Mock Final

Intro: Sorry I made it almost 20 pages long, but it’s only because I care.

19) Which of the following is true of both starch and cellulose?

A) They are both polymers of glucose.
B) They are geometric isomers of each other.
C) They can both be digested by humans.
D) They are both used for energy storage in plants.
E) They are both structural components of the plant cell wall.

21) Humans can digest starch but not cellulose because

A) the monomer of starch is glucose, while the monomer of cellulose is galactose.
B) humans have enzymes that can hydrolyze the beta (β ) glycosidic linkages of starch
but not the alpha (α ) glycosidic linkages of cellulose.
C) humans have enzymes that can hydrolyze the alpha (α ) glycosidic linkages of starch
but not the beta (β ) glycosidic linkages of cellulose.
D) humans harbor starch- digesting bacteria in the digestive tract.
E) the monomer of starch is glucose, while the monomer of cellulose is maltose

36) There are 20 different amino acids. What makes one amino acid different from another?
A) different carboxyl groups attached to an alpha (α ) carbon
B) different amino groups attached to an alpha (α ) carbon
C) different side chains (R groups) attached to an alpha (α ) carbon
D) different alpha (α ) carbons
E) different asymmetric carbons

Refer to Figure 5.6 to answer the following questions.

43) Which bond is a peptide bond?

53) The tertiary structure of a protein is the

A) bonding together of several polypeptide chains by weak bonds.
B) order in which amino acids are joined in a polypeptide chain.
C) unique three- dimensional shape of the fully folded polypeptide.
D) organization of a polypeptide chain into an α helix or β pleated sheet.
E) overall protein structure resulting from the aggregation of two or more polypeptide
subunits.

56) The R group or side chain of the amino acid serine is —CH2 OH. The R group or side
chain of the amino acid alanine is —CH3. Where would you expect to find these amino
acids in a globular protein in aqueous solution?
A) Serine would be in the interior, and alanine would be on the exterior of the globular
protein.
B) Alanine would be in the interior, and serine would be on the exterior of the globular
protein.
C) Both serine and alanine would be in the interior of the globular protein.
D) Both serine and alanine would be on the exterior of the globular protein.
E) Both serine and alanine would be in the interior and on the exterior of the globular
protein.

74) The difference between the sugar in DNA and the sugar in RNA is that the sugar in DNA
A) is a six- carbon sugar and the sugar in RNA is a five- carbon sugar.
B) can form a double- stranded molecule.
C) has a six- membered ring of carbon and nitrogen atoms.
D) can attach to a phosphate.
E) contains one less oxygen atom.

The following questions are based on the 15 molecules illustrated in Figure 5.8. Each molecule may be used once,
more than once, or not at all.
85) Which molecule has hydrophilic and hydrophobic properties and would be found in
plasma membranes?
A) 1
B) 5
C) 6
D) 12
E) 14

86) Which of the following combinations could be linked together to form a nucleotide?
A) 1, 2, and 11
B) 3, 7, and 8
C) 5, 9, and 10
D) 11, 12, and 13
E) 12, 14, and 15

87) Which of the following molecules contain(s) an aldehyde type of carbonyl functional
group?
A) 1
B) 4
C) 8
D) 10
E) 1 and 4

88) Which molecule is glycerol?

A) 1
B) 6
C) 10
D) 14
E) 15

89) Which molecule is a saturated fatty acid?

A) 1
B) 5
C) 6
D) 8
E) 9

90) Which of the following molecules is a purine type of nitrogenous base?

