1. Which of the following is the 2nd leading cause of infant deaths in Palestine?

a. Congenital anomalies
c. Septicemia
b. Malignancies
d. Respiratory problems

2. The normal average of length at birth is ………………….

a. 50 cm
b. 65 cm
c. 35 cm
d. 70 cm
 
3. Which of the congenital anomalies are commonly associated with infant of
diabetic mother?
a. Congenital heart diseases b. Imperforated anus c. Renal anomalies d.
Esophageal atresia
 
4. The main cause of respiratory distress syndrome is ……………….
a. Unknown
c. Inadequate production of surfactant
b. Retained fluids in lung
d. Postmaturity

5. Toddler is the developmental age periods that extend from ………………..

a. Birth until 2 years
c. 1 to 3 years
b. 2 to 6 years
d. Birth until 1 month

6. Which of the following statements is correct about fetal circulation?

a. Ductus arteriosus connects between umbilical vein and inferior vena cava
b. The blood pressure in the right side is greater than the left side
c. Ductus venosus connects between aorta and pulmonary artery
d. The lung is the site of gas exchange in the fetus
7. The baby gets to a setting position at age…………..
a. 8 months
b. 10 months
c. 9 months
d. 12 months
 
8. All of the following factors predispose newborn to develop hypothermia Except:

A. Large body weight relative to body surface area.

B. Immature heat regulation center in the hypothalamus.

C. Inability of neonates to generate heat by shivering until 3 months of age

D. Thin layer of subcutaneous fat

 
9. Which of the following is a pathological skin conditions?
a. Acrocyanosis
b. Vernix caseosa
c. Mongolian spots
d. Jaundice
 
10. Which of the following measures is used to prevent heat loss by conduction?
a. Drying the infant as quickly as possible after birth.
b. Warming the objects that will touch an infant.
c. Incubators should be placed away from the walls and windows.
d. Keeping the newborn out of drafts.

11. A neonate is assessed soon after delivery, he was Active, grimace when suctioned from
nose, good respiration, acrocyanosis, with HR 95 bpm. His Apgar score will be
…………
a. 6 b. 9 c. 8 d. 7
 
12. While taking history from a mother of 48 hours newborn, she said that his baby does
not pass urine since birth. Which of the following is the nurse’s most appropriate action?
a. Notify the physician immediately because there is a problem.
b. Do nothing because this is a normal finding for the age.
c. Perform an intensive developmental examination.
d. Perform an intensive neurologic examination.
 
13. Persistence of Moro reflex for age of one year indicates ………………..
a. Post-maturity
b. CNS depression
c. Fracture clavicle
d. Mental retardation

14. Which of the following is a characteristic symptoms of post-maturity?

a. Increased vernix caseosa
c. Thin skin
b. Abundant lanugo hair
d. Little subcutaneous fat

15. The most dangerous complication of hyperbilirubinemia in newborn is

…………….
a. Lethargy
b. Poor feeding
c. Kernicterus
d. Jaundice in the eyes
 
16. What anatomic condition must be present for an infant with complete transposition of the
great vessels to survive at birth?
A. Coarctation of the aorta. c. Ventricular septal defect.
B. Pulmonic stenosis. d. Mitral stenosis
 
17. A 1-month-old infant, who had a meningomyelocele repaired at birth, is on the pediatric
unit for observation. The priority nursing assessment would be to ………………
C. Monitor for contractures. c. Measure the weight daily
D. Measure head circumference daily.. d. Obtain strict intake and output.
 
18. All of the following are clinical manifestations of Coarctation of the Aorta Except:
E. Frequent epistaxis.
F. Leg pain with activity
G. Bounding pulses in the upper extremities with weak or absent pulses in the lower extremities.
H. BP in the lower extremities may be 20 mm Hg or higher than that in the upper extremities.
 
