Name: ___________________________ Student ID Number: _________________________

Section C
EXAM VERSION A
BioSci 93
Final Exam
KEY
December 10, 2012
1. Ensure that you are sitting at your assigned seat.

2. Record your Name and Student ID on the cover of the exam

booklet. Keep your student ID out and visible. We will be checking during
the exam.

3. You must use pencils only; exams completed with pens will not be scored.

4. Write in your name, lecture, exam version AND bubble and write in your student
ID # on the scantron.

5. Select the best answer for each question. Each question is worth 2 points except
question number 1, which is not worth any points but you will likely fail if you get it
wrong.

Acts of dishonesty during the examination will result in disqualification (score of 0

points) and a permanent letter added to your university transcript file.
1. I am taking exam version
a. A
b. B

2. Action potentials move along axons:

a. more slowly in axons of large than in small diameter.
b. by the direct action of acetylcholine on the axonal membrane.
c. by activating the sodium-potassium "pump" at each point along the axonal membrane.
d. more rapidly in myelinated than in non-myelinated axons.
e. by reversing the concentration gradients for sodium and potassium ions.

3. Why do chromosomes condense during mitosis:

a. to increase their potential energy
b. to provide haploid cell formation
c. to allow chromosomes to move without breaking
d. to allow chromosomes to fit within the nuclear envelope

4. One statement below characterizes what was particularly important to Mendel’s success in
discovering the laws of segregation and independent assortment.
a. Mendel chose pea plant characteristics such as purple flowers, yellow seeds, and round
seeds.
b. Mendel chose pea plant characteristics where one characteristic is dependent on one
gene.
c. Mendel chose pea plant characteristics with codominance relationships.
d. Mendel chose pea plant characteristics where one gene has pleiotropic effects.
e. Mendel chose pea plant characteristics in which environment affects flower color.

5. ATP hydrolysis directly powers the movement of:

a. K+ out of cells.
b. Na+ out of cells.
c. Na+ into cells.
d. Ca++ into cells.
e. Cl- into cells.

6. A frameshift mutation could result from:

a. a base insertion only.
b. a base deletion only.
c. a base substitution only.
d. deletion of three consecutive bases.
e. either an insertion or a deletion of a base.

7. In the cross PpRRYy X ppRryy, what fraction of the offspring will have purple flowers and
round, yellow seeds? P=dominant allele for purple, R=dominant allele for round,
Y=dominant allele for yellow, p=recessive allele for purple, r=recessive allele for round,
y=recessive allele for yellow
a. 1/32
b. 1/4
c. 1/2
d. 3/8
e. 3/4
8. In the late 1950s, Meselson and Stahl grew bacteria in a medium containing "heavy"
nitrogen (15N) and then transferred them to a medium containing 14N. Which of the results
in the figure above would be expected after one round of DNA replication in the presence of
14N?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E

9. A couple have one child and then three years later have a second child. The probability of
the first child being male is _______. The probability of the second child being male is
_________.
a. 25%, 75%
b. 50%, 50%
c. 75%, 25%
d. 50%, 25%

10. Two alleles of the same gene that contribute to the phenotype in separate and
distinguishable ways is considered what type of inheritance pattern?
a. recessive inheritance
b. epistasis
c. codominance
d. pleiotropy
e. incomplete dominance

11. The transport of membrane-bound proteins in vesicles is dependent on what cellular

structures?
a. Microtubules and motor proteins
b. Actin filaments and microtubules
c. Actin filaments and ribosomes
d. Centrioles and motor proteins
e. Actin filaments and motor proteins

12. Genomic imprinting refers to the ___________________________________ where as barr

body formation refers to ______________________________.
a. silencing of almost all genes on x chromosome; silencing of one allele on x chromosome
b. silencing of one allele of a certain gene; silencing of one allele on x chromosome
c. silencing of almost all genes on an autosome; silencing of one allele on x chromosome
d. expression of one allele of a certain gene; silencing of one allele of a certain gene
e. silencing of one allele of a certain gene; silencing of almost all genes on x chromosome
Use the following model of a eukaryotic transcript to answer the next question.
5' UTR E1 I1 E2 I2 E3 I3 E4 UTR 3'
13. Which components of the previous molecule will also be found in mRNA in the cytosol?
a. 5' UTR I1 I2 I3 UTR 3'
b. 5' I1 I2 I3 3'
c. 5' UTR E1 E2 E3 E4 UTR 3'
d. 5' E1 I1 E2 I2 E3 I3 E4 3'
e. 5' E1 E2 E3 E4 3'

