St.

Josephs International Catholic College – Grade Twelve (12) Biology Semester Exam, 2021:

St. Joseph’s International Catholic College

Wednesday 23rd June, 2021
Term 2 Examination

12 Biology

General Instructions
▪ Reading Time: 10 minutes.
Total marks – 100

▪ Exam time: 2 hours 30 minutes

Section A:
▪ Write using black or blue pen. Multiple choice questions

▪ You may use pencil to draw or complete Questions 1 – 40

diagrams. Each question is worth 1 mark each (40 marks)
▪ Attempt ALL questions. Do not waste your
time on a question you find too difficult. Go
onto the next question and come back to it
Section B:
when you have time at the end of the Short and extended response questions
test/exam.
Questions 41-50 worth 60 marks
▪ Use the separate answer sheets to answer
the questions.

▪ Write you name, date and class on the

separate answer sheet provided separately
to the question paper.

Do not write or start the Exam until you are told to start.
Time allowed for this Exam is 2 hours 30 minutes

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 St. Josephs International Catholic College – Grade Twelve (12) Biology Semester Exam, 2021:

Section A: Multiple Choice Questions:

Choose the most correct answer by writing the letter of the correct answer on the answer sheet.

Question 1
Two students were testing the amount of fertilizer that would best promote the growth of strawberries in a
garden.
Which of the following could be an unavoidable source of experimental error?
A. length of the study C. the cost of watering the plants
B. variation in the strawberry plants D. fertilization during the study

Question 2
The diagram below shows Rosalind Franklin’s x-ray diffraction image of DNA.
How did this evidence affect the work of Watson and Crick?
A. It was used to determine the physical structure of DNA.
B. It was used to identify the four bases that make up DNA.
C. It was used to develop the theory of independent assortment.
D. It was used to show that DNA was the molecule of inheritance.

Question 3
A couple has a child with Down syndrome when the mother is 39 years old at the time of delivery.
Which is the most probable cause?
A. The woman inherited this tendency from her parents.
B. One member of the couple carried a translocation.
C. One member of the couple underwent nondisjunction in somatic cell production
D. One member of the couple underwent nondisjunction in gamete production.

Question 4
Which of the following is an advantage for animals using internal fertilisation rather than external fertilisation?
A. It prevents dehydration of gametes.
B. It involves large numbers of gametes.
C. It relies on adaptations such as mating rituals.
D. It allows gametes to combine to form unique offspring.

Question 5
Which of the following sequences represents chromosome number during fertilization?
A. n + n ------> 2n C. n + n ------> n
B. 2n ------> n + n D. 2n + 2n ------> n

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Question 6
If a corn plant has a genotype of Ttyy, what are the possible genetic combinations that could be present in a
single grain of pollen from this plant?
A. Ty, ty C. TY, Ty, ty
B. TY, ty D. Ty, ty, tY, TY

Question 7
The table below lists the typical diploid number of chromosomes of several different organisms.
Which of the following is the best explanation for why the chromosome number
is an even number in each of these organisms?
A. It is only a coincidence; many other organisms have an odd number of
chromosomes.
B. The diploid chromosome number is always even so that when mitosis
occurs each new cell gets the same number of chromosomes.
C. The diploid chromosome number represents pairs of chromosomes, one
from each parent, so it is always an even number.
D. Chromosomes double every time the cell divides, so after the first
division, the number is always even.

Question 8
In fruit flies, the gene for red eyes (R) is dominant and the gene for sepia eyes (r) is recessive.
What are the possible combinations of genes in the offspring of two red-eyed heterozygous flies (Rr)?
A. RR only C. Rr and rr only
B. rr only D. RR, Rr, and rr only

Question 9
The insertion of working copies of a gene into the cells of an individual who has a genetic disorder to attempt
to rectify it, is the fundamental process in which of the following?
A. Selective breeding C. Hybridisation
B. Gene therapy D. Cloning

Question 10
If a human baby boy inherits a recessive allele from his mother, in which circumstance would he most
likely show the trait coded for by the recessive allele?
A. The baby inherits the dominant allele from his father.
B. The allele is on an autosomal chromosome and the baby is a twin.
C. The allele is on the X chromosome.
D. The allele is on the Y chromosome.

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Question 11
Fur color in cats is controlled by an autosomal gene that can occur in the dominant form, (B), or the recessive
form, (b). The length of the cat’s fur is controlled by another autosomal gene that occurs in the dominant form,
(S), or the recessive form, (s). The table below shows the traits for these allele codes.
The following genotypes were found in a male cat and a female cat.
BbSs (male) bbSS (female)
Which one of the following choices is true of the phenotype of
offspring from these parents?
A. All offspring will have black fur.

