
B. If only Jenifer didn’t reject the job offer.
C. Jenifer wishes she hadn’t rejected the job offer.
D. Jenifer regrets to reject the job offer.
Question 50: We couldn't solve the problem until our teacher arrived.
A. Not until we solved the problem could our teacher arrive.
B. When our teacher arrived, we solved the problem.
C. Until our teacher arrived, we were able to solve the problem.
D. Not until our teacher arrived could we solve the problem.
------------------------ THE END ------------------------

5 160
ĐỀ THI THỬ KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2021
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ SỐ 33 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh:…………………………………………………………………………
Số báo danh:....................................................................................................................

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. achieved B. wanted C. required D. replied
Question 2. A. farm B. stayed C. garden D. harm

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. knowledge B. careful C. arrive D. happen
Question 4. A. solidarity B. determination C. organization D. consideration

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5 . Mary hardly ever cooks, ?
A. did she B. didn't she C. does she D. doesn't she
Question 6. The story I’ve just read -------------- Jack London.
A. was written B. was written by C. was written from D. wrote by
Question 7. Hurry or you will be late _______school.
A. for B. at C. on D. from
Question 8. The better the weather is, ______.
A. the most crowded the beaches get B. the most the beaches get crowded
C. the more crowded the beaches get D. the more the beaches get crowded
Question 9. My father gave my brothher _____________yesterday.
A. an old wooden thick table B. a thick old wooden table
C. a thick wooden old table D. a wooden thick old table
Question 10. John _____________a book when I saw him.
A. is reading B. read C. was reading D. reading
Question 11. It is probably impossible for life to ever exist on Venus____________its intense surface
heat.
A. because B. although C. despite D. due to
Question 12. Mary will have finished all her work ____________
A. as soon as her boss returned B. until her boss will return
C. by the time her boss returns D. when her boss will return
Question 13. ………….every major judo title, Mark retired from international competition.
A. When he won B. Having won C. On winning D. Winning
Question 14. We will create a stable, prosperous and highly ____ ASEAN Economic community.
A. compete B. competition C. competitor D. competitive
Question 15. If Bill loses his job, at least they have Mary’s income to _______on.
A. fall behind B. fall for C. fall back D. fall under
Question 16. Action movies may have a negative _________ on children.
A. opinion B. influence C. dependence D. decision
1 161
Question 17. The United States, China and India are now competing for political influence in ASEAN,
and France, a leading European country, does not want to be ___________.
A. left out B. put off C. thought of D. led on
Question 18. Martin is called the teacher's pet by his classmates because he is taken under his teacher's
_____.
A. hands B. arms C. wings D. legs
Question 19. Parents are always willing to lend a sympathetic ________ to their children when they have
problems.
A. hand B. ear C. eye D. paw

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: There was a long period without rain in the countryside last year so the harvest was poor.
A. famine B. flood C. epidemic D. drought
Question 21: How many countries took part in the last Olympic Games?
A. participated B. performed C. succeeded D. hosted
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions.
Question 22: “That is a well-behaved boy whose behaviour has nothing to complain about.”
A. behaving cleverly B. good behaviour C. behaving nice D. behaving improperly
Question 23: When he passes the entrance exam, his parents will be walking on the air.
A. extremely happy B. feeling extremely unhappy
C. feeling extremely airy D. extremely light

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24: Peter is having dinner at Wendy’s house.
- Peter: "This steamed crab is so delicious."
- Wendy:" ________.''
A. Sure. I’d love to. B. I’m afraid not. C. No, don’t worry D. I’m glad you like it
Question 25: Joana and David, two students, are talking about studying abroad.
- Joana: "I think studying abroad is the only way to get a well-paid job."
- David: “___________. There’re still many different ways to get it."
A. You're exactly right B. I don’t think so
C. That’s what I think D. There’s no doubt about it

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
No one runs the internet. It’s organized as a decentralized network of networks. Thousands of
companies, universities, governments, and other (26) ______ operate their own networks and exchange
traffic with (27) ______ other based on voluntary interconnection agreements.
The shared technical standards (28) ______ make the internet work are managed by an organization
called the Internet Engineering Task Force. The IETF is an open organization; anyone is free to attend
meetings, propose new standards, and recommend changes to existing standards. No one is required to
adopt standards endorsed by the IETF, but the IETF’s consensus-based decision-making process helps to
(29) ______ that its recommendations are generally adopted by the internet community.
The Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers (ICANN) is sometimes described as being
(30) ______ for internet governance. As its name implies, ICANN is in charge of distributing domain
names (like vox.com) and IP addresses. But ICANN doesn’t control who can connect to the internet or
what kind of information can be sent over it.
(Adapted from https://www.vox.com/)
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Question 26: A. entities B. terms C. amounts D. states
Question 27: A. another B. every C. each D. all
Question 28: A. that B. who C. when D. what
Question 29: A. function B. stress C. exchange D. ensure
Question 30: A. Curious B. Responsible C. cheerful D. interested

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Table manners differ around the world. If you visit a friend’s home for a meal, it’s good to know about
the customs they follow.
If you are invited to a Moroccan’s home, bring a gift of sweet pastries, nuts, figs, dates, or flowers to
the hostess. In many traditional homes, people often sit on the floor to eat a meal. Often, everyone shares
food from the same 10 plate. The plate is put in the centre of the table. Usually, everyone also drinks
water from the same glass. Only eat the food in front of you. Don’t reach across someone for food. It is
common to use you your fingers and small pieces of bread to eat food. Use only your right hand to eat.
Don’t say “no” to food. If the host of the meal offers you food or drink, take some and try a little. In
many Moroccan homes, it is common to take off your shoes.
Tanzania is known for its fresh fish and spices. Don’t act scared if your meal comes with its head still
on the plate. It is polite to try a bite of everything. In many Tanzania homes, people sit at a table on a
small stools to eat. It is OK to eat with your right hand, using bread or chapati to pick up food. Everyone
may take food from the same plate., but it is not usual for people to share drinks. You may compliment
the cook on a delicious meal, but don’t exaggerate. In some parts of Tanzania, men and women still sit at
different tables. Also remember: it is common to take off your shoes in the home, but it is rude to show
the bottom of your foot.
(Adopted from Active Skills for Reading Intro by Neil J Anderson)
Question 31. Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Table Manners across some cultures in the world.
B. Tips for foreigners when having meal in Tanzania
C. Table Manners in Morocco, Things to do for everyone
D. Table Manners - Ultimate Guide to Dining Etiquette
Question 32. According to the passage, why does the writer think it is good to know about customs in
other countries?
A. You can know how to eat healthily. B. You can act in a proper way.
C. You can order food in a restaurant. D. You can learn the language.
Question 33. The word "offers" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. exchanges B. attends C. receives D. provides
Question 34. The word "they" in paragraph 1 refers to ________.
A. customs B. manners C. meals D. friends
Question 35. According to paragraph 3, which of the following should NOT do in Tanzania?
A. eat with your hands B. take food from the same plate
C. show the bottom of your foot D. take off your shoes

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Nepal has made important progress over the past few years to promote equality, but the country still has
one of the highest rates of child marriage in the world. 41% of Nepalese girls are married before the age
of 18.

