Countdown Mock 11 (CLAT) 2023 English Language Directions: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow. Passag In the 2002 football World Cup, France, the reigning world champions, suffered a humiliating defeat to unfancied Senegal. All 11 members of the victorious Senegalese team had played for European clubs. They were not alone. ‘This question is posed by @ new book, "Give Us Your Best and Brightest’, by Devesh Kapur and John McHale. The authors are development economists first, football fans second (if at all). But they see the emigration of African players as a highly visible example of the "brain drain’. The answer to the Senegal conundrum is of course "both’: the best players leave, and the dream of emulating them motivates many others to take their place. The real question is whether the second effect outweighs the first, leaving the game in Senegal stronger or weaker than it otherwise would be. ‘As with all debates about the brain drain, theory has run ahead of evidence. The numbers on international flows of People are much patchier than those on cross-border flows of goods or capital. In a recent paper, Mr Stark and his co-authors investigate internal migration Education is not free, and some of those who gambled on a diploma as a ticket overseas will regret their decision But Mr Stark assumes that people in poor countries tend to demand too little education. A person's productivity depends on the skills of those around him, as well as his own. Because of these spill overs, an individual's education is worth more to the economy as a whole than it is to himself, and he will underinvest in it as a result. Mr Stark sees limited emigration as one way to fix this market failure. India's software engineers are perhaps an example of this principle at work. Indian students had little reason to learn computer coding before there was a software industry to employ them. But such an industry could not take root without computer engineers to man it. India's valley-dwellers represent just one contingent in a much larger diaspora. India's relatively happy experience with its educated émigrés is more likely to be the exception than the rule. Its million-strong brain drain represents just 4.3% of its vast graduate population, according to the Bank. By contrast, almost 47% of Ghana's highly educated native sons live in the OECD; for Guyana, the figure is 89%, This is not a stimulative leeching of talent; it is a haemorrhage. But it is not easy to run a managed "emigration" policy. The drain of educated minds from poor countries is mostly determined by host countries’ rules, not home countries’ interests. There will be tremendous pressure to loosen those rules in the future, not least because, as the baby-boom generation retires, it will seek to “backfill the taxpaying workforce behind it’, as Messrs Kapur and McHale put it. The rich world no longer welcomes the tired and the huddled; it looks set to compete ever more fiercely for the bright and the qualified, 1. 11837065 The focus of the passage is on the questiona) Does a brain drain pull up the standards of competence in a country? b) Can international migration be called a brain drain? ¢) Might poor countries gain when their best and brightest leave? d) Have foreign clubs deprived African countries of their best talent? Q 2. 11837065 In the given passage, ‘this market failure’ refers to a) skewed priorities in education b) lack of education in poor countries. ) inadequate recognition of the desirability of one's education. 4) inadequacy of market-oriented skils. Q 3. 11837065 The passage states that India's experience with its émigré is an exception because: | its brain drain represents an insignificant proportion of its educated populace. Il its qualified but rejected visa-seekers can be absorbed in local industries. IIL its diaspora can be tapped for technology and foreign exchange. a) Only til b) tand Il ©) Land ill d) |, thang tt Q 4, 11837085 Whats the effect of the Senegal conundrum? a) The best players leave. b) The dream of emulating the best players motivates others. °) 4) Both (a) & (b). The dream of emulating others motivates the best player. Q5. 11837065 Which of the following is true about the authors of the book mentioned in the passage? a) ‘They are more development economists than football fans and see the emigration of African players as a brain drain. b) ‘They are more development economists than football fans and do not see the emigration of African players as a brain drain. ¢) ‘They are less of development economists as compared to being football fans and see the emigration of Aftican players as a brain drain, a) They are more football fans than development economists and see the emigration of African players as a brain drain, Directions: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow. Passage -2 Daphne Du Maurier, also known as ‘Lady Browning’, was a British writer and playwright born on 13th May 1907 in London. She belonged to a creative family where her father and mother were actors, her uncle was a magazine editor, and her grandfather was a writer. This became the base for her literary talent as she started writing when she was very young. As a child, she knew how to stay in the limelight, having met many celebrities because of herParents’ careers. At first, she was not considered as intellectual as other famous authors such as George Eliot and Iris Murdoch and her work was seen as somewhat ‘old aged’. But now, Maurier is recognized as one of the most brilliant writers and is called ‘the mistress of suspense’. She was home-schooled by well-educated governesses and later attended the elite schools of London and Paris. Because her childhood contained many literary and artistic experiences, it was not a surprise that Du Maurier had a very vivid imagination and a profound love for writing and reading. Her first novel ‘The Loving Spirit’ was published in 1931. It was after reading this very novel that Lieutenant-Colone| Frederick, also called ‘Boy Browning’ sailed all the way to London to meet the author of this book. They married the next year and remained married for the next 33 years until Boy died in 1965, Du Maurier's other works are ‘Ili Never Be Young Again’ (1932), 'The Progress of Julius’ (1933), ‘Jamaica Inn’ (1936), 'Rebecca’ (1938), ‘Frenchman's Creek’ (1941), ‘Mary Anne’ (1954), "The Scapegoat’ (1957), "The Glass-Blowers’ (1963) and ‘Rule Britannia’ (1972). She also wrote many short stories, including ‘Come Wind, Come Weather’ (1940), ‘Early Stories’ (1959), ‘The Breaking Point’ (1959), ‘Not After Midnight’ (1971) and ‘The Rendezvous and Other Stories’ (1980) Daphne du Maurier also wrote three plays. The first was an adaptation of her novel ‘Rebecca’ that was published in 1938. The play was released on 5th March 1940. The second play was 'The Years Between’, that opened on 10th January 1945, and the third one was called "September Tide’, which first opened on 15th December 1948. ‘She was given the honour of being the ‘Dame Commander of the Order of the British Empire’ in the’ Queen's Birthday Honors’; however, she never really used this title. Later on in her life, Du Maurier also wrote some non- fiction works. ‘Gerald’ was published in 1934, "The Du Mauriers' in 1937, "The Young George du Maurier’ in 1951, "The Infernal World of Branwell Bronte’ in 1960 and ‘Growing Pains' in 1970. Many of her works were made into film adaptations such as 'My Cousin Rachel’, "The Birds’, Jamaica Inn’, ‘Hungry Hill and ‘Frenchman's Creek’ Du Maurier had a ‘romantic’ style of writing, although she did not like being called as a romance novelist. She received the Grand Master Awards from the ‘Mystery Writers of America’. She died on 19th April 1989 in Comwall England, the UK, at the age of 81 Q6. 11837065 The passage is ) A biography b) An autobiography ©) Asummary 4d) Anovel Q7. 11837065 Al of the following can be inferred from the passage, except a) Daphne Du Maurier’s writing skills stem from her exposure to many artistic and literary experiences in her childhood b) George Eliot, Iris Murdoch and Daphne Du Maurier were contemporaries. ¢) Daphne Du Maurier was bom with a silver spoon in her mouth, 4d) Daphne Du Maurier won accolades during her lifetime Q 8. 11837065 The writer was known by which sobriquet? a) Daphne du Maurier —_b) Boy Browning ¢) Rebecca 4d) Lady Browning Q 9. 11837065 Which of the following works was adapted as a play? ) My Cousin Rachel —_-b)Hungry Hill ©) The years between) Rebecca Q 10. 11837065 Why do you think Daphne du Maurier did not ke being called a romance novelist?a) Daphne Du Maurier did not wish to be confined to a genre. b) Daphne Du Maurier was a writer as well as a playwright. ¢) Daphne Du Maurier was a versatile woman who also delved into artistic pursuits d) Daphne Du Maurier came from an eclectic background that rendered her vivid imagination. Directions: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow. Passage -3 Ast suffuses our lives. Whether i's bluegrass, heavy metal, Frank Sinatra of Mozart, music moves us all. On a trip to a foreign city, visiting an art museum is a mandatory exercise. Imaginative writing affects many of us, though - alas - with decreasing frequency. Why should art be important? Being seen as an “art lover" may increase our status, but otherwise, art is not useful. Yet art has been part of the human experience since Paleolithic man painted on the walls of caves in Lascaux, France, and Altamira, Spain, more than 30,000 years ago. Art preceded agriculture, cities and writing, Denis Dutton, an art professor in New Zealand, has proposed a bold new explanation. He argues that humankind's universal interest in art is the resull of human evolutions. We enjoy sex, grasp facial expressions, understand the logic and spontaneously acquire language - all of which make it easier for us to survive and produce children, In “The Art instinct: Beauty, Pleasure, and Human Evolution," Dutton contends that an interest in art belongs on this list of evolutionary adaptations. Drawing on Charles Darwin's second great book, "The Descent of Man, and Selection in Relation to Sex", Dutton argues that art, like broad shoulders in a man and a narrow waist in a woman, facilitates seduction. We tell stories, sing songs, invent tales, recount jokes and draw pictures in order to find a mate and, having found one, produce children. We value art because Dutton claims, it may be made of rare and valuable materials and require much skill to produce. People value wealth and skill in choosing a mate. This is a stimulating but not entirely satisfactory argument. Some forms of art may have evolutionary explanations that do not involve sexual selection, and some forms of beauty may not be linked to art at all. Take music: we can imagine men and women singing to one another for several reasons, but we can also imagine music being used to induce sleep, energize an army, or identify friends and enemies. Or painting: zoologist Desmond Moris and others have encouraged chimpanzees to paint. Some of their works were hung in museums without being labelled as the work of chimps, and they received much acclaim. It seems unlikely. Likewise, the cave paintings done 30 millennia ago probably had no connection with romance (many were done in remote parts of caves where no one lived). They may have been produced by shamans for religious purposes. Dutton recognizes these limitations in his explanation of why art has persisted. His love of music, he notes, cannot be confined to its role in sexual communication; as a child, he was entranced with Beethoven's Seventh ‘Symphony long before he had the faintest interest in giris. Moreover, art, especially music and poetry, helps us see the human personality Evolution has, without any doubt, left people with an appreciation for both natural and man-made beauty, but sexual selection expiains only a small part of the reason. Q 11. 11837085 Which of the following questions is answered by Dutton's research?a) Are we genetically predisposed to appreciate art? b) Does an interest in art make it easier for humans to survive and reproduce? ) Are preferences in music and paintings passed on to children? 4) Do we value beauty even though we define it differently? Q 12. 11837065 Which of the following best describes the way the conclusion functions in the context of the passage? a) The last argument supports the central idea presented in the passage. b) questions arising out of the discussion on the topic are identified for further study. ¢) The conclusion accepts the central claim and closes the case. d) Conclusion is drawn as counterarguments to qualify the central argument. Q 13. 