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SEPTIAN ARISTYA 52
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STIP JAKARTA
Maintain safe navigation through the use of
information from navigation equipment and
system to assist command decision making
1. SOLAS (The International Convention for
the Safety of Life at Sea) regulations, Chapter 5,
deals with the Safety of Navigation and applies
to which vessels?
a. All vessels and on all voyages
2. What is the crucial aspect in executing a
voyage in a safe and efficient way?
a. An effective detailed passage plan fully
understood and followed by a competent bridge
team.
3. When handing over the con of a vessel to a
pilot, should the Master insist in discussing the
passage plan with the pilot while he is there to
use his local knowledge and advice on the
navigation of the ship?
a. A passage plan should be discussed between
the Master and pilot, when under pilotage in the
same way as discussed with the bridge team
when deep sea
4. When navigating using GPS, what is an
indicator of the geometry of the satellites that
your receiver is locked onto?
a. Horizontal Dilution of Precision
5. You are outbound in a buoyed channel on
course 015°T. You sight a white light showing a
Morse
(A) characteristic bearing 359° relative. For
safety, you should __________.
b. stay in the channel and leave the buoy to
port
6. To make sure of getting the full advantage of
a favorable current, you should reach an
entrance or strait at what time in relation to the
predicted time of the favorable current?
d. 30 minutes before the predicted time
7. You are entering port and have been instructed
to anchor, as your berth is not yet available. You
are on a SW'ly heading, preparing to drop anchor,
when you observe the range lights as shown on
your starboard beam. You should __________.
c. ensure your ship will NOT block the channel
or obstruct the range while at anchor
8. You are inbound in a channel marked by a range.
The range line is 309°T. You are steering 306°T and
have the range in sight as shown. The range continues
to open. What action should you take?
b. Alter course to the left until the range closes,
then steer to the left of 306°T.
9. You are underway on course 050°T and your
maximum speed is 11 knots. The eye of a
hurricane bears 070°T, 80 miles from your
position. The hurricane is moving towards
270°T at 19 knots. If you maneuver at 11 knots
to avoid the hurricane, what could be the
maximum CPA?
d. 66 miles
10. The symbol which appears beside a light on a
chart reads "Gp Fl R (2) 10 sec 160 ft 19M".
Which characteristic describes the light?
d. None of the above
11. Vessels required to have an Automatic Radar
Plotting Aid must have a device to indicate the
__________.
b. speed of the vessel over the ground or
through the water
12. You are attempting to locate your position relative
to a hurricane in the Northern Hemisphere. If the
wind direction remains steady, but with diminishing
velocity, you are most likely __________.
d. on the storm track behind the center
13. Your vessel has a draft of 24 feet. On 7 April 1983
you wish to pass over a temporary obstruction near
Lovell Island, MA, that has a charted depth of 22 feet.
Allowing for a safety margin of 3.1 feet under your
keel, what is the earliest time after 0100 EST (ZD +5)
that this passage can be made?
c. 0342
14. You are underway on course 050°T and your
maximum speed is 10 knots. The eye of a
hurricane bears 100°T, 90 miles from your
position. The hurricane is moving towards 285°T
at 19 knots. If you maneuver at 10 knots to avoid
the hurricane, what could be the maximum CPA?
c. 53 miles
15. Your radar indicates a target; however, there
is no visible object at the point indicated. A large
mountain, approximately 50 miles away on the
same bearing as the target, is breaking the
horizon. You should suspect the radar target is
caused by __________.
b. ducting
16. An indirect radar echo is caused by a
reflection of the main lobe of the radar beam
off the observer's vessel. Which of the
following is NOT a characteristic of indirect
echoes?
b. They always appear on a bearing of 90°From
the true bearing of the contact.
