DIAGNOSTIC EXAM Total points 134/200

ONLINE INTERACTIVE IN-HOUSE REVIEW

Email *

kspanaginip@gmail.com

NAME: (LAST NAME, FIRST NAME, M.I.) *

Emphasis, Keith Stephen P.

SCHOOL *

Southwestern University Phinma

SECTION *

BSN 3-A4

SITUATION: The Expanded Program on Immunization was started in July 1976

by the virtue of P.D. 996, a compulsory immunization of children below 8 years
old.
1. The following are elements of EPI: 1. Target setting 2. Cold chain 3. 1/1
IEC4. Assessment and evaluation of program’s performances 5.
Surveillance 6. Research *

A. 1,2,3,5

B. 2,4,5,7

C. 2,4,5

D. 1,2,3,4,5,6

2. What important instruct-tion will be given to Mrs. Martin after her baby 0/1
receives OPV? *

A. Withholding feeding for 30 mins.

B. Feed the patient right away

C. Give anti pyretic and TSB

D. Give fruit juice or glucose water

3. According to the 2011 standards of the Department of Health, which of 0/1

the following is the formula for the computation of the eligible infant
population for target setting: *

A. Eligible population = total population x 0.108

B. Eligible population = total population x 0.03

C. Eligible population x 0.027

D. Eligible population x 0.035

4. Choose the formula to compute the eligible population of pregnant 0/1
women in a community? *

A. Eligible population = total population x 0.02

B. Eligible population = total population x 0.03

C. Eligible population = total population x 0.027

D. Eligible population = total population x 0.035

5. Likewise, if you are to compute for the estimated number of 12-59 1/1
month-old children, which formula is appropriate? *

A. Total population x 0.108

B. Total population x 0.03

C. Total population x 0.027

D. Total population x 0.035

6. How many doses of DPT are given to considered full immunization? * 1/1

A. 1 dose

B. 2 doses

C. 3 doses

D. 4 doses
7. DPT vaccine yield how many doses per vial? * 0/1

A. 4 doses

B. 15 doses

C. 10 doses

D. 20 doses

8. Which of the following vaccine reconstituted with special diluents 1/1

before use? *

A. BCG and Measles

B. Tetanus toxoid

C. OPV and tetanus toxoid

D. OPV and DPT

9. Which of the following is usually not given parenterally? * 1/1

A. DPT

B. BCG

C. Polio

D. Hepatitis

E. none of the above

10. During one of the immunization sessions one child vomited after he 0/1
was given an OPV. What would you do? *

A. Give one drop in addition

B. Give the child another two drops

C. Give a booster dose after 4 weeks

D. Refer the child to the doctor

11. After giving DPT to Baby James, which of the following statements of 1/1
Mrs. Kris indicates that she understood the instruction given by the
nurse? *

A. I will give my baby paracetamol and perform TSB when he catches a fever

B. The vaccine taste awful, he should have some fruit juices

C. I will withhold feeding for 30 minutes

D. He must be thirsty so I will give him glucose water

12. Age group which EPI is compulsory as per PD #996 of 1976 stated? * 1/1

A. School entrants

B. Children of all ages

C. Infants 0-12 months

D. Below 8 yrs. Old

13. Which vaccine is a requirement for school entrants regardless of the 0/1
presence of BCG scar? *

A. DPT

B. Hep B

C. BCG

D. Anti-tetanus

14. Which of the following is not an element of EPI? * 1/1

A. Cold chain logistics management

B. Surveillance studies

C. Epidemiological Situation

D. None of the above

15. Which of the following is not included as main principle of the EPI 0/1
program? *

A. Based on the epidemiological situation

B. Mass approached is utilized

C. Immunization is a basic health service given to RHU

D. Surveillance studies

E. None of the above

16. BCG is a: * 1/1

A. Bactrial toxin

B. Plasma derivatives

C. killed bacteria

D. live attenuated bacilli

17. Measles vaccine is a: * 1/1

A. Bacterial toxin

B. Plasma derivatives

C. killed bacteria

D. live attenuated virus

18. Diptheria vaccine is a: * 1/1

A. Toxoids

B. Plasma derivatives

C. killed bacteria

D. live attenuated bacilli

19. Hepa B vaccine is a: * 0/1

A. Bacterial toxin

B. Plasma derivatives

C. killed bacteria

D. live attenuated bacilli

20. An immunization believed to reduce diarrhea is: 0/1

A. BCG

B. DPT

C. OPV

D. Measles

21. What type of immunoglobulin is passed to the baby during 1/1

breastfeeding? *

A. IgG

B. IgM

C. IgA

D. IgE
22. Mrs. Martin discovered that she is pregnant, then she consulted at 1/1
the RHU. She verbalized that she already received her third dose of
tetanus toxoid last January. So her second booster will be on: *

A. July of the same year

B. August of the same year

C. November of the same year

D. January next year

23. Lifelong immunity for tetanus is achieved by woman after: * 1/1

A. 3 pregnancies

B. 2 doses of TT

C. 3 booster doses of TT

D. 4 doses of TT

24. You see to it that Measles vaccine is administered as follows: * 1/1

A. 0.1 ml IM

B. 0.5 ml IM

C. 0.1 ml SQ `

D. 0.5 ml SQ
25. How long can the vaccine in the Provincial Health Office be stored? * 1/1

A. 1 month

B. 3 months

C. 5 months

D. 6 months

26. The grandmother of a 3 month old baby asked you to give 1/1
immunization on the other day because they are going on a vacation.
What will you do? *

A. Give immunization anyway and tell her it is not possible to delay

B. Tell her to bring the card to the center of the place where they are going to

C. Instruct the grandmother to return the next day for immunization

D. Tell her that it is alright if immunization is given vacation

27. When assessing a child with rheumatic fever, the nurse asks which 1/1
important question to the parent: *

A. Were you infected with German measles?

B. Do you have history of heart disease in the family?

C. Did the child encounter any accidents recently?

D. Did your child develop sore throat recently?

E. NOTA
 28. The most significant cause of blindness in the Philippines is: * 1/1

A. Glaucoma

B. Congenital rubella

C. Vit. A deficiency

D. Cataract

29. Which of the following will be needed to confirm malaria? * 1/1

A. urine examination

B. stool examination

C. Tourniquet test

D. Blood smear

30. What TB drug is not given to young children under age 6 due to 1/1
reports of visual disturbances: *

A. INH

B. Rifampicin

C. Ethambutol

D. PZA

E. Streptomycin

Situation: Nursing care after delivery includes mothers and baby’s health
status. Prevention of bleeding after delivery is a vital function of the nurse.
31. Second post-partum visit must be done by PHN: * 1/1