11837065 What does the author mean when he uses the word ‘suffuses' in the first line? a) Spreads b) ©) Permeates 4) Floods Q 14. 11837065 The period that the author mentions with regard to art, is a) Paleolithic b) Mesolithic €) Stone age d) Neolithic Q.15. 11837065 Which of the following is the author's approach to Dutton's argument with regard to his arguments on Charles Darwin's second book? a) Appreciating and stimulating. 'b) Contradictory and ironical. ) Stimulating, yet not entirely satisfactory. 4d) Satisfactory, but not entirely stimulating Directions: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow. Passage -4 In the very olden time, there lived a semi-barbaric king, whose ideas, though somewhat polished and sharpened by the progressiveness of distant Latin neighbours, were still large, florid, and untrammelied, as became the half of him which was barbaric. He was a man of exuberant fancy and, withal, of an authority so irresistible that, at his will, he turned his varied fancies into facts. He was greatly given to selfcommuning, and when he and himself agreed upon anything, the thing was done. When every member of his domestic and political systems moved smoothly in its appointed course, his nature was bland and genial; but whenever there was a litle hitch and some of his orbs got out of their orbits, he was blander and more genial stil, for nothing pleased him so much as to make the crooked straight, and crush down uneven places. ‘Among the borrowed notions by which his barbarism had become semified was that of the public arena, in which, by exhibitions of manly and beastly valour, the minds of his subjects were refined and cultured. But even here, the exuberant and barbaric fancy asserted itself. The arena of the king was built not to give the people an opportunity of hearing the rhapsodies of dying gladiators nor to enable them to view the inevitable conclusion of a conflict between religious opinions and hungry jaws, but for purposes far better adapted to widen and develop the mental energies of the people. This vast amphitheatre, with its encircling galleries, its mysterious vaults, and its unseen passages, was an agent of poetic justice in which crime was punished. Or virtue rewarded by the decrees of an impartial and incorruptible chance.‘When a subject was accused of a crime of sufficient importance to interest the king, public notice was given that on an appointed day, the fate of the accused person would be decided in the king's arena,~a structure which well- deserved its name; for, although its form and plan were borrowed -from afar, its purpose emanated solely from the brain of this man, who, every barleycomn a king, knew no tradition to which he owed more allegiance than pleased his fancy, and who ingrafted on every adopted form of human thought and action the rich growth of his barbaric idealism. ‘When all the people had assembled in the galleries, and the king, surrounded by his court, sat high up on his throne of royal state on one side of the arena, he gave a signal, a door beneath him opened, and the accused subject stepped out into the amphitheatre. Directly opposite him, on the other side of the enclosed space, were two doors, exactly alike and side by side. It was the duty and the privilege of the person on trial to walk directly to these doors and open one of them. He could open either door he pleased: he was subject to no guidance or influence but that of the aforementioned impartial and incorruptible chance. If he opened the one, there came out of it a hungry tiger, the fiercest and most crue! that could be procured, which immediately sprang upon him and tore him to pieces as a punishment for his guilt, The moment that the case of the criminal was thus decided, doleful iron bells were clanged, great wails went up from the hired mourners posted on the outer rim of the arena, and the vast audience, with bowed heads and downcast hearts, wended slowly their homeward way, mourning greatly that one so young and fair, or so old and respected, should have merited so dire a fate, Q 16. 11837065 Which of the following reflects the character of the king? a) Bland and gentee! b) Whimsical and just. ¢) Savage and fanciful. d) Courageous and quirky. Q17. 11837065 The author's attitude towards the king is a) Condescending b) Mordant ©) Lionising 4) Superciious Q 18. 11837065 Which of the following explains the king's justice? a) The king's justice was draconian as well as whimsical. b) The king's justice was harsh but just. ©) The king's justice was, on most occasions, clement but just 4) The king's justice was based on the legacy of his forefathers. Q 19. 11837065 ‘He was greatly given to self-communing, and, when he and himself agreed upon anything, the thing was done.’ ‘What is the author impiying through the lines above? a) That the king summoned his inner conscience while making a decision and when he executed his judgments based on his inner conscience. b) That the king had intimate communication with himself, and if he believed that he and his inner self were in ‘eongruence, he gave in to his fancy. ‘c) The king only listened to himself and executed decisions that he relied on to serve his purpose. a The king interacted with his ego and took decisions based on what he was told by his ego and those who agreed with him, Q 20. 11837065 Which of the following is the best interpretation of paragraph three?a) ‘The king's idea of the arena was to deal with the criminal the public of his fair means. b) ‘The area was a manifestation of the king's desire to vent his warped idealism to the public by severely punishing the criminals that took his interest. the most justified manner that would instil assurance in ¢) The structure of the area bore allegiance to its king in its plan, form and philosophy, that of savage idealism that he kept close to his heart, dq) The arena’s structure catered to the king's idea of justice in its purpose, for the king's loyalty stood only to his own fanciful ideas that fostered his brutal fantasies. Directions: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow. Passage -5 WHY DO YOU Fear My Ways So Much? by GN Saibaba poignantly articulates the human predicament in the face of hardship, suffering and undying hope. Although written from within the dark confines of the "anda cell" in a prison in Nagpur, the poems have a universal appeal, and stir several emotions in the reader from despair to hope. GN Saibaba, a professor of English at Delhi University, is an author and human rights activist, who, since 2014, is serving a life sentence under the draconian anti-terror UAPA in solitary confinement. The wheelchair-bound 90 per cent disabled scholar is deprived of medical care and denied bail despite scant evidence of his involvement in any criminal acts. Apart from poems, the book contains pieces from writers and activists Ashok Kumbamu, Ngugi wa Thiong’o and the Dalit poet Meena Kandasamy. 'The Introduction: Letter to Sai’ contains a short biographical account of the author's life journey is provided by his loving wife AS Vasantha Kumari. She reminisces about their 30-year relationship that began when both were students in ciass ten. She recounts how they both helped each other grow emotionally and together stood by the values of justice and equality in the face of several adversities. Their journey from Amalapuram (Andhra Pradesh) to Hyderabad to Dethi was traversed reading Tagore, Premchand and Periyar and through participation in various social movements such as workers’ movements and women’s struggles for equality. Vasantha is proud of her husband who valiantly stood for women’s equality and dignity in a patriarchal social order. They loved each other freely, happily and securely. But now "the word love has been enlisted as a crime. Hatred with its poisonous fangs is stimulating violence everywhere". The poems have varied themes and subjects. it can be a victim's testimony, an ode to humanity, diaries of a dreamer, @ romanticised account of struggles for justice, scholarly explanations of human suffering and injustice in society, longing for a loved one-all expressed from within the confines of a prison cell. "Why do you fear my way so much/O Pundit, © Mulla/ I'm not an agnostic... I'm not your secularist... I'm not a rationalist... 'm not a heretic... Kabir says/ He's a messenger of love for peopie/ Why do you fear my way so much?" Kandaswamy writes about how Saibaba's poems expose the shocking colonial legacy that at times permeates India's criminal justice system. The British system introduced 160 years ago for the purpose of branding dissidents as seditious traitors still enjoys a lawful status in our country! The crime of speaking out against the state is treated as sedition and activists like Saibaba are incarcerated away from loved ones and denied medical care. He is continuously under surveillance, he is not allowed to talk or write in Telugu, his mother tongue, as the prison staffdoes not know Telugu. Saibaba is forbidden everything inside the prison. He can't write letters to his dear ones and therefore the poems addressed to different friends express his innermost feelings. It is remarkable that he does not lose hope and continues dreaming of a better world and the presence of his beloved wife. Saibaba's appeal has been pending in the High Court for five years as he remains in solitary confinement. Human rights organisations and scholars worldwide continue to demand an end to his imprisonment. Through these poems, he continues to spread love and empathy. Q 21. 11837065 Out of the following, select the best ttle of the passage. a) A wheelchair-bound prisoner's appeal to the state and to humanity b) ‘Justice delayed is justice denied’: A myth or realty? ¢) Journey of a human rights activist from banners to behind the bars d) Why does the state have to torture an already deprived citizen? Q 22. 11837065 Which among the following is true in context to the passage? a) In spite of no evidence against him, GN Saibaba has been locked up into prison. b) GN Saibaba has been explicitly instructed to not speak his mother tongue Telugu. ¢) The author feels that the punishment meted out to Saibaba is adequate. ) All of the above Q 23. 11837065 What does the phrase ‘an ode to humanity’ mean? a) A request made to the entire human race b) Apoem written specifically for humanity ©) A story about the formation of humanity 4) A leap of faith for the entire human race Q 24. 11837065 Choose the synonyms of the following words respectively: poignant: permeate. a) Beauty; penetrate b) Pitiful; pervade ¢) Sorrowful; recede ¢) Miserable: reminisce Q 25. 11837065 What is the author's opinion on the law of sedition in India's criminal justice system? a) He feels that this law is a necessary evil in the prevalent scenario. b) According to him, this law gives a free hand to the government to imprison those who speak against it. ¢) He feels that this law has been misused by the government to Keep businessmen in check. 