17. What will cause the ARPA to
emit a visual alarm, audible alarm, or
both? c. A tracked target entering
your preset CPA-TCPA limits
18. Complete information on weather broadcasts
throughout the world is contained in __________.
a. Selected Worldwide Marine Weather
Broadcasts
19. While in port, you can follow the approach of
a dangerous cyclonic storm by inspecting
__________.
c. a weather fax
20. Which factor(s) is/are used to
develop the charted information of a
lighthouse? a. Height and brightness of
the light
21. Which weather element cannot be
measured accurately while on board a moving
vessel? c. true wind speed
22. Under the numbering system used by NGA
(NIMA), a four digit number is used for __________. c.
non-navigational materials, such as a chart
correction template or maneuvering board
23. Information about direction and velocity of
rotary tidal currents is found in the __________.
c. Tidal Current Tables
24. Information about major breakdowns, repairs,
or other emergency operations with regard to
weirs and (or) wicket dams, on the western rivers,
may be obtained from the __________.
a. Broadcast Notice to Mariners
25. With respect to automatic identification
systems (AIS), which information is required
to be broadcast every 1 to 10 seconds?
a. Time stamp
26. With respect to failure warnings and status
indications, GPS receivers should provide, at
a minimum, __________.
a. a warning of loss of position
27. With respect to automatic identification
systems (AIS) which of the following
information is broadcast every one to ten
seconds?
c. Navigational status
28. Which of the following statements is TRUE
regarding automatic identification systems (AIS)?
c. AIS is a short-range VHF-FM system that
automatically broadcasts a vessel's position
and other safety related information
frequently to similarly equipped vessels,
aircraft and shore
stations within the area.
29. The symbols shown are used on radio
facsimile weather charts. The symbol indicated at
letter "O" represents __________.
a. sandstorms
30. Which statement about radio navigational
warnings is TRUE?
a. The topics for warnings included in
HYDROLANTS, HYDROPACS, and
NAVAREA warnings are the same.
31. What is the main purpose of VTS?
a) Increase the safety of all ships and the
protection of the environment in the vicinity
32. When a vessel is transiting a canal with locks
and intense bridge activities over many hours,
what management issues should the Master
consider?
a.All of these answers
33. Which of the following answers would best
define the term "risk"?
A. Risk is a situation involving exposure to
danger and includes both identification of
the occurrence and the likelihood that it will
happen
34. Who will have the authority to take charge
and make appropriate decisions in the event of a
vessel emergency when transiting the Panama
Canal?
a. The Panama Canal Authority
35. You are a Senior Officer of the Watch on
vessel "A" and are passing through the Straits of
Gibraltar. The vessel's speed is 18 knots and
your vessel is overtaking several other vessels,
when the visibility reduces down to about 2 nm.
What aspects would you consider when
establishing a "safe speed" for your vessel?
a. Deciding safe speed consider: 2 miles
visibility; traffic density; manoeuvrability of
vessel; effectiveness of navigational equipment
(ARPA etc); state of sea and currents and
navigational hazards.
36. Your vessel is to leave a crowded anchorage
making a 180 degrees turn. The ship has a right-
handed propeller and there is equal space either
side of the ship (as illustrated). What would be
the most suitable method to make the turn using
as little space as possible?
a. Rudder hard to port, full astern. After, gaining
some sternway, rudder hard to starboard and
full ahead
37. Two prolonged blasts followed by one
short blast on the whistle is a signal which
could be sounded by a __________.
a. Vessel overtaking another in a narrow channel
38. In a crossing situation on international waters,
a short blast by the give-way vessel indicates
that the vessel __________.
a. Is turning to starboard
39. What day-shape is prescribed
for a vessel constrained by her
draft? d. A cylinder
40. A vessel not under command sounds the same
fog signal as a vessel
d. All of the above
41. Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE concerning
light signals?
b. The time between successive signals shall be
not less than ten seconds
42. Under what circumstances would an
overtaking vessel sound a whistle signal of two
prolonged followed by one short blast?
a. When overtaking in a narrow channel
43. In which case would an overtaking vessel
sound a whistle signal of two prolonged
followed by one short blast?
44. When vessels are in sight of one another, two
short blasts from one of the vessels means
__________.
a. "I am altering my course to port"
45. Which vessel may NOT
exhibit two red lights in a
vertical line? a. A vessel
constrained by her draft
46. Vessel "A" is overtaking vessel "B" on open
waters and will pass without changing course.