A. Within 48 hours after delivery

B. After 2 weeks

C. Within 24 hours after delivery

D. after one week

32. The most sensitive indicator on the health status of the community: * 1/1

A. IMR

B. MMR

C. CBR

D. PREVALENCE RATE

33. In case of complication to improper use of technology to whom 1/1

should cases be referred? *

A. Rural Health Midwife

B. Rural Health Nurse

C. Rural Health Physician

D. City Health Officer

34. Diaphragm must be left in place after intercourse for how many 1/1
hours? *

A. 6 to 8 hours

B. 1 to hours

C. 12 to 24 hours

D. 4 to 6 hours

35. How many Vit. A should be given to 6-11 month-old infants who are 1/1
experiencing Vit. A deficiency? *

A. 100,000 IU

B. 200,000 IU

C. 300,000 IU

D. 400,000 IU

36. Upon receiving Vit. A today, when is the next visit of the infant who is 1/1
experiencing Vit. A deficiency to receive his next dose of Vit. A? *

A. after 2 weeks

B. after 1 month

C. after 6 months

D. tomorrow
37. Upon receiving Vit. A supplement today, when is the next visit of the 0/1
infant to receive his next dose of Vit. A? *

A. After 2 weeks

B. After 1 month

C. After 6 months

D. Tomorrow

38. Method and control of tetanus among infants is scheduled 1/1

immunization of tetanus toxoid to? *

A. Members of the family

B. Pregnant woman

C. Newborn babies

D. Parents of the baby

39. Which age group is required to be immunized as stated in PD 996? * 1/1

A. Children with special needs

B. Children below 8 years old

C. Children 0-59 months old

D. Children 0-12 months old

40. The most critical period in the growth and development of children 1/1
where the greatest incidence of malnutrition most commonly occurs and
therefore needs closer supervision? *

A. 0-6 months old

B. 6 months to 2 years old

C. 2 to 6 years old

D. 0-12 months old

41. The 3rd leopoldsmaneuver is done to determine? * 1/1

A. Fetal back

B. Fetal engagement

C. Fetal presentation

D. Fetal attitude or flexion

42. Yellow code on the nutrition arm band indicates? * 1/1

A. Well-nourished baby

B. Severely malnourished baby

C. Moderately malnourished baby

D. Stunted and wasted baby

 43. Protein content of breast milk is also known as? * 0/1

A. Casein

B. Albumin

C. Lactalbumin

D. Phenylalanine

44. Which of the following statements regarding breastfeeding is NOT 1/1

correct? *

A. Breastfeeding contributes to the spacing of births

B. Milk supply decreases if the baby sucks vigorously

C. It is completely safe to continue breastfeeding even during menstrual period

D. Sexual intercourse does not affect mother's secretion

SITUATION:Djoana an 18 year old student visited the health center due to

amenorrhea for 3 months:

45. The following are the basic prenatal delivery service at the Barangay 1/1
health station except: *

A. History taking

B. Oral and Dental Examination

C. Chloroquine Prophylaxis for malaria

D. Iron supplementation

E. None of the above

46. The community health nurse has a wide responsibility in the 0/1
community. When rendering prenatal care the community health nurse
uses this as a guide in the identification of risks factors and danger signs
in doing appropriate measures. This is known as: *

A. Target client list for prenatal

B. Maternal Treatment record

C. HBMR

D. Prenatal record

47. Folic acid supplementation be started on: * 1/1

A. 1st trimester

B. 2nd trimester

C. 3rd trimester

D. Anytime during pregnancy

48. Rina is performing 4thLeopoldsmaneuver to a pregnant women 1/1

because she wants to determine: *

A. fetal engagement

B. Fetal presentation

C. Fetal attitude

D. Fetal back
49. Mrs. Agatha, one of your prenatal patient receiving iron, complaint of 1/1
constipation. Your health teaching would include: *

A. Telling her not to worry for her bowel movement will return to normal

B. Advising her to take fiber food and increasing fluid intake

C. Telling her to take dulcolax once a day

D. Stop taking iron, anyway it’s only a food supplement

50. To assess the mother’s pregnancy status, the nurse performs an 1/1
initial vaginal examination. She noted a dark blue discoloration in the
vaginal mucous membrane. The sign is: *

A. Hegar’s sign

B. Braxton Hicks sign

C. Goodels sign

D. Chadwicks sign

51. The nurse noted that there is softening of the cervix and this is also 1/1
known as: *

A. Hegar’s sign

B. Chadwicks sign

C. Braxton Hicks sign

D. Goodels sign
52. The nurse also noted that there is softening of the uterus and this is 1/1
also known as: *

A. Hegar’s sign

B. Chadwicks sign

C. Braxton Hicks sign

D. Goodels sign

53. An 8 month old pregnant mother should visit the health center for 1/1
prenatal check up every: *

A. Once a week

B. Twice a month

C. Once a month

D. Every 2 months

54. Ana visited the health center for first prenatal visit her last menstrual 1/1
period is April 20. What will be the EDC? *

A. July 27

B. June 27

C. January 27

D. February 27
55. What exercise of child bearing is done by alternately tightening and 1/1
relaxing the muscle around her urethra, vagina, rectum and entire
perineum? *

A. Pelvic rocking exercise

B. Squatting exercise

C. Kegels exercise

D. Tailor sitting exercise

56. Annie informs the nurse that she is 10 days delayed. Her LMP began 1/1
on January 10, 2015. According to Naegels Rule, Annies EDC is: *

A. Sept 17, 2015

B. August 17, 2015

C. October 17, 2015

D. October 2015

57. Reproductive age group: * 1/1

A. 15-59

B. 15-49

C. 16-45

D. 18-35
58. Productive age group: * 1/1

A. 15-59

B. 15-49

C. 16-45

D. 18-35

59. Cheska is a 6 month pregnant woman. Nurse Joy noted that 1/1
Cheska’sfundic height ranges from: *

A. 21-24 cms

B. 25-28 cms

C. 28-30 cms

D. 30-34 cms

60. Pauline is a postpartum mother. She is a housewife who finished 1/1

college education. Her other children are 4, 3 and 2 years old. Her
records revealed that she had been under the care of a nurse during her
past pregnancies and deliveries. In providing care to this mother, you
should: *

A. Provide care for the newborn if Pauline’s manner is wrong

B. Determine first the specific needs of Pauline’s before providing assistance

C. Teach Pauline personal hygiene and newborn care because she is a postpartum
patient

D. Do things for Pauline to have a good rapport with her and her family
61. In the community after home delivery, who is to file the birth 1/1
certificate in the Local Registry? *