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Poverty is both a cause and consequence of child marriage in Nepal. Girls from the wealthiest families
marry 2 years later than those from the poorest, who are seen as an economic burden, and who drop out
of school and earn little money.
Food insecurity plays an important role too. Nepalese families that do not have enough food to eat are
more likely to marry their daughters at a young age to decrease the financial burden. One study shows
that 91% of people who had secure access to food married over the age of 19.
Dowry is also common practice in many communities. Parents marry their daughters as soon as possible
because the money they have to pay to the groom’s family is higher if their daughter is older. Since 2010,
the legal age of marriage is 20 for both men and women, or 18 with parental consent, according to the
Nepalese Country Code.
The law states that punishment for child marriage is imprisonment for up to three years and a fine of up
to 10,000 rupees (£102). But reports suggest that this law is rarely applied. There has been quite a lot of
progress in Nepal over the past 3 years with a clear government commitment to ending child marriage and
civil society cooperation. The Ministry of Women, Children and Social Welfare is currently developing
Nepal’s first national strategy on child marriage in collaboration with UNICEF Nepal and Girls Not
Brides Nepal. However, the post-earthquake and post-fuel crisis environment has meant progress is slow
and the national strategy has been delayed.
(Adapted from http://www.girlsnotbrides.org/)
Question 36: Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Nepal Government in an attempt to reduce social inequality.
B. Child marriage - A completely tractable problem in Nepal.
C. Nepal’s strategies to child protection programming.
D. One type of child abuse in Nepal: Child Marriage.
Question 37: According to paragraph 2, in Nepal, girls from needy families ________.
A. play an important role in bolstering their household finances
B. have to get married earlier than those are from affluent families
C. can get married two years later than those are from poor families
D. are forced to drop out of school because their parents have no money
Question 38: The word "those" in paragraph 2 refers to ________.
A. girls B. families C. years D. rates
Question 39: The word "burden” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. issue B. potency C. load D. cargo
Question 40: According to the last paragraph, how many years will a rule-breaker spend in jail?
A. exactly three years B. over three years C. from one to three years D. about two
years
Question 41The word "imprisonment” in the last paragraph could be best replaced by _________.
A. detention B. custody C. salvation D. emblem
Question 42. It can be inferred from the passage _________.
A. The government is not doing much to put an end to child marriage
B. Nepal had the highest overall prevalence of child marriage in the world
C. Families want to marry their daughters soon to earn money
D. The recent earthquake was negative for the eradication of child marriage

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 43. Caroline has worn her new yellow dress only once since she buys it.
A B C D

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Question 44. The puppy stood up slowly, wagged their tail, blinked its eyes, and barked.
A B C D
Question 45. : Many successful film directions are former actors who desire to expand their experience
in the
A B C D
film industry.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 46: She began to play the piano three years ago.
A. She has played the piano since three years.
B. She has played the piano for three years
C. She doesn’t play the piano now.
D. She stops playing the piano now.
Question 47: "Don't forget to submit your assignments by Thursday," said the teacher to the students.
A. The teacher reminded the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
B. The teacher allowed the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
C. The teacher ordered the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
D. The teacher encouraged the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
Question 48: It’s very likely that the company will accept his application.
A. The company needs accept his application.
B. The company might accept his application.
C. The company must accept his application.
D. The company should accept his application.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 49: Susan didn’t apply for the job in the library. She regrets it now.
A. Susan wishes she had applied for the job in the library.
B. If only Susan applied for the job in the library.
C. Susan regrets applying for the job in the library.
D. Susan regrets to apply for the job in the library.
Question 50: Hans told us about his investment in the company. He did it on his arrival at the meeting.
A. Hardly had he informed us about his investment in the company when Hans arrived at the meeting.
B. Only after investing in the company did Hans informs us of his arrival at the meeting.
C. No sooner had Hans arrived at the meeting than he told us about his investment in the company.
D. Not until Hans told us that he would invest in the company did he arrive at the meeting.
------------------------ THE END ------------------------

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ĐỀ THI THỬ KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2021
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ SỐ 34 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh:…………………………………………………………………………
Số báo danh:....................................................................................................................

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from
Question 1. A. performed B. finished C. interviewed D. delivered
Question 2. A. tangle B. dangerous C. battle D. calculate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. attract B. marry C. demand D. connect
Question 4. A. arrangement B. temperature C. victory D. envelope
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. Surely David’s not going to drive,........................he?
A. does B. is C. isn’t D. will
Question 6. The robbers ————————- by the police for an hour.
A. have arrested B. have been arrested C. was arrested D. had arrested
Question 7. Britain has accused Russia poisoning the ex-Russian spy Sergei Skripal
and his daughter.
A. of B. from C. for D. on
Question 8. The larger the area of forest is destroyed,
A. the most frequent natural disasters are B. the most frequently natural disasters occur
C. the more frequent are natural disasters D. the more frequently natural disasters occur
Question 9 . Jack has a collection of .
A. old valuable Japanese postage stamps B. old Japanese valuable postage stamps
C. valuable Japanese old postage stamps D. valuable old Japanese postage stamps
Question 10: When I came yesterday, they___________ dinner.
A. were having B. were having C. have had D. are having
Question 11. His visit to Korea was delayed _______ his illness.
A. because B. because of C. in spite of D. although
Question 12. 7.We will have prepared everything ______
A. as soon as the meeting will begin B. by the time the meeting begins
C. as long as the meeting would begin D. after the meeting began
Question 13. ___________the Nobel Prize, he retired from politics.
A. Received B. Having received C. Being received D. Receive
Question 14. Many astronomers never get back to the Earth because of___________accidents.
A. tragedy B. tragic C. tragically D. tragedie
Question 15. I applied for the job but was___________.
A. taken away B. got over C. turned down D. turned off
Question 16. The newspaper article which includes a gruesome description of the murder
has___________a lot of attention from the public.
A. paid B. confined C. drawn D. attracted
Question 17.The cinema is no longer as popular as it was in the 1930 s and 1940’s, but it is still an
important___________of entertainment.
A. status B. source C. origin D. prospect
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Question 18. Last year, the company went___________up after the one of its senior executives offered
his resignation.
A. straight B. belly C. stomach D. cloud
Question 19. It to reason that Jason passed the exam with flying colours on account of
his working hard during the term.
A. lays. B. comes. C. gets. D. stands.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. After I had deleted several details in the report, I found out that they contained necessary
information.
A. ignored B. described C. erased D. included
Question 21. I just want to stay at home to watch TV and take it easy.
A. sleep B. sit down C. eat D. relax
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. She decided to remain celibate and devote her life to helping the homeless and orphans
A. divorced B. separated C. single D. married
Question 23. We were all in a good mood because the weather was good and we were going on holiday
the next day.
A. relaxed and comfortable B. at ease and refreshed
C. happy and disappointed D. sad and impatient
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of
the following exchanges
Question 24. Jenny and Jimmy are talking about university education.
Jenny: “I think having a university degree is the only way to succeed in life.”
Jimmy: “ . There were successful people without a degree.”
A. That’s all right. B. I don’t quite agree. C. I can’t agree more. D. That’s life.
Question 25. Adam and Janet are at the school canteen.
Adam: “ ”
Janet: “Yes, please.”
A. It’s a bit hot in here, isn’t it? B. Do you mind if I sit here?
C. Can you pass me the salt, please? D. Would you like a cup of coffee?

