Document From Arvind Kumar

CHAPTER 1: INTRODUCTION
1. General Financial Rules, 2017 came into force w.e.f

(a) 01.01.2017 (b) 11.02.2017
(c) 01.04.2017 (d) 15.06.2017
2. “Appropriation” means
(a) the assignment, to meet specified expenditure, of funds included in a primary unit of
appropriation
(b) the assignment of authority to collect revenue under the scheme of departmentalization
(c) the assignment of authority to collect revenue and meet specified expenditure, of funds
included in a primary unit of appropriation
(d) the assignment of authority to impose taxes.
3. Consolidated Fund” means the Consolidated Fund of India referred to in Article

(a) 266 (1) of the Constitution (b) 266 (2) of the Constitution
(c) 267 (1) of the Constitution (d) 267 (2) of the Constitution
4. “Contingency Fund” means the Contingency Fund of India established under the Contingency
Fund of India Act, 1950, in terms of Article
(c) 267 (1) of the Constitution (d) 267 (2) of the Constitution
5. “Government” referred to in GFR means the

(a) Central Government (b) State Government
(c) Local Self Government (d) All of the above
6. Government Account” means the account relating to

(a) the Consolidated Fund (b) the Contingency Fund
(c) the Public Account (d) All of the above
7. “Head of the Department’ means an authority or person not below the rank of a
(a) Assistant Secretary to Govt. of India (b) Deputy Secretary to the Govt. of India
(c) Joint Secretary to Govt. of India (b) Principal Secretary to the Govt. of India
8. “Local Fund” means a local fund as defined in

(a) Rule 652 of the Treasury Rules (b) Rule 562 of the Treasury Rule
(c) Rule 53 of Government Accounting Rule
(d) Rule 108 of Delegation of Financial Power
9. Primary unit of appropriation has been referred to in

(a) Rule 8 of the Delegation of Financial Powers Rules
(b) Rule 8 of the General Financial Rules (c) Rule 8 of the Receipt & payment Rules
(d) Rule 8 of the Government Accounting Rules
10. “Public Account” means the Public Account of India referred to in Article
Prepared by Deepak Kumar Rahi, AAO/Local Audit Department, Patna

(c) 286 (2) of the Constitution (b) 268 (3) of the Constitution
11. Re-appropriation” means the transfer of funds from

(a) one major head to another major head (b) one minor head to another minor head
(c) one primary unit of appropriation to another such unit
(d) all of the above.
12. State whether true or false

Subordinate authority” means a Department of the Central Government or any authority
subordinate to the Union Cabinet
(a) True (b) False
13. The model in which Capital expenditures is used by the buyer to straightway purchase goods
followed by procurement of consumable, arranging comprehensive maintenance contact after warranty
period and finally disposing the product after useful life is
(a) OPEX Model (b) CAPEX Model
(c) Comprehensive Model (d) Buyback Model
14. The model in which Seller provides the goods, maintains it and also provides the consumables as
required and finally takes back the goods after useful / contracted life
(a) OPEX Model (b) CAPEX Model
(c) Comprehensive Model (d) Buyback Model
15. When the subject of a case concerns more than one Department, no order shall be issued until all
such Departments have concurred, or, failing such concurrence, a decision has been taken by or under
the authority of the
(a) Ministry of Finance (b) Union Cabinet
(c) Prime Minister (d) President

All Departmental regulations, in so far as they embody orders or instructions of a financial
character or have important financial bearing, must invariably be made by, or with the approval of the
Parliament
(a) True (b) False
17. Where a doubt arises as to the interpretation of any of the provisions of Rules of GFR, the matter
for decision shall be referred to the
(a) Ministry or Department concerned (b) Ministry of Finance
(c) DoPT (d) Parliament
18. The systems and procedures established by General Financial Rules

(a) may be modified by any other authority only with the express approval of the Ministry of
Finance.

(b) may be modified by any other authority only with the express approval of the Union
Cabinet
(c) may be modified by any other authority only with the express approval of the Parliament.
(d) Cannot be modified.
ANSWER
Q. Answer Rule
No
1 B 1 Sign of Secretary on 11.02.2017
2 A 2(iii)
3 A 2(vii)
4 C 2(ix)
5 A 2(xv)
6 D 2(xvi)
7 B 2(xvii)
8 A 2(xx)
9 A 2(xxiii)
10 A 2(xxiv)
11 C 2(xxvi)
12 B 2(xxix) subordinate to President
13 B 2(xxxi)
14 A 2(xxxii)
15 B 3
16 B 4 approval of the Ministry of Finance
17 B 5
18 A 6

CHAPTER 2: GENERAL SYSTEM OF FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT
1. All moneys received by or on behalf of the Government either as dues of Government or for
deposit, remittance or otherwise, shall be brought into Government Account
(a) on the same day (b) within 24 hours
(b) as soon as possible (d) without delay
2. All moneys received by or on behalf of the Government shall be brought into Government Account
in accordance with such general or special rules as may be issued under Articles
(a) 149 and 283 of the Constitution (b) 150 and 283 (1) of the Constitution
(c) 151 and 284 (1) of the Constitution (d) 151 and 283 of the Constitution
3. Under Article 284 of the Constitution all moneys received by or deposited with any officer
employed in connection with the affairs of the Union in his capacity as such, other than revenues or public
moneys raised or received by Government, shall be paid into the
(a) Consolidated Fund of India (b) Contingency Fund of India
(c) Public Account (d) Departmental Account
4. All moneys received by or deposited with the Supreme Court of India or with any other Court,
other than a High Court, within a Union Territory, shall be paid into
(a) Consolidated Fund of India (b) Contingency Fund of India
(c) Public Account (d) Departmental Account
5. The Head of Account to which public moneys shall be credited and the withdrawal of moneys
therefrom shall be governed by the relevant provisions of
(a) List of Major Head and Minor Head (b) Delegation of Financial Power
(c) GAR 1990 and R&P Rules, 1983 or such other general or special orders as may be issued
in this behalf.
(d) Treasury Rules
6. Subject to any general or special orders issued by a Department of the Central Government, an
Administrator or a Head of a Department responsible for the collection of revenue shall keep ________the
fully informed of the progress of collection of revenue under his control and of all important variations in
such collections as compared with the Budget Estimates.
(a) Secretary to the concerned department (b) Ministry of Finance
(c) Committee on Economic Affair (d) Niti Aayog
7. When the maintenance of any rentable building is entrusted to a civil department, other than the
Central Public Works Department, who shall be responsible for the due recovery of the rent thereof
(a) the Administrator or the Head of the Department concerned
(b) the head of the office concerned
(c) Divisional officer of the concerned division
(d) Directorate of Estate

8. The detailed rules and procedure, regarding the demand and recovery of rent of Government
buildings and lands, are contained in the
(a) GAR 1990 (b) R&P 1983
(c) GFR 2017
(d) departmental regulations of the departments in charge of those buildings
9. Who shall watch the realization of miscellaneous demands of Government, not falling under the
ordinary revenue administration, such as contributions from State Governments, Local Funds, contractors
and others towards establishment charges.
(a) Head of the Department (b) Accounts Officers
(c) Chief Accounting Officer (d) Department of Revenue
10. Subject to any general or special orders issued by the Government Departments of the Central
Government, Administrators and Heads of Departments, other than those in _____________ shall submit
to the Audit Officer and the Accounts Officer concerned statements showing the remissions of revenue
and abandonment of claims to revenue sanctioned during the preceding year by competent authorities
(a) Ministry of Railways (b) Ministry of Defence
(c) Department of Post (d) Department of Telecommunication
11. The above mentioned statement shall be submitted

(a) Monthly (b) Quarterly
(c) Six-monthly (d) Annually
12. The above mentioned statement of remission of revenue shall be submitted to the Audit Officer
and the Accounts Officer concerned on
(a) 31st March (b) 1st April
st
(c) 1 June (d) 30th September
13. In the annual statement of remission of revenue shall be submitted to the Audit Officer and the
Accounts Officer, individual remissions need not be included in the statements provided that amount is
(a) Below Rupees one hundred (100) (b) Below Rupees five hundred (500)
(c) Below Rupees one thousand (1000) (d) Below Rupees two thousand (2000)
14. Who may make rules defining remissions and abandonments of revenue for the purpose of Rule
19 of GFR 2017
(a) Parliament (b) President
(c) Ministry of Finance
(d) Departments of the Central Government and Administrators concerned
15. Standards of financial propriety have been referred to in the GFR under Rule
(a) 19 (b) 20
(c) 21 (d) 22
16. The financial powers of the Government, which have not been delegated to a subordinate authority,
shall vest in the
(a) President (b) Parliament
(c) Union Cabinet (d) Finance Ministry

17. The duties and responsibilities of a controlling officer in respect of funds placed at his disposal are
to ensure except:
(a) that the expenditure does not exceed the budget allocation.
(b) that the expenditure is incurred for the purpose for which funds have been provided.
(c) that the expenditure is not incurred in public interest.
(d) that adequate control mechanism is functioning in his Department for prevention, detection of
errors and irregularities in the financial proceedings of his subordinate offices and to guard against
waste and loss of public money
18. An order which involves (i) any grant of land, or assignment of revenue, or concession, grant, lease
or license of mineral or forest rights, or rights to water, power or any easement or privilege of such
concessions, or relinquishment of revenue in any way shall not be issued by a subordinate authority without
previous sanction of
(a) the President (b) the Parliament
(c) Secretary of the concerned department/Ministry
(d) Ministry of Finance
19. Pick the correct one

Copies of all sanctions or orders other than the following types should be endorsed to the Audit Officers:
(i) Sanctions relating to grant to advances to Central Government employees.
(ii) Sanctions relating to appointment or promotion or transfer of Gazetted and non-Gazetted
Officers.
(iii) All sanctions relating to creation or continuation or abolition of posts.
(iv) Sanctions for handing over charge and taking over charge, etc.
(a) i, ii and iii (b) ii, iii and iv

(c) i, iii and iv (d) All of the above

Sanction of Contingent expenditure incurred under the powers of Head of Offices shall invariably
be communicated to Audit Office.
(a) True (b) False
21. A sanction for any fresh charge shall, unless it is specifically renewed, lapse if no payment in whole
or in part has been made during a period of
(a) 3 months from the date of issue of such sanction.
(b) 6 months from the date of issue of such sanction.
(c) 12 months from the date of issue of such sanction.
(d) Financial year in which sanction accorded.
22. Pick the incorrect one

(a) when the period of currency of the sanction is prescribed in the departmental regulations
or is specified in the sanction itself, it shall lapse on the expiry of such periods; or
(b) when there is a specific provision in a sanction that the expenditure would be met from the
Budget provision of a specified financial year, it shall lapse at the close of that financial year; or
(c) in the case of purchase of stores, a sanction shall not lapse, if tenders have been accepted
(in the case of local or direct purchase of stores) or the indent has been placed (in the case of
Central Purchases) on the Central Purchase Organization within the period of one year of the date
of issue of that sanction, even if the actual payment in whole or in part has not been made during
the said period.
(d) in respect of an addition to a permanent establishment, made from year to year under a
general scheme by a competent authority, or in respect of an allowance sanctioned for a post or
for a class of Government servants, but not drawn by the officer(s) concerned shall lapse.
23. The remission of disallowances by Audit and writing off of overpayments made to Government
servants by competent authorities shall be in accordance with the provisions of the

(a) R&P Rules 1983 (b) GAR 1990
(c) GFR 2017 (d) Delegation of Financial Powers Rules
24. Pick the incorrect one regarding losses need not be reported by the subordinate authority
concerned to the next higher authority as well as to the Statutory Audit Officer and to the concerned
Principal Accounts Officer
(a) when such loss has been made good by the party responsible for it.
(b) Cases involving losses of revenue due to mistakes in assessments which are discovered
too late to permit a supplementary claim being made,
(c) Cases involving losses of revenue due to under assessments which are due to
interpretation of the law by the local authority being overruled by higher authority after the expiry of
the time-limit prescribed under the law
(d) refunds allowed on the ground that the claims were time-barred.
25. Petty losses are losses not exceeding (need not be reported) in terms of GFR 2017
(a) 2000/- (b) 5000/-
(c) 10000/- (d) 25000/-
26. Cases involving serious irregularities shall not be brought to the notice of
(a) Financial Adviser
(b) Chief Accounting Authority of the Ministry or Department concerned
(c) the Accounts Office/Audit Officer Concerned
(d) the Controller General of Accounts, Ministry of Finance.
27. Report of loss) shall be made at

(a) Single stage (b) two stages
(c) three stages (d) depending upon the nature of case.
28. The reports on losses, which the HoD cannot finally dispose of under the delegated powers, shall
be submitted to
(a) Financial Advisor of the concerned Ministry/Department
(b) Chief Accounting Authority of the concerned Ministry/Department
(c) the Finance Ministry
(d) the Parliament

An amount lost through misappropriation, defalcation, embezzlement, etc., must not be redrawn on
a simple receipt pending investigation, recovery or write-off with the approval of the authority competent to
write-off the loss in question. It should only be drawn after loss has been made good.
(a) True (b) False
30. In cases of loss to Government on account of culpability of Government servants, the loss should
be borne by the
(a) Government Servant concerned
(b) Section-in-charge of Government Servant concerned
(c) HoD concerned
(d) Central Government Department or State Government concerned with the transaction.
31. If any recoveries are made from the erring Government officials in cash, the receipt will be credited
to the that borne/sustained the loss i.e.
(a) Government Servant concerned
(b) Section-in-charge of Government Servant concerned
(c) HoD concerned
(d) Central Government Department or State Government concerned with the transaction.

32. All cases involving loss of Government money arising from erroneous or irregular issue of cheques
or irregular accounting of receipts will be reported to the
(a) Chief Controller of Accounts (b) Controller General of Accounts
(c) Comptroller & Auditor General (d) Audit/Account Officer
33. Cases involving material loss or destruction of Government property as a result of fire, theft, fraud,
etc., shall be invariably reported to the Police for investigation as early as possible where value of loss
exceeds
(a) 10000/- (b) 25000/-
(c) 50000/- (d) 100000/-
34. All loss of immovable property, such as buildings, communications, or other works, caused by fire,
flood, cyclone, earthquake or any other natural cause, shall be reported at once by the subordinate authority
concerned to Government through the usual channel incase loss exceeds
(a) 25000/- (b) 50000/-
(c) 100000/- (d) 150000/-
35. Pick the incorrect one regarding submission of any files categorized as ‘Secret’ or ‘Top Secret to
Audit officer
(a) It should not be submitted to Audit without prior concurrence of Government.
(b) It should be submitted as usual.
(c) It should be submitted to Audit in the presence of HoD
(d) It should personally be given to the Head of the Audit Office specifying this fact, who will
then deal with it in accordance with the standing instructions for handling and custody of such
classified documents.
ANSWER
Q. Answer Rule Q. Answer Rule

No No
1 D 7 19 D 29 (xi)
2 B 7 20 B 29 (xi) (f)
3 C 8 (1) (i) 21 C 30
4 C 8 (1) (ii) 22 D 31
5 C 8 (2) 23 D 32
6 B 14 24 A 33 (1)
7 A 15 (1) 25 C 33 (1) (ii)
8 D 15 (3) 26 C 33 (2)
9 B 17 27 B 33 (3)
10 C 19 (1) 28 C 33 (4)
11 D 19 (1) 29 B 33 (5)
12 C 19 (1) 30 D 33 (6)
13 C 19 (1) 31 D 33 (6)
14 D 20 32 B 33 (7)
15 C 21 33 C 34
16 D 23 34 B 35
17 C 26 35 D 41
18 D 28 (1)

CHAPTER 3: BUDGET FORMULATION AND IMPLEMENTATION
1. Financial Year covers the period