A. Nurse

B. Midwife

C. TBA

D. Physician

E. Social Worker

62. The presidential decree that requires all health workers to register all 1/1
births within 30 days? *

A. PD 825

B. PD 615

C. PD 651

D. PD 561

63. Which of the following situations allows the trained hilot to attend 0/1
deliveries at home? *

A. When the time of delivery is immediate

B. When the licensed health personnel is not available

C. When the mother is at risk

D. When the baby is in cephalic presentation

64. Which among the following criteria allows the nurse to perform home 1/1
deliveries? *

A. Absence of premature rupture of membranes

B. Hypertensive history

C. Previous caesarian section

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

65. Which of the following conditions should be closely watched out for 0/1
in mothers immediately after delivery? *

A. Congenital defects

B. Contracted and hard uterus

C. Presence of bleeding

D. Vital signs of the mother

66. Nursing care after delivery also includes the baby’s status and record. 1/1
Who among the health care providers below is responsible for the
registration of the baby? *

A. Hilot

B. Nurse

C. TBA

D. Birth attendant
67. After delivery, the first post-partum visit must be done by PHN: * 1/1

A. Within 72 hours after delivery

B. After 2 weeks

C. Within 24 hours after delivery

D. After 1 week

68. For increased non-foul smelling vaginal discharge a home remedy 0/1
that you can advise to a pregnant mother: *

A. Wash genital area with mild soap and water or 1 tbs. Del Monte vinegar mixed
with ½ “tabo” cold water

B. Mix hydrogen ½ tbsp. betadine solution with one tabo water and use it for flushing
after every voiding

C. Wash perineal area with guava leaves decoction

D. Wash genital area with mild soap and water or one tbs. Del Monte vinegar + ½
“tabo” lukewarm water

E. All of the above

69. Which of the following measures the risk of dying from causes 0/1
related to pregnancy, childbirth and puerperium: *

A. Maternal mortality

B. Maternal morbidity

C. Fetal death rate

D. Infant mortality rate

70. Immediate care of the eyes of the newborn is installation of which 0/1
drug? *

A. Silver Nitrate 1% one drop each eye

B. Amoxicillin

C. Tetracycline

D. Silver Nitrate 1% two drops each eye

71. As a preschooler, if a child sees you pour his liquid medicine from a 0/1
tall, thin glass into a short, wide one, he will probably reason that: *

A. The amount of medicine is less (the glass is not as full)

B. The amount of medicine did not change, only the appearance

C. Pouring medicine hurts it in some way because it changes

D.The glass changed shape to accommodate the medicine

72. A mother tells you her 6 year old has been biting his fingernails since 1/1
he began first grade. After analyzing the cause of this as increased
stress, the advice you would give his mother regarding this problem
would be to: *

A. Encourage the child to drink more milk for stronger nails

B. Distract the child by teaching him a new skill, such as wrestling

C. Allow some time everyday for the for the child to talk about new experiences

D. Allow the child to choose a reward for not biting his nails

Option 5
73. Following the principle of learning, you can anticipate that the 1/1
children will best learn a skill such as bandaging if: *

A. They are allowed to practice it

B. They have it demonstrated to them by a teacher

C. They have shown a photo of someone important doing it

D. They are criticized for not learning it well

74. Which of the following (after the family) is the most likely to have the 1/1
greatest influence on providing continuity between generations? *

A. Race

B. Social class

C. Government

D. Schools

75. What is the process involved when the child cannot learns to control 0/1
his knees until his buttocks are strong enough *

A. Proximodistal

B. Cephalocaudal

C. Simple to complex

D. Interdependent
76. You care for a 7 year old. One reason that this is often called the 0/1
“eraser” year is that the children *

A. Want to perform well

B. Learn to write during this year

C. Tend to erase lie excessively

D. Believe in magical thinking

77. A 3 year old was adopted immediately after birth. The parents have 1/1
just asked the nurse how they should tell the child that she is adopted.
Which of the following guidelines concerning adoption should the nurse
use in planning her response? *

A. It is not necessary to tell the child who was adopted so young

B. Best time to tell child is between ages 7 and 10 years

C. Telling the child is an important aspect of their parental responsibilities

D. It is best to wait until child asks about it

78. Establishment of warmth after birth is made possible through the 1/1
following means EXCEPT: *

A. Drying the skin immediately with towel

B. Putting the baby on a pre-warmed crib with floor lamp

C. Giving warm sterile water to warm up his stomach

D. Letting the mother embrace the baby

79. The following are true about the fontanels EXCEPT: * 0/1

A. May be bulged to indicate increased intracranial pressure

B. May be depressed to indicate dehydration

C. May be closed especially if baby is post term

D. Sometimes pulsating especially when baby is crying

80. Predisposing factors to preterm delivery are the following EXCEPT: * 1/1

A. maternal infection

B. maternal hypertension

C. placental insufficiency

D. fetal deformities

81. Upon admission to the nursery, this infant would necessitate the 0/1
following EXCEPT: *

A. immediate suctioning and O2 administration as ordered

B. warmth by putting them inside the isolette

C. assessment for early jaundice

D.immediate feeding to increase weight

82. Vomiting is common on these babies. To prevent this, the nurse 0/1
should: *

A. feed the infant first before doing all procedures so that they are satisfied

B. do all nursing procedures before feeding the baby

C. position infant on the left side after feeding

D. turn the infant side to side to promote gastric emptying

83. The premature may be placed under phototherapy. Nursing 1/1

responsibility while baby is under the lights includes the following
EXCEPT: *

A. increasing fluid intake to prevent dehydration

B. regular turning of baby to sides

C. total undressing of all babies for maximum exposure

D. referring to the doctor if skin turns bronze in color

84. How might the nurse promote bonding while the baby is inside the 0/1
isolette? *

A. allow mother to hold infant every hour for 10 minutes

B. suggest that mother visits the NICU regularly

C. allow mother to touch the infant

D. make the mother sing lullaby to the baby

85. The following are true in Apgar Scoring except: * 1/1

A. done by the birth attendant at 1 minute then 5 minutes after baby’s birth

B. must have a perfect score of 10 at one minute to guarantee baby’s survival

C. determines prioritization of the baby’s care after birth

D. shows capability of the baby to adapt to extra-uterine life

86. Vitamin K is given to the newborn with understanding that: * 1/1

A. It is skipped if baby is premature because of possible overdose

B. It promotes synthesis of prothrombin to prevent bleeding

C. It is given with small needle on the baby’s buttocks

D. It may have to be repeated if there is still bleeding from the cord before discharge

87. In measuring the neonate, the nurse would refer if: * 1/1

A. she notices the head bigger than the chest

B. she notices the chest and abdomen to be of same size

C. she notices the length to be 47 cm on a 6 lbs baby

D. she notices the chest bigger than the abdomen

88. The neonates respiratory functioning hours after birth is abnormal if: 1/1
*

A. it is irregular with apnea lasting for 5 seconds

B. it is the abdomen and not much the chest that the nurse sees rising during
breathing

C. it is noisy with expiratory grunting

D. none of the above

89. Preventing heat loss by closing the windows is the rule known as? * 1/1

A. Evaporation

B. Convection

C. Radiation

D. Conduction

90. What stimulates the baby to cry after birth? * 1/1

A. The sudden change in thermal environment

B. The tactile stimulation done by the doctor

C. The pain felt when the cord was cut

D. The emotion due to joy upon delivery

91. Which of the following manifestation would alert the nurse that the 1/1
neonate could be experiencing acidosis caused by extreme
hypothermia? *