14. Chemiosmosis in plants is used to generate ATP by creating a high H+ concentration in the
_________________, which ultimately yields ATP being produced in the
________________.
a. intermembrane space; stroma
b. matrix; chloroplast
c. stroma; intermembrane space
d. thylakoid space; stroma
e. mitochondrion; thylakoid space

15. Icebergs can be enormous in size and yet they still float on top of water. What property of
ice makes this possible?
a. Liquid water has a high surface tension that supports the ice
b. The Ice contains pockets of air that keep it afloat
c. Hydrogen bonds keep water molecules in ice farther apart than liquid water molecules
d. Covalent bonds allow water molecules to stretch when they freeze
e. The crystalline structure of ice causes it to be more dense than water

16. If nondisjunction occurs in Meiosis I for chromosome ‘n’, what would the haploid cells look
like?
a. n+1, n+1, n+1, n-1
b. n+1, n+1, n-1, n-1
c. n+1, n-1, n-1, n-1
d. n-1, n-1, n-1, n-1
e. all haploid cells are normal: n, n, n, n

17. What is the chemical reaction by which cells make polymers from monomers?
a. Phosphodiester linkages
b. Hydrolysis
c. Dehydration reactions
d. Ionic bonds
e. Disulfide bonds

18. Fibroblast cells make and secrete collagen protein to provide tissue strength and elasticity.
Because fibroblasts make and secrete large amounts of protein, they likely have more of
what type of organelle?
a. Lysosome
b. Chloroplast
c. Ribosome
d. Peroxisome
Use the following list of choices for the following questions:
I. helicase
II. DNA polymerase III
III. ligase
IV. DNA polymerase I
V.primase
19. Which of the enzymes removes the RNA nucleotides from the primer and adds equivalent
DNA nucleotides to the 3' end of Okazaki fragments?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
e. V

20. Which of the enzymes separates the DNA strands during replication?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
e. V

21. Which of the enzymes covalently connects segments of DNA?

a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
e. V

22. Which of the enzymes synthesizes short segments of RNA?

a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
e. V

23. You are studying a cell type that has an unusually high population of free ribosomes
(ribosomes that are not bound to the rough endoplasmic reticulum). From this you would
surmise that the cell is:
a. Producing proteins for the outer membrane
b. In M phase
c. Producing greater than average amounts of cytoplasmic proteins
d. Producing proteins for vesicle targeted secretion
e. Producing proteins for the nuclear membrane

24. True or False: a genotypic ratio of 3:1 dictates a phenotypic ratio of 3:1.
a. True
b. False
25. Anne was given a pet fish for her birthday, but she doesn’t know if it was a freshwater or a
saltwater fish. She decides to test the water in the bowl the fish came in by submerging a
piece of celery. An hour later the celery is limp. What has she learned?
a. The celery was hypotonic to the solution, so the fish is a saltwater fish.
b. The celery was hypertonic to the solution, so the fish is a freshwater fish.
c. The celery was hypotonic to the solution, so the fish is a freshwater fish.
d. The celery was hypertonic to the solution so the fish is a saltwater fish.

26. In trying to determine whether DNA or protein is the genetic material, Hershey and Chase
made use of which of the following facts?
a. DNA contains sulfur, whereas protein does not.
b. DNA contains phosphorus, whereas protein does not.
c. DNA contains nitrogen, whereas protein does not.
d. DNA contains purines, whereas protein includes pyrimidines.
e. RNA includes ribose, whereas DNA includes deoxyribose sugars.

27. The point of connection between two communicating neurons is called:

a. the axon hillock.
b. the dendrite.
c. the synapse.
d. the cell body.
e. the glia.

28. Eukaryotic telomeres replicate differently than the rest of the chromosome. This is a
consequence of which of the following?
a. the evolution of telomerase enzyme
b. DNA polymerase that cannot replicate the leading strand template to its 5' end
c. gaps left at the 5' end of the lagging strand
d. gaps left at the 3' end of the lagging strand because of the need for a primer
e. the "no ends" of a circular chromosome

29. At a specific area of a chromosome, the sequence of nucleotides below is present where the
chain opens to form a replication fork: 3' ATTGCTGT GCAATCC 5' An RNA primer is
formed starting at the underlined T (T) of the template. Which of the following represents the
primer sequence?
a. 5' A C G U U A G G 3'
b. 5’ A T G G C T A A 3’
c. 5' G C C T A G G 3'
d. 5' C A G C A A U 3'
e. 3' G C C T A G G 5'