Vessel "A" __________.
a. Will not sound any whistle signals
47. Of the vessels listed, which must
keep out of the way of all the others?
c. A vessel on pilotage duty and A
vessel pushing a barge
48. Which vessel would NOT sound a fog
signal of one prolonged and two short
blasts? c. A vessel being towed
49. You intend to overtake a vessel in a narrow
channel, and you intend to pass along the vessel's
port side. How should you signal your intention?
a. Two prolonged followed by two short blasts
50. A vessel sounds two short blasts. This signal

indicates the vessel __________.
a. Intends to alter course to port
51. A vessel sounds one short blast. This signal
indicates the vessel __________.
a. Intends to alter course to starboard
52. You are underway in a narrow channel, and
you are being overtaken by a vessel astern. After
the overtaking vessel sounds the proper signal
indicating his intention to pass your vessel on
your starboard side, you signal your agreement
by sounding
a. One prolonged, one short, one prolonged, and
one short blast in that order
53. A sailing vessel is overtaking a power-driven
vessel in a narrow channel, so as to pass on the
power-driven vessel's port side. The overtaken
vessel will have to move to facilitate passage.
The sailing vessel is the __________.
a. Give-way vessel and would sound two
prolonged blasts followed by two short blasts
54. A vessel constrained by her draft may display
__________.
a. Three all-round red lights in addition to the
lights required for a power- driven vessel of her
class
55. Two power-driven vessels are meeting. A two
blast whistle signal by either vessel means
__________.
a. "I am altering course to port"
56. A 20-meter power-driven vessel pushing
ahead or towing alongside will display
b. Two masthead lights in a vertical line
57. Which statement applies to a vessel
"constrained by her draft"?
a. She is severely restricted in her ability to
change her course because of her draft in relation
to the available depth of water
58. A whistle signal of one prolonged, one short,
one prolonged and one short blast, is sounded by
a vessel __________.
a. Being overtaken in a narrow channel
59. Your vessel is backing out of a slip in a harbor
and you can see that other vessels are
approaching. You should sound __________.
a. Three short blasts when leaving the slip
60. Which vessel is to keep
out of the way of the
others? c. A vessel
engaged in trawling
61. You are in sight of a power-driven vessel that
sounds two short blasts of the whistle. This
signal means that the vessel __________.
a. Is altering course to port
62. You are operating a vessel in a narrow
channel. Your vessel must stay within the
channel to be navigated safely. Another vessel
is crossing your course from starboard to port,
and you are in doubt as to his intentions.
According to Rule 9, you
a. May sound the danger signal
63. Vessel "A" is overtaking vessel "B" on
open waters as shown and will pass without
changing course. Vessel "A" __________.
(DIAGRAM 17 )
a. Need not sound any whistle signals
64. If you sighted three red lights in a vertical line
on another vessel at night, it would be a vessel
__________.
a. Constrained by her draft
65. On open water two vessels are in an
overtaking situation. The overtaking vessel has
just sounded one short blast on the whistle. What
is the meaning of this whistle signal?
a. "I am changing course to starboar"
66. You are underway in fog and hear a fog signal
consisting of one prolonged and two short blasts.
It could be any of the following EXCEPT a
vessel __________.
a. Being towed
67. Which vessel shall avoid impeding the
safe passage of a vessel constrained by her
draft? a. All of the above
68. A signal of one prolonged, one short, one
prolonged, and one short blast, in that order is
given by a vessel __________.
69. Which signal is sounded ONLY by a vessel
in sight of another and NOT in or near an area
of restricted visibility?
a. One short blast on the whistle
70. In addition to her running lights, an
underway vessel constrained by her draft may
carry in a vertical line __________.
a. Three red lights
71. Which vessel is NOT regarded as
being "restricted in her ability to
maneuver"? c. A towing vessel with
tow unable to deviate from its course
72. When two vessels are in sight of one another
and NOT in or near an area of restricted
visibility, any of the following signals may be
given EXCEPT
a. A light signal of at least five short and rapid
flashes
73. In a narrow channel, an overtaking vessel
which intends to PASS on the other vessel's
port side would sound __________.
a. Two prolonged followed by two short blasts
74. The light which may be used with a vessel's
whistle must be __________.
c. Used only at night
75. Which statement is TRUE concerning light
signals?
c. The time between successive signals shall be
not less than ten seconds.