19. Which of the following CHD causes left ventricular hypertrophy?
a. Aortic stenosis b. VSD. c. ASD d. Pulmonary stenosis
 
 
 
20. Which of the following is the most common type of esophageal atresia with
tracheoesophageal fistula?
A. Both upper and lower esophagus segments connected to the trachea.
B. Blind at each end of the esophagus, widely separated with no connection to the
trachea.
C. Proximal esophagus segment terminates in a blind pouch, & the distal segment is
connected to the trachea or primary bronchus by a short fistula
D. Proximal segment of esophagus opens into trachea, distal end is blind.
 
21. All of the following is acyanotic heart diseases Except:
a. TOF b. VSD c. PDA d. ASD
 
22. Which of the following drugs is used to close PDA?
a. Dexamethasone. b. Prostaglandin c. Indomethacin d. Pethidine
 
23. All of the following are major signs of rheumatic fever Except:
a. Carditis b. Chorea. c. Erythema marginatum d. Arthralgia
 
24. All of the following are drugs that may be used for treatment of
rheumatic fever Except:
a. Prednisone b. Heparin c. Penicillin d. Aspirin
  
25. In iron deficiency anemia, red blood cells are ……………
a. Normochromic b. Hyperchromic. c. Normocytic d. Hypochromic
 
26. Which of the following statements is true about sickle cell disease?
b. Is inherited as autosomal dominant trait
c. Nutritional deficiency anemia
c. Hemolytic anemia
d. Has absent or reduced hemoglobin chains
 
27. All of the followings are possible causes of hemolysis in G6PD deficiency
anemia Except:
a. Ingestion of fava beans b. Less intake of folic acid
c. Synthetic vitamin K injection d. Typhoid fever
 
28. Hemophilia B occurs due to ………………..
a. Deficiency of clotting factor 8 b. Deficiency of clotting factor 9
c. Inflammation of endothelium of blood vessels
d. d. Deficiency of platelets count

29. Which of the following laboratory tests support the diagnosis of ITP?
a. Reduced bleeding time b. Increase level of reticulocytes
c. Prolonged PT d. Decrease number of platelets

 
30. All of the followings are clinical manifestations of dehydration Except:
a. Bulging anterior fontanel b. Thirst c. Dry mucus membranes d. Sunken
eyes
 
31. All of the followings are advantages of ORS Except:
a. Corrects severe dehydration b. Suitable for all age
c. Inexpensive d. Control fever
 
32. All of the followings measures to take in consideration regarding feeding of infant with
cleft lip and palate Except:
a. Feed baby in supine position to minimize aspiration.
b. Soft nipple with large hole can be used or dropper.
c. Feed slowly, bubble frequently during feeding.
d. Smaller but more frequent feedings may be necessary

33. ………… is a malfunction of the lower segment of the esophagus so allowing gastric
contents to return back to the esophagus and vomiting
a. Gastroesophageal reflux b. Esophageal atresia
c. Pyloric stenosis d. Gastroenteritis
 
34. A 6-year-old is admitted with suspected rheumatic fever. Which finding is associated with
rheumatic fever?
a. Inability to digest certain grains
b. A case of streptococcal throat infection several weeks ago
c. Presence of sickle cell trait
d. A history of non-febrile convulsion
 
•  
35. A boy has a diagnosis of suspected Hirschsprung’s disease. Which sign
most likely led the mother to seek health care for the infant?
A. Diarrhea c. Foul-smelling ribbon-like stools
B. Regurgitation of feedings d. Projectile vomiting
 
36. The nurse performing an assessment to a 2-year-old child who diagnosed
with nephrotic syndrome notes that which most common characteristic is
associated with this syndrome?
a. Generalized edema b. Hypertension
c. Increased urinary output d. Frank, bright red blood in the urine

37. The nurse is creating a plan of care for a child who is at risk for seizures.
Which intervention should not be applied if the child has a seizure?
a. Time the seizure. b. Don't put anything in child's mouth
c. Stay with the child. d. Restrain the child..
 