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase
that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Sir Isaac Newton, the English scientist and mathematician, was one of the most important figures of
the 17th century scientific revolution. One of his greatest achievement was the discovery of the three laws
of motion, (26) ______ are still used today. But he also had a very unusual personality. Some people
would say he was actually insane.
His father died before he was born, and his mother soon remarried. The young Isaac hated his
stepfather so much that he once (27) _____ to burn his house down - when his stepfather and mother were
still inside! Fortunately he did not, and he went on to graduate from Cambridge without being thrown into
prison.
Isaac's first published work was a theory of light and color. When another scientist wrote a paper
criticizing this theory, Isaac flew into an uncontrollable rage. The scientist (28) ______ for the criticism
was a man called Robert Hooke. He was head of the Royal Society, and one of the most respected
scientists in the country. (29)_______, this made no difference to Isaac, who refused to speak to him for
over a year.

2 167
The simple fact was that Isaac found it impossible to have a calm discussion with anyone. As soon as
someone said something that he disagreed with, he would lose his temper. For this reason he lived a large
part of his life isolated from (30) ______ scientists. It is unlikely that many of them complained.
(Source: https://www.biography.com/scientist/isaac-newton)
Câu 26. A. which B. who C. that D. they
Câu 27. A. shouted B. frightened C. threatened D. warned
Câu 28. A. responsible B. reasonable C. guilty D. attributable
Câu 29. A. Although B. However C. Despite D. What is more
Câu 30. A. another B. others C. one D. other

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Just as you designate and separate your physical workspace, you should be clear about when you’re
working and when you’re not. You’ll get your best work done and be most ready to transition back to the
office if you stick with your regular hours. Plus, if your role is collaborative, being on the same schedule
as your coworkers makes everything much easier.
“The biggest difference between working from home and working in the office is that you are in
charge of your environment and have to treat yourself like an employee,” Yurovsky says. This means
holding yourself accountable, but also recognizing when enough is enough, just as a good manager
might. “If you feel yourself extending your work hours because you are not doing anything in the
evening...tell yourself it’s time to put work away, recharge, and start tomorrow with a fresh mind. The
work will be there in the morning.”
If you live with other people, this separation is even more critical. Communicate with the people
whom you live with to establish boundaries so you can cut down on distractions during the workday—
and then disconnect and give the people you care about your full attention. Having a separate time and
space to work will allow you to be more present in your home life.
(Adapted from https://www.themuse.com/)
Question 31: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Get Your Best Work Done
B. Co-workers Makes Everything Easier
C. Put off Your Work until Tomorrow Morning
D. Keep Clearly Defined Working Hours
Question 32: The word “accountable” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. colourful B. responsible C. proficient D. exclusive
Question 33: According to paragraph 1, if you work on the same schedule as your co-workers, your work
may be ______.
A. easier B. more regular C. readier D. more
collaborative
Question 34: What is the useful advice for those who work from home at night?
A. Try to work more as you are free at night
B. Continue working, you are at home
C. Take a rest and come back tomorrow
D. Finish your work now or it will not be there tomorrow
Question 35: The word “whom” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. separation B. boundaries C. people D. attention

3 168
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Obesity is associated with a shorter lifespan and with an increased risk of many chronic diseases.
The good news is that just being somewhat overweight does not reduce your longevity, and for those over
the age of 65, it is actually better to be on the high side of normal than the low side.
A 2018 study (part of the Framingham heart study) looked at body mass index and mortality over a
period of 24 years. For those who were obese, people that had a body mass index of 30 to 35 had a 27%
increase in mortality, and those who had a body mass index of 35 to 40 had a 93% increase.
What weight is ideal? Among those who were overweight but not obese (had a body mass index
between 25 and 30), mortality was only increased among those who also smoked. People with a body
mass index on the high side of normal (e.g. 24) had the lowest mortality.
There isn't any real magic when it comes to maintaining (or getting to) a normal body mass index.
Eating a healthy diet, not too much and avoiding empty calorie, and exercising daily, even if it's fun
activities such as gardening, are the true "secret."
In the past, eating breakfast was stressed as necessary for optimal health. Research is now changing
that thought, and intermittent fasting (going for 13 or more hours each day without eating) may have
some benefits. Though the concept and research to back it up are young, intermittent fasting may help
with weight loss and appears to have benefits in cancer risk reduction as well.
If you are struggling, talk with your doctor. But keep in mind that fad diets do not work, and your
greatest chance of success lies in adopting long-term healthy eating patterns and engaging in regular
physical activity for life.
(Adapted from https://www.verywellhealth.com/)
Question 36: Which of the following best serves as the title for the article?
A. Knowledge of Obesity B. Body Mass Index and Mortality
C. Is your breakfast really important? D. Maintaining a Healthy Body Weight
Question 37: The word “that” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. people B. obese C. mortality D. study
Question 38: What is the increase in mortality for those who have a body mass index of 30 to 35?
A. 27% B. 30% C. 40% D. 93%
Question 39: If your body mass index is on the high side of normal, you have ______.
A. the same mortality B. the highest mortality
C. unidentified mortality D. the lowest mortality
Question 40: The word “maintaining” in paragraph 4 most probably means ______.
A. complaining B. distributing C. preserving D. involving
Question 41: The word “optimal” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. glamorous B. superlative C. motivated D. envious
Question 42: Which of the following is inferred according to the article?
A. Being somewhat overweight does reduce your longevity.
B. Among those who were overweight, smoking increases mortality.
C. Eating a healthy diet does not mean avoiding empty calorie.
D. Greatest chance of success is fad diets.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: The University of Kentucky has held this prestigious title until 1989, when it
A B
was granted to the University of Georgia
C D