(a) From 01 Jan to 31 Dec
(b) From 01 April to 31 March next year
(c) From 01 July to 30 June next year
(d) 01 September to 31 August next year
2. Presentation of Budget/ Annual Financial Statement to Parliament is made under the provision of
Article
(a) 112 (1) (b) 112 (2)
(c) 113 (1) (d) 113 (2)
3. Who shall arrange to lay Budget/ Annual Financial Statement before both the Houses of Parliament
(a) Concerned Ministry/Department (b) CGA
(c) Finance Minister (d) Public Account Committee
4. The provisions for preparation, formulation and submission of budget to the Parliament are
contained in Articles
(a) 112 to 116 of the Constitution of India. (b) 112 to 115 of the Constitution of India
110 to 114 of the Constitution of India 111 to 117 of the Constitution of India
5. The budget shall contain the following: -

(a) Estimates of all revenues expected to be raised during the financial year to which the
budget relates
(b) Estimates of all expenditure for each programme, scheme and project in that financial
year;
(c) Estimates of all interest and debt servicing charges and any repayments on loans in that
financial year;
(d) All of the above

The accounting heads under which major tax and non-tax revenues are collected shall be
prescribed by the administrative Ministry in consultation with the Budget Division in the Finance Ministry.
(a) True (b) False
7. The rates of user charges should be linked with appropriate price indices and reviewed at least
(a) every year (b) every two years
(c) every three years (d) every five years
8. The expenditure Charged on the Consolidated Fund and expenditure for which a vote of the Lok
Sabha is required have been provisioned in
(a) Article 112 (1) and Article 112 (2) respectively
(b) Article 112 (2) and Article 113(3) respectively
(c) Article 112 (3) and Article 113(3) respectively
(d) Article 112 (3) and Article 113(2) respectively
9. The estimates for expenditure for which vote of Lok Sabha is required shall be in the form of
(a) Vote on Account (b) Demand for Grants
(c) Vote for Grants (d) Vote on Demand
10. The final unit of appropriation is

(a) Major Head (b) Minor Head
(c) Primary Head (d) Object head

11. State whether
One Demand for Grant is presented in respect of each Ministry or Department and under no
circumstances more than one Demand for Grant in respect of a single Ministry or Department shall be
presented
(a) True (b) False
12. The Demand for Grants shall be presented to Parliament at

(a) single level (b) two levels
(c) three level (d) four levels

(a) The Demand for Grants shall be presented to Parliament at two levels.
(b) The main Demand for Grants shall be presented to Parliament by the Ministry of Finance,
Budget Division along with the Annual Financial Statement
(c) The Detailed Demands for Grants, for consideration by the “Public Account Committee
(PAC) of the Parliament, are laid on the Table of the Lok Sabha by the concerned Ministries/
Departments, as per dates approved from time to time.
(d) None the above
14. The heads under which provision for expenditure shall be made in the Demands for Grants or
Appropriation shall be prescribed by the Finance Ministry in consultation with the
(a) CGA (b) CAG
(c) Public Account Committee (d) Administrative Ministry or Department.
15. DRSC stands for

(a) Disaster Relief Standing Committee
(b) Departmentally Related Standing Committee
(c) Demand Reviewing Standing Committee
(d) Demand Review & Structure Committee
16. Outcome Budget Statement is prepared by Department of Expenditure in consultation with the
concerned Ministries and
(a) Union Cabinet (b) Finance Commission
(c) NITI Aayog (d) Public Account Committee
17. The budget statement linking outlays against each scheme/project with the outputs/deliverables
and medium term outcomes is known as
(a) Performance Budget (b) Output Budget
(c) Deliverable Budget (d) Outcome Budget
18. MTEF Statement stand for

(a) Medium Term Expenditure Framework (b) Most Tolerable Efficiency Factor
(c)
19. If the Appropriation Bill seeking authorization of the Parliament to make expenditure in consonance
with the Budget proposal is likely to be passed after the start of the financial year to which it corresponds
then pending the completion of the procedure prescribed in Article 113 of the Constitution for the passing
of the Budget, to cover expenditure for a brief period the Finance Ministry may need to obtain a
(a) Vote on Credit (b) Vote on Demand
(c) Vote on Account (d) Credit on Demand
20. Vote on Account’ has been referred to in

(a) Article 113 of the Constitution. (b) Article 114 of the Constitution.
(c) Article 115 of the Constitution. (d) Article 116 of the Constitution.

Funds made available under Vote on Account may be utilized for expenditure on a ‘New Service’.
(a) True (b) False
22. A copy of the entries made in GFR 5 during the preceding month shall be sent by the officer
maintaining it, to the Head of the Department or other designated Controlling Officer on
(a) 1st day of next month (b) 3rd day of next month
(c) th
7 day of next month (d) 15th day of next month

This statement shall also include adjustment of an inward claim, etc., communicated by Pay and
Accounts Officer directly to the DDO (and not to his Grant Controlling Officer). If there are no entries in the
register in any month, a statement need not be sent.
(a) True (b) False
24. To monitor the receipt of the returns from DDOs, the Controlling Officer will maintain a broadsheet
in Form
(a) GFR 3 (b) GFR 4
(c) GFR 5 (d) GFR 6
25. Pick the correct one regrading examining the point by the Controlling Officer on receipt of the
returns from DDOs
(i) that the accounts classification has been properly given
(ii) that progressive expenditure has been properly noted and the available balances worked
out correctly
(iii) that expenditure up-to-date is within the grant or appropriation
(iv) that the returns have been signed by Disbursing Officers. Where he finds defects in any of
these respects, he shall take steps to rectify the defect.
(a) i, ii and iii (b) i, ii and iv
(c) ii, iii and iv (d) All of the
26. When all the returns from the Disbursing Officers for a particular month have been received and
found to be in order, the Controlling Officer shall compile a statement in Form
(a) GFR 5 (b) GFR 6
(c) GFR 7 (d) GFR 9
27. On receipt of all the necessary returns, the Head of the Department shall prepare a consolidated
account showing the complete expenditure from the grant or appropriation at his disposal upto the end of
the preceding month in Form
(a) GFR 7 (b) GFR 8
(c) GFR 9 (d) GFR 10
28. Who shall be responsible for the monthly reconciliation of the figures given in the accounts
maintained by the Head of the Department with those appearing in the Accounts Officer’s books?
(a) DDO & Accounts Officer jointly (b) DDO & Head of Department jointly
(c) Head of Department & Accounts Officer jointly
(d) All of the above jointly.

(a) DDOs shall maintain a Bill Register in Form TR 28-A, and note all bills presented for
payment to the PAO in the register. Payment details shall be noted in the appropriate
column of the Bill Register.
(b) The PAOs shall furnish to each of the DDOs including Cheque –drawing DDOs, an extract
from the expenditure control register or from the Compilation Sheet every month.
statements for May to March shall also contain Progressive Figures.

(c) The DDO shall furnish to the PAO a certificate of agreement of the figures as per his books
with those indicated by the PAOs by the 15th day of the month following the month of
accounts.
(d) The Principal Accounts Officer (or PAO wherever payments, relating to a grant are handled
wholly by a PAO) of each Ministry, shall send a monthly statement showing the expenditure
vis-à-vis the Budget provision under the various heads of accounts to the Heads of
Departments responsible for overall control of expenditure against grant of the Ministry as
a whole.
30. The Head of the Department shall furnish a quarterly certificate to the Principal Accounts Officer
certifying the correctness of the figures relating to Grant for the quarter by
(a) the 15th of the following month after the end of quarters
(b) the 15th of the second following month after the end of quarters
(c) the last day of following month after the end of quarters
(d) the last day of second following month after the end of quarters
31. The Departments of the Central Government shall obtain from their Heads of Departments and
other offices under them the departmental figures of expenditure in Form GFR 8 by
(a) the 7th of the following the month (b) the 10th of the following the month
(c) the 15th of the following the month (d) the last day of the following the month
32. A Broadsheet shall be maintained by the Departments of Central Government or each Head of
Department and other authorities directly under them, to watch the prompt receipt of the various returns
from month to month in Form
(a) GFR 9 (b) GFR 10
(c) GFR 11 (d) GFR 11
33. In order to maintain proper control over expenditure, a Controlling Officer shall obtain from the
spending authorities liability statements in Form GFR 3-A every month, starting from the month of
(a) April (b) June
(c) September (d) October
34. The Controlling Officer maintains a Liability Register in Form

(a) GFR 2 (b) GFR 3
(c) GFR 3A (d) GFR 6
35. Ultimately responsible for the control of expenditure against the grant/appropriation is
(a) Head of Department (b) Accounts Officer
(c) Authority administering the grant/appropriation
(d) Head of Department & Accounts Officer jointly.
36. The Accounts Officer shall not allow any payment against sanctions in excess of the Budget
provisions unless there is specific approval of the
(a) Head of Department (b) Chief Controller of Account
(c) Controller General of Accounts (d) Chief Accounting Authority.

The savings as well as provisions even though that cannot be profitably utilised shall not be
surrendered to Government before the end of the year. No savings shall be held in reserve for possible
future excesses.
(a) True (b) False
38. Re-appropriation of Funds has been referred to in

(a) Rule 10 of the Delegation of Financial Powers Rules
(b) Rule 10 of GFR 2017 (c) Rule 10 of R&P 1983
(d) Rule 10 of GAR 1990

39. Re-appropriation of fund involves transfer of fund from
(a) One department to another (b) One major head to another
(c) Capital to Revenue or vice versa (d) One primary unit to another.
40. An application for re-appropriation of funds shall ordinarily be supported by a statement in Form
(a) GFR 1 (b) GFR 2
(c) GFR 3 (d) GFR 4
41. In all orders sanctioning re-appropriation, the reasons saving and excess and affected primary units
(secondary units, wherever necessary shall be invariably Stated for amount of
(a) Rupees 50 thousand or over (b) Rupees 1 lakh or over
(c) Rupees 2 lakh or over (d) Rupees 5 lakh or over
42. Supplementary Grant has been mentioned in Article

(a) 113 of the Constitution (b) 114 of the Constitution
(c) 115 of the Constitution (d) 116 of the Constitution
43. Expenditure in excess of the provisions for the service included in an Appropriation (Vote on
Account) Act shall be met
(a) By Supplementary Grant (b) By Excess Grant
(c) By an advance from Consolidated Fund (d) By an advance from Contingency Fund
44. Contingency Fund of India has been set up under Article

(a) 266 (1) (b) 267 (1)
(c) 266 (2) (d) 267 (2)
45. The procedure for obtaining an advance from the Contingency Fund and recoupment of the Fund
shall be as laid down in the
(a) Contingency Fund of India Rules 1952 (b) Contingency Fund of India Rules 1955
(c) Treasury Rule (d) GAR 1990
46. Who appears before the Committee on Public Accounts and any other Parliamentary Committee
for examination of accounts?
(a) Head of Department (b) CCA
(c) CAA (d) Financial Advisor

ANSWERS
Q. Answer Rule Q. Answer Rule

No No
1 B 42 24 D 57 (4) (iv)
2 A 43 (1) 25 D 57 (4) (v)
3 C 43 (1) 26 C 57 (4) (vi)
4 A 43 (3) 27 B 57 (4) (vii)
5 D 44 28 C 57 (5)
6 A 45 29 C 57 (5)
7 C 47 (iii) 30 B 57 (5) (iv)
8 C 50 (1) 31 C 57 (6)
9 B 51 (1) 32 A 57 (8)
10 D 50 (3) 33 D 58
11 B 51 (2) 34 B 58
12 B 51 (3) 35 C 60
13 C 51 (3) 36 D 61 (1)
14 D 52 (2) 37 B 62 (2)
15 B 51 (3) 38 A 65 (1)
16 C 54 39 D 65 (1)
17 D 54 40 A 65 (4)
18 A 54 41 B 65 (4)
19 C 55 42 C 66
20 D 55 43 D 67 (2)
21 B 55 44 B 67 (1)
22 B 57 (4) (iii) 45 A 67 (4)
23 B 57 (4) (iii) 46 C 70 (iv)

CHAPTER 4: GOVERNMENT ACCOUNTS
1. Accounts of the Union Government shall be prepared by

(a) CGA (b) C&AG
(c) Financial Advisor of the concerned Ministry/Department
(d) Public Account Committee
2. Accounts of the Union Government shall be certified by

(a) CGA (b) C&AG
(c) Financial Advisor of the concerned Ministry/Department
(d) Public Account Committee
3. Accounts of the Union Government shall be submitted to the President of India, preferably within
(a) 1 month of close of the Financial Year (b) 3 months of close of the Financial Year
(c) 6 months of close of the Financial Year (d) 9 months of close of the Financial Year
4. Who shall cause Accounts of the Union Government to be laid before each House of Parliament?
(a) Finance Minister (b) Union Cabinet
(c) C&AG (d) President
5. The Accounts of the Union Government shall be kept in such form as the President may, on the
advice of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India, prescribe as given in Article
(a) 148 (b) 149
(c) 150 (d) 151
6. Who is responsible for prescribing the form of accounts of the Union and States, and to frame, or
revise, rules and manuals relating thereto on behalf of the President of India on the advice of the Comptroller
and Auditor General of India?
(a) Accountant General (b) CCA
(c) CAA (d) CGA
7. Government accounts shall be prepared on
(a) cash basis. (b) credit basis
(c) accrual basis (d) any of the above
8. Government accounts shall be kept in

(a) single part (b) two parts
(c) three parts (d) four parts

(a) Consolidated Fund is divided into two Divisions, namely, ‘Revenue’ and ‘Capital’ divisions.
(b) The Revenue Division comprises two sections namely Receipt Heads (Revenue Account)
dealing with the proceeds of taxation and other receipts classified as revenue and the
section ‘Expenditure Heads (Revenue Account)’ dealing with the revenue expenditure met
therefrom.
(c) The Capital Division comprises two sections, viz., ‘Receipt Heads (Capital Account)’ and
‘Expenditure Heads (Capital Account)’
(d) These sections are in turn divided into sectors such as ‘General Services’, ‘Social and
Community Services’, ‘Economic Services’, etc., under which specific functions or services
are grouped corresponding to the sectors of classification and which are represented by
Major Heads (comprising Sub-Major Heads wherever necessary).
10. Contingency Fund of Union Territories are set up by the Government of India under
(a) Section 48 of Government of Union Territories Act, 1963.
(b) Section 52 of Government of Union Territories Act, 1948
(c) Section 62 of Government of Union Territories Act, 1965
(d) Section 108 of Government of Union Territories Act, 1967

11. Transactions relating to debt (other than those included in Part-I), reserve funds, deposits,
advances, suspense, remittances and cash balances shall be recorded in
(a) Consolidated Fund (b) Contingency Fund
(c) Public Account (d) Departmental Fund
12. The classification of transaction in Government Accounts shall have closer reference to
(a) Function/Programme/Activity (b) Department/Ministry
(c) Capital and Revenue (d) Charged and Voted
13. Classification of Government Accounts consists of

(a) 4 tiers (b) 5 tiers
(c) 6 tiers (d) 7 tiers
14. The six tiers of Government Accounts are represented by a unique

(a) 15 digits’ numeric code. (b) 15 digits’ alpha-numeric code
(c) 13 digits’ numeric code. (b) 13 digits’ alpha-numeric code

(a) The List of Major and Minor Heads of Accounts of Union and States is maintained by the
Ministry of Finance (Department of Expenditure – Controller General of Accounts)
(b) CGA is authorised to open a new head of account on the advice of the C&AG under the
Article 150 of the Constitution.
(c) Ministries/Departments may open Sub-Heads and Detailed Heads as required by them in
consultation with the Budget Division of the Ministry of Finance.
(d) Principal Accounts Offices of Ministry/Department may open Sub/Detailed Heads required
under the Minor Heads falling within the Consolidated Fund of India subject to certain
restriction.
16. The Object Heads have been prescribed under Government of India’s Orders below Rule 8 of
(a) R&P 1983 (b) GFR 2017
(c) GAR 1990 (d) Delegation of Financial Power Rules

In cases of doubt regarding the Head under which a transaction should be accounted, the matter
shall be referred to the Principal Accounts Officer of the Ministry/Department concerned for clarification of
the Ministry of Finance and the CA&G, wherever necessary.
(a) True (b) False
18. RBI shall nominate a bank to function as Accredited Bank of a Ministry or Department, in
consultation with the
(a) CGA (b) C&AG
(c) PAO (d) Finance Minister
19. Pick the correct ones

(i) Public Financial Management System (PFMS) an integrated Financial Management
System of CGA shall be used for sanction preparation, bill processing, payment, receipt
management, Direct Benefit Transfer, fund flow management and financial reporting.
(ii) All the payment, to the extent possible, shall be released ‘just-in-time’ by the Ministries
through PFMS.
(iii) Detailed Demand for Grants (DDG), as approved, must be uploaded on PFMS by the end
of the financial year.
(iv) All the re-appropriation orders, surrender order shall be generated through PFMS system.
(v) All grantee institutions shall submit Utilisation Certificates on PFMS.