4) The author is of the opinion that now is the right time to put an end to the sedition law. Directions: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow. Passage -6 ‘With the exception of Chile, most countries in Latin America have for years run fiscal deficits and still do. Past fiscal laxity meant governments either printed money, fueling inflation, or issued large amounts of debt, driving interest rates to onerous levels. The resulting inflation hurt the poor, since the poor's capacity to protect their earnings - through indexed savings for example - is limited. High interest rates also undermined growth of a middle class by limiting the expansion of creditworthy small firms (which generally have no alternative to the local market for their financing needs) and thus ofprivate investment and of jobs for the unskilled and semi-skilled. While the direct causal link is not clear, high interest rates in Latin America since mid-1990 are probably associated with jobless growth. Despite an annual average growth rate since 1995 of 2.5 percent in the region, measured unemployment rates have risen from 6 percent in 2001 108 percent in 2006 (with it reaching 11 percent in 2003). Fiscal indiscipline is no longer the rule in Latin America (average inflation fell from close to 600 percent in 1990 to just over 7 percent between 2000-2006). But past high borrowing means that debt service is still high (even taking into account reductions in the debt stock in the last few years) and has to be financed, reducing the scope for new public expenditures. In 2003 Brazil was spending 10 percent of its GDP on interest on its public debt. To the extent the debt stock has to be rolled over (which depends on the extent to which overall spending can be reduced to pay off debt ) public borrowing will keep interest rates higher than otherwise, crowding out private investment and job creation. Real interest rates were very high in Latin America in the 1990s, reaching more than 10 percent on average for the majority of countries, compared with 6 percent on average in Southeast Asia and about 5.6 percent in the United States 1990-2000. Since 2001, interest rates have fallen against a backdrop of fairly low inflation in most Latin ‘American countries, but they remain well above those in other regions. Of course some public debt (to finance small deficits) is reasonable, especially when economic growth ensures that the ratio of debt to GDP is not continuously fising above a safe range. But emerging market economies with a history of inflation and volatility (including some such as Turkey, Thailand and the Philippines outside of Latin America) should probably meet a tougher standard of net public debt to GDP than the standard for developed countries - the IMF suggests no more than 30 percent for emerging markets. In short, Latin American countries are stil paying for fiscal indiscipline that mostly ended more than a decade ago. With the recent global economic boom, most have grown fast enough and kept overall fiscal deficits low enough to get ahead of the destructive debt dynamic in which the burden of past debt undermines aggregate growth. But a Continuation of this progress relies heavily on more years of very tight fiscal policy (unless growth rates jump to Asian rates) and perhaps too heavily on a continuation of an unusually benign extemal environment, particularly for commodity producers. Fortunately the increases in the size of the middle class (using my definition) in Mexico and Brazil suggest that the growth the region is now enjoying may be more inclusive than growth has been since the 1970s. Fifteen years of responsible fiscal policy have almost surely helped. Q 26. 11837065 Out of the following, which option could be inferred if the information in the given passage is true? a) The unemployment rate in Latin America varied from 6 percent to 11 percent in between 2001 to 2006. ») Fiscal laxity in present could create problems for the future generations down the line. ) Latin America has not been able to capitalize on the fiscal discipline shown by its past leaders. ) Both a and b are correct Q 27. 11837065 Which among the following is the main reason behind less scope for public expenditures in Latin ‘America? ) Past fiscal indiscipline 'b) Increase in inflation rate ) High interest rate on loans offered to the public. 4d) Printing excess money Q 28. 11837065 According to the passage, which among the following has been explicitly mentioned as an indicator that fiscal indiscipline has subsided in Latin America? a) No excess money being printed b) GDP increasing to new heights €) Interest rate on loans increasing 4) Fall in average inflation rateQ 29. 11837065 Choose the correct synonym of the word ‘Onerous' a) Gruelling b) Ardous ¢) Strenous 4d) All of the above Q 30. 11837065 What could be a suitable title for the above passage? a) From fiscal indiscipline to fiscal responsibility 'b) Troubled waters: A journey ) Fiscal indiscipline and its benign effects 4) One should not bite more than what one can chew Current Affairs Including General Knowledge Passage ~ 1 A psychiatrist who helped fellow Cambodians recover from trauma resuiting from the Khmer Rouge’s genocidal rule and a Japanese ophthalmologist who led an effort to treat thousands of Vietnamese villagers were among those selected for this year’s Ramon Magsaysay Awards, regarded as Asia's version of the Nobel Prize. ‘The other winners were a Filipina pediatrician who has provided medical, legal and social help to thousands of abused children and their families, and a Frenchman who battles plastic pollution in indonesian rivers. Cambodian Sotheara Chhim has led the treatment of thousands of traumatised survivors of the Khmer Rouge’s brutal rule and other patients in his country since becoming executive director of its Transcultural Psychosocial Organisation in 2002, the foundation said. Japanese ophthalmologist Tadashi Hattori, 58, was awarded the prize for training local doctors who have treated thousands of Vietnamese. He decided to become a doctor at age 15 when he witnessed the rude treatment that his cancer-stricken father received in a hospital, the award foundation said. In the [1], where child abuse has been a longstanding problem because of poverty, child labour and trafficking, pediatrician Bernadette Madrid drew attention by providing treatment, raising awareness and engaging policy-makers and civic groups to address the issue, award officials said. It said Gary Bencheghib from France became a "warrior* against plastic pollution on the Indonesian resort island of Bali, where his parents relocated years ago, when he discovered the extent of plastic clogging its waterways. At 14, he started a weekly beach cleanup with his sister, brother and friends in a project that led him to environmental protection advocacy. Q 31. 11837065 Bemadette Madrid was one among the recipient of Ramon Magsaysay Award 2022, she hails from which of the following countries redacted with [1] in the passage above? a) Philippines b) Mexico ©) Argentina 4) Thailand Q 32. 11837065 The Ramon Magsaysay Award is named after the former President of the. a) Indonesia b) Cambodia ¢) Vietnam d) Philippines 33. 11837065 The first Indian to win the Ramon Magsaysay award is a) Vinoba Bhave b) Dr. BR. Ambedkar —€) Mahatma Gandhi 4) Jawaharlal Nehru Q 34, 11837065 The Ramon Magsaysay Award was established in.a) 1948 b) 1957 ¢) 1959 d) 1962 35. 11837065 Recently, K K Shailaja has rejected Ramon Magsaysay award for her contributions to preventing COVID-19 and Nipah virus. She served as the former health minister of a) Andhra Pradesh b) Sikkim, ) West Bengal 4) Kerala Passage -2 ‘Asok Kumar, the Director General of the National Mission for Clean Ganga, spoke about the Arth Ganga model during his virtual keynote address to the Stockhoim World Water Week 2022 on August 24, 2022. Since 1991, the Stockholm International Water Institute has been organising the World Water Week every year to address global water concems. PM Modi first introduced the concept during the first National Ganga Council meeting in Kanpur in 2019, where he Urged for a shift from Namami Gange, the Union Government's flagship project to clean the Ganga, to the model of Arth Ganga. The latter focuses on the sustainable development of the Ganga and its surrounding areas, by focusing on economic activities related to the river. At its core, the Arth Ganga model seeks to use economics to bridge people with the river. During his keynote address, Asok Kumar stated that it "strives to contribute at least 3% of the GDP from the Ganga Basin itself,” and added that the Arth Ganga project's interventions are in accordance with India's commitments towards the UN sustainable development goais. Under Arth Ganga, the government is working on six verticals. The first is Zero Budget Natural Farming, which involves chemical-free farming on 10 km on either side of the river, and the promotion of cow dung as fertliser through the GOBARdhan scheme. The Monetization and Reuse of Siudge & Wastewater is the second, which seeks to reuse treated water for irigation, industries and revenue generation for Urban Local Bodies (ULBs), Q 36. 11837065 The theme for World Water Week 2022 is a) Seeing the Unseen: The Value of Water 'b) Save the water for future generations ¢) Every Drop of Water has it's own value d) Preserve and conserve the water carefully Q 37. 11837065 The first State to implement a Zero Budget Natural farming (ZBNF) policy is. a) Kerala b) Karnataka ©) Punjab 4) Andhra Pradesh Q 38. 11837065 Which of the following union territories has become the first 'Har Ghar Jal’ certified UT in the country? a) Delhi 'b) Chandigarh ©) Puducherry 4) Dadra & Nagar Haveli and Daman & Diu Q.39. 11837065 The National Ganga Council was formed in 2016. It is chaired by the a) President of India b) Prime Minister of India °) ) Union Minister for Jal Shakti Union Minister for Environment, Forests and Climate ChangeQ 40. 11837065 ‘Namami Gange Programme’, is an Integrated Conservation Mission, approved as ‘Flagship Programme’ by the Union Government in June 2014 with budget outlay of Rs. Crore to accomplish the twin objectives of effective abatement of pollution, conservation and rejuvenation of National River Ganga. a) Rs.10,000 Crore b) Rs.20,000 Crore €) Rs.30,000 Crore ) Rs.50,000 Crore Passage - 3 ‘The rupee weakened past 80 per dollar for the first time but went on to recover lost ground against the greenback owing to interventions by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and persistent sales of dollars by exporters, dealers said. The rupee plunged to its lifetime low of 80.06 per US dollar in early trade before recouping all losses to close at 79.95. The domestic currency had settled at 79.98 a dollar - an all-time closing low. The rupee has depreciated 7.01 per cent against the dollar this year. The government, however, said the rupee was managed well and there was nothing to be "overtly’ worried about the depreciation in the domestic currency against the doliar. The rupee had appreciated against several global currencies like the British pound, Japanese yen, and Euro, and this had made imports in these currencies cheaper compared to the dollar, Economic Affairs Secretary Ajay Seth said. The falling rupee may adversely impact central government finances through a higher subsidy bill, even though higher While the rupee breached the psychologically significant 80-per-dollar mark, currency traders said a confluence of factors had lent support to the currency. These included the RBI's intervention at the 80 level, a weaker dollar index, strength in domestic equities, and firm dollar sales by banks on behalf of exporters. 41. 11837065 Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the rupee exchange rate? port bill may yield additional government revenues, economists sé a) The rupee's exchange rate vis-a-vis the dollar is essentially the number of rupees one needs to buy for $1. b) This is an important metric to buy not just US goods but also other goods and services trade which happens in US dollars ¢) Both (a) and (b) statements are true 4) Neither (a) nor (b) statements are true 42. 11837065 What will happen when Rupee depreciates? 2) Importing of goods and services from other countries become costlier. b) Export of goods and services to other countries become cheaper. ©) Both (a) and (b) statements are true 4) Neither (a) nor (b) statements are true 43. 11837065 Why are the rupee-dollar exchange rate and forex reserves falling? a) As investors are pulling money out of the Indian market, there is a fall in forex reserve and also less dollar in the Indian market would mean, the value of the dollar against the rupee would increase. b) India has a capital account surplus but a current account deficit:) RBI's defence of the rupee through dollar sales amid a globally strengthening greenback as one of the reasons for the fall in reserves. ) All of the above Q 44. 11837065 At present in India, which of the following fixes value of a currency? a) RBI b) SEBI €) Ministry of Finance dl) Market forces 45, 11837065 Which of the following statements is/are true? ) If market forces determine the value of a currency, that type of system is called Floating Rate System. b) India has adopted the partial floating rate system since 1975, and from 1993 is fully dependent on Floating Rate ‘System, ) Both (a) and (b) statements are true 4) Neither (a) nor (b) statements are true Passage -4 Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) is an initiative aiming at promoting open networks for all aspects of exchange of goods and services over digital or electronic networks. ONDC is to be based on open-sourced methodology, using open specifications and open network protocols independent of any specific platform. ‘The foundations of ONDG are to be open protocols for all aspects in the entire chain of activities in exchange of goods and services, similar to hypertext transfer protocol for information exchange over internet, simple mail transfer protocol for exchange of emails and unified payments interface for payments. These open protocols would be used for establishing public digital infrastructure in the form of open registries and open network gateways to enable exchange of information between providers and consumers. Providers and consumers would be able to use any compatible application of their choice for exchange of information and carrying out transactions over ONDC. Thus, ONDC goes beyond the current platform-centric digital commerce mode! where the buyer and seller have to Use the same platform or application to be digitally visible and do a business transaction, ONDC protocols would standardize operations like cataloguing, inventory management, order management and order fulfilment. Thus, small businesses would be able to use any ONDC compatible applications instead of being governed by specific platform centric policies. This will provide multiple options to small businesses to be discoverable over network and conduct business. It would also encourage easy adoption of digital means by those currently not on digital commerce networks. ONDC is expected to make e-Commerce more inclusive and accessible for consumers. Q46. 