A. Baby is crying

B. Baby is sleeping very deeply

C. Baby is acrocyanotic

D. Baby is smiling

92. Newborns have the potential for infection. Which of the following is 1/1
the most accurate reason for this occurrence? *

A. They are exposed to many health care workers

B. Rooming-in with family visitation can cause infection

C. The newborn has an immature immune system

D. The infant receives antibodies from the mother in pregnancy, so infection is not a
problem

93. Daily umbilical cord care to prevent the potential for infection should 1/1
include which of the following? *

A. Bathe daily with warm water and pat dry

B. Apply oil to the cord

C. Apply lotion to the area just next to the cord

D. Keep the cord and area directly surrounding clean and dry
94. At 72 hours after birth, the umbilical stump finding is considered 0/1
normal? *

A. Slight swelling at the base of the stump

B. Slight amount of drainage from the stump

C. Redness at the base of the stump

D. Beginning to dry and atrophy

95. Several days after a baby girl’s birth she begins to vomit and lose 0/1
weight. Galactosemia is diagnosed. The nurse explains to the parents
that galactosemia is an inherited autosomal recessive disorder which is
the result of: *

A. An intolerance of wheat and rye

B. An inborn error of carbohydrate metabolism

C. The inability to metabolize an essential amino acid

D. The absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells in the colon

96. To provide appropriate instructions for parents caring for an infant 1/1
with galactosemia, the nurse should include teaching them to: *

A. Eliminate milk form the diet

B. Avoid soy bean based formulas

C. Substitute cheese for meat in the diet

D. Keep penicillin on hand for respiratory infections

97. The nurse knows that the ideal milk to give for a child with 1/1
phenylketonuria is which of the following? *

A. Soya milk

B. Iron fortified milk

C. Lonalac

D. Lofenalac

98. The nurse is aware that another diagnostic test is needed to further 0/1
confirm phenyketonuria. The nurse is correct in choosing which of the
following tests that utilizes urine specimen? *

A. Schillings test

B. Phenistix

C. Guthrie test

D. Urinalysis

99. One child admitted in the pedia ward was diagnosed to have G6PD 1/1
deficiency. The nurse knows that all are the possible presenting
manifestations of this condition, except: *

A. Anemia

B. Weakness

C. Edema

D. Sleepiness
100.The nurse knows that the problem in congenital adrenal hyperplasia 1/1
is which of the following? *

A. Increase glucocorticoid

B. Increase mineralocorticoid

C. Increase androgen

D. Increase epinephrine

101. The nurse is aware that all of the following are the presenting 1/1
manifestations of a child with galactosemia, except: *

A. Vomiting

B. White skin

C. Diarrhea

D. Yellow skin

102. An infant who weighed 7.5 pounds at birth now weighs 15 pounds at 0/1
1 year. The nurse at the pediatric clinic recognizes that this infant: *

A. Has probably been neglected

B. Is the expected weight for this age

C. Is not receiving the proper nourishment

D. Should be 3 times the birth weight at one year

103. Popcorn and nuts should not be given to a toddler primarily because 1/1
they *

A. Will spoil the child’s appetite

B. Are easily aspirates

C. Have very little food value

D. Can cause tooth decay

104. What should the nurse do first when preparing to do a physical 1/1
assessment on a sleeping 8-month-old baby? *

A. Measure the occipital-frontal head circumference.

B. Auscultate the heart and lungs.

C. Check the eyes for the red reflex.

D. Wake the baby

105. The charge nurse is developing plans to reduce the stress of 1/1
hospitalized, chronically ill infant. Coping for these children will be
improved if: *

A. They are allowed 24-hour open visitation with their peers.

B. They are assigned a primary nurse.

C. They avoid making all decisions while hospitalized.

D. All tutoring is postponed until discharge

106. Mrs. Lucas, mother of 10 month-old Malou, feeds her baby only 1/1
formula and baby cereals. In preparing to teach her methods for
introducing solid foods, the nurse would include which of the following
statements: *

A. “Baby cereals should be discontinued at 1 year of age when the infant is eating
other sources of food.”

B. “Eggs are the best source of protein to introduce initially.”

C. “Introduce one food at a time, trying this food at least 1 week before adding
new food.”

D. “Once cereals are added to your child’s diet, her vitamins can be stopped.

107. In order to foster the development of sense of trust in infants, which 1/1
of the following measures is important? *

A. The mother should always be at home

B. The infant should be fed whenever she cries

C. The infant’s needs should be met consistently

D. All of the above

108. When a mother of a 3 month old infant comes to a well baby clinic, 1/1
the nurse should include in the accident prevention teaching plan the
need to: *

A. Remove all tiny objects from the floor

B. Cover electric outlets with safety plug

C. Keep crib rails up to the highest position

D. Remove poisonous substances from low areas

109. In anticipating guidance for a baby at five months, the nurse knows 1/1
that she will probably: *

A. Peak stranger anxiety

B. Stands with support

C. Roll over

D. Crawl

110. Which of the following abilities would the nurse not expect a 4- 1/1
month infant to perform? *

A. Sitting up without support

B. Responding to pleasure with smiles

C. Grasping a rattle when it is offered

D. Turning from either side to the back

111. Which of the following behaviors indicates normal biological 1/1

development? *

A. A 6 week old begins to roll over

B. A 6 months old sits without support

C. A 7 month old transfer a toy from hand to hand

D. A 7 month old stands unassisted

112. Part of the nurse’s anticipatory guidance includes discussion of 1/1
safety. It would be most important to teach the mother of 4-month old
boy the following *