B. All offspring will have white fur.

C. All offspring will have long-haired fur.

Question 11
D. All offspring will have short-haired fur.

Question 12
5' ATCAGCGCTGGC 3'
The above sequence of DNA is part of a gene. How many amino acids are coded for by this segment?
A. 4 C. 12
B. 8 D. 24

Question 13
A scientist puts nucleotide chains of UUUUUU in a test tube under conditions allowing protein synthesis. Soon
the test tube is full of polypeptide chains composed of only the amino acid phenylalanine.
What does this experiment indicate?
A. The amino acid phenylalanine is composed of uracil.
B. UUU codes for the amino acid phenylalanine.
C. Protein synthesis malfunctions in test tubes.
D. Most proteins contain only one type of amino acid.

Question 14
The clear protein of an egg white becomes opaque and firm when cooked because the heat
A. mutates the DNA. C. stops protein formation.
B. turns the protein into carbohydrates. D. changes the protein structure.

Question 15
Which of the following base pair sequences could be produced in DNA replication?
A. 5' AGTCUT 3' C. 5' AGTCAT 3'
3' TCUGTA 5' 3' CTGACG 5'
B. 5' AGTCAT 3' D. 5' AGTCAT 3'
3' TCAGTA 5' 3' UCAGUA 5'

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Question 16
Semi-conservative replication of DNA refers to the idea that
A. DNA molecules need to unwind before duplication begins.
B. each new DNA molecule contains two new single RNA strands.
C. the two strands of DNA molecules run in opposite directions.
D. each half of the original DNA molecule is joined with a new complementary DNA strand.

Question 17
A genetic disorder due to a recessive allele (a) is lethal in homozygous individuals (aa), whereas heterozygous
individuals (Aa) have no symptoms.
Based on this information, which of the following is likely to result?
A. The disorder will quickly be eliminated since no recessive homozygotes will survive to reproduce.
B. The disorder will be maintained in the population through the reproduction of heterozygotes.
C. Only homozygous dominant (AA) individuals will survive.
D. The prevalence of the disorder will increase over time.

Question 18
A species of finch has been studied on one of the geographically isolated Galapagos Islands for many years.
Since the island is small, the lineage of every bird for several generations is known. This allows a family tree of
each bird to be developed. Some family groups have survived and others have died out.
The groups that survive probably have
A. interbred with other species. C. found new places on the island to live.
B. inherited some advantageous variations. D. been attacked by more predators.

Question 19
A population of termites initially consists of darkly colored and brightly colored members. After several
generations, the termite population consists almost entirely of darkly colored members because the brightly
colored termites are easier for a predatory species of insectivores to locate.
This situation is an example of
A. the evolution of a new species. C. artificial selection.
B. natural selection. D. adaptive radiation.

Question 20
A small population of chimpanzees lives in a habitat that undergoes no changes for a long period.
How will genetic drift probably affect this population?
A. It will accelerate the appearance of new traits.
B. It will promote the survival of chimpanzees with beneficial traits.
C. It will increase the number of alleles for specific traits.
D. It will reduce genetic diversity.

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Question 21
Asexual reproduction is common in some organisms.
Which of the following processes is not an example of asexual reproduction?
A. binary fission C. budding
B. pollination D. vegetative propagation

Question 22
Which statement best describes the relationship between the blood of a human fetus and the blood of the
mother?
A. Their blood systems are separate only at certain times in development and connected at
other times.
B. The blood flows directly from the mother into the fetus.
C. Their blood systems are separate and no materials are exchanged.
D. Their blood systems are separate, but certain materials pass from one to the other.

Question 23
What is a gene?
A. is a unit of heredity C. regulates protein production in cells
B. may have alternate forms called alleles D. all of the above

Question 24
Which of the following does not describe selective breeding?
A. breeding corn crops with larger, fuller ears of corn by selecting only those plants for breeding
that have grown large, full ears of corn
B. developing a herd of dairy cattle by selecting only those cows that produce large quantities of
milk for breeding programs
C. applying genetic modification to insert a pesticide resistance gene into canola plants
D. developing large, fleshy chickens for the market by allowing only the largest, fleshiest chickens to
breed

Question 25
In which of the following do both processes result in genetic variation of offspring?
A. DNA mutation and gamete formation
B. Cell differentiation and gamete formation
C. DNA mutation and polypeptide production
D. Cell differentiation and polypeptide production

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Question 26
A large number of sperm cells are produced by males every day. This large number of sperm cells increases the
chance that
A. at least one sperm cell will be reached when the eggs swim toward the sperm cells in the
ovary.
B. several sperm cells will unite with an egg so the fertilized egg will develop properly
C. some of the sperm cells will survive to reach the egg
D. enough sperm cells will be present to transport the egg from where it is produced to
where it develops into a fetus

Question 27
It is suspected that a child has a recessive, sex-linked condition. An initial pedigree was developed.
Which of the following is most likely to depict this initial pedigree?