11837065 Which of the following has launched the pilot phase of the Open Network for Digital Commerce (OnDc)? ) Ministry of Commerce and Industry b) RBI ¢) Ministry of Finance 4) National Payment Corporation of IndiaQ47. 11837065 India launched its Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) as the government tries to end the dominance of U.S. companies, Amazon and in the fast-growing e-commerce market. a) Walmart b) Google ©) Apple d) eBay @ 48. 11837065 Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC)? a) Implementation of ONDC, which is expected to be on the lines of Unified Payments Interface (UP!) could bring various operational aspects put in place by e-commerce platforms to the same level. b) Itis a not-for-profit organisation that will offer a network to enable local digital commerce stores across industries to be discovered and engaged by any network-enabled applications, ¢) Itis neither an aggregator application nor a hosting platform, and all existing digital commerce applications and platforms can voluntarily choose to adopt and be a part of the ONDC network. 4d) Allofthe above Q 49. 11837065 The project to integrate e-commerce platforms through a network based on open-source technology has been tasked to which of the following? a) RBI b) SBI ¢) Quality Council of india d) SEBI Q 50. 11837065 Which of the following is/are the significance of Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC)? a) ‘On ONDC, buyers and sellers may transact irrespective of the fact that they are attached to one specific e-commerce portal b) ONDC is expected to digitise the entire value chain, standardise operations, promote inclusion of suppliers, derive efficiency in logistics and enhance value for consumers. ) Itwill enable transactions of any denomination, thus making ONDC a truly ‘open network for democratic commerce’. 4) All ofthe above Passage ~5 The United States sees India's participation in the Indo-Pacific Economic Framework (IPEF) as “very important’, it views India as a "vital partner” in its economic engagement in the region, and has been “engaging very actively” with the Indian government to address questions about the framework, the State Department has said. Washington is also designing the framework to prioritise “flexibility and inclusion", and participating countries can join IPEF without necessarily joining all the four pillars of the framework -- a pick-and-choose arrangement that could make India more open to coming on board. IPEF's four pillars include fair and resilient trade (including digital, labour, environmental and other standards); supply chain resilience; infrastructure, decarbonisation and clean energy: and tax and anti-corruption. "We are still discussing the mechanics of the framework with our partners, but are designing it to prioritise flexibility and inclusion. Partners would not necessarily participate in every module,” a State Department spokesperson said.For its part, India sees the framework in a "positive light", and notes particular convergence when it comes to the supply chain resilience pillar, but it has sought flexibility in the framework to create incentives for countries to join it, said a person familiar with conversations on the issue. During her visit to Washington in April, finance minister Nirmala Sitharaman called IPEF a “fantastic thought’, and said that the US had shared the framework with India, and Prime Minister Narendra Modi had indicated that due consideration would be given to it. Q 51. 11837065 In September 2022, the Minister of Commerce & Industry addressed the Indo-Pacific Economic. Framework (PEF) Ministerial meeting in the US, where India decided to stay away from which one of the four Pillars of IPEF? a) Trade b) Supply chains ¢) Clean economy @) Fair economy Q52. 11837065 Indo-Pacific Economic Framework (IPEF) initiative is led by. » a) india b) China ©) Russia 4) USA Q53. 11837065 Which of the following countries is Not a member in the Indo-Pacific Economic Framework (PEF)? a) Philippines b) Singapore ) Thailand d) Russia Q 54. 11837065 Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the India's vision for the Indo-Pacific Region? a) India’s view is to work with other like-minded countries in the Indo-Pacific region to cooperatively manage a rules- based multipolar regional order and prevent any single power from dominating the region or its waterways ) India has been active in championing a Free and Open Indo-Pacific. °) ‘The US, Australia, and the members of the ASEAN have all expressed a common view that India plays a greater role in the region ) All of the above Q55. 11837065 Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the Indo-Pacific Economic Framework (IPEF)? a) ‘The IPEF is not exactly a trade pact and the provision of muttiple pillars does entail an option for participants to choose what they want to be a part of. b) It's not a take-it-or-leave-it arrangement, ike most multilateral trade deals are. ©) Since the IPEF is not a regular trade pact, the members so far are not obligated by all the four pillars despite being signatories. ¢) All of the above Passage -6 With a vision to provide quality medicines at an affordable rate for the common man especially the poor, Government of India has set a target to increase the number of Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Kendras (PMBUKs) to 10000 by the of March [1]. Till 31.05.2022, the number of stores has increased to 8735. Under the PMBJP, 739 districts of the country have been covered.PMBI is committed to ensure uninterrupted availability of essential medicines at the PMBJKS. In its journey of last 8 years, starting from the annual turnover of Rs, 8 Crore in year 2014-15, PMBI has clocked its highest monthly sales turnover of Rs. 100 Crore in the month of May, 2022 which in turn has saved around Rs. 600 crore of citizens of the country. In May, 2021, total sales were Rs. 83.77 crore and that was COVID-19 second wave period. People have been able to reduce their out-of-pocket expenditure on medicines with the government intervention of this noble scheme. At present, these Kendras make available more than 1600 medicines and 250 surgical devices including nutraceuticals, Ayush products and Suvidha Sanitary pads which are sold at Rs. 1/- per pad. Under PMBJP, new applications have also been invited to cover 3579 blocks of 406 districts to provide quality generic medicines through Jan Aushadhi Kendras to every citizen of the country. Residents of small towns and blocks headquarters can now avail the opportunity to open Jan Aushadhi Kendras. The scheme provides for incentive of Rs. 5.00 lakh and special incentives of up to Rs. 2.00 lakh for various categories including women, SC/ST, Hill districts, Island districts and North-Eastern States. This will ensure easy reach of affordable medicine to the people in every nook and comer of the country, Q56. 11837065 With a vision to provide quality medicines at an affordable rate for the common man especially the poor, Government of India has set a target to increase the number of Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Kendras (PMBJKS) to 10000 by the of March [1]. Which of the following years has been redacted with [1] in the passage above? a) 2023 b) 2024 ©) 2027 @) 2030 Q 57. 11837065 Janaushadhi Diwas is celebrated every year on a) 7 March b) 7 May ©) 7 June ¢) 7 July Q58. 11837065 Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana (PMBUP)? a) Under PMBJP, Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Kendras are set up across the country so as to reduce the out of pocket expenses for health care. b) ‘The Bureau of Pharma PSUs of India (BPP) under the Department of Pharmaceuticals is involved in coordinating, procuring, supplying and marketing generic medicines through PMBJK. ¢) ‘The procured generic medicines are sold at 50% to 90% lesser prices as compared to the market prices of branded medicines. ) All of the above Q59. 11837065 Janaushadhi Sugam Mobile App has been developed by the Bureau of Pharma PSUs of India (BPP!) under. ) Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers b) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare ¢) Ministry of Finance 4) NITI Aayog Q 60. 11837065 Which of the following statements is Not true regarding the Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY)?a) Itis a national public health insurance fund of the Government of India that aims to provide free access to health insurance coverage for low income eamers in the country. b) More than 90 crore people of the country are eligible for this scheme. ©) People using the program access their own primary care services from a family doctor. d) When anyone needs additional care, then PM-JAY provides free secondary health care for those needing specialist treatment and tertiary health care for those requiring hospitalization, Passage -7 Queen Elizabeth Il, Britain's longest-eigning monarch and a rock of stabilty across much of a turbulent century, died after 70 years on the throne. She was 96. The palace announced she died at Balmoral Castle, her summer residence in Scotland, where members of the royal family had rushed to her side after her health took a turn for the worse. Aink to the aimost-vanished generation that fought World War Il, she was the only monarch most Britons have ever known, and her name defines an age: the modem Elizabethan Era. The impact of her loss will be huge and Unpredictable, both for the nation and for the monarchy, an institution she helped stabilize and modernize across decades of huge social change and family scandals. With the death of the queen, her 73-year-old son Charles automatically becomes monarch, though the coronation might not take place for months. It is not known whether he will choose to call himself King Charies Ill or some other name. ‘The queen's life was indelibly marked by the war. As Princess Elizabeth, she made her first public broadcast in 1940 when she was 14, sending a wartime message to children evacuated to the countryside or overseas. Since Feb. 6, 1952, Queen Elizabeth II reigned over a Britain that rebuilt from war and lost its empire; joined the European Union and then left it; and transformed from industrial powerhouse to uncertain 21st century society. She endured through 15 Prime Ministers, from [1] to Liz Truss, becoming an institution and an icon ~- a fixed point and a reassuring presence even for those who ignored or loathed the monarchy. ‘She became less visible in her final years as age and fraity curtailed many public appearances. But she remained firmly in control of the monarchy and at the center of national life as Britain celebrated her Platinum Jubilee with days of parties and pageants in June 2022. Q 61. 11837085 Who among the following was the first Prime Minister of United Kingdom who served under the Queen Elizabeth II whose name has been redacted with [1] in the passage above? ) Winston Churchill b) Clement Attiee ¢) Herbert Morrison 4) Anthony Eden Q 62. 11837065 Elizabeth II was Queen of the United Kingdom and other Commonwealth realms from 6 February 1952 until her death in 2022. She was queen regnant of sovereign states during her lifetime. a) 15 b) 18 ©) 22 d) 32 Q63. 11837065 The head of the Commonwealth is the ceremonial leader who symbolises “the free association of independent member nations" of the Commonwealth of Nations, an intergovernmental organisation that currently comprises sovereign states.a) 39 b) 46 ©) 52 d) 56 Q 64, 11837065 How many times did Queen Elizabeth II visit to India? a) Two times b) Three times ¢) Four times d) Six times Q65. 