Professional Documents
Culture Documents
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ, Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 04 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
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Họ, tên thí sinh: ………………………………………. Mã đề thi 401
Số báo danh: ……………………………………….
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. alive B. careful C. happy D. nervous
Question 2: A. customer B. festival C. suggestion D. capital
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. clap B. take C. face D. save
Question 4: A. wanted B. cried C. seemed D. rained
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 5: Tuan is late for the class meeting.
- Tuan: “Sorry I’m late, Ha.” - Ha: “_______”
A. Good idea. B. Never mind. C. Same to you. D. Thanks a lot.
Question 6: Mai is talking to Hoa about Hoa’s new dress.
- Mai: “You’ve got a nice dress, Hoa.” - Hoa: “_______”
A. Congratulations! B. Thank you. C. Me too. D. No problem.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 7: I like this_______song because it reminds me of my schooldays.
A. beautiful B. beautifully C. beauty D. beautify
Question 8: When the visitor saw with her own eyes the beach covered with tons of plastic rubbish
washed up from around the world, a chill went down her _______.
A. spine B. bone C. mind D. brain
Question 9: _______the book again and again, I finally understood what the author meant.
A. Have been reading B. Have been read C. Have read D. Having read
Question 10: _______, he will go out with his friends.
A. When Tony finished his project B. When Tony finishes his project
C. When Tony had finished his project D. When Tony was finishing his project
Question 11: You should wear _______to keep your hands warm. It’s very cold outside.
A. hats B. gloves C. shoes D. boots
Question 12: My sister and I share the housework. We take turns to_______ the dishes and clean the
house.
A. wash up B. wash over C. wash away D. wash through
Question 13: Her aunt gave her a_______ handbag on her birthday last week.
A. beautiful reel Korean B. red Korean beautiful
C. beautiful Korean red D. Korean red beautiful
Question 14: Jane has been trying to solve this problem all week, but she still hasn’t been able
to_______
A. shatter B. break C. crack D. crash
Question 15: We like to live in the countryside _______ we want to be close to nature.
A. although B. because of C. despite D. because
Question 16: Life here is so good, _______?
A. was it B. has it C. isn’t it D. wasn’t it
Question 17: The students _______ the topic when the bell rang.
A. discuss B. were discussing C. have discussed D. are discussing
Question 18: Don’t worry too much. We all_______ mistakes sometimes.
A. give B. put C. take D. make
Question 19: Nam’s family has been living _______ Ha Noi for twenty years.
----------HẾT----------
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 1: They are going to visit their grandparents_______the afternoon.
A. on B. at C. up D. in
Question 2: When I arrived at her house, she_______ photos in the garden.
A. was taking B. takes C. is taking D. has taken
Question 3: Nam_______a good mark for his speaking test yesterday.
A. has given B. was given C. was giving D. gives
Question 4: _______information you get, the better you will understand the problem.
A. Most B. More C. The more D. Most of
Question 5: Tom is on his_______to his grandparents’ house.
A. road B. path C. track D. way
Question 6: The little girl is happy with her_______doll.
A. pink Japanese new B. new Japanese pink C. new pink Japanese D. Japanese new pink
Question 7: She didn’t do well in the exams_______she was lazy.
A. because of B. because C. despite D. although
Question 8: Lily loves kitchen work. She often helps her mom_______the dishes.
A. wash through B. wash up C. wash over D. wash away
Question 9: Mary was very_______ when moving the mirror into her room.
A. care B. carefulness C. careful D. carefully
Question 10: _______, the garden will look much more beautiful.
A. When spring had come B. When spring was coming
C. When spring came D. When spring comes
Question 11: When the tourist saw with his own eyes the beach covered with a mountain of plastic rubbish
washed up from around the world, a chill went down his_______.
A. mind B. spine C. brain D. bone
Question 12: Huyen has been trying to solve this problem all week, but she still hasn’t been able to _______
it.
A. break B. crash C. crack D. shatter
Question 13: _______about environmental problems, they decided to adopt a green lifestyle.
A. Have been learning B. Have learnt C. Having learnt D. Have been learnt
Question 14: The film is interesting, _______?
A. was it B. isn’t it C. has it D. wasn’t it
Question 15: There are many ways to_______ goodbye to someone.
A. speak B. talk C. tell D. say
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 16: Minh and Nam are talking about Nam’s room.
- Minh: “You’ve got a lovely room, Nam.” - Nam: “_______”
A. Me too. B. Congratulations! C. No problem. D. Thank you.
Question 17: Mai is late for Nam’s birthday party.
- Mai: “Sorry I’m late, Nam.” - Nam: “_______”
A. Never mind. B. Same to you. C. Good idea. D. Thanks a lot.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 18: It’s high time you pulled your socks up and started working seriously. Your final exams are
coming.
A. lost confidence B. became lazy C. studied harder D. got furious
----------HẾT----------
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. teacher B. lesson C. action D. police
Question 2. A. importance B. happiness C. employment D. relation
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. date B. face C. page D. map
Question 4. A. played B. planned C. cooked D. lived
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 5. Liz is telling Andrew about her first novel.
Liz: "Guess what? My first novel has just been published."
Andrew: "______"
A. It's my pleasure. B. Congratulations!
C. Better luck next time! D. It's very kind of you.
Question 6. Jenny and her teacher are meeting at the bus stop.
Jenny: "Good afternoon, Miss. How are you?"
Teacher: "______. And you?"
A. I'm going home B. I'm leaving now C. I'm thirty years old D. Fine, thank you
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7. As a sociable boy, Jack enjoys spending his free time going out with friends.
A. mischievous B. outgoing C. caring D. shy
Question 8. It's not a pleasant feeling to discover you've been taken for a ride by a close friend.
A. driven away B. deceived deliberately
C. given a lift D. treated with sincerity
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 9. Heavy rain makes driving on the road very difficult.
A. hard B. easy C. interesting D. simple
Question 10. A series of programs have been broadcast to raise public awareness of healthy living.
A. experience B. understanding C. confidence D. assistance
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
In the early twentieth century, an American woman named Emily Post wrote a book on
etiquette. This book explained the proper behavior Americans should follow in many different social
(23)______, from birthday parties to funerals. But in modern society, it is not simply to know the
proper rules for behavior in your own country. It is necessary for people (24)______ work or travel
abroad to understand the rules of etiquette in other cultures as well.
Cultural (25)______ can be found in such simple processes as giving or receiving a gift. In
Western cultures, a gift can be given to the receiver with relatively little ceremony. When a gift is
offered, the receiver usually takes the gift and expresses his or her thanks. (26)______, in some
Asian countries, the act of gift-giving may appear confusing to Westerners. In Chinese culture, both
the giver and receiver understand that the receiver will typically refuse to take the gift several times
before he or she finally accepts it. In addition, to (27)______ respect for the receiver, it is common
in several Asian cultures to use both hands when offering a gift to another person.
(Source: Reading Advantage by Casey Malarcher)
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
Different cultures follow their own special customs when a child's baby teeth fall out. In Korea,
for example, they have the custom of throwing lost teeth up on the roof of a house. According to
tradition, a magpie will come and take the tooth. Later, the magpie will return with a new tooth for
the child. In other Asian countries, such as Japan and Vietnam, children follow a similar tradition of
throwing their lost teeth onto the roofs of houses.
Birds aren't the only animals thought to take lost teeth. In Mexico and Spain, tradition says a
mouse takes a lost tooth and leaves some money. However, in Mongolia, dogs are responsible for
taking teeth away. Dogs are highly respected in Mongolian culture and are considered guardian
angels of the people. Tradition says that the new tooth will grow good and strong if the baby tooth
is fed to a guardian angel. Accordingly, parents in Mongolia will put their child's lost tooth in a piece
of meat and feed it to a dog.
The idea of giving lost teeth to an angel or fairy is also a tradition in the West. Many children
in Western countries count on the Tooth Fairy to leave money or presents in exchange for a tooth.
The exact origins of the Tooth Fairy are a mystery, although the story probably began in England
or Ireland centuries ago. According to tradition, a child puts a lost tooth under his or her pillow
before going to bed. In the wee hours, while the child is sleeping, the Tooth Fairy takes the tooth
and leaves something else under the pillow. In France, the Tooth Fairy leaves a small gift. In the
United States, however, the Tooth Fairy usually leaves money. These days, the rate is $1 to $5 per
tooth, adding up to a lot of money from the Tooth Fairy!
(Source: Reading Challenge 2 by Casey Malarcher & Andrea Janzen)
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
Earth is richly supplied with different types of living organisms which co-exist in their
environments, forming complex, interrelated communities. Living organisms depend on one another
for nutrients, shelter, and other benefits. The extinction of one species can set off a chain reaction
that affects many other species, particularly if the loss occurs near the bottom of the food chain. For
example, the extinction of a particular insect or plant might seem inconsequential. However, there
may be fish or small animals that depend on that resource for foodstuffs. The loss can threaten the
survival of these creatures and larger predators that prey upon them. Extinction can have a ripple
effect that spreads throughout nature.
In addition to its biological consequences, extinction poses a moral dilemma for humans, the
only species capable of saving the others. The presence of humans on the planet has affected all
other life forms, particularly plants and animals. Human lifestyles have proven to be incompatible
with the survival of some other species. Purposeful efforts have been made to eliminate animals that
prey on people, livestock, crops, or pose any threat to human livelihoods. Some wild animals have
been decimated by human desire for meat, hides, fur, or other body parts with commercial value.
Likewise, demand for land, water, and other natural resources has left many wild plants and animals
with little to no suitable habitat. Humans have also affected nature by introducing non-native species
to local areas and producing pollutants having a negative impact on the environment. The
combination of these human-related effects and natural obstacles such as disease or low birthrates
has proven to be too much for some species to overcome. They have no chance of survival without
human help.
As a result, societies have difficult choices to make about the amount of effort and money they
are willing to spend to save imperiled species. Will people accept limits on their property rights,
recreational activities, and means of livelihood to save a plant or an animal? Should saving such
popular species as whales and dolphins take priority over saving obscure, annoying, or fearful
species? Is it the responsibility of humans to save every kind of life form from disappearing, or is
extinction an inevitable part of nature, in which the strong survive and the weak perish? These are
some difficult questions that people face as they ponder the fate of other species living on this planet.
(Source: http://www.encyclopedia.com)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 43. I haven't met my grandparents for five years.
A. I often met my grandparents five years ago.
B. I last met my grandparents five years ago.
C. I have met my grandparents for five years.
D. I didn't meet my grandparents five years ago.
Question 44. We survived that accident because we were wearing our seat belts.
A. But for our seat belts, we would have survived that accident.
B. Had we not been wearing our seat belts, we wouldn't have survived that accident.
C. Without our seat belts, we could have survived that accident.
D. If we weren't wearing our seat belts, we couldn't have survived that accident.
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Question 45. "No, I won't go to work at the weekend," said Sally.
A. Sally refused to go to work at the weekend.
B. Sally promised to go to work at the weekend.
C. Sally apologized for not going to work at the weekend.
D. Sally regretted not going to work at the weekend.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 46. Animals like frogs have waterproof skin that prevents it from drying out quickly
A B C
in air, sun, or wind.
D
Question 47. My brother usually ask me for help when he has difficulty with his homework.
A B C D
Question 48. Many people object to use physical punishment in dealing with discipline problems
A B C
at school.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water. Others live in sea water.
A. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, for others live in sea water.
B. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, and others live in sea water.
C. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, or others live in sea water.
D. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, so others live in sea water.
Question 50. My mother is very busy with her work at the office. She still takes good care of us.
A. In spite of being very busy with her work at the office, my mother takes good care of us.
B. Because my mother is very busy with her work at the office, she takes good care of us.
C. My mother is so busy with her work at the office that she cannot take good care of us.
D. My mother is too busy with her work at the office to take good care of us.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 13. Linda is thanking Daniel for his birthday present.
Linda: "Thanks for the book. I've been looking for it for months."
Daniel: "______."
A. You can say that again B. Thank you for looking for it
C. I like reading books D. I'm glad you like it
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 17. A. dressed B. dropped C. matched D. joined
Question 18. A. walk B. call C. take D. talk
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19. Today students are under a lot of pressure due to the high expectations from their
parents and teachers.
A. nervousness B. emotion C. stress D. relaxation
Question 20. Don't tell Jane anything about the surprise party for Jack. She has got a big mouth.
A. can't eat a lot B. hates parties C. talks too much D. can keep secrets
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21. The place has rapidly evolved from a small fishing community into a thriving tourist resort.
A. developed B. generated C. created D. increased
Question 22. Many people left early because the film was uninteresting.
A. exciting B. informative C. attractive D. boring
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
As teenagers approach university level, a decision has to be made on what course to pursue.
In this world of diversity, (23)______ such a choice is not easy for both children and parents. In the
old days, it was not much a problem to do the task because there were not so many diverse learning
areas to choose from. Besides, there were only a few distinctive professional careers like doctor,
engineer, accountant, nurse, teacher, etc. to think about. Most higher learning usually led to a
financially successful life. (24)______, the cost of education was not so high.
Today's world is entirely different from the things (25)______ have just been described. The job
market is constantly changing due to innovative technology and new (26)______. Meanwhile, most
teenagers have difficulty in identifying their own interests. There are a variety of well-organized career
talks and student counseling workshops to guide and help teenagers (27)______ what course to take.
Furthermore, psychological tests are also used. Certain instruments such as surveys, interviews and
computer software can help to find out preferences, interests, or learning styles of the students.
(Source: Essential Reading for IELTS by Humin & John A. Gordon)
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
Children all around the world love to read comic books. Maybe they like to read the kind of
comic books that come out once a month, like Spiderman or Batman, or maybe they like manga-
style comic books. That means that publishers who make comic books need to keep in touch with
the things young people like to do. One thing that many young people today are interested in is
technology, so of course kids want to read digital comic books on electronic devices.
Let's take Japanese manga as an example. There are lots of people around the world who enjoy
reading manga. However, in the past, it was difficult to find translated versions of manga in comic
bookstores. But that did not stop manga fans. Some fans who could translate Japanese into their own
language started translating manga themselves. Then they scanned the pages of manga books and
uploaded the scanned pages to the Internet with their translation. This practice has become so
popular. People in the comic book industry made up a name for it. By combining the words scan
and translation, they call it "scanlation", and it is a big problem today. The people who do scanlation
usually share their manga for free, so readers do not buy manga books. Writers, artists, and
publishers all end up losing money because of scanlation. Another problem is piracy in the comic
book industry. Illegal copies of old and brand new comics alike have been hurting comic book sales.
Despite the progress made in converting comics to digital formats, hardcopy comic books are
still by far the most popular format among fans. In the meantime, comic book publishers and stores
will just have to keep an eye on their buyers' habits. As the popularity of digital books for e-readers
and tablets grows, the popularity of digital comic books will grow as well.
(Source: Reading Advantage by Casey Malarcher)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. All the judges paid the dancer compliments on their excellent performance in the
A B C D
competition.
Question 44. The policeman warned the tourists not walking alone in empty streets at night.
A B C D
Question 45. My mother always get up early to prepare breakfast for everyone in the family.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. The government have established some wildlife reserves. They want to protect
endangered species.
A. Whether the government have established some wildlife reserves or not, endangered species
are still protected.
B. Endangered species can't be protected although the government have established some wildlife
reserves.
C. The government have established some wildlife reserves so that endangered species can be
protected.
D. If the government established some wildlife reserves, they would be able to protect endangered
species.
Question 50. My sister is good at cooking. My brother is bad at it.
A. My sister is good at cooking, or my brother is bad at it.
B. My sister is good at cooking, for my brother is bad at it.
C. My sister is good at cooking, but my brother is bad at it.
D. My sister is good at cooking, so my brother is bad at it.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 1. Lan ______ learning English a few years ago.
A. starts B. will start C. started D. is starting
Question 2. We moved to the countryside because we wanted to be close to ______ nature.
A. a B. the C. an D. Ø
Question 3. The water ______ in the area has resulted in poor crop production.
A. absence B. shortage C. lack D. deficiency
Question 4. In Vietnam, children begin their primary ______ at the age of six.
A. educational B. educationally C. educate D. education
Question 5. Could you ______ me a hand with the washing-up, Kent?
A. join B. shake C. give D. hold
Question 6. All students ______ hand in their assignments by Friday at the latest.
A. ought B. might C. must D. may
Question 7. I met a ______ girl at my friend's birthday party last Sunday.
A. pretty American tall B. tall pretty American C. tall American pretty D. pretty tall American
Question 8. The company management decided to ______ more workers to meet the production schedule.
A. take on B. make out C. take over D. make up
Question 9. I will phone Vivian to ______ her to buy some sugar; otherwise, she will forget.
A. remind B. encourage C. allow D. advise
Question 10. We were ______ by the spectacular scenery of the countryside.
A. overwhelmed B. bewildered C. preoccupied D. overjoyed
Question 11. The boy ______ sits in front of me in the class studies very hard.
A. who B. where C. which D. when
Question 12. The larger the area of forest is destroyed, ______.
A. the most frequent natural disasters are B. the most frequently natural disasters occur
C. the more frequent are natural disasters D. the more frequently natural disasters occur
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 13. Mary and John are meeting at the cinema.
Mary: "Hi, John. How are you?"
John: "______. And you?"
A. Fine, thanks B. I'm thirty-five years old
C. I'm free today D. I'm not working today
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 15. I'm sure he will be home and dry in the interview because he has good qualifications
and wide experience.
A. be successful B. be satisfied C. be unsuccessful D. be unsatisfied
Question 16. Many people feel nervous when they first make a speech in public.
A. impressed B. fearful C. confident D. upset
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 17. Tim and Tom look similar although they are not brothers.
A. different B. alike C. familiar D. strange
Question 18. There weren't many tough questions in the exam, so I could answer most of them.
A. simple B. difficult C. important D. interesting
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 19. A. difficult B. popular C. effective D. national
Question 20. A. answer B. reply C. singer D. future
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 21. A. find B. think C. drive D. mind
Question 22. A. missed B. talked C. watched D. cleaned
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 23. "Why don't we go camping at the weekend?" he said.
A. He denied going camping at the weekend.
B. He suggested going camping at the weekend.
C. He objected to going camping at the weekend.
D. He apologized for going camping at the weekend.
Question 24. He was successful in his career thanks to his parents' support.
A. Had it not been for his parents' support, he wouldn't be successful in his career.
B. If his parents hadn't supported him, he wouldn't have been successful in his career.
C. But for his parents' support, he wouldn't be successful in his career.
D. Without his parents' support, he would have been successful in his career.
Question 25. I haven't visited my hometown for a few years.
A. I have been in my hometown for a few years.
B. I last visited my hometown a few years ago.
C. I didn't visit my hometown a few years ago.
D. I was in my hometown for a few years.
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 26. She always try to finish her homework before going to bed.
A B C D
Question 27. Children learn primarily by directly experiencing the world around it.
A B C D
Question 28. A number of wildlife habitat reserves have been established in order to saving
A B C
endangered species from extinction.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29. Mai usually helps her classmates with their studies. Her classmates appreciate her.
A. Mai usually helps her classmates with their studies, but they appreciate her.
B. Mai usually helps her classmates with their studies, for they appreciate her.
C. Mai usually helps her classmates with their studies, so they appreciate her.
D. Mai usually helps her classmates with their studies, or they appreciate her.
Question 30. We cannot completely avoid stress in our lives. We need to find ways to cope with it.
A. As long as we can completely avoid stress in our lives, we need to find ways to cope with it.
B. After we can completely avoid stress in our lives, we need to find ways to cope with it.
C. Since we cannot completely avoid stress in our lives, we need to find ways to cope with it.
D. Because stress can completely be avoided in our lives, we need to find ways to cope with it.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
Graphic novels, as the name suggests, are books written and illustrated in the style of a comic
book. Adults may feel that graphic novels do not help children become good readers. They believe
that this type of reading material somehow prevents "real" reading. (31)______, many quality
graphic novels are now being seen as a method of storytelling on the same level as novels, films or
audiobooks. Many librarians and teachers are now accepting graphic novels as proper literature for
children as they (32)______ young people and motivate them to read. This has been especially true
with children who are not (33)______ to read, especially boys.
Language learners are also motivated by graphic novels because the pictures provide clues to
the meaning of the words. Therefore, they will (34)______ new vocabulary more quickly. Many
teachers have reported great success when they used graphic novels with their students, especially
in the areas of English, social studies and art. The idea that graphic novels are too simple to be
regarded as serious reading is no longer valid. Reading them can, undoubtedly, help students develop
the skills (35)______ are necessary to read more challenging works.
(Source: Complete IELTS by Rawdon Wyatt)
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
Humans are bringing about another global-scale change in the atmosphere: the increase in
what are called greenhouse gases. Like glass in a greenhouse, these gases admit the Sun's light but
tend to reflect back downward the heat that is radiated from the ground below, trapping heat in the
Earth's atmosphere. This process is known as the greenhouse effect. Carbon dioxide is the most
significant of these gases – there is 25 percent more carbon dioxide in the atmosphere today than
there was a century ago, the result of our burning coal and fuels derived from oil. Methane, nitrous
oxide, and CFCs are greenhouse gases as well.
Scientists predict that increases in these gases in the atmosphere will make the Earth a warmer
place. They expect a global rise in average temperature somewhere between 1.0 and 3.5 degrees
Celsius in the next century. Average temperatures have in fact been rising and the years from 1987
to 1997 were the warmest years on record. Some scientists are reluctant to say that global warming
has actually begun because climate naturally varies from year to year and decade to decade, and it
takes many years of records to be sure of a fundamental change. There is little disagreement, though,
that global warming is looming.
Global warming will have different effects in different regions. A warmed world is expected
to have more extreme weather, with more rain during wet periods, longer droughts, and more
powerful storms. Although the effects of future climate changes are unknown, some predict that
exaggerated weather conditions may translate into better agricultural yields in areas such as the
western United States, where temperature and rainfall are expected to increase, while dramatic
decreases in rainfall may lead to severe droughts and plunging agricultural yields in parts of Africa,
for example.