A) 2
B) 3
C) 5
D) 12
E) 13

91) Which of the following molecules act as building blocks (monomers) of polypeptides?
A) 1, 4, and 6
B) 2, 7, and 8
C) 7, 8, and 13
D) 11, 12, and 13
E) 12, 13, and 15

92) Which of the following molecules is an amino acid with a hydrophobic R group or side
chain?
A) 3
B) 5
C) 7
D) 8
E) 12

94) A fat (or triacylglycerol) would be formed as a result of a dehydration reaction between
A) one molecule of 9 and three molecules of 10.
B) three molecules of 9 and one molecule of 10.
C) one molecule of 5 and three molecules of 9.
D) three molecules of 5 and one molecule of 9.
E) one molecule of 5 and three molecules of 10.

95) Which of the following molecules could be joined together by a phosphodiester type of
covalent bond?
A) 3 and 4
B) 3 and 8
C) 6 and 15
D) 11 and 12
E) 11 and 13

96) Which of the following molecules is the pentose sugar found in RNA?
A) 1
B) 4
C) 6
D) 12
E) 13

98) Which of the following molecules has (have) a functional group that frequently is involved
in maintaining the tertiary structure of a protein?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 9
D) 11
E) 9 and 11

99) Which of the following molecules consists of a hydrophilic ʺ headʺ region and a
hydrophobic ʺ tailʺ region?
A) 2
B) 5
C) 7
D) 9
E) 11

11) All of the following are part of a prokaryotic cell except

A) DNA.
B) a cell wall.
C) a plasma membrane.
D) ribosomes.
E) an endoplasmic reticulum.

14) Which of the following is a major cause of the size limits for certain types of cells?
A) the evolution of larger cells after the evolution of smaller cells
B) the difference in plasma membranes between prokaryotes and eukaryotes
C) the evolution of eukaryotes after the evolution of prokaryotes
D) the need for a surface area of sufficient area to allow the cellʹ s function
E) the observation that longer cells usually have greater cell volume
19) Which type of organelle is primarily involved in the synthesis of oils, phospholipids, and
steroids?
A) ribosome
B) lysosome
C) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
D) mitochondrion
E) contractile vacuole

28) Which of the following produces and modifies polysaccharides that will be secreted?
A) lysosome
B) vacuole
C) mitochondrion
D) Golgi apparatus
E) peroxisome

33) Which of the following contains enzymes that transfer hydrogen from various substrates to
oxygen?
A) lysosome
B) vacuole
C) mitochondrion
D) Golgi apparatus
E) peroxisome

35) Organelles other than the nucleus that contain DNA include
A) ribosomes.
B) mitochondria.
C) chloroplasts.
D) B and C only
E) A, B, and C

53) Microfilaments are well known for their role in which of the following?
A) ameboid movement
B) formation of cleavage furrows
C) contracting of muscle cells
D) A and B only
E) A, B, and C

62) Plasmodesmata in plant cells are most similar in function to which of the following
structures in animal cells?
A) peroxisomes
B) desmosomes
C) gap junctions
D) extracellular matrix
E) tight junctions

16) Which of the following is a reasonable explanation for why unsaturated fatty acids help
keep any membrane more fluid at lower temperatures?
A) The double bonds form kinks in the fatty acid tails, forcing adjacent lipids to be
further apart.
B) Unsaturated fatty acids have a higher cholesterol content and therefore more
cholesterol in membranes.
C) Unsaturated fatty acids permit more water in the interior of the membrane.
D) The double bonds block interaction among the hydrophilic head groups of the lipids.
E) The double bonds result in shorter fatty acid tails and thinner membranes.

19) An animal cell lacking oligosaccharides on the external surface of its plasma membrane
would likely be impaired in which function?
A) transporting ions against an electrochemical gradient
B) cell- cell recognition
C) maintaining fluidity of the phospholipid bilayer
D) attaching to the cytoskeleton
E) establishing the diffusion barrier to charged molecules

29) What kinds of molecules pass through a cell membrane most easily?
A) large and hydrophobic
B) small and hydrophobic
C) large polar
D) ionic
E) monosaccharides such as glucose

43) At the beginning of the experiment,

A) side A is hypertonic to side B.
B) side A is hypotonic to side B.
C) side A is isotonic to side B.
D) side A is hypertonic to side B with respect to glucose.
E) side A is hypotonic to side B with respect to sodium chloride.

