GATE 2022 BT

GATE 2022 General Aptitude

Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark each.

Q.1 You should _________ when to say _________.

(A) no / no

(B) no / know

(C) know / know

(D) know / no

Q.2 Two straight lines pass through the origin (𝑥 , 𝑦 ) = (0,0). One of them passes
through the point (𝑥 , 𝑦 ) = (1,3) and the other passes through the point
(𝑥 , 𝑦 ) = (1,2).

What is the area enclosed between the straight lines in the interval [0, 1] on
the 𝑥-axis?

(A) 0.5

(B) 1.0

(C) 1.5

(D) 2.0

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Q.3 If

𝑝∶𝑞=1∶2

𝑞∶𝑟=4∶3

𝑟∶𝑠=4∶5

and 𝑢 is 50% more than 𝑠, what is the ratio 𝑝 ∶ 𝑢?

(A) 2 ∶ 15

(B) 16 ∶ 15

(C) 1: 5

(D) 16: 45

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Q.4 Given the statements:

 P is the sister of Q.
 Q is the husband of R.
 R is the mother of S.
 T is the husband of P.
Based on the above information, T is ______ of S.

(A) the grandfather

(B) an uncle

(C) the father

(D) a brother

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Q.5 In the following diagram, the point R is the center of the circle. The lines PQ
and ZV are tangential to the circle. The relation among the areas of the squares,
PXWR, RUVZ and SPQT is

(A) Area of SPQT = Area of RUVZ = Area of PXWR

(B) Area of SPQT = Area of PXWR  Area of RUVZ

(C) Area of PXWR = Area of SPQT  Area of RUVZ

(D) Area of PXWR = Area of RUVZ  Area of SPQT

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Q. 6 – Q. 10 Carry TWO marks each.

Q.6 Healthy eating is a critical component of healthy aging. When should one start
eating healthy? It turns out that it is never too early. For example, babies who
start eating healthy in the first year are more likely to have better overall health
as they get older.

Which one of the following is the CORRECT logical inference based on the
information in the above passage?

(A) Healthy eating is important for those with good health conditions, but not for
others

(B) Eating healthy can be started at any age, earlier the better

(C) Eating healthy and better overall health are more correlated at a young age, but
not older age

(D) Healthy eating is more important for adults than kids

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Q.7 P invested ₹ 5000 per month for 6 months of a year and Q invested ₹ 𝑥 per
month for 8 months of the year in a partnership business. The profit is shared in
proportion to the total investment made in that year.

If at the end of that investment year, Q receives of the total profit, what is the

value of 𝑥 (in ₹)?

(A) 2500

(B) 3000

(C) 4687

(D) 8437

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Q.8 16
14
14
12 11
10 9

Frequency
8 7
6
4
4 3
2
2
0
3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Marks

The above frequency chart shows the frequency distribution of marks obtained
by a set of students in an exam.

From the data presented above, which one of the following is CORRECT?

(A) mean > mode > median

(B) mode > median > mean

(C) mode > mean > median

(D) median > mode > mean

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Q.9 In the square grid shown on the left, a person standing at P2 position is required
to move to P5 position.

The only movement allowed for a step involves, “two moves along one
direction followed by one move in a perpendicular direction”. The permissible
directions for movement are shown as dotted arrows in the right.

For example, a person at a given position Y can move only to the positions
marked X on the right.

Without occupying any of the shaded squares at the end of each step, the
minimum number of steps required to go from P2 to P5 is

1 2 3 4 5

Example: Allowed steps for a person at Y

(A) 4

(B) 5

(C) 6

(D) 7

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Q.10

Consider a cube made by folding a single sheet of paper of appropriate shape.

The interior faces of the cube are all blank. However, the exterior faces that are
not visible in the above view may not be blank.

Which one of the following represents a possible unfolding of the cube?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

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Q.11 – Q.35 Carry ONE mark each.

Q.11 What is the order of the differential equation given below?

d2y
 6 x  3x 4  2 x3  2
dx 2

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

Q.12 If the eigenvalues of a 2×2 matrix P are 4 and 2, then the eigenvalues of the
matrix P  1 are

(A) 0, 0

(B) 0.0625, 0.25

(C) 0.25, 0.5

(D) 2, 4

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Q.13 For a double-pipe heat exchanger, the inside and outside heat transfer coefficients
are 100 and 200 W m-2 K-1, respectively. The thickness and thermal conductivity
of the thin-walled inner pipe are 1 cm and 10 W m-1 K-1, respectively. The value
of the overall heat transfer coefficient is ___________ W m-2 K-1.