76. While underway and in sight of another
vessel, you put your engines full speed astern.
Which statement concerning whistle signals is
TRUE?
a. You must sound three short blasts on the whistle
6.While underway at night, a power-driven vessel

of less than 7 meters in length, whose maximum
speed which does not exceed 7 knots, may show
__________.
a. One all-round white light, only
7.At night, a power-driven vessel less than 7
meters in length, with a maximum speed which
does not exceed 7 knots, MUST show when
underway at least __________.
a. A white light on the near approach of another
vessel
8.Lighting requirements in inland waters are
different from those for international waters for
__________.
a. Vessels towing astern
9.BOTH INTERNATIONAL AND
INLAND A towing light
__________. b. Is yellow in color
10. A towing light is ____________
d. A yellow light having the same characteristics
as the stern light
11. A light used to signal passing intentions must
be an __________.
a. All-round white light only
12. Which day-shape is prescribed for a vessel
constrained by her draft?
a. A cylinder
13. If at night a vessel displays three all-round
red lights in a vertical line, during the day she
may show __________.
a. A cylinder
14. A vessel displaying three red lights in a
vertical line is __________.
15. The International Rules of the Road apply
__________.
a. Upon the high seas and connecting waters
navigable by seagoing vessels
16. Which statement is TRUE
concerning a vessel "constrained by
her draft"? d. She must be a power-
driven vessel
17. Which vessel is NOT
"restricted in her ability to
maneuver"? b. A vessel
constrained by her draft
18. Your vessel is constrained by her draft and
operating in a narrow channel. Another vessel
is crossing your course from starboard to port.
You are in doubt as to her intentions.
According to Rule 9, you __________.
a. May sound the danger signal
19. Your vessel is crossing a narrow channel. A
vessel to port is within the channel and crossing
your course. She is showing a black cylinder.
You should __________.
a. Not impede the other vessel
20. Your vessel is backing out of a slip in a harbor.
Visibility is restricte You should sound
__________.
a. One prolonged blast only
21. You are approaching another vessel and will
pass safely starboard to starboard without
changing course. You should __________.
a. Hold course and sound no whistle signal
91. Which statement is TRUE concerning vessel
a situation involving a fishing vessel and not
a
under command?
c. The fishing vessel must keep out of the
way of the vessel not under comman
22. A signal of intent must be sounded
in international waters by
__________. b. A vessel overtaking
another in a narrow channel
23. While underway in fog, you hear a vessel
ahead sound two prolonged blasts on the whistle.
a. Sound only fog signals until the other vessel is
sighted
24. A towing vessel and her tow are severely
restricted in their ability to change course When
making way, the towing vessel will show ONLY
__________.
a. All of the above
25. You hear the fog signal of another vessel
forward of your beam. Risk of collision may
exist. You MUST __________.
a. Take all way off, if necessary
26. A fog signal of one short, one
prolonged, and one short blast may be
sounded by a b. Vessel at anchor
27. A vessel may enter a traffic separation zone
__________.
a. All of the above
28. In a traffic separation scheme, when joining a
traffic lane from the side, a vessel shall do so
____
a. At as small an angle as possible
29. A vessel using a traffic separation scheme is
forbidden to __________.
a. Proceed through an inappropriate traffic lane
30. To indicate that a vessel is constrained by her
draft, a vessel may display, in a vertical line,
____
a. Three 360° red lights
31. In addition to other required lights, a power-
driven vessel pushing ahead or towing
alongside displays __________.
a. Two white masthead lights in a vertical line
32. When moving from a berth
alongside a quay (wharf), a vessel must
sound d. No signal is require
33. You are in charge of a 250-meter freight
vessel constrained by her draft proceeding
down a narrow channel. There is a vessel
engaged in fishing on your starboard bow half
a mile away. According to Rule 9, which
statement is TRUE?
a. If you are in doubt as to the fishing vessel's
intentions you may sound at least five short and
rapid blasts on the whistle
34. A towing light
is __________. c.