11837065 Who among the following is the longest recorded of any monarch of a sovereign country in history? ) Bhumibol Adulyadej —_b) Louis XIV °) 4) Akihito Mohammed bin Rashid Al Maktoum Legal Aptitude Directions for questions 66 to 105: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external knowiedge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied. Passage ~ 1 Under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 there exists following grounds of divorce such as: + Fault Ground (section 13(1)) + Breakdown Ground (section 13(1A)(i), 13(1A)(i)) + Divorce by Mutual Consent (section 13-B) + Customary Divorce (section 29(2)) Fault Ground Under the Hindu Marriage Act 1955, section 13(1), lays down nine fault grounds of divorce. Some of those are Adultery, Desertion, Cruelty, Insanity, Leprosy, Venereal Disease, while others such as Conversion, Or Renunciation of words are typically Hindu grounds. |. Desertion In explanation to sub-section (1) of Section 13, Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, Parliament has explained desertion: "The expression ‘desertion’ means the desertion of the petitioner by the other party to the marriage without reasonable cause and without the consent or against the wish of such party, and includes the wilful neglect of the petitioner by the other party to marriage, and its grammatical variations and cognate expressions shall be construed accordingly’. In other word Desertion means permanent leave or forsaking of one spouse by the other without any sensible reason without the consent of the other. For the offence of desertion so far as deserting spouse is concerned, two essential conditions must be there + the reality of the split and + the desire to finally put an end to cohabitation (animus decidendi) Similarly, two elements are essential so far as the deserted spouse is concemed: + the lack of consent, and + the lack of a valid cause of action for the partner leaving the matrimonial home to render the req referred to above.I. Cruelty Before 1976, Cruelty was not ground for divorce. It was grounds for judicial separation. By the Amendment Act Cruelty is made a ground for divorce. Oxford Dictionary defines the word "cruelty" has not been outlined and i's been utilized with respect to human conduct or human behaviour. i's the conduct with respect to or in respect of marital status duties and obligations. i's a course of conduct and one that is adversely moving the opposite. The cruetty is also mental or physical. intentional, or unintentional Il, Adultery Reydon defines Adultery as "consensual sexual intercourse between a married person and a person of the opposite sex, not the other spouse, during the subsistence of marriage". opposite sex, not the other spouse, during the subsistence of marriage”. In the case of a divorce petition, it is not appropriate, or sufficient, to show that the correspondent had information or reason to believe that the respondent was the petitioner's wife or husband. If the respondent had a partnership with the complete understanding exactly- how co-respondent that he or she wasn't a wife or husband then thal was appropriate. IV. Insanity Under the Marriage Laws (Amendment) Act, 1976, Section 13(ii) petitioner may get a decree of divorce or judicial separation if the respondent has been experiencing consistently or irregularly mental turmoil of such a sort and so much that the petitioner cant sensibly be required to live with the respondent. Q66. 11837065 A and B were married. After 2 years of marriage, they found it quite hard to persist with the marriage due to ideological differences. They decided to get divorced after 1 year as B was 7 months pregnant. A applied for divorce as soon as B gave birth to the child. B filed a case of desertion. Is there desertion in the given case? 1a) There is no desertion in the given case as both A and B have agreed to get divorced. b) This is the case of desertion as B had not consented for mediate divorce and there is no sensible reason to do so. ) This is not a case of desertion 4) The judge shall decide whether itis a case of desertion or not after looking at the facts, Q 67. 11837065 A and B were happily married. A was a corporate manager while B was a housewife. A spent majority of the time in office as his work was very demanding and hectic. B who was alone at home for most of the time developed a romantic relationship with D, their neighbour. When A got to know about the same. He applied for divorce. Can A apply for divorce. ) A can apply for divorce under the ground criminal breach of trust. b) Acan apply for divorce under the ground of adultery. ©) A cannot apply for divorce as he has no evidence to prove that B committed adultery. 4d) Accannot apply for divorce as adultery is no longer a ground for divorce. Q 68. 11837065 X married Y, a businessman. In Y's house everyone treated X lowly and harassed her mentally by hurling abuses and scolding her. Even Y did the same. X underwent a huge mental trauma from this. Can X apply for divorce? a) X cannot apply for divorce as mental trauma does not fall under any category for divorce. b) X can apply for divorce only after committing adultery.©) X can apply for divorce under the ground ‘cruelty’ ) X cannot apply for divorce under cruetty as it shoul involve physical harassment. Q 69. 11837065 Under Hindu marriage act 1955 which of the following is not a ground for divorce? a) Fault ground b) ¢) Customary divorced) Breakup ground Divorce by mutual consent Q70. 11837065 Which of the following statements is false in the light of the above given passage? a) Before 1976, Cruelty was not ground for divorce. b) Under the Hindu Marriage Act 1955, section 13(1), lays down nine fault grounds of divorce. ¢) Adultery is not one of the fault-ground of divorce. ad Desertion means permanent leave or forsaking of one spouse by the other without any sensible reason without the consent of the other. Directions for questions 66 to 105: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each Passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no extemal knowiedge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied. Passage -2 Sabarimala Temple is a Shasta temple located at Sabarimala in the district of Pathanamthitta, Kerala, India. In the past, menstruating age women devotees were not allowed to worship in the Temple. The High Court of Kerala in 1991 forbid women to enter the Temple. In September 2018, the Hon'ble Supreme Court of India held that “admission to Sabarimala should be allowed to all pilgrims regardless of gender, including women in the menstruating-age group.” The Supreme Court's Constitutional Bench further held that any exception placed on women because of biological differences is in breach of the Constitution and that the ban violates the Right to Equality under Article 14 and Freedom of Religion under Article 25. This verdict has led to protests from some quarters. Despite threats of physical assault, several women have been bold and have tried to enter Sabarimala but have failed to reach the holy place. In 2006 a Writ Petition was filed in the Hon'ble Supreme Court by the Indian Young Lawyers Association, seeking entry of women between 10 to 50 years. In 2008 the matter was referred to a 3 Judges Bench. In the instant proceedings, in 2008, the 3 Judge Constitution Bench in majority held that prohibiting women between the age of 10 to 50 years from entering the Sabarimala temple is violative of Article 25(1) and violative of Kerela Hindu Piaces of Public Worship Act 1965. In 2017 the Supreme Court referred the case again to the Constitution Bench. A five-judge Supreme Court Bench in September 2018 permitted women of all ages to join the revered shrine. The Stale Government sought time to implement the verdict, however even after the entry was allowed a large number of followers camped outside the shrine to prevent the entry of women of all ages. In February 2019 a review petition was filed challenging the 2018 Supreme Court Order. The order was expected to be announced on 14 November, 2019 to either uphold or set aside the September, 2018 order. But on 14 November, 2019 the Supreme Court referred the review plea to a larger bench and the matter was rescheduled for 06 February,2019. ‘A Supreme Court's nine-judge Constitution Bench on 06 February, 2020 reserved its order for Monday 10 February, 2020 on whether a five-judge Constitutional Bench could have made a reference to the larger Bench for hearing the ‘Sabarimala judgment. Upon pronouncing the decision, itis expected that the Court will rame issues to be decided by the Bench Q71. 11837065 According to the passage select the statement that can be most plausibly inferred from the author's reasoning: a) The state government of Kerela implemented the order of the Supreme Court. b) The state government of Kerela breached the order of the Supreme Court c) The state government of Kerela failed to implement Supreme Court's order. 4) The state government of Kerela was indifferent towards the Supreme Court's order. Q72. 11837085 Which of the following fact is true with respect to the context of the sentence? a) Only women were not allowed to enter the Sabrimala temple. b) Only women of menstruating age were not allowed to enter the Sabrimala temple. ) Only men were allowed to enter the Sabrimala temple. d) Only women between 10 to 50 years of age were allowed to enter the temple. Q73. 11837065 What is the minimum number of judges required to form a "constitution bench"? a) 3 judges b) 5 judges ©) 7 judges 4d) 9 judges Q 74, 11837065 In the district X of state Y there was temple which remained closed in the aftemoons. Z a devotee of Lord Shiva took a vow to walk barefooted in the scorching heat of the afternoon to temple Y to pay tribute. Finding the temple closed, he filed a suit in the court alleging that fundamental rights have been violated. Decide. a) Z's claim would succeed as his right to equality is violated. b) Z's claim would succeed as his right to religion is violated. ©) Both (a) and (b) 4) Z's claim would fail Q75. 11837065 X was a person belonging to a lower caste community living in village Y. The panchayat of village Y issued a diktat prohibiting the entry of the community to which X belonged in the village temple. X challenged the diktat on the ground of being violative of his fundamental rights. Decide a) X's claim would succeed as his right to equailty is violated b) X's claim would succeed as his right to religion is violated. ¢) Both (a) and (b) 4) X's claim would fail. Directions for questions 66 to 105: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no extemal knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied.Passage -3 The transmission of photographs of "a private part of any person without his or her agreement" is covered under Section 66 E. For the same, the penalty is either three years in prison or a fine of not more than two lakh rupees, or both. In the landmark judgment in Justice K. S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) and Anr. v. Union of India and Ors (2018)., the right to privacy was recently ruled to be guaranteed as a basic right and safeguarded under the Right to Life in Part Ill of the Indian Constitution, Sharing any material that violates a person's privacy is consequently a violation of Article 21 of the Indian Constitution, The publication or transmission of obscene material is covered by Section 67 (described as “any material which is lascivious or appeais to the prurient interest or if its effect is such as to tend to deprave and corrupt persons”). The first conviction carries a sentence of up to three years in jail and a fine of up to five lakh rupees, with successive convictions carrying a sentence of up to five years in prison and a fine of up to 10 lakh rupees. Publishing or sending anything that depicts sexually explicit acts or conduct is punishable under Section 67 A. On a first conviction, the penalty is up to five years in prison and a fine of up to 10 lakhs. The current clause applies since the Bois Locker Room event involved the exchange of modified photographs of girs, On a first conviction, Section 67 B carries a penalty of up to five years in jail and a fine of up to 10 lakhs. This clause encompasses the creation or dissemination of any digital text or photos that show minors “in an obscene, indecent, or sexually explicit manner,” not merely depictions of children in sexual acts or conduct. I's worth noting that the Current situation involves the distribution of indecent or private photos of young giris. As a result, the following section can also be used as a resource. Furthermore, many of the comments and conversations related to obscenity may be included in this area. Section 79(3) (b) states that if mediators fail to "immediately" remove or immobilize access to offensive material “upon receiving actual knowledge, or on being notified by the government or its agency that any information resides in of connected to a computer resource forbidden by the mediator” was being used to commit unlawful acts, they will ot be exempt from liability. Furthermore, according to the Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines) Rules, 2011, mediators must warn “users of computer resources” not to "mass, modify, publish, transmit, display, upload, update any information that is blasphemous, defamatory, obscene, grossly harmful, harassing, pornographic, libelous, pedophilic, invasive of another's privacy, hateful, ethnically offensive," and “harm minor in any way." (All the above-mentioned sections are of information technology act 2000) Q76. 