Warmer temperatures are expected to partially melt the polar ice caps, leading to a projected
sea level rise of 50 centimeters by the year 2050. A sea level rise of this magnitude would flood
coastal cities, force people to abandon low-lying islands, and completely inundate coastal wetlands.
Diseases like malaria, which at present are primarily found in the tropics, may become more
common in the regions of the globe between the tropics and the polar regions, called the temperate
zones. For many of the world's plant species, and for animal species that are not easily able to shift
their territories as their habitat grows warmer, climate change may bring extinction.
(Source: Microsoft ® Encarta ® 2009. © 1993-2008 Microsoft Corporation)
Question 43. Which of the following could be the best title of the passage?
A. Global Warming: Problems and Solutions
B. Global Warming: Advantages and Disadvantages
C. Global Warming: Future Reactions
D. Global Warming: Possible Causes and Effects
Question 44. According to paragraph 1, which of the following factors causes an increase in
greenhouse gases?
A. Glass in a greenhouse B. Humans
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 1. Anna and Ms White are meeting in a bookshop.
Anna: "Good morning, Ms White. How are you?"
Ms White: "Hi, Anna. ______. And you?"
A. I'm fine, thanks B. I'm forty years old
C. I'm not working today D. I'm looking for a book
Question 2. Andrew is talking to a waiter in a restaurant.
Andrew: "Can I have the bill, please?"
Waiter: "______."
A. You are very kind B. Just a minute, please
C. My pleasure D. You're exactly right
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 3. They are going to declare details of the plan to the public later this week.
A. announce B. infer C. remind D. notice
Question 4. It rained so hard that the roads were quickly covered in water.
A. heavily B. lightly C. softly D. badly
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 5. If you are at a loose end tomorrow, why don't we spend the day sunbathing and
relaxing on the beach?
A. having a lot to do B. having nothing to do
C. having nothing to lose D. having a lot to gain
Question 6. The twin girls are so identical that I can't distinguish one from the other.
A. similar B. alike C. different D. changeable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 7. A. washed B. passed C. worked D. opened
Question 8. A. hate B. face C. make D. dance
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 9. A. medical B. essential C. dangerous D. regular
Question 10. A. doctor B. student C. advice D. parent
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
Culture has a strong influence on non-verbal communication. Even the simple act of looking
someone in the eye is not at all that simple. In the USA, Americans are (23)______ to look directly
at people when speaking to them. It shows interest in what they are saying and is thought to carry a
(24)______ of honesty. Meanwhile, in Japan and Korea, people avoid long periods of eye contact.
It is considered more polite to look to the side during a conversation. The Lebanese, (25)______,
stand close together and look intensely into each other's eyes. The action shows sincerity and gives
people a better sense of what their counterparts want.
Given such differences with even the most common expressions, people (26)______ travel or
work abroad have a real need to learn the other culture's body language. People tend to be unaware
of the messages they are sending to others. So, it is (27)______ to consider your own body language
before dealing with people from other cultures. Knowing about the body language of friends, clients,
and colleagues can be very helpful in improving understanding and avoiding miscommunication.
(Source: Reading Fusion 1 by Andrew E. Bennett)
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
When naming a child, some parents seem to choose a name based simply on their personal
preference. In other families, grandparents or professional name-makers come up with a child's
name. In some cases, the time of a child's birth influences how the child's name is determined.
In many European cultures, names are typically chosen by parents. Parents' choice for their
child's name may be based on names of their relatives or ancestors. For example, in Italy, children
are traditionally named after their grandparents. The parents generally use the father's parents' names
first. If they have more children, then they will use the mother's parents' names. Similarly, some
people in Eastern Europe name their children after relatives who have died. This tradition is seen as
a means to protect the child from the Angel of Death.
Traditionally in some Asian countries, a child's grandfather or a fortune-teller chooses the
child's name. In contrast to the tradition of naming children after relatives, the child's name is chosen
to influence the child's character. For example, names may be based on a connection to certain
elements such as fire, water, earth, wood, or metal. Or the name might include a written character
meaning beauty, strength, or kindness.
In certain African cultures, when a child is born plays a large part in determining the child's
name. In Ghana's Akan culture, the day a child is born determines the child's name. But each day
has different names for boys and girls. For instance, a boy born on Friday is named Kofi, whereas a
girl born on the same day is named Afua. Both Kofi and Afua mean "wanderer" or "explorer."
Children with these names are seen as travelers.
No matter where the name comes from, a child's name is the first gift in life. Whether the name
is chosen according to preference or dictated by tradition, it reflects something about a child's
culture. For that reason, all names should be treasured and respected.
(Source: Reading Challenge 2 by Casey Malarcher & Andrea Janzen)
Question 28. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. The choice of name for a child in Asia
B. The history of child naming around the world
C. The practice of child naming in Europe
D. The tradition of child naming in different cultures
Question 29. According to the passage, in many European cultures, names are typically selected
by ______.
A. ancestors B. parents C. relatives D. grandparents
Question 30. The word "means" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. sign B. symbol C. route D. way
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
Tropical rainforests are being destroyed and badly degraded at an unsustainable rate. Some
scientists estimate that in the early 1990s tropical forests were being destroyed at a rate of
approximately 28 hectares a minute, or about 14 million hectares each year – an area about the size
of the state of Wisconsin. This figure marked a decrease since the 1980s, when approximately 16
million hectares were destroyed each year, largely due to a reported decline of deforestation in the
Amazon River Basin in the early 1990s. However, satellite images indicate that rates may have
rebounded in the late 1990s as burning in the Amazon increased again. Over the past three decades
alone, about 5 million square kilometers – or 20 percent of the world's tropical forests – have been
cleared. During this time, deforestation in tropical Asia reached almost 30 percent. High rates of
deforestation are inevitably followed by alarming rates of plant and animal extinction because many
rainforest species cannot survive outside their pristine rainforest habitat. Some scientists estimate
that dozens of rainforest species are becoming extinct every day.
Causes of deforestation vary from location to location, but certain patterns tend to be consistent
across all forests. Logging companies in search of valuable rainforest hardwoods, or, less often, oil
companies in search of petroleum, are often the first to enter a remote area of rainforest. Some logged
forests, if left alone, can regenerate in a few decades. But typically, they are not left alone – the
roads built by logging companies often provide access for landless farmers to enter a new area, as
well as a means to transport agricultural crops to market. For every 1 kilometer of new roads built
through a forested area, 4 to 24 square kilometers are deforested and colonized.
Once the loggers leave the land, a typical cycle of destruction ensues. When the landless
farmers arrive, they clear the land for planting. Poor rainforest soils produce a low crop yield,
especially after a couple of years. At that point, the farmers often sell their lands to cattle ranchers
or large plantation owners. After nutrients have been exhausted and soils compacted by cattle, lands
are then abandoned and often laid to waste. Rainforest does not readily regenerate on these lands
without human intervention. Meanwhile, the colonist farmers and cattle ranchers move to a new
piece of land made accessible by logging roads, where the cycle of deforestation begins again.
(Source: Microsoft ® Encarta ® 2009. © 1993-2008 Microsoft Corporation)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. Working as a doctor would give me a chance taking care of people's health.
A B C D
Question 44. Jane help her mother to do the housework when she has free time.
A B C D
Question 45. Many living organisms depend largely on the environment for the satisfaction of its
A B C D
needs.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. Many Vietnamese women are successful in their careers. They are excellent
homemakers.
A. Many Vietnamese women are successful in their careers, and they are excellent homemakers.
B. Many Vietnamese women are successful in their careers, for they are excellent homemakers.
C. Many Vietnamese women are successful in their careers, so they are excellent homemakers.
D. Many Vietnamese women are successful in their careers, or they are excellent homemakers.
Question 50. Nam had all the necessary qualifications. They didn't offer him the job.
A. Despite having all the necessary qualifications, Nam was not offered the job.
B. They didn't offer Nam the job as he had all the necessary qualifications.
C. Nam had all the necessary qualifications, so they didn't offer him the job.
D. If Nam had had all the necessary qualifications, he would have been offered the job.
10
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. wanted B. stopped C. decided D. hated
Question 2: A. century B. culture C. secure D. applicant
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. offer B. canoe C. country D. standard
Question 4: A. pollution B. computer C. currency D. allowance
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 5: Measles are an infectious disease that causes fever and small red spots.
A B C D
Question 6: He passed the exams with high scores, that made his parents happy.
A B C D
Question 7: For such a demanding job, you will need qualifications, soft skills and having full commitment.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 8: I haven‘t met him again since we ______ school ten years ago.
A. have left B. leave C. left D. had left
Question 9: A recent survey has shown that ______ increasing number of men are willing to share the
housework with their wives.
A. a B. an C. the D. some
Question 10: The more demanding the job is, ______ I like it.
A. more B. most C. the more D. the most
Question 11: John wanted to know ______ in my family.
A. there were how many people B. how many people were there
C. were there how many people D. how many people there were
Question 12: Richard, my neighbor, _______ in World War II.
A. says to fight B. says to have fought C. is said to fight D. is said to have fought
Question 13: Students are ______ less pressure as a result of changes in testing procedures.
A. under B. above C. upon D. out of
Question 14: Tom is getting ever keener on doing research on ______.
A. biology B. biological C. biologist D. biologically
Question 15: Many people and organizations have been making every possible effort in order to save ______
species.
A. endangered B. dangerous C. fearful D. threatening
Question 16: A number of young teachers nowadays ______ themselves to teaching disadvantaged children.
A. offer B. stick C. give D. devote
Question 17: Whistling or clapping hands to get someone‘s attention is considered ______ and even rude in
some circumstances.
A. suitable B. unnecessary C. appropriate D. impolite
Question 18: ―Sorry for being late. I was ______ in the traffic for more than an hour.‖
A. carried on B. held up C. put off D. taken after
Question 19: She was tired and couldn‘t keep ______ the group.
A. up with B. up against C. on to D. out of
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Students are expected to always adhere to school regulations.
A. question B. violate C. disregard D. follow
Question 23: A number of programs have been initiated to provide food and shelter for the underprivileged in
the remote areas of the country.
A. rich citizens B. active members C. poor inhabitants D. enthusiastic people
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: Drivers are advised to get enough petrol because filling stations are few and far between on the
highway.
A. easy to find B. difficult to access C. unlikely to happen D. impossible to reach
Question 25: We managed to get to school in time despite the heavy rain.
A. earlier than a particular moment B. later than expected
C. early enough to do something D. as long as expected
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26: I‘m sure Luisa was very disappointed when she failed the exam.
A. Luisa must be very disappointed when she failed the exam.
B. Luisa must have been very disappointed when she failed the exam.
C. Luisa may be very disappointed when she failed the exam.
D. Luisa could have been very disappointed when she failed the exam.
Question 27: ―You had better see a doctor if the sore throat does not clear up,‖ she said to me.
A. She reminded me of seeing a doctor if the sore throat did not clear up.
B. She ordered me to see a doctor if the sore throat did not clear up.
C. She insisted that I see a doctor unless the sore throat did not clear up.
D. She suggested that I see a doctor if the sore throat did not clear up.
Question 28: Without her teacher‘s advice, she would never have written such a good essay.
A. Her teacher advised him and she didn‘t write a good essay.
B. Her teacher didn‘t advise her and she didn‘t write a good essay.
C. She wrote a good essay as her teacher gave her some advice.
D. If her teacher didn‘t advise her, she wouldn‘t write such a good essay.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29: She tried very hard to pass the driving test. She could hardly pass it.
A. Although she didn‘t try hard to pass the driving test, she could pass it.
B. Despite being able to pass the driving test, she didn‘t pass it.
C. No matter how hard she tried, she could hardly pass the driving test.
D. She tried very hard, so she passed the driving test satisfactorily.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
WAYS TO IMPROVE YOUR MEMORY
A good memory is often seen as something that comes naturally, and a bad memory as something that
cannot be changed, but actually (31)______ is a lot that you can do to improve your memory.
We all remember the things we are interested in and forget the ones that bore us. This no doubt explains
the reason (32)______ schoolboys remember football results effortlessly but struggle with dates from their
history lessons! Take an active interest in what you want to remember, and focus on it (33)______. One way
to ‗make‘ yourself more interested is to ask questions — the more the better!
Physical exercise is also important for your memory, because it increases your heart (34)______ and sends
more oxygen to your brain, and that makes your memory work better. Exercise also reduces stress, which is
very bad for the memory.
The old saying that ―eating fish makes you brainy‖ may be true after all. Scientists have discovered that the
fats (35)______ in fish like tuna, sardines and salmon — as well as in olive oil — help to improve the memory.
Vitamin-rich fruits such as oranges, strawberries and red grapes are all good ‗brain food‘, too.
(Source: ―New Cutting Edge‖, Cunningham, S. & Moor. 2010. Harlow: Longman)
Question 31: A. there B. it C. that D. this
Question 32: A. why B. what C. how D. which
Question 33: A. hardly B. slightly C. consciously D. easily
Question 34: A. degree B. level C. rate D. grade
Question 35: A. made B. existed C. founded D. found
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
It used to be that people would drink coffee or tea in the morning to pick them up and get them going for
the day. Then cola drinks hit the market. With lots of caffeine and sugar, these beverages soon became the
pick-me-up of choice for many adults and teenagers. Now drink companies are putting out so-called "energy
drinks." These beverages have the specific aim of giving tired consumers more energy.
One example of a popular energy drink is Red Bull. The company that puts out this beverage has stated in
interviews that Red Bull is not a thirst quencher. Nor is it meant to be a fluid replacement drink for athletes.
Instead, the beverage is meant to revitalize a tired consumer's body and mind. In order to do this, the makers
of Red Bull, and other energy drinks, typically add vitamins and certain chemicals to their beverages. The added
chemicals are like chemicals that the body naturally produces for energy. The vitamins, chemicals, caffeine, and
sugar found in these beverages all seem like a sure bet to give a person energy.
Health professionals are not so sure, though. For one thing, there is not enough evidence to show that all of
the vitamins added to energy drinks actually raise a person's energy level. Another problem is that there are so
many things in the beverages. Nobody knows for sure how all of the ingredients in energy drinks work together.
Dr. Brent Bauer, one of the directors at the Mayo Clinic in the US, cautions people about believing all the
claims energy drinks make. He says, ―It is plausible if you put all these things together, you will get a good
result.‖ However, Dr. Bauer adds the mix of ingredients could also have a negative impact on the body. ―We
just don't know at this point,‖ he says.
(Source: ―Reading Challenge 2‖, Casey Malarcher & Andrea Janzen, Compass Publishing)
Question 36: The beverages mentioned in the first paragraph aim to give consumers ______.
A. caffeine B. sugar C. more energy D. more choices
Question 37: The word “it” in the second paragraph refers to ______.
A. one example B. the company C. Red Bull C. thirst quencher
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
What is ‗extreme‘ weather? Why are people talking about it these days? ‗Extreme‘ weather is an unusual
weather event such as rainfall, a drought or a heat wave in the wrong place or at the wrong time. In theory,
they are very rare. But these days, our TV screens are constantly showing such extreme weather events. Take
just three news stories from 2010: 28 centimetres of rain fell on Rio de Janeiro in 24 hours, Nashville, USA, had
33 centimetres of rain in two days and there was record rainfall in Pakistan.
The effects of this kind of rainfall are dramatic and lethal. In Rio de Janeiro, landslides followed, burying
hundreds of people. In Pakistan, the floods affected 20 million people. Meanwhile, other parts of the world suffer
devastating droughts. Australia, Russia and East Africa have been hit in the last ten years. And then there are
unexpected heat waves, such as in 2003 in Europe. That summer, 35,000 deaths were said to be heat-related.
So, what is happening to our weather? Are these extreme events part of a natural cycle? Or are they caused by
human activity and its effects on the Earth‘s climate? Peter Miller says it‘s probably a mixture of both of these
things. On the one hand, the most important influences on weather events are natural cycles in the climate. Two
of the most famous weather cycles, El Niño and La Niña, originate in the Pacific Ocean. The heat from the warm
ocean rises high into the atmosphere and affects weather all around the world. On the other hand, the
temperature of the Earth‘s oceans is slowly but steadily going up. And this is a result of human activity. We are
producing greenhouse gases that trap heat in the Earth‘s atmosphere. This heat warms up the atmosphere, land
and oceans. Warmer oceans produce more water vapour – think of heating a pan of water in your kitchen. Turn
up the heat, it produces steam more quickly. Satellite data tells us that the water vapour in the atmosphere has
gone up by four percent in 25 years. This warm, wet air turns into the rain, storms, hurricanes and typhoons that
we are increasingly experiencing. Climate scientist, Michael Oppenheimer, says that we need to face the reality of
climate change. And we also need to act now to save lives and money in the future.
(Source: © 2015 National Geographic Learning.www.ngllife.com/wild-weather)
Question 43: It is stated in the passage that extreme weather is ______.
A. becoming more common B. not a natural occurrence
C. difficult for scientists to understand D. killing more people than ever before
Question 44: The word ―lethal‖ in the second paragraph probably means ______.
A. far-reaching B. long-lasting C. happening soon D. causing deaths
Question 45: What caused thousands of deaths in 2003?
A. a period of hot weather B. floods after a bad summer
C. a long spell of heavy rain D. large-scale landslides
Question 46: According to the passage, extreme weather is a problem because ______.
A. we can never predict it B. it only affects crowded places
C. it‘s often very destructive D. its causes are completely unknown
Question 47: The word ―that‖ in the third paragraph refers to ______.
A. Earth‘s oceans B. human activity C. greenhouse gases D. Earth‘s atmosphere
________THE END_________
11 Mã đề thi 01
Họ, tên thí sinh: .......................................................................
Số báo danh: ............................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. finished B. developed C. defeated D. looked
Question 2: A. hesitate B. reserve C. physics D. basic
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. bamboo B. forget C. deserve D. channel
Question 4: A. endanger B. furniture C. determine D. departure
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 5: The number of students attending English courses at our university are increasing.
A B C D
Question 6: Scuba diving is usually carried out in the ocean in that people can explore the underwater world.
A B C D
Question 7: To be successful in an interview, you should control the feeling of pressure and making a good
A B C
impression on the interviewer.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 8: For the last 20 years, we ______ significant changes in the world of science and technology.
A. witness B. have witnessed C. witnessed D. are witnessing
Question 9: Housewives find it easier to do domestic chores thanks to ______ invention of labour-saving
devices.
A. the B. a C. an D. some
Question 10: Air pollution is getting ______ serious in big cities in the world.
A. more and more B. the more and the more
C. the most and the most D. most and most
Question 11: Ms Brown asked me ______ in my class.
A. there were how many students B. how many students there were
C. were there how many students D. how many students were there
Question 12: Her fiancé is said ______ from Harvard University five years ago.
A. having graduated B. to have graduated
C. being graduated D. to be graduated
Question 13: Many rare and precious species are now ______ the verge of extinction.
A. in B. from C. on D. by
Question 14: They are always ______ of what their children do.
A. support B. supporting C. supportive D. supportively
Question 15: Women in some parts of the world are still struggling for ______ job opportunities to men.
A. equal B. various C. suitable D. legal
Question 16: The manager ______ his temper with the employees and shouted at them.
A. had B. lost C. took D. kept
Question 17: All nations should ______ hands to work out a plan to solve the problem of global warming.
A. join B. hold C. shake D. lend
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The student service centre will try their best to assist students in finding a suitable part-time job.
A. help B. allow C. make D. employ
Question 23: My sister is a very diligent student. She works very hard at every subject.
A. clever B. practical C. studious D. helpful
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: Sorry, I can’t come to your party. I am snowed under with work at the moment.
A. busy with B. free from C. relaxed about D. interested in
Question 25: Basically, everything is the same; however, there may be some minor changes to the schedule.
A. big B. sudden C. gradual D. small
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 26: I really believe my letter came as a great surprise to John.
A. John might be very surprised to receive my letter.
B. John might have been very surprised to receive my letter.
C. John must be very surprised to receive my letter.
D. John must have been very surprised to receive my letter.
Question 27: “Why don’t we go out for dinner tonight?” said Jim.
A. Jim suggested going out for dinner that night.
B. Jim refused to go out for dinner that night.
C. Jim denied going out for dinner that night.
D. Jim promised to go out for dinner that night.
Question 28: The candidate was offered the job because of his excellent answers.
A. The job was offered to the candidate although he couldn’t answer the questions.
B. If it hadn’t been for the candidate’s excellent answers, he couldn’t have got the job.
C. The candidate answered the questions so excellently that he might get the job.
D. Because it was such a good job, the candidate tried to answer the questions excellently.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29: Our flight was delayed. We decided to spend time at the duty-free shops.
A. As our flight was delayed, we decided to spend time at the duty-free shops.
B. We have been spending time at the duty-free shops since our flight was delayed.
C. We decided to spend time at the duty-free shops in case our flight was delayed.
D. Although our flight was delayed, we decided to spend time at the duty-free shops.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
The Internet has truly transformed how students do their homework. (31) ______ homework today still
means spending time in the library, it’s for a different reason. Rather than using books for research, students
today are (32) ______ to the Internet to download enormous amounts of data available online.
In the past, students were limited to their school’s (33) ______ of books. In many cases, they got to
the school library and found out that someone had already taken the books they needed. Nowadays, such
inconvenience can be avoided since the Internet never runs out of information. Students, however, do have to
(34) ______ sure that the information they find online is true. Teachers have also benefited from the homework
which is done on the Internet. They do not need to carry students’ papers around with them any more. This is
because online (35) ______ allow students to electronically upload their homework for their teachers to read and
mark. Of course, this also means that students can no longer use the excuse that the dog ate their homework!
(Adapted from “Gold Pre-first Exam Maximizer,” by H. Chilton & L. Edwards, 2013, Harlow: Pearson)
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Whales are the largest animals in the world, and the gentlest creatures we know. Although the whale is
very huge, it is not hindered at all by its size when it is in the water. Whales have tails that end like flippers. With
just a gentle flick, it can propel itself forward. The skin of a whale is so smooth that it does not create any
friction that can slow the whale down. A whale’s breathing hole is located on the top of its head, so it can breathe
without having to completely push its head out of the water. Whales are protected from the cold seawater by
body fat that is called blubber.