38. A lumbar puncture is performed on a child suspected to have bacterial
meningitis, and CSF is obtained for analysis. Which results would verify the
diagnosis?
A. Clear CSF, decreased pressure, and elevated protein level
B. Cloudy CSF, elevated protein, and decreased glucose levels
C. Clear CSF, elevated protein, and decreased glucose levels
D. Cloudy CSF, decreased protein, and decreased glucose levels
 
39. …………………… to accumulation of CSF in the ventricular cavity of brain
causing ventricles to dilate and increase intracranial pressure.
a. Hydrocele. b. Hydronephrosis c. Spina bifida d. Hydrocephalus
 
 
40. The nurse analyzes the laboratory results of a child with hemophilia. The
nurse understands that which result will most likely be abnormal in this
child?
E. Platelet count c. Partial thromboplastin time
F. Hemoglobin level d. Hematocrit level
1. Which of the following is inactivated organism vaccine?
a. Salk
b. Sabin
c. Diphtheria
d. Hepatitis B
 
2. ………………….is a system used to ensure that vaccines are
kept at a designated temperature from the time they are
manufactured until they administered to baby
a. Cold chain
b. Vaccine vial monitor
c. Ecosystem
d. Hot chain
 
3. All of the followings are reasons for increased prevalence of
NCDs except:
a. Decrease incidence of NCDs
c. Advances in medical procedures
b. Increasing life expectancy
d. New diagnostic testing
 
4. All of the following are benefits of home health care
Except:
a. Prevent institutionalization
b. b. Maximize clients level of independence
c. Increasing client satisfaction
d. Raising the cost of health care
5. All of the followings are False contraindications for
vaccination Except:
a. Febrile convulsions after vaccination
c. Allergy and asthma
b. Non-febrile convulsions after vaccination
c. Treatment with antibiotics
 
6. To be effective in preventing disease in a population, The
vaccination coverage should be at least …………….
a. 55%
b. 75%
c. 90%
d. 60%
 
7. Bivalent Oral polio vaccine is the vaccine of choice for primary
immunization of children due to all of the following reasons Except:
a. It induces intestinal immunity, besides producing antibodies in blood
b. bOPV coverage of 80% and above induces herd immunity.
c. It is simple to administer orally, well accepted by children and mothers.
d. bOPV is a live attenuated vaccine made from the three types of polio
virus: type I, II and III.
 
8. All of the following are guidelines for family health assessment Except:
a. Focus on the family as a total unit
c. Allow adequate time for data collection
b. Ask goal-directed questions.
d. Use quantitative approach for data collection more than qualitative
9. Which of the following infections is prevented by Rota virus vaccine?
a. Pneumonia
b. Gastroenteritis
c. Poliomyelitis
d. Croup
 
10. All of the following vaccines should be subcutaneously Except:
a. Measles
b. BCG
c. IPV
d. Rubella
 
11. All of the followings are the major manifestation of active TB except:
a. Chronic cough
b. Fever
c. Weight loss
d. Hematemesis
 
12. ………………… implies fitting the job to the worker
a. Ecomapping
b. Ergonomics
c. Egocentric
d. Egometric
 
13. Which of the following is a dangerous manifestation of diphtheria?
a. Koplik's spots
b. Conjunctivitis
c. Pseudo membrane in the throat
d. Deafness

14. All of the followings are practical considerations regarding vaccination Except:
a. The minimum interval between multiple doses of the same antigen is 4 weeks.
b. During an immunization session, only one vial of each vaccine should be out of the
refrigerator
c. A freeze-dried vaccine should only be reconstituted with the diluent supplied with it
d. Mixing different vaccines in the same syringe should be done immediately before injection.
 