11837065 A was going to buy groceries from his nearby shop. While going on the way, A heard some noise and went to witness it. He witnessed his neighbour, C, a married woman in a compromising position with another man. A captured photos and videotaped the same and forwards it to one of his friends D Decide what are the charges that A can be booked with? ) A can be booked under section 66E of the information and technology acct 2000 b) Acan be booked under section 67 of the information and technology act 2000 ) A can booked under section 66E and section 67 and 67 A of the information and technology act 2000. ) Acan be booked under section 67 A of the information and technology act 2000 Q77. 11837065 D who was a mediator was once informed to remove a sexually content material which was. uploaded in a website. D looked into the video and upon his discretion considered that the video was not sexually content and did not remove it thinking there is some miscommunication. Is this act of the mediator valid?a) ‘The mediator has the discretion to decide whether a video is sexually content or not and therefore his ai b) The act of the mediator is not justified as he shall be held liable for not removing the video. °) ‘The mediator gets hundreds of requests for the removal every day and therefore he needs to use his discretion in a judicious manner. ) The passage does not provide an answer to this question. Q78. 11837065 Which of the following is a false combination of a provision and its charges/sentences? a) Section 66E- Fine of 1.5 lakh rupees. b) Section 67A- a fine of 3 lakhs and imprisonment for 3 years. ) Section 66E- Fine of 2.5 lakh rupees and imprisonment for 2 years, 4) Section 678- Imprisonment for 4 years and fine of 6 lakhs. Q79. 11837065 Balyani was a 16 year old Instagram infiuencer. She was famous for Instagram trends "high schoo!” "belly dancer” among others. One Instagram user @Nurseslappedby3rdjuly was repeatedly sending her abusive messages and made humiliating comments on her posts. He also made a separate profile and started editing Balyani's pictures in an abusive manner. Under which section of the Information Technology act can this person be held liable. a) The said person can be held liable under IPC and not under the information technology act b) The said person can be held liable under section 67A of the IT act 2000 ¢) The said person can be held liable under section 66E of the IT act 2000 ) The said person can be held liable under section 678 of the IT act 2000 Q 80. 11837065 Which of the following statements is false in the light of the above given passage? a) Section 67 8 carries a penalty of up to five years in jail and a fine of up to 10 lakhs. b) In the landmark judgment in Justice K. S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) and Anr. v. Union of india and Ors (2018)., the right to privacy was recently ruled to be guaranteed as a basic right. ‘¢) Right to privacy has been made a part of fundamental right under article 21 of the constitution. ) None of the above. Directions for questions 66 to 105: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied Passage ~4 Section 82 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 under Chapter IV relating to ‘General Exceptions’ provides that any act of a child under 7 years of age is not an offence, *Nothing is an offence which is done by a child under 7 years of age" Thus, no child under 7 years of age can be held criminally responsible. As the child below such an age is incapable of distinguishing between right and wrong, the law confers absolute immunity from criminal prosecution, trial and conviction to such child. While explaining the reason for exempting infants from criminal liability, Blackstone has saidthat infancy is a defect of understanding and therefore, the infants under the age of discretion should not be punished. However, itis pertinent to note that the age of discretion varies from country to country. Section 82 has a wide scope and the protection provided to infants extends not only to offences under the I.P.C. but under local and special laws as well Section 83 of the |.P.C. provides partial immunity from criminal liability to a child who is above 7 and under 12 years of age. It provides that: Nothing is an offence which is done by a child above 7 years of age and under 12, who has ot attained sufficient maturity of understanding to judge the nature and consequences of his conduct on that occasion. 1, The act is committed by the chile 2. The child is above 7 years of age and below 12 years of age. 3. The child has not attained sufficient maturity of understanding to judge the nature and consequences of his conduct on that occasion. This means that a child between 7 to 12 years of age will be absolved from criminal liability only if it can be proved that on the date of commission of the offence, the child had not attained sufficient maturity of understanding to judge the nature and consequences of his conduct. To find out as to whether the child has attained sufficient maturity of understanding, the nature of the act, the conduct of the child before and after the act, his behaviour, and conduct in court are relevant considerations. Example: A, a child aged 10 years goes to his friend B's house and picks up his mother's silver bracelet worth Rs. 4000 which was lying on the table and immediately sold it for Rs. 500 and misappropriated the said money. ‘The conduct of A shows that he was sufficiently mature to understand the nature and consequences of his actions and therefore was guilty of theft under Section 378 of .P.C. Asticle 40(3)(a) of the United Nations Convention on Rights of the Child (UNCRC) provides that the state parties shall establish a minimum age below which children shall be presumed not to have the capacity to infringe the penal law. It also provides that the states shall seek to promote the establishment of laws, procedures and institutions which shall specifically apply to those children who are accused of any offence including measures for dealing with such children without resorting to judicial proceedings. Q 81. 11837085 D, a6 year old, lived with dacoits. He had learnt the art of dacoity and robbery by watching others. Once he stole a purse from one lady after threatening her with the gunpoint. Will D be held liable for robbery in the given case? ‘) D can be held liable for robbery in the given case as he had the knowledge about his act. b) D will be considered under special circumstances and shall be held liable as he had lived with the dacoits and was aware about the gravity of his act. ) D shall not be held liable as he exempted from liability under section 82 of the Indian penal code 1860. d) D shall not be held liabie as he has not committed murder but only dacoity. Had he been committed murder he would be behind bars. Q 82. 11837065 Once C was a 10 year old. Once C and D were sitting inside the car. D asked C to shift the gear of the car assuring that the car shall not move. C enjoyed shifting the gears. After some days C was alone in the carand he shifted the gears of the car. However, this time the car started moving and it went on to hit one girl X. Decide the liability of C? a) C shall be held liable for his act of running over the gil in a negligent manner. b) C shall not be held liable as he shall be protected under section 83 of the Indian penal code 1860. c) C may or may not be protected by the provision of general exception depending upon the discretion of the police. dq) C will be punished as he should have used his rational discretion and common sense before shifting the gears of the car. Q83. 11837065 What efforts have the United Nations put in to encourage states to make sure that the children do ot commit crimes? a) ‘The United Nations has asked the states to bring up vigilant laws with less flexibility which shall keep everybody in tie imespective of their age. ») The United Nations has brought in a new legislation whereby children across the world shall not be held guilty for certain crimes but shall undergo an education programme for committing those mistakes. c) The United Nations promotes the establishment of laws, procedures and institutions which shall specifically apply to those children who are accused of any offence including measures for dealing with such children without resorting to judicial proceedings. a ‘The United Nations promotes states to follow the idea of retributory theory when it comes to juvenile offenders and has asked states to bring a separate piece of legislation for the same. Q 84. 11837065 Which of the following statements is false in the light of the above given passage? a) ‘A child between 7 to 12 years of age will be absolved from criminal liabilty only ifit can be proved that on the date of ‘commission of the offence, the child had not attained sufficient maturity of understanding to judge the nature and ‘consequences of his conduct. b) Section 82 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 under Chapter IV relating to ‘General Exceptions’ provides that any act of ‘a child under 7 years of age is not an offence, "Nothing is an offence which is done by a child under 7 years of age" ¢) Article 40(3)(a) of the United Nations Convention on Rights of the Child (UNCRC) provides that the state parties shall establish a minimum age below which children shall be presumed not to have the capacity to infringe the penal law. a The state can hold a child below 7 years liable oniy in rarest or rare circumstances. This rule has evolved from the Nirbhaya judgement. Q 85. 11837065 D was a 16 year old boy. One day he was asked by his uncle to go to a nearby shop and fetch as many items as possible and run. He also stated that it would be fun to see shopkeeper crying. D in his attempt to run. with the items gets caught and is charged for theft. Decide whether he shall be held guilty? a) D cannot be held guilty as he did not have sufficient intention to commit a crime.b) D shall not be held guilty as it was his uncle who influenced him to commit the said act, ) D shall be held guilty irrespective of who asked him or influenced him to commit the crime, 4) The information in the passage is not sufficient to arrive at an answer. Directions for questions 66 to 105: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no extemal knowiedge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied. Passage -5 Fraud implies and involves any of the following acts committed by a contracting party or his connivance or his agent with the intention of deceiving or inciting another party or his agent to enter into the agreement. + The suggestion, as a fact, of that which is not true by one who does not believe it to be true + The active concealment of a fact by one having knowledge or belief of the fact. + A promise made without any intention of performing it + Any other act fitted to deceive. + Any such act or omission as the law specially declares to be fraudulent. Mere silence as to facts likely to affect the willingness of a person to enter into a contract is not fraud, unless the circumstance of the case is such that, regard being had to them, itis the duty of the person keeping silence to speak, or unless his silence, in itself is, equivalent to speech. Section 17 describes fraud and lists the acts that amount to fraud, which are a false claim, active concealment, promise without the intention of carrying it out, any other deceptive act, or any act declared fraudulent. To constitute fraud, the contracting party, or any other individual with his connivance, or his agent, or to induce him to enter into the agreement, should have performed such acts. The Parties have no duty to speak about facts likely to affect the consent of the other party to the contract, and mere silence does not amount to fraud unless the circumstance of the case shows that there is a duty to speak or silence equivalent to speech, The main difference between fraud and misrepresentation is that in the first case the person making the suggestion does not believe it is true and in the other case he believes it is rue, although in both cases it is a misrepresentation of fact that misleads the promisee. This was held in Rattan Lal Ahluwalia v Jai Janider Parshad. Under common law, fraud will not only render the contract voidable at the option of the party whose consent is so obtained but will also give rise to an action for damages in respect of deceit. Ifa decree is found to have been obtained by fraud, an application moved, even belatedly, would be maintainable. The court has inherent jurisdiction to grant relief on such an application and even principles or res judicata would not apply. Fraud is a conduct either by letter or words, which includes the other person or authority to take a definite determinative stand as a response to the conduct of the former either by words or letter. Indeed, innocent misrepresentation may also give reason to claim relief against fraud. If the party alleging fraud had the facts before it or had the means to know them, it could not be said to have been defrauded, even if a false statement has been made. Further, a contract cannot be merely on a trivial and inconsequential mis-statement or non-disclosure. In Janakiamma v Raveendra Menon, where the plaintiff was aware of the contents of the Will of her father, the partition of property on the death of the father and mother was not set aside on the ground of fraud of not disclosing the contents of the Will; and no fresh partition was ordered.Q 86. 