44) If you examine side A after 3 days, you should find

A) a decrease in the concentration of NaCl and glucose and an increase in the water level.
B) a decrease in the concentration of NaCl, an increase in water level, and no change in
the concentration of glucose.
C) no net change in the system.
D) a decrease in the concentration of NaCl and a decrease in the water level.
E) no change in the concentration of NaCl and glucose and an increase in the water level.

52) Which of the following membrane activities require energy from ATP hydrolysis?
A) facilitated diffusion.
B) movement of water into a cell
C) Na+ ions moving out of the cell
D) movement of glucose molecules
E) movement of water into a paramecium

5) Living organisms increase in complexity as they grow, resulting in a decrease in the

entropy of an organism. How does this relate to the second law of thermodynamics?
A) Living organisms do not obey the second law of thermodynamics, which states that
entropy must increase with time.
B) Life obeys the second law of thermodynamics because the decrease in entropy as the
organism grows is balanced by an increase in the entropy of the universe.
C) Living organisms do not follow the laws of thermodynamics.
D) As a consequence of growing, organisms create more disorder in their environment
than the decrease in entropy associated with their growth.
E) Living organisms are able to transform energy into entropy.

8) Which of the following statements is representative of the second law of thermodynamics?

A) Conversion of energy from one form to another is always accompanied by some gain
of free energy.
B) Heat represents a form of energy that can be used by most organisms to do work.
C) Without an input of energy, organisms would tend toward decreasing entropy.
D) Cells require a constant input of energy to maintain their high level of organization.
E) Every energy transformation by a cell decreases the entropy of the universe.

18) Which of the following shows the correct changes in thermodynamic properties for a
chemical reaction in which amino acids are linked to form a protein?
A) +△ H , +△ S , +△ G
B) +△ H , -△ S , -△ G
C) +△ H , -△ S , +△ G
D) -△ H , -△ S , +△ G
E) -△ H , +△ S , +△ G

21) Which of the following best describes enthalpy (H)?

A) the total kinetic energy of a system
B) the heat content of a chemical system
C) the systemʹ s entropy
D) the cellʹ s energy equilibrium
E) the condition of a cell that is not able to react

37) During a laboratory experiment, you discover that an enzyme- catalyzed reaction has a △ G
of - 20 kcal/mol. If you double the amount of enzyme in the reaction, what will be the △ G
for the new reaction?
A) - 40 kcal/mol
B) - 20 kcal/mol
C) 0 kcal/mol
D) + 20 kcal/mol
E) + 40 kcal/mol

43) Increasing the substrate concentration in an enzymatic reaction could overcome which of
the following?
A) denaturization of the enzyme
B) allosteric inhibition
C) competitive inhibition
D) saturation of the enzyme activity
E) insufficient cofactors

Use the following information to answer the following questions.

Succinate dehydrogenase catalyzes the conversion of succinate to fumarate. The reaction is inhibited by
malonic acid, which resembles succinate but cannot be acted upon by succinate dehydrogenase.
Increasing the ratio of succinate to malonic acid reduces the inhibitory effect of malonic acid.
46) Based on this information, which of the following is correct?
A) Succinate dehydrogenase is the enzyme, and fumarate is the substrate.
B) Succinate dehydrogenase is the enzyme, and malonic acid is the substrate.
C) Succinate is the substrate, and fumarate is the product.
D) Fumarate is the product, and malonic acid is a noncompetitive inhibitor.
E) Malonic acid is the product, and fumarate is a competitive inhibitor.

47) What is the purpose of using malonic acid in this experiment?

A) It is a competitive inhibitor.
B) It blocks the binding of fumarate.
C) It is a noncompetitive inhibitor.
D) It is able to bind to succinate.
E) It replaces the usual enzyme

The next questions are based on the following information.