Whales live in the ocean but, in terms of behaviours, they are more similar to humans than fish. They
live in family groups and they even travel in groups when they have to migrate from cooler to warmer waters.
The young stay with their parents for as long as fifteen years. Whales are known not to desert the ill or injured
members; instead, they cradle them.
When whales are in danger, there are people who go to great lengths to help them. One such case
occurred in 1988, when three young whales were trapped in the sea. It was close to winter and the sea had
begun to freeze over. Whales are mammals that require oxygen from the air, so the frozen ice was a great danger
to them. All they had then was a tiny hole in the ice for them to breathe through. Volunteers from all over soon
turned up to help these creatures. They cut holes in the ice to provide more breathing holes for the whales. These
holes would also serve as guides for the whales so that they could swim to warmer waters.
(Adapted from http://www.englishdaily626.com?reading_comprehension)
Question 36: Which of the following best describes the main idea of this passage?
A. Successful attempts to rescue whales all over the world
B. Some remarkable similarities of whales to humans
C. Whales as the largest, gentlest but vulnerable creatures
D. Whales as the only animals to live in warm water
Question 37: Whales can move easily in water thanks to their ______.
A. tail and blubber B. size and head C. tail and skin D. skin and head
Question 38: Where is the whale’s breathing hole located?
A. On its head B. On its back C. On its face D. On its tail
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
It's called 42 - the name taken from the answer to the meaning of life, from the science fiction series
The Hitchhiker's Guide to the Galaxy. 42 was founded by French technology billionaire Xavier Niel, whose
backing means there are no tuition fees and accommodation is free. Mr Niel and his co-founders come from the
world of technology and start-ups, and they are trying to do to education what Facebook did to communication
and Airbnb to accommodation.
Students at 42 are given a choice of projects that they might be set in a job as a software engineer -
perhaps to design a website or a computer game. They complete a project using resources freely available
on the Internet and by seeking help from their fellow students, who work alongside them in a large open-plan
room full of computers. Another student will then be randomly assigned to mark their work.
The founders claim this method of learning makes up for shortcomings in the traditional education system,
which they say encourages students to be passive recipients of knowledge. "Peer-to-peer learning develops
students with the confidence to search for solutions by themselves, often in quite creative and ingenious ways."
Like in computer games, the students are asked to design and they go up a level by completing a
project. They graduate when they reach level 21, which usually takes three to five years. And at the end, there
is a certificate but no formal degree. Recent graduates are now working at companies including IBM, Amazon,
and Tesla, as well as starting their own firms.
"The feedback we have had from employers is that our graduates are more apt to go off and find out
information for themselves, rather than asking their supervisors what to do next," says Brittany Bir, chief
operating officer of 42 in California and a graduate of its sister school in Paris. Ms Bir says 42's graduates will be
better able to work with others and discuss and defend their ideas - an important skill in the “real world” of work.
"This is particularly important in computer programming, where individuals are notorious for lacking certain
human skills," she says.
But could 42's model of teacherless learning work in mainstream universities? Brittany Bir admits 42's
methods do not suit all students. "It suits individuals who are very disciplined and self-motivated, and who are not
scared by having the freedom to work at their own pace," she says.
(Adapted from http://www.bbc.com/news/business-37694248)
________THE END_________
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1.
A. sale B. chalk C. date D. plane
Question 2.
A. toured B. jumped C. solved D. rained
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3.
A. financial B. fortunate C. marvellous D. physical
Question 4.
A. prepare B. survive C. finish D. appeal
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 5. The year-end party was out of this world. We had never tasted such delicious food.
A. enormous B. terrific C. strange D. awful
Question 6. In some Western cultures, people who avoid eye contact in a conversation are
regarded as untrustworthy.
A. embarrassed B. quiet C. reliable D. suspicious
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7. The dog is starving. It hasn’t got anything to eat for nearly a week.
A. quite happy B. very hungry C. rather full D. extremely thirsty
Question 8. Safety regulations have made it obligatory for all employees to wear protective
clothing.
A. popular B. optional C. common D. compulsory
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 9. The man ______ gave me the book is my uncle.
A. where B. when C. who D. which
Question 10. As the clouds drifted away, the pattern of the fields was clearly ______ from a height.
A. apparent B. visible C. foreseeable D. evident
16
Họ, tên thí sinh: ......................................................................... Mã đề thi 001
Số báo danh: .............................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. legal B. diverse C. polite D. complete
Question 2. A. interview B. compliment C. sacrifice D. represent
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. mood B. flood C. spoon D. moon
Question 4. A. listens B. reviews C. protects D. enjoys
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. If he were younger, he ______ a professional running competition now.
A. will join B. had joined C. would have joined D. would join
Question 6. The children ______ to bed before their parents came home from work.
A. were all going B. had all gone
C. had all been going D. have all gone
Question 7. Linda refused ______ in the musical performance because she was sick.
A. to participate B. participate C. participating D. to participating
Question 8. There has been little rain in this area for months, ______?
A. has it B. has there C. hasn’t it D. hasn’t there
Question 9. David was deported on account of his expired visa. He ______ it renewed.
A. must have had B. should have had
C. needn’t have had D. mightn’t have had
Question 10. The proposal ______ by the environmentalists to grow more trees has received
approval from the council.
A. which suggested B. be suggested C. suggested D. was suggested
Question 11. Project-based learning provides wonderful opportunities for students to develop their
______.
A. creative B. creativity C. create D. creatively
Question 12. Violent films may have a negative ______ on children.
A. opinion B. influence C. dependence D. decision
Question 13. A good leader should not be conservative, but rather ______ to new ideas.
A. receptive B. acceptable C. permissive D. applicable
Question 14. ______ individuals are those who share the same hobbies, interests, or points of view.
A. Light-hearted B. Like-minded C. Even-handed D. Open-minded
Question 15. The child has no problem reciting the poem; he has ______ it to memory.
A. devoted B. added C. committed D. admitted
Question 16. After several injuries and failures, things have eventually ______ for Todd when he
reached the final round of the tournament.
A. looked up B. gone on C. taken up D. turned on
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 17. The first few days at university can be very daunting, but with determination and
positive attitude, freshmen will soon fit in with the new environment.
A. interesting B. memorable C. serious D. depressing
Question 18. Deforestation may seriously jeopardize the habitat of many species in the local area.
A. do harm to B. set fire to C. give rise to D. make way for
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19. In this writing test, candidates will not be penalized for minor mechanical mistakes.
A. punished B. rewarded C. motivated D. discouraged
Question 20. After their long-standing conflict had been resolved, the two families decided to bury
the hatchet.
A. become enemies B. become friends
C. give up weapons D. reach an agreement
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes
each of the following exchanges.
Question 21. John and Mary are talking about what to do after class.
John: “______”
Mary: “Yes, I’d love to.”
A. Do you often have time for a drink after class? B. Would you like to have a drink after class?
C. Do you often go out for a drink after class? D. Would you like tea or coffee after class?
Question 22. Paul and Daisy are discussing life in the future.
Paul: “I believe space travel will become more affordable for many people in the future.”
Daisy: “______”
A. It doesn’t matter at all. B. There’s no doubt about that.
C. It is very kind of you to say so. D. I am sorry to hear that.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
GOOD FRIENDS
Psychologists have long known that having a set of cherished companions is crucial to
mental well-being. A recent study by Australian investigators concluded that our friends even help
to (23) ______ our lives. The study concentrated (24) ______ the social environment, general
health, and lifestyle of 1,477 persons older than 70 years. The participants were asked how much
contact they had with friends, children, relatives and acquaintances.
Researchers were surprised to learn that friendships increased life (25) ______ to a far
greater extent than frequent contact with children and other relatives. This benefit held true even
after these friends had moved away to another city and was independent of factors such as socio-
economic status, health, and way of life. According to scientists, the ability to have relationships
with people to (26) ______ one is important has a positive effect on physical and mental health.
Stress and tendency towards depression are reduced, and behaviours that are damaging to health,
such as smoking and drinking, occur less frequently. (27) _______, our support networks, in times
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
We get great pleasure from reading. The more advanced a man is, the greater delight he will
find in reading. The ordinary man may think that subjects like philosophy or science are very
difficult and that if philosophers and scientists read these subjects, it is not for pleasure. But this is
not true. The mathematician finds the same pleasure in his mathematics as the school boy in an
adventure story. For both, it is a play of the imagination, a mental recreation and exercise.
The pleasure derived from this activity is common to all kinds of reading. But different
types of books give us different types of pleasure. First in order of popularity is novel-reading.
Novels contain pictures of imaginary people in imaginary situations, and give us an opportunity of
escaping into a new world very much like our world and yet different from it. Here we seem to live
a new life, and the experience of this new life gives us a thrill of pleasure.
Next in order of popularity are travel books, biographies and memoirs. These tell us tales of
places we have not seen and of great men in whom we are interested. Some of these books are as
wonderful as novels, and they have an added value that they are true. Such books give us
knowledge, and we also find immense pleasure in knowing details of lands we have not seen and of
great men we have only heard of.
Reading is one of the greatest enjoyments of life. To book-lovers, nothing is more
fascinating than a favorite book. And, the ordinary educated man who is interested and absorbed in
his daily occupation wants to occasionally escape from his drudgery into the wonderland of books
for recreation and refreshment.
(Source: http://www.importantindia.com)
Question 28. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Different types of books B. Different kinds of reading
C. Reading as an exercise for the brain D. Reading as a pleasurable activity
Question 29. According to paragraph 1, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Ordinary people may think that philosophy and science are difficult.
B. Reading about mathematics is mentally entertaining for a mathematician.
C. Philosophers and scientists do not read for pleasure.
D. A more advanced person takes greater pleasure in reading.
Question 30. The word “derived” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. differed B. established C. bought D. obtained
Question 31. The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. a new life B. our world C. an opportunity D. a thrill of pleasure
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
The system of higher education had its origin in Europe in the Middle Ages, when the first
universities were established. In modern times, the nature of higher education around the world, to
some extent, has been determined by the models of influential countries such as France and
Germany.
Both France and Germany have systems of higher education that are basically administered
by state agencies. Entrance requirements for students are also similar in both countries. In France,
an examination called the baccalauréat is given at the end of secondary education. Higher
education in France is free and open to all students who have passed this baccalauréat. Success in
this examination allows students to continue their higher education for another three or four years
until they have attained the first university degree called a licence in France.
Basic differences, however, distinguish these two countries’ systems. French educational
districts, called académies, are under the direction of a rector, an appointee of the national
government who is also in charge of universities in each district. The uniformity in curriculum
throughout the country leaves each university with little to distinguish itself. Hence, many students
prefer to go to Paris, where there are better accommodations and more cultural amenities for them.
Another difference is the existence in France of prestigious higher educational institutions known as
grandes écoles, which provide advanced professional and technical training. Most of these schools
are not affiliated with the universities, although they too recruit their students by giving
competitive examinations to candidates. The grandes écoles provide rigorous training in all
branches of applied science and technology, and their diplomas have a somewhat higher standing
than the ordinary licence.
In Germany, the regional universities have autonomy in determining their curriculum under
the direction of rectors elected from within. Students in Germany change universities according to
their interests and the strengths of each university. In fact, it is a custom for students to attend two,
three, or even four different universities in the course of their undergraduate studies, and the
majority of professors at a particular university may have taught in four or five others. This high
degree of mobility means that schemes of study and examination are marked by a freedom and
individuality unknown in France.
France and Germany have greatly influenced higher education systems around the world.
The French, either through colonial influence or the work of missionaries, introduced many aspects
of their system in other countries. The German were the first to stress the importance of universities
as research facilities, and they also created a sense of them as emblems of a national mind.
(Source: https://britannicalearn.com)
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Question 35. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The nature of education around the world in modern times
B. Systems of higher education in France and Germany
C. The origin of higher education system in Europe
D. The influence of France and Germany on educational systems of other countries
Question 36. The word “uniformity” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. proximity B. discrepancy C. similarity D. uniqueness
Question 37. The word “their” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. schools B. universities C. examinations D. branches
Question 38. Which of the following about grandes écoles in France is NOT stated in paragraph 3?
A. Most of them have no connection with universities.
B. They have a reputation for advanced professional and technical training.
C. Their degrees are better recognized than those provided by universities.
D. They offer better accommodations and facilities than universities.
Question 39. According to the passage, a regional university rector in Germany is elected by
______.
A. the staff of the university B. the national government officials
C. the regional government officials D. the staff of other universities
Question 40. According to paragraph 4, what makes it possible for students in Germany to attend
different universities during their undergraduate studies?
A. The university staff have become far more mobile and occupied.
B. The university’s training programs offer greater flexibility and freedom of choice.
C. University tuition fees are kept at an affordable level for all students.
D. Entry requirements to universities in Germany are made less demanding.
Question 41. The word “emblems” in the final paragraph is closest in meaning to ______.
A. representatives B. directions C. structures D. delegates
Question 42. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Studying in France and Germany is a good choice for people of all ages and nationalities.
B. It normally takes longer to complete a university course in France than in Germany.
C. Universities in Germany can govern themselves more effectively than those in France.
D. The level of decentralization of higher education is greater in Germany than in France.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. Every member of the class were invited to the party by the form teacher.
A B C D
rd
Question 44. Historically, it was the 3 Asian Games in Japan that tennis, volleyball, table tennis
A B C
and hockey were added.
D
Question 45. Though formally close friends, they have now been estranged from each other due to
A B C
some regrettable misunderstandings.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. The young girl has great experience of nursing. She has worked as a hospital
volunteer for years.
A. Before she worked as a hospital volunteer for years, the young girl has great experience of
nursing.
B. Much as she has worked as a hospital volunteer for years, the young girl has great experience
of nursing.
C. Having worked as a hospital volunteer for years, the young girl has great experience of
nursing.
D. With great experience of nursing, the young girl has worked as a hospital volunteer for years.
Question 50. Peter told us about his leaving the school. He did it on his arrival at the meeting.
A. Only after his leaving the school did Peter inform us of his arrival at the meeting.
B. Not until Peter told us that he would leave the school did he arrive at the meeting.
C. Hardly had Peter informed us about his leaving the school when he arrived at the meeting.
D. No sooner had Peter arrived at the meeting than he told us about his leaving the school.
BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KÌ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2019
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Bài thi: Ngoại ngữ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
17
Họ và tên thí sinh:................................................................
Số báo danh:.........................................................................
Mã đề thi: 401
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. consist B. carry C. remove D. protect
Question 2: A. solution B. principal C. passenger D. continent
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. touch B. round C. ground D. shout
Question 4: A. combined B. travelled C. behaved D. practiced
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 5: A shop assistant is talking to a customer.
- Shop assistant: “Do you need anything else?” - Customer: “_______”
A. Good job! B. That's all. Thanks. C. With pleasure. D. You're welcome.
Question 6: Ann and Peter are talking about housework.
- Ann: “I think children should be paid for doing the housework.”
- Peter: “_______. It's their duty in the family.”
A. You're exactly right B. That's what I think
C. There's no doubt about it D. I don't think so
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSET in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7: These photos brought back many sweet memories of our trip to Hanoi last year.
A. recalled B. released C. revised D. caught
Question 8: At first, John said he hadn't broken the vase, but later he accepted it.
A. denied B. discussed C. protected D. admitted
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 9: Children brought up in a caring environment tend to grow more sympathetic towards others.
A. loving B. dishonest C. healthy D. hateful
Question 10: It's quite disappointing that some people still turn a blind eye to acts of injustice they witness in the
street.
A. take no notice of B. have no feeling for C. show respect for D. pay attention to
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 11: As they remembered _______ about the danger of getting lost in the forest, the tourists closely followed
the tour guide.
A. being warned B. warning C. to be warned D. to warn
Question 12: Once____for viruses, the software can be installed in the school computer system for use.
A. has tested B. is tested C. testing D. tested
Question 13: The teacher entered the room while the students _______their plan for the excursion.
A. discuss B. were discussing C. discussed D. are discussing
Question 14: His choice of future career is quite similar _______mine.
A. with B. at C. for D. to
Question 15: With his good sense of humour, Martin is quite _______with the students.
A. popularity B. popular C. popularize D. popularly
Question 16: The residents of the village are living a happy life _______they lack modern facilities.
A. because of B. although C. therefore D. despite
Question 17: Action films with big stars tend to_______ great public attention.
A. achieve B. show C. attract D. reach
Question 18: This is _______most beautiful song I've ever listened to.
A. an B. a C. the D. Ø
Question 19: The scientists are working on a drug capable of _______the spread of cancerous cells.
A. arresting B. catching C. seizing D. grasping
Question 20: The little boy took an instant liking to his babysitter_______.
A. upon their first meeting B. before he first met her
C. prior to their first meeting D. as soon as he meets her
Question 21: It's time he acted like a adult and stopped blaming others for his wrongdoings.
A. responsible B. sociable C. believable D. suitable
Question 22: We _______on a field trip if the weather is fine this weekend.
A. could have gone B. will go C. would go D. went
Question 23: One recipe for success is to stay focused and _______yourself to whatever you do.
A. apply B. attach C. assign D. adhere
Question 24: It's not my _____to tell you how to run your life, but I think you should settle down and have a family.
A. work B. chore C. job D. career
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29.
Becoming an independent language learner
In an educational context, the term “learner independence” has gained increasing importance in recent years.
It is of particular (25) ___to language learning and commonly refers to the way students confidently control and
organize their own language learning process. While some people seem to have an almost (26) ___ flair for
languages, others have rely on strategies to maximize their skills and learn a foreign language more effectively.
The main thing to remember is that becoming a truly independent learner ultimately depends above all on
taking responsibility for your own learning and being prepared to take every opportunity available to you to learn.
You also increase your chances of (27) ___by learning according to your own needs and interests, using all available
resources. Research shows that learners (28) ___ adopt this approach will undoubtedly manage to broaden their
language abilities considerably and, (29) ___, are more likely to achieve their objectives in the longer term.
(Adopted from “Complete Advanced” by Laura Malthews and Barbara Thomas)
Question 25: A. resemblance B. relevance C. acquaintance D. acceptance
Question 26: A. habitual B. spiritual C. perceptive D. instinctive
Question 27: A. successfully B. successful C. succeed D. success
Question 28: A. who B. why C. where D. which
Question 29: A. as a result B. in contrast C. though D. because
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 30 to 34.
Tribal tourism is a relatively new type of tourism. It involves travelers going to remote destinations, staying
with local people and learning about their culture and way of life. They stay in local accommodation, share facilities
with local people, and join in with meals and celebrations. At the moment, less than one percent of holidays are tribal
tourism holidays, but this is set to change.
Tribal tourism is often compared with foreign exchange visits. However, a foreign exchange involves staying
with people who often share the same values. Tribal tourism takes visitors to places where the lifestyle is very
different from that in their home location. Those who have been on tribal holiday explain that experiencing this
lifestyle is the main attraction. They say that it offers them the chance to live in a way they never have before.
Not everyone is convinced that tribal tourism is a good thing, and opinions are divided. The argument is
about whether or not it helps the local population, or whether it exploits them. The main problem is that, because
tribal tourism is relatively new, the long-term influences on local populations have not been studied in much detail.
Where studies have been carried out, the effects have been found to be negative.
So, is it possible to experience an exotic culture without harming it in some way? “With a bit of thought, we
can maximise the positive influences and minimise the negative”, says travel company director Hilary Waterhouse.
“The most important thing for a tribal tourist is to show respect for, learn about, and be aware of, local customs and
traditions. Always remember you're a guest.”
(Adopted from “Complete IELTS” by Rawdon Wyatt)
Question 30: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. An Old Tourist Destination B. Holidays with a Difference
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
E-waste is being produced on a scale never seen before. Computers and other electronic equipment become
obsolete in just a few years, leaving customers with little choice but to buy newer ones to keep up. Millions of tons
of computers, TVs, smartphones, and other equipment are discarded each year. In most countries, all this waste ends
up in landfills, where it poisons the environment - e-waste contains many toxic substances such as lead, mercury, and
arsenic, that leak into the ground.
Recycling is the ideal solution to the problem. E-waste contains significant amounts of valuable metals like
gold and silver that make it attractive to recycle. In theory, recycling gold from old computers is more efficient - and
less environmentally destructive - than digging it from the earth. The problem is that a large percentage of e-waste
dropped off for recycling in wealthy countries is sold an diverted to the developing world, posing an increasing threat
to the health of the people there.
To address the problem of the international trade in e-waste, 170 nations signed the 1989 Basel Convention,
an agreement requiring that developed nations notify developing nations of hazardous waste shipments coming into
their countries. Then, in 1995 the Basel Convention was modified to ban hazardous waste shipments to poor countries
completely. Although the ban hasn't taken effect, the European Union, where recycling infrastructure is well
developed, has already written it into their laws. One law holds manufacturers responsible for the sale disposal of
electronics they produce.
Companies like Creative Recycling Systems in Florida, the USA, are hoping to profit from clean e- waste
recycling. The key to their business is a huge, building-size machine able to separate electronic products into their
component materials. As the machine's steel teeth break up e-waste, all the toxic dust is removed from the process.
This machine can handle some 70,000 tons of electronics a year. Although this is only a fraction of the total, it
wouldn't take many more machines like this to process the entire USA's output of high-tech trash.
Unfortunately, under current policies, domestic processing of e-waste is not compulsory, and while shipping
waste abroad is ethically questionable, it is still more profitable than processing it safely in the USA. Creative
Recycling Systems is hoping that the US government will soon create laws deterring people from sending e-waste
overseas.
(Adopted from “Reading Explorer 4” by Paul MacIntyre and Nancy Hubley)
Question 35: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Waste Recycling: A Storm in a Teacup B. Domestic Recycling: Pros and Cons
C. E-waste - An Export Commodity of the Future D. E-waste - A Mess to Clear up
Question 36: The word “obsolete” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. outdated B. inaccurate C. broken D. incomplete
Question 37: As stated in paragraph 2, a large percentage of e-waste meant for recycling in the developed
countries _______.