30. Morgan hypothesized that the eye color gene in Drosophila is located on the X chromosome
because of the unique inheritance pattern observed in males. If a heterozygous female was
crossed to a white-eyed male, what would the offspring look like?
a. no white eyed females; all white eyed males
b. ½ of females would have white eyes; no males would have white eyes
c. no white eyed females; ½ of males would have white eyes
d. ½ of females would have white eyes; ½ of males would have white eyes
e. all off spring regardless of sex will have white eyes
31. What is the function of topoisomerase?
a. relieving strain in the DNA ahead of the replication fork
b. elongating new DNA at a replication fork by adding nucleotides to the existing chain
c. adding methyl groups to bases of DNA
d. unwinding of the double helix
e. stabilizing single-stranded DNA at the replication fork

32. Which of the following statements describes the eukaryotic chromosome?

a. It is composed of DNA alone.
b. The nucleosome is its most basic functional subunit.
c. The number of genes on each chromosome is different in different cell types of an
organism.
d. It consists of a single linear molecule of double-stranded DNA plus proteins.
e. Active transcription occurs on heterochromatin but not euchromatin.

33. For a science fair project, two students decided to repeat the Hershey and Chase
experiment, with modifications. They decided to label the nitrogen of the DNA, rather than
the phosphate. They reasoned that each nucleotide has only one phosphate and two to five
nitrogens. Thus, labeling the nitrogens would provide a stronger signal than labeling the
phosphates. Why won't this experiment work?
a. There is no radioactive isotope of nitrogen.
b. Radioactive nitrogen has a half-life of 100,000 years, and the material would be too
dangerous for too long.
c. Although there are more nitrogens in a nucleotide, labeled phosphates actually have 16
extra neutrons; therefore, they are more radioactive.
d. Amino acids (and thus proteins) also have nitrogen atoms; thus, the radioactivity would
not distinguish between DNA and proteins.

34. A particular triplet of bases in the coding sequence of DNA is TTT. The anticodon on the
tRNA that binds the mRNA codon is:
a. TTT.
b. UUA.
c. UUU.
d. AAA.

35. When does independent assortment NOT hold true for two genes?
a. when two genes are close together on the same chromosome
b. when two genes are far apart on the same chromosome
c. when two genes are on different autosomes
d. when two genes are on different sex chromosomes

36. A mutant bacterial cell has a defective aminoacyl synthase that attaches a lysine to tRNSs
with the anticodon AAA instead of the normal phenylalanine. The consequence of this for
the cell will be that:
a. none of the proteins in the cell will contain phenylalanine.
b. proteins in the cell will include lysine instead of phenylalanine at amino acid positions
specified by the codon UUU.
c. the cell will compensate for the defect by attaching phenylalanine to tRNAs with lysine-
specifying anticodons.
d. the ribosome will skip a codon every time a UUU is encountered.
 37. The TATA sequence is found only several nucleotides away from the start site of
transcription. This most probably relates to which of the following?
a. the number of hydrogen bonds between A and T in DNA
b. the triplet nature of the codon
c. the ability of this sequence to bind to the start site
d. the supercoiling of the DNA near the start site
e. the 3-D shape of a DNA molecule

38. A karyotype can give you the following information, EXCEPT:

a. sex of the organism
b. number of autosomes of the organism
c. information about nondisjunction events
d. whether a single gene has been mutated
e. banding patterns of chromosomes

39. When the function of the newly made polypeptide is to be secreted from the cell where it has
been made, what must occur?
a. It must be translated by a ribosome that remains free of attachment to the ER.
b. Its signal sequence must target it to the ER, from which it goes to the Golgi.
c. It has a signal sequence that must be cleaved off before it can enter the ER.
d. It has a signal sequence that targets it to the cell's plasma membrane where it causes
exocytosis.
e. Its signal sequence causes it to be encased in a vesicle as soon as it is translated.

Use this representation to answer the following 2 questions.