15. Penta vaccine include all of following vaccines except:
a. Hepatitis A
b. Diphtheria
c. Tetanus toxoid
d. HIB
 
16. Food and water-related illness are good examples for …………….. transmission
a. Vector
b. Vehicle-borne
c. Direct
d. Air-borne
 
17. Which of the following is mostly related to the controlling function of the
family?
a. Division of labor among members
c. Meet there members physical need
b. Acceptance of individual members
d. Sharing of gifts during holiday
18. ………………… immunity is the transfer of antibodies from one individual to
another
a. Active
b. Passive
c. Herd
d. Cross
 
19. Which of the following is an indirect cause of maternal mortality?
a. Preeclampsia
c. Heart disease
b. Death from traffic accident
d. Postpartum infections

20. All of the followings are reservoir of infectious diseases Except:

a. Human
b. Animal
c. Insect
d. Droplets
 
21. Which of the followings is a modifiable risk factor?
a. Age
b. Gender
c. Race
d. Hypertension
22. All of the following information regarding BCG vaccine are correct except:
a. BCG vaccine should be stored continuously at +20C to +80C in the center.
b. After reconstitution, the vaccine is easily damaged by sunlight and heat
c. BCG potency lasts for 24 hours after being reconstituted.
d. It should not be shaken after reconstitution, as shaking damages the vaccine

23. Which of the following is not True regarding roles of school health nursing?
a. Performs comprehensive & systematic health assessment
b. Provides ongoing health information to students, parents and school staff
c. Prescribe medications for sick students
d. Assesses the physical environment of the school for health hazard
24. All of the following are vaccine-preventable diseases that were included
in EPI Except:
a. Diphtheria
b. Pertussis
c. Tuberculosis
d. Hepatitis B

25. Which of the followings vaccines is live attenuated?

a. Hepatitis B
b. HIB
c. Tetanus
d. Rota vaccine
 
26. Education and immunization are examples of ………………..
a. Primary prevention b. Secondary Prevention
c. Tertiary Prevention d. All of the above
 
27. An infectious disease that has spread worldwide is described as ………………….
a. Epidemic b. Pandemic c. Endemic d. Communicable
 
28. Disease that exceed normal frequency in the same time and region is
described as ……………
a. Epidemic b. Pandemic
c. Endemic d. Communicable

29. Which of the following stage of progression of a disease that begins when
individuals have been exposed to a disease but are asymptomatic?
a. Susceptibility b. Preclinical c. Clinical d. Resolution
 
30. Health problems are most effectively prevented by …………………..
a. Maintaining health life -styles and health environment.
b. Detecting and treat existing health problems at the earliest possible stage.
c. Reducing the extent and severity of a health problem to its lowest possible level.
d. None of above.
31. All the following are characteristics of healthy community
Except ……….
a. Offers access to health care services. b. Ability to collaborate
and communicate.
c. Ability to communicate effectively. d. Focusing on
treatment rather than prevention.
 
32. ………………. Focuses on early detection of diseases in the
community.
a. Primary prevention. b. Secondary prevention.
c. Tertiary prevention. d. None of the above

33. The factor that their presence or absence cause a disease are
…………….
a. Host b. Agent c. Environmental d. None of above
 
 
34. The most familiar role of the community health nurse is ………………..
a. Advocate role. b. Care provider. c. Manager role. d.
Researcher role.

35. ………………….….. Focuses on helping people change their lifestyles

and move toward a state of optimal health or high level of wellness.
a. Health prevention. b. Health promotion.
c. Primary prevention d. Secondary prevention.

 
36. Community of women who have had mastectomies is an example
of ……………….
a. Geographic community b. Common interest community

c. Community of solution d. Population

37. ……………….. Provides a form of medical care for people with a
terminal illness e.g. cancer
a. Hospice care institution
b. Geriatric care institution
c. Rehabilitation unit care institutions
d. Orphanage care institution

38. All of the following are consistent with philosophy of the

primary health care Except:
a. Care provided in PHC is basic and indispensable
b. Universally accessible services
c. Socially acceptable Methods and technology

d. Needs of the community are determined only by health directors

(decision makers)
 
39. Which of the following is the ultimate Goal/s of Epidemiology?
a. Determine the extent of disease in population
b. Identify patterns of disease occurrence
c. Identify the causes of disease
d. All of the above
e. A & B only
 
40. ………………… describe the capacity of pathogen to enter the host
and multiply
a. Virulence
b. Pathogenicity
c. Infectivity
d. Antigenicity