Question 28
An evolutionary biologist was investigating the timeframes of genetic divergence between different species of
Acacia. She hypothesised that she would get a better indication of the time at which Acacia species diverged by
using non-coding DNA segments rather than coding DNA segments.

Why is this hypothesis most likely to be supported by the evidence?

A. Coding DNA segments never undergo mutation.
B. Coding DNA segments are less stable over time due to the selection pressures of the environment.
C. Non-coding DNA segments are stable over time and cannot be used as evidence of genetic divergence.
D. Non-coding DNA segments will show greater diversity after divergence as they are not exposed to
selection pressures.

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Question 29
Fossil evidence indicates that the Australian environment in the past supported a large and diverse range of
megafauna. The megafauna have now been displaced by a variety of smaller marsupials.
What is the best explanation for this?
A. Smaller marsupials coped with climatic changes, and survived.
B. Larger marsupials reduced in size so as to cope better with climatic changes.
C. A meteorite collision caused a mass extinction of the megafauna.
D. Introduced plant species were not a suitable food for the megafauna.

Question 30
Polycystic kidney disease is a rare disorder affecting 1 : 1250 live-born infants. The pedigree shows the
incidence of this disease in a family.

Which of the following statements best describes the mechanism of inheritance of this disorder?
A. Sex-linked and dominant C. Non-sex-linked and dominant
B. Sex-linked and recessive D. Non-sex-linked and recessive

Question 31
Which of the following statements best describes the process of hybridisation frequently used in agriculture?
A. The transfer of a gene from one species to another
B. The crossing of two genetically different strains of a species
C. The production of genetically identical offspring by cloning
D. The artificial selection and breeding of suitable offspring within a species

Question 32
The following events occur after DNA is subjected to radiation. The events are listed in no specific order.
P: Mutation R: Change in protein structure
Q: Change in cell activity S: Change in polypeptide sequence

What is the correct sequence of steps?

A. P, Q, R, S B. S, R, Q, P
C. S, Q, P, R D. P, S, R, Q

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Question 33
Julianne was doing a literature review on biotechnology and wanted to see how biotechnology research could
positively benefit people who suffered from Type 1 diabetes. She found several potential measures that were
being explored to help people with diabetes.

Which of the following measures does NOT use biotechnology?

A. Gene therapy in which genetic information is introduced into the cells of the pancreas
B. The screening of genes to inform potential parents of the risk of their child developing Type 1 diabetes
C. The use of auto-monitoring insulin pumps that can detect when a patient’s insulin levels are dropping
too low
D. Collecting survey data on the prevalence of Type 1 diabetes in different communities to ensure insulin
supplies are maintained at sufficient levels

Question 34

Which technique would be used to measure the extent of the evolutionary relationship between the platypus
and the eight other animals mentioned in the poem above?
A. Identifying fossils that are transitional between the platypus and the animals listed
B. Sampling DNA and identifying similarities between the animals listed
C. Comparing the anatomical features of each animal
D. Comparing the embryos of each animal

Question 35
Which of the following sequences most correctly represents the results of
a reaction involving an enzyme?
A. P1 + S → P2 + E C. P1 + P2 + E → S + E
B. S + E → P1 + P2 D. S + E → P1 + P2 + E

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Question 36
Which statement concerning production of offspring is correct?
A. Production of offspring is necessary for a species to survive, but it is not necessary for an
individual to survive.
B. An organism can reproduce without performing any of the other life processes.
C. Production of offspring is necessary for an individual organism to survive, while the other
life processes are important for a species to survive.
D. Reproduction is a process that requires gametes in all species.

Question 37
A New Zealand research team inserted a single gene into an onion to reduce the activity of the enzyme that
makes your eyes water, resulting in an onion that you can cut without crying.

Which term best describes this team’s process?

A. Cloning C. Genetic engineering
B. Artificial pollination D. Artificial insemination

Question 38
Which process usually results in offspring that exhibit new genetic variations?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Question 39
Identify which series best summarises processes involved in producing a transgenic species:
A. induction of ovulation, artificial insemination, normal intrauterine development
B. extracting target gene from DNA of one species, copying the gene, inserting it into a recipient
organism
C. gene shearing to obtain target gene, gene replication, microinjection of gene into cell of another
species
D. extracting nucleus from a parental somatic cell, transferring nucleus to enucleated ovum, implanting
ovum in uterus.