11837065 A went to a watch shop. He was impressed by a Titan watch that had golden coasting inside. A said to B, the shopkeeper "If you don't say anything | presume that the watch is coated with original gold”. B did not say anything. A presumed it to be of gold and brought it. Later he realized that it was not gold. Now he wants to sue B for fraud. Decide, ) A cannot sue B for fraud as he did not willfully deceive or incite the other party to entering an agreement. b) ‘A can file a suit for fraud against B as his act led to deceiving him and buying the watch, presuming it to be of gold. ¢) A cannot sue B for fraud as he himself forced B to speak and it was B's choice to willfully stay silent. ) Acan filea suit for fraud as the quality of gold coating provided by B was cheap and ulterior. Q 87. 11837065 A was a vendor of toys, once B and his daughter visited his shop. A showed a toy and said that “This is a very famous toy and looks like the character Chutki from Chotta Bheem." B bought the toy as his daughter loved the character Chutki. When he realized that the toy was not of character Chutki, he wanted to file a suit of fraud against A. Decide. ) B can file a suit for fraud against A as he dishonestly induced the daughter of B to buy the toy. b) B can file a suit against A for fraud as he knowingly misrepresented the character of the toy with the intention of causing wrongful loss to B. °) B cannot file a suit against A as he did not commit fraud as mentioned under section 17 of Indian contract act 1872 a) The toy looking like Chutki is the mere opinion of A and hence it cannot be considered as fraud under Indian contract act 1872, Q 88. 11837065 D a vendor of jewelry items, brough 10 bracelets believing it to be of silver. He sells one of the bracelets to A telling him that itis a silver bracelet. A later realizes it is not to be a silver bracelet and wants to file a suit against D. Decide. a) A can file a suit against D as he committed fraud against him, b) Aan file a suit for misrepresentation in the given case. ¢) Acannot file a suit against D as he himself was not aware of that not being silver. ) None of the above Q 89. 11837065 According to the passage when does the court have inherent jurisdiction to try a case? a) ‘The court has inherent jurisdiction to try cases when a fraud has been committed under section 17 of Indian contract act 1872 b) ‘The court has inherent jurisdiction to try cases when an act of misrepresentation has been committed under section 18 of Indian contract act 1872. °) The court has inherent jurisdiction to try a case if a decree is found to have been obtained by fraud and even if an application moved belatedly. 4) The court has inherent jurisdiction to try cases of fraud in civil cases and while obtaining a decree.Q 90. 11837065 B went to buy a Saree. She asked the vendor whether the Saree was of Kanchipuram style. Since, the vendor was unaware about the same he did not tell anything. B believing his silence to be an affirmative brough the saree only later to realize that it was not Kanchipuram material. She now wants to file a suit for fraud. Decide. ) B can file a suit against the vendor as his silence has led to deception of the type of Saree. b) B can fle a suit for misrepresentation and not for fraud. ¢) B cannot file a suit for fraud but can file a suit for wilful false inducement. d) B cannot file a suit for fraud as there was no fraud in the act of the vendor. Directions for questions 66 to 105: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no extemal knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied Passage -6 The IPC in chapter XIV (Of Offences Affecting the Public Health, Safety, Convenience, Decency and Morals) prescribes punishment for adulteration of food or drink intended for sale (Section 272) and sale of noxious food or drink (Section 273). Section 272 states that: "Whoever adulterates any article of food or drink, so as to make such article noxious as food or drink, intending to sell such article as food or drink, or knowing it to be likely that the same will be sold as food or drink, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to six months, or with fine which may extend to one thousand rupees, or with both.” Section 273 states that: "Whoever sells, or offers or exposes for sale, as food or drink, any article which has been rendered or has become noxious, or is in a state unfit for food or drink, knowing or having reason to believe that the same is noxious as food or drink, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to six months, or with fine which may extend to one thousand rupees, or with both.” An article of food shall be deemed to be adulterated-—- Section 3(1) (z2) of the Food Act defines when an article of food shall be deemed to be “unsafe food" - (zz) "unsafe food" means an article of food whose nature, substance or quality is so affected as to render it injurious to health: () by the article itself, or its package thereof, which is composed, whether wholly or in part, of poisonous or deleterious substances; or (i by the article consisting, wholly or in part, of any filthy, putrid, rotten, decomposed or diseased animal substance or vegetable substance; or i) by virtue of its unhygienic processing or the presence in that article of any harmful substance; or (iv) by the substitution of any inferior or cheaper substance whether wholly or in part; (W) by addition of a substance directly or as an ingredient which is not permitted; or (vi) by the abstraction, wholly or in part, of any of its constituents; or (vi) by the article being so coloured, flavoured or coated, powered or polished, as to damage or conceal the article or ‘to make it appear better or of greater value than it really is: or (vi) by the presence of any colouring matter or preservatives other than that specified in respect thereof; or (x) by the article having been infected or infested with worms, weevils or insects; or (%) by virtue of its being prepared, packed or kept under insanitary conditions; or(xi by virtue of its being mis-branded or sub-standard or food containing extraneous matter; or (xi) by virtue of containing pesticides and other contaminants in excess of quantities specified by regulations.” Q 91. 11837065 A was a chef at the Royal Hilton hotel in Mumbai. Once A was asked to prepare Halwa for special guests. He was asked to use the ingredients of top quality and to prepare the finest Halwa. A Mixed half kg of pure Ghee to prepare the dish. However. later it was revealed that it was not ghee and the same was Dalida. Now the guests want to hold A liable for adulteration of food under IPC. Decide. ) A shall be held liable for adulteration of food as he mixed daida instead of Ghee b) ‘A shall not be held liable for adulteration as the passage does not suggest that he knowingly or with the intention to aduiterate and serve the same mixed dalda instead of Ghee. ¢) ‘The act of mixing dada in itself is punishable under section 272 of IPC and his intention will not be taken into account. a) ‘A shall not be held liable but the manager of the hotel shall be, as it is his duty to look after the raw materials required for cooking food. Q 92. 11837065 D had a sweet shop. D's laddus were being undersold and were going to waste due to customers not buying the same. One A suggested D to use a color powder that made laddus appear fresh for a longer period of time. By using this color D can use the same laddu for a longer period of time at the shop. The same was not available in normal shops and had to be brought. D used the color which made laddus appear fresh. Can this be considered as adulteration? a) ‘The use of color cannot be considered as adulteration as it only makes the laddus appear fresh for a longer period of time. b) Use of any color and preservatives is banned and the same shall fall under the category of adulteration. ) The said act comes under adulteration of food under Section 3(1) (zz) of the Food Act. ) The said act does not come under adulteration of food under section 3(1)(z2) of the food act. Q.93. 11837065 D was found to have sold adulterated and unfit food in his shop, Golu general store, Now the court ‘wants to punish him for the same. As a judge, which of the following punishment you shall award D? ) D shall be awarded with 10 years of imprisonment.) D shall be awarded with 2 years of imprisonment and a fine, ¢) q) D shall be awarded with imprisonment for 8 months and _D shall be awarded with imprisonment of four months afine only. Q.94. 11837065 Which of the following is not an unsafe food from the following? a) The atticle or food having been infected or infested with worms, weevils or insects. b) By virtue of ts being prepared, packed or kept under insanitary conditions c) By addition of a substance directly or as an ingredient which is not permitted. 4d) By mixing or addition of extra amounts of fructose.@95. 11837065 Which of the following statements is false in the light of the above given passage? a) The IPC in chapter XIV prescribes punishment for adulteration of food or drink intended for sale. b) ‘An article of food shall be deemed to be adulterated Section 3(1) (zz) of the Food Act defines when an article of food shall be deemed to be "unsafe food" ¢) ‘Substitution of any inferior or cheaper substance whether wholly or in part makes the food unsafe. 4) Addition of chemical preservatives to the food that is prescribed to be consumed shall make it unsate food. Directions for questions 66 to 105: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no extemal knowiedge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied Passage -7 ‘A tort is a civil wrong, other than a breach of contract, for which a remedy may be obtained, usually in the form of damages. The three major types of torts are intentional torts, negligence torts, and strict liability torts. Below are some examples of torts to provide you with a better idea of what a tort is. Additionally, you may consider Visiting the Wikipedia Tort page to familiarize yourself with other torts + Intentional Tort - a tort committed by someone acting with general or specific intent. For example, a person may be liable if they kick someone in the leg during class, causing a grievous injury. « Negligence Tort - a tort committed by failure to observe the standard care required by law under the circumstances. For example, a lifeguard may be found liable for negligence if they were on duty when a person drowned. + Strict Liability Tort - a tort that does not depend on intention or proof of negligence, but is instead based on a duty to compensate the harms proximately caused by activity or behavior subject to the liability rule. For example, a dog owner would be liable for a dog bite in California due to strict lability. + Product Liability Tort - a manufacturer's or seller's liability for any injury suffered by the buyer because of the product. For example, a manufacturer may be liable if a car brake is not working properly and causes an accident. Tort law is also distinguished from criminal law in that torts are largely found in the common law, rather than in the statutes. Common law is handed down from generation to generation and continues to change as judges write legal opinions on the cases they hear. Many of the basic principles of tort law are centuries old. Although some of the terms used to define torts - such as assault and battery - are also used in criminal statutes, they are civil wrongs when a victim files suit and asks the court to award money damages. There are other differences between civil and criminal cases. A prosecutor in a criminal case must prove the guilt of the defendant beyond a reasonable doubl. A piaintif in a civil Jawsuit for damages must prove by only a preponderance of the evidence that the defendant committed a tort and that the plaintiff suffered some loss for which she can be compensated. Preponderance of the evidence means the greater weight of the evidence, or that something is more likely true than not true. Medical expenses, loss of income, repair costs, personal injury, and/or pain and suffering are examples of compensable losses. Another important difference between civil and criminal cases is that to convict a defendant in most criminal cases (with some exceptions) the prosecutor must prove beyond a reasonable doubt that the defendant not only did thecriminal act, but that she intended to do it. By contrast, a defendant may be liable for damages in a tort case for an injury that he causes, even if it was an accident. @ 96. 