(A) 0.016

(B) 42.5

(C) 62.5

(D) 310

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Q.14 Match the media component (Column I) with its role (Column II).

Column I Column II

P. Sucrose 1. Anti-foam agent

Q. Zinc chloride 2. Nitrogen source

R. Ammonium sulphate 3. Carbon source

S. Silicone oil 4. Trace element

(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4

(B) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4

(C) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1

(D) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1

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Q.15 The binding free energy of a ligand to its receptor protein is −11.5 kJ mol-1 at
300 K. What is the value of the equilibrium binding constant?

Use R = 8.314 J mol-1 K-1.

(A) 0.01

(B) 1.0

(C) 4.6

(D) 100.5

Q.16 The overall stoichiometry for an aerobic cell growth is

3C6H12O6 + 2.5NH3 + O2  1.5CaHbOcNd + 3CO2 + 5H2O

What is the elemental composition formula of the biomass?

(A) C9H18.2O5N1.667

(B) C9H22.33O6N1.667

(C) C10H18.2O5N1.667

(D) C10H22.33O6N1.667

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Q.17 In binomial nomenclature, the name of a bacterial strain is written with the first
letter of ___________ word(s) being capitalized.

(A) first

(B) second

(C) neither

(D) first and second

Q.18 The type of nucleic acid present in phage is

(A) Double stranded DNA

(B) Single stranded circular DNA

(C) Single stranded DNA

(D) Single stranded RNA

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Q.19
Which of the following statements about reversible enzyme inhibitors are
CORRECT?

P. Uncompetitive inhibitors bind only to the enzyme-substrate complex

Q. Non-competitive inhibitors bind only at a different site from the
substrate
R. Competitive inhibitors bind to the same site as the substrate

(A) P and Q only

(B) P and R only

(C) Q and R only

(D) P, Q and R

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Q.20 Match the component of eukaryotic cells (Column I) with its respective function
(Column II).

Column I Column II

P. Lysosome 1. Digestion of macromolecules

Q. Peroxisome 2. Detoxification of harmful compounds

R. Glyoxysome 3. Conversion of fatty acids to sugar

S. Cytoskeleton 4. Involvement in cell motility

(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4

(B) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4

(C) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4

(D) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

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Q.21 In animal cells, the endogenously produced miRNAs silence gene expression by

(A) base pairing with the 3'-untranslated region of specific mRNAs

(B) blocking mRNA synthesis

(C) binding to the operator site

(D) base pairing with the 3' region of specific rRNAs

Q.22 Terpenoids are made of ___________ units

(A) amino acid

(B) carbohydrate

(C) isoprene

(D) triacylglycerol

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Q.23 Match the microbial product (Column I) with its respective application
(Column II).

Column I Column II

P. Methane 1. Biosurfactant

Q. Glycolipids 2. Bioplastic

R. Polyhydroxy alkanoate 3. Biofuel

(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3

(B) P-2, Q-1, R-3

(C) P-3, Q-2, R-1

(D) P-3, Q-1, R-2

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Q.24 Which of the following is NOT used for generating an optimal alignment of two
nucleotide sequences?

(A) Gap penalties

(B) Match scores

(C) Mismatch scores

(D) Nucleotide composition

Q.25 The recognition sequences of four Type-II restriction enzymes (RE) are given
below. The symbol (↓) indicates the cleavage site. Identify the RE that generates
sticky ends.

(A) RE1 - 5̍ G↓GATCC 3̍

(B) RE2 - 5̍ CTG↓CAG 3̍

(C) RE3 - 5̍ CCC↓GGG 3̍

(D) RE4 - 5̍ AG↓CT 3̍

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Q.26 Among individuals in a human population, minor variations exist in nucleotide

sequences of chromosomes. These variations can lead to gain or loss of sites for
specific restriction enzymes. Which of the following technique is used to identify
such variations?

(A) Polymerase dependent fragment insertion

(B) Real-time polymerase chain reaction

(C) Restriction fragment length polymorphism

(D) Reverse transcriptase polymerase chain reaction

Q.27 Assuming independent assortment and no recombination, the number of different

combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes in gametes of an organism
with a diploid number of 12 is _________________.

