26-05-2022 MCQ TEST FOR 2018 BATCH OLD FINAL MM:60

Q1 In which of the following conditions left atrium is not enlarged?

a.VSD b. ASD c. AORTOPULMONARY WINDOW d. PDA
Q2 A young female presents with history of dyspnoea on exertion. On examination, she has wide fixed split S2 with
ESM in the left second intercoastal space. Her ECG shows LAD. The most probable diagnosis is?
a)TAPVD b. TA c. Op-ASD d.VSD with pulmonary arterial hypertension
Q3 True statement regarding ductus arteriosus?
a. It undergoes anatomic closure within 24 hours b. forms ligamentum venosum later in life
c. It is induced to close by high level of Prostaglandins d. May cause machinery murmur by its patency
Q4 Pulmonary plethora is not seen in?
a)VSD b. TOF c. TRUNCUS ARTERIOSUS d. TAPVC
Q5 The most common type of total pulmonary venous connection is?
a. Supracardic b. Infracardiac c. Mixed d. Cardiac
Q6 A 6 week infant with ambigious genitalia presents with episode of dehydration & shock. What electrolyte will
you expect in this baby?
a)hypoklalaemia b. Hyperkalaemia c. Hypocalcemia d. Hypercalcemia
Q7 The most common cause of permanent congenital hypothyroidism?
a. TSH receptor mutation b.Thyroid dysgenesis c. Defective iodide transport d.PIT-1 mutation
Q8 The most common enzyme deficiency leding to childhood hypertension is?
a.17-alpha hydroxylase b. 21-beta hydroxylase
c. 11-beta hydroxylase d.3-betahydroxysteroid dehydrogenase
Q9 Which of following is rapid acting insulin?
a.Glargine b. Determir c.lente d. Glulise
Q10 In child with diabetes when opthal evaluation is indicated?
a. At the time of diagnosis b. After 1 year c. After 10 years d. After 5 years
Q11. In this Covid 19 pandemic children are less commonly infected than adult population. The following factors
are responsible for this lower infection rate in children except –
A)Less exposed to smoking and pollution, relatively health airway B)Low level of ACE2 activity in children
C) Coinfections with other viral infections D)Children have relatively strong innate immunity
Q12. XDR TB is defined as-
A. MDR TB that is also resistant to fluoroquinolones and at least one of three injectable second line drugs used to treat TB
(Amikacin, Kanamycin, Capreomycin)
B. Resistant to two most effective first line therapeutic drugs isoniazid and rifampicin irrespective to any other drugs
C. MDR TB that is resistant to either one of the injectable second line drugs or second line therapeutic Fluoroquinolones
D. Strain resistant to more than one drug (Excluding co resistance to INH and Rif)
Q13. A child with acute liver failure is having drowsiness, inappropriate behavior, agitation, wide mood swings,
disorientation, asterixis. EEG showed generalized slowing and q waves. The most likely grading of acute hepatic
encephalopathy in this patient would be-
A. Grade 1 B. Grade 2 C. Grade 3 D. Grade 4
Q14. Westley’s clinical croup severity score of 6-11 indicate that
A. Child has moderate croup B. Child has severe croup C. Child has life threatening croup
D. Child has mild croup
Q15. A 3 years old child presented with rashes in ER. You identified Forchheimer spot in his oral examination. The
most likely diagnosis for this child is –
A. Measles B. German Measles C. Varicella D. Erythema
infectiosum
Q16. Which of the following is online tool for monitoring TB control program?