A. is buried deep in the soil at landfills B. contains all valuable metals except gold
C. is later recycled in local factories D. is eventually sent to developing nations
Question 38: The word “notify” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. assure B. notice C. excuse D. inform
Question 39: The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. the ban B. recycling infrastructure
C. the European Union D. the Basel Convention
Question 40: According to the European Union's laws, electronics manufacturers are required to _______.
A. upgrade their recycling infrastructure regularly
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences
in the following questions.
Question 43: Peter moved abroad for a fresh start. He regrets it now.
A. If only Peter had moved abroad for a fresh start.
B. Peter wishes he hadn't moved abroad for a fresh start.
C. If Peter moved abroad for a fresh start, he would regret it.
D. Peter regrets not having moved abroad for a fresh start.
Question 44: Smartphones are becoming reasonably priced. New applications make them more appealing.
A. Appealing though smartphones are with new applications, they are becoming less affordably priced.
B. Whatever new applications smartphones have, they are becoming more appealing with reasonable prices.
C. No matter how reasonable the prices of smartphones are, they are not so appealing with new applications.
D. Not only are smartphones becoming more affordable cut, with new applications, they are also more appealing.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of
the following questions.
Question 45: It was wrong of you to criticise your son in front of his friends.
A. You shouldn't have criticised your son in front of his friends.
B. You must have criticised your son in front of his friends.
C. You mightn't have criticised your son in front of his friends.
D. You could have criticised your son in front of his friends.
Question 46: My father likes reading newspapers more than watching TV.
A. My father doesn't like watching TV as much as reading newspapers.
B. My father likes watching TV more than reading newspapers.
C. My father doesn't like reading newspapers as much as watching TV.
D. My father likes watching TV as much as reading newspapers.
Question 47: “How long have you lived here, Lucy?” asked Jack.
A. Jack asked Lucy how long did she live here. B. Jack asked Lucy how long she had lived there.
C. Jack asked Lucy how long she lived here. D. Jack asked Lucy how long had she lived there.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each
of the following questions.
Question 48: At the beginning of the ceremony, there was a respectable one-minute silence in remembrance of the
victims of the earthquake.
A. the ceremony B. respectable C. remembrance of D. earthquake
Question 49: My mother gets up usually early to prepare breakfast for the whole family.
A. gets up usually B. to prepare C. for D. whole
Question 50: The money raised in the appeal w ill use to help those in need in remote areas.
A. the B. w ill use C. help D. areas
-------------------HẾT-------------------
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 1: The aroma of freshly baked bread in the morning has always ____ memories of his childhood home.
A. evoked B. reminisced C. instilled D. incited
Question 2: Schoolchildren shouldn't make fun of those who are intellectually_______ to them.
A. responsible B. familiar C. inferior D. essential
Question 3: John is_______ most hard-working student I've ever known.
A. the B. Ø C. a D. an
Question 4: Joseph would never forget_______ by his boss through no fault of his own.
A. criticising B. being criticised C. to criticise D. to be criticised
Question 5: Once____ with sufficient information, the freshmen will feel more confident to start the new course.
A. having provided B. provided C. are provided D. providing
Question 6: I'm sorry. I didn't mean to_______ your feelings when I said such a thing.
A. injure B. hurt C. destroy D. break
Question 7. Backpacking is best suited for those who are in good physical condition_______.
A. without being required to walk several miles B. so that it would require walking several miles
C. as it may require walking several miles D. so as not to require walking several miles
Question 8: Laura came to_______ me for taking care of her dog when she was away.
A. thankful B. thankfulness C. thankfully D. thank
Question 9: My uncle tries to spend time playing with his children_______ he is very busy.
A. because of B. although C. moreover D. despite
Question 10: Linda took great photos of butterflies while she_______ in the forest.
A. is hiking B. was hiking C. hiked D. had hiked
Question 11: If you follow my directions, you_______ her house easily.
A. will find B. would have found C. would find D. found
Question 12: The children are highly excited_______ the coming summer holiday.
A. with B. about C. to D. for
Question 13: The film was so intriguing that the audience were all_______ to the screen until the end.
A. stuck B. hooked C. glued D. attached
Question 14: A key component of Industry 4.0 is the Internet of Things characterised by the connections of all
mobile_______.
A. accessories B. devices C. utensils D. vehicles
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 15: Linda and Peter are talking about safe driving.
- Linda: “I think drink-driving should be severely punished.”
- Peter: “_______. It may cause accidents or even deaths.”
A. I don't think so B. I absolutely agree with you
C. I don't understand what you mean D. You must be kidding
Question 16: A porter is talking to Mary in the hotel lobby.
- Porter: “May I help you with your suitcase?” - Mary: “_______”
A. What a shame! B. Me too. C. Yes, please. D. You're welcome.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) CLOSET in meaning the underlined
word (s) in each of the following questions.
Question 17: Many experts support the view that children should start learning English as early as possible.
A. reason B. problem C. reaction D. opinion
Question 18: The young singer's career t ook off after her latest album topped the charts.
A. ended in failure B. became successful C. went unnoticed D. remained unchanged
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 21: A. leave B. learn C. speak D. teach
Question 22: A. discussed B. performed C. cancelled D. followed
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 23: A. terrific B. beautiful C. general D. chemical
Question 24: A. provide B. listen C. repeat D. collect
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 25: He badly suffered cyberbullying himself. He realized the true dangers of social media only then.
A. Such was his suffering of cyberbullying that he didn't realise the true dangers of social media.
B. Only when he had realized the true dangers of social media did he badly suffer cyberbullying himself.
C. But for his terrible suffering of cyberbullying, he wouldn't realise the true dangers of social media.
D. Not until he had badly suffered cyberbullying himself did he realize the true dangers of social media.
Question 26: Mike didn't follow his parents' advice on choosing his career. He regrets it now.
A. Mike regrets having followed his parents' advice on choosing his career
B. Mike wishes he had followed his parents' advice on choosing his career.
C. If only Mike followed his parents' advice on choosing his career.
D. If Mike followed his parents' advice on choosing his career, he would regret it.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each
of the following questions.
Question 27: Jack cycles usually to work to a void traffic jams at rush hour.
A. cycles usually B. a void C. jams D. rush hour
Question 28: With his important contributions, Albert Einstein considered one of the greatest physicists of all time.
A. With B. important C. considered D. greatest
Question 29: Our grandfather, who had an excellent memory when young, has become very forgettable in recent
years due to his old age.
A. excellent B. when young C. forgettable D. old age
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of
the following questions.
Question 30: “What have you done to my laptop, Jane?” asked Tom.
A. Tom asked Jane what she had done to his laptop.
B. Tom asked Jane what had she done to his laptop.
C. Tom asked Jane what has she done to his laptop.
D. Tom asked Jane what she has done to his laptop.
Question 31: I'm certain that Joe attended the ceremony as he can vividly recount the event.
A. Joe needn't have attended the ceremony as he can vividly recount the event.
B. Joe mightn't have attended the ceremony as he can vividly recount the event.
C. Joe must have attended the ceremony as he can vividly recount the event.
D. Joe could have attended the ceremony as he can vividly recount the event.
Question 32: Many teenagers like facebooking more than doing sport.
A. Many teenagers like doing sport more than facebooking.
B. Many teenagers like doing sport as much as facebooking.
C. Many teenagers don't like facebooking as much as doing sport.
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D. Many teenagers don't like doing sport as much as facebooking.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 33 to 37.
Effects of television on childhood literacy
Nowadays, television occupies a large portion of children's time. From when they start in preschool,
children spend more time watching television than participating in any other (33) ___ except sleeping. (34)
___, this is not necessarily a bad thing.
The results of some research suggest that there is considerable overlap between the comprehension
processes activated while reading and the processes (35) ___ take place during a period of television viewing. If
this is so, it may very well be the case that children who learn comprehension skills from television skills from
television viewing before they ready to read are (36) ___ with some very important tools when they later learn to
read. It has been noted that children are frequently better at recalling televised stories they have watched compared
to those they have simply heard. Due to the fact that it is a visual medium, television can present information more
concretely than written and spoken text, making it an ideal medium in which to (37) ___ some of the skills and
knowledge needed for later reading.
(Adapted from “Complete Advanced” by Laura Malthews and Barbara Thomas)
Question 33: A. activity B. actively C. activate D. active
Question 34: A. Due to B. Because C. However D. For example
Question 35: A. who B. where C. that D. when
Question 36: A. covered B. equipped C. obsessed D. occupied
Question 37: A. cultivate B. allocate C. manipulate D. regulate
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 38 to 42.
Edinburgh, the capital of Scotland, is in the south-east of the country. Edinburgh is situated on the coast,
and the beautiful, green Pentland hills are not far from the city centre. Castle Rock stands in the centre of Edinburgh
and is the best place for fantastic views of the city. With a population of almost half a million people, the city is an
exciting mix of traditional and modern.
The first stop for most visitors to the city is the castle on Castle Rock. It is certainly worth a visit and the
area nearby is full of shops that sell whisky and tartans to the tourists. Edinburgh's most famous street, the Royal
Mile, runs from the castle to the Palace of Holyroodhouse and the Scottish Parliament. Along the street, you can
see many interesting buildings and you can stop for a drink at a traditional, old Scottish pub.
During your visit, you should certainly take the time to see other parts of the city. Princes Street has lovely
gardens, museums and shops. The New Town is a superb area for walking with its attractive 18 th century houses,
offices and churches. Finally, the Grassmarket is an old part of the city, which is full of the cafés, bars and
restaurants.
Edinburgh's nightlife is excellent. Clubs usually stay open until three in the morning. You can hear live
music in pubs, choose from a number of first-class cinemas or go to a “ceilidh” (a traditional Scottish dance).
The best time to come to the city is in August. Thousands of people visit the Edinburgh Festival, the world's
biggest arts festival held every summer. With concerts, opera, theatre and art exhibitions, there is something for
everyone. For winter visitors, Hogmanay (the Scottish New Year) is also an incredible experience that you will
never forget.
(Adapted from “Straightforward - Pre-intermediate” by Phillip Kerr)
Question 38: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. A Description of Scotland B. Famous Cities in Scotland
C. The Future of Edinburgh D. A Destination Guide to Edinburgh
Question 39: The word “m ix” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to_______.
A. action B. mood C. combination D. mess
Question 40: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to_______.
A. the area B. a visit C. the city D. the castle
Question 41: According to paragraph 4, what is a “ceilidh”?
A. It is a kind of Scottish music. B. It is the name of a Scottish pub.
C. It is the first Scottish cinema. D. It is a traditional Scottish dance.
Question 42: According to paragraph 5, what is NOT true about the Edinburgh Festival?
A. It is a famous event. B. It offers arts performances.
C. It attracts thousands of visitors. D. It takes place in winter.
BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KÌ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2019
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Bài thi: Ngoại ngữ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
19
Họ và tên thí sinh:................................................................
Số báo danh:.........................................................................
Mã đề thi: 403
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 1: Joana and David, two lecturers, are talking about library skills.
- Joana: “I think we should teach our students how to use the library.”
- David: “_______. Library skills will help them use resources effectively.”
A. That's not a good idea B. You're absolutely wrong
C. I couldn't agree with you more D. You must be kidding
Question 2: John is having dinner at Linda's house.
- John: “This roast beef is so delicious.” - Linda: “_______”
A. I'm glad you like it. B. No, don't worry. C. I don't, either. D. Sure. I'd love to.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 3: Much to their disappointment, their start-up project fell through, though it had been carefully planned.
A. failed B. expanded C. succeeded D. moved
Question 4: A new road has just been built to connect my hometown with the city centre.
A. locate B. link C. move D. transport
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 5: As an advocate of women's rights, James strongly rejects the view that women should stay at home to
take care of their families.
A. regards B. dismisses C. denies D. supports
Question 6: Judy was not so worried about having left her bag on the bus as there was nothing expensive but a few
odds and ends in it.
A. familiar objects B. personal belongings C. valuable items D. trivial things
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 7: _______, playing music is an effective way for them to open their heart to the outside world.
A. Being visually impaired people B. For those with visual impairments
C. Such were their visual impairments D. Having been visual impaired
Question 8: Young people are ambitious by nature, so they tend to set their_______ high on whatever they do.
A. sights B. views C. visions D. eyes
Question 9: My aunt used to sell vegetables at the local market to_______a living.
A. take B. do C. earn D. have
Question 10: The candidate took a_______breath before he walked into the interview room.
A. deep B. deeply C. depth D. deepen
Question 11: When_______ as captain of the national football team, he knew he had to try harder.
A. appointed B. appoint C. have appointed D. appointing
Question 12: Mr. Brown, a self-made businessman, attributed his success to hard_______ and a bit of luck.
A. mission B. work C. career D. task
Question 13: Laura is_______ most intelligent girl I've ever known.
A. Ø B. an C. a D. the
Question 14: The manager is directly responsible_______ the efficient running of the office.
A. in B. for C. about D. at
Question 15: With their undeveloped immune systems, young infants are_____ to a wide range of minor ailments.
A. conductive B. receptive C. favourable D. susceptible
Question 16: If the weather _______fine tomorrow, we will have our biology lesson outdoors.
A. will be B. will have been C. would be D. is
Question 17: You shouldn't use that ladder as it doesn't look_______ enough.
A. correct B. stable C. certain D. constant
Question 18: Many students work to earn money _______their parents are rich.
A. however B. despite C. although D. because of
Question 19: The children_______ their kites in the field when it started to rain heavily.
A. are flying B. will fly C. would fly D. were flying
Question 20: He would never forget_______ a medal for bravery after saving three boys from drowning.
A. being awarded B. to award C. awarding D. to be awarded
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 21: A. injured B. promised C. threatened D. agreed
Question 22: A. bread B. peak C. steal D. heat
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 23: A. study B. delete C. reward D. survive
Question 24: A. summary B. holiday C. selection D. festival
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences
in the following questions.
Question 25: The green campaign was strongly supported by the local people. The neighbourhood looks fresh and
clean now.
A. Only if the local people had strongly supported the green campaign would the neighbourhood look fresh and clean
now.
B. Had the local people not strongly supported the green campaign, the neighbourhood wouldn't look fresh and clean
now.
C. But for the strong support of the local people for the green campaign, the neighbourhood would look fresh and
clean now.
D. Scarcely had the green campaign been strongly supported by the local people when the neighbourhood looked
fresh and clean.
Question 26: Jack dropped out of school at the age of 15. He now regrets it.
A. Jack regrets not having dropped out of school when he was 15.
B. If only Jack had dropped out of school when he was 15.
C. If Jack dropped out of school when he was 15, he would regret it.
D. Jack wishes he hadn't dropped out of school when he was 15.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of
the following questions.
Question 27: I'm sure that they had practised hard for the games as they won a lot of medals.
A. They couldn't have practised hard for the games as they won a lot of medals.
B. They must have practised hard for the games as they won a lot of medals.
C. They shouldn't have practised hard for the games as they won a lot of medals.
D. They might have practised hard for the games as they won a lot of medals.
Question 28: “Why didn't you attend the meeting, Mary?” Tom asked.
A. Tom asked Mary why didn't she attend the meeting.
B. Tom asked Mary why she hadn't attended the meeting.
C. Tom asked Mary why hadn't she attended the meeting.
D. Tom asked Mary why she wasn't attending the meeting.
Question 29: I like reading books more than surfing the Internet.
A. I don't like reading books as much as surfing the Internet.
B. I don't like surfing the Internet as much as reading books.
C. I like surfing the Internet more than reading books.
D. I like reading books less than surfing the Internet.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of
the following questions.
Question 30: Plastic bags are harmful to the environment so they should replace by paper bags.
A. are harmful B. the C. so D. should replace
Question 31: Thanks to advances in medical science, life expectation for both men and women has improved
greatly over the past decades.
A. advances B. life expectation C. has improved D. past
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Question 32: The school years tarts usually in late August in most parts of the country.
A. tarts usually B. in C. parts D. the country
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 33 to 37.
The cyberspace learning initiative
Advances in technology have generated revolutionary applications that could change the face of education as we
know it today. Online learning, also known as electronic learning, may (33) ___ the future of education thanks
to recent developments in the Internet and multimedia technologies.
It is anticipated that cyberspace institutions or online universities will replace traditional educational (34) ___. Virtual
classrooms will be multi-functional, acting simultaneously as learning platforms, forums and (35) ___ networks.
They will be geared towards promoting the acquisition of knowledge as a life- long endeavour, (36) ___ occurs
through global collaboration. Cyberspace institutions can go a long way towards achieving this as they are able to
liberate us from the limitations of time and space. Flexibility of time and location makes e-learning a highly
accessible, international resource. (37) ___, prospective students will, regardless of age, background or origin, have
unlimited access to both formal and informal learning opportunities. The pursuit of knowledge will consequently
become an end in itself and not a means to an end.
(Adopted from “Traveller Advance” by H. Q. Mitchell)
Question 33: A. shape B. view C. see D. plan
Question 34: A. backgrounds B. establishments C. specifications D. provisions
Question 35: A. socialise B. society C. social D. socially
Question 36: A. when B. which C. where D. who
Question 37: A. Because B. Therefore C. However D. Although
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 38 to 42.
Dubai is the second largest of the emirates which make up the United Arab Emirates. In the 1950s, it was a
tiny coastal village. Now it is a huge modern city with a population of over 700,000. It offers an excellent modern
lifestyle and is known around the world as a top tourist destination.
Dubai has something for everyone. Holidaymakers can enjoy a relaxing break, and people looking for
adventure can find something new and exciting. The excellent hotels and facilities make it a popular place for business
conferences and exhibitions.
Dubai offers many unusual holiday experiences. Visitors can go a desert safari or drive in the sand dunes in
a four-wheel drive, watch camel racing or learn how to hunt with falcons. They can also try sand skiing. More
relaxing is a cruise in a wooden dhow in the Gulf or a visit to the old city markets.
There are many opportunities to take photographs. The traditional architecture is amazing, and there are
many magnificent palaces and mosques. Visitors can visit a Bedouin village and see camels and herds of goats. There
are beautiful desert oases and the best sunsets in the world.
It is said that Dubai is the shopper's paradise. Many people come to Dubai for the shopping. Visitor enjoy
everything from modern malls to traditional markets. Low customs duties mean that many products are less expensive
than products bought in other countries. While Dubai's official language is Arabic, many shopkeepers speak English.
Bur Juman Centra and Al Ghurair Centre are places that every shopper should try.
(Adopted from “IELTS Target 5.0” by Chris Gough)
Question 38: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Dubai: Things to Do for Everyone B. Dubai: Things to Avoid
C. Dubai: Present and Future D. Dubai: An Ancient City in the Desert
Question 39: The word “offers” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. exchanges B. receives C. attends D. provides
Question 40: According to paragraph 2, why is Dubai a popular place for business conferences and exhibitions?
A. Because it provides new business opportunities. B. Because it offers new and exciting holidays.
C. Because it has excellent hotels and facilities. D. Because it has world-famous artists.
Question 41:The word “They” in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. holiday experiences B. falcons C. visitors D. sand dunes
Question 42: According to paragraph 5, what is NOT true about shopping in Dubai?
A. Many products are cheaper than in other countries.
B. Bur Juman and Al Ghurair are popular shopping centres.
C. Most shopkeepers can't speak English.
D. Visitors can shop in both modern malls and traditional markets.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 42 to 50.
For over 300 years since its appearance in Britain in 1621, newspapers were written and read by only a tiny
minority. In 1896, a new newspaper was produced in large numbers and at such low prices that ordinary people could
buy it on every street corner, and it was an instant success. The Daily Mail, which is still running today, was the
mother of the modern tabloid, and the beginning of a whole new subculture in the British press. Today more than
twice as many tabloids are sold than the so-called “quality press” titles such as The Times or The Guardian.
Originally, the word tabloid referred to the size and format. But today, for most people, the word tabloid has
nothing to do with shape and size. What makes a tabloid a tabloid is content, and above all, style. Tabloids follow a
special formula: they report the news, but only certain kinds. Tabloids dedicate most of their pages to stories about
celebrities. This involves photographing them in embarrassing situations, gossiping about their private lives and
generally making them look a bit silly. However, the tabloids are not simply an irritation for celebrities; they are also
a vehicle for self-promotion.
Though they have millions of devoted readers, tabloids are also widely criticised in Britain. They are accused
of being sensationalist, in bad taste, and of having no ethical standards in their reporting and “researching” methods.
They may tap celebrities’ phones or even break into their houses just to get a story. When criticised, the tabloids state
that the public has a right to know about everything, but celebrities have no rights to privacy at all.
So why does Britain, which has access to the best press agencies and the highest journalistic standards,
consume tabloids like chocolate? Maybe the reason is that we have enough news on the television, the radio and in
the quality newspapers. Tabloids are not actually about news at all; tabloids are just about gossip. And when it comes
to gossip, what matters is not what is true or what is kind, but what is entertaining and what is funny. The more in
bad taste a story is, the funnier it seems. And bad taste is what the British tabloids have made into an art.
(Adopted from “Oxford Exam Excellence” by Danuta Gryca et al.)
Question 43: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. The Art of Bad Taste: The British Tabloid B. Tabloids: Too Kind to Be True
C. Tabloids versus Broadsheets: An Ongoing War D. The Guardian: Feeding Bad Taste for Gossip
Question 44: The word “formula” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. method B. design C. sequence D. readership
Question 45: The phrase “a vehicle” in paragraph 2 mostly means _______.
A. a method of researching something B. a set of instructions on how to do something
C. a means of transporting something D. a way of achieving something
Question 46: The word “They” in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. houses B. people C. readers D. tabloids
Question 47: Which is NOT mentioned in paragraph 3 as an accusation against tabloids?
A. They gain entry into celebrities' houses illegally. B. They bug celebrities' phone conversations.
C. They violate the public's rights to privacy. D. They feature sensational news stories.
Question 48: According to paragraph 4, what explains the popularity of tabloids in Britain?