A series of enzymes catalyze the reaction X → Y → Z → A. Product A binds to the enzyme that converts
X to Y at a position remote from its active site. This binding decreases the activity of the enzyme.

62) What is substance X?

A) a coenzyme
B) an allosteric inhibitor
C) a substrate
D) an intermediate
E) the product

63) Substance A functions as

A) a coenzyme.
B) an allosteric inhibitor.
C) the substrate.
D) an intermediate.
E) a competitive inhibitor.
70) Among enzymes, kinases catalyze phosphorylation, while phosphatases catalyze removal
of phosphate(s). A cellʹ s use of these enzymes can therefore function as an on- off switch for
various processes. Which of the following is probably involved?
A) the change in a proteinʹ s charge leading to a conformational change
B) the change in a proteinʹ s charge leading to cleavage
C) a change in the optimal pH at which a reaction will occur
D) a change in the optimal temperature at which a reaction will occur
E) the excision of one or more peptides

10) The ATP made during glycolysis is generated by

A) substrate- level phosphorylation.
B) electron transport.
C) photophosphorylation.
D) chemiosmosis.
E) oxidation of NADH to NAD+ .

11) The oxygen consumed during cellular respiration is involved directly in which process or
event?
A) glycolysis
B) accepting electrons at the end of the electron transport chain
C) the citric acid cycle
D) the oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA
E) the phosphorylation of ADP to form ATP

31) How does pyruvate enter the mitochondrion?

A) active transport
B) diffusion
C) facilitated diffusion
D) through a channel
E) through a pore

32) Which of the following intermediary metabolites enters the citric acid cycle and is formed,
in part, by the removal of a carbon (CO2) from one molecule of pyruvate?
A) lactate
B) glyceraldehydes- 3- phosphate
C) oxaloacetate
D) acetyl CoA
E) citrate

39) Starting with citrate, which of the following combinations of products would result from
three turns of the citric acid cycle?
A) 1 ATP, 2 CO2, 3 NADH, and 1 FADH2
B) 2 ATP, 2 CO2, 1 NADH, and 3 FADH2
C) 3 ATP, 3 CO2, 3 NADH, and 3 FADH2
D) 3 ATP, 6 CO2, 9 NADH, and 3 FADH2
E) 38 ATP, 6 CO2, 3 NADH, and 12 FADH2

45) Where are the proteins of the electron transport chain located?
A) cytosol
B) mitochondrial outer membrane
C) mitochondrial inner membrane
D) mitochondrial intermembrane space
E) mitochondrial matrix

51) In chemiosmotic phosphorylation, what is the most direct source of energy that is used to
convert ADP + Pi to ATP?
A) energy released as electrons flow through the electron transport system
B) energy released from substrate- level phosphorylation
C) energy released from ATP synthase pumping hydrogen ions from the mitochondrial
matrix
D) energy released from movement of protons through ATP synthase
E) No external source of energy is required because the reaction is exergonic.

74) Which of the following normally occurs whether or not oxygen (O2) is present?
A) glycolysis
B) fermentation
C) oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA
D) citric acid cycle
E) oxidative phosphorylation (chemiosmosis)

80) One function of both alcohol fermentation and lactic acid fermentation is to
A) reduce NAD+ to NADH.
B) reduce FAD+ to FADH2.
C) oxidize NADH to NAD+ .
D) reduce FADH2 to FAD+ .
E) none of the above

2) Which of the following are products of the light reactions of photosynthesis that are
utilized in the Calvin cycle?
A) CO2 and glucose
B) H2O and O2
C) ADP, Pi, and NADP+
D) electrons and H+
E) ATP and NADPH

7) When oxygen is released as a result of photosynthesis, it is a by- product of which of the

following?
A) reducing NADP+
B) splitting the water molecules
C) chemiosmosis
D) the electron transfer system of photosystem I
E) the electron transfer system of photosystem II

22) As a research scientist, you measure the amount of ATP and NADPH consumed by the
Calvin cycle in 1 hour. You find 30,000 molecules of ATP consumed, but only 20,000
molecules of NADPH. Where did the extra ATP molecules come from?
A) photosystem II
B) photosystem I
C) cyclic electron flow
D) linear electron flow
E) chlorophyll

24) What does the chemiosmotic process in chloroplasts involve?