Shown in addition
to the stern light
35. You are underway on the high seas in restricted
visibility. You hear a fog signal of one prolonged
and two short blasts. It could be any of the following
EXCEPT a Vessel __________.
a. Being towed
36. At night, a power-driven vessel underway of
less than 7 meters in length where its maximum
speed does not exceed 7 knots may show, as a
minimum, __________.
a. One all-round white light
37. In a narrow channel, a signal of intent which
must be answered by the other vessel, is sounded
by a vessel __________.
a. Overtaking another
38. When two vessels are in sight of one another,
all of the following signals may be given
EXCEPT
__________.
a. Four short whistle blasts
39. A power-driven vessel leaving a
quay or wharf must sound what signal?
d. No signal is require
40. What whistle signal, if any, would be sounded
when two vessels are meeting, but will pass clear
starboard to starboard?
a. No signal is require
41. In a narrow channel, a vessel trying to
overtake another on the other vessel's port side,
would sound a whistle signal of __________.
a. Two prolonged blasts followed by two short
blasts
42. On open water, a power-driven vessel coming up
dead astern of another vessel and altering her course to
starboard so as to pass on the starboard side of the
vessel ahead would sound __________.
a. One short blast
43. If a vessel displays three all-round red lights
in a vertical line at night, during the day she
may show __________.
a. A cylinder
44. A vessel not under command sounds
the same fog signal as a vessel
__________. d. All of the above
45. You are approaching another vessel and will
pass starboard to starboard without danger if no
course changes are made. You should
__________.
46. A fishing vessel is approaching a vessel
not under comman Which statement is TRUE?
a. The fishing vessel must keep clear of the
vessel not under comman
47. Which signal is required to be sounded by a
power-driven vessel ONLY
a. A signal meaning, "I am altering my course to
starboar"
48. The light which may be used with
a vessel's whistle is to be __________.
d. A white light
consider?
a. All of these answers
and make appropriate decisions in the event of
a vessel emergency when transiting the
Panama Canal?
a. The Panama Canal Authority
Gibraltar. The vessel's speed is 18 knots and
your vessel is overtaking several other vessels,
when the visibility reduces down to about 2 nm.
What aspects would you consider when
establishing a "safe speed" for your vessel?
a. Deciding safe speed consider: 2 miles
visibility; traffic density; manoeuvrability of
(ARPA, etc); state of sea and currents and
making a 180 degrees turn. The ship has a right
as little space as possible?
a. Rudder hard to port, full astern. After gaining
full ahead
53. Which signal is sounded
ONLY by a vessel in sight of
another? a. One short blast on the
whistle
Maintain the safety of Navigation through the
use of ECDIS and associated navigation
systems to assist command decision making
54. If the electronic chart is part of an ECDIS,
it must display the minimum data required
by IMO/IHO, to include all of the following
EXCEPT __________.
tidal currents
55. Which of the following must the electronic
chart of an ECDIS display, as required by
IMO/IHO? All of the above
56. ECDIS units incorporate Digital Chart Data
Formats, which include __________.
vector and raster
57. Raster-scan chart data is __________.
a digitized "picture" of a chart in one format and
one layer
58. Which of the following are data layer
categories to be displayed on ECDIS?
All of the above
59. Which of the following data layer categories is
NOT displayed on ECDIS?
Ship hydrodynamic information
60. The database resulting from (1) the
transformation of the electronic navigational
chart (ENC) by ECDIS for appropriate use, (2)
the updates to the ENC by appropriate means,
and (3) the additional data added by the mariner,
is called the __________.
system electronic navigational chart
61. The database information that should be
shown when a chart is first displayed on ECDIS
is the
__________.
standard display information
62. The level of database information which
cannot be removed from the ECDIS display and
consists of information which is required at all
times in all geographic areas and under all
circumstances is the __________.
display base information
63. ECDIS must give an alarm for which of the
following cases?