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Question 44: Charities such as Oxfam are always trying to recruit volunteers to help in its work.
A B C D
Question 45: My mother couldn't bare waste - she always made us eat everything on our plates
A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions
Question 46: Jane rang hours and hours ago.
A. It’s hours before Jane rang. B. It’s hours after Jane rang.
C. It’s hours since Jane rang. D. It’s hours when Jane rang
Question 47: My friend told me, "If I were you, I would not ask him for help."
A. My friend advised me not to ask him for help.
B. My friend told me to ask him for help.
C. My friend prohibited me from asking him for help.
D. My friend suggested not asking him for help.
Question 48: There is no need for you to redecorate your room.
A. You needn’t redecorate your room
B. You didn’t have to redecorate your room.
C. You didn’t need to redecorate your room.
D. You mustn’t redecorate your room.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 49: I did not see Susan off at the airport. I feel bad about it now.
A. I could have seen Susan off at the airport.
B. If only I had seen Susan off at the airport.
C. That I did not see Susan off at the airport escapes me now.
D. It suddenly dawns on me that I should have seen Susan off at the airport.
Question 50: Hans told us about his investing in the company. He did it on his arrival at the meeting.
A. Only after investing in the company did Hans inform us of his arrival at the meeting.
B. Not until Hans told us that he would invest in the company did he arrive at the meeting.
C. Hardly had he informed us about his investing in the company when Hans arrived at the meeting.
D. No sooner had Hans arrived at the meeting than he told us about his investing in the company.
------------------------ THE END ------------------------

5 170
ĐỀ THI THỬ KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2021
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ SỐ 35 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh:…………………………………………………………………………
Số báo danh:....................................................................................................................

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. land B. sandy C. many D. candy
Question 2. A. compete B. intend C. medal D. defend
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. relax B. wonder C. problem D. special
Question 4. A. reflection B. division C. industry D. remember
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. I think everyone wants to make friends with John. He is___________honest person.
A. a B. an C. the D. no article
Question 6. He___________only three letters to his parents since he joined the army.
A. has written B. wrote C. would write D. had written
Question 7. Jimmy’s low examination scores kept him from___________to the university
A. to admit B. to be admitted C. admitting D. being admitted
Question 8. The company is believed___________a lot of money last year.
A. to lose B. lost C. to have lost D. to be losing
Question 9. When___________as the new manager of the company, Mr. Smith knew he had a lot of
things to do.
A. appointing B. appointed C. appoint D. have appointed
Question 10: ___________his poor English, he managed to communicate his problem very clearly.
A. Because B. Even though C. Because of D. In spite of
Question 11. If I___________a wallet in the street, I’d take it to the police.
A. find B. found C. will find D. would find
Question 12. I assume that you are acquainted___________this subject since you are responsible
writing the accompanying materials.
A. to/for B. with/for C. to/to D. with/with
Question 13. The song has___________been selected for the 2018 World Cup, Russia.
A. office B. officer C. officially D. official
Question 14. Elephants___________the ecosystems they live in, and make it possible for a lot of other
species to survive in those environments as well.
A. obtain B. remain C. maintain D. attain
Question 15. After the fire, the government pledged to implement a program of___________all over
the devastated national park.
A. reforestation B. rebuilding C. replenishment D. reconstruction
Question 16. He was given a medal in___________of his service to the country.
A. gratitude B. recognition C. knowledge D. response
Question 17. I'm going on business for a week, sp I'll be leaving everything___________.
A. on your guards B. up to your eyes

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C. in your capable hands D. in the care of you
Question 18. Archaeologists think that massive floods could have___________the dinosaurs.
A. wiped out B. laid off C. put aside D. taken down.
Mark A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 19. The assumption that smoking has bad effects on our health have been proved.
A. smoking B. effects C. on D. have been proved.
Question 20. She had so many luggage that there was not enough room in the car for it.
A. so many B. was C. enough room D. it
Question 21. Alike light waves, microwaves may be reflected and concentrated elements.
A. Alike B. waves C. may be D. concentrated
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following sentences.
Question 22. "I didn't break the mobile phone," Lan said.
A. Lan denied breaking the mobile phone.
B. Lan admitted breaking the mobile phone.
C. Lan prevented us from breaking the mobile phone
D. Lan promised to break the mobile phone.
Question 23. The bag was heavy, so we could not take it with us.
A. If the bag was not heavy, we would take it with us.
B. Unless the bag had not been heavy, we would have taken it with us.
C. If had the bag not been heavy, we would have taken it with us.
D. Had the bag not been heavy, we would have taken it with us
Question 24. He was such a wet blanket at the party tonight!
A. He made people at the party wet through.
B. He spoiled other people's pleasure at the party
C. He bought a wet blanket to the party.
D. He was wet through when going home from the party.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 25. He was suspected of stealing credit cards. The police have investigated him for days.
A. He has been investigated for days, suspected to have stolen credit cards.
B. Suspecting to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days.
C. Having suspected of stealing credit cards, he has been investigated for days.
D. Suspected of stealing credit cards, he has been investigated for days.
Question 26. The girl packed the vase in polyester foam. She didn’t want it to get broken in the
post.
A. The girl packed the vase in polyester foam so that it wouldn’t get broken in the post.
B. The girl packed the vase in polyester foam so it didn’t get broken in the post.
C. The girl packed the vase in polyester foam so as it wouldn’t get broken in the post.
D. The girl packed the vase in polyester foam for it didn’t get broken in the post.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 27. David and Cathy are talking about the party next week.
David.: “I’d like to invite you to a party next Sunday.”
Cathy: “___________”
A. Thank you. What time? B. How do you do?
C. You’re entirely welcome. D. I’m glad you like it.