A. Never leave the child alone in a room

B. Fence stairways at the top and bottom

C. Raise the crib safety rails to full height

D. Place all medication in a locked cabinet

113. When the infant becomes 9-month old, the following would be an 1/1
abnormal finding *

A. Posterior fontanel is closed

B. He rolls over

C. He sits only with support

D. He shows fear toward strangers

114. When ordering a regular diet for a young toddler the nurse should 1/1
choose foods such as: *

A. Spaghetti and bread

B. Corn dog and French fries

C. Hamburger with bun and grapes

D.Hot dog with bun and potato chips

115. The nurse plans to talk to a mother about toilet training a toddler, 1/1
knowing that the most important factor in the process of toilet training is
the: *

A. Child’s desire to be dry

B. Ability of the child to sit still

C. Child’s willingness to work at it

D. Approach and attitude of the parent

116. A mother tells the nurse that her 22 – month old child says “no” to 0/1
everything. When scolded, the toddler becomes angry and starts crying
loudly but then immediately wants to be held. What is the best
interpretation of this behavior? *

A. The toddler isn’t effectively coping with the stress

B. The toddler’s need for attention isn’t being met

C. This is a normal behavior for a 2 – year old child

D. This behavior suggests a need for counseling

117. A mother asks the nurse what to do when her toddler has temper 1/1
tantrums. The nurse suggests that the mother allow the child another
way of expressing anger such as by the use of: *

A. Ball and bat

B. Punching bag

C. Pounding toys

D. Roll of clay
118. When asked about spanking as a disciplinary technique, the nurse’s 1/1
best response would be: *

A. “It really depends on the child’s age.”

B. “It is strongly suggestive of negative role modeling.”

C. “This may be the only option when no other technique works.”

D. “Research studies have shown it to be an effective disciplinary technique.”

119. A 15 month old girl is brought to the clinic for her well baby 1/1
examination. During an interview with the mother, the nurse becomes
aware that teaching regarding toddler development is needed when the
mother states: *

A. “She’s always trying to get out of her car seat.”

B. “I just can’t seem to get her sit on a potty chair.”

C. “Lately, she’s been crying when I leave her with the sitter.”

D. “At home she doesn’t share toys. It is scattered everywhere.”

120. When observing an 18-month-old child, the nurse notes a rounded 0/1
belly, sway back, bowlegs, and slightly large head. The nursing conclusion
is that: *

A. The child appears to be a normal toddler.

B. The child is likely developmentally delayed.

C. The child may be malnourished, especially with respect to calcium.

D. The enlarged head is of great concern and requires a thorough neurological

exam.
121. During a clinic visit, a 4 year old girl suddenly screams, “Don’t sit at 1/1
Erin!” The parent whispers that Erin is an imaginary friend. The nurse’s
health teaching plans for this family should include: *

A. Special instructions for discipline

B. Referral for counseling regarding Erin

C. Investigation by child protective services

D. Increasing social interaction between their daughter and her peers

122. When talking with a 4 year old, the nurse observes that the child is 1/1
shy and stutters. The nurse is aware that stuttering in a 4 year old child
would be considered: *

A. A sign of delay in neural development

B. A common characteristics of a preschooler

C. The result of serious emotional problem

D. An indication of serious permanent impairment

123. A 4 year old child’s concept of death is based on the sense of 1/1
causality. The nurse plans care for a terminally ill child of this age based
on the stage of cognitive thought that is characterized by: *

A. Formal operations

B. Preoperational thought

C. Sensorimotor operations

D. Concrete operational thought

124. The nurse would assess a 4 year old child’s abdominal pain by: * 0/1

A. Asking the child to point to where it hurts

B. Asking the parents about the child’s bowel habits

C. Auscultating the abdomen for bowel sounds

D. Observing the position and behavior while the child is moving

125. The nurse plans care of a 4 year old hospitalized children based on 1/1
their developmental level. The nurse recognizes that children in this age
group are vulnerable to: *

A. Separation anxiety

B. Altered family roles

C. Intrusive procedures

D. Enforced dependency

126. Which of the following statements best describes a child’s cognitive 0/1
ability during Piaget’s concrete operations stage? *

A. Behavior changes from reflexive to purposeful

B. The child is unable to put himself or herself in the place of another

C. Thought processes become more systematic and logical

D. Abstract thinking and logical conclusions are made more frequently

127. When Marc, age 6, plays a game with his younger brother, he follows 1/1
the rules strictly. However, if Marc is losing, he may change the rules to
his advantage. What developmental concept explains this behavior? *

A. Marc lacks a sense of responsibility for his actions

B. Marc has a strong need to win, even if it harms his younger brother

C. Marc perceives the rules as flexible standards rather than fixed absolutes

D. Marc does not have the ability to develop a personal moral code

128. A school age child learns how to do range of motion exercises but 1/1
has been unable to perform the same from day to day. Which approach
would be best for you to take to encourage compliance? *

A. Reprimand her so that she sees how important the exercise are to you

B. Tell her parents so they can withhold privileges

C. Praise her for doing them when you see her doing them

D. Impress upon her the importance of the exercises to prevent complications

129. If a child complains about abdominal pain, what should the nurse’s 1/1
response? *

A. “tell me exactly where it hurts.”

B. “i know it hurts. try not to think about it.”

C. “i’ll tell your doctor so he could check on you.”

D. “you’re only imagining it.”

130. The nurse who is examining a child understands that visual acuity of 0/1
20/20 as measured by the Snellen chart is reached by age: *

A. 2 years.

B. 4 years.

C. 6 years.

D. 8 years.

131. The numerous physical changes that adolescents experience often 1/1
cause all of the following responses except: *

A. Increased awkwardness in movement

B. Exaggerated response to bodily sensations

C. Concerns about normality

D. Development of self-confidence and pride

132. The nurse can provide anticipatory guidance to parents with regard 1/1
to preventing sports injuries. Which of the following statements is
accurate? *