Q.28 A microorganism is grown in a batch culture using glucose as a carbon source.

The apparent growth yield is 0.5 . The initial concentrations of biomass

and substrate are 2 g L-1 and 200 g L-1, respectively. Assuming that there is no
endogenous metabolism, the maximum biomass concentration that can be
achieved is _________________ g L-1.

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Q.29 The degree of reduction of lactic acid (C3H6O3) is ________________.

Q.30 Consider a nonlinear algebraic equation, 𝑥𝑙𝑛𝑥 + 𝑥 − 1 = 0. Using the Newton-

Raphson method, with the initial guess of 𝑥 = 3, the value of 𝑥 after one
iteration (rounded off to one decimal place) is __________.

Q.31 The probability density function of a random variable X is p( x)  2e2 x . The

probability P(1  X  2) (rounded off to two decimal places) is __________.

Q.32 The maximum value of the function f ( x)  3x 2  2 x 3 for x  0 is ___________.

Q.33 The specific growth rate of a yeast having a doubling time of 0.693 h (rounded
off to nearest integer) is___________h-1.

A fermentation broth of density 1000 kg m-3 and viscosity 10-3 kg m-1 s-1 is mixed
Q.34
in a 100 L fermenter using a 0.1 m diameter impeller, rotating at a speed of 2 s-1.
The impeller Reynolds number is ____________.

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For a pure species, the slope of the melting line
Q.35
at −2 ˚C is −5.0665×106 Pa K-1.

The difference between the molar volumes of the liquid and solid phase at
−2 ˚C is −4.5×10-6 m3 mol-1.
The value of the latent heat of fusion (rounded off to nearest integer) is
__________ J mol-1.

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Q.36 – Q.65 Carry TWO marks each.

Q.36 Which of the following conditions will contribute to the stability of a gene pool
in a natural population?

P. Large population
Q. No net mutation
R. Non-random mating
S. No selection

(A) P only

(B) P and Q only

(C) P and R only

(D) P, Q and S only

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Q.37 Match the media component used in mammalian cell culture (Column I) with its
respective role (Column II).

Column I Column II

P. Hydrocortisone 1. Mitogen

Q. Fibronectin 2. Vitamin

R. Epidermal growth factor 3. Hormone

S. Riboflavin 4. Cell attachment

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

(B) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1

(C) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

(D) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

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Q.38 Match the cell type (Column I) with its function (Column II).

Column I Column II

P. B cells 1. Humoral immunity

Q. Neutrophils 2. Cytotoxicity

R. T cells 3. Histamine-associated allergy

S. Mast cells 4. Phagocytosis

(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4

(B) P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3

(C) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

(D) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

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Q.39 1
A 2×2 matrix P has an eigenvalue 𝜆 = 2 with eigenvector 𝑥 =   and
0
1
another eigenvalue 𝜆 = 5, with eigenvector 𝑥 =   . The matrix P is
1

(A)  2 0
 
0 5

(B)  2 3
 
 0 5

(C)  1 1
 
 0 1

(D) 1 1 
 
1 0 

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Q.40 Match the stationary phase (Column I) with its corresponding chromatography
technique (Column II).

Column I Column II

P. Protein A 1. Size exclusion chromatography

Q. Sephadex 2. Ion-exchange chromatography

R. Phenylsepharose 3. Affinity chromatography

S. Diethylaminoethyl cellulose 4. Hydrophobic interaction chromatography

(A) P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3

(B) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

(C) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1

(D) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2

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Which of the following statements are CORRECT for a controller?
Q.41
P. In a proportional controller, a control action is proportional to the error
Q. In an integral controller, a control action is proportional to the derivative
of the error
R. There is no “offset” in the response of the closed-loop first-order process
with a proportional controller
S. There is no “offset” in the response of the closed-loop first-order process
with a proportional-integral controller

(A) P and Q only

(B) P and R only

(C) P and S only

(D) Q and S only

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Q.42 Which of the following are CORRECT about protein structure?