(a) i, ii, iii and iv (b) i, ii, iv and v
(c) ii, iii, iv and v (d) All of the above
20. DBT should include

(a) in-kind transfers to beneficiaries (b) in cash transfers to beneficiaries
(c) transfers/honorariums given to various enablers of government schemes
(d) All of the above.
21. Transaction charges for the financial intermediaries facilitating DBT payments shall be paid as
stipulated by
(a) Union Cabinet (b) Ministry of Finance
(c) Ministry of Trade & Commerce (d) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
22. Appropriation Accounts of Central Ministries/Departments other than Ministry of Railways, Defence
and Posts shall be prepared by the
(a) CCA (b) CGA
(c) C&AG (d) Principal Accounts Officer
23. Appropriation Accounts of Central Ministries/Departments shall be prepared under the guidance of
(a) CCA (b) CGA
24. Who signs the Appropriation Accounts of Central Ministries/Departments

(a) CAA (b) CGA
25. Union Government Appropriation Accounts (Civil) that required to be submitted to Parliament, shall
be prepared by
(a) Principal Accounts Officer (b) CCA
(c) CA&G (d) CGA

Appropriation Accounts pertaining to Departments of Posts and Defence Services shall be
prepared and signed by the Secretaries to the Government of India in the Department of Posts and Ministry
of Defence respectively and that of Ministry of Railways by the Chairman, Railway Board.
(a) True (b) False
27. Accounts showing under the respective Heads the annual receipts and disbursements and
statement of balances for the purpose of the Union, are called
(a) Appropriation Accounts (b) Finance Accounts
(c) Proforma Accounts (d) Balance Sheet
28. Finance accounts of the Government of India (including transactions of Department of Posts and
Ministries of Defence and Railways and transactions under Public Account of India of Union Territory
Governments) shall be prepared and signed by the
(a) CGA (b) C&AG
(c) Secretary (Expenditure), Ministry of Finance
(d) Finance Minister
29. Finance accounts of the Government of India is countersigned by the

(a) CGA (b) C&AG
(c) Secretary (Expenditure), Ministry of Finance
(d) Finance Minister
30. The certified Annual Accounts and the Reports relating to the accounts shall be submitted by the
Comptroller and Auditor General of India to the President in accordance with the provisions of

(a) Section 10 of DPC Act, 1971 & Article 150 of Constitution
(b) Section 11 of DPC Act, 1971 & Article 151 of Constitution
(c) Section 11 of DPC Act, 1971 & Article 150 of Constitution
(d) Section 10 of DPC Act, 1971 & Article 151 of Constitution
31. The Appropriation and Finance Accounts shall be prepared by the respective authorities on the
dates mutually agreed upon with the
(a) CGA (b) C&AG
(b) DRSC (d) Finance Minister

Details of the financial stakes of the Administrative Ministries / PSUs / Subordinate / Statutory /
Autonomous Bodies in Public Private Partnerships (PPP)/ Production Sharing Contracts (PSCs)/ Joint
Ventures (JV’s)/ Subsidiary companies etc. should be disclosed Finance Accounts.
(a) True (b) False

(a) Proforma Accounts is suitable for Government Departments working on a commercial or
quasi-commercial basis
(b) This includes the maintenance of suitable Manufacturing, Trading, Profit & Loss Accounts
and Balance Sheet.
(c) The Head of the units shall be required to maintain such subsidiary proforma accounts in
commercial form as may be agreed between Government and CGA.
(d) None of the above (All of the above are correct)
34. Proforma accounts of regular Government Workshops and Factories shall be kept in accordance
with the detailed rules and procedure prescribed in the
(a) GAR, 1990 (b) R&P, 1983
(c) GFR, 2017 (d) Departmental regulations.
35. Proforma accounts relating to Public Works shall be prepared by the

(a) Divisional Officer (b) CCA
(c) Accounts Officers (d) CGA
36. Proforma accounts relating to Public Works shall be prepared by the Accounts Officers in
accordance with the instructions contained in
(a) Departmental regulations (b) Account Code for Accountants General.
(c) GAR, 1990 (d) Works Manual.
37. Where commercial accounts are maintained for the purpose of assessment of the cost of an article
or service, who shall ensure that adequate regulations are framed with the approval of Government in order
to ensure that the cost deduced from the accounts is accurate and true?
(a) Head of the Unit (b) CAG
(c) CGA (d) CCA
38. Subsidiary accounts and statements shall be submitted on such date as may be required by to the
(a) CCA (b) CAA
(c) CGA (d) Accounts Officer
39. Subsidiary accounts and statements shall be appended each year to the
(a) Appropriation Accounts (b) Finance Accounts
(c) Departmental Accounts (d) Balance Sheet
40. The Personal Deposit Account shall be authorised to be opened by a special order by the
concerned Ministry or Department in consultation with the
(a) CAA (b) CCA

(c) CGA (d) C&AG
41. Every personal deposit account so authorised to be opened, shall form part of the Government
Account and be located in the
(A) Consolidated Fund (b) Contingency Fund
(c) Public Account (d) Local Departmental Account
42. The provisions relating to “Personal Deposit Account” are contained in

(a) Civil Accounts Manual and R&P 1983 (b) GAR, 1990
(c) GFR, 2017 (d) Accounts Code
43. In relation to Civil and Criminal Courts’ deposits, Personal Deposit Account to be opened in favour
of the
(a) Chief Justice of High Court of the State Concerned
(b) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
(c) Bar Council (d) Chief Judicial Authority concerned

Officers commanding units and others concerned in the administration of public funds in the
Defence Departments can be authorised to open personal deposit accounts for such funds.
(a) True (b) False
45. Significant expenditure incurred with the object of acquiring tangible assets of a permanent nature
or enhancing the utility of existing assets, shall broadly be defined as
(a) Assets expenditure (b) Capital expenditure.
(c) Revenue expenditure (d) At discretion of HoD
46. Charges on maintenance, repair, upkeep and working expenses, which are required to maintain
the assets in a running order as also all other expenses incurred for the day to day running of the
organisation, including establishment and administrative expenses, shall be classified as
(a) Revenue expenditure (b) Capital expenditure
(c) Major Expenditure (d) Contingent Expenditure

(a) Expenditure on a temporary asset or on grants-in-aid cannot ordinarily be considered as a
capital expenditure
(b) Expenditure on a temporary asset or on grants-in-aid shall not, except in cases specifically
authorised by the President on the advice of the C&AG, be debited to a Capital Head.
(c) Capital expenditure is generally met from receipts of capital nature, as distinguished from
ordinary revenues derived from taxes, duties, fees, fines and similar items of current income
including extraordinary receipts.
(d) Under no circumstances the Government shall meet capital expenditure from ordinary
revenues.
48. Charges for replacement of all wastage or depreciation of property originally provided out of capital
grants shall be classified as
(a) Revenue Expenditure (b) Capital Expenditure
(c) Contingent Expenditure (d) At discretion of HoD
49. The cost of genuine improvements, which enhance the useful life of the asset whether determined
by prescribed rules or formulae, or under special orders of Government, may be debited to
(a) Revenue Expenditure (b) Capital Expenditure
(c) Contingent Expenditure (d) At discretion of HoD
50. Expenditure on account of reparation of damage caused by extraordinary calamities such as flood,
fire, earthquake, enemy action, etc., shall be charged to Capital, or to Revenue, or divided between them,

depending upon whether such expenditure results in creation/acquisition of new assets or whether it is only
for restoring the condition of the existing assets, as may be determined case basis by
(a) HoD (b) Government
(c) Ministry of Finance (d) Accounts Office
51. The allocation between capital and revenue expenditure on a Capital Scheme for which separate
Capital and Revenue Accounts are to be kept, shall be determined in accordance with such general or
special orders as may be prescribed by the Government after consultation with the
(a) CGA (b) CCA
(c) C&AG (d) Niti Aayog
52. Capital receipts accruing during the process of construction of a project, shall be classified as
(a) Revenue Receipt (b) Misc. Receipt
(c) Contribution (d) reduction of capital expenditure
53. Receipts and recoveries on Capital Account in so far as they represent recoveries of expenditure
previously debited to a Capital Major Head shall be taken in
(a) reduction of capital expenditure (b) Revenue Receipt
(c) Misc. Receipt (d) Contribution

Where loans outstanding against Public Sector Undertakings are proposed to be converted into
equity investments in or as grants-in-aid to the Public Sector Undertakings, the approval of the Ministry of
Finance to such proposals, shall be obtained by including a token provision in the relevant Demands for
Grants or Supplementary Demands for Grants as may be found expedient.
(a) True (b) False
55. For capital outlay provided otherwise (other than out of specific loan raised by the Govt.), interest
shall be charged at the rate of interest to be determined each year by the
(a) Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance.
(b) Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance
(c) Ministry of Trade & Commerce (d) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
56. As a convention, the period accepted by Central and State Governments for the re-audit of past
transactions involving errors in classification
(a) 2 years (b) 3 years
(c) 5 years (d) 10 years
57. The Central Government (which includes Union Territories) and the State Governments have
agreed under reciprocal arrangements not to prefer petty and isolated claims for an amount not exceeding
(a) 5000/- (b) 7500/-
(c) 10000/- (d) 15000/-
58. If a doubt arises as to whether a particular claim would fall within or outside the purview of the
proposed arrangement between the Central Government (which includes Union Territories) and the State
Governments, it shall be decided by
(a) Central Govt. (b) State Governments concerned
(c) mutual consultation (d) Parliament.
59. In the case of Projects, jointly executed by several Governments, where the expenditure is to be
shared by the participating Governments in agreed proportions, but the expenditure is ab-initio incurred by
one Government and shares of other participating Governments recovered subsequently shall be exhibited
as
(a) Revenue receipt (b) Misc. Revenue receipt
(c) Misc. Deposit Receipt (d) abatement of charges

60. A five years’ contract shall be offered to the State Government during which the Central
Government would pay the fixed sum per annum for the work, If the charges are found to be reasonable
and do not exceed for any individual item (or connected group of items)
(a) 10000/- (b) 25000/-
(d) 50000/- (d) 100000/-
61. An annual statement of proposed charges from the State Government at the time of preparation of
the Budget shall be necessary, if the amount agreed upon exceeds
(a) 25000/- (b) 50000/-
(c) 75000/- (d) 100000/-
62. Claims of State Governments, on account of the extra cost of agency functions entrusted to them
under
(a) Article 258 (b) Article 259
(c) Article 261 (d) Article 263
63. The date up-to which Inter-Governmental adjustments can be carried out as the books of RBI for
the month of March are closed on this very date
(a) 7th April (b) 15th April
(c) th
20 May (d) 1st June
64. Recoveries of expenditure for services rendered or supplies made to non-Government parties or
other Governments (including local funds and Governments outside India), shall in all cases, be classified
as
(a) Reduction of Expenditure (b) Receipts
(c) Contribution (d) Misc. Deposit Receipt
65. When a Government undertakes a service merely as an agent of a private body, the recovery of
entire cost of the service rendered shall be taken
(a) Reduction of Expenditure (b) Receipts
(c) Contribution (d) Misc. Deposit Receipt

Any relief in respect of payment for services rendered or supplies made to any outside body or fund
shall ordinarily be given through a remission of dues rather than by grant-in-aid.
(a) True (b) False

(a) Half the maintenance charges pertaining to boarder/boundary line will be borne by the
Central Government, the other half being recovered, as far as practicable, from the foreign country,
failing which the foreign country’s share will also be borne by the Central Government.
(b) Charges relating to demarcation of boundaries and boundary disputes will be borne by the
Central Government under Entry 10 of the Union List, subject to such recovery as shall be made
from the Foreign Country.
(c) Where streams or other watercourses form the boundaries and where the ordinary principle
of median line applies, the Government concerned will bear the cost of maintenance of the
boundary line on its side.
(d) The arrangement in (a) above i.e. bearing half the maintenance charges pertaining to
boarder/boundary line, in its application to Nepal will be subject to special arrangements worked
out in consultation with the Nepal Government.
(e) The share of the Nepal Government for maintenance and demarcation of and disputes over
boundaries will be borne by the Central Government for the present
68. For purposes of inter-Departmental payments, the Departments of a Government shall be divided
into
(a) Service departments and commercial departments
(b) Work departments and non-work departments

(c) General Departments and Economic departments
(d) General, Social and Economic departments.
69. All claims shall ordinarily be preferred between Departments, both commercial and non-commercial
of the Central Government, within the same financial year and not beyond
(a) 2 years from the date of transaction. (b) 3 years from the date of transaction.
(c) 5 years from the date of transaction. (d) 7 years from the date of transaction.
70. The settlement of inter-departmental adjustments shall be regulated by the directions contained in
Chapter 4 of
(a) R&P 1983 (b) GAR,1990.
(c) GFR, 2017 (d) Treasury Rules
71. Between different Departments of the same Government, the recoveries effected for services
rendered shall be classified as
(a) Revenue Income (b) Misc. Income
(c) Deposit Receipt (d) Deductions from the gross expenditure.
72. Recoveries made by a Commercial Department, e.g., Railways, Posts or a departmental

commercial undertaking in respect of services rendered in pursuance of the functions for which the
Commercial Department is constituted shall be treated as
(a) receipts of the Department (b) deductions from the gross expenditure
(c) grant to the department (d) deposit receipt
73. Where a commercial department acts as an agent for the discharge of functions not germane to
the essential purpose of the Department, the recoveries shall be taken as
(a) Revenue Income (b) Misc. Income
(c) Reduction of expenditure (d) Deposit Receipt
74. Recoveries of fees for purchase, inspection, etc., effected by the Central Purchase Organizations
(DGS&D) of Government of India, are treated as
(a) receipts of the Department (b) deductions from the gross expenditure
(c) grant to the department (d) deposit receipt

Recoveries effected from another Department of the same Government which are to be classified
as deduction from the gross expenditure, shall be shown in the relevant Demand for Grant as “below the
line” recovery under the appropriate Major Head of Account etc.
(a) True (b) False
76. Fill in the blank

In the case of Government Departments and undertakings declared as commercial, adjustment of
Pensionary liability shall be made in the regular accounts by charging the average of the percentage for
___________ of service based on the rates of monthly contribution of prescribed pension
(a) 10th years (b) 12th years
(c) 15th years (d) 20th years

ANSWERS
Q. Answer Rule/Remarks Q. Answer Rule/Remarks

No. No.
1 A 41 C
2 B 42 A
3 C 43 D
4 D 44 A
5 C 45 B
6 D 46 A
7 C 47 D
8 C 48 A
9 C 49 B
10 A 50 B
11 C 51 C
12 A 52 D
13 C 53 A
14 A 54 A
15 D 55 A
16 D 56 B
17 B 57 C
18 A 58 C
19 D 59 D
20 D 60 C
21 B 61 B
22 D 62 A
23 B 63 B
24 A 64 B
25 D 65 A
26 A 66 B
27 B 67 E
28 A 68 A
29 C 69 B
30 B 70 B
31 B 71 D
32 B 72 A
33 C 73 C
34 D 74 A
35 C 75 A
36 B 76 C
37 A
38 D
39 A
40 C

CHAPTER 5: WORKS
1. Works which add capital value to existing assets but do not create new assets are called
(a) Original Works (b) Repair Works
(c) Minor Works (d) Contingent Works
2. New constructions, site preparation, additions and alterations to existing works, special repairs to
newly purchased or previously abandoned buildings or structures, including re-modelling or replacement
are called
(a) Original Works (b) Repair Works
(c) Minor Works (d) Contingent Works
3. Subject to certain conditions a Ministry or Department at its discretion may directly execute repair
works estimated to cost up to Rupees
(a) 10 lakhs (b) 15 lakhs
(c) 20 lakhs (d) 30 lakhs
4. A Ministry or Department may, at its discretion, assign to any Public Works Organisation (PWO)
repair works estimated to cost above Rupees 30 Lakhs and original/minor works of
(a) above 50 lakh (b) above 1 crore
(c) above 2 crore (d) any value

No works shall be commenced or liability incurred in connection with it until
(a) administrative approval has been obtained from the appropriate authority in each case.
(b) sanction to incur expenditure has been obtained from the competent authority.
(c) a properly detailed design has been sanctioned; while designing the projects etc, principles
of Life Cycle cost may also be considered.
(d) funds to cover the charge during the year and beyond till completion of the work have been
provided by competent authority.