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Question 40
Identify the two methods commonly used for inserting transgenic plasmids in the bacterial transformation
process:
A. Vector transfer and microinjection
B. PCR and co-culture
C. Heat shock and electrolysis
D. Heat shock and electroporation

Section B: Short and extended response questions (60 marks)

Question 41 (8 marks)
The diagrams below represent pollination, fertilisation and development of the embryo from the zygote in
plants.

a) Study the diagram to answer the following questions.

i) Name the type of nuclear division by which haploid gametes are produced by the anthers
and the ovary. (1)

ii) What is the significance of this process in sexual reproduction? (2)

iii) What does the ovary generally become after the ovule (egg) has been fertilised? (1)

b) Self-incompatibility is the ability of many plant species to reject their own pollen in favour of pollen
from another, less-closely related, individual.
Give two reasons why self-incompatibility is an advantage for these plants? (2)

c) Describe two methods by which plants may reproduce asexually. (2)

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Question 42 (6 marks)
The diagram below shows the female's reproductive system. Use the letters in the diagram to answer the
following two questions.
1) a) State where the permanent method of birth control can
be applied. (1)
b) Identify where the contraceptive pill was designed to
have its effects. (1)

2) In vitro fertilization (IVF) has been developed to help

women with a particular condition. What condition is that?
(1)
3) a) A hormone that is associated with the human sexual
cycle spontaneously induces ovulation when it is increased.
What is the name of this hormone? (1)

b) Prostate cancer is becoming a serious concern for men.

How does this form of cancer affect a man's ability to
produce viable sperm? (1)
4. State one way in which a baby can acquire HIV from its infected mother. (1)

Question 43 (6 marks)
‘The application of modern reproductive techniques in plant and animal breeding limits genetic diversity.’
Discuss this statement.

Question 44 (7 marks)
‘Artificial selection and animal cloning are similar biotechnologies, used to create organisms with improved
characteristics.’

Evaluate this statement. In your response, include reference to the processes involved in the two
biotechnologies.

Question 45 (5 marks)
Rickets is a bone disorder that affects infants and young children. It involves the softening and weakening of
bones. It is usually caused by a lack of vitamin D. calcium ions or phosphate ions. A rare form of rickets that
cannot be treated with vitamin D supplement therapy is caused by a mutant allele on the X chromosome.
The figure below shows a pedigree chart for a family that has a history of this condition.

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i) State the genotypes of Individuals 3 and 9. (2)

ii) Explain why all daughters of Individuals 1 and 2 have the disease. (3)

Question 46 (8 marks)
Study the two diagrams below and answer the questions that follow.

A. Name the two (2) components of DNA helix that make up its backbone. (2)
B. (i) Name the meiotic phase demonstrated in a' with respect to chromosome distribution. (1)
(ii) What would be the correct name used to describe cells ‘b ’ and ‘c' at the end of the full meiosis
stage? (1)
Refer to Diagram 1 below to answer part C and Diagram 2 to answer part D.

C. (i) The plasmid was used as a …………………………….. (1)

(ii) Identify and state the donor organism. (1)
D. What must genes interact with to generate such a pattern of inheritance (shown in Diagram 2)? (1)
E. Name this biotechnology. (1)

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Question 47 (7 marks)
Students conducted preliminary experiments across different species to analyse their DNA base composition.
The table shows the experimental data collected.
Species % %
Adenine Guanine
A 38 12
B 26 22
C 8 40
D 20 32
E 33 18
(a) On the grid below, plot the % Adenine vs % Guanine of the species analysed AND draw a suitable line of
best fit. (3)

(b) Identify the relationship shown by the data. (1)

(c) Explain the relationship shown by the data. (3)

Question 48 (5 marks)
The yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae cannot naturally ferment the sugar xylose. Low value biomass, such as
straw and wood fibres, contains up to 20% xylose. S. cerevisiae was modified to enable it to produce ethanol
from xylose. Information on the two species involved in making the modified S. cerevisiae is shown in the table.

Type of organism Species Relevant reaction End product

Utilises xylose in
Bacteria Burkholderia cenocepacia Fructose
metabolism
Utilises fructose in
Yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae Ethanol
metabolism

(a) Explain why biotechnology was needed to modify S. cerevisiae. (2)

(b) Two strains of genetically modified S. cerevisiae were produced. The two strains were compared under
the same conditions. The results are shown.

Justify which of these two strains would be better to use to produce commercial quantities of ethanol using
low value biomass. In your answer, refer to information from the graph. (3)

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Question 49 (3 marks)
The table compares some of the amino acids present in a particular protein in different primates.

Using these data and your knowledge of the characteristics of primate groups, explain why using different
types of data improves the reliability of estimated evolutionary relationships.

Question 50 (5 marks)
‘Genes influence proteins and proteins influence genes.’
Evaluate this statement with reference to the structure and function of genes and proteins.

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