DNA template strand 5' ____________________________ 3'
DNA complementary strand 3' ____________________________ 5'
40. Given the locally unwound double strand above, in which direction does the RNA
polymerase move?
a. 5' → 3' along the template strand
b. 3' → 5' along the complementary strand
c. 5' → 3' along the complementary strand
d. 3' → 5' along the template strand
e. 5' → 3' along the double-stranded DNA

41. In the transcription event of the previous DNA, where would the promoter be located?
a. to the right of the template strand
b. at the 3' end of the newly made RNA
c. to the left of the template strand
d. to the right of the sense strand
e. to the left of the sense strand

42. Which answer below contributes most to genetic variability?

a. codominance relationships
b. cell division
c. chromosome separation at metaphase II
d. random fertilization
e. cell cycle inhibition
The following questions refer to this table of codons.

43. A possible sequence of nucleotides in the template strand of DNA that would code for the
polypeptide sequence phe-leu-ile-val would be:
a. 5' TTG-CTA-CAG-TAG 3'.
b. 3' AAC-GAC-GUC-AUA 5'.
c. 5' AUG-CTG-CAG-TAT 3'.
d. 3' AAA-GAA-TAA-CAA 5'.
e. 3' AAA-AAT-ATA-ACA 5'.

44. What amino acid sequence will be generated, based on the following mRNA codon
sequence? 5' AUG-UCU-UCG-UUA-UCC-UUG 3'
a. met-arg-glu-arg-glu-arg
b. met-glu-arg-arg-glu-leu
c. met-ser-ser-leu-ser-leu
d. met-ser-leu-ser-leu-ser
e. met-leu-phe-arg-glu-glu

45. A peptide has the sequence NH2-phe-pro-lys-gly-phe-pro-COOH. Which of the following

sequences in the coding strand of the DNA could code for this peptide?
a. 3' UUU-CCC-AAA-GGG-UUU-CCC
b. 5' TTT-CCC-AAA-GGG-TTT-CCC
c. 3' AUG-AAA-GGG-TTT-CCC-AAA-GGG
d. 5' GGG-AAA-TTT-AAA-CCC-ACT-GGG
e. 5' ACT-TAC-CAT-AAA-CAT-TAC-UGA
 A part of an mRNA molecule with the following sequence is being read by a ribosome: 5'
CCG-ACG 3' (mRNA). The following charged transfer RNA molecules (with their anticodons
shown in the 3' to 5' direction) are available. Two of them can correctly match the mRNA so
that a dipeptide can form.
tRNA Anticodon Amino Acid
GGC Proline
CGU Alanine
UGC Threonine
CCG Glycine
ACG Cysteine
CGG Alanine
46. The dipeptide that will form will be:
a. cysteine-alanine.
b. proline-threonine.
c. glycine-cysteine.
d. alanine-alanine.
e. threonine-glycine.

47. The release of acetylcholine from the terminal of a motor neuron is most directly linked to:
a. the entry of potassium into the axon terminal.
b. the exit of potassium from the axon terminal.
c. the entry of sodium into the axon terminal.
d. the exit of sodium from the axon terminal.
e. the entry of calcium into the axon terminal.

Use the following information to answer the next question.

A transfer RNA (#1) attached to the amino acid lysine enters the ribosome. The lysine
binds to the growing polypeptide on the other tRNA (#2) in the ribosome already.
48. Which component of the complex described enters the exit tunnel through the large subunit
of the ribosome?
a. tRNA with attached lysine (#1)
b. tRNA with polypeptide (#2)
c. tRNA that no longer has attached amino acid
d. newly formed polypeptide
e. initiation and elongation factors

49. Which of the following best describes the complete sequence of steps occurring during
every cycle of PCR?
1. The primers hybridize to the target DNA.
2. The mixture is heated to a high temperature to denature the double-stranded target DNA.
3. Fresh DNA polymerase is added.
4. DNA polymerase extends the primers to make a copy of the target DNA.
a. 2, 1, 4
b. 1, 3, 2, 4
c. 3, 4, 1, 2
d. 3, 4, 2
e. 2, 3, 4
 50. Cytosine makes up 42% of the nucleotides in a sample of DNA from an organism.
Approximately what percentage of the nucleotides in this sample will be thymine?
a. 8%
b. 16%
c. 31%
d. 42%
e. It cannot be determined from the information provided.

51. The primary means by which a neuron can communicate to a second neuron is by:
a. the frequency of its action potentials.
b. the peak of the depolarization phase of an action potential.
c. the peak of the undershoot/hyperpolarization of an action potential.
d. varying how much neurotransmitter it releases for a given action potential.
e. remaining in the depolarization phase of the action potential for an extended interval.

REMEMBER TO WRITE AND BUBBLE IN YOUR STUDENT ID NUMBER ON YOUR SCANTRON!