For purpose of approval and sanctions, a group of works which forms one project, shall be
considered as one work. Therefore, approval or sanction of higher authority is not required as cost of each
particular work in the project is within the powers of such approval or sanction of a lower authority.
(a) True (b) False
7. Open tenders will be called for works costing Rupees

(a) 1 lakh to 10 lakh (b) 2 lakh to 15 lakh
(c) 3 lakh to 20 lakh (d) 5 lakh to 30 lakh
8. Limited tenders will be called for works costing less than Rupees
(a) 1 lakh (b) 2 lakh
(c) 5 lakh (d) 10 lakh
9. To review the progress of the work, the Administrative Ministry or Department will set up a Review
Committee consisting of a representative each from the Administrative Ministry, Finance (Internal Finance
Wing) and the Executing Agency when the estimate cost of approved project is Rupees
(a) 50 crore and above (b) 100 crore and above
(c) 200 crore and above (d) 500 crore and above
10. The Review Committee shall have the powers to accept variation within
(a) 5% of the approved estimates. (b) 10% of the approved estimates
(c) 10% of the approved estimates (a) 15% of the approved estimates

ANSWER
Q. No Answer Rule/Remarks, if any

1 C 130
2 A 130
3 D 133 (1)
4 D 133 (2)
5 D 135
6 B 137
7 D 139 (iv)
8 C 139 (v)
9 B 141
10 C 141

CHAPTER 6: PROCUREMENT OF GOODS AND SERVICES
1. An authority competent to incur expenditure may sanction the purchase of goods required for use
in public service in accordance with provisions given in the
(a) Delegation of Financial Powers Rules (b) Departmental Regulations
(c) R&P (d) GFR
2. The terms rate contract pertains to

(a) Ministries/Departments (b) DGS&D
(c) Ministry of Finance (d) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
3. GeM stands for

(a) Government Money (d) Government e-marketing
(c) Government e-market Place (d) Goods e-market place

(a) Up to Rs.50,000/- through any of the available suppliers on the GeM, meeting the requisite
quality, specification and delivery period.
(b) Above Rs.50,000/- and up to Rs.30,00,000/- through the GeM Seller having lowest price
amongst the available sellers, of at least three different manufacturers, on GeM, meeting
the requisite quality, specification and delivery period.
(c) Above Rs.30,00,000/- through the supplier having lowest price meeting the requisite
quality, specification and delivery period after mandatorily obtaining bids, using online
bidding or reverse auction tool provided on GeM.
(d) None (all of the above are correct)
5. The Ministries/Departments shall l project their Annual Procurement Plan of goods and services on
GeM portal within
(a) 30 days of Budget approval. (b) 30 days of financial year
(c) 90 days of budget approval (d) 90 days of financial year
6. Depending on the nature of the goods the supplier(s) will be registered for a fixed period between
(a) 1 to 2 years (b) 1 to 3 years
(c) 2 to 3 years (d) 2 to 5 years
7. If a procuring entity determines that the bidder has breached the code of integrity it may debar a
bidder or any of its successors from participating in any procurement process undertaken by it for a period
(a) not exceeding two years (b) not exceeding three years
(c) not exceeding five years (d) not exceeding ten years
8. Purchase of goods without inviting quotations or bids on the basis of a certificate to be recorded by
the competent authority up-to the value of Rupees
(a) 10000/- (b) 15000/-
(c) 25000/- (d) 50000/-
9. Purchase of goods without inviting quotations or bids on the basis of a certificate to be recorded by
the competent authority up-to the certain has been given in GFR under Rule
(a) 145 (b) 147
(c) 150 (d) 154
10. Purchase of goods on each occasion may be made on the recommendations of a duly constituted
Local Purchase Committee costing
(a) above Rs. 10,000 up-to Rs.1,00,000/- (a) above Rs. 15,000 up-to Rs.1,50,000/-
(c) above Rs. 25,000 up-to Rs.1,50,000/- (a) above Rs. 25,000 up-to Rs.2,50,000/-

11. Purchase of goods on each occasion may be made on the recommendations of a duly constituted
Local Purchase Committee has been referred to in GFR under Rule
(a) 151 (b) 154
(c) 155 (d) 157

It is desirable, however, not mandatory for all Ministries/Department s of the Central Government,
their attached and Subordinate Offices and Autonomous /Statutory Bodies to publish their tender enquiries,
corrigenda thereon and details of bid awards on the Central Public Procurement Portal (CPPP).
(a) True (b) False
13. It is mandatory for Ministries/ Departments to receive all bids through e-procurement portals in
respect of all procurements. These instructions will not apply to procurements made by Ministries /
Departments through
(a) Multinational Companies (b) Public Sector Undertakings
(c) DGS&D Rate (d) Make in India Companies
14. Advertised Tender Enquiry should be resorted for procurement of goods of estimated value of
Rupees
(a) 10 lakh and above (b) 20 lakh and above
(c) 25 lakh and above (d) 30 lakh and above
15. CPPP Stands for

(a) Central Public Procurement Portal (b) Centralized Purchase & Payment Portal
(c) Common Public Procurement Portal (d) Common Purchase & Payment Portal
16. Ordinarily, from the date of publication of the tender notice or availability of the bidding document
for sale, whichever is later the minimum time to be allowed for submission of bids should be
(a) 2 weeks (b) 3 weeks
(c) 4 weeks (d) 7 weeks
17. Where the bids from abroad are also to be obtained, the minimum period should be kept as
(a) 3 weeks for domestic and 4 weeks for foreign bidders.
(b) 3 weeks for both domestic and foreign bidders.
(c) 4 weeks for both domestic and foreign bidders
(d) 4 weeks for domestic and 6 weeks for foreign bidders
18. Limited Tender Enquiry may be adopted when estimated value of the goods to be procured is up
to Rupees
19. Copies of the bidding document should be sent directly by speed post/registered post/courier/ email
to firms which are borne on the list of registered suppliers for the goods in question under
(a) Advertised Tender Enquiry (b) Limited Tender Enquiry
(c) Multi Tender Enquiry (d) Two Stage Tender Enquiry
20. The number of supplier firms in Limited Tender Enquiry should be

(a) not less than three (b) more than three
(c) four (d) six
21. Purchase through Limited Tender Enquiry may be adopted even where the estimated value of the
procurement is more than 25 lakh in the following circumstances except
(a) The competent authority in the Ministry or Department certifies that the demand is urgent
and any additional expenditure involved by not procuring through advertised tender enquiry
is justified in view of urgency.

(b) There are sufficient reasons indicating that it will not be in public interest to procure the
goods through advertised tender enquiry.
(c) The sources of supply are definitely known and possibility of fresh source(s) beyond those
being tapped is remote.
(d) The goods under procurement is of high value and delicate nature.

(a) For purchasing high value plant, machinery etc. of a complex and technical nature, bids
may be obtained in two parts- Technical bid and Financial bid.
(b) Technical bid consists of all technical detail s along with commercial terms and conditions
and Financial bid indicating item-wise price for the items mentioned in the technical bid.
(c) The technical bid and the financial bid should be sealed by the bidder in separate covers
duly super-scribed and both these sealed covers are submitted separately.
(d) The technical bids are to be opened by the purchasing Ministry or Department at the first
instance and evaluated by a competent committee or authority. At the second stage
financial bids of only these technically acceptable offers should be opened after intimating
them the date and time of opening the financial bid for further evaluation and ranking before
awarding the contract.
23. Procurement from a single source may be resorted to in the following circumstances except:
(a) It is in the knowledge of the user department that only a particular firm is the manufacturer
of the required goods
(b) In a case of emergency and reason for such decision is to be recorded and approval of
competent authority obtained.
(c) For standardisation of machinery or spare parts to be compatible to the existing sets of
equipment (on the advice of a competent technical expert and approved by the competent
authority), the required item is to be purchased only from a selected firm
(d) None of the above
24. Proprietary Article Certificate is applicable in

(a) Limited Tender Enquiry (b) Advertised Tender Enquiry
(c) Single Tender Enquiry (d) Two Bid Enquiry Tender
25. An online real-time purchasing technique utilised by the procuring entity to select the successful
bid, which involves presentation by bidders of successively more favourable bids during a scheduled period
of time and automatic evaluation of bids is called
(a) Electronic Procurement (b) Electronic Reverse Auction
(c) Electronic Buyer Seller Action (d) Electronic Deliberation
26. State whether true or fasle

Maintenance contract(s) of suitable period either with the supplier of the goods or with any other
competent firm, not necessarily the supplier of the subject goods is/are especially needed for sophisticated
and costly equipment and machinery.
(a) True (b) False
27. To safeguard against a bidder’s withdrawing or altering its bid during the bid validity period in the
case of advertised or limited tender enquiry, Bid Security is obtained. Bid Security is also called
(a) Security Deposit (b) Performance Deposit
(c) Work Guarantee (d) Earnest Money
28. Amount of bid security should ordinarily range between

(a) 1 to 5% of the estimated value of the goods to be procured.
(b) 2 to 5% of the estimated value of the goods to be procured.
(c) 3 to 5% of the estimated value of the goods to be procured.

(d) 5 to 10 of the estimated value of the goods to be procured.
29. Bid Security may be exempted for

(a) Micro and Small Enterprises (MSEs)
(b) Suppliers registered with the Central Purchase Organisation or the concerned Ministry or
Department.
(c) Both of the above
(d) None
30. The bid security is normally to remain valid for a period of

(a) 30 days beyond the final bid validity period.
(b) 30 days from date of inviting bid
(c) 45 days beyond the final bid validity period
(d) 45 days from date of inviting bid
31. Bid securities of the unsuccessful bidders should be returned to them at the earliest after expiry of
the final bid validity and latest on or before the
(a) 30th day after the award of the contract.
(b) 45th day after the award of the contract
(c) 60th day after the award of the contract
(d) 75th day after the award of the contract
32. Performance Security should be for an amount of (of the value of the contract as specified in the
bid documents)
(a) 2 to 5% (b) 5 to 10%
(c) 5 to 15% (d) 10 to 15%
33. Period for which Performance Security should remain valid beyond the date of completion of all
contractual obligations of the supplier including warranty obligations?
(a) 30 days (b) 45 days
(c) 60 days (d) 90 days
34. Advance payments for procurement of goods and services may be made in cases advance
payment demanded
(a) by firms holding maintenance contracts for servicing of Air- conditioners, computers, other
costly equipment, etc. by firms against fabrication contracts, turn-key contracts etc.
(b) by firms supplying high value machinery and plants.
(c) by firms supplying scientific and technical items
(d) by firms supplying items are located abroad.
35. In case of advance to private firms, it should not exceed:

(a) 10% of the contract value (b) 20% of the contract value
(c) 30% of the contract value (d) 50% of the contract value
36. In case of advance to a State or Central Government agency or a Public Sector Undertaking, it
should not exceed:
(a) 20% of the contract value (b) 25% of the contract value
(c) 30% of the contract value (d) 40% of the contract value
37. In case of maintenance contract, the amount of advance should not exceed the amount payable
for
(a) 2 months under the contract. (a) 3 month sunder the contract
(c) 6 month sunder the contract (a) 12 months under the contract
38. Ministries or Departments of the Central Government may relax the ceilings (including percentage
laid down for advance payment for private firms) in consultation with

(a) CGA (b) CA&G
(c) their Principal Accounts Officer (d) their Financial Advisers

if a firm quotes NIL charges/consideration, the bid shall be given priority and be treated as lowest
one as it will most economical to the State”
(a) True (b) False
40. In case a purchase Committee is constituted to purchase or recommend the procurement, no

member of the purchase Committee should be reporting directly to any other member of such Committee
in cases estimated value of procurement exceeds
(a) Rs. 10 lakhs (b) Rs. 25 lakhs
(c) Rs. 50 lakhs (d) Rs. 1 crore

Disclosure by the bidder of any previous transgressions made in respect of code of integrity with
any entity in any country during the last five (05) years or of being debarred by any other procuring entity.
(a) True (b) False
42. Services typically involve providing expert or strategic advice is called

(a) Consulting Service (b) Non-consulting Services
(c) Advisory Services (d) Management Services
43. Preparation of a long list of potential consultants may be done on the basis of formal or informal
enquiries from other Ministries or Departments or Organizations involved in similar activities, Chambers of
Commerce & Industry, Association of consultancy firms etc. Where the estimated cost of the consulting
service is up to Rupees
44. “Expression of Interest” should be sought where the estimated cost of the consulting services is
(a) above Rs. 20 (b) above Rs. 25 lakh
(c) up-to Rs. 20 lakh (d) up-to Rs. 25 lakh
45. The number of short listed consultants should

(a) not be less than three. (b) be more than three
(c) not be less than six (d) be more than six
46. RFP stands for

(a) Requirement for Procurement (b) Request for Procurement
(c) Request for Purchase & Payment (d) Request for Proposal
47. Technical bids should be analysed and evaluated by a

(a) Consultancy Evaluation Committee (CEC) constituted by the Ministry or Department.
(b) Consultancy Evaluation Committee (CEC) constituted by the Ministry of Finance
(c) Consultancy Evaluation Committee (CEC) constituted by Head of Department
(d) Consultancy Evaluation Committee (CEC) constituted by the Parliament.
48. QCBS stands for

(a) Quality Control & Budgeting System (b) Quality and Cost Based Selection
(c) Quality Control Based Selection (d) Quality and Cost Based Supply
49. The weight age of the technical parameters i.e. non- financial parameters in no case should exceed
(a) 30% (b) 50%
(c) 60% (d) 80%

50. Services which involve physical, measurable deliverables/outcomes, where performance
standards can be clearly identified and consistently applied, are classified as
(a) Contingent Services (b) Labour Services
(c) Non-consulting Services (d) Work Charged Services

(a) For identification of likely contractors the Ministry or Department should prepare a list of
likely and potential contractors on the basis of formal or informal enquiries from other Ministries or
Departments and Organisations involved in similar activities, scrutiny of ‘Yellow pages’, and trade
journals, if available, web site etc.
(b) The number of the identified contractors for issuing limited tender enquiry for estimated
value of the non-consulting service up-to Rs.10 lakhs should not be less than six.
(c) For estimated value of the non-consulting service above Rs.10 lakhs The Ministry or
Department should issue advertisement in such case should be given on Central Public
Procurement Portal (CPPP)
(d) None (All of the above are correct)
ANSWER
Q. Answer Rule/Remarks Q. Answer Rule/Remarks

No. No.
1 A 145 31 A 170 (ii)
2 B 148 32 B 171 (i)
3 C 149 33 C 171 (ii)
4 D 149 (i) to (iii) 34 A 172 (1) (i) (ii)
5 A 149 (vi) 35 C 172 (1) (ii) (a)
6 B 150 (iii) 36 D 172 (1) (ii) (b)
7 A 151 (iii) 37 C 172 (1) (ii) (c)
8 C 154 38 D 172 (1) (ii) (c)
9 D 39 B 173 (1) (h)
10 D 155 40 B 173 (xxii)
11 C 155 41 B 175 (1) (iii). For last 3 years and
not 5 years
12 B 159 42 A 177
13 C 160 (iii) 43 C 183 (i)
14 C 161 44 B 183 (ii)
15 A 159 45 A 184
16 B 161 (v) 46 D 186
17 C 161 (v) 47 A 189
18 D 162 48 B 192
19 B 162 (1) 49 D 192 (iv)
20 B 162 (1) 50 C 197
21 D 162 (iii) 51 B 201 (i)
22 C 163
23 D 166
24 C 166 Note
25 B 167
26 A 169
27 D 170
28 B 170 (i)
29 C 170 (i)
30 C 170 (i)