A. They are deemed to be more aesthetic than “quality press”.
B. They are governed by the highest journalistic standards.
C. They provide thorough accounts of current issues.
D. They contain light-hearted stories that entertain readers.
Question 49: According to the passage, tabloids in Britain_______.
A. are outsold by such “quality press” titles as The Times B. have the same sales figures as chocolate
C. are considered a mixed blessing for celebrities D. vary in shape, size, and format
Question 50: Which of the following is LEAST likely to be found in a modern tabloid?
A. Miss Universe lying about her A level results
B. A Premier League footballer failing his dope test
C. Future changes in European economies
D. An Oscar winner accused of tax evasion
BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KÌ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2019
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Bài thi: Ngoại ngữ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
20
Họ và tên thí sinh:................................................................
Số báo danh:.........................................................................
Mã đề thi: 404
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 1: Peter and Mary are talking about social networks.
- Peter: “Using social networks may have negative effects on students.”
- Mary: “_______. It distracts them from their studies.”
A. You're wrong B. That's quite true C. I don't quite agree D. I'm not sure about that
Question 2: David is apologising to his teacher for being late.
- David: “Sorry I'm late! The traffic is so heavy.” - Teacher: “_______. Come in and sit down.”
A. Thank you B. You're so kind C. Me neither D. It's alright
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 3: I have tried hard, but it is too difficult to find the solution to this maths problem.
A. link B. answer C. reply D. relation
Question 4: Though considered the king sport in many parts of the world, soccer has never really caught on in the
United States.
A. been consolidated B. been active C. become popular D. remained silent
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 5: Such terrible acts of child abuse were not ignored thanks to the continuing protests of the online
community.
A. witnessed B. disregarded C. unsolved D. noticed
Question 6: Despite sharing viewpoints on many issues, Nina and her husband are at odds when it comes to child
rearing.
A. under pressure B. in conflict C. in agreement D. at library
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 7: We all wish to create a friendly and supportive environment_______ to learning.
A. liable B. accommodating C. conducive D. detrimental
Question 8: Nicholas had never chaired a meeting before, but he rose to the_______ yesterday when he presided
over a forum.
A. occasion B. incident C. difficulty D. issue
Question 9: This is_______ most interesting book I've ever read.
A. Ø B. an C. a D. the
Question 10: If we are not busy this weekend, we_______ the new fruit farm in the countryside.
A. would have visited B. would visit C. visited D. will visit
Question 11: I think mobile phones are_______ for people of all ages.
A. usefully B. usage C. use D. useful
Question 12: It was so noisy outside that she couldn't concentrate_______ her work.
A. at B. in C. on D. with
Question 13: The students were worried that they wouldn't be able to_______ the deadline for the assignment.
A. answer B. match C. beat D. meet
Question 14: In spite of their disabilities, the children at Spring School manage to_______ an active social life.
A. lead B. take C. gather D. save
Question 15: She hurt herself while she_______ hide-and-seek with her friends.
A. was playing B. played C. is playing D. had played
Question 16: _______, they got on well with each other.
A. To quarrel a lot like siblings at their age B. But most siblings at their age quarrel a lot
C. While most siblings at their age quarrel a lot D. For most siblings to quarrel a lot at their age
Question 17: My sister really enjoys acting as a hobby, but she doesn't want to do it for a(n) _______.
A. survival B. occupation C. living D. existence
Question 18: I will never forget_______ to the Royal Garden Party, where superb cuisines were served amid
luxurious surroundings.
A. being invited B. to invite C. inviting D. to be invited
Question 19: If_______ with pictures and diagrams, a lesson will be more interesting and comprehensible.
A. have illustrated B. illustrated C. was illustrated D. illustrating
Question 20: Children are encouraged to read books_______ they are a wonderful source of knowledge.
A. although B. in spite of C. because of D. because
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 21: A. reduced B. survived C. happened D. bothered
Question 22: A. sound B. doubt C. count D. group
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 23: A. energy B. exercise C. addition D. article
Question 24: A. connect B. travel C. deny D. return
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 25: Her parents didn't attend her graduation ceremony. They regret it now.
A. If only her parents could attend her graduation ceremony.
B. Her parents wish they had attended her graduation ceremony.
C. Her parents regret having attended her graduation ceremony.
D. If her parents attended her graduation ceremony, they would regret it
Question 26: The coach changed his tactics in the second half. His football team won the match.
A. Had it not been for the coach's change of tactics in the second half, the football team wouldn't have won the match.
B. Only if the coach had changed the tactics in the second half could his football team have won the match.
C. But for the coach's change of tactics in the second half, his football team could have won the match.
D. Not until his football team had won the match did the coach change his tactics in the second half.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each
of the following questions.
Question 27: The villagers are h ighly appreciable of the volunteers' efforts in reconstructing their houses after the
devastating storm.
A. h ighly appreciable B. volunteers' efforts C. reconstructing D. devastating
Question 28: Household chores should share among members of the family.
A. Household B. should share C. members D. the family
Question 29: Reading books has been always my hobby since I was very young.
A. Reading B. has been always C. since D. very young
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of
the following questions.
Question 30: “When did you start practising yoga?” asked Tom.
A. Tom wanted to know when I was starting practising yoga.
B. Tom wanted to know when did I start practising yoga.
C. Tom wanted to know when I had started practising yoga.
D. Tom wanted to know when had I started practising yoga.
Question 31: Paul likes reading comic books more than watching cartoons.
A. Paul likes watching cartoons more than reading comic books.
B. Paul likes watching cartoons as much as reading comic books.
C. Paul doesn't like watching cartoons as much as reading comic books.
D. Paul doesn't like reading comic books as much as watching cartoons.
Question 32: I thought it was not necessary to book tickets for the film in advance, but I was wrong.
A. I couldn't have booked tickets for the film in advance.
B. I must have booked tickets for the film in advance.
Làm Trắc Nghiệm Trực Tuyến Tại: https://thaytro.net/course/view.php?id=304 Trang 2 / 4
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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 33 to 37.
The importance of fairy tales for children
Fairy tales are the stories that adults, especially parents, tell young children. In view of their name, it is
surprising that hardly any of them are actually about fairies. (33) ___ most fairy tales have happy endings, the
stories usually deal with very (34) ___ situations - children abandoned in the forest, terrifying giants, cruel
stepmothers. However, despite being scared when they are told the stories, children will often ask to hear them over
and over again.
Many psychologists believe that what fairy tales do, in addition to (35) ___ children's imagination,
is to show that there are problems in the world and they can be overcome. Just like adults, children have fears and
worries: theirs are of things such as abandonment, loss, injuries, witches. Fairy tales present real problems in a
fantasy form (36) ___ children are able to understand. This, it is claimed, allow them to (37) ___ their fears and to
realise, if ever in their unconscious mind, that no matter how difficult the circumstances, there are always ways of
coping.
(Adopted from “Richmond Practice Tests for Cambridge English: Advanced ”)
Question 33: A. Although B. Despite C. Because D. Therefore
Question 34: A. frightening B. Frighteningly C. frighten D. fright
Question 35: A. motivating B. stimulating C. speculating D. inciting
Question 36: A. where B. why C. that D. who
Question 37: A. confront B. alter C. nurture D. suffer
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 38 to 42.
Norwich is the capital of East Anglia, an area on the east coast of England which is famous for its natural
beauty and impressive architecture. Norwich is a wonderful city to explore and is popular with tourists all year round.
Norwich is not a city of luxurious hotels, but it has a good selection of reasonably priced places to stay in,
both in the city centre and further out. The Beeches Hotel, for example, next to the cathedral, has a beautiful Victorian
garden. Comfortable accommodations costs £65 for two nights' bed and breakfast per person. Norwich is famous for
its magnificent cathedral. The cathedral has a summer programme of music and events which is open to the general
public. One event, “Fire from heaven”, is a drama and musical performance with fireworks, a laser light show and a
carnival with local people dressed in colourful costumes.
Norwich is also home to the Sainsbury Centre for Visual Arts, a world-class collection of international art in
a building at the University of East Anglia. This is well worth a visit and there is a lovely canteen with an excellent
selection of hot and cold snacks. It also specializes in vegetarian food. In addition, the city has a new professional
theatre, the Playhouse, on the River Wensum. The city' annual international arts festival is from 10 to 20 October.
Finally, if you fancy a complete break from the stresses of everyday life, you could hire a boat and spend a
few days cruising along the river of the famous Norfolk Broads National Park. In our environmentally friendly age,
the emphasis has moved forwards the quiet enjoyment of nature and wildlife. You can buy hire a boat, big or small,
for an hour or two or even up to a week or two. This makes a perfect day out or holiday for people of all ages.
(Adopted from “Succeed in Cambridge English Preliminary” by Andrew Betsis and Lawrence Mamas)
Question 38: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Daily Life in Norwich B. Holidays in Norwich
C. A Destination Guide to England D. England's Famous Cities
Question 39: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to_______.
A. the Beeches Hotel B. the city centre C. selection D. Norwich
Question 40: According to paragraph 2, which is NOT part of “Fire from Heaven”?
A. A laser light show B. A campfire C. A carnival D. A fireworks display
Question 41: The word “cruising” in paragraph 4 mostly means_______.
A. moving on land B. travelling by boat C. surfing D. swimming
Question 42: According to the passage, where is the Sainsbury Centre for Visual Arts located?
A. In a building at the University of East Anglia
B. In a new professional theatre on the River Wensum
C. In an international art museum
D. In the Norfolk Broads National Park
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
The United Nations recently outlined the extent of the global water crisis, saying that 2.7 billion people
would face severe water shortages by 2025 if consumption continues at current rates. Today, an estimated 1.2 billion
people drink unclean water, and about 2.5 billion lack proper toilets or waste disposal systems. More than five million
people die each year from diseases related to unclean water. Humans are pumping water out of the ground faster than
it can be replenished. In this difficult situation, a water conservationist, Neil MacLeod in South Africa, has found
innovative ways to improve his local water situation.
Neil MacLeod took over as head of Durban Metro Water Services in 1992. The situation he found was a
catastrophe. Durban had one million people living in the city and another 1.5 million people who lived in poverty
just outside it. The entire city was rife with broken water pipes, leaky toilets, and faulty plumbing whereby 42 percent
of the region's water was simply being wasted.
MacLeod's crews began repairing and replacing water pipes. They put water meters on residences, replaced
eight-litter toilets with four-litter models, and changed wasteful showers and water taps. To ensure that the poor
would receive a basic supply of water, MacLeod installed tanks in homes and apartments to provide 190 liters of
water a day free to each household. Water consumption in Durban is now less than it was in 1996, even as 800,000
more people have received service. Through sensible water use, Durban's conservation measures paid for themselves
within a year. No new reservoirs will be needed in the coming decades, despite the expected addition of about 300,000
inhabitants.
MacLeod has also turned to water recycling. At the water recycling plant, wastewater is turned into clean
water in just 12 hours. Most people are unable to discern a difference between the usual city drinking water and the
treated wastewater, although it is actually intended for industrial purposes.
Some people still hope that new technology, such as the desalination of seawater, will solve the world's water
problems. “But the fact is, water conservation is where the big gains are to be made,” says Sandra Postel of the
Global Water Policy Project. The dedication and resourcefulness of people like Neil MacLeod offer inspiration for
implementing timely and lasting solutions to the world's water concern.
(Adopted from “Reading Explorer 4” by Paul MacIntyre and David Bohlke)
Question 43: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. South Africa to Successfully Desalinate Seawater
B. Tackling Water Problems: A Story from South Africa
C. The United Nations to Address Local Water Situations
D. Drinkable Seawater - A Dream Turning Sour?
Question 44: According to the passage, how many people have to drink unclean water worldwide?
A. 2.5 billion B. About 5 million C. 2.7 billion D. Around 1.2 billion
Question 45: The word “catastrophe” in paragraph 2 is mostly a situation which is_______.
A. disastrous B. unlikely C. local D. familiar
Question 46: The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to_______.
A. Durban B. water consumption C. household D. service
Question 47: The word “discern” in paragraph 4 could be best replaced by _______.
A. recognize B. emphasize C. examine D. appreciate
Question 48: What is the essence of Neil MacLeod's solutions to the water problems in Durban?
A. Reliance on foreign aid B. Exploitation of ground water
C. Conservation of water D. Construction of new reservoirs
Question 49: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Over forty percent of Durban's water was wasted through faulty plumbing, leaks and bursts
B. Money saved from sensible water use helped cover the cost of reservoir construction in Durban.
C. In Durban, treated wastewater is provided free of charge to meet the residents' daily needs.
D. Provision of desalinated seawater is the ultimate solution to the world's water problems.
Question 50: What can be inferred from the passage?
A. Each Durban household is not allowed to use more than 190 liters of water per day
B. Water shortages are the most severe in areas with substandard toilet facilities.
C. It used to take about half a day to convert wastewater into drinkable water.
D. A growth in population normally necessitates a rise in the number of reservoirs.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. washed B. formed C. turned D. boiled
Question 2: A. house B. mouth C. could D. found
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. inform B. explore C. prevent D. cancel
Question 4: A. attitude B. manager C. invention D. company
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: My parents hope to travel around ______ world next summer.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø (no article)
Question 6: If you watch this film, you ______ about the cultures of Southeast Asian countries.
A. learned B. were learning C. will learn D. would learn
Question 7: Paul noticed a job advertisement while he ______ along the street.
A. was walking B. would walk C. walked D. had walked
Question 8: Solar energy is not widely used ______ it is friendly to the environment.
A. since B. although C. in spite of D. because of
Question 9: The sign warns people ______ the dangers of swimming in this river.
A. about B. from C. with D. to
Question 10: ______, they were surprised to find their favourite band playing there.
A. On arrival at the party B. To have attended the party
C. They had arrived at the party D. Just attended the party
Question 11: Once ______ in large quantities, these products will be more affordably priced.
A. are produced B. having produced C. produced D. producing
Question 12: Jane would never forget ______ first prize in such a prestigious competition.
A. to be awarded B. being awarded C. to have awarded D. having awarded
Question 13: You should turn off the lights before going out to save ______.
A. electricity B. electrify C. electric D. electrically
Question 14: ______ school fees may discourage many students from attending university.
A. Gaining B. Receiving C. Improving D. Raising
Question 15: Drinking too much alcohol is said to ______ harm to our health.
A. make B. do C. lead D. take
Question 16: At the end of the training course, each participant was presented with a ______ of
completion.
A. degree B. certificate C. diploma D. qualification
Question 17: The ______ high levels of pollution in the coastal areas are a matter of great
concern to the government.
A. redundantly B. intensively C. marginally D. excessively
Question 18: Event organisers should plan everything carefully so as to leave nothing to ______.
A. possibility B. mistake C. opportunity D. chance
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21: Traffic congestion in big cities deters many people from using their private cars at
peak hours.
A. prohibits B. protects C. encourages D. limits
Question 22: These days, many people only read printed newspapers once in a while as they tend
to access information online.
A. regularly B. attentively C. occasionally D. selectively
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes
each of the following exchanges.
Question 23: Jack is inviting Mary to his party.
- Jack: ''Would you like to come to my party this weekend?''
- Mary: ''______.''
A. Yes, I'd love to B. No, don't worry C. You're welcome D. I'm afraid so
Question 24: Laura and Mitchell are talking about their school curriculum.
- Laura: ''I think Art should be a compulsory subject.''
- Mitchell: ''______. Art helps develop creativity.''
A. I quite agree B. You must be kidding
C. I'm of the opposite opinion D. I don't think that's a good idea
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29.
Advances in mobile technology and social networking websites mean we spend more time
online than ever before. If Facebook were a country, it would be the third largest in the world by
population (The Economist, 2010). It is (25) ______ not surprising that so many psychologists,
sociologists, and others are eager to give their thoughts on how this is impacting negatively on our
society.
The biggest criticism levelled at social networking is that young people are losing their
offline friends to online friends (26) ______ are unable to provide the same deep connection and
emotional support. However, a lot of research shows these criticisms are generally (27) ______.
Allen et al. (2010) discovered that it is socially adjusted adolescents who are more likely to have a
networking profile than those who are not. One study by the Pew Internet and American Life
Project (2009) found that people are not (28) ______ offline friends with online companions but
are using them to support their offline relationships. The study also found that social networks
allow us to have discussions with a much more diverse set of people than in the real world, so we
share knowledge with people from a wide (29) ______ of backgrounds.
(Adapted from ''Skillful Reading & Writing 4''by Mike Boyle and Lindsay Warwick)
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
Cambridge University is considering axing compulsory written exams, allowing students
to use laptops or iPads instead, after tutors complained that students' handwriting is becoming
illegible. Academics say the move, which would bring an end to over 800 years of tradition, has
come about because students rely too heavily on laptops in lectures, and are losing the ability to
write by hand.
Dr Sarah Pearsall, a senior lecturer at Cambridge University, said handwriting is becoming
a ''lost art'' among the current generation of students. She added, ''It's increasingly hard for our
examiners to read students' scripts. Those with illegible writing are forced to come back to their
college during the summer holidays to read their answers aloud in the presence of two university
administrators. It's extraordinarily commendable that the University is considering reforms to its
examination practices.''
Sir Anthony Seldon, Vice-Chancellor of the University of Buckingham, said it is
inevitable that universities will move to computers as handwriting deteriorates in the coming
Question 35: Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Cambridge University in an Attempt to Improve Students' Handwriting
B. Cambridge University Pondering Changes to its Exam Practices
C. Cambridge University Attacked again for Abolishing Written Exams
D. Cambridge University to Replace Written with Oral Exams
Question 36: According to paragraph 1, Cambridge University has a long-standing tradition of
______.
A. offering academic tutorials B. organising handwritten exams
C. relying heavily on technology D. training students in legible handwriting
Question 37: The word ''Those'' in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. examiners B. students C. scripts D. administrators
Question 38: The word "deteriorates'' in paragraph 3 mostly means ______.
A. remains unchanged B. becomes more important
C. improves gradually D. gets worse and worse
Question 39: It can be inferred from what Sir Anthony Seldon said in paragraph 3 that ______.
A. schools in the country used to have more time for handwriting practice
B. schools in the country have failed to preserve the beauty of English
C. people's handwriting generally reflects their intelligence and linguistic competence
D. the majority of doctors these days no longer write prescriptions by hand
Question 40: The word ''scrapping'' in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. reconsidering B. eliminating C. introducing D. discouraging
Question 41: As mentioned in paragraph 4, writing by hand can ______.
A. enhance the ability to remember information
B. guarantee desirable academic performance
C. facilitate the process of information exchange
D. relieve students of unnecessary pressure
Question 42: Which of the following statements is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Cambridge University’s move away from handwriting has already set an
unprecedented example for other schools to follow.
B. Sarah Pearsall acknowledged handwriting as an art form to be preserved among the
current generation of students at Cambridge University.
C. Sir Anthony Seldon claimed that learning to use great English was more important than
learning to write by hand beautifully.
D. Most of the tutors at Cambridge are skeptical of the university's decision regarding
handwritten exams.
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: My friends and I go usually to the park on the weekend.
A B C D
Question 44: Information on the Romans can find not only in these books but also on the Internet.
A B C D
Question 45: There are a number of updated entrances in the latest edition of the encyclopedia.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46: In Vietnam, football is more popular than basketball.
A. In Vietnam, basketball is not as popular as football.
B. In Vietnam, basketball is more popular than football.
C. In Vietnam, football is not as popular as basketball.
D. In Vietnam, football is as popular as basketball.
Question 47: ''What are you going to do after school, Anne?'' Kevin asked.
A. Kevin asked Anne what was she going to do after school.
B. Kevin asked Anne what she was going to do after school.
C. Kevin wanted to know what Anne would do after school.
D. Kevin wanted to know what would Anne do after school.
Question 48: Sally paid for her travel in advance, but it wasn’t necessary.
A. Sally needn't have paid for her travel in advance.
B. Sally might not have paid for her travel in advance.
C. Sally may not have paid for her travel in advance.
D. Sally couldn’t have paid for her travel in advance.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: Jenifer rejected the job offer. She now regrets it.
A. Jenifer regrets not having rejected the job offer.
B. If only Jenifer didn’t reject the job offer.
C. Jenifer wishes she hadn’t rejected the job offer.
D. Jenifer regrets to reject the job offer.
Question 50: Mike became a father. He felt a strong sense of responsibility towards his parents.
A. Were Mike to become a father himself, he would feel a strong sense of responsibility
towards his parents.
B. Only after Mike had become a father himself did he feel a strong sense of responsibility
towards his parents.
C. Had Mike become a father himself, he would have felt a strong sense of responsibility
towards his parents.
D. Not until he felt a strong sense of responsibility towards his parents did Mike become a
father himself.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A . book~ B. dream~ C. fall~ D. build~
Question 2: A. climb B. mind C. pick D . line
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position ofprimary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. correct B. final C. heavy D . normal
Question 4: A . attractive B. average C. classical D . regular
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: The boy is really funny, _ _ _ ?
A. isn' t he B. was he C. doesn' t he D. did he
Question 6: You shouldn' t sit in _ _ _ sun for too long.
A. a B. an C. the D. 0 (no article)
Question 7: There were lots of black clouds the sky just before the storm.
A. above B. at C. in D. on
Question 8: One effective way to lose weight is to avoid _ _ _ between meals.
A . to eat B. eating C . eat D. eaten
Question 9: If my father _ _ _ here now, he would help me fix my bicycle.
A. were B. is C . will be D. would be
Question 10: I have made a lot of new friends since my family _ _ _ here.
A . move B. moved C. will move D . was moving
Question 11: It' s really important to have a true friendship . it makes your life more meaningful.
A. although B. in spite of C. because D . because of
Question 12: I will come and see you _ __
A . when I was finishing my homework B. as soon as I have finished my homework
C. until I finished my homework D. after I had finished my homework
Question 13: My lifelong dream is to live in a house _ _ _ by a big garden full of flowers and trees.
A. is surrounding B. surrounding C . is surrounded D . surrounded
Question 14: A _ _ _ party was prepared to welcome the honoured guests.