11837065 A sold a Pistol to B. When B tried to use the pistol, the pistol blew off in his hands injuring him, Now B wants to file a suit of tort against B. Which of the following is the correct set of torts under which A can be charged? a) ‘A.can be charged for the tort of strict liability as his action has no defense and it was his duty to make sure that the product was in the correct state. b) ‘can be charged for product liability tort because as seller he had liability for any injury suffered by the buyer because of the product. ¢) ‘can be held liable for intentional tort as he was intentionally selling cheap quality pistols that were blowing off in the buyer's hands. dq) ‘can be charged under any tort irrespective of the type of tort as the incident in itseif fulfils the requirement of a wrongful act. Q 97. 11837065 What is the major difference in establishing burden of proof in civil and criminal cases according to the passage? a) In criminal cases the burden of proof is on the prosecution whil burden of proof. b) In civil cases the burden of proof is on the petitioner and in criminal cases there is no concept of establishing the burden of proof. in civil cases there is no concept of establishing °) ‘A plaintiff in a civil lawsuit for damages must prove by only a preponderance of the evidence while in criminal cases the prosecutor must establish guilt beyond reasonable doubt. a) There is no difference in establis! 1g burden of proof in both civil and criminal cases. In both situations the prosecution/petitioner has the burden of proof. Q98. 11837065 Which of the following statements is incorrect in light of the above given passage? a) The three major types of torts are intentional torts, negligence torts, and strict liability torts, b) Medical expenses, loss of income, repair costs, personal injury, and/or pain and suffering are examples of ‘compensable losses. ¢) When a victim files a suit and asks for money as compensation it can only be a tort. d) None of the above. Q 99. 11837065 A was playing cricket. One B who idolized Jusprit Bubrah, tried bowling a yorker like his idol. A hit a gigantic six on that delivery. The six smashed the window of one C's house and injured C’s son Chintu. Can A be held liable under tort? ) A cannot be held liable under tort as there was no intention to injure Chintu.b) Acannot be held le as the act was an accident and not premeditated, ) A can be held liable for an act of tort. 4) The case is a civil wrong and damages must be awarded as compensation. Q 100. 11837065 Which of the following is the correct analysis of common law in light of the above given passage? a) Common law is a type of law that has evolved from the English-speaking countries and mostly England. b) ‘Common law is a type of law whose genesis takes place in various statutes and one definite statute cannot be considered as its origin. c) ‘Common law is a type of law that has been handed down from generation to generation and continues to change as judges write legal opinions on the cases they hear. dq) ‘Common law is a type of law that has not been written but has been handed over to people from Roman laws and ethical codes, Directions for questions 66 to 108: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied. Passage -8 ‘The Sessions Judge- Section 9 of the CrPc talks about the establishment of the Sessions Court. The State Government establishes the Sessions Court which has to be presided over by a Judge appointed by the High Court. The High Court appoints Additional as well as Assistant Sessions Judges. The Court of Sessions ordinarily sits at such place or places as ordered by the High Court. But in any particular case, if the Court of Session is of the opinion that it will have to cater to the convenience of the parties and witnesses, it shall preside over its sittings at any other place, after the consent of the prosecution and the accused. According to section 10 of the CrPC, the assistant sessions judges are answerable to the sessions judge. ‘The Additional Assistant Sessions Judge- These are appointed by the High Court of a particular state. They are responsible for cases relating to murders, theft, dacoity, pick-pocketing and other such cases in the absence of the Sessions Judge. The Judicial Magistrate- In every district, which is not a metropolitan area, there shall be as many as Judicial Magistrates of first class and of second class. The presiding officers shall be appointed by the High Courts. Every Judicial Magistrate shall be subordinate to the Sessions Judge. Chief Judicial Magistrate- Except for the Metropolitan area, the Judicial Magistrate of the first class shall be appointed as the Chief Judicial Magistrate. Only the Judicial Magistrate of First Class may be designated as Additional Chief Judicial Magistrate. Metropolitan Magistrate- They are established in Metropolitan areas. The High Courts have the power to appoint the presiding officers. The Metropolitan Magistrate shall be appointed as the Chief Metropolitan Magistrate. The Metropolitan Magistrate shall work under the instructions of the Sessions Judge.Executive Magistrate- According to section 20 in every district and in every metropolitan area, an Executive Magistrate shall be appointed by the State Government and one of them becomes District Magistrate. ‘The Supreme Court is the uitimate court, at the top of the Judicial system. It has the supreme judicial authority in our country. Federal Court- Article 131 gives the power of original jurisdiction to the Supreme Cour, to resolve the dispute arising between the Centre and the States or between two States. Interpretation of the Constitution- Only the Apex Court has the power to settle a question based on any issue related to the Constitution. Power Of Judicial Review (Article 137)- All the laws enacted are subjected to scrutiny by the Judiciary. Court of Appeal - The apex court is the highest court for appeal in India. It has the power to hear appeals from all the cases lying in the various High Courts and subordinate courts of our country. A certificate of the grant is to be provided according to Article 132(1), 133(1) and 134 of the Constitution with respect to any judgment, decree or final order of all cases of the High Court involving the question of law. Q 101. 11837065 The sessions court of Rampur District was in the city of Rampur. Once on a particular case, the sessions judge considered it to be suitable to conduct the hearing in Lakhimpur instead of Rampur. The same was challenged by Chintu, a law student contesting that the session court cannot be held at a place other than the place of sitting. Decide. 1a) The sessions judge cannot change the place of hearing without the consultation of an y high court judge. b) The sessions judge, upon his discretion, can change the place of hearing if necessary. ‘c) The seat of hearing of a sessions court can be anywhere within the jurisdiction of the said sessions court. ) The seat of hearing of a session's court is on the basis of discretion of the session's judge. Q 102. 11837065 Which of the following judges will be working in metropolitan areas? a) Chief Judicial magistrate 'b) Judicial magistrate of the 1st class ¢) Metropolitan magistrate 4) Judicial magistrate of the 2nd class. Q 103. 11837065 Which of the following statements is true in the light of the above given passage? a) ‘According to section 20 in every district and in every metropolitan area, a metropolitan Magistrate shall be appointed by the State Government and one of them becomes District Magistrate. b) ‘According to section 10 of the CrPC, the assistant sessions judges are answerable to the additional sessions judge. ¢) The Additional/ Assistant Sessions Judge are appointed by the High Court of a particular state. d) None of the above Q.104. 11837065 The state of A and the state B (Both in India) had a dispute with regard to flow of a river and a dam built around it. Now both the states are at a standstil. Decide by whom and how can this dispute be resolved? ) The dispute between A and B can be resolved by a well-known arbitrator or any arbitration tribunalb) ‘The dispute between A and B shall can be entertained by supreme court under article 131 that is its original jurisdiction ¢) ‘The dispute between A and B can be resolved by the Supreme court under article 136 that is a special leave petition. qd) the dispute between the A and B should be heard by an international tribunal under the aegis of the United nations, Q.105. 11837065 "The judiciary has the power to scrutinize all the laws that have been passed’. Pick the correct option regarding this statement. a) The judiciary can only scrutinize those fields that have been mentioned under article 137 of the constitution. b) The above-mentioned statement is correct and the same has been provided under article 136 c) The above-mentioned statement is correct and the same has been provided under article 137. 4) The judiciary can only scrutinize those laws that have an over lasting impact on the security of the country Logical Reasoning Directions for questions 106 to 135: Read the passages and answer the questions that follow. Passag Prime Minister Modi last week elaborately pitched India as an investment destination that could serve as a manufacturing hub at the heart of global supply chains. The pitch made at the U.S.-India Strategic Partnership Forum comes in the backdrop of the government's keenness to use the disruptions the COVID-19 pandemic has caused to the cross-border movement of goods as an opportunity to lure potential investors, especially those looking to relocate from China, to India. This tact is consistent with recent initiatives to explore supply-chain synergies with other economies, including Japan, as an escalating border feud casts a shadow over India's economic and trade ties with its northern neighbour. The reasoning appears to be that if even a few multinational enterprises can be drawn to set up manufacturing bases, either by shifting facilities or as new additional plants, then not only does the Indian economy stand to gain FDI, new jobs and tax revenue but it also makes a statement. Clearly, officials must have advised Mr. Modi that U.S. businesses were the ideal target given the worsening relationship between Washington and Beijing and the ongoing trade stand-off between the world’s two largest economies. On the face of it, the approach seems inarguably sound. The rub, however, lies in the government's recent '‘Aatmanirbhar Bharat’ initiative, of making India more self-reliant. Over the decades, it has been established that global FDI investors prioritise and are even willing to pay a premium for policy stability and largely barrier-free access to local and international markets. The drive for self-reliance has spurred several Ministries to urge companies and industry sectors to replace imports with "Made in India’ substitutes. From the Shipping Ministry's call for the design and manufacture of indigenous tugboats to auto component makers being told to abjure foreign parts, the thrust of the initiative is evidently ‘import substitution’. It is hard to imagine any Potential foreign investor in manufacturing being ready to source capital goods locally - assuming they are available - even at the cost of possibly compromising on quality or price or both. Betraying the government's anxiety, Mr. Modi took pains to stress that the push for self-reliance should not be interpreted as India turning its back on the world. Separately, from the market access perspective, India's decision to not join the RCEP multilateral trade pact would