A. Age, not body size, should determine how teams are formed.

B. Scoring, ranking, and championships often are negative concepts for young
children

C. A child should not participate in contact sports until adolescence

D. Physical mismatches increase the risk of sports injuries

133. Which of the following factors does not have an effect on the onset 1/1
of menstruation? *

A. Climate

B. Urban versus rural life

C. Genetics

D. Nutrition

134. The period of formal operations is characterized by the following: * 1/1

A. Use of reasoning

B. Ability to deal with hypothetical situations that could occur in the future

C. Achievement of conservation

D. Thoughts influenced more by perceptions and experiences

135. Nutritional problems during adolescence are caused by all of the 0/1
following except: *

A. Increased concern about their developing body image

B. Greater variability in caloric needs about due to variability in activity patterns and
growth requirements

C. Peer group influence

D. A lower basal metabolism

136. According to Erikson, role confusion could occur in an adolescent for 1/1
the following reason: *

A. He fails to achieve emotional independence from his parents

B. He is physically impaired

C He is unable to formulate a satisfactory identification from his uncertainties

and confusions related to role, identifications, and aspirations

D. He is unable to complete a project he started

137. Which of the following statements best describes the nutritional 1/1
profile of the adolescent? *

A. slow but steady growth, poor eating habits

B. stunted growth, voracious appetite

C. rapid growth, likes to eat alone

D. rapid growth, desires companionship at meals

138. An 11-year-old adolescent asks you what the term puberty means. 0/1
You tell her: *

A. it is the age at which one becomes capable of sexual reproduction

B. it denotes completion of the development of secondary sex characteristics

C. it is the time span between 12 and 18 years

D. it is when boys and girls go out on dates

139. Which of the following health problems is most likely to be 1/1
encountered by an adolescent? *

A. neuromuscu!ar disorders

B. cardiovascular aberrations

C. emotional and behavioral problems

D. respiratory diseases

140. An adolescent may experience nocturnal emissions (wet dreams) 0/1

the cause of which is: *

A. adrenal hyperactivity

B. normal physiologic process

C. masturbation

D. sexual fantasies

141. Estrogen has which of the following effects? 1. Cause hypertrophy of 0/1
the myometrium 2. Increase the quantity and pH of the cervical mucus 3.
Inhibits secretion of luteinizing hormone *

a.1 and 2

b.2 and 3

c.2 only

d.all of the above

142. Progesterone has which of the following physiologic effects?1. 0/1
Increase the tortousity of the tubular endometrial glands2. Stimulates
secretion of the endometrial glands3. Increases body temperature after
ovulation4. Inhibits uterine motility during pregnancy *

a.1 and 3

b.2 and 4

c.All except 3

d.All

143. Anna had her menstruation last August 15 2012 lasting for 5 days. 1/1
She is to determine her ovulation, however she has not computed her
menstrual cycle yet. If her menstrual period occurred last July 13, her
cycle is _____ *

a. 30 days

b. 31 days

c. 33 days

d. 34 days
144. Implantation or attachment of the fertilized ovum to the 0/1
endometrium usually occurs about which day of the normal menstrual
cycle? *

a.15th day

b.22th day

c.30th day

d.1stday

145. The characteristics of INFERTILE mucus do NOT include: * 0/1

a. not stretchy

b. opaque color

c. sticky

d. positive Ferning

146. If conception fails to occur, menstruation takes place about two 0/1
weeks following ovulation, as a result of: *

a.Enhanced secretion of estrogen

b.Inhibition of FSH

c.Stimulation of LH

d.Decrease in both estrogen and progesterone

147. The principal source of progesterone during the first six to eight 1/1
weeks of pregnancy is the : *

a. Placenta

b.Embryonic chorion

c.Corpus luteum

d.anterior pituitary gland

148. Which of the following is not a characteristic of corpus luteum? * 1/1

a. It is the yellow body

b. It serves as the endocrine organ early in pregnancy

c. The life span is 14 days if no fertilization occurred

d. It secretes estrogen in large quantity during secretory phase.

149. The nurse recognizes that the placenta is formed from the: * 1/1

a. Decidua capsulares

b. Desidua basilis and deciduas vera

c. Chorionic villi and decidua basalis

d. Chorionic villi and deciduas vera

150. Which of the following are functions of the placenta? (1) Passing 1/1
nutrients from the mother’s blood to the fetus (2) excreting wastes from
fetal metabolism into the maternal blood (3) transmission of oxygen from
the maternal to the fetal circulation (4) inhibiting the passage of bacteria
and large molecules to the fetus (5) production of hormones required for
the sustenance of pregnancy *

a.1 and 2

b.3 and 4

c.All but 5

d.All

151. Which of the following statements by a primigavida client about 0/1

amniotic fluid sac indicates the need for further teaching? *

a. “the amniotic fluid helps to dilate the cervix once labor begins.”

b. “fetal nutrients are provided by the amniotic fluid.”

c. “an amniotic fluid provides a cushion against impact of the maternal abdomen.”

d. “the fetus is kept at a stable temperature by the amniotic fluid and sac.”
152. A woman who comes to her health care provider for her first 1/1
prenatal visit at 10 weeks of gestations says, “My husband says he
doesn’t know how we are going to pay for another baby; we already have
two children. I am not sure how this is going to work out.” What response
to pregnancy does this indicate? *

a. Attachment to the fetus begun to occur.

b. Normal ambivalence about the pregnancy is being expressed.

c. Partner relationship are changing in anticipation of the birth.

d. The couple has accepted the fetus as an individual separate from the mother.

153. Patty Ramos Saquin, last day of LMP was on December 15. Her 1/1
period lasts for 5 days. Her EDB will be on: *

a. September 16

b. September 22

c. September 15

d. September 18

154. A multiparous patient states, “I must be about four months 1/1

pregnant. I can’t remember exactly my last menstrual period, but I have
been feeling the baby kicking 3 t0 4 weeks now.” Upon auscultation the
nurse hears fetal heart sounds. The nurse states that this assessment
indicates *

A. “You are not quite for four months.”

B. “You are in your fifth month.”

C. “You may be six months along.”

D. “You are probably seven months pregnant.”

155. The nurse is answering questions during a woman’s prenatal visit at 0/1
week 24. What information would be most significant? *

a. At this time, the fetus is most sensitive to teratogens.

b. Fetal lung maturity is complete at this gestation.

c. Fetal weight gaining is rapid

d. Survival is possible if the fetus is born now.

156. At the health center, the nurse performs the leopold’s maneuver 1/1
routinely as part of the assessment procedure. The primary purpose is
to: *

A. Palpate the head of the fetus

B. Measure the length of the fetus

C. Determine the position of the fetus

D. Estimate the duration of labor

157. The woman who just completed her 13th week of her pregnancy 0/1
comes in for her monthly visit. She gained 12lbs since her initial visit two
months ago. The nurse expresses her concern regarding the weight gain.
The patient asks, “Well, how much weigh should i have gained by now?
The answer is: *

A. “About 10 lbs.”

B. “Not more than 10 lbs.”

C. “Not more than 2 to 3 lbs.”

D. “No weight Gain is expected this soon.”

158. A client at 29 weeks of gestation weight 154lb. She expresses 1/1
concern about this weight gain. Her pre pregnant weight of 125 lb. is
within her ideal body weight range. What would be the nurse’s best
response? *

a. “Let us talk about your diet. You are gaining too much weight.”

b. “Pregnancy is not the time to be concerned about your weight gain.”

c. “This weight gain is typical for this time in your pregnancy.”

d. “You are not gaining enough weight. Let us review your diet.”