A. special B. specialise C. specially D . specialisation
Question 15: Jack _ _ _ his best suit to make a good impression on his future in-laws.
A. took on B. took off C. put on D. put off
Question 16: Janice _ _ _ some useful suggestions for the class extra-curricular activities.
A. caused B. thought C. made D. caught
Question 17: Kevin enjoyed working with children so much that he decided to pursue a _ _ _ m
teaching.
A. career B. task C. duty D. work
Question 18: A reduction in the amount of paperwork has been proposed in an attempt to ease the _ __
on busy teachers.
A. emphasis B. density C. power D . pressure
Question 19: Having so many hobbies in common, Ted and Nick got on like a(n) _ _ _ on fire .
A . block B. house C . apartment D . bungalow
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: The fire brigade responded to the scene instantly upon receiving the emergency call.
A. suddenly B. immediately C. early D. steadily
Question 21: He is a naughty boy who likes teasing and playing tricks on his classmates.
A. mischievous B. guilty C. anxious D. adventurous
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The students felt more confident to enter the competition thanks to the encouraging
words from their teacher.
A. negative B. impressive C. progressive D. passive
Question 23: Lisa is now in two minds whether or not to take a gap year after leaving high school.
A. reluctant B. ignorant C. decisive D. intentional
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges. .
{ -~.
.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that bestfits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Mobile phones: a benefit or social nuisance?
Few people under 30 will be able to imagine a time before the existence of mobile phones.
Neither will they be (26) ___ ofthe harmful effect that many people predicted text language would
have on young people's language skills.
Interestingly, linguists nowadays believe that expressing oneself clearly in texts is evidence of
a good background in grammar and sentence structure. Mobile phones are credited with encouraging
people to communicate more. They can also provide reassurance to people (27) ___ are alone in
dangerous situations. Some people use mobile phones as a kind of barrier to unwelcome social contact;
texting can signal your unavailability to (28) ___ people in the same way that wearing sunglasses
and headphones does.
Some issues with mobile phones are still controversial. Talking loudly on the phone while on
public transport is thought to be rude and (29) ___ by many people in the UK. (30) ___ , a
significant minority of people still do it, despite the sighing and other obvious signs of disapproval
from their fellow passengers.
(Adapted from "A dvanced Expert" by Jan Bell and Roger Gower)
Trang 2/5
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Our lives are full of cardboard. The packaging of certain things we buy, from food products to
electrical goods, is made of cardboard. In the UK, over 8 million tons of the stuff is produced every
year just for packaging. It makes the things we buy more expensive, too. On average, 16% of the
money we spend on a product is for the packaging. And where does the packaging usually end up? In
the bin, of course, but hopefully that's the recycling bin not the rubbish bin!
Recycling cardboard is much more efficient than producing it in the first place. It takes 24%
less energy and produces 50% less sulphur dioxide to recycle it. Recycled cardboard has some
remarkable uses, too. Obviously, it ends up as packaging again, but it is also used as a building material.
It isn't as expensive as traditional materials and it is often more accessible. Some innovative and
environmentally friendly designers are actually using it to make furniture and buildings.
One such person is Japanese architect Shigeru Ban, who designed wonderful emergency
shelters made of cardboard tubes. The first people to use these were the survivors of the appalling
earthquake in Kobe, Japan, in 1995. Since then, they have been used in other places around the world
after terrible natural disasters. Perhaps Ban's most outstanding design is his cardboard cathedral in
Christchurch, New Zealand. His modem, eco-friendly cathedral for up to 700 people is a temporary
replacement for the ancient cathedral that was damaged in the earthquake in February 2011 .
(Adapted from "Achievers Bl" by Helen Halliwell)
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
What was, just a few days ago, the object of eager speculation among British children has
become a reality. Schools are shut. For an unspecified period, learning will take place at home, except
for a minority of pupils who are deemed to be vulnerable, or whose parents are key workers. Closing
schools was a necessary step that should have been taken sooner, as it was in other countries. Across
the world, school is part of the rhythm of life - for parents and teachers as well as pupils. Because of
coronavirus, an estimated 800 million children globally are now having their education interrupted.
Some may welcome this, at least at first. Nobody wants to catch Covid-19, or be responsible for
spreading it. With British schooling in preparation for primary school SATs, GCSEs and A-levels,
lessons can be more like drills than investigations. Some parents have already begun sharing plans (and
jokes) about homeschooling. However, most parents will feel less well equipped to teach older children.
Trang 3/5
The social impact of being separated from peers also varies for different age groups. Almost
all children, including some who find school difficult, benefit from the social experiences that it offers.
But for teenagers, whose emotional development requires them to become more separate from their
parents and carers, being forced back into the family nest carries particular stresses.
But economic inequality will be the biggest variable between the experiences of British
children over the next few months. In any society, school is a leveller. When they are there, pupils
share the same spaces, lessons, menus and teachers. At home, children of well-off parents invariably
live in bigger houses, are more likely to have their own bedrooms, two parents rather than one to
support them, and better access to technology as well as books and other learning resources, and food.
We must do our best over the corning months, and no one should begrudge those who are looking
forward to lessons or weekday lunches with their children. But during this particular period, the
government should do everything in its power to ensure that more vulnerable children and families do not
lose out. When things get back to normal, anyone who have fallen behind must be helped to catch up.
(Adapted from www. theguardian. com)
Question 36: Which is the most suitable title for the passage?
A . Life without School: Not a Level Playing Field
B. Homeschooling: You' ve Missed the Boat
C. Life at School: No Pain No Gain
D. In Praise Of Homeschooling
Question 37: The word "deemed" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to - - -
A. considered B. persuaded C. affected D. chosen
Question 38: According to paragraph 2, why does the idea of school closure seem appealing at first?
A. Because lessons at school have become unnecessary
B. Because most students haven't been well-prepared for the coming exams
C. Because parents hope to have more time with their children
D. Because people are unwilling to put their well-being at risk
Question 39: The word "them" in paragraph 3 refers to _ __
A . teenagers B. experiences C. carers D. stresses
Question 40: The word "invariably" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _ __
A. certainly B. changeably C. doubtfully D. variously
Question 41: According to the passage, which of the following would best facilitate homeschooling?
A. Families' wealth B. Teenagers' separation from peers
C. Teachers' expertise D. Parents' working experience
Question 42: Which statement is TRUE, according to the passage?
A . British schools are considering closure on account of Covid-19.
B. Children whose parents work in important industries are more vulnerable.
C. In any particular school, children have equal access to learning resources.
D . Modem parents believe they are in a good position to teach their offspring.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: Tom and Jerry are one of my son's favourite cartoons.
A B C D
Question 44: Doing regular exercise can keep you in shape, improve your health, and reducing stress.
A B C D
Question 45: TikTok, very entertained application, has become popular with the young recently .
A B C D
Trang 4/5
Mark the letter A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46: Jane is less sociable than her sister.
A. Jane's sister is not as sociable as she is. B. Jane's sister is less sociable than she is.
C. Jane is more sociable than her sister. D. Jane is not as sociable as her sister.
Question 47: "I went out with my friends last night," Tim said.
A. Tim said that I would go out with his friends last night.
B. Tim said that he went out with my friends the previous night.
C. Tim said that he had gone out with his friends the previous night.
D. Tim said that I had gone out with his friends last night.
Question 48: Perhaps we will be late for the meeting.
A. We must get to the meeting on time. B. We should get to the meeting on time.
C. We needn't get to the meeting on time. D. We may not get to the meeting on time.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: You can use my car. Make sure you bring it back by 7 p.m.
A. You can use my car unless you bring it back by 7 p.m.
B. You can't use my car if you bring it back by 7 p.m.
C. You can't use my car in case you forget to bring it back by 7 p.m.
D. You can use my car provided you bring it back by 7 p.m.
Question 50: The #Trashtag Challenge has had a great influence on people around the world. They
have started to clean up their nearby polluted areas.
A. So influential is the #Trashtag Challenge that people around the world have started to clean
up their nearby polluted areas.
B. Only if the #Trashtag Challenge greatly influenced people around the world would they start
cleaning up their nearby polluted areas.
C. Not until people around the world had started cleaning up their nearby polluted areas did
the #Trashtag Challenge greatly influence them.
D. But for the great influence of the #Trashtag Challenge, people around the world would have
started cleaning their nearby polluted areas.
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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2020
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ, Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
24
Họ, tên thí sinh: ………………………………..
Mã đề thi: 404
Số báo danh: ………………………………..
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. fold B. score C. close D. phone
Question 2: A. warms B. reads C. starts D. rings
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which differs from the other
three in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. ambition B. balcony C. furniture D. customer
Question 4: A. hobby B. luggage C. market D. machine
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: It’s necessary to listen to opinions that are ______ from ours.
A. difference B. differently C. differ D. different
Question 6: Those boys were excited about the new game in the beginning, but now they have ____ it.
A. looked after B. gone off C. filled in D. got on
Question 7: You often walk to school, ______ ?
A. won’t you B. didn’t you C. haven’t you D. don’t you
Question 8: A fashionista herself, Helena is ______ about her clothes, especially when making her
appearance in public.
A. receptive B. creditable C. particular D. feasible
Question 9: Polar bears are in danger of going extinct ______ climate change.
A. because of B. although C. because D. despite
Question 10: The city has changed a lot since I last ______ it.
A. visited B. would visit C. will visit D. visit
Question 11: I can't give chapter and ______ but to the best of my knowledge, it’s a line from “Romeo
and Juliet”.
A. rhyme B. scene C. verse D. note
Question 12: Fathers can ______ a good example to their children by helping with the household chores.
A. set B. hold C. raise D. follow
Question 13: The football team has waited ______ the championship for 30 years.
A. about В. up C. for D. to
Question 14: If I ______ you, I wouldn't go out in this weather.
A. am B. had been C. were D. will be
Question 15: My mother is often ______ first person to get up in the family.
A. a B. the C. no article D. an
Question 16: The local shop deals in many kinds of hair products ______ from reasonably priced
shampoos to rather expensive dyes.
A. ranging B. are ranged C. ranged D. are ranging
1
Question 17: My daughter sometimes practises ______ English with her friends after school.
A. to speaking B. to speak C. speak D. speaking
Question 18: You may not see how important your family is ______ .
A. after you had lived far from home B. when you were living far from home
C. until you live far from home D. as soon as you lived far from home
Question 19: Applications for admission to this university are not processed without a high school
______ .
A. diploma B. paper C. licence D. résumé
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: Gini and Adrian are talking about a book they have read lately.
- Gini: “That wasn’t an interesting book.”
- Adrian: “ ______ . I couldn’t go further than chapter 2.”
A. I think it will get better and better B. Yes, it gave me much information
C. You can say that again D. No, it was fascinating
Question 21: Dave is talking to Hannah after their school’s English speaking contest.
- Dave: “Congratulations! You've given a great performance.”
- Hannah: “ ______ ”
A. It's nice of you to say so. B. Me neither.
C. I'm sorry to hear that. D. No, don't worry.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Everyone was secretly rehearsing a surprise performance for Alex's proposal, but
annoyingly Jim let the cat out of the bag at the last minute.
A. abandoned the plan B. concealed the plan
C. revised the plan D. disclosed the plan
Question 23: The internal structure of the ancient palace is complicated like that of a maze.
A. simple B. complex C. attractive D. narrow
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: The beautiful sandy beach with a lot of sunshine and good foods made his holiday
complete.
A. terrible B. normal C. serious D. perfect
Question 25: The candidate was rejected as he could not meet all the requirements for this position.
A. arrange B. satisfy C. establish D. produce
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
TEENAGERS AND DIGITAL TECHNOLOGY
In many countries, there is a widespread perception that teenagers’ lives nowadays are dominated by
technology. However, the information (26) ______was gathered in a recent study of Australian
teenagers' use of and attitudes towards technology suggests that this view doesn't reflect the reality of
their everyday existence. The research by academics from the University of Canberra in Australia found
that, while most teenagers had ready access to home computers, mobile phones and (27)
______electronic devices, they generally spent more time on traditional (28) ______such technology.
Accessing social media and playing computer games ranked as low as ninth and tenth respectively
among the ten most common after-school activities.
2
Fifteen-year-old Laura Edmonds is one of the teenagers surveyed. She admits to being very (29) ______
to her smartphone and makes full use of various apps, (30) ______ if she needs to unwind after a hard
day at school, she tends to “hang out with my friends, listen to music or chat with my mum and dad”.
(Adapted from Exam Essentials Practice Tests - Cambridge English by Tom Bradbury and Eunice Yeates)
Question 26: A. when B. which C. where D. who
Question 27: A. one B. every C. other D. another
Question 28: A. operations B. pursuits C. events D. incidents
Question 29: A. enclosed B. attached C. related D. conformed
Question 30: A. nor B. till C. like D. but
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
More and more people are choosing to take a gap year between finishing school and starting university.
Alternatively, they may decide to take a gap year between graduating from university and starting a
career feeling the need for some time out before joining the rat race. Most students see the time as an
opportunity to travel. The idea of travelling to as many foreign places as possible appeals greatly.
A large percentage of gap-year students have wealthy parents who can easily subsidize their travel.
Others have to save up before they go, or look for some form of employment while travelling. For
example, they may work on local farms or in local hotels. By doing so, they not only earn some money,
but they are likely to meet local people and acquire some understanding of their culture.
There are some students who choose to work for the whole of their gap year. A number may decide to
get work experience, either at home or abroad, in an area which they hope to make their career, such as
medicine or computers. A large proportion of students are now choosing to work with a charity which
arranges voluntary work in various parts of the world. The projects would provide hands-on experience
of a very varied nature, from teaching to helping build roads or dams.
The gap year is not just an adventure. Young people can benefit greatly from encountering new and
varied experiences and from communication with a wide range of people. Perhaps most importantly, gap
year students have to learn to stand on their own two feet.
(Adapted from Thematic Vocabulary & Comprehension by Betty Kirkpatrick and Rebecca Mok)
Question 31: What could be the best title for the passage?
A. Working for life B. Taking time out
C. Studying of overseas D. Contributing to the Community
Question 32: The word “subsidize” in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by ______ .
A. ask for B. pay for C. work for D. apply for
Question 33: The word “their” in paragraph 2 refers to ______ .
A. local farms B. local hotels C. local people D. gap-year students
Question 34: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE?
A. The number of students taking a gap year between high school and university is falling.
B. None of the students choose to work for the whole of their gap year to get experience.
C. Most students consider a gap year as a chance to travel.
D. Students can take a gap year only before starting university.
Question 35: According to the passage, what is perhaps the most important benefit of students’ taking
a gap year?
A. They learn how to become independent.
B. They receive practical training for their future careers.
C. They have an opportunity to meet local people.
D. They earn money to support their further studies.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
3
“I have not paid a single electricity bill since the year 1970,” says Richard Perez with noticeable glee.
He can afford to be smug. He lives “off-grid” - unconnected to the power grid and the water, gas and
sewerage supplies that most people in the world rely on. He generates his own electricity, sources his
own water and deals with his own water disposal - and he prefers it that way. “There are times when the
grid blacks out,” he says, “I really like the security of having my own electricity company.”
Perez is not alone. Once the preserve of mavericks, hippies and survivalists, there are now approximately
200,000 off-grid households in the United States of America, a figure that Perez says has been increasing
by a third every year for the past decade. For all of the people who live off-grid, self-sufficiency means
guilt free energy consumption and peace of mind. “It feels brilliant to make use of clean, free energy
that is not from fossil fuels,” says Suzanne Gallant, a writer who lives off-grid in a rural area in Wales.
“And if something goes wrong we can fix it ourselves.” Now even urbanites are seeing the appeal of
generating some if not all of their own power needs. So is energy freedom and eco pipe-dream or the
ultimate good life?
Well, there is only one way to find out: begin to explore the possibilities of solar, wind and hydro power.
But unless you live on a sunny, south-facing hillside with access to a nearby river or stream, that might
prove prohibitively expensive!
There is no doubt that being off-grid has its problems, and it is not always the cheapest way to get the
energy you need. Even so, pioneers like Perez have proved that it can be done without giving up a 21st
century lifestyle: “I have got five personal computers, two laser scanners, two fridge-freezers, a
microwave, a convection oven, vacuum cleaners - you name it”, says Perez. “There is an external beam
antenna on the roof for the phone and a satellite for an Internet connection. I have got 70 kWh in batteries
that could last me five days. I have too much electricity.” Too much electricity and no more bills. That
has got to be worth aiming for.
(Adapted from English Unlimited by Adrian Doff and Ben Goldestein)
Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. No Water, No Life! B. Living without the Electricity
C. A Day in the Life of an “Off-gridder” D. Unplugging from the Grid
Question 37: The phrase “blacks out” in paragraph 1 mostly means ______ .
A. serves many purposes B. has no functions C. fails to work D. is able to run
Question 38: According to paragraph 1, Richard Perez has managed to ______ .
A. pay off his electric bills since 1970 B. provide energy for people in his neighborhood
C. save a lot of money with his own company D. stay independent of certain public utilities
Question 39: The word “pipe-dream” in paragraph 2 mostly means ______ .
A. an impractical hope B. a promising vision
C. a real nightmare D. a terrible situation
Question 40: The word “it” in paragraph 4 refers to ______ .
A. being a pioneer B. being off-grid
C. giving up a 21st century lifestyle D. getting the energy
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. People opting for off-grid living used to be considered quite eccentric.
B. Some city dwellers have shown an interest in producing their own electricity.
C. “Off-gridders” enjoy not doing harm to the environment.
D. The number of off-gridders’ in the US is said to have risen by 33% over the past 10 years.
Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Many off-gridders’ have made a fortune selling their own electricity.
B. Adopting an off-grid life-style is only suitable for low-income people.
C. Leading a 21st century lifestyle means consuming a great deal of electricity.
D. Most people living in temperate regions are against the idea of living off-grid.
4
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 43: Single-use plastic products are convenient. They are detrimental to the environment.
A. It is their detriment to the environment that makes single-use plastic products convenient.
B. Convenient though single-use plastic products are, they are detrimental to the environment.
C. Not only are single-use plastic products convenient, they are also detrimental to the environment.
D. Were single-use plastic products convenient, they would be detrimental to the environment.
Question 44: They were unexpected twists in the movie. It was so fascinating.
A. If there had been unexpected twists in the movie, it would have been so fascinating.
B. But for the unexpected twists in the movie, it wouldn't have been so fascinating.
C. Without the unexpected twists in the movie, it wouldn't be so fascinating.
D. Suppose that there were unexpected twists in the movie, it would be so fascinating.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to the sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 45: Peter is more successful than his sister.
A. Peter is as successful as his sister. B. Peter’s sister is more successful than he is.
C. Peter is less successful than his sister. D. Peter’s sister is not as successful as he is.
Question 46: “I'm going on a picnic tomorrow”, he said.
A. He said that he was going on a picnic the following day.
B. He said that I was going on a picnic tomorrow.
C. He said that he was going on a picnic tomorrow.
D. He said that I am going on a picnic the following day.
Question 47: It is compulsory for all the students to hand in their assignments on time.
A. All the students must hand in their assignments on time.
B. All the students can't hand in their assignments on time.
C. All the students may hand in their assignments on time.
D. All the students needn't hand in their assignments on time.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
on each of the following questions.
Question 48: Protective gear for fire fighters is supposed to be made of inflammable materials so as to
eliminate the risk of fires.
A. Protective B. inflammable C. eliminate D. risk
Question 49: It always take parents a lot of time and patience to bring up their children.
A. take B. a lot of C. patience D. their
Question 50: The company is looking for a candidate who is honest, hard-working, and responsibility.
A. is B. for C. who D. responsibility
HẾT
5
BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2020
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ, Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
25
Họ, tên thí sinh: ………………………………..
Mã đề thi: 407
Số báo danh: ………………………………..
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. clouds B. farms C. pains D. costs
Question 2: A. lake B. game C. shape D. flat
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which differs from the other
three in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. successful B. important C. musical D. expensive
Question 4: A. arrive B. accept C. include D. practice
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: Peter is an ambitious man who will never _______ till he gets what he wants.
A. put on B. give up C. turn down D. take back
Question 6: If I _______ you, I would spend more time with the children.
A. would be B. will be C. am D. were
Question 7: I would like to extend my gratitude to all the staff for their _______ support, without which
our company couldn’t have overcome the crisis.
A. unfailing B. unbending C. unmoving D. unfeeling
Question 8: Mary feels confident about the competition _______ she has been well-prepared for it.
A. although B. because of C. because D. despite
Question 9: It’s no good _______ a fuss and arguing over such an unimportant issue.
A. holding B. making C. getting D. doing
Question 10: Bill’s mother won’t let him go out with his friends _______ .
A. after he had finished his homework B. once he finished his homework
C. until he has finished his homework D. when he finished his homework
Question 11: The graphics of this book are attractive, but its _______ is not original at all.
A. chapter B. character C. page D. content
Question 12: Having your private life scrutinized closely by the public is regarded as part and _______
of being a celebrity.
A. parcel B. packet C. package D. post
Question 13: The whole world is waiting _______ a vaccine against Covid-19.
A. to B. by C. for D. in
Question 14: One _______ method for keeping our mind active is doing crossword puzzles.
A. popularity B. popular C. popularize D. popularly
Question 15: Most women expect _______ more help with the housework from their husbands.
A. get B. to get C. getting D. to getting
Question 16: He is often _______ last person to leave the office.
A. Ø (no article) B. the C. an D. a
Question 17: You like the food here, _______ .
A. don’t you B. didn’t you C. haven’t you D. won’t you
6
Question 18: Health experts strongly advise patients with hypertension to avoid food _______ high
amount of fat.
A. contains B. containing C. is contained D. contained
Question 19: Her academic performance has greatly improved since she _______ study methods.
A. changed B. will change C. would change D. was changing
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: Peter was very sick until he took the marvellous medicine that Doctor Staples prescribed.
A. secret B. wonderful C. attractive D. terrible
Question 21: Tickets for such events will be typically cheap unless you want seats in the VIP areas.
A. normally B. rarely C. directly D. carefully
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: When I suggested he was mistaken, John got hot under the collar and stormed out of the
room.