A) establishment of a proton gradient
B) diffusion of electrons through the thylakoid membrane
C) reduction of water to produce ATP energy
D) movement of water by osmosis into the thylakoid space from the stroma
E) formation of glucose, using carbon dioxide, NADPH, and ATP

42) Which of the following statements best represents the relationships between the light
reactions and the Calvin cycle?
A) The light reactions provide ATP and NADPH to the Calvin cycle, and the cycle
returns ADP, Pi, and NADP+ to the light reactions.
B) The light reactions provide ATP and NADPH to the carbon fixation step of the Calvin
cycle, and the cycle provides water and electrons to the light reactions.
C) The light reactions supply the Calvin cycle with CO2 to produce sugars, and the
Calvin cycle supplies the light reactions with sugars to produce ATP.
D) The light reactions provide the Calvin cycle with oxygen for electron flow, and the
Calvin cycle provides the light reactions with water to split.
E) There is no relationship between the light reactions and the Calvin cycle.

64) CAM plants keep stomata closed in daytime, thus reducing loss of water. They can do this
because they
A) fix CO2 into organic acids during the night.
B) fix CO2 into sugars in the bundle- sheath cells.
C) fix CO2 into pyruvate in the mesophyll cells.
D) use the enzyme phosphofructokinase, which outcompetes rubisco for CO2.
E) use photosystems I and II at night.

5) From the perspective of the cell receiving the message, the three stages of cell signaling are
A) the paracrine, local, and synaptic stages.
B) signal reception, signal transduction, and cellular response.
C) signal reception, nucleus disintegration, and new cell generation.
D) the alpha, beta, and gamma stages.
E) signal reception, cellular response, and cell division.

29) The general name for an enzyme that transfers phosphate groups from ATP to a protein is
A) phosphorylase.
B) phosphatase.
C) protein kinase.
D) ATPase.
E) protease.

Use the following information to respond to the following questions.

As humans, we have receptors for two kinds of beta adrenergic compounds such as catecholamines.
Cardiac muscle cells have beta 1 receptors that promote increased heart rate. Some drugs that slow heart
rate are called beta blockers. Smooth muscle cells, however, have beta 2 receptors which mediate muscle
relaxation. Blockers of these effects are sometimes used to treat asthma.
45) The description above illustrates which of the following?
A) Just because a drug acts on one type of receptor does not mean that it will act on
another type.
B) Beta blockers can be used effectively on any type of muscle.
C) Beta adrenergic receptors must be in the cytosol if they are going to influence
contraction and relaxation.
D) The chemical structures of the beta 1 and beta 2 receptors must have the same active
sites.

46) The use of beta 2 antagonist drugs may be useful in asthma because
A) they may increase constriction of the skeletal muscle of the chest wall.
B) they may increase heart rate and therefore allow the patient to get more oxygen
circulated.
C) they may dilate the bronchioles by relaxing their smooth muscle.
D) they may override the beta blockers that the patient is already taking.
E) they may obstruct all G protein- mediated receptors.

7) For a neuron with an initial membrane potential at - 70 mV, an increase in the movement of
potassium ions out of that neuronʹ s cytoplasm would result in
A) depolarization of the neuron.
B) hyperpolarization of the neuron.
C) the replacement of potassium ions with sodium ions.
D) the replacement of potassium ions with calcium ions.
E) the neuron switching on its sodium- potassium pump to restore the initial conditions.