A. TB online B. NTEP C. NIKSHAY D. RNTCP
Q17. All are true about Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis except
A. Males (especially firstborns) are affected approximately 4-6 times as often as females
B. Pyloric stenosis is more common in infants with A blood group
C. It is associated with the use of erythromycin in neonates specially within the 1st 2 wk of life.
D. Pyloromyotomy is the surgical procedure of choice
Q18. Celiac disease is triggered by ingestion of all of the following except
A. Wheat B. Oats C. Rye D. Millet
Q. 19 Which sinus pneumatise first?
A. Maxillary B. Ethmoid C. Frontal D. Sphenoid
Q 20. All are true about community acquired pneumonia except
A. In children >5 years of age, M. pneumoniae is most common cause of pneumonia
B. As per IMNCI a six months baby is classified as pneumonia if his RR is more than 50/min
C. Children age 2–59 months with chest indrawing pneumonia should be treated with oral amoxicillin at
least 40mg/kg/dose twice daily for five day
D. Children with fast breathing pneumonia with no chest indrawing in low HIV prevalence area should be
treated with oral amoxicillin at 80mg/kg/day dose for five days
21. Very low birth weight baby have birth weight less than
A. 3000 gm B. 2500 gm C.1500 gm D.3500 gm
22. Various modes of heat loss from newborn skin are
A. Conduction B. Evaporation. C. Convection D. All of the above
23. A newborn on day 1of life is having complaint of coughing, choking, cyanosis and continuous drooling of saliva.
What could be the expected diagnosis:
A. Congestive heart failure B. Atrioventricular fistula C. Tracheoesophageal fistula D. Pneumonia
24. Which of the following is a dangerous complication of un-monitored oxygen therapy in preterm infants?
A. Retinopathy of prematurity B. Atelectasis C. Tachypnea B. Seizures
25. The goal of Indian Newborn action plan (INAP) is
A. Achieve Single digit NMR by 2035. B. Achieve Single digit SBR by 2030
C. Achieve Single digit NMR by 2025. D. Achieve Single digit SBR by 2025
26. All preterm babies below this gestational age should be screened for ROP (National RBSK guidelines):
A. 34 weeks B. 35 weeks C. 36 weeks D. 32 weeks
27. Govt. of India recommends which injection for pregnant women between 24-34 weeks gestation:
A. 4 doses of inj. Dexamethasone 6 mg each at 12 hours interval
 B. 2 doses of inj. Dexamethasone 6 mg each at 12 hours interval
C. 2 doses of inj. Betamethasone 6 mg each at 12 hours interval
D. 4 doses of inj. Betamethasone 6 mg each at 12 hours interval
28. The risks associated with excessive blood transfusion in the preterm neonates include
A. Transfusion transmitted infection like HBV, HCV, HIV and CMV. B.Retinopathy of prematurity
C. Neonatal necrotizing enterocolitis D. All of the above
29. What is the normal oxygen saturation range at birth?
A) 80-85% B. 90-95% C. 65-70% D. 60-65%
30. On which physics principle, pulse oximetry works?
A. Bernoulli’s principle B. Beer Lambert’s law C. Galileo principle D. Newton’s law of motion
31. Specific immunoglobulins are available for all except:
a) Rabies b) Pertussis c) Tetanus d)Chickenpox
32. The most suitable site(s) for intramuscular and subcutaneous vaccination in children is:
a) Anterolateral aspect of the thigh b) Biceps area of the upper arm c) Fatty area of buttock d) Anywhere in buttock
33. If given in the same limb as another vaccine, the second vaccine should be separated by at least:
a) 0.5cm b) 1.5cm c) 2.5cm d) 3.5cm
34. the vaccines given in a government setup at 14 weeks are
A. Penta, BCG, PCV B. Penta, Rota, PCV C. OPV, HepB, BCG, D. Penta, MR, Rota
35. National Immunization week is celebrated in
A. March B. April C. May D. June
36. How many boosters of Typhoid conjugate vaccine are required
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 0
37. Which vaccine is only given in endemic areas in India
A. Rabies B. Japanese encephalitis C. MR D. Typhoid
38. Post rabid dog bite the management includes
A. Active and passive immunization, wound management B. Active immunization, wound management
C. passive immunization, wound management D. nothing is required, watch for ten days if the dog survives
39. The route used for BCG is
A. Intramuscular B. Intradermal C. Oral D. Subcutaneous
40.Penta injection contains
A. DPT, Rota, PCV B. DPT, IPV, Hep B C. DPT, HiB, Hep B D. IPV, Hib, HepB
Q41: Pica for ice seen in iron deficiency is referred to as:
a) Coprophagy b) Pagophagy c) Ferritinophagy d) Geophagy
Q42: Which of the following is characteristic of Thalassemia trait on CBC?