159. A client who’s 16 weeks pregnant comes to the emergency room 1/1
complaining of vaginal bleeding. Which statement accurately describes
estrogen and progesterone levels during this client’s stage of
pregnancy? *

a. Both estrogen and progesterone levels are rising

b. The estrogen level is much higher than the progesterone level.

c. Both estrogen and progesterone levels are declining.

d. The estrogen level is much lower than the progesterone level.

160. If the client reports the following signs and symptoms, which 0/1
represents a probable sign of pregnancy? *

A.amenorrhea, quickening, urionary frequency

B.abdominal enlargement,Goodell’s sign and positive pregnancy test

C.nausea and vomiting, goodells, and chadwicks

D.fetal ballottement and skin changes

161. A woman is entering the 20th week of pregnancy. The nurse will 0/1
expect to assess which normal change *

a. blood pressure returning to pre-pregnancy level

b. fundus just above the symphysis pubis

c. complaints of frequent urination

d. pigment changes on skin

162. Changes in the cervix normally occur during pregnancy. Which of 0/1
the following changes contribute to the formation of the mucus plug? *

a. Increase vascularity of the cervical tissue

b. Development of edema in the cervical tissue

c. Softening of the cervical tissue

d. Hyperplasia of mucosal glands

163. A client asks the nurse, "what hormone increases throughout 1/1
pregnancy and may interfere with my insulin dosage?" the nurse answer *

a. Progesterone

b. Estrogen

c. Human chorionic gonadotropin

d. Human placental lactogen

164. The gravid client is to be screened for gestational diabetes wth a 1/1
50g oral glucose load. At what point in pregnancy should the nurse
advise the client to schedule this test? *

a. 12 weeks

b. 16 weeks

c. 24 weeks

d. 36 weeks

165. What statement by the client would indicate understanding of the 0/1
physiologic anemia of pregnancy? *

a. “All pregnant women are anemic, so I don’t have to worry about it.”

b. “Because I am anemic, I am more likely to have high blood pressure.”

c. “I am a little anemic because my body is producing extra fluid in my blood.”

d. “I did not get enough iron in my diet before I became pregnant, so I am anemic
now.”

166. A nurse is developing a plan of care for Mrs. Blue, pregnant client 0/1
who is complaining of intermittent episodes of constipation. The nurse
includes in the plan of care measures to prevent the episodes of
constipation and plans to tell the client to: *

a. Take a mild stool softener daily in the evening as ordered.

b. Drink 6 glasses of water daily.

c. Consume a low-roughage diet

d. Use fleet enema when the episodes occur

167. The nurse knows that the following changes in the respiratory 1/1
functioning during pregnancy is considered normal *

a. increased tidal volume

b. increased expiratory volume

c. decreased inspiratory capacity

d. decreased oxygen consumption

168. If Mrs.Medima comes to the clinic for check up on june 2, her EDD is 0/1
June 16, what do you expect during assessment? *

a. cervix closed, uneffaced, fundic height is just above the umbilicus

b. Fundic Ht. 2 fingers below the xyphoid process

c. Cervix open, fundic ht 2 fingers below the xiphoid process floating

d. fundic ht at least at the level of xiphoid process, engaged, shortness of breath

169.When teaching a class of pregnant woman about fetal development, 1/1

the nurse should include which of the following? *

a. the baby’s heart beat is audible by Doppler at 12 weeks of pregnancy

b. the sex of the baby is determined by week 8

c, the lanugo cover the entire body of the baby by week 36

d. you will first feel baby move by week 24

170. the nurse tells a pregnant client that fetal weight gain of pregnancy 0/1
is *

a. initiated in the second trimester

b. greater during the first trimester

c.most marked on the third trimester

d. equally distributed throughout pregnancy

171. A pregnant patient has her urine glucose tested. The glucose is 1/1
negative but acetone is positive. The nurse should ask the patient about:
*

A. Her exercise

B. Her diet

C. Bladder infection

D. Possibility of pica

172. The pregnant patient is prescribed a diet high in protein. The nurse 1/1
recommends which of the following combinations? *

A. Rice and vegetables

B. Peas and carrots

C. Fruits and vegetables

D. Beans and rice

173. Why is iron prescribed during pregnancy? * 1/1

A. To prevent drop in WBC

B. To prevent shock during delivery

C. To prevent drop in hematocrit

D. To provide the iron storage in the placenta

174. On her second visit, the woman 15th weeks pregnant is surprise that 1/1
her blood pressure is lower than it was before she become pregnant. The
nurse explains blood pressure drops slightly during the second trimester
because: *

A. The heart becomes enlarge

B. Peripheral vessels constrict.

C. Peripheral vessels dilate.

D. The body is in a resting state.

175. The pregnant patient asks, “How often can a healthy woman who is 0/1
eight months pregnant have sex?” The nurse answers: *

A. Once a week

B. Once a month

C. Not at all

D. As often as desired
176. A 40 year old client is 6 weeks pregnant and asks the nurse about 0/1
the advantages of chorionic villi sampling over amniocentesis. The best
response of the nurse is? *

a. “CVS can be done earlier in pregnancy than the amniocentesis.”

b. “CVS is more dangerous than amniocentesis”

c. “Amniocentesis can detect fetal lung maturity early in pregnancy unlike the CVS.”

d. CVS provides more information than amniocentesis

177. Mino Lestiya, who is 16 weeks pregnant, is scheduled for 0/1

amniocentesis to identify problems like? *

a. Fetal lung maturity, spina bifida abdominal wall defect

b. Choromosomal abnormalities, neural tube defects, polyhydramnios

c. Neural tube defects and Down syndrome

d. Gestational diabetes, LS ratio, spina bifida

178. Which of the following classifications applies to monozygotic twin 0/1

for whom the cleavage of the fertilized ovum occurs more than 13 days
after fertilization ? *

a. monochorionic monozygotic twin

b. diamnionic monochorionic twin

c. diamnionic dichorionic twin

d. conjoined twin
179. Which is a good candidate for administration of RHOGAM after 0/1
delivery? *

a. Mother is RH negative, fetus is RH positive, Indirect coombs test positive

b. Mother is RH negative, fetus is RH positive, Indirect coombs test negative

c. Mother is RH positive, fetus is RH negative, indirect coombs test negative

d. Mother is RH positive, fetus is RH positive, indirect coombs test negative

180. What is the danger sign that nurses need to watch out less than 20 0/1
weeks of pregnancy? *

a. bloody show

b. pseudoanemia

c. premature separation of placenta

d. edema on lower extremities

181. Mrs. Maelsia, a client in the first trimester of pregnancy arrives at a 1/1
health care clinic and reports that she has been experiencing vaginal
bleeding. A threatened abortion is suspected, and the nurse instructs her
regarding management of care. Which statement if made by her
indicates the need for further instruction? *

a. “I will maintain strict bedrest throughout the remainder of pregnancy.”

b. “I will avoid sexual intercourse until the bleeding has stopped, and for 2 weeks
following the last evidence of bleeding.”

c. “I will count the number of perineal pads used on a daily basis and note the
amount and color of the blood on the pad.”

d. “I will watch for evidence of the passage of tissue.”