12) The ʺ thresholdʺ potential of a membrane

A) is the point of separation from a living from a dead neuron.
B) is the lowest frequency of action potentials a neuron can produce.
C) is the minimum hyperpolarization needed to prevent the occurrence of action
potentials.
D) is the minimum depolarization needed to operate the voltage- gated sodium and
potassium channels.
E) is the peak amount of depolarization seen in an action potential.

14) A toxin that binds specifically to voltage- gated sodium channels in axons would be
expected to
A) prevent the hyperpolarization phase of the action potential.
B) prevent the depolarization phase of the action potential.
C) prevent graded potentials.
D) increase the release of neurotransmitter molecules.
E) have most of its effects on the dendritic region of a neuron.

15) After the depolarization phase of an action potential, the resting potential is restored by
A) the opening of sodium activation gates.
B) the opening of voltage- gated potassium channels and the closing of sodium
activation gates.
C) a decrease in the membraneʹ s permeability to potassium and chloride ions.
D) a brief inhibition of the sodium- potassium pump.
E) the opening of more voltage- gated sodium channels.
28) The observation that the acetylcholine released into the junction between a motor neuron
and a skeletal muscle binds to a sodium channel and opens it is an example of
A) a voltage- gated sodium channel.
B) a voltage- gated potassium channel.
C) a ligand- gated sodium channel.
D) a second- messenger- gated sodium channel.
E) a chemical that inhibits action potentials.

30) The steps below refer to various stages in transmission at a chemical synapse:
1. Neurotransmitter binds with receptors associated with the postsynaptic membrane.
2. Calcium ions rush into neuronʹ s cytoplasm.
3. An action potential depolarizes the membrane of the axon terminal.
4. The ligand- gated ion channels open.
5. The synaptic vesicles release neurotransmitter into the synaptic cleft.
Which sequence of events is correct?
A) 1 → 2 → 3 → 4 → 5
B) 2 → 3 → 5 → 4 → 1
C) 3 → 2 → 5 → 1 → 4
D) 4 → 3 → 1 → 2 → 5
E) 5 → 1 → 2 → 4 → 3

32) Assume that excessive consumption of ethanol increases the influx of negative chloride ions
into ʺ common senseʺ neurons whose action potentials are needed for you to act
appropriately and not harm yourself or others. Thus, any resulting poor decisions
associated with ethanol ingestion are likely due to
A) increased membrane depolarization of ʺ common senseʺ neurons.
B) decreased membrane depolarization of ʺ common senseʺ neurons.
C) more action potentials in your ʺ common senseʺ neurons.
D) more EPSPs in your ʺ common senseʺ neurons.
E) fewer IPSPs in your ʺ common senseʺ neurons.

34) When several EPSPs arrive at the axon hillock from different dendritic locations,
depolarizing the postsynaptic cell to threshold for an action potential, this is an example of
A) temporal summation.
B) spatial summation.
C) tetanus.
D) the refractory state.
E) an action potential with an abnormally high peak of depolarization

35) When several IPSPs arrive at the axon hillock rapidly in sequence from a single dendritic
location, hyperpolarizing the postsynaptic cell more and more and thus preventing an
action potential, this is an example of
A) temporal summation.
B) spatial summation.
C) tetanus.
D) the refractory state.
E) an action potential with an abnormally high peak of depolarization.

5) Which cells and which signaling molecules are responsible for initiating an inflammatory
response?
A) phagocytes: lysozymes
B) phagocytes: chemokines
C) dendritic cells: interferons
D) mast cells: histamines
E) lymphocytes: interferons

8) An invertebrate, such as an insect, has innate immunity that can be nonspecific about which
pathogens are prevented from harming its metabolism. Which of the following is most
likely to function this way in the insectʹ s intestine?
A) complement
B) lysozyme
C) mucus
D) neutrophils
E) dendritic cells

16) What are antigens?