P. Secondary structure is formed by a repeating pattern of interactions

among the polypeptide backbone atoms
Q. Tertiary structure is the three-dimensional arrangement of the
polypeptide backbone atoms only
R. Quaternary structure refers to an assembly of multiple polypeptide
subunits

(A) P and Q only

(B) P and R only

(C) Q and R only

(D) P, Q and R

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Q.43 The enzymes involved in ubiquitinylation of cell-cycle proteins are

(A) E1 and E2 only

(B) E1 and E3 only

(C) E1 and E4 only

(D) E1, E2 and E3

Q.44 The maximum parsimony method is used to construct a phylogenetic tree for a
set of sequences. Which one of the following statements about the method is
CORRECT?

(A) It predicts the tree that minimizes the steps required to generate the observed
variations

(B) It predicts the tree that maximizes the steps required to generate the observed
variations

(C) It predicts the tree with the least number of branch points

(D) It employs probability calculations to identify the tree

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Q.45 Which of the following spectroscopic technique(s) can be used to identify all the
functional groups of an antibiotic contaminant in food?

P. Infrared

Q. Circular dichroism

R. Nuclear magnetic resonance

S. UV-Visible

(A) P only

(B) P and R only

(C) P, Q and R only

(D) P, Q, R and S

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Q.46 Adenine can undergo a spontaneous change to hypoxanthine in a cell, leading to

a DNA base pair mismatch. The CORRECT combination of enzymes that are
involved in repairing this damage is

(A) Nuclease, DNA polymerase, DNA ligase

(B) Nuclease, DNA ligase, helicase

(C) Primase, DNA polymerase, DNA ligase

(D) Primase, helicase, DNA polymerase

Q.47 dy
Consider the ordinary differential equation  f ( x, y )  2 x 2  y 2 .
dx
If y (1)  1 , the value(s) of y (1.5) , using the Euler’s implicit method
[𝑦 = 𝑦 + ℎ𝑓(𝑥 ,𝑦 )] with a step size of h = 0.5, is (are)

(A) −1 − 5√0.3

(B) −1 + 5√0.3

(C) 1 + 5√0.3

(D) 1 − 5√0.3

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Q.48 Which of the following statements are CORRECT for an enzyme entrapped in a
spherical particle?

(A) Effectiveness factor is ratio of the reaction rate with diffusion-limitation to the
reaction rate without diffusion-limitation

(B) Internal diffusion is rate-limiting at low values of Thiele modulus

(C) Effectiveness factor increases with decrease in Thiele modulus

(D) Internal diffusion-limitation can be reduced by decreasing the size of the

particle

Q.49 Which of the following is(are) COMMON feature(s) for both aerobic and
anaerobic bacterial cultures?

(A) Glycolysis

(B) NAD+ is the oxidising agent

(C) Oxidative phosphorylation

(D) Two net ATP molecules formed per glucose molecule

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Q.50 Which of the following plot(s) is(are) CORRECT for an enzyme that obeys
Michaelis-Menten kinetics, assuming [𝑆] ≪ 𝐾 ?

[𝑆] is the concentration of the substrate, 𝐾 is the Michaelis constant, and v0 is

the initial reaction velocity.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

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Q.51 Which of the following statement(s) is(are) CORRECT regarding the lac operon
in E. coli when grown in the presence of glucose and lactose?

(A) At low glucose level, the operon is activated

(B) At high glucose level, the operon is activated to enable the utilization of lactose

(C) The lac repressor binds to operator region inactivating the operon

(D) Binding of lactose to the lac repressor induces the operon

Q.52 Emerging viruses such as SARS-CoV2 cause epidemics. Which of the following
process(es) contribute to the rise of such viruses?

(A) Mutation of existing virus

(B) Jumping of existing virus from current to new hosts

(C) Spread of virus in the new host population

(D) Replication of virus outside a host

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Q.53 Introduction of foreign genes into plant cells can be carried out using

(A) Agrobacterium

(B) CaCl2 mediated plasmid uptake

(C) Electroporation

(D) Gene gun

Q.54 Which of the following statement(s) regarding trafficking in eukaryotic cells

is(are) CORRECT?

(A) Dynamin binds GTP and is involved in vesicle budding

(B) Dynamin is involved in cytoskeletal remodelling

(C) Dynein binds ATP and is involved in movement of organelles along

microtubules

(D) Dynein binds GTP and is involved in movement of organelles along

microtubules

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Q.55 Consider a random variable X with mean 𝜇 = 0.1 and variance 𝜎 = 0.2. A new
random variable 𝑌 = 2𝑋 + 1 is defined. The variance of the random variable Y
(rounded off to one decimal place) is _________________.

