St.

Joseph’s International Catholic College

Grade 12 Biology Test:
50 Marks
Topic: Infectious Diseases:

Name: ___________________________________________ Class: ______ Date: 22nd July 2021

Section A – Multiple Choice (20 marks)

1. The lymphatic system is a collection of vessels and each lymph nodes separate to the
circulatory system.

Which cells are likely to be in abundance in lymph nodes?

(A) Neurons (C) Macrophages
(B) Muscle cells (D) Red blood cells

2. What is the role of the histamine in the inflammatory response?

(A) Produce pus (C) Increase the rate of meiosis
(B) Prevent clotting (D) Vasodilation of the blood vessels

3. Which of the following produces antibodies?

(A) Plasma B cells (C) Helper T cells
(B) Macrophages (D) Cytotoxic T cells

4. In 1862, a scientist showed that heating for 30 minutes at 55oC killed the micro-organisms
that soured wine. Identify this scientist.
(A) Robert Koch (C) Louis Pasteur
(B) Ronald Ross (D) Edward Jenner

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5. What term best describes the engulfing and destruction of bacteria or foreign bodies?
(A) Exocytosis (C) Phagocytosis
(B) Vaccination (D) Immunisation

6. Antiviral medications:
(A) Kill viruses
(B) Inhibit the development of the virus
(C) Destroy nearly every type of cell
(D) Rupture the viral plasma membrane causing lysis

7. Many ancient cultures recognised the relationship between the survival from a disease and
that person’s immunity for that disease. For example, after a typhus epidemic in Athens,
Thucydides (460 – 400 BC) wrote ……..none was ever attacked (by the pathogen) a second time
or with a fatal result.
Which of the following gives current understanding of this relationship?
(A) Exposure to antigens results in the production of antibodies and memory cells.
(B) Antigens entering the body induce phagocytosis at a higher level of activity.
(C) Antibodies of pathogens stimulate immune response and increased phagocytosis.
(D) Complement proteins cause the release of histamine which prevents the pathogen
reproducing.

8. The diagram shows the defences against infection.

Which of the following is most likely to occur at the point labelled ‘X’?
(A) Secretion of mucus
(B) Lysosomes of phagocytes release enzymes toxic to micro-organisms
(C) Killer T cells secrete interleukin which modulate the function of the immune system.
(D) Plasma cells synthesise antibodies which move into the bloodstream and tissue spaces.

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9. Sydney water is owned by New South Wales Government and provides safe drinking water to
the city free of infectious pathogens. Most of the drinking water needs little treatment due to
protection of catchment areas.
Which of the following describes a way in which drinking water can be treated with the correct
purpose of that treatment?
(A) Chlorination to reduce tooth decay (C) Sludge protection to kill microbes
(B) Sedimentation to suspend particles (D) Screening to filter out large debris.

10. Which of the following describes the relationship between a parasite and its human host?
(A) Cause the human to produce antigens
(B) Benefits the parasite but harms the host
(C) Initiates the inflammatory response in the human
(D) Stimulates the production of interleukins by the parasites.

11. What symptoms would you look for if a plant was suffering from a fungal disease?
(A) Large galls on fruits
(B) Burrowing tunnels into fruits through stems and leaves
(C) Yellowing and mottling of leave, some with deformed state.
(D) White or ash-grey film of mildew over leaf surface.

12. The diagram shows a type of immunity in which antibodies are produced and secreted by
special cells.

Which of the following correctly names special cell type 1 and special cell type 2 respectively?
(A) T cell and macrophage (C) B cell and plasma B cell
(B) Macrophage and T cell (D) Phagocyte and memory cell

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13. Which group only contains specific immune responses?
(A) Immunisation, cilia
(B) Vaccination, antibody production
(C) Mucous membrane, complement
(D) Phagocytosis, stomach acid production

14. Certain chemicals are known to inhibit the action of specific enzymes, e.g. penicillin prevents
bacteria making their cell walls.
Which of the following offers the best explanation for this inhibition?
(A) Penicillin made of cellulose in a form which cannot be used by bacteria
(B) Penicillin reacts with cellulose so there is no substrate to make cell walls
(C) Penicillin blocks the active site of an enzyme involved in making the cell wall
(D) Penicillin changes the pH increasing the acidity so enzymes cannot function.