A) proteins found in the blood that cause foreign blood cells to clump
B) proteins embedded in B cell membranes
C) proteins that consist of two light and two heavy polypeptide chains
D) foreign molecules that trigger the generation of antibodies
E) proteins released during an inflammatory response

19) Clonal selection is an explanation for how

A) a single type of stem cell can produce both red blood cells and white blood cells.
B) V, J, and C gene segments are rearranged.
C) an antigen can provoke production of high levels of specific antibodies.
D) HIV can disrupt the immune system.
E) macrophages can recognize specific T cells and B cells.

24) Which of the following cell types are responsible for initiating a secondary immune
response?
A) memory cells
B) macrophages
C) stem cells
D) B cells
E) T cells

25) Which of the following differentiates T cells and B cells?

A) T cells but not B cells are stimulated to increase the rate of their cell cycles.
B) Only B cells are produced from stem cells of the bone marrow.
C) T cells but not B cells can directly attack and destroy invading pathogens.
D) T cells but not B cells have surface markers.
E) Only B cells take part in cell- mediated immunity

26) The MHC is important in a T cellʹ s ability to

A) distinguish self from nonself.
B) recognize specific parasitic pathogens.
C) identify specific bacterial pathogens.
D) identify specific viruses.
E) recognize differences among types of cancer.
37) Which of the following is a pathway that would lead to the activation of cytotoxic T cells?
A) B cell contact antigen → helper T cell is activated → clonal selection occurs
B) body cell becomes infected with a virus → new viral proteins appear → class I MHC
molecule- antigen complex displayed on cell surface
C) self- tolerance of immune cells → B cells contact antigen → cytokines released
D) complement is secreted → B cell contacts antigen → helper T cell activated →
cytokines released
E) cytotoxic T cells → class II MHC molecule- antigen complex displayed → cytokines
released → cell lysis

39) The following events occur when a mammalian immune system first encounters a
pathogen. Which shows the correct sequence in which they occur?
I. Pathogen is destroyed.
II. Lymphocytes secrete antibodies.
III. Antigenic determinants from pathogen bind to antigen receptors on lymphocytes.
IV. Lymphocytes specific to antigenic determinants from pathogen become numerous.
V. Only memory cells remain.
A) I → III → II → IV → V
B) III → II → I → V → IV
C) II → I → IV → III → V
D) IV → II → III → I → V
E) III → IV → II → I → V

40) Which cell type interacts with both the humoral and cell- mediated immune pathways?
A) plasma cells
B) cytotoxic T cells
C) natural killer cells
D) CD8 cells
E) helper T cells

43) What are CD4 and CD8?

A) proteins secreted by antigen- presenting cells
B) receptors present on the surface of natural killer (NK) cells
C) T- independent antigens
D) molecules present on the surface of T cells where they enhance cellular interaction
E) molecules on the surface of antigen- presenting cells where they enhance B cell
Activity

52) Which of the following is true of active but not passive immunity?
A) acquisition and activation of antibodies.
B) proliferation of lymphocytes in bone marrow.
C) transfers antibodies from the mother across the placenta.
D) requires direct exposure to a living or simulated pathogen.
E) requires secretion of interleukins from macrophages.

3) Which of the following is (are) true?

A) Hormones regulate cellular functions, and generally negative feedback regulates
hormone levels.
B) The circulating level of a hormone is held constant through a series of positive
feedback loops.
C) Both lipid- soluble hormones and water- soluble hormones bind to intracellular
protein receptors.
D) The ducts of endocrine organs release their contents into the bloodstream.
E) Only A and C are true.

11) Only certain cells in the body are target cells for the steroid hormone aldosterone. Which of
the following is the best explanation for why these are the only cells that respond to this
hormone?
A) Only target cells are exposed to aldosterone.
B) Only target cells contain receptors for aldosterone.
C) Aldosterone is unable to enter nontarget cells.
D) Nontarget cells destroy aldosterone before it can produce its effect.
E) Nontarget cells convert aldosterone to a hormone to which they do respond.