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Question 28. Tom and Marry are meeting at the class reunion.
Tom. "Your hairstyle is terrific, Mary" - Mary. “___________"
A. Thanks. That's a nice compliment B. why do you say so?
C. Sorry, I don't like it D. I think so
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 29. I strongly recommend that you should take out an insurance policy in the house for your
own peace of mind.
A. to stop your sleeping B. to stop your worrying
C. to stop your thinking D. to stop your believing
Question 30. Every year this charity organization takes on volunteers to support the needy and the
poor.
A. dismisses B. creates C. recruits D. interviews
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is OPPOSITE in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 31. I must have a watch since punctuality is imperative in my new job.
A. being on time B. being cheerful C. being efficient D. being late
Question 32. Jose had a hard time comparing the iPhone to the Samsung phone because to him they
were apples and oranges.
A. containing too many technical details B. very similar
C. completely different D. very complicated
Read the following passage and mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
blanks.
Higher education also provides a competitive edge in the career market. We all know that in the
economic times we are living in today, finding jobs is not guaranteed. The number of people
unemployed is still relatively high, and the number of new career (33) ___________ isn’t nearly
enough to put people in jobs they are seeking. As a job seeker, you’re competing with a high number of
experienced workers (34) ___________ have been out of the workforce for a while and are also seeking
work. (35) ___________, when you have a higher education, it generally equips you for better job
security. Generally speaking, employers tend to value those who have completed college than those
who have only completed high school and are more likely to replace that person who hasn’t (36)
___________a higher education. Furthermore, some companies even go so far as to pay your tuition
because they consider an educated (37) ___________to be valuable to their organization. A college
education is an investment that doesn’t just provide you with substantial rewards. It benefits the hiring
company as well.
Question 33. A. responsibilities B. activities C. opportunities D. possibilities
Question 34. A. who B. where C. whose D. which
Question 35. A. Otherwise B. Moreover C. Therefore D. However
Question 36. A. permitted B. refused C. applied D. received
Question 37. A. employment B. employer C. employee D. unemployed
Read the following passage and choose A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions from 38 to 42.
In this era of increased global warming and diminishing fossil fuel supplies, we must begin to put a
greater priority on harnessing alternative energy sources. Fortunately, there are a number of readily
available, renewable resources that are both cost- effective and earth - friendly. Two such resources are
solar power and geothermal power.

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Solar energy, which reaches the earth through sunlight, is so abundant that it could meet the needs of
worldwide energy consumption 6,000 times over. And solar energy is easily harnessed through the use
of photovoltaic cells that convert sunlight to electricity. In the us alone, more than 100, 000 homes are
equipped with solar electric systems in the form of solar panels or solar roof tiles. And in other parts of
the world, including many developing countries, the use of solar system is growing steadily.
Another alternative energy source, which is abundant in specific geographical areas, is geothermal
power, which creates energy by tapping heat from below the surface of the earth. Hot water and steam
that are trapped in underground pools are pumped to the surface and used to run a generator, which
produces electricity. Geothermal energy is 50,000 times more abundant than the entire known supply of
fossil fuel resources and as with solar power, the technology needed to utilize geothermal energy is
fairly simple. A prime example of effective geothermal use in Iceland, a region of high geothermal
activity where there are over 80 percent of private homes, are heated by geothermal power.
Solar and geothermal energy are just two of promising renewable alternatives to conventional energy
sources. The time is long overdue to invest in the development and use of alternative energy on global
scale.
Question 38. what is the main topic of this passage?
A. The benefits of solar and wind power over conventional energy sources.
B. Two types of alternative energy sources that should be further utilized.
C. How energy resources are tapped from nature.
D. Examples of the use of energy sources worldwide.
Question 39. which of the following words could best replace the word “abundant”?
A. a lot B. scarce C. little D. enough
Question 40. The word “it” in the second paragraph refers to_____________
A. solar energy B. the earth C. sunlight D. energy consumption
Question 41. According to the passage, how is solar energy production similar to geothermal
energy production?
A. They both require the use of a generator.
B. They both use heat from the earth’s surface.
C. They both require fairly simple technology.
D. They are both conventional and costly.
Question 42. what best describes the author’s purpose in writing the passage?
A. To warn people about the hazards of fossil fuel use.
B. To convince people of the benefits of developing alternative energy sources.
C. To describe the advantages and disadvantages of alternative energy use.
D. To outline the problems and solutions connected with global warming.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions from 43 to 50.
According to sociologists, there are several different ways in which a person may become recognized as
the leader of a social group in the United States. In the family, traditional cultural patterns confer
leadership on one or both of the parents. In other cases, such as friendship groups, one or more persons
may gradually emerge as leaders, although there is no formal process of selection. In larger groups,
leaders are usually chosen formally through election or recruitment.
Although leaders are often thought to be people with unusual personal ability, decades of research have
failed to produce consistent evidence that there is any category of “natural leaders.” It seems that there
is no set of personal qualities that all leaders have in common; rather, virtually any person may be
recognized as a leader if the person has qualities that meet the needs of that particular group.

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Furthermore, although it is commonly supposed that social groups have a single leader, research
suggests that there are typically two different leadership roles that are held by different individuals.
Instrumental leadership is leadership that emphasizes the completion of tasks by a social group. Group
members look to instrumental leaders to “get things” done. Expressive leadership, on the other hand, is
leadership that emphasizes the collective well¬being of a social group’s member. Expressive leader are
less concerned with the overall goals of the group than with providing emotional support to group
members and attempting to minimize tension and conflict among them. Group members expect
expressive leaders to maintain stable relationships within the group and provide support to individual
members. Instrumental leaders are likely to have a rather secondary relationship to other group
members. They give orders and may discipline group members who inhibit attainment of the groups
goals. Expressive leaders cultivate a more personal or primary relationship to others in the group. They
offer sympathy when someone experiences difficulties or is subjected to discipline, are quick to lighten
a serious moment with humor, and try to resolve issues that threaten to divide the group. As the
differences in these two roles suggest, expressive leaders generally receive more personal affection
from group members; instrumental leaders, if they are successful in promoting group goals, may enjoy
a more distant respect.
Question 43. what does the passage mainly discuss?
A. How leadership differs in small and large groups
B. The role of leaders in social groups
C. The problems faced by leaders
D. How social groups determine who will lead them
Question 44. The passage mentions all of the following ways by which people can become leaders
EXCEPT___________
A. recruitment B. specific leadership training
C. traditional cultural patterns D. formal election process
Question 45. which of the following statements about leadership can be inferred from paragraph 2?
A. person can best learn how to be an effective leader by studying research on leadership.
B. Most people desire to be leaders but can produce little evidence of their qualifications.
C. A person who is an effective leader of a particular group may not be an effective leader in another
group.
D. Few people succeed in sharing a leadership role with another person.
Question 46. The passage indicates that instrumental leaders generally focus on___________
A. sharing responsibility with group members
B. achieving a goal
C. ensuring harmonious relationships
D. identifying new leaders
Question 47. The word “collective” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to___________
A. necessary B. group C. particular D. typical
Question 48. It can be understood that___________
A. There is lots of tension and conflict in an election of a leader in the family.
B. There is usually an election to choose leaders in a family as well as in larger groups.
C. It has been said that there must be a set of personal qualities that all leaders have in common.
D. Leaders are sometimes chosen formally or informally.
Question 49. The word “resolve” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to___________
A. talk about B. find a solution for
C. avoid repeating D. avoid thinking about
Question 50. Paragraphs 3 and 4 organize the discussion of leadership primarily in terms
of___________
A. examples that illustrate a problem B. narration of events
C. comparison and contrast D. cause and effect analysis
------------------------ THE END ------------------------