CHAPTER 7: INVENTORY
1. Who should certify that he has actually received the material and recorded it in the appropriate
stock registers?
(a) The Store-keeper (b) The cashier
(c) The officer-in-charge of stores (d) The head of office
2. Pick the incorrectly matched

Option Particular Form in which
maintained
a Fixed Assets such as plant, machinery, equipment, GFR-22
furniture, fixtures etc.
b Consumables such as office stationery, chemicals, GFR-23
maintenance spare parts etc.
c Library books GFR-24
d Assets of historical/artistic value held by museum GFR-24
/government
3. Calculation of the charges to be recovered from the local bodies, contractors and others for hiring
out the fixed assets should be based on the
(a) Issue Rate (b) Schedule of Rate
(c) Market Rate (d) Historical cost.
4. Fixed assets should be verified at least once in

(a) a six-month (b) a year
(c) a two year (d) a three year
5. A physical verification of all the consumable goods and materials should be undertaken at least
once in
(a) a month (b) a six-month
(c) a year (d) a two year
6. A material shall generally be considered surplus if it remains in stock for over______ unless
adequate reasons to treat it otherwise exist
(a) a year (b) two years
(c) three years (d) four years

(a) Complete physical verification of books should be done every year in case of libraries
having not more than 20000 volumes.
(b) For libraries having more than 20000 volumes and up to 50000 volumes, such verification
should be done at least once in three years.
(c) Sample physical verification at intervals of not more than five years should be done in case
of libraries having more than 50000 volumes. In case such verification reveals unusual or
unreasonable shortages, complete verification shall be done.
(d) Loss of five volumes per 1000 volumes of books issued/consulted in a year may be taken as
reasonable provided such losses are not attributable to dishonesty or negligence. However, loss of
a book of a value exceeding Rs. 1,000/- (Rupees One thousand only) and rare books irrespective
of value shall invariably be investigated and appropriate action taken.
8. A report of stores for disposal shall be prepared in Form

(a) GFR 10. (b) GFR 11
(c) GFR 14 (d) GFR 16

(a) Surplus or obsolete or unserviceable goods of assessed residual value above Rupees
2,00,000 should be disposed of by either obtaining bids through advertised tender or public auction.
(b) For surplus or obsolete or unserviceable goods with residual value less than Rupees
200000, the mode of disposal will be determined by the competent authority
(c) Certain surplus or obsolete or unserviceable goods such as expired medicines, food grain,
ammunition etc., which are hazardous or unfit for human consumption, should be disposed of or
destroyed immediately by adopting suitable mode so as to avoid any health hazard and/or
environmental pollution and also the possibility of misuse of such goods.
(d) Surplus or obsolete or unserviceable goods, equipment and documents, which involve
security concerns (e.g. currency, negotiable instruments, receipt books, stamps, security press
etc.) should be disposed of/ destroyed in an appropriate manner to ensure compliance with rules
relating to official secrets as well as financial prudence.
(a) i, ii and iii (b) ii, iii and iv

(c) i, iii and iv (d) All of the above.
10. If a bid is accepted during the process of auctioning the disposal, earnest money should
immediately be taken on the spot from the successful bidder. The amount of the earnest money should be
(a) not less than 10% (b) not less than 20%
(c) not less than 25% (d) not less than 30%
11. If a Ministry or Department is unable to sell any surplus or obsolete or unserviceable item in spite
if its attempts through advertised tender or auction, it may dispose of the same at its scrap value with the
approval of the competent authority in consultation with
(a) HoD (b) Finance division
(c) Accounts Officer (d) Legal Division
12. A sale account should be prepared for goods disposed of in Form GFR 11 duly signed by the
(a) officer who supervised the sale or auction
(b) Head of Department (c) Head of the Finance division
(d) Accounts Officer
13. Powers to write off of losses are available under the

(a) R&P 1983 (b) GAR 1990
(c) GFR 2017 (d) Delegation of Financial Powers Rules.
14. Losses due to depreciation shall be analysed, and recorded under following heads except
(a) normal fluctuation of market prices
(b) losses due to extra ordinary situations under ‘Force Majeure’ conditions like fire, flood,
enemy action, etc.
(c) lack of foresight in regulating purchases
(d) negligence after purchase.
15. Losses not due to depreciation shall be grouped under the following heads
(i) losses due to theft or fraud (ii) losses due to neglect
(iii) anticipated losses on account of obsolescence of stores or of purchases in excess of
requirements
(iv) losses due to damage
(a) i, ii and iii (b) i, iii and iv

(c) ii, iii and iv (d) All of the above

ANSWER

1 C 211 (1)
2 C 212 (2) (C) GFR 18 in place of GFR 24
3 D 212
4 B 213 (1)
5 C 213 (2)
6 A 214 Note below
7 C 215 (1). It is 3 years and not 5 years
8 A 217 (iii)
9 D 218 (i) to (iv)
10 C 220 (iv)
11 B 221
12 A 222
13 D 223 (1)
14 B 223 (2)
15 D 223 (3)

CHAPTER 8: CONTRACT MANAGEMENT
1. All contracts shall be made by an authority empowered to do so by or under the orders of the
President in terms of
(a) Article 299 (1) (b) Article 299 (2)
(c) Article 301 (1) (d) Article 301 (2)
2. The various classes of contracts and assurances of property, which may be executed by different
authorities, are specified in the Notifications issued from time to time by the
(a) Ministry of Finance (b) Ministry of Law
(c) Ministry of Trade & Commerce (d) Ministry of Industries
3. The powers of various authorities, the conditions under which such powers should be exercised
and the general procedure prescribed with regard to various classes of contracts and assurances of
property are laid down in
(a) Rule 107 of GFR 2017 (b) Rule 79 of R&P 1983
(c) Rule 52 of GAR 1990
(d) Rule 21 of the Delegation of Financial Powers Rules.

The modifications in standard forms of contracts should be carried out only after obtaining legal
advice.
(a) True (b) False
5. A Ministry or Department may, at its discretion, make purchases by issuing purchase orders
containing basic terms and conditions of value up to
(a) Rs. 200000/- (b) Rs. 250000/-
(c) Rs. 300000/- (d) Rs. 500000/-
6. Tender documents include the General Conditions of Contract (GCC), Special Conditions of
Contract (SCC) and scope of work, the letter of acceptance will result in a binding contract in respect of
Works Contracts, or Contracts for purchases valued between
(a) Rs. 100000-500000 (b) Rs. 200000-1000000
(c) Rs. 100000-1000000 (d) Rs. 200000-1000000
7. A Contract document should be executed, with all necessary clauses to make it a self-contained
Contract in respect of contracts for works with estimated value and purchase of
(a) Rs. 1000000 or above (b) Rs. 1500000 or above
(c) Rs. 2000000 or above (d) Rs. 5000000 or above
8. Contract document should be invariably executed in cases of following except

(a) turnkey works (b) maintenance of equipment
(c) provision of services (d) purchase of IT products
9. Contract document, where necessary, should be executed

(a) within 21 days of the issue of letter of acceptance
(b) within 21 days of the opening of bid
(c) within 30 days of the issue of letter of acceptance
(d) within 30 days of the opening of bid

Non-executing a contract by the Contractor or Supplier within the prescribed period would not
constitute sufficient ground for annulment of the award and forfeiture of Earnest Money Deposit.
(a) True (b) False

11. Contract in which the price payable for supplies or services under the contract is determined on the
basis of actual cost of production of the supplies or services concerned plus profit either at a fixed rate per
unit or at a fixed percentage on the actual cost of production is called
(a) Fixed Rate Contract (b) Finished Rate Contract
(c) Cost Plus Contract (d) Negotiated Contract
12. Price Variation Clause can be provided only in long-term contracts, where the delivery period
extends
(a) up-to 18 months (b) up-to 36 months
(c) beyond 36 months (d) beyond 18 months
13. The variations under Price Variation Clause are calculated by using indices published by
Governments or
(a) Chambers of Commerce (b) Chambers of Trade
(c) Chambers of Industries (d) All of the threes
14. No price adjustment under Price Variation Clause will be made in favour of the supplier where
resultant increase is lower than
(a) 1% (b) 2%
(c) 5% (d) 10%.
15. No price variation will be admissible beyond the original Scheduled Delivery Date for defaults on
the part of the supplier. However, it may be allowed beyond the original Scheduled Delivery Date, by specific
alteration of that date through an amendment to the contract in cases of Force Majeure or defaults by
Government.
(a) True (b) False
16. Copies of all contracts and agreements for purchases, and of all rate and running contracts entered
into by civil departments of the Government other than the departments like the DGS&D should be sent to
the Audit Officer and /or the Accounts officer as the case may be when value of the contracts/agreements
are of
(a) Rs. 10 lakh and above (b) Rs. 15 lakh and above
(c) Rs. 20 lakh and above (d) Rs. 25 lakh and above
17. Provision for recovery of liquidated damages applies when

(a) Item/service received less than supply/work order
(b) Description of items are different than what required in supply order
(c) Items/services delivered beyond scheduled delivery date
(d) Items/service supplied or rendered are in damaged/inappropriate condition.
18. No claim for the payment from contractor shall be entertained after the lapse of
(a) 3 years of arising of the claim. (b) 5 years of arising of the claim
(c) 7 years of arising of the claim (d) 10 years of arising of the claim
19. Monthly review should be made of all bank guarantees or other instruments expiring
(a) within 6 months (b) after 6 months
(c) within 3 months (b) after 3 months

ANSWER

1 A 224 (1)
2 B 224 (2) Note 1 below
3 D 224 (2) Note 2 below
4 B 225 (iii) Financial & legal advices
5 B 225 (iv) (a)
6 C 225 (iv) (b)
7 A 225 (iv) (c)
8 D 225 (iv) (d)
9 A 225 (vi)
10 B 225 (vi)
11 C 225 (vii) Explanation below
12 D 225 (viii) (a)
13 A 225 (viii) (b)
14 B 225 (viii) (e)
15 A 225 (viii) (h) (j)
16 D 225 (xiii)
17 C
18 A 225 (xix)
19 D 226

CHAPTER 9: GRANTS-IN-AID AND LOANS
1. As a general principle Grants-in-aid can be given to a person or a public body or an institution
having a
(a) distinct legal entity (b) sound financial position
(c) credible performance record (d) substantial working force
2. No new autonomous institutions should be created by Ministries or Departments without the

approval of the
(a) Parliament (b) President
(c) Cabinet (d) Finance Minister
3. Regional Centres/Offices/Sub-Stations of any autonomous body can be created with prior approval
of the administrative ministry in consultation with
(a) CGA (b) CCA
(c) Niti Aayog (d) Ministry of Finance
4. The Ministry or Department create a Corpus Fund out of budgetary allocation for an Autonomous
Body only with prior concurrence of
(a) CGA (b) CCA
(c) Niti Aayog (d) Ministry of Finance
5. In case of a Corpus Fund created out of internal resource, the approval to be obtained from
(a) Financial Advisor (b) Administrative Ministry
(c) Chief Controller of Accounts (d) CGA
6. Governing Body of the Autonomous Body shall review user charges/ sources of internal revenue
generation at least once
(a) a year (b) a two years
(c) a three years (d) a five years
7. Review of user charges/sources of internal revenue generation should be informed to

administrative Ministry
(a) before the formulation of Union Annual Budget.
(b) by end of next financial year (c) by September
(d) by September of following year
8. Who will be responsible for overall financial management of the autonomous bodies?
(a) the Financial Advisor (b) the Chief Executive Officer
(c) the Governing Board (d) the Administrative Ministry/Department
9. Depending on the size and nature of activity of autonomous organisations, Ministry shall put in
place a system of external or internal peer review of autonomous organisations
(a) every one or two year (b) every two or three year
(c) every three or four year (d) every three or five years
.
10. Autonomous organisations as also others should be required to enter into a Memorandum of
Understanding with the Administrative Ministry or Department with a budgetary support of
(a) more than Rupees five crores per annum
(b) less than Rupees ten crore per annum
(c) more than Rupees ten crore per annum
(d) more than Rupees two crore per annum
11. Findings of the peer review should be examined and put up for appropriate decision by the
concerned programme division of the Administrative Department to the
(a) Secretary, Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance

(b) Secretary of the Administrative Department.
(c) Financial Advisor of the Administrative Department
(d) Union Cabinet
12. Grant is classified into

(a) Recurring and Non-recurring Grants (b) Capital and Revenue Grants
(c) Plan and non-plan Grants (d) National and International Grants
13. The orders of Grant shall specify the time limit within which the Grant or each instalment of it, is to
be spent in case of
(a) Recurring Grants (b) Non-recurring Grants
(c) Capital Grants (d) Revenue Grants

When recurring Grants-in-aid are sanctioned to the same Institution or Organisation for the same
purpose, the unspent balance of the previous Grant should not be taken into account in sanctioning the
subsequent Grant.
(a) True (b) False
15. Cash balance of an autonomous organisation at a time should preferably not be

(a) more than 2 months of requirements (b) more than 3 months of requirements
(c) more than 4 months of requirements (d) more than 6 months of requirements
16. All interests or other earnings against Grants in aid or advances (other than reimbursement)
released to any Grantee institution should be
(a) utilised for internal purpose
(b) allowed to be adjusted against future releases
(c) mandatorily remitted to the Consolidated Fund of India immediately after finalization of the
accounts.
(d) disposed of after having obtained the approval of Ministry of Finance.
17. Assets acquired by Non-Government or Quasi-Government Institutions or Organisations wholly or

substantially out of Government shall not be disposed of without obtaining the prior approval of the
(a) Authority which sanctioned the Grants-in-aid.
(b) Governing Body of such Non-Government or Quasi-Government Institutions or
Organisations
(d) CEOs of Non-Government or Quasi-Government Institutions or Organisations

(a) the release of the last instalment of the Annual Grant must be conditional upon the Grantee
Institutions providing reasonable evidence of proper utilization of instalments released earlier.
(b) In the cases where Central Financial Assistance (CFA) has been sanctioned, the grant will
be released in one instalment upon the Grantee Institutions/ Organisation providing complete
evidence of achieving the specified objectives and expenditure incurred supported by Audited
Statement of Expenditure.
(c) In these cases, the grantee institutions will not be required to submit Utilization Certificates.
19. The Grantee Institutions, to submit their requirement with supporting details by the
(a) end of September in the year preceding the year for which the Grants-in-aid is sought
(b) end of October in the year preceding the year for which the Grants-in-aid is sought
(c) beginning of financial year of preceding the year for which the Grants-in-aid is sought
(d) end of financial year of preceding the year for which the Grants-in-aid is sought
20. The Institution or Organisation should be informed of the result of their requests for Grant by

(a) by December of the year (b) March of the succeeding year
(c) April of the succeeding year (d) June of the succeeding year.
21. All Grantee Institutions or Organisations should ordinarily formulate terms and conditions of service
of their employees which are, by and large, not higher than those applicable to similar categories of
employees in Central Government which receive
(a) more than 50% of their recurring expenditure in the form of Grants-in-aid
(b) more than 50% of their non-recurring expenditure in the form of Grants-in-aid
(c) more than 75% of their recurring expenditure in the form of Grants-in-aid
(d) more than 75% of their non-recurring expenditure in the form of Grants-in-aid

All Grantee Institutions or Organisations receiving substantial grants from Government should
formulate terms and conditions of service of their employees which are, under any circumstance, not higher
than those applicable to similar categories of employees in Central Government.
(a) True (b) False
23. In all cases of buildings constructed with Grants-in-aid, responsibility of maintenance of such
buildings shall be of the
(a) Ministry/Department concerned (b) CPWD
(c) Grantee Institution or Organisation (d) Any of the as decided by the Govt.
24. Grants-in-aid may be sanctioned to meet the bonafide expenditure incurred

(a) not earlier than 6 months prior to the date of issue of the sanction
(b) not earlier than 9 months prior to the date of issue of the sanction
(c) not earlier than a year prior to the date of issue of the sanction
(d) not earlier than 2 years prior to the date of issue of the sanction

The stipulation in regard to refund of the un-utilised amount of Grant-in-aid with interest thereon
should be brought out clearly in the letter sanctioning the Grant as well as in the bond so required to be
executed.
(a) True (b) False
26. Pick the correct regarding precondition to the sanction of Grants-in-aid to the agencies
(a) the recipient body employs more than twenty-five persons on a regular basis and at least
fifty per cent of its recurring expenditure is met from Grants-in-aid from Central Government
(b) the body is a registered society or a co-operative institution and is in receipt of a general
purpose annual Grants-in-aid of Rupees fifty lakhs and above from the Consolidated Fund of India
(c) the terms and conditions under which the Grants-in-aid are given, should provide for
reservation for SC and ST or OBC in posts and services under such organizations or agencies
(d) All of the above
27. The approved administrative expenditure on pay and allowances of the personnel of the voluntary
organisation should not exceed
(a) 10% of Grant-in-aid (b) 25% of Grant-in-aid
(c) 50% of Grant-in-aid (a) 75% of Grant-in-aid

(a) In the event of the Grantee failing to comply with the conditions or committing breach of
the conditions of the Bond, the signatories to the Bond shall be jointly and severally liable to refund
to the President of India, the whole or a part amount of the Grant with interest at 10% per annum
thereon or the sum specified under the Bond.
(b) The stamp duty for this Bond shall be borne by the Grantee Institution.