15. Many bacteria are found on the skin. The genera Staphylococcus, Micrococcus,
Corynebacterium and Propionibacterium are considered ‘normal’ flora.
Which of the following could be used as a safety measure to temporarily dispose of this
normal flora to prevent infection as is needed during an operation or surgery?
(A) Ingest an antibiotic such as penicillin
(B) Expose all vital areas to gamma radiation
(C) Cover all the areas with petroleum jelly to form an artificial impenetrable covering
(D) Wash all areas with antimicrobial preparation such as an iodine-containing preparation

16. Comparing the blood of sheep that had died of anthrax with the blood of healthy sheep,
Robert Koch (1843 – 1910) found that the blood of the diseased sheep contain small rod
shaped organisms. The discovery became the first step in Koch’s postulates.
What is this first step in Koch’s postulates?
(A) The organism must be grown in pure culture
(B) The organism must be seen under the microscope in all organisms
(C) The microbe causing the disease must be isolated and grown in pure culture
(D) The microbe causing the disease must be found in each diseased organism.

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17. The diagram shows clonal selection.

The correct interpretation of this diagram is:

X Y Z
Antibodies shed from Memory cells and plasma cells
(A) Antigen binds B cells
cell surface secrete antibodies
Antigen binds to one Plasma cells secrete antibodies,
(B) Selected cell proliferates
type of receptor memory cells long lived.
Antigen binds to T Antibody and antigen Cells divide making and
(C)
cells form two types of cells releasing more antigens
Virus binds to cell Virus reproduces and bursts
(D) Virus enters cell
receptor from cell

18. One of the first recorded incidences of transplant operations was in the 3rd century AD when
Saint Kosmas and Saint Damian transplanted a leg onto the white recipient from a dead
Ethiopian. Modern transplant operations often use drugs, such as corticosteroids, to suppress
the immune response.
Which type response leads to rejection of grafted tissue?
(A) Phagocytic response (C) Cell mediated response
(B) Inflammatory response (D) Antibody mediated response

19. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) was independently observed in the 1920s by two German
physicians Hans Creutzfeldt and Alfons Jakob. This disease a mental degenerative disease
where the patient gradually loses memory and intellect, and has difficulty performing simple
tasks. The disease causes microscopic vacuoles to form in neurons so that they appear
‘sponge-like’, hence the name of spongiform encephalopathy disease.
What type of pathogen is believed to be the cause of CJD?
(A) Virus (C) Bacteria
(B) Prion (D) Protozoa

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 20. The genome of the two chromosomes of Vibrio cholerae has been completely sequenced. One
locus allows the bacteria to take genes from other organisms, e.g. viruses and this feature
makes it highly adaptive. It has taken genes from viruses to increase its ability to stick to the
intestinal wall and also genes for its toxin.
How could this information be used to aid the fight against cholera?
(A) We can make mutant cholera bacteria that are not soluble
(B) It will assist finding a predator for vibrio cholerae
(C) It will assist making antibiotics which target genome areas for parasitism
(D) It will allow gene splicing to remove the locus that gives the bacteria the ability to take
genes from viruses.

Section B: Written response (30 marks)

21. Copy and complete the table to compare natural and acquired immunity. (4 marks)
Feature Natural immunity Acquired immunity

How it
develops

Short
duration
immunity

22. During this topic, you performed a first-hand investigation to gather information about
microbes in food or water.
(a) Explain the procedure you followed. (4 marks)
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(b) Identify two safety procedures you needed to follow during this investigation. (2 marks)
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23. On Tuesday, 12 September 2017, the Sydney Morning Herald newspaper reported about a
new meningococcal combination vaccine that targets the four strains of meningococcal
bacteria and its approval for infants as young as two months.
The vaccine MENVEO offers immunity for the meningococcal strains A, C, W and Y. Currently
the national immunisation program offers a free vaccine against meningococcal C for 12
months olds.
The new combination vaccine is not subsidized and the cost of the vaccine is likely to vary
depending on individual pharmacies and locations. Overall incidence of invasive
meningococcal disease in Australia has decreased since the C vaccine was added to the
immunisation schedule. The number of meningococcal Y and W has risen in the past three
years by at least 50%, professor Booy said. The disease can be fatal if not diagnosed within 24
hours.
How does this article show a procedure that prevents the spread of disease and the
effectiveness of the pharmaceuticals in controlling infectious disease? (4 marks)
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24. Outline how one disease results from an imbalance of microflora in humans. (4 marks)
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25. Discuss why the immune response poses a problem for people undergoing gene therapy. (4m)
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26. Whooping cough (pertussis) is caused by bacterium Bordetella pertussis and is an extremely
contagious respiratory disease that involves uncontrolled coughing and vomiting. The
following data was collected by the National Notifiable Disease Surveillance System for
notifications of Pertussis, Australia in the period 2001 – 2017
(a) Plot this on the graph. (3 marks)

(b) What conclusion can be drawn from this data? (1 mark)

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27. Distinguish between antibiotic and antiviral medications using examples to show their use in
treatment strategies for the control of infectious disease. (5 marks)
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End of Test

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