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BẢNG ĐÁP ÁN 35 ĐỀ TIẾNG ANHCHUẨN CẤU TRÚC ĐỀ MINH HỌA NĂM 2021

BẢNG ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 1
1.B 2.A 3.D 4.A 5.D 6.B 7.A 8.B 9.A 10.A
11.D 12.A 13.A 14.A 15.C 16.A 17.A 18.B 19.A 20.B
21.A 22.A 23.A 24.A 25.B 26.B 27.A 28.B 29.C 30.C
31.D 32.A 33.D 34.D 35.B 36.A 37.B 38.A 39.C 40.A
41.B 42.C 43.A 44.C 45.A 46.A 47.A 48.D 49.B 50.C

BẢNG ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 2
1-C 2-B 3-C 4-D 5-D 6-B 7-C 8-C 9-B 10-D
11-A 12-B 13-C 14-C 15-B 16-A 17-D 18-A 19-B 20-B
21-B 22-C 23-A 24-D 25-B 26-A 27-D 28-C 29-A 30-B
31-B 32-D 33-B 34-A 35-B 36-D 37-C 38-B 39-A 40-B
41-D 42-D 43-B 44-B 45-D 46-A 47-C 48-A 49-D 50-B

BẢNG ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 3
1-D 2-C 3-A 4-A 5-D 6-B 7-B 8-B 9-D 10-B
11-C 12-A 13-D 14-B 15-D 16-B 17-D 18-D 19-A 20-A
21-C 22-D 23-D 24-C 25-C 26-B 27-A 28-D 29-B 30-D
31-A 32-C 33-D 34-C 35-B 36-D 37-D 38-B 39-B 40-A
41-A 42-B 43-C 44-A 45-C 46-B 47-A 48-B 49-B 50-A

BẢNG ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 4
1-B 2-B 3-B 4-C 5-C 6-C 7-C 8-C 9-C 10-C
11-A 12-A 13-D 14-C 15-D 16-D 17-C 18-A 19-D 20-A
21-D 22-B 23-C 24-B 25-C 26-D 27-A 28-C 29-B 30-A
31-B 32-A 33-D 34-B 35-B 36-B 37-A 38-A 39-C 40-D
41-A 42-B 43-C 44-C 45-C 46-D 47-B 48-B 49-C 50-C

BẢNG ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 5
1-A 2-D 3-A 4-A 5-C 6-B 7-B 8-C 9-D 10-B
11-A 12-A 13-D 14-A 15-B 16-A 17-B 18-D 19-A 20-A
21-A 22-A 23-B 24-A 25-D 26-A 27-C 28-A 29-D 30-B
31-A 32-B 33-B 34-B 35-A 36-D 37-A 38-B 39-D 40-B
41-A 42-C 43-C 44-D 45-B 46-B 47-D 48-B 49-B 50-D

BẢNG ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 6
1-B 2-C 3-B 4-C 5-B 6-D 7-A 8-D 9-D 10-A
11-B 12-A 13-B 14-B 15-D 16-A 17-A 18-D 19-A 20-C
21-D 22-B 23-D 24-B 25-A 26-A 27-B 28-C 29-D 30-B
31-B 32-A 33-B 34-C 35-B 36-C 37-B 38-C 39-D 40-A
41-D 42-B 43-A 44-B 45-B 46-B 47-A 48-B 49-C 50-D

BẢNG ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 7
1-D 2-B 3-C 4-C 5-D 6-C 7-B 8-A 9-A 10-C
11-D 12-B 13-B 14-B 15-A 16-B 17-A 18-A 19-A 20-B
21-A 22-D 23-C 24-B 25-B 26-B 27-D 28-A 29-D 30-C
31-D 32-D 33-A 34-D 35-B 36-B 37-A 38-B 39-A 40-B
41-B 42-A 43-D 44-B 45-B 46-A 47-C 48-B 49-C 50-B

1 176
BẢNG ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 8

1-A 2-D 3-D 4-A 5-D 6-B 7-A 8-B 9-C 10-D
11-B 12-A 13-C 14-A 15-C 16-C 17-B 18-A 19-C 20-A
21-D 22-B 23-C 24-D 25-D 26-D 27-A 28-C 29-A 30-B
31-C 32-A 33-D 34-B 35-D 36-B 37-C 38-D 39-D 40-A
41-D 42-D 43-B 44-B 45-A 46-B 47-C 48-A 49-C 50-C

BẢNG ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 9

1-C 2-C 3-B 4-C 5-C 6-B 7-B 8-D 9-D 10-C
11-B 12-A 13-B 14-C 15-A 16-B 17-B 18-A 19-A 20-D
21-C 22-C 23-A 24-D 25-A 26-B 27-A 28-D 29-C 30-A
31-D 32-A 33-A 34-B 35-C 36-D 37-A 38-C 39-B 40-B
41-A 42-D 43-A 44-B 45-B 46-B 47-A 48-B 49-C 50-D

BẢNG ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 10

1-A 2-C 3-A 4-D 5-A 6-D 7-A 8-A 9-A 10-D
11-B 12-A 13-B 14-C 15-A 16-B 17-C 18-D 19-A 20-D
21-A 22-B 23-C 24-A 25-D 26-D 27-A 28-C 29-B 30-D
31-D 32-B 33-A 34-C 35-C 36-B 37-D 38-C 39-A 40-D
41-A 42-C 43-B 44-C 45-C 46-B 47-C 48-D 49-C 50-B