(c) Execution of Bond will not apply to Quasi-Government Institutions, Central Autonomous
Organisations and Institutions whose budget is approved by the Government.
29. A post-completion review of every Centrally Sponsored Scheme should be undertaken by

(a) Ministries/Departments concerned of Central Government
(b) State Government/Union Territories
(c) Nodal Executing agencies such CPWD, National Highway Authority etc
(d) Central and State Government/UTs jointly.
30. If the assets of a sponsored project/scheme are to be sold, the proceeds therefrom should be
(a) credited to the account of the sponsoring Departments/Organisations.
(b) credited to the account of the Organisations/Institutions executed project/scheme
(c) credited to the Consolidated fund of India
(d) Jointly shared by sponsoring Departments/Organisations and executing institutions
31. A Register of Grants shall be maintained by the sanctioning authority in Form

(a) GFR 18 (b) GFR 19
(c) GFR 20 (d) GFR 21
32. The accounts of all Grantee Institutions or Organisations shall be open to inspection by the
sanctioning authority and audit, both by the C&AG under the provision of CAG(DPC) Act 1971 and internal
audit by
(a) the Principal Accounts Office of the Ministry or Department
(b) externally hired Chartered Accountants
(c) Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance
(d) Grantee Institutions themselves

The accounts of the Grantee Institution or Organisation shall be audited by the C&AG under Section
14 of the C&AG’s DPC Act, 1971, if the Grants or loans to the institution in a financial year
(i) are not less than Rupees 25 lakh
(ii) not less than seventy-five percent of the total expenditure of the Institution
(iii) The accounts may also be audited by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India if the
Grants or loans in a financial year are not less than Rupees one crore.
(iv) Where the accounts are so audited by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India in a
financial year, he shall continue to audit the accounts for a further period of three years
notwithstanding that the conditions outlined above are not fulfilled.
(a) i, ii and iv (b) i, iii and iv

(c) i, ii and iiii (d) All of the above
34. Where any Grant and /or loan is given for any specific purpose to any Institution or Organisation or
authority, not being a foreign State or international Body/Organization, the CAG, to scrutinize the
procedures by which the sanctioning authority satisfies itself as to the fulfillment of the conditions subject
to which such Grants and/or loans were given and shall, for this purpose, have right of access to the books
and accounts of that Institute or Organisation or authority under
(a) Section 15 (1) of the CAG’s (DPC) Act, 1971
(b) Section 15 (2) of the CAG’s (DPC) Act, 1971
(c) Section 16 (1) of the CAG’s (DPC) Act, 1971
(d) Section 16 (2) of the CAG’s (DPC) Act, 1971
35. Where the C&AG is the sole auditor for a local Body or Institution, unless specifically waived by
Government auditing charges will be payable by the
(a) Administrative Ministry/Department (b) auditee Institution in full
(c) IA&AD (d) Department of Expenditure, MoF

36. Approved and authenticated annual accounts to be made available by the Autonomous Body to
the concerned Audit Office and commencement of audit of annual accounts
(a) 30th April (b) 31st May
(c) 30th June (d) 30th September
37. Issue of the final SAR in English version with audit certificate to Autonomous Body/ Government
concerned
(a) 30th September (b) 31st October
(c) th
30 November (d) 31st December
38. Submission of the Annual Report and Audited Accounts to the Nodal Ministry/Department for it to
be laid on the Table of the Parliament
(a) 30th September (b) 31st October
(c) 30th November (d) 31st December
39. Utilisation Certificate has been referred to in GFR 2017 under Rule
(a) 235 (b) 237
(c) 238 (d) 242
40. Utilisation Certificate shall be submitted in Form

(a) 11A (b) 12A
(c) 14A (d) 15A
41.State whether true or false

Where Utilization certificate is not received from the Grantee within the prescribed time, the Ministry
or Department will be at liberty to blacklist such Institution or Organisation from any future grant, subsidy or
other type of financial support from the Government.
(a) True (b) False
42. Fill in the blank

Release of Grants-in-aid in excess of __________ of the total amount sanctioned for the
subsequent financial year shall be done only after utilisation certificate and the annual audited statement
relating to Grants-in-aid released in the preceding year are submitted to the satisfaction of the
Ministry/Department concerned.
(a) 25% (b) 50%
(c) 75% (d) 90%
43. All the Ministries or Departments should include in their Annual Report a statement for the
information of Parliament where Private and Voluntary Organizations receiving recurring Grants-in-aid
(a) Rs. 10 lakh to less than Rs. 25 lakh (b) Rs. 10 lakh to less than Rs. 50 lakh
(c) Rs. 20 lakh to less than Rs. 50 lakh (d) Rs. 20 lakh to less than Rs. 1 crore
44. The Annual Reports and accounts of Private and Voluntary Organizations should be laid on the
Table of the House where these organisations are receiving recurring Grants-in-aid to the tune of
(a) Rs. 20 lakh & above (b) Rs. 25 lakh & above
(c) Rs. 50 lakh & above (d) Rs. 1 crore & above
45. Where applicable the Annual Reports and accounts of Private and Voluntary Organizations should
be laid on the Table of the House within (whether recurring or non-recurring grant)
(a) 6 months of the close of Financial Year (b) 9 months of the close of Financial Year
(c) 6 months of the close of the succeeding financial year
(d) 9 months of the close of the succeeding financial year
46. All the Ministries or Departments should include in their Annual Report a statement for the
information of Parliament where Private and Voluntary Organizations receiving one-time assistance or non-
recurring Grants as Grants-in-aid

(a) Rs. 10 lakh to up-to Rs. 25 lakh (b) Rs. 10 lakh to up-to Rs. 50 lakh
(c) Rs. 20 lakh to up-to Rs. 50 lakh (d) Rs. 20 lakh to up-to Rs. 1 crore
47. The Annual Reports and accounts of Private and Voluntary Organizations should be laid on the
Table of the House where these organisations are receiving one-time assistance or non-recurring Grants
as Grants-in-aid
(a) Rs. 20 lakh & above (b) Rs. 25 lakh & above
(c) Rs. 50 lakh & above (d) Rs. 1 crore & above
48. In respect of the Scheme Utilization Certificate is submitted to Central Government by State
Government is Form
(a) GFR 12 C (b) GFR 14 C
(c) GFR 15 (d) GFR 16
49. UC given by the State Government should be counter-signed by the

(a) Minister, Finance Department (b) Chief Secretary
(c) Administrative Secretary of the Division regulating the Scheme/Finance Secretary
50. When Central Grants are given to State Governments for expenditure to be incurred by them
through local bodies or private institutions, the Utilization Certificates should be furnished by
(a) the local bodies or private institutions (b) the State Government
(c) jointly by local bodies or private institution and State Government
(d) No UC required.
51. The Grantee Institutions or Organisations should be required to submit performance cum
achievement reports soon after the end of the financial year, and in any case, not later than
(a) 3 months after the close of FY (b) 6 months after the close of FY
(c) 9 months after the close of FY (d) a year after the close of FY

performance-cum-achievement reports invariably be obtained with regard to non-recurring Grants
such as those meant for celebration of anniversaries, conduct of special tours and maintenance Grants for
education.
(a) True (b) False
53. Submission of performance- cum-achievement reports may be dispensed with by the sanctioning
authority in cases where Grant-in-aid does not exceed
(a) Rs. 10 lakh (b) Rs. 15 lakh
(c) Rs. 20 lakh (d) Rs. 25 lakh

Sanctioning authority may grant discretionary grant for either recurring or non-recurring purposes
but such grant should not involve any future commitment.
(a) True (b) False
55 Grants-in-aid for provision of amenities or of recreational or welfare facilities to the staff of the
offices of the Government are regulated under orders of the
(a) Ministry of Home Affairs (b) Ministry of Finance
(c) DoPT (d) Ministry of Social Welfare

(a) The Grant in aid will be admissible on the basis of the total strength borne on the regular
strength of an organization, i.e., Ministry or Department, etc., and its Attached and Subordinate
Offices and such statutory bodies whose budget forms part of Consolidated Fund of India
(b) Staff paid from contingencies, work charged staff etc., will also be taken into calculation for
this purpose.

(c) Grant-in-aid in respect of Gazetted Officers will be admissible only to that Ministry or
Department or Office where membership of recreation club is open to such officers.
(d) None of the above.
57. The rate of the Grant-in-aid per head per annum

(a) Rs. 20 (b) Rs. 40
(c) Rs. 50 (d) Rs. 80
58. To match the subscriptions collected during the previous financial year by the existing staff clubs
an additional Grant-in-aid will be admissible up to Rupees (per head per annum)
(a) Rs. 10 (b) Rs. 15
(c) Rs. 20 (d) Rs. 25
59. In the case of staff clubs which are started during the financial year in which Grant-in-aid is to be
given, an additional matching grants-in-aid up to match the subscription collected by such clubs up to the
date on which the proposal for the Grant is mooted, may be sanctioned up-to Rupees (per head/pa)
(a) Rs. 10 (b) Rs. 15
(c) Rs. 20 (d) Rs. 25
60. The total strength of the eligible staff will be that existing on the
(a) 31st March (b) 30th April
(c) 30th June (d) 30th September
61. In the case of new staff clubs the total strength of the eligible staff will be that existing on the
(a) 31st March of preceding year (b) 30th September preceding year
(c) date on which proposal for Grant is mooted
(d) date on which proposal for Grant is sanctioned
62. A maximum one-time Grant for setting up of a Recreation Club is

(a) Rs. 25000 (b) Rs. 50000
(c) Rs. 75000 (d) Rs. 100000
63. The accounts of recreational clubs for the preceding year duly audited by an Internal Auditor should
be obtained immediately by the Ministry or Department before allocating funds for the next financial year
after the close of the financial year in any case by the (following year)
(a) 30th April (b) 31st May
(c) 30th June (d) 31st July
64. The nodal division in the to finalize terms and conditions of loans by the Central Government is
(a) Budget Division, Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance
(b) Budget Division, Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance
(c) Niti Aayog (d) Finance Commission
65 Interest for the full period (half-year or full year, as the case may be) shall be payable if the payment
of the instalment is made in advance of the due date by
(a) 14 days or less (b) 15 days or less
(a) 20 days or less (b) 30 days or less
66. When the due date of repayment of any instalment of principal or interest falls on a Sunday or a
public holiday, the due date will be
(a) working day preceding Sunday or public holiday
(b) next working day
(c) End of that particular month in which due date falls
(d) Any of the above as decided by sanctioning authority while sanctioning the grant/loan.

67. If an instalment of principal or interest is payable on the 31st March of a year, and if that day happens
to be a public holiday, the due date will be
(a) First working day of April of following year
(b) working day preceding public holiday
(c) by the end of April of following year
(d) Any of the above as decided by sanctioning authority while sanctioning the grant/loan
68. The payment of interest and the repayment of principal of a loan are always to be made with
reference to the calendar date on which the loan
(a) proposal mooted (b) sanctioned
(c) paid to the borrower
(d) withdrawn by the borrower from his accounts

In the case of a loan sanctioned by the Central Government to a State Government on or before
31st March of a year, which is adjusted in the books of the Reserve Bank of India in the month of April of
following year the instalment of principal and/or interest shall fall due for payment on the 31 st March of the
succeeding year
(a) True (b) False
70. In regard to cases where adjustment in the books of the Accounts Offices are only involved and
actual credit through the Reserve Bank of India is not necessary, the date of drawal of loan for purposes of
repayment and charging interest shall be
(a) the first date of the month of account in which the adjustment is effected
(b) the last date of the month of account in which the adjustment is effected
(c) the last date of the Financial year which the adjustment is effected
(d) the first date of following financial year.
71. The Principal Accounts Officers or Pay and Accounts Officers s, shall issue notices in Form GFR-
19 to the loanees (other than State and Union Territory Governments) i.e. Public Sector Undertakings,
statutory bodies and Government institutions etc. where
(a) the detailed accounts of loan is maintained by PAO
(b) amount involved is more than Rs. 50 lakh
(c) amount has been unpaid for the last 6 months
(d) administrative Ministry/department has authorised PAO to do so.71.
72. The Principal Accounts Officers or Pay and Accounts Officers s, shall issue notices in Form GFR-
19 to the loanees
. (a) 15 days in advance from due date (b) one month in advance from due date
(c) 2 months in advance from due date (d) 3 months in advance from due date.
73. Before approving the loan, the applicant shall be asked to furnish copies of profit and loss (or
income and expenditure) accounts and balance sheets for the last
(a) 2 years (b) 3 years
(c) 4 years (d) 5 years
74. Value of the security offered against the loan should be at least
(a) thirty-three and one-third per cent of the loan amount
(b) 100% of loan value
(c) thirty-three and one-third per cent above the amount of the loan
(d) 50% the amount of the loan

A loan shall bear interest for the day of payment as well as day of repayment.
(a) True (b) False

76. In cases where the normal rate is considered too high and a concession is allowed by direct
subsidy, the payment of interest
(a) Amount of direct subsidy should be adjusted against interest due and only net interest due
is to paid.
(b) interest shall be paid in the first instance at the normal rates and subsidy shall be claimed
separately
(c) Amount of subsidy is accounted for in the records of sanctioning authority against interest
due
(d) Interest shall be paid as a normal case and subsidy will be treated as additional loan.
77. A written undertaking shall be obtained from a wholly Government-owned company at the time of
sanctioning the loan.in Form
(a) GFR 12 (b) GFR 13
(c) GFR 14 (d) GFR 15

(i) In the case of loans to wholly-owned Government Companies, a written undertaking to the
effect that the fixed assets of the company shall not be hypothecated without prior approval of the
Government shall be obtained in Form GFR 32.
(ii) Stamp duty should be paid on these written undertakings by wholly-owned Government
Companies.
(iii) Loans to parties other than State Governments, wholly owned Government Companies
and Local Administration of Union Territories shall be sanctioned only against adequate security.
(iv) The security to be taken shall ordinarily be at least sixty-seven and two-third per cent. more
than the amount of the loan.
(a) i and iii (b) ii and iv

(c) i, ii and iii (d) All of the above
79. Who will primarily be responsible for certifying to the Accounts Officer regarding fulfilment of the
conditions attaching to the loan
(a) The loanee institution (b) Sanctioning authority
(c) Head of administrative Ministry/Department
(d) Ministry of Finance

A Certificate of Utilization of the loan shall be furnished to the Accounts Officer in every case of
loan made for specific purposes, even if of the any conditions is not specifically attached to the grant.
(a) True (b) False
81. Utilization Certificates by the Department concerned to the Accounts Officer shall be submitted
(a) not later than 12 months from the date of sanction of the loan.
(b) not later than 18 months from the date of sanction of the loan
(c) not later than 12 months from the close of financial year in which loan sanctioned.
(d) not later than 18 months from the close of financial year in which loan sanctioned.