182. Nurse Terri in a maternity unit is reviewing the records of the clients 0/1
on the unit. Which of the clients would the nurse identify as being the
most at risk for developing disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
*

a. A gravida IV who delivered 8 hours ago and has lost 500 ml of blood.

b. A gravida II who has just been diagnosed with dead fetus syndrome.

c. A primigravida with preeclampsia.

d. A primigravida who delivered a 10 lb baby 3 hours ago.

183. The nurse should instruct the patient on her third trimester of 1/1
pregnancy to notify her physician if she experiences? *

A. Tightening and pulling sensation over the pubic bone

B. Shortness of breath

C. hemorrhoids

D. visual disturbances

184. A pregnant client at 32 weeks’ gestation has mild preeclampsia. She 1/1
is discharged with home instructions to remain on bed rest and to report
to her doctor is she experiences which of the following symptoms?
Select all that applies. a. Headache b. Increased urine output c. Blurred
vision d. Difficulty sleeping e. Epigastric pain *

a. A, C, E

b. A, C

c. A, B, C, E

d. A, B, D
185. The nurse would immediately notify the physician for which of the 1/1
following laboratory test results if found in a multigravid client at 39
weeks gestation with suspected HELLP syndrome? *

a. Hyperfibrinogenemia

b. Decreased liver enzymes

c. increased liver enzymes

d. Hypernatremia

186. When caring for a client with pre-eclampsia, which is a priority? * 0/1

a. Monitoring the client’s labor carefully and preparing for a fast delivery.

b. Continually assessing the fetal tracing for signs of fetal distress.

c. Checking vital signs every 15 minutes to watch for increasing blood pressure.

d. Reducing visual and auditory stimulation.

187. A pregnant woman, in her third trimester, complained of vaginal 1/1

bleeding. she stated that she snorted cocaine approximately 1 hour
earlier. which of the following complications is most likely causing the
patient’s complaint of vaginal bleeding? *

a. placenta previa

b. abruptio placenta

c. threatened abortion

d. spontaneous abortion
188. A client makes a routine visit to the prenatal clinic. Although shes 14 1/1
weeks pregnant, the size of her uterus approximates that in an 18-20-
week pregnancy. Dr. Diaz diagnoses gestational trophoblastic disease
and orders ultrasonography. The nurse expects *

a. an extrauterine pregnancy

b. grapelike clusters

c. a severely malformed fetus

d. fetal demise

189. Which of the following symptoms is not occuring with hydatidiform 0/1
mole? *

a. Hypertension

b. Hyperemesis gravidarum

c. Big uterus

d. Boardlike abdomen

190. Nurse Vicky is preparing the admission of Mrs. Davila, a client in the 0/1
third trimester of pregnancy and who is experiencing vaginal bleeding
and has a suspected diagnosis of placenta previa. The nurse reviews the
physician’s orders and would question which order? *

a. Prepare the client for an ultrasound

b. Obtain equipment for an external electronic fetal monitor

c. Obtain equipment for manual pelvic examination

d. Prepare to draw hemoglobin and hematocrit blood sample

191. A patient presents with signs of Abruptio Placenta following a motor 1/1
vehicle accident. She has no external injuries but reports extreme
abdominal pain. Her abdomen is rigid on palpation . Fetal monitoring
indicates acute fetal distress. Which of the following interventions would
be most appropriate? *

a. Administer tocolytic to stop labor

b. prepare for CS

c. Monitoring vital signs

d. Providing emotional support regarding potential fetal demise

192. When the nurse reviews a prenatal record, what information places 0/1
the pregnant woman most at risk for premature rupture of membranes?
*

a. Chlamydia infection

b. First pregnancy

c. Pregnancy – induced hypertension

d. Single – fetus pregnancy

193. When providing postpartum discharge instructions for the 1/1
gestational diabetic, what information should the nurse include? *

a. Breastfeeding will increase insulin requirements for the mother but is

recommended for the health of the infant.

b. If she was taking insulin during the pregnancy, she will need to take insulin for the
rest of her life.

c. Low – dose combined oral contraceptives are not recommended for family
planning.

d. Maintaining a normal weight will decrease the risk of developing type 2

diabetes later in life.

194. The nurse assesses a client receiving terbutaline for tocolysis of 0/1
preterm labor. The following data are collected: BP 118/72, P 128. R 16.
Based on these findings, what should the nurse do? *

a. Administer the ordered dose of terbutaline.

b. Delay administration of the labor for 1 hour.

c. Notify the physician of the collected data

d. Withhold the ordered dose of terbutaline.

195. The nurse is monitoring the patient who is experiencing an ectopic 1/1
pregnancy. She notes that vaginal bleeding is scanty while the patient is
showing signs of hypovolemic shock. She evaluates that *

A. Shock signs are misleading in this case

B. Infection could cause signs of shock

C. Level of pain is causing signs of shock

D. Bleeding into the pelvic cavity is occurring

196. A 42 year old woman who is in three months pregnant has been 0/1
having regular monthly checkups. Suddenly, in her third month she
experiences a sudden increase in the blood pressure. The nurse assesses
for: *

A. Missed abortion

B. Ruptured membranes

C. Ectopic pregnancy

D. Hydatidiform mole

197. The woman 22 weeks pregnant presents with bleeding and 1/1
cramping. Assessment reveals tissue protruding from the cervix. This
spontaneous abortion is called as: *

A. Extraction

B. Inevitable

C. Complete

D. Incomplete

198. The nurse assesses the newborn of a diabetic mother. She is closely 0/1
watches for: *

A. Hyperglycemia

B. Hypoglycemia

C. Hyperinsulinism

D. Hypocapnia
199. During pregnancy, the woman’s hematologic values change in the 1/1
following way to accommodate the expanding uterus, placenta, and fetal
circulation. *

a. hematocrit increases

b. white blood cells decreases

c. clotting factors decreases

d. plasma volume increase

200. The pregnant woman lives in a state of chronic compensated. * 0/1

a. metabolic acidosis

b. metabolic alkalosis

c. respiratory alkalosis

d. respiratory acidosis

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