12) Why is it that some body cells respond differently to the same peptide hormones?
A) Different target cells have different genes.
B) Each cell knows how it fits into the bodyʹ s master plan.
C) A target cellʹ s response is determined by the product of a signal transduction
pathway.
D) The circulatory system regulates responses to hormones by routing the hormones to
specific targets.
E) The hormone is chemically altered in different ways as it travels through the
circulatory system.

16) Hormone X produces its effect in its target cells via the cAMP second messenger system.
Which of the following will produce the greatest effect in the cell?
A) a molecule of hormone X applied to the extracellular fluid surrounding the cell
B) a molecule of hormone X injected into the cytoplasm of the cell
C) a molecule of cAMP applied to the extracellular fluid surrounding the cell
D) a molecule of cAMP injected into the cytoplasm of the cell
E) a molecule of activated, cAMP- dependent protein kinase injected into the cytoplasm
of the cell

17) Which of the following statements about hormones is correct ?

A) Steroid and peptide hormones produce different effects but use the same biochemical
mechanisms.
B) Steroid and peptide hormones produce the same effects but differ in the mechanisms
that produce the effects.
C) Steroid hormones affect the synthesis of proteins, whereas peptide hormones affect
the activity of proteins already present in the cell.
D) Steroid hormones affect the activity of certain proteins within the cell, whereas
peptide hormones directly affect the processing of mRNA.
E) Steroid hormones affect the synthesis of proteins to be exported from the cell, whereas
peptide hormones affect the synthesis of proteins that remain in the cell.

20) When an individual is subject to short- term starvation, most available food is used to
provide energy (metabolism) rather than building blocks (growth and repair). Which
hormone would be particularly active in times of food shortage?
A) epinephrine
B) glucagon
C) oxytocin
D) antidiuretic hormone
E) insulin

23) The hypothalamus controls the anterior pituitary by means of

A) releasing hormones.
B) second messengers.
C) third messengers.
D) antibodies.
E) cytokines.

30) Which of the following have nontropic effects only?

A) FSH
B) LH
C) TSH
D) MSH
E) ACTH

33) Iodine is added to commercially- prepared table salt to help prevent deficiencies of this
essential mineral. Which gland(s) require(s) iodine to function properly?
A) parathyroids
B) adrenal
C) thyroid
D) pancreas
E) ovaries and testes

38) Which of the following is an endocrine gland?

A) parathyroid gland
B) salivary gland
C) sweat gland
D) sebaceous gland
E) gallbladder

41) All of the following are steroid hormones except

A) androgen.
B) cortisol.
C) estrogen.
D) insulin.
E) testosterone.

42) Blood samples taken from an individual who had been fasting for 24 hours would have
which of the following?
A) high levels of insulin
B) high levels of glucagon
C) low levels of insulin
D) low levels of glucagon
E) both B and C
Free Response:

These free responses are centered around the “Big Four Ideas” that College Board and your AP
Biology Test want you to understand.

Big Idea 2: Biological systems utilize free energy and molecular building blocks to grow, to
reproduce and to maintain dynamic homeostasis.

1. Describe (2) ways in which organisms utilize free energy and describe the properties of
(3) molecular building blocks they create. How does your body maintain energy
homeostasis in your body?
• The following terms may be helpful in answering this question:
• 1st & 2nd law of thermodynamics
• endergonic, exergonic, anabolic, catabolic, coupling
• enzymes

Big Idea 3: Living systems store, retrieve, transmit and respond to information essential to life
processes

2. Describe (2) ways in which the cells, tissues, and organs in our body communicate with
each other. Your description should include every single step of the pathway in which
cells communicate.
• The following terms may be helpful in answering this question:
• Depolarize, voltage-gated ion channel
• Peptide, steroid hormones