When a loan of public money is taken out in instalments each instalment of the loan so drawn shall
be treated as a separate loan for purposes of repayment of principal and payment of interest thereon except
where the various instalments drawn during a financial year are, for this purpose, allowed to be consolidated
into a single loan as at the end of that particular financial year.
(a) True (b) False
83. The penal or the higher rate of interest, as the case may be, shall not, except under special orders
of Government, be less than
(a) 2% per annum above the normal rate of interest

(b) 2 ½% per annum above the normal rate of interest
(c) 3% per annum above the normal rate of interest
(d) 5% per annum above the normal rate of interest
84. Any default in the payment of interest upon a loan or in the repayment of principal where details of
accounts of loan is maintained by Accounts Officer, shall be promptly reported by him to
(a) Principal Accounts Officer (b) Loanee Institution
(c) Ministry of Finance (d) sanctioning authority.

(a) The event of any default in repayment in the case of grant of interest free loans, interest at
prescribed rates will be chargeable on the loans.
(b) In the case of loans sanctioned at concessional rates of interest the difference between
the normal rate and concessional rate), shall be made conditional upon prompt repayments of
principal and payment of interest thereon by the entity concerned.
(c) In the cases where in addition to interest free loans, subsidy is also provided to meet running
expenses the sanction letter shall provide that in the event of any default in repayment, the
defaulted dues would be recovered out of the subsidy payable.
86. A competent authority may remit or write off any loans owing to their irrecoverability or otherwise,
after prior approval of the
(a) Ministry of Finance (b) Accounts Officer
(c) Administrative Ministry/Department (d) Parliament
87. Detailed accounts of loans to Institutions and Organizations, etc., shall be maintained by the
Accounts Officer who shall watch their recovery and see that the conditions attached to each loan are
fulfilled Subject to such general or specific directions as may be given by the
(a) Administrative Ministry/Department (b) Ministry of Finance
88. Each Principal Accounts Officer shall submit a statement showing the details of outstanding Central
Loans borne on his books as on 31st March each year to the
(a) concerned Ministry or Department (b) C&AG
(d) Chief Controller of Accounts of concerned Ministry or Department
89. The above statement is submitted in Form

(a) GFR 11 (b) GFR 12
(c) GFR 13 (d) GFR 14
90. This statement in GFR 13 shall be submitted not later than the
(a) 30th April of following year (b) 30th June of following year
(c) 30th September of following year (d) 31st December of following year
91. The Administrative Ministries shall keep watch over the receipt of the Annual Statements regularly
from the Accounts Office in Form
(a) GFR 20 (b) GFR 19
(c) GFR 18 (d) GFR 17
92. A copy of Annual Assessment Report on status of all outstanding loans, including timely and
accurate payment of principal and interest due, shall be submitted by the Financial Advisor of the
Administrative Ministry concerned by 30th June of each financial year to
(a) concerned Ministry or Department (b) C&AG
(d) Chief Controller of Accounts of concerned Ministry or Department

ANSWER
Q. Answer Rule/Remarks, if any Q. Answer Rule/Remarks, if any

No No
1 A 47 C
2 C 48 A
3 D 49 C
4 D 50 B
5 B 51 B
6 A 52 B
7 A 53 D
8 B 54 B
9 D 55 A
10 A 56 B
11 B 57 C
12 A 58 D
13 B 59 D
14 B 60 A
15 B 61 C
16 C 62 B
17 A 63 A
18 D 64 B
19 A 65 A
20 C 66 B 250 (V)
21 A 67 B Exception to 250 (v)
22 B 68 C 250 (vi)
23 C 69 A 250 (vi)
24 D 70 B 250 (vii) (b)
25 A 71 A 250 (viii)
26 C 72 B 250 (viii)
27 B 73 B 250 (3) (ii) (a)
28 B 74 C 250 (3) (iii)
29 B 75 B 251 (2) for day of payment & not
as repayment
30 A 76 B 253 (i)
31 D 77 D 253 (2) (ii)
32 A 78 A 254 & 255
33 C 79 B 256 (1)
34 A 80 A 256 (2) (ii)
35 B 81 D 256 (2) (vi)
36 C 82 A 257
37 B 83 B 258 (1)
38 D 84 D 258 (2)
39 C 85 D 258 ()3
40 B 86 A 259
41 A 87 C 260
42 C 88 A 262
43 B 89 C 262
44 C 90 C 262
45 D 91 A 263 (1)
46 B 92 A 263 (2)

CHAPTER 10: BUDGETING AND ACCOUNTING OF EXTERNALLY AIDED
PROJECTS
1. The projects or schemes of the Government of India to be implemented through external aid receipt
from multilateral or bilateral funding agencies shall be approved
(a) Parliament through budget proposal
(b) Parliament separately from budget proposal
(d) President of India
2. To finance specific project(s) by the funding agency(ies) under Government to Government

agreement(s) is called
(a) Singular Funding (b) Unilateral Funding
(c) Bilateral Funding (d) Multilateral Funding
3. Funding by Agencies such as the World Bank is called

(a) Singular Funding (b) Unilateral Funding
(c) Bilateral Funding (d) Multilateral Funding
4. GFT stands for

(a) General Funding Transaction (b) Government Funding Transaction
(c) Government Foreign Transaction (d) General Foreign Transaction
5. The nodal agency to execute the legal agreement for loans or grants from external funding
Agency(ies) is
(a) Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance
(b) Department ofExpenditure, Ministry of Finance
(c) Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance
(d) Department of Foreign Finance, Ministry of External Affair.

Grant agreements for Technical Assistance shall also be Ministry of Finance, Department of
Economic Affairs.
(a) True (b) False
7. Responsible for implementing the financial covenants laid down in the agreement(s) executed by
Department(s) of Government of India and the External Funding Agency(ies) is
(a) Director of Foreign Loan and Assistance
(b) Controller of Aid Accounts and Audit
(c) Controller of Financial Aid & Assistance
(d) Director of Foreign Aid & Assistance
8. Controller of Aid Accounts and Audit (CAAA) is located in Finance Ministry in the
(a) Department of Budget (b) Department of Foreign Finance
(c) Department of Expenditure (d) Department of Economic Affairs
9. The external aid shall flow from the Funding Agency in foreign currency or Indian Rupees and
shall be received by the
(a) Controller of Aid Accounts and Audit (b) Reserve Bank of India, Mumbai
(c) Ministry of External Affair (d) Reserve Bank of India, Nagpur
10. How many procedures are laid down for withdrawal of funds from the loan or grant account?
(a) Two (b) Three
(c) Four (d) Five

11. Under the Revolving Fund Scheme, the Funding Agency disburses as initial advance to
Government of India under the respective loan or credit or grant Agreement
(a) the estimated expenditure of two monthsfor the projects
(b) the estimated expenditure of three months for the projects
(c) the estimated expenditure of four months for the projects
(d) the estimated expenditure of six months for the projects
12. A loan wise proformaaccount for liquidation of advancereceived from Funding Agencyshall be
maintained by
(a) Fund Agency concerned (b) Controller of Aid Accounts and Audit
(c) RBI, Central Account Office, Nagpur (d) RBI, Mumbai
13. Under the Direct Payment Procedure the Funding Agencyshall directly pay from the loan or credit
or grant account.to the
(a) the contractor or supplier or consultant (b) RBI, Mumbai
(c) Controller of Aid Accounts and Audit (d) Project Implementing Agency
14. In the case of Central Projects,Centrally Sponsored Projects and PublicSector or Financial
Institutions, the fund to theProject Implementing Agencyshall be released by
(a) Ministry of Finance (b) Controller of Aid Accounts and Audit
(c) the concerned administrative Ministry or Department
(d) RBI, Mumbai

The respective Departments of the State Government shall provide in the Budgetsuch expenditure
proposed to be incurredunder Non-Plan Schemes during the financialyear by the Project
ImplementingAgencies.
(a) True (b) False
16. The disbursements under the “Reimbursement procedure shall be consolidated under each loan
or credit State-wise by the
(a) office of the Controller of Aid Accounts and Audit
(b) concerned Ministry/Department
(c) concerned Implementing Agency
(d) Reserve Bank of India, Mumbai
17. The disbursements under the “Reimbursement procedure shall be consolidated under each loan
or credit State-wise by the office of the Controller of Aid Accounts and Audit at
(a) Daily basis (b) Weekly basis
(c) Monthly basis (d) Periodical intervals
18. The consolidated detail under each loan or credit State-wise prepared by the office of the Controller
of Aid Accounts and Audit shall be sent for issuing sanction for actual release of disbursement for each
state to
(a) Plan Finance Division of Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance
(b) Plan Finance Division of Department of Economic Affair, Ministry of Finance
(c) Non-Plan Finance Division of Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance
(d) Non-Plan Finance Division of Department of Economic Affair, Ministry of Finance

(a) A copy of every sanction issued by Ministry of Finance shall be endorsed to the Finance
Department of the concerned State Government for information.
(b) Reserve Bank of India, Central Accounts Section, Nagpur, for effecting the release to the
concerned State Governments shall issue the Inter-Government (IG) Advice to the office of the
Chief Controller of Accounts, Ministry of Finance

(c) Under Direct Payment Procedure Office of Controller of Aid Accounts and Audit shall work
out the Rupee equivalent of such Direct Payment based on Reserve Bank of India buying rate
applicable for the value date on which the Direct Payment was made.
(d) Office of CAAA shall consolidate such disbursement in Rupees, and send a list of such
disbursement Statewise to Plan Finance Division of Department of Expenditure at periodical
intervals requesting them to release the amount to the State concerned notionally and recover the
same for credit to CAAA.
20. Under the Central or Central sponsored project financed from external aid, whether loan or grant,
the funds shall be released to Project Implementing Agency by the administrative Ministry or Department
with reference to expenditure incurred by the Project Implementing Agency within
(a) four weeks (b) four months
(c) six weeks (d) six months
21. When the Project Implementing Agency under Loan or Credit Agreement is a Public Sectorj or
Financial Institution or Autonomous Body and Government of India is the Borrower, funds required to be
passed on to the Project Implementing Agency for the expenditure incurred by the latter under the externally
aided project shall be provide in its budget by
(a) Ministry of Finance
(b) concerned project implementing agencies
. (c) Ministry of External Affairs
(d) the Administrative Ministry concerned

Where the loan is negotiated directly by a particular Public Sector Undertaking or Financial
Institution, the funds from the Funding Agency shall flow direct to the borrowing entity.
(a) True (b) False
23. Responsible for prompt repayment of principal on the due date as per the agreements is
(a) Projet implemneting agency (b) O/o the CAAA
(c) concerned Administrative Ministry/Department
(d) Funding Agency
24. The repayment of loans and the interest payment shall be classified as
(a) Repayment of loan as charged and interest payment as voted one
(b) Repayment of loan as voted and interest payment as charged one
(c) Both the repayment of loans and the interest payment as charged ones
(d) Both the repayment of loans and the interest payment as voted ones
25. Interest payment on external loan shall be accounted for in the major head
(a) 2049 (b) 2070
(c) 2075 (d) 8680
26. The exchange variation in respect of foreign loans that have been fully repaid shall be adjusted
written off to
(a) 2070 (b) 2075
(c) 8680 (d) 8675

In cases where materials, equipment and other commodities, without involving any cash inflow, are
received as aid from foreign countries, the Ministry or Department concerned in turn shall intimate the
details to the office of the Controller of Aid Accounts and Audit for making the budget provision in regard to
aid material or equipment.
(a) True (b) False
28. Major Head for Aid Materials and Equipments is

(a) 0606/2606 (b) 1606/3606
(c) 0070/2070 (d) 0075/2075
ANSWER

1 A 264 (1). Annually
2 C 264 (2) (i)
3 D 264 (2) (ii)
4 C 267 (i)
5 A 264 (3)
6 B 264 (3) Also be executed by beneficiary Min/Dep
7 B 264 (4)
8 D 264 (4)
9 B 265
10 A 267. Reimbursement & Direct Payment procedures
11 C 267 (1) (i)
12 D 267 (1) (ii)
13 A 267 (2)
14 C 267 (2)
15 B 268 (2). Under plan Expenditure not under non-plan expenditure
16 A 268 (2)
17 D 268 (2)
18 A 268 (2)
19 B 268 (2). IG will be issued by CAAA to Central Accounts Office, RBI Nagpur
20 C 269
21 D 270
22 A 270
23 B 271
24 C 271 & 272
25 A 272
26 C 273
27 A 274
28 B Note below 274

CHAPTER 11: GOVERNMENT GUARANTEES
1. The Article of the Constitution of India that provide power of the Union Government to give
guarantees is
(a) 292 (b) 293
(c) 289 (d) 290
2. Powers to grant Government of India Guarantee, including those on external borrowings, vests with
the
(a) Budget Division, Department of Economic Affairs
(b) Budget Division, Department of Expenditure
(c) Plan Division, Department of Economic Affairs
(d) Plan Division, Department of Expenditure
3. The Administrative Ministry/Department or the credit Divisions of Department of Economic Affairs

shall examine the proposal for guarantee in the same manner as a proposal for loan in consultation with
(a) CGA (b) the Financial Adviser
(c) Ministry of Finance (d) CAG
4. No guarantees shall be given without the approval of

(a) Budget Division, DEA (b) Credit Division, DEA
(c) Parliament (d) Finance Minister
5. With a view to enable the Ministry of Finance to examine cases of Government of guarantees and
extension thereto, all Ministries or Departments should furnish to that Ministry, data of certain operational
Parameters of the Public Sector Undertaking or Entity as given in Form
(a) GFR 24 (b) GFR 25
(c) GFR 26 (d) GFR 27
6. Where BIFR targets have been assigned or Cabinet directions issued to the Company, the actual
vis-à-vis targets should be indicated for the preceding
(a) two years (b) three years
(c) four years (d) five years

(a) In case the accounts of the Central Public Sector Undertaking or Entity have been audited
by the CAG, the effect of the comments of the CAG on the Central Public Sector Undertaking’s
profitability should be brought out in GFR 26.
(b) Guarantees shall normally be restricted to the repayment of principal and normal interest
component of the loan. Other risks shall not form par t of the guarantee
(c) Government guarantees will be extended to only central public sector companies/ agencies
and shall not be provided to the private sector.
(d) Government of India guarantee may be given in cases of grants. However, if the donor
insists on ensuring performance, the same may be listed as a negotiating condition for getting the
grant.