All of the above
following cases?
If the ship is going to reach a critical point on
the planned route
following cases?
When the specified limit for deviation from
the planned route is exceeded
66. Chart information details to be used in ECDIS
should be the latest edition of information originated
by a government-authorized hydrographic office and
conform to the standards of (the)
__________.
International Hydrographic Organization
67. An ECDIS is required to display which
information?
Hydrographic data
68. ECDIS must have the capability to preserve
the record of the voyage track for the previous
__________.
a.hours
69. Which data must ECDIS be able to record at
one-minute intervals?
All of the above
70. A position on ECDIS obtained by crossing
lines of position taken at different times and
advanced to a common time is a(n) _____
running fix
71. The vessel is passing through the English
Channel when the ARPA radars fail
completely and navigation must continue
without any operational radars. Should there
be any changes to your passage plan or bridge
procedures. Your vessel is equipped with an
operational ECDIS
Increase the officers on the bridge to allow
greater use of visual navigation
72. In accordance to the IALA buoyage system an
ODAS Buoy in the even on ECDIS should be
___________ in colour.
Yellow
73. How do you record Own Ship’s position on
the ECDIS charts when you have a
Range/Bearing ob servation rom your RADAR?
I record LOP in the Record function of the
Event Log.
74. How do you document your previous voyage
on the ECDIS?
I show a playback of my past voyage track on
the charts.
75. Can you monitor a route even though it
indicates an active Alert when you have
completed the Route Plan Check? ( A )
Yes the only thing preventing me from
monitoring would be an impossible Turn
message in the WPT tab.
76. Can you plan a route while you monitor
another route?
Yes the route planning function is
independent from the route monitoring
function.
77. What is the name of category of charts
generated by the user to draw up contingency
areas – No Go areas – clearing lines etc.?
User Chart
78. Can you create a Manual Update from an AIS
Safety Message shown on the ECDIS?
Yes-by manually creating the object.
79. The symbol for a wreck over which the depth
is unknown and is considered dangerous to
surface navigation is ________.
a. (c)
80. Can voyage planning be executed on ECDIS?

Only if approved by the Flag State
28. Which data must ECDIS be able to record at
one-minute intervals?
Course made good history
81. An ECDIS is required
to display which
information? Depth
contours
82. Which of the following must
an ECDIS system be able to
perform? All of the above
83. A coastal passage or voyage plan should
indicate the appropriate methods of
determining positions and include which of the
following?
All of these suggested answers
84. Is it necessary to construct a passage plan, (or
voyage plan), for transiting a canal or river,
when under pilot?
A passage plan is always required irrespective
of the length of the voyage, or if the ship is
under pilot
85. Rigging of the Pilot Ladder and
embarkation/disembarkation of a pilot should
be supervised by: A responsible Officer
86. SOLAS (The International Convention for the
Safety of Life at Sea) regulations
All vessels and on all voyages
An effective detailed passage plan fully
understood and followed by a competent bridge
team
Increase the safety of all ships and the protection
of the environment in the vicinity.
consider
All of these answers
90. When handing over the con of a vessel to a
pilot, should the Master insist in discussing the
A passage plan should be discussed between
the Master and pilot, when under pilotage in
the same way as discussed with the bridge
team when deep sea
91. When initially setting up the GPS to
provide positions for use with a paper chart
what Chart Datum should be selected?
Select WGS84 and when plotting pn the chart
apply the started corrections.
92. When planning a voyage crossing large
oceans, which of the following answers would
most suitably cover the most critical aspects to
be considered when deciding the courses to
steer? The anticipated weather and the need for
weather routing. The distances gained by
sailing by great circle. The ship's draught and
the loadline limits
93. Which of the following answers would best
define the term "risk"?