BẢNG ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 11

1-C 2-A 3-C 4-A 5-B 6-A 7-D 8-B 9-D 10-B
11-C 12-B 13-A 14-B 15-D 16-B 17-B 18-C 19-C 20-C
21-D 22-B 23-D 24-B 25-C 26-A 27-B 28-C 29-D 30-B
31-C 32-B 33-D 34-A 35-A 36-C 37-A 38-B 39-A 40-C
41-D 42-B 43-C 44-D 45-A 46-C 47-B 48-B 49-B 50-B

BẢNG ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 12
1-C 2-D 3-C 4-B 5-D 6-C 7-A 8-C 9-A 10-C
11-B 12-D 13-B 14-B 15-B 16-D 17-C 18-A 19-A 20-D
21-D 22-B 23-C 24-B 25-D 26-C 27-B 28-C 29-A 30-D
31-C 32-B 33-A 34-B 35-B 36-C 37-B 38-A 39-B 40-C
41-D 42-A 43-C 44-D 45-A 46-C 47-D 48-C 49-B 50-C

BẢNG ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 13
1-D 2-B 3-D 4-B 5-D 6-B 7-C 8-C 9-B 10-D
11-D 12-B 13-C 14-C 15-B 16-A 17-D 18-A 19-B 20-A
21-A 22-A 23-B 24-A 25-D 26-B 27-D 28-D 29-D 30-A
31-B 32-A 33-B 34-C 35-B 36-C 37-B 38-C 39-D 40-A
41-D 42-B 43-C 44-C 45-C 46-A 47-C 48-B 49-C 50-D

BẢNG ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 14
1-D 2-D 3-C 4-B 5-A 6-B 7-B 8-B 9-D 10-B
11-C 12-A 13-D 14-B 15-D 16-B 17-D 18-D 19-A 20-A
21-C 22-D 23-D 24-C 25-C 26-C 27-D 28-A 29-A 30-B
31-C 32-B 33-A 34-C 35-D 36-A 37-B 38-C 39-C 40-B
41-D 42-A 43-A 44-B 45-C 46-B 47-A 48-B 49-C 50-C

2 177
BẢNG ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 15

1-B 2-B 3-B 4-C 5-A 6-C 7-B 8-D 9-B 10-B
11-B 12-A 13-B 14-B 15-C 16-A 17-C 18-D 19-B 20-A
21-C 22-B 23-A 24-C 25-D 26-A 27-C 28-D 29-C 30-B
31-B 32-A 33-B 34-C 35-B 36-C 37-B 38-C 39-D 40-A
41-D 42-B 43-A 44-B 45-B 46-B 47-A 48-B 49-C 50-D

BẢNG ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 16

1-C 2-C 3-C 4-A 5-D 6-C 7-A 8-D 9-D 10-B
11-A 12-B 13-D 14-D 15-A 16-B 17-C 18-A 19-A 20-A
21-D 22-A 23-C 24-D 25-C 26-A 27-C 28-A 29-D 30-C
31-D 32-B 33-C 34-D 35-D 36-A 37-B 38-C 39-D 40-B
41-A 42-D 43-B 44-D 45-B 46-B 47-C 48-D 49-D 50-C

BẢNG ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 17

1-A 2-A 3-C 4-D 5-A 6-C 7-C 8-C 9-C 10-C
11-B 12-D 13-D 14-A 15-B 16-B 17-A 18-D 19-A 20-C
21-D 22-B 23-D 24-A 25-D 26-C 27-C 28-D 29-A 30-B
31-A 32-D 33-C 34-A 35-B 36-A 37-C 38-B 39-A 40-C
41-C 42-C 43-C 44-D 45-B 46-C 47-C 48-A 49-D 50-B

BẢNG ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 18

1-C 2-B 3-A 4-A 5-C 6-D 7-B 8-D 9-D 10-A
11-B 12-A 13-D 14-A 15-B 16-B 17-D 18-D 19-A 20-A
21-A 22-C 23-C 24-B 25-A 26-A 27-C 28-A 29-D 30-B
31-D 32-D 33-A 34-B 35-C 36-D 37-A 38-B 39-D 40-B
41-A 42-C 43-A 44-B 45-B 46-B 47-A 48-B 49-C 50-D

BẢNG ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 19
1-C 2-C 3-C 4-A 5-D 6-C 7-A 8-D 9-D 10-B
11-A 12-B 13-D 14-D 15-A 16-B 17-C 18-A 19-A 20-A
21-D 22-A 23-C 24-D 25-C 26-A 27-C 28-A 29-D 30-C
31-D 32-B 33-C 34-D 35-D 36-A 37-B 38-C 39-D 40-B
41-A 42-D 43-B 44-D 45-B 46-B 47-C 48-D 49-D 50-C

BẢNG ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 20
1-B 2-A 3-D 4-A 5-C 6-A 7-C 8-C 9-D 10-B
11-B 12-A 13-B 14-D 15-C 16-C 17-B 18-D 19-D 20-D
21-A 22-B 23-C 24-A 25-D 26-B 27-D 28-A 29-D 30-C
31-C 32-B 33-A 34-D 35-A 36-A 37-D 38-C 39-D 40-A
41-B 42-C 43-A 44-C 45-B 46-D 47-C 48-B 49-D 50-D

BẢNG ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 21
1-C 2-D 3-D 4-D 5-A 6-B 7-B 8-D 9-B 10-B
11-A 12-D 13-A 14-B 15-B 16-D 17-C 18-A 19-C 20-A
21-B 22-A 23-B 24-C 25-D 26-D 27-A 28-C 29-B 30-D
31-A 32-B 33-C 34-D 35-D 36-B 37-A 38-D 39-D 40-A
41-C 42-B 43-B 44-D 45-A 46-B 47-A 48-A 49-C 50-C

3 178
BẢNG ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 22

1-C 2-B 3-C 4-D 5-A 6-A 7-A 8-B 9-D 10-C
11-C 12-C 13-A 14-C 15-B 16-C 17-C 18-A 19-D 20-B
21-D 22-D 23-A 24-C 25-A 26-C 27-D 28-A 29-B 30-A
31-C 32-C 33-B 34-A 35-D 36-A 37-A 38-A 39-D 40-C
41-D 42-C 43-A 44-D 45-B 46-A 47-D 48-A 49-C 50-A

BẢNG ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 23

1-B 2-D 3-B 4-A 5-D 6-B 7-B 8-C 9-D 10-C
11-D 12-A 13-C 14-C 15-B 16-A 17-B 18-B 19-A 20-B
21-C 22-B 23-D 24-C 25-D 26-A 27-B 28-C 29-A 30-A
31-A 32-D 33-C 34-B 35-C 36-A 37-D 38-B 39-A 40-B
41-B 42-B 43-A 44-D 45-B 46-B 47-C 48-C 49-B 50-A