Q.56 x1  x2
For x1  0 and x2  0 , the value of lim is __________.
x1  x2  x1 
x2 ln  
 x2 

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Q.57 Figure below depicts simplified metabolic and transport reactions taking place in
the production of B from A in a cell. The subscript ‘i’ refers to intracellular
metabolites. rj is the jth reaction flux in ( )
. Under pseudo-steady-state

condition, the following reaction fluxes are available.

r1 = 4, r3 = 1 and r6 = 1.

The transport flux of B, r4, is _____________ ( )

.

Q.58 The amount of biomass in a reactor at the end of the batch process is 50 g. Fed-
batch operation is initiated by feeding the substrate solution at a constant rate of
1 L h-1. The concentration of substrate in the feed is 50 g L-1. The maximum

biomass yield (𝑌 ) is 0.4 . Assuming the system is at quasi-steady state,

the maximum amount of biomass after 5 h of feeding is _____________ g.

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Q.59 An enzyme catalyzes the conversion of substrate A into product B. The rate
equation for this reaction is

CA
rA  mol L-1 min-1
5  CA

Substrate A at an initial concentration of 10 mol L-1 enters an ideal mixed flow

reactor (MFR) at a flow rate of 10 L min-1. The volume of the MFR required for
50% conversion of substrate to product is ___________ L.

Q.60 Liquid-phase mass transfer coefficient (kL) is measured in a stirred tank vessel
using steady-state method by sparging air. Oxygen uptake by the microorganism
is measured. The bulk concentration of O2 is 10-4 mol L-1. Solubility of O2 in
water at 25 ˚C is 10-3 mol L-1.

If the oxygen consumption rate is 9×10-4 mol L-1 s-1, and interfacial area is
100 m2/m3, the value of kL is __________cm s-1.

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Q.61 Consider a piston-cylinder assembly shown in the figure below. The walls of the
cylinder are insulated. The cylinder contains 1 mole of an ideal gas at 300 K and
the piston is held initially at the position z1 using a stopper. After the stopper is
removed, the piston suddenly rises against atmospheric pressure (1.013×105 Pa)
to the new position z2 where it is held by another stopper.

The heat capacity (Cv) of the gas is 12.5 J mol-1 K-1. The cross-sectional area of
the cylinder is 10-3 m2. Assume the piston is weightless and frictionless.

If 𝑧 − 𝑧 = 1 m, the final temperature of the gas (rounded off to nearest integer)

is ___________K.

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Q.62 Consider the growth of S. cerevisiae under aerobic condition in a bioreactor and
the specific growth rate of yeast is 0.5 h-1. The overall reaction of the process is

2C6H12O6 +0.2NH3+10.35O2  CH1.8O0.5N0.2+0.2C2H6O+10.6CO2+10.8H2O

The heat of combustion values for different compounds are tabulated below with
the reference to CO2, H2O, O2, and N2 at standard conditions.

Compound Heat of combustion

(kJ mol-1)

C6H12O6 2802

NH3 383

CH1.8O0.5N0.2 560

C2H6O 1366

The specific rate of heat production (rounded off to nearest integer) is

_____________ kJ mol-1 h-1.

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Q.63 A pilot sterilization was carried out in a vessel containing 100 m3 medium with
an initial spore concentration of 108 spores/ml. The accepted level of
contamination after sterilization is 1 spore in the entire vessel. The specific death
rate constant for the spore is 2 min-1 at 121 ˚C. Assuming no death takes place
during the heating and cooling cycles, the holding time at 121 ˚C (rounded off to
nearest integer) is _____________min.

Q.64 A circular plasmid has three different but unique restriction sites for enzymes
‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘c.’ When enzymes ‘a’ and ‘b’ are used together, two fragments of
equal size are generated. Enzyme ‘c’ creates fragments of equal size only from
one of the fragments generated by those cleaved by ‘a’ and ‘b’. The plasmid is
treated with a mixture of ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘c’ and analysed by agarose gel
electrophoresis. The number of bands observed in the gel is __________.

Q.65 A bacterial strain is grown in nutrient medium at 37 ˚C under aerobic conditions.

The medium is inoculated with 102 cells from a seed culture. If the number of
cells in the culture is 105 after 10 hours of growth, the doubling time of the strain
(rounded off to nearest integer) is ____________h.

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

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