A. became furious B. got emotional C. felt anxious D. remained calm
Question 23: Despite numerous hard pushes, he couldn’t make the window open.
A. strong B. firm C. gentle D. plain
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 24: Helen and Sarah are talking about their school's field trip.
- Helen: “This is the best field trip we’ve ever had.”
- Sarah: “ _______ . Everyone enjoyed it to the fullest.”
A. I don’t think that's a good idea B. Never mind
C. I totally disagree D. You’re right
Question 25: Jenny and Kathy are arranging to see a new film.
- Jenny: “Why don’t you come over and see the new film with me?”
- Kathy: “ _______ ”
A. You’re welcome. B. Great! I’d love to.
C. Oh, I’m afraid so. D. Wow! I didn’t realize that.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
on each of the following questions.
Question 26: John’s classmates like him since he is friendly, honest, and kindness.
A. like B. since C. is D. kindness
Question 27: Richard enjoy taking part in social activities during his summer holiday.
A. enjoy B. in C. activities D. his
Question 28: Public speaking is quite a frightening experience for many people as it can produce a status
of mind similar to panic.
A. quite B. frightening C. status D. panic
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to the sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 29: “I’m going back to work next week,” said Harry.
A. Harry said that he was going back to work the following week.
B. Harry said that I was going back to work the following week.
C. Harry said that he was going back to work the next week.
D. Harry said that I am going back to work next week.
7
Question 30: It is compulsory for the students in this school to wear uniform.
A. The students in this school may wear uniform.
B. The students in this school can’t wear uniform.
C. The students in this school needn’t wear uniform.
D. The students in this school must wear uniform.
Question 31: She is more responsible than her brother.
A. Her brother is more responsible than she is. B. She is as responsible as her brother.
C. Her brother isn't as responsible as she is. D. She is less responsible than her brother.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: Online distribution of pirated publications is illegal. Many Internet users still commit the
offence.
A. As long as many Internet users commit the offence, online distribution of pirated publications is
illegal.
B. Illegal though online distribution of pirated publications is, many Internet users still commit the
offence.
C. Were online distribution of pirated publications illegal, many Internet users wouldn't commit the
offence.
D. Such is the offence of many Internet users that online distribution of pirated publications is illegal.
Question 33: He lacked commitment to the job. He wasn’t considered for promotion.
A. But for his lack of commitment to the job, he would have been considered for promotion.
B. If it had not been for his lack of commitment to the job, he would be considered for promotion.
C. Suppose that he lacked commitment to the job, he wouldn't be considered for promotion.
D. Without his commitment to the job, he would have been considered for promotion.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
INTERNSHIPS
In many countries going through difficult economic times, job openings for new graduates can be few
and far between. In this competitive environment, relevant work experience can help job seekers stand
out from the crowd, and (34) _______ organizations now offer temporary placements, called internships.
The problem with numerous internships, (35) _______, is that they are unpaid, and this often puts young
people off applying for them.
Employers and interns sometimes come to mutually beneficial arrangements, however. Dinesh Pathan,
applying for an internship with an IT company, negotiated a deal in which he would be given travel (36)
_______ only for two weeks, and then, as long as he could show his marketing work was adding value,
he would be paid a wage. The arrangement worked well: Dinesh had a(n) (37) _______ to work hard,
and he ended up feeling “not so much an intern as a temporary staffer”. HR consultant Denise Baker
says similar arrangements are common. What is more, “if interns do well, employers would often rather
make them full employees than recruit people (38) _______ they don't know”.
(Adapted from Exam Essentials Practice Tests - Cambridge English by Tom Bradbury and Eunice Yeates)
Question 34: A. much B. another C. many D. every
Question 35: A. moreover B. therefore C. instead D. however
Question 36: A. destinations B. expenses C. companions D. restrictions
Question 37: A. persuasion B. incentive C. promotion D. profit
Question 38: A. who B. when C. which D. where
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
8
Staying in hotels and resorts has been a traditional part of travel since the beginning of mass tourism.
But nowadays, many tourists want a more intimate experience. For this reason, they are choosing to “go
native”. This often means staying in the kinds of places that local people inhabit. In big cities, you can
try staying with a friend of a friend. You may end up sleeping on the couch or the floor, but the
advantages outweigh the discomfort. The biggest plus is that you'll be staying with a local and seeing
the city from a local perspective.
Another option is house-swapping. Several websites allow you to connect with people who want to trade
living situations. It's usual to exchange emails about favourite places in the city before the swap, meaning
you can have a truly local experience. But of course, you can only do this if you don't mind having
strangers staying in your house.
For the more adventurous, staying in a native structure in an African village or a hut on the water in
Vietnam or Thailand can be a real thrill. These might not even include plumbing or electricity, and that
is part of the charm. The experience of dealing with oil lamps and carrying water really gives you a
sense of how the people live.
No matter how unadventurous you feel, you might want to consider crossing hotels off your list. Getting
to know the local way of life is the most valuable part of travel. And what better way is there to do this
than staying where the local people actually live?
(Adapted from Solutions - Third Edition by Tim Falla and Paul A Davies)
Question 39: What is the passage mainly about?
A. Adventurous holiday activities B. Main tourist attractions in Asia
C. New holiday accommodation trend D. World heritage sites
Question 40: The word “they” in paragraph 1 refers to _______ .
A. local people B. tourists C. hotels D. resorts
Question 41: What is the biggest advantage of tourists going native?
A. It is cheaper than staying in other kinds of accommodation.
B. It offers them opportunities to make new friends.
C. It is more comfortable than staying in hotels and resorts.
D. It enables them to experience the local lifestyle.
Question 42: The word “charm” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______ .
A. safety B. attraction C. danger D. price
Question 43: Which of the following is mentioned in the passage?
A. Dealing with oil lamps is the most thrilling experience for tourists to Vietnam.
B. Tourists to Thailand prefer staying in a native structure to staying in a hut.
C. Staying with local people is more popular than staying in hotels and resorts.
D. There are several websites used for house-swapping purposes.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
One day, a middle-aged man asked a taxi to take him to see Chelsea play Arsenal at football. He told the
driver “Stamford Bridge”, the name of Chelsea’s stadium, but he was delivered instead to the village of
Stamford Bridge in Yorkshire. Of course, he missed the match.
What had happened? With the Sat-Nav system in place, the driver in this story felt he did not need to
know where he was going. He confidently outsourced the job of knowing this information to the Sat-
Nav. Using an Internet search engine takes a broadband user less than a second. And with smartphones
at hand, people will be online almost all of the time.
The same could be true of university education. Today, the average student seems not to value general
knowledge. If asked a factual question, they will usually click on a search engine without a second
thought. Actually knowing the fact and committing it to memory does not seem to be an issue, it's the
ease with which we can look it up.
9
However, general knowledge has never been something that you acquire formally. Instead, we pick it
up from all sorts of sources as we go along, often absorbing facts without realizing. The question
remains, then: is the Internet threatening general knowledge? When I put that to Moira Jones, expert in
designing IQ tests, she referred me to the story of the Egyptian god Thoth. It goes like this: Thoth offers
writing as a gift to the king of Egypt, declaring it an “elixir of memory and wisdom.” But the king is
horrified, and tells him: “This invention will induce forgetfulness in the souls of those who have learned
it, because they will not need to exercise their memories, being able to rely on what is written.”
Who wants to be a millionaire finalist David Swift, responding to the same question, recognizes that
there was a problem of young people saying: "I don't need to know that", but he is far more excited about
the educational potential of the Internet. “There is so much more information out there, giving people
opportunities to boost their general knowledge.”
After all, the Internet might just help us to forget more and more. But meanwhile, the continuing
popularity of quizzes and game-shows shows us that general knowledge is strong enough to remain.
(Adapted from English Unlimited by Adrian Doff and Ben Goldstein)
Question 44: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. The End of General Knowledge? B. The Age of the Robot?
C. Novel Applications of the Sat-Nav System D. New Perspectives on Tertiary Education
Question 45: Why did the middle-aged man miss the football match?
A. Because the taxi driver was over-dependent on technology.
B. Because the search engine in the taxi failed to work.
C. Because he did not remember the directions to the stadium.
D. Because the Sat-Nav in his car was out of order.
Question 46: The word “outsourced” in paragraph 2 mostly means _______ .
A. submitted B. exchanged C. imposed D. assigned
Question 47: The word “that” in paragraph 4 refers to ______.
A. the story B. the Internet
C. the question D. general knowledge
Question 48: The word “induce” in paragraph 4 mostly means ______.
A. ease B. promote C. cause D. limit
Question 49: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Young people do not seem to bother themselves with memorizing factual information.
B. General knowledge tends to have been mainly acquired through formal schooling.
C. On being offered the gift of writing, the king of Egypt was hopeful about its potential.
D. The majority of undergraduates are reluctant to look for answers to factual questions online.
Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. David Swift believes that informal acquisition of knowledge has been overrated these days.
B. Many universities worldwide have switched to virtual platforms for learning and teaching.
C. When it comes to IQ tests, the ability to recall factual information is of little importance.
D. Moira Jones is not positive about the potential of the Internet in general knowledge acquisition.
----- HẾT-----
10
BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2020
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ, Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
26
Họ, tên thí sinh: ………………………………..
Mã đề thi: 413
Số báo danh: ………………………………..
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. slice B. prize C. bride D. click
Question 2: A. clears B. brings C. talks D. trains
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which differs from the other
three in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. beauty B. album C. question D. success
Question 4: A. imagine B. discover C. decorate D. consider
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 5: With so many bruises over the body, it is obvious that the child has had a bad fall.
A. unfair B. correct C. known D. unclear
Question 6: When I suggested he was mistaken, Mark got hot under the collar and stormed out of the
room.
A. felt anxious B. remained calm C. became furious D. got emotional
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7: The new movie was a big hit as tickets for most of the showings were sold out.
A. success B. failure C. threat D. beat
Question 8: Being a wise politician, Mr. Brown tends to reserve his judgements till he knows all the
facts.
A. decisions B. appearances C. bookings D. benefits
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 9: Pat and Sam are talking about doing exercise.
- Pat: “I don’t think we should exercise late at night”
- Sam: “ _______ . This increases our heartbeats and makes it harder to sleep.”
A. You can do it again B. It’s not sure C. I disagree with you D. You’re right
Question 10: Anna is talking to Mark after their school’s talent contest.
- Anna: “So, you’re the winner. Congratulations!”
- Mark: “ _______ ”
A. Not at all. B. Thank you. C. You’re welcome. D. No problem.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Question 11: The director extended his gratitude to all the staff for their _______ support, without which
the company couldn't have overcome its difficult time.
A. unfeeling B. unmoving C. unbending D. unfailing
Question 12: He won’t understand what the responsibilities of a father are _______ .
A. as soon as he had his first child B. once he had his first child
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C. after he had had his first child D. until he has his first child
Question 13: If I _______ you, I would take the doctor’s advice.
A. will be B. are C. were D. had been
Question 14: Many animal species are under threat of extinction _______ widespread deforestation.
A. because of B. although C. because D. despite
Question 15: Dubai is famous _______ its exciting nightlife.
A. for B. on C. to D. with
Question 16: Thousands of _______ packed into the stadium to support their team in the final match.
A. spectators B. witnesses C. viewers D. audiences
Question 17: Sometimes it can be really _______ to go hiking alone in the forest.
A. endanger B. danger C. dangerous D. dangerously
Question 18: You often drive to work, _______ ?
A. didn’t you B. won’t you C. haven’t you D. don’t you
Question 19: Instead of reading stories from books, Michelle’s father usually _______ stories to lull her
to sleep.
A. gets on B. takes after C. makes up D. turns of
Question 20: Having your private life splashed across the front pages of newspapers and glossy
magazines is part and _______ of being a celebrity.
A. parcel B. packet C. post D. package
Question 21: Experts agree that too hard work out may _______ more harm than good.
A. hold B. do C. set D. make
Question 22: Mary has been financially independent since she _______ to work.
A. was going out B. went out C. would go out D. will go out
Question 23: Tom doesn’t mind _______ his father mend things around the house.
A. to helping B. helping C. help D. to help
Question 24: Even little things like turning off the lights when not in you can make a difference to the
amount of electricity _______ .
A. consuming B. is consuming C. is consumed D. consumed
Question 25: Mr. Smith is often _______ first person to come to the office in the morning.
A. the B. an C. Ø (no article) D. a
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
SOCIAL NETWORKING SITES
Social networking sites are now estimated to have over 700 million users worldwide. As users can create
their own profiles, you might expect them to portrait themselves in the best possible light. When putting
up a profile, it would be (26) _______ for them to present flattering images, choose sophisticated and
discerning interests, and carefully express their thoughts to appear more intelligent than in real life. (27)
_______, according to a recent study conducted on 250 Facebook users, this is not the case. Far from
being idealised versions of themselves, most users’ profiles (28) _______ closely to what they are really
like and show their true personalities including their both psychological weaknesses and natural physical
flaws.
It’s not entirely clear why online profiles depict users’ personalities so accurately. It could be that users
want to portray themselves as they really are, or that people attempt to present an ideal image of
themselves but fail to do so. One thing seems clear: social networking sites can in no way be considered
a false online world (29) _______ is idealised and removed from reality; rather, they are simply (30)
_______ way in which people choose to interact with each other.
(Adapted from English Unlimited by Adrian Doff and Ben Goldstein)
12
Question 26: A. exceptional B. believable C. reasonable D. controversial
Question 27: A. Therefore B. Besides C. However D. Furthermore
Question 28: A. comply B. conform C. abide D. follow
Question 29: A. where B. when C. that D. who
Question 30: A. few B. another C. other D. many
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
For many years, schoolchildren in the US have been taken on “field trips” to cultural institutions and
historical sites. Despite these trips involving some expense and disruption to class timetables, educators
arrange them in the belief that schools exist not only to teach economically useful skills, but also to
produce civilized young people who appreciate the arts and culture.
However, there have been increasing signs in recent years that the attitude towards field trips is changing,
with a significant decrease in the number of tours organized for school groups. A survey carried out by
a group of school administrators found that over half the schools they asked had decided to cancel trips
planned for the next academic year.
So what are the reasons for this change? The most obvious one is the issue of finance. Because there are
increasing demands on their funds, schools are forced to make a difficult choice about how to spend the
limited money they have. Field trips are an obvious thing to cut since they are seen by many as a luxury.
A large number of school heads also consider days spent away from school a waste of time, believing
that the only worthwhile use of students' time is spent preparing for exams in the classroom.
But why should anybody worry if schoolchildren go on fewer trips? Those that believe this is a negative
development in education would say that cultural field trips contribute to the development of students
into well- educated adults who have a healthy interest in history and the arts. Researchers warn that if
schools cut field trips, then valuable opportunities to broaden and enrich children's learning experiences
are lost.
(Adapted from Exam Booster by Helen Chilton, Sheila Dignen, Mark Fountain and Frances Treloar)
Question 31: What is the passage mainly about?
A. Positive changes in American schools B. Valuable academic learning experiences
C. Field trips for school children D. New trends in educational development
Question 32: According to paragraph 1, educators believe that through field trips, children can _______
.
A. enjoy their time at school B. practice some outdoor activities
C. learn to value the arts and culture D. develop economically useful skills only
Question 33: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to _______ .
A. field trips B. the schools
C. school groups D. school administrators
Question 34: The phrase “a luxury” in paragraph 3 mostly describes something which is _______ .
A. difficult and important B. expensive but not essential
C. new and common D. cheap but comfortable
Question 35: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE?
A. Schools no longer have to pay for their student's field trips.
B. Most school heads find it not worthwhile for students to spend time preparing for exams.
C. The number of field trips organized for school groups is growing.
D. Cutting field trips may mean fewer opportunities for students’ cultural learning.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
13
“I have not paid a single electricity bill since the year 1970,” says Richard Perez with noticeable glee.
He can afford to be smug. He lives “off-grid” - unconnected to the power grid and the water, gas and
sewerage supplies that most people in the world rely on. He generates his own electricity, sources his
own water and deals with his own water disposal - and he prefers it that way. “There are times when the
grid blacks out,” he says, “I really like the security of having my own electricity company.”
Perez is not alone. Once the preserve of mavericks, hippies and survivalists, there are now approximately
200,000 off-grid households in the United States of America, a figure that Perez says has been increasing
by a third every year for the past decade. For all of the people who live off-grid, self-sufficiency means
guilt free energy consumption and peace of mind. “It feels brilliant to make use of clean, free energy
that is not from fossil fuels,” says Suzanne Gallant, a writer who lives off-grid in a rural area in Wales.
“And if something goes wrong, we can fix it ourselves.” Now even urbanites are seeing the appeal of
generating some if not all off their own power needs. So is energy freedom and eco pipe-dream or the
ultimate good life?
Well, there is only one way to find out: begin to explore the possibilities of solar, wind and hydro power.
But unless you live on a sunny, south-facing hillside with access to a nearby river or stream, that might
prove prohibitively expensive!
There is no doubt that being off-grid has its problems, and it is not always the cheapest way to get the
energy you need. Even so, pioneers like Perez have proved that it can be done, and without giving up a
21st century lifestyle: “I have got five personal computers, two laser scanners, two fridge-freezers, a
microwave, a convection oven, vacuum cleaners - you name it”, says Perez. “There is an external beam
antenna on the roof for the phone and a satellite for an Internet connection. I have got 70 kWh in batteries
that could last me five days. I have too much electricity.” Too much electricity and no more bills. That
has got to be worth aiming for.
(Adapted from English Unlimited by Adrian Doff and Ben Goldestein)
Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. A Day in the Life of an “Off-gridder” B. Unplugging from the Grid
C. No Water, No Life! D. Living without the Electricity
Question 37: The phrase “blacks out” in paragraph 1 mostly means _______ .
A. has no functions B. fails to work
C. is able to run D. serves many purposes
Question 38: According to paragraph 1, Richard Perez has managed to _______ .
A. stay independent of certain public utilities B. save a lot of money with his own company
C. pay off his electric bills since 1970 D. provide energy for people in his neighborhood
Question 39: The word “pipe-dream” in paragraph 2 mostly means _______ .
A. an impractical hope B. a promising vision C. a terrible situation D. a real nightmare
Question 40: The word “it” in paragraph 4 refers to _______ .
A. getting the energy B. being off-grid
C. giving up a 21st century lifestyle D. being a pioneer
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. The number of “off-gridders” in the US is said to have risen by 33% over the past 10 years.
B. Some city dwellers have shown an interest in producing their own electricity.
C. People opting for off-grid living used to be considered quite eccentric.
D. “Off-gridders” enjoy not doing harm to the environment.
Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Most people living in temperate regions are against the idea of living off-grid.
B. Leading a 21st century lifestyle means consuming a great deal of electricity.
C. Adopting an off-grid lifestyle is only suitable for low-income people.
D. Many “off-gridders” have made a fortune selling their own electricity.
14
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
on each of the following questions.
Question 43: Reading books, listening to music, and play sports are among the most popular leisure
activities.
A. play B. are C. the D. activities
Question 44: My mother always give me a big hug before I go to school in the morning.
A. give B. big C. to D. morning
Question 45: One necessary preventive measure to be taken is that the public should be on the outlook
for symptoms of the disease.
A. preventive B. taken C. the public D. outlook
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to the sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 46: It is compulsory for all the students to finish their class work before going home.
A. All the students may finish their class work before going home.
B. All the students needn’t finish their class work before going home.
C. All the students can’t finish their class work before going home.
D. All the students must finish their class work before going home
Question 47: Tom is more ambitious than his elder sister.
A. Tom’s elder sister is not as ambitious as he is. B. Tom is as ambitious as his elder sister.
C. Tom’s elder sister is more ambitious than he is. D. Tom is less ambitious than his elder sister.
Question 48: “I’m going to have a job interview tomorrow,” said Paul.
A. Paul said that he was going to have a job interview tomorrow.
B. Paul said that I am going to have a job interview tomorrow.
C. Paul said that I was going to have a job interview the following day.
D. Paul said that he was going to have a job interview the following day.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: The English patient made a miraculous recovery from Covid-19. This was thanks to the
efforts of the Vietnamese medical staff.
A. Without the efforts of the Vietnamese medical staff, the English patient couldn't make a miraculous
recovery from Covid-19.
B. But for the efforts of the Vietnamese medical staff, the English patient couldn't have made a
miraculous recovery from Covid-19.
C. Suppose that the English patient made a miraculous recovery from Covid-19, the Vietnamese
medical staff would make efforts.
D. If the English patient had made a miraculous recovery from Covid-19, the Vietnamese medical staff
would have made efforts.
Question 50: Some mobile applications are very tempting. They may expose users to identity theft.
A. So tempting are some mobile applications that they limit users’ exposure to identity theft.
B. Tempting though some mobile applications are, they may expose users to identity theft.
C. It is the temptation of identity theft that exposes users to some mobile applications.
D. Not only is identity theft tempting, it also exposes users to some mobile applications.
HẾT
15
BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2020
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ, Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
27
Họ, tên thí sinh: ………………………………..
Mã đề thi: 424
Số báo danh: ………………………………..
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 1: David and Tim are talking about films.
- David: “In my opinion, action films are really exciting.”
- Tim: “ ____________They always give me thrills.”
A. You shouldn’t say that. B. That’s wrong.
C. What nonsense! D. I couldn’t agree more.
Question 2: Joe and Linda are planning a night out.
- Joe: “Let’s go out for dinner tonight.”
- Linda: “ ___________ ”
A. Good luck! B. That’s a good idea.
C. Don’t worry. D. You’re welcome.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 3: Mrs Carter feels happy _______ her daughter has made good progress in her studies
recently.
A. because of B. although C. because D. despite
Question 4: The air quality in this area has improved a lot since that factory _______ .
A. would close B. closed C. will close D. was closing
Question 5: You often play sports, _______ ?
A. won’t you B. don’t you C. didn’t you D. haven’t you
Question 6: An accomplished chef himself, Ronald is _______ about his use of ingredients and spices,
especially when preparing feasts.