BẢNG ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 24
1. B 6. B 11. A 16. D 21. B 26. B 31. C 36. A 41. A 46. D
2. A 7. C 12. A 17. B 22. B 27. A 32. A 37. C 42. C 47. B
3. B 8. C 13. D 18. D 23. C 28. C 33. B 38. C 43. C 48. A
4. C 9. D 14. C 19. B 24. B 29. D 34. A 39.B 44. D 49. C
5. A 10. A 15. B 20. C 25. B 30 A 35. A 40. D 45. A 50. A

BẢNG ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 25
1-C 2-C 3-C 4-A 5-D 6-C 7-A 8-D 9-D 10-B
11-A 12-B 13-D 14-D 15-A 16-B 17-C 18-A 19-A 20-A
21-D 22-A 23-C 24-D 25-C 26-A 27-C 28-A 29-D 30-C
31-D 32-B 33-C 34-D 35-D 36-A 37-B 38-C 39-D 40-B
41-A 42-D 43-B 44-D 45-B 46-B 47-C 48-D 49-D 50-C

BẢNG ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 26

1. C 6. A 11. B 16. C 21. C 26. B 31. A 36. A 41. D 46. B


2. D 7. D 12. B 17. B 22. A 27. B 32. D 37. C 42. A 47. C
3. A 8. D 13. D 18. B 23. B 28. A 33. C 38. A 43. D 48. C
4. D 9. C 14. A 19. D 24. D 29. B 34. B 39. C 44. C 49. B
5. C 10. C 15. B 20. C 25. A 30. C 35. D 40. C 45. B 50. D

BẢNG ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 27

1. A 6. D 11. A 16. A 21. C 26. C 31. A 36. A 41. D 46. B


2. B 7. D 12. A 17. B 22. B 27. A 32. B 37. B 42. A 47. A
3. C 8. D 13. B 18. B 23. A 28. D 33. B 38. C 43. A 48. B
4. B 9. D 14. D 19. A 24. B 29. C 34. C 39. D 44. A 49. C
5. A 10. B 15. D 20. C 25. D 30. B 35. B 40. C 45. D 50. C

BẢNG ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 28
1. B 6. C 11. B 16. A 21. B 26. C 31. A 36. B 41. C 46. B
2. A 7. C 12. B 17. C 22. A 27. A 32. D 37. A 42. C 47. C
3. A 8. A 13. A 18. D 23. B 28. A 33. A 38. B 43. A 48. C
4. B 9. C 14. C 19. B 24. B 29. C 34. B 39. D 44. D 49. A
5. C 10. A 15. A 20. D 25. C 30. D 35. C 40. A 45. D 50. C

4 179
BẢNG ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 29

1. D 6. C 11. A 16. B 21. C 26. C 31. A 36. D 41. A 46. C


2. D 7. D 12. D 17. A 22. A 27. C 32. D 37. A 42. B 47. A
3. A 8. C 13. D 18. A 23. A 28. D 33. C 38. A 43. A 48. B
4. C 9. B 14. A 19. B 24. A 29. A 34. B 39. D 44. B 49. A
5. A 10. A 15. A 20. B 25. C 30. B 35. C 40. A 45. B 50. D

BẢNG ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 30

1. C 6. B 11. C 16. A 21. B 26. B 31. C 36. B 41. A 46. C


2. B 7. A 12. B 17. D 22. B 27. A 32. B 37. D 42. C 47. C
3. C 8. D 13. B 18. A 23. B 28. C 33. B 38. A 43. C 48. C
4. B 9. D 14. C 19. A 24. C 29. B 34. A 39. C 44. D 49. B
5. A 10. D 15. D 20. C 25. D 30. B 35. D 40. D 45. A 50. A

BẢNG ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 31

1. B 6. D 11. C 16. A 21. D 26. D 31.A 36. A 41. B 46. D


2. A 7. A 12. B 17. D 22. C 27.B 32. D 37. D 42. A 47. B
3. A 8. D 13. B 18. D 23. A 28. B 33. C 38. D 43. A 48. C
4. C 9. D 14. A 19. C 24. C 29. B 34. B 39. D 44. B 49. B
5. C 10. C 15. D 20. D 25. D 30. A 35. D 40. A 45. B 50. B

BẢNG ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 32
1-C 2-B 3-A 4-A 5-C 6-D 7-B 8-D 9-D 10-A
11-B 12-A 13-D 14-A 15-B 16-B 17-D 18-D 19-A 20-A
21-A 22-C 23-C 24-B 25-A 26-A 27-C 28-A 29-D 30-B
31-D 32-D 33-A 34-B 35-C 36-D 37-A 38-B 39-D 40-B
41-A 42-C 43-A 44-B 45-B 46-B 47-A 48-B 49-C 50-D

BẢNG ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 33
1-B 2-B 3-C 4-A 5-B 6-B 7-A 8-C 9-B 10-C
11-D 12-C 13-B 14-D 15-C 16-B 17-A 18-C 19-B 20-D
21-A 22-D 23-B 24-D 25-B 26-A 27-C 28-A 29-D 30-B
31-A 32-B 33-D 34-D 35-C 36-D 37-B 38-A 39-C 40-C
41-A 42-D 43-D 44-B 45-B 46-C 47-A 48-B 49-A 50-C

BẢNG ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 34
1-B 2-B 3-B 4-A 5-B 6-B 7-A 8-D 9-A 10-B
11-B 12-B 13-B 14-B 15-C 16-D 17-B 18-B 19-D 20-C
21-D 22-D 23-D 24-B 25-D 26-A 27-C 28-A 29-B 30-D
31-D 32-B 33-A 34-C 35-C 36- 37- 38- 39- 40-
41- 42- 43-A 44-D 45-A 46-C 47-A 48-A 49-B 50-D

BẢNG ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 35
1-C 2-A 3-A 4-C 5-B 6-A 7-D 8-C 9-B 10-D
11-B 12-B 13-C 14-C 15-A 16-B 17-C 18-A 19-D 20-A
21-A 22-A 23-D 24-B 25-D 26-A 27-A 28-A 29-B 30-C
31-D 32-B 33-C 34-A 35-D 36-D 37-C 38-B 39-A 40-A
41-C 42-B 43-B 44-B 45-C 46-B 47-B 48-D 49-B 50-C

5 180

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