Guarantees may not be proposed in respect of Central Public Sector Enterprises whose strong
financial credentials and high credit rating would indicate inherent ability to directly raise the required
resources without the support of government guarantee.
(a) True (b) False
9. All risks other than principal amount and interest, including the exchange rate risk be
(a) covered by Government guarantee (b) borne by borrower
(c) borne by lender

(d) shared between the borrower and lender as per terms of the loan agreement.
10. The rates of fee on guarantees would be as notified by the

(a) Budget Division, Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance
(b) Budget Division, Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance
(c) Credit Division, Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance
(d) Credit Division, Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance

The fees on guarantee are to be levied in respect of fund based borrowings or credits and shall not
be levied on no-fund based borrowings or credits (viz. letters of credit, Bank guarantees etc.).
(a) True (b) False

(a) The guarantee fee should be levied soon after the guarantee is given and thereafter on
first April every year.
(b) The rate of guarantee fee is to be applied on the amount outstanding at the beginning of
the guarantee year.
(c) Where the guarantee fee is not paid on the due date, fee should be charged at double the
normal rates for the period of default.
(d) The Government may guarantee no more than 80% of the project loan, depending on the
conditions imposed by the lender.
13. Once the guarantee is approved by Ministry of Finance, the guarantees will be executed and
monitored by the
(a) Ministry of Finance (b) Administrative Ministries concerned
(c) Lender/Banker (d) Project Implementing Agency
14. Administrative Ministries concerned are required to report the status of guarantees to Ministry of
finance till they are invoked or are obliterated on
(a) Monthly basis (b) Quarterly basis
(c) Six monthly basis (d) Annual basis

(a) Guarantee proposals approved by the Budget Division shall have to be executed in the
same financial year.
(b) If the guarantee/loan agreement is not signed in the same financial year as that of the
approval of the guarantee proposal, the guarantee proposal shall have to be submitted again.
(c) The guarantee shall hold only for the specific purpose agreed to by the Budget Division.
(d) Guarantee given by Government of India shall be non-transferrable and would cease to
exist in case the ownership of the entity is transferred from Government of India, unless the
Guarantee is re-confirmed by the Parliament.
16. The Financial Advisers in Ministry/Department will perform the responsibility of maintenance of
records and reporting including for the Finance Accounts and the IGAS, through the office of
(a) Controller/Chief Controller of Accounts (b) Controller General of Accounts
(c) Principal Accounts Officer (d) Controller Aid Accounts & Audit
17. All Ministries or Departments shall ensure that all guarantees are reviewed every year. A copy of
the review report including on timely and correct payment of guarantee fees, shall be forwarded by the
finance Advisor to the Budget Division by
(a) 31st March every year for the previous financial year.
(b) 30th April every year for the previous financial year.
(c) 30th September every year for the previous financial year
(d) 31st December every year for the previous financial year

18. Register of guarantees is maintained in Form
(a) GFR 19 (b) GFR 22
(c) GFR 25 (d) GFR 35
.
19. Data as contained Register of Guarantees duly updated every year to be sent to the Budget Division
in the Ministry of Finance, Department of Economic Affairs by
(a) 10th of April of following year (b) 15th of April of following year
(c) th
20 of April of following year (b) 30th of April of following year

(a) In respect of guarantees issued by the Ministry of Finance for external loans, the respective
credit divisions, DEA shall conduct an annual review in consultation with the Financial
Adviser (DEA).
(b) For this purpose the Financial Adviser (DEA) shall ensure the maintenance of the required
registers, as well as ensure that the annual reviews are carried out by the concerned credit
divisions, and report forwarded to the Budget Division in Form GFR 25.
(c) In cases, where the guarantees on external loans are issued by the concerned
administrative Ministry, that Ministry would be responsible for conducting the review.
(d) For the purpose of record keeping, guarantees shall be classified into five categories.
21. Government is required to publish a disclosure statement on guarantees given by Government, at

the time of presenting the annual financial statement and demands for grants in terms of provision of
(a) Rule 6 of the FRBM Rules, 2004
(b) Section 6 of Government Securities Act
(c) Article 292 of the Constitution (d) All of the above
22. The disclosure statement on guarantees is to be compiled by the Administrative Ministries/

Departments and submitted to Controller General of Accounts for onward submission to
(a) Credit Division (b) Budget Division
(c) Annual Accounts Division (d) Finance Minister
23. A Guarantee Redemption Fund (GRF) for redemption of guarantees given to CPSEs, Financial
Institutions, etc., by the Central Government whenever such guarantees are invoked has been established
in the
(a) Consolidated Fund (b) Contingency Fund
(c) Public Account (d) Persona Deposit Account
24. The funding to the Guarantee Redemption Fund is to be done through budgetary appropriations,
as considered appropriate, under the head 'Transfer to Guarantee Redemption Fund' through the Demands
for Grants of the
(a) Department of Economic Affairs (b) Department of Expenditure
(c) Department of External Aid (d) Department of Revenue

(a) The Administrative Ministries/Departments should inform any case of impending/likely
invocation, well in advance, to the Budget Division, along with the proposed corrective measures.
(b) In the event of invocation of a guarantee, the obligation may be discharged by sanctioning
loan to the borrowing entity equal to the amount of guarantee outstanding with the approval of
Parliament.
(c) Any payment on this account will finally be charged to the Guarantee Redemption Fund
maintained in the Public Accounts.
(d) Indian Government Accounting Standard- 1(IGAS-1) relates to Government Guarantees.

ANSWER

1 A 275 (1)
2 A 275 (3)
3 B 277 (iii)
4 A 277 (iv)
5 C 277 (v)
6 B 277 (v)
7 D 277 (v) to (xi)
8 A 277 (xiv)
9 D 278 (iv)
10 A 279 (i)
11 B 279 (i). Levied for both and fund and non-fund borrowing.
12 A 279 (2). Before and not after guarantee is given.
13 B 280 (i)
14 D 280 (i)
15 D 280 (i) (e) to (g)
16 A 280 (ii)
17 B 281 (1)
18 C 281 (2)
19 A 281 (2) (iv)
20 D 281 (3) & 281 (4). Guarantee are of six kind.
21 A 282
22 B 282 (i)
23 C 283 (i)
24 A 283 (i)
25 B 283 (3) with the approval of budget division and not of Parliament

CHAPTER 12: MISCELLANEOUS SUBJECTS
1. All proposals for additions to establishment shall be submitted to sanctioning authority in

accordance with the instructions contained in
(a) GFR (b) R&P Rule
(c) GAR (d) Delegation of Financial Powers Rules
2. Continuation of an existing post based on functional justification beyond the specified duration will
be with explicit approval of
(a) Ministry of Finance (b) concerned Admin. Min/Deptt
(c) President (d) Parliament
3. All proposals for increase in emoluments for an existing post(s) shall be referred for approval to the
(a) Head of the Department (b) concerned Admin. Min/Deptt
(c) Ministry of Finance (d) Principal Accounts Officer
4. The form in which a report of transfer of a Gazetted Government servant is made and signed both
by the relieved and relieving Government servants, shall be sent on the same day to the Head of the
Department or other Controlling Officers concerned
(a) GFR 18 (b) GFR 14
(c) GFR 20 (d) GFR 16
5. Every Government servant shall, at the time of the appointment, declare the date of birth by the
Christian era with confirmatory documentary. Pick the incorrect confirmatory documentary evidence for the
purpose
(a) Matriculation Certificate (b) Municipal Birth Certificate
(c) Certificate from the recognised school last attended
(d) Certificate from a Gazetted Officer
6. Service Books maintained in the establishment should be verified every year by the
(a) Head of Office (b) Head of Department
(c) Accounts Officer (d) Person concerned
(a) The service book of a government servant shall be maintained in duplicate. First copy shall
be retained and maintained by the Head of the Office and the second copy should be given to the
government servant for safe custody
(b) the second copy should be given to the existing government servant- within six months of
the date on which these rules become effective, if not already given and to new appointees within
one month of the date of appointment.
(c) In April each year the Government servant shall handover his copy of the Service Book to
his office for up-date.
(d) The office shall update and return it to the Government Servant within thirty days of its
receipt.
8. In case the Government servants’ copy of Service Book is lost by the government servant, it shall
be replaced on payment of a sum of
(a) Rs 100/-. (b) Rs 1000/-
(c) Rs 200/- (d) Rs. 500/-
9. The travelling allowance claim shall be submitted from date it becomes due within
(c) 90 days (d) one year

Retired Government servants become eligible for reimbursement of Travelling expenses in respect
of travel(s) for appearing in court of law for defending himself only when the judgement relating to his
honorable acquittal is pronounced by the court. In such cases the date of pronouncements of the judgement
shall be the reference point for submission and reimbursement of his T.A claim.
(a) True (b) False
11. The time limit for submission of the claims shall be

(a) In case advance drawn within 30 days and in case advance not drawn within 60 days of
the due date.
(b) In case advance drawn within 30 days and in case advance not drawn within 90 days of
the due date.
(c) In case advance drawn within 60 days and in case advance not drawn within 90 days of
the due date.
(d) In case advance drawn within 6 months and in case advance not drawn within one year
of the due date.
12. A claim for overtime allowance shall fall due for payment on first day of the month following the
month to which the overtime allowance relates. The claim shall stand forfeited if not submitted within
(a) 30 days of the due date. (b) 60 days of the due date.
(a) 90 days of the due date. (a) 120 days of the due date.
13. Withholding an ordinary increment under FR 24 before the date on which it falls due for payment,
the period of one year should be counted from the date on which
(a) it falls due
(b) the date on which the Increment Certificate is signed by the competent authority.
(c) the date on which next Financial year ends
(d) the date on which next calendar year ends.
14. Any arrear claim of a Government servant shall be settled by the DDO or Accounts Officer, as the
case may be, after usual checks. which is preferred from its becoming due within
(a) 6 months (b) 9 months
(c) 1 year (d) 2 years
15. A claim of a government servant which has been allowed to remain in abeyance for a period
exceeding two years, should be investigated by the
(a) Head of the Office (b) DDO
(c) Head of the Department (d) PAO concerned
16. A time barred claim on account of causes and circumstance beyond the control of Government
Servant shall be paid with the express sanction of the Government issued with the previous consent of
(a) the Internal Finance Wing of the Ministry or Department concerned.
(b) the Principal Accounts Officer concerned.
(c) the Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance
(d) the Chief Controller of Accounts concerned.
17. A sanction to an advance or a non-refundable part withdrawal from Provident Fund shall, unless it
is specifically renewed, lapse on the expiry of a period of
(a) 2 months. (b) 3 months
(c) 6 months (d) 12 months
18. Remissions of revenue allowed before collection are to be treated as

(a) reduction of demands (b) refunds of revenue
(c) reduction of expenditure . (d) misc. Expenditure
19. The public debt raised by government by issue of securities shall be managed by the
(a) Finance Ministry (b) Reserve Bank
(c) State Bank of India (d) concerned Admin Min/Deptt

20. Record of Postal Life Insurance policy (PLI) holders shall be maintained by all drawing officers in
Form
(a) GFR 16 (b) GFR 10
(c) GFR 22 (d) GFR 20

(a) Every Government servant, who actually handles cash or stores shall be required to furnish
security, for such amount and in such form as Central Government or an Administrator may
prescribe
(b) The amount of security to be obtained from a Government servant shall be determined on
the basis of actual cash handled which shall include account payee cheques and drafts.
(c) Security should be furnished in the form of a Fidelity Bond in GFR 17, the security bond
should be executed in Form GFR 14.
(d) A Government servant who is officiating against the post of another cash or store handling
Government servant shall be required to furnish the full amount of the security prescribed for the
post.
22. Security need not be furnished by the Government Servants in following cases except
(a) Government servants who are entrusted with the custody of stores, which in the opinion of
the competent authority are not considerable.
(b) Government servants, who are entrusted with the custody of office furniture, stationery and
other articles required for office management, if the Head of Office is satisfied about the safeguards
against loss through pilferage.
(c) Librarian, Library Staff and Drivers of Government vehicles.
(d) Cashier appointed in a Public Works Division.
23. A security deposit taken from Government servant shall be retained from the date he vacates his
post for at least
(a) six months (b) 3 months
(c) 2 years (d) 1 year
(a) Transfer of land from a Union Territory to a Central Government Department or vice versa
shall be on 'no profit no loss' basis.
(b) Transfer of land from one Department of the Government to another shall be on 'no profit
no loss' basis.
(c) Transfer of buildings and superstructures shall be at the present day cost minus
depreciation of these structures
(d) The allotment of land to, and recovery of cost of buildings from the Public Sector
Undertakings shall be at 'Historical Cost value'
25. Valuation for transfer of buildings and superstructures shall be obtained from the
(a) Ministry of Finance (b) Central Public Works Department
(c) Accounts Officer concerned (d) concerned Admin Min/Deptt.
26. The accounts of local bodies, other non-Government bodies, or institutions will be audited by the
Indian Audit and Accounts Department under such terms and conditions as may be agreed upon between
the Government and the Comptroller and Auditor General of India subject to the provisions of any law made
under Article
(a) 149 of the Constitution (b) 150 of the Constitution
(c) 151 of the Constitution (d) 152 of the Constitution
27. Audit fees on the basis of daily rates prescribed by

(a) the CAG in consultation with the Audited entities
(b) the CAG in consultation with the Government

(c) the Audited entities in consultation with CAG
(d) the Government in consultation with the CAG
28. Financial transactions between Government and local bodies shall be rounded off to the nearest
(a) Rupee (b) Ten
(c) Hundred (d) Thousand
29. The adjustment bill for contingent advance, along with balance if any, shall be submitted by the
government servant from the dated of drawal of advance within
(c) 30 days (d) 60 days
30. The Ministry or Department may sanction the grant of an advance to a Government Pleader in
connection with law suits, to which Government is a party, up to the maximum limit of
(a) Rs. 5000 (b) Rs. 10000
(c) Rs. 15000 (d) Rs. 25000
ANSWER

1 D 284 (1). Rule 11 of DFPR 1978
2 A 284 (3)
3 C 284 (4)
4 D 286 (1)
5 D 287
6 A 288 (1)
7 C 288 (2) & (3). In January and not in April
8 D 288 (4)
9 B 290
10 A 291
11 A 292
12 B 293
13 A 294
14 D 295 (1)
15 C 295 (3)
16 A 296 (2)
17 B 299
18 A 301
19 B 303
20 D 305
21 B 306 (1) to (4). Account Payee & DD shall be excluded.
22 D 307
23 A 308
24 D 310 (1) to (4). At market rate and not on historical value
25 B 310 (3)
26 A 316
27 D 317
28 A 319
29 B 323 (2)
30 D 324

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CHAPTER 1: INTRODUCTION

1. General Financial Rules, 2017 came into force w.e.f

3. Consolidated Fund” means the Consolidated Fund of India referred to in Article

5. “Government” referred to in GFR means the

6. Government Account” means the account relating to

8. “Local Fund” means a local fund as defined in

9. Primary unit of appropriation has been referred to in

Prepared by Deepak Kumar Rahi, AAO/Local Audit Department, Patna

11. Re-appropriation” means the transfer of funds from

12. State whether true or false

16. State whether true or false

18. The systems and procedures established by General Financial Rules

Prepared by Deepak Kumar Rahi, AAO/Local Audit Department, Patna

Prepared by Deepak Kumar Rahi, AAO/Local Audit Department, Patna

Prepared by Deepak Kumar Rahi, AAO/Local Audit Department, Patna

11. The above mentioned statement shall be submitted

Prepared by Deepak Kumar Rahi, AAO/Local Audit Department, Patna

19. Pick the correct one

(a) i, ii and iii (b) ii, iii and iv

20. State whether true or false

22. Pick the incorrect one

Prepared by Deepak Kumar Rahi, AAO/Local Audit Department, Patna

27. Report of loss) shall be made at

29. State whether true or false

Prepared by Deepak Kumar Rahi, AAO/Local Audit Department, Patna

Q. Answer Rule Q. Answer Rule

Prepared by Deepak Kumar Rahi, AAO/Local Audit Department, Patna

1. Financial Year covers the period

5. The budget shall contain the following: -

6. State whether true or false

10. The final unit of appropriation is

Prepared by Deepak Kumar Rahi, AAO/Local Audit Department, Patna

12. The Demand for Grants shall be presented to Parliament at

13. Pick the incorrect one

15. DRSC stands for

18. MTEF Statement stand for

20. Vote on Account’ has been referred to in

Prepared by Deepak Kumar Rahi, AAO/Local Audit Department, Patna

(a) True (b) False

23. State whether true or false

29. Pick the incorrect one

Prepared by Deepak Kumar Rahi, AAO/Local Audit Department, Patna

34. The Controlling Officer maintains a Liability Register in Form

37. State whether true or false

38. Re-appropriation of Funds has been referred to in

Prepared by Deepak Kumar Rahi, AAO/Local Audit Department, Patna

42. Supplementary Grant has been mentioned in Article

44. Contingency Fund of India has been set up under Article

Prepared by Deepak Kumar Rahi, AAO/Local Audit Department, Patna

Q. Answer Rule Q. Answer Rule

Prepared by Deepak Kumar Rahi, AAO/Local Audit Department, Patna

1. Accounts of the Union Government shall be prepared by

2. Accounts of the Union Government shall be certified by

8. Government accounts shall be kept in

9. Pick the incorrect one

Prepared by Deepak Kumar Rahi, AAO/Local Audit Department, Patna

13. Classification of Government Accounts consists of

14. The six tiers of Government Accounts are represented by a unique

15. Pick the incorrect one

17. State whether true or false

19. Pick the correct ones

Prepared by Deepak Kumar Rahi, AAO/Local Audit Department, Patna

20. DBT should include