A. particular B. creditable C. feasible D. receptive
Question 7: I'm planning _______ my children to the new amusement park this weekend.
A. taking B. to taking C. to take D. take
Question 8: You will not know who your true friend is _______ .
A. as soon as you had trouble and needed help B. until you have trouble and need help
C. when you were having trouble and needing help D. after you had had trouble and needed help
Question 9: My aunt excitedly _______ a compliment on the scarf I knitted for her as a birthday present.
A. paid B. passed C. caught D. took
Question 10: The data _______ from the survey allowed the researchers to gain insights into young
people’s attitudes to marriage.
A. is obtained B. obtains C. obtained D. obtaining
Question 11: The Covid-19 pandemic reminds us to respect doctors and nurses, who _______ others in
our society.
A. go on B. pick up C. care for D. call back
Question 12: Hoi An is famous _______ its ancient architecture.
A. with B. to C. up D. for
16
Question 13: I can't give chapter and _______ , but to the best of my knowledge, it’s a line from a sonnet
by William Shakespeare.
A. scene B. verse C. note D. rhyme
Question 14: The jobs give you lots of chances to travel abroad; it’s certainly a very _______ offer.
A. attractive B. attract C. attractively D. attraction
Question 15: The striker had already celebrated the goal, but the _______ decided that he had been
offside.
A. referee B. examiner C. judge D. inspector
Question 16: My mother is often _______ last person to go to the bed in my family.
A. the B. Ø (no article) C. an D. a
Question 17: If I _______ you, I wouldn't stay up this late.
A. am B. were C. will be D. would be
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 18: A. packs B. mails C. wraps D. paints
Question 19: A. push B. hunt C. cut D. run
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which differs from the other
three in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 20: A. habitat B. calendar C. capital D. attraction
Question 21: A. support B. destroy C. promise D. believe
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Everyone was secretly rehearsing a surprise performance for Peter’s proposal, but
annoying James let the cat out of the bag at the last minute.
A. revised the plan B. concealed the plan
C. disclosed the plan D. abandoned the plan
Question 23: Having to work to a deadline can be a stressful experience for students.
A. painful B. relaxing C. tense D. practical
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: I invited John to my wedding but he declined, saying that he would be busy.
A. criticized B. refused C. confirmed D. accepted
Question 25: The author mostly writes novels, and he has also published some books of poetry.
A. partly B. only C. rarely D. mainly
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
YOUR ONLINE IDENTITY
Presenting yourself in the best possible light to a prospective employer is what job applications are all
about. (26) _______ when you put together a compelling CV, write your concise covering letter and
check your LinkedIn profile, you might also want to “Google” yourself and see what comes up, because
increasingly that’s what employers are doing. Your online identity, in (27) _______ your Facebook
profile, could in fact be considered the ultimate CV - a personal, honest and spontaneous description of
how you see yourself and how those (28) _______ know you see you.
That’s not to say that a potential employer is necessarily going to disapprove of your silly behaviours on
a night out with friends, indeed, they might be looking for an extrovert character. But it does mean they
will be examining your real interests and motivations and mining (29) _______ sited for clues to your
true character. So if you say in your CV you’re a motivated, loyal team player and then criticize your
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employer to friends on Facebook, that’s probably not going to go (30) _______. Try Googling yourself
and then ask: “Would you hire you?”
(Adapted from Keynote by Paul Dummett, Helen Stephenson and Lewis Lansford)
Question 26: A. Nor B. So C. Or D. Till
Question 27: A. particular B. all C. general D. short
Question 28: A. where B. what C. who D. which
Question 29: A. every B. each C. such D. much
Question 30: A. unjustified B. unnoticed C. unchanged D. unattended
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Most of us have taken a selfie at one time or another, be it a photo of ourselves in a beautiful place,
during a performance by our favourite band, or on a memorable night out with friends. But today, more
and more people are putting their lives at risk in an attempt to get the most shocking pictures to share on
social media. In several cases, this action has had disastrous consequences.
Take, for example, the Spaniard who was killed by a bull while he was taking a selfie during the annual
bull run in a village near his hometown, or the Singaporean tourist who died when he fell from cliffs on
the coast of Bali. Such incidents have led to the death toll from selfie-related incidents reaching double
figures for the first time in 2015, overtaking the number of victims of shark attacks.
Despite the risks, social media is full of pictures featuring near misses that could have been fatal under
other circumstances. Under the caption “Most dangerous selfie ever”, a woman posing at a stadium can
be seen narrowly avoiding being hit in the head by a baseball approaching her. Yet the photo has received
thousands of “likes”, and the comments below it suggest that this behaviour is something to be admired.
In response to the increasing threat posed by the selfie, the authorities have started to take action. The
Russian Interior Ministry, for instance, has launched a public education campaign advising selfie-takers
against balancing on dangerous surfaces or posing with their pets, among other things. But if instructions
like this are really necessary, then perhaps it is about time we asked ourselves which is more important,
a “like” or a life?
(Adapted from Solutions - Third Edition by Tim Falla and Paul A Davies)
Question 31: What could be the best title for the passage?
A. Dying for a Selfie B. Positive Trends in Photography
C. Posing with Animals D. A Ban on Selfie-taking
Question 32: According to paragraph 1, selfie takers try to get shocking pictures mainly to _______ .
A. show off their beautiful lives B. share them with others
C. upset other people D. have lovely memories with friends
Question 33: The word “overtaking” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______ .
A. becoming greater than B. dealing with
C. becoming better than D. competing with
Question 34: The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to _______ .
A. a stadium B. a baseball C. the head D. the photo
Question 35: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. There was an increase in the number of selfie-related deaths in 2015.
B. Action has been taken to warn selfie-takers against dangerous situations.
C. Taking a selfie with pets is considered the most dangerous.
D. Pictures of near misses are popular on social media.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
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One day, a middle-aged man asked a taxi to take him to see Chelsea play Arsenal at football. He told the
driver “Stamford Bridge”, the name of Chelsea’s stadium, but he was delivered instead to the village of
Stamford Bridge in Yorkshire. Of course, he missed the match.
What had happened? With the Sat-Nav system in place, the driver in this story felt he did not need to
know where he was going. He confidently outsourced the job of knowing this information to the Sat-
Nav. Using an Internet search engine takes a broadband user less than a second. And with smartphones
at hand, people will be online almost all of the time.
The same could be true of university education. Today, the average students seem not to value general
knowledge. If asked a factual question, they will usually click on a search engine without a second
thought. Actually knowing the fact and committing it to memory does not seem to be an issue, it’s the
ease with which we can look it up.
However, general knowledge has never been something that you acquire formally. Instead, we pick it
up from all sorts of sources as we go along, often absorbing facts without realizing. The question
remains, then: is the Internet threatening general knowledge? When I put that to Moira Jones, expert in
designing IQ tests, she referred me to the story of Egyptian god Thoth. It goes like this: Thoth offers
writing as a gift to the king of Egypt, declaring it an “elixir of memory and wisdom”. But the king is
horrified, and tells him: “This invention will induce forgetfulness in the souls of those who have learned
it, because they will not need to exercise their memories, being able to rely on what is written.”
Who wants to be a millionaire finalist David Swift, responding to the same question, recognizes that
there was a problem of young people saying: “I don’t need to know that”, but he is far more excited
about the educational potential of the Internet. “There is so much more information out there, giving
people opportunities to boost their general knowledge.”
After all, the Internet might just help us to forget more and more. But meanwhile, the continuing
popularity of quizzes and game-shows shows us that general knowledge is strong enough to remain.
(Adapted from English Unlimited by Adrian Doff and Ben Goldstein)
Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. The End of General Knowledge? B. The Age of the Robot?
C. Novel Applications of the Sat-Nav systems D. New Perspectives on Tertiary Education
Question 37: Why did the middle-aged man miss the football match?
A. Because the Sat-Nav in his car was out of order.
B. Because the search engine in the taxi failed to work.
C. Because he did not remember the directions to the stadiums.
D. Because the taxi driver was over-dependent on the taxi driver.
Question 38: The word “outsourced” in paragraph 2 mostly means _______ .
A. assigned B. imposed C. exchanged D. submitted
Question 39: The word “that” in paragraph 4 refers to _______.
A. general knowledge B. the Internet C. the story D. the question
Question 40: The word “induce” in paragraph 4 mostly means _______.
A. limit B. ease C. promote D. cause
Question 41: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Young people do not seem to bother themselves with memorizing factual information.
B. The majority of undergraduates are reluctant to look for answers to factual questions online.
C. On being offered the gift of writing, the King of the Egypt was hopeful about its potential
D. General knowledge tends to have been mainly acquired through formal schooling.
Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. When it comes to IQ tests, the ability to call actual information is of little importance.
B. David Swift believes that informal acquisition of knowledge has been overrated these days.
C. Many universities worldwide have switched to virtual platforms for learning and teaching.
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D. Moira Jones is not positive about the potential of the Internet in general knowledge acquisition.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to the sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 43: Mary is more intelligent than her brother.
A. Mary isn’t as intelligent as her brother. B. Mary’s brother is more intelligent than she is.
C. Mary’s brother isn't as intelligent as she is. D. Mary is less intelligent than her brother.
Question 44: “I’m going to participate in a volunteer program this summer”, said Martha.
A. Martha said that I am going to participate in a volunteer program this summer.
B. Martha said that she is going to participate in a volunteer program that summer.
C. Martha said that I was going to participate in a volunteer program this summer.
D. Martha said that she was going to participate in a volunteer program that summer.
Question 45: It is compulsory for all the students to obey the class rules.
A. All the students needn't obey the class rules. B. All the students needn't obey the class rules.
C. All the students can't obey the class rules. D. All the students must obey the class rules.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
on each of the following questions.
Question 46: The team’s spirits were really low after the first loss, but their morality was improved
remarkably after the next three consecutive victories.
A. low B. morality C. remarkably D. consecutive
Question 47: In some areas, solar energy is used to light, heat, and cooling houses and buildings.
A. In B. is used C. cooling D. and
Question 48: My house look more beautiful in spring when the front garden is full of flowers.
A. look B. in C. when D. flowers
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: Body shaming is hurtful. Many people enjoy making fun of others’ appearance.
A. Such is many people’s enjoyment in making fun of others’ appearance that body shaming is less
hurtful.
B. Were body shaming hurtful, many people wouldn't enjoy making fun of others’ appearance.
C. Body shaming is hurtful in order that many people enjoy making fun of others’ appearance.
D. Hurtful though body shaming is, many people enjoy making fun of others’ appearance.
Question 50: The Internet connection was not stable. The teacher couldn’t conduct the online session
successfully.
A. If the Internet connection had been unstable, the teacher could have conducted the online session
successfully.
B. Suppose that the Internet connection hadn’t been stable, the teacher could conduct the online session
successfully.
C. But for the unstable Internet connection, the teacher could have conducted the online session
successfully.
D. Without the stable Internet connection, the teacher could conduct the online session successfully.
HẾT
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ĐỀ THI THỬ SÁT VỚI 2022
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 1 to 7.
The ballpoint pen is the universal writing instrument of the twentieth century. When the tiny metal ball at
the writing tip is drawn across a sheet of paper, it rotates within a housing at the end of an ink reservoir
and is coated with ink, which it transfers to the paper.
The first ballpoint pen was invented by John Loud in 1888. Loud has been working on a design for a
nonleaking pen to mark leather and fabrics and, although his cumbersome design was similar in essence
to the modern item, it was never manufactured in large quantities and the patent was allowed to expire.
The first workable design was patented in 1938 and became widely accepted in 1942 when the United
States Army required a pen that would not leak in highflying aircraft.
The ball of the pen is fitted into a socket so that it rotates freely. Several internal ducts in the socket feed
ink to the ball; the other end of the socket is fitted onto a metal or plastic tube that contains the ink. When
the ball is pressed on paper and moved, the capillary action draws the ink from the reservoir. In effect, the
ball functions as a valve to prevent overflow, and on rotation it acts as a suction pump drawing out the
ink.
One problem was that as some of the ink ran out, a partial vacuum was formed between the back of the
ball and ink reservoir, which cut off the supply. This was solved by making a small hole at the far end of
the reservoir. As the ink at the tip is sucked out, more ink from the tube is drawn into the socket to fill its
place, the vacuum being prevented by air that is drawn through the vent.
Disposable ballpoints have improved considerably in efficiency and reliability since 1938. Further
improvements made recently include the production of a pen that writes at any angle, even upside down,
and the development of a new ink that is erasable.
Question 1. The word "housing" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ___
(A) point (B) residence (C) case (D) orbit
Question 2. It can be inferred from the passage that there was interest in designing a new type of pen
because the old ones ____
(A) were too big (B) were expensive (C) leaked (D) cracked
Question 3. The word "expire" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ____
(A) end (B) change (C) copy (D) expand
Question 4. It can be inferred that the ballpoint pen first gained popularity among _____.
(A) military personnel (B) businesspeople (C) scientists (D) artists
Question 5. Which of the following statements is true of the ball in a ballpoint pen?
(A) It is fitted directly into the tube
(B) It controls the flow of ink.
(C) It has a small hole
(D) It contains a reservoir of ink
Question 6. The word “which” in paragraph 4 refers to _____
(A) supply (B) back of the ball (C) partial vacuum (D) ink reservoir
Question 7. According to the passage, until recently one limitation of ballpoint pens was
(A) their inability to function upside down
(B) the cost of replacing empty reservoirs
(C) the fragility of the point
(D) corrosion due to the ink
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 8 to 12.
Different cultures follow their own special customs when a child's baby teeth fall out. In Korea, for
example, they have the custom of throwing lost teeth up on the roof of a house. According to tradition, a
magpie will come and take the tooth. Later, the magpie will return with a new tooth for the child. In other
Asian countries, such as Japan and Vietnam, children follow a similar tradition of throwing their lost
teeth onto the roofs of houses. Birds aren't the only animals thought to take lost teeth. In Mexico and
Spain, tradition says a mouse takes a lost tooth and leaves some money. However, in Mongolia, dogs are
responsible for taking teeth away.
Dogs are highly respected in Mongolian culture and are considered guardian angels of the people.
Tradition says that the new tooth will grow good and strong if the baby tooth is fed to a guardian angel.
Accordingly, parents in Mongolia will put their child's lost tooth in a piece of meat and feed it to a dog.
The idea of giving lost teeth to an angel or fairy is also a tradition in the West. Many children in Western
countries count on the Tooth Fairy to leave money or presents in exchange for a tooth. The exact origins
of the Tooth Fairy are a mystery, although the story probably began in England or Ireland centuries ago.
According to tradition, a child puts a lost tooth under his or her pillow before going to bed. In the wee
hours, while the child is sleeping, the Tooth Fairy takes the tooth and leaves something else under the
pillow. In France, the Tooth Fairy leaves a small gift. In the United States, however, the Tooth Fairy
usually leaves money. These days, the rate is 1 USD to 5 USD per tooth, adding up to a lot of money from
the Tooth Fairy!
(Source: Reading Challenge 2 by Casey Malarcher & Andrea Janzen)
Question 8: What is the passage mainly about?
A. Customs concerning children's new teeth B. Traditions concerning children's lost teeth
C. Animals eating children's lost teeth D. Presents for young children's lost teeth
Question 9: The word “their” in paragraph 1 refers to _______ .
A. countries' B. houses’ C. roofs’ D. children's
Question 10: According to paragraph 2, parents in Mongolia feed their child's lost tooth to a dog because
_______ .
A. they hope that their child will get some gifts for his or her tooth
B. they believe that this will make their child's new tooth good and strong
C. they know that dogs are very responsible animals
D. they think dogs like eating children's teeth
Question 11: The word "origins" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______ .
A. beginnings B. families C. countries D. stories
Question 12: According to the passage, which of the following NOT true about the tradition of tooth
giving in the West?
A. Children put their lost teeth under their pillows.
B. Children give money to the Tooth Fairy.
C. Lost teeth are traditionally given to an angel or fairy.
D. Children hope to get money or gifts from the Tooth Fairy.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 13: A. ancient B. applicant C. animal D. annual
Question 14: A. enabled B. featured C. announced D. valued
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 15 to 19.
Going Inside Black Holes
One of the strangest phenomena in the universe is the black hole. For years, scientists have studied black
holes in an (15) _______ to better understand how they function. Like vacuum cleaners, black holes will
suck up anything (16) _______ crosses their path. The incredible sucking power that black holes generate
comes from gravity. They can quickly swallow up anything including planets, space debris, and anything
else imaginable. Even light cannot escape the (17) _______ of black holes. Since they are able to pull in
light, black holes are nearly impossible to see even with high-powered telescopes. (18) _______ scientists
are able to detect the presence of black holes in space because of their effect on an observed area.
Black holes can originate in a few ways. One type of black holes occurs when a star comes to the end of
its lifecycle and it dies in a supernova explosion. They can also occur when the mass of a neutron star
becomes so great that it collapses in on itself. Black holes may also occur when several large and dense
stars collide with one (19) _______ in space.
Question 15: A. effect B. impression C. attempt D. experience
Question 16: A. who B. what C. whose D. that
Question 17: A. catch B. embrace C. grasp D. achievement
Question 18: A. Therefore B. However C. In fact D. Moreover
Question 19: A. another B. each C. others D. other
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer three in the position of primary stress in each of the
following questions.
Question 20: A. alive B. happy C. patient D. honest
Question 21: A. influence B. employer C. industry D. instrument
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The power failure at dinnertime caused consternation among the city's housewives.
A. anger B. anxiety C. boredom D. calm
Question 23: Don't egg him on! He gets himself into enough trouble without your encouragement.
A. exploit him B. strongly encourage him
C. help him out D. discourage him
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 24: Radiography has done great things for surgery; for medicine its services are already
appreciative, and may prove more and more valuable hereafter.
A. Radiography B. appreciative C. valuable D. hereafter
Question 25: A large number of popular expressions in our language had interesting backgrounds.
A. backgrounds B. expressions C. A large number D. had
Question 26: In his animated films, Walt Disney created animals that talk and act like people while
retaining its animal traits.
A. animated B. animals C. like D. its
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 27: The basketball team knew they lost the match. They soon started to blame each other.
A. Not only did the basketball team know they lost the match but they blamed to each other as well.
B. As soon as they blamed each other, the basketball team knew they lost the match.
C. Hardly had the basketball team known they lost the match when they started to blame each other.
D. No sooner had the basketball team started to blame each other than they knew they lost the match.
Question 28: We cannot completely avoid stress in our lives. We need to find ways to cope with it.
A. As long as we can completely avoid stress in our lives, we need to find ways to cope with it.
B. Since we cannot completely avoid stress in our lives, we need to find ways to cope with it.
C. After we can completely avoid stress in our lives, we need to find ways to cope with it.
D. Because stress can completely be avoided in our lives, we need to find ways to cope with it.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 29: I _______ Alan for hours but he just doesn't answer his mobile. I hope nothing's wrong.
A. am calling B. called C. have been calling D. call
Question 30: You should use this cream _______ the sun from damaging your skin.
A. to preventing B. for prevent C. to prevent D. preventing
Question 31: Carrie says she will join the company if the starting salary _______ her expectations.
A. met B. meets C. has met D. had met
Question 32: In his students’ days, he was as poor as a church _______ .
A. pauper B. miser C. mouse D. beggar
Question 33: They have heard the news from her, _______ ?
A. haven't they B. have they C. did they D. didn't they
Question 34: We always unite and work together whenever serious problems _______ .
A. arise B. devise C. encounter D. approach
Question 35: Charles was wearing ______________at the party.
A. a tie yellow silk funny B. very funny wide yellow silk tie
C. a yellow silk funny tie D. a funny wide yellow silk tie
Question 36: For some subjects, face-to-face interaction can result _______ better learning outcomes.
A. about B. of C. in D. on
Question 37: _______ she is busy, she manages to pick her children up after school every day.
A. In spite of B. Although C. Despite D. Because
Question 38: Gold ______________in California in the 19th century
A. was discovered B. has been discovered C. was discover D. they discover
Question 39: Hemingway, who was a _______ writer, won the Nobel Prize in literature in 1954.
A. infamous B. respective C. distinguished D. excessive
Question 40: In Hawaii, it is _______ to greet visitors to the country with a special garland of flowers.
A. custom B. customary C. customer D. customize
Question 41: _______ at the campsite, it had stopped raining.
A. By the time they arriving B. After they arrived
C. By the time they arrived D. By the time they arrive
Question 42: I caught _______ of a lion lying under the tree, and my heart jumped.
A. sight B. scene C. view D. look
Question 43: More out-of-school activities are expected to be incorporated in the new school _______
proposed by Ministry of Education and Training.
A. schedule B. agenda C. handout D. curriculum
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 44: “No, it's not true. I didn't steal the money!” Jean said.
A. Jean denied having stolen the money. B. Jean refused to steal the money.
C. Jean admitted stealing the money. D. Jean did not intend to steal the money.
Question 45: It's possible that Joanna didn't receive my message.
A. Joanna needn't have received my message. B. Joanna shouldn't have received my message.
C. Joanna can't have received my message. D. Joanna mightn't have received my message.
Question 46: They think the owner of the house is abroad.
A. It is thought that the owner of the house to be abroad.
B. The owner of the house is thought to be abroad.
C. It is thought to be abroad by the owner of the house.
D. The owner of the house is thought by them that he will be abroad.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 47: - Anna: "Hi, I wonder if you could help me.”
- Tom: “ _______ ”
A. Sure. What's the problem? B. I need a book for my IT class.
C. Thanks. I will. D. No wonder. You're always busy, Tom.
Question 48: - Mary: “Would you like to join my wildlife protection team?”
- Laura: “ _______ ”
A. Thank you. I've always wanted to do something to help.
B. Yes, I like working for this organization very much.
C. There are so many wildlife protection teams.
D. Where is it located?
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 49: Although we argued with him for a long time, he stood his ground.
A. refused to change his opinion B. changed his decision
C. wanted to continued D. felt sorry for us
Question 50: The restaurant entices more and more customers with its cozy interior and special daily
events.
A. convinces B. frees C. refuses D. attracts
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