a) Decreased Red cell distribution width c)Increased Red cell distribution width
b) Increased Ferritin d) Decreased Ferritin
Q43: All of the following can cause chronic Immune Thrombocytopenic purpura except:
a) SLE b) Chronic Hepatitis C infection c)H. pylori infection d) Vitamin A deficiency
Q44: For factor VIII preparations to be classified as Extended Half Life (EHL), the minimum prolongation of half-life
over the standard half-life factors should be at least:
a) 1.2 times b) 1.4 times c) 1.6 times d) 1.8 times
Q45: All of the following drugs are used in induction phase of treatment of Acute Lymphoblastic leukemia in
Children except:
a) Cisplatin b) Prednisolone c) L- Asparaginase d)Intrathecal methotrexate
Q46: The treatment of choice for continuous prophylaxis for febrile seizure is:
a) Sodium Valproate b) Carbamazepine c)Phenytoin d) Paraldehyde
Q47: Which of the following is characteristic of Tuberous sclerosis?
a) Lisch nodules b) Shagreen patch c) Café-Au-Lait spots d) Angiokeratoma
Q48: Treatment of Guillian Barre syndrome consists of all except:
a)IVIG b)Methylprednisolone c) Supportive treatment d) High dose methylcobalamin
Q49 CSF picture suggestive of low sugar level, normal to mildly raised protein and mild pleiocytosis with
predominant lymphocytes is characteristic of:
a)Pyogenic meningitis b) Mumps meningitis c) TBM d) Herpes meningoencephalitis
Q50: All of the following drugs are used in the management of status epilepticus except:
a) Phenytoin b) Phenobarbitone c) Levetiracetam d)Topiramate
Q 51. Lymphnode can be normally palpable in children due to lymphnode hyperplasia in the age group –
a) 3- 7 yrs b) 4-8 yrs c) 5-9 yrs d) 2-6 yrs
Q52 Rate of gain of head circumference between 3-6 months is
a) 1 cm/month b) 0.5 cm/month c) 1.5 cm/month d) 2 cm/month
Q53. A child (0-5 yrs) whose weight for length/height falls between +1 and +2 Zscore is labelled as-
a) Obese b) Overweight c) Possible risk of overweight d) Moderate wasting
Q54. In a child with constitutional short stature one of the following is correct-
a) Bone age < Chronological age; Bone age < height age
b) Bone age >Chronological age; Bone age < height age
c) Bone age < Chronological age; Bone age = height age
d) Bone age > Chronological age; Bone age = height age
Q55. Skipping as a milestone is seen at
a)4 years b) 5 years c) 4 years 6 months d) 5 years 6 months
Q56. Which of the following skills is not achieved by 3 years-
a)Climbing stair alternate feet b) Tower of a blocks c) Copies circle d) Tying shoelaces
Q57. Breast milk is deficient in which fat soluble vitamin ?
a)Vitamin K b) Vitamin D c) Vitamin E d) Vitamin A
Q58. Which milk is considered first immunization of the child ?
a)Foremilk b) Transitional milk c) Colostrum d) Mature milk
Q59. Treatment of Vitamin A deficiency is given on day 0, day 1 and 4 weeks later. Each dose is __________.
Choose the correct option-
a)1.0 lakh IU in age < 6 months oral b) 2.0 lakh IU in age > 1 years
c) oral 1.0 lakh IU in age < 6 months IM d) 2.0 lakh IU in age > 1 years IM
Q 60. 25 OHD3 level indicative of Vitamin D deficiency are –
a)< 10 ng/ml b) <20 ng/ml c) <30 ng/ml d) <40 ng/ml