Risk is a situation involving exposure to
danger and includes both identification of
the occurrence and the likehood that it will
happen
94. While navigating using a paper chart marked
WGS84 the OOW plots the ships position by
four different methods and they all give
slightly different positions Which of the
following would be considered the most
accurate
Radar ranges from two radar destinctive
95. Who will have the authority to take charge and
make appropriate decisions in the event of a
Canal?
The Panama Canal Authority
vessel "A" and are passing through the Straits
of Gibraltar. The vessel's speed is 18 knots
and your vessel is overtaking several other
vessels, when the visibility reduces down to
about 2 nm. What aspects would you consider
when establishing a "safe speed" for your
vessel?
Deciding safe speed consider: 2 miles visibility;
traffic density manoeuvrability of vessel
effectiveness of navigational equipment (ARPA
etc); state of sea and current and naviagtional
hazards.
making a 180 degrees turn. The ship has right-
as little space as possible
Rudder hard to port, full astern. After gaining
full ahead
98. If the electronic chart is part of an ECDIS,
it must display the minimum data required by
IMO/IHO, to include all of the following
EXCEPT __________.
Tidal currents
99. The database resulting from (1) the
transformation of the electronic navigational
chart (ENC) by ECDIS for appropriate use, (2)
the updates to the ENC by appropriate means,
and (3) the additional data added by the mariner,
is called the
System electronic navigational chart
100. The level of database information
which cannot be removed from the ECDIS
display and consists of information which is
required at all times in all geographic areas
and under all circumstances is the
__________.
Display base information
101. Chart information details to be used in
ECDIS should be the latest edition of
information originated by a government-
authorized hydrographic office and conform to
the standards of (the)
__________.
International Hydrographic Organization
102. With respect to failure warnings and
status indications, GPS receivers should
provide, at a minimum, __________.
All of the above
103. Which feature, when set to zero, might
allow a GPS unit to have an accuracy
equivalent to Precise Positioning Service
receiver capability?
Selective Availability
104. The highest level of commercial
navigational accuracy is provided by
__________. DGPS, within a coverage
area
105. Which type of GPS receiver has at
least four channels to process information
from several satellites simultaneously?
Continuous
106. Which theoretical minimum number of
measurements from satellites does a GPS
receiver need in order to provide an exact three-
dimensional position?
Four
107. An ECDIS is
required to display which
information Soundings
108. An ECDIS is
required to display which
information? Depth
contours
109. Which data must ECDIS
be able to record at one-minute
intervals? Course made good
history
A warning of loss of position
An alarm if a new position has not been
calculated within the last two
112. As a licensed Merchant
Marine Officer you are expected to
__________. All of the above
113. NOAA VHF weather reports are
continuously broadcast on VHF channels
WX-1, WX-2 and WX-3 on a frequency of
__________.
162.55, 162.40, 162.475 mhz
114. ECDIS must be able to
perform all of the following
EXCEPT __________. Determine
magnetic compass deviation
115. A coastal passage or voyage plan
should indicate the appropriate methods of
determining positions and include which of
the following?
All of these suggested answers
116. When handing over the con of a vessel
to a pilot, should the Master insist in
discussing the passage plan with the pilot
while he is there to use his local knowledge
and advice on the navigation of the ship?
A passage plan should be discussed between
the Master and pilot, when under pilotage in
the same way as discussed with the bridge
team when deep sea
117. When initially setting up the GPS to
provide positions for use with a paper chart,
what Chart Datum should be selected?
Select WGS84 and when plotting on the chart
apply the stated corrections.
118. While navigating using a paper chart
marked WGS84 the OOW plots the ships
position by four different methods and they all
give slightly different positions. Which of the
following would be considered the most
accurate.
Radar ranges from two radar distinctive
headlands
provide, at a minimum,
All of the above
120. Which feature, when set to zero, might
allow a GPS unit to have an accuracy equivalent
to Precise Positioning Service receiver capability?
Selective Availability
69.
Manoeuvre and handle a ship in all conditions
121.A large vessel develops a sudden sheer when it
stops moving through the water, having been
steaming through a shallow water channel for
several miles. The sheer may be strong and
unexpected and is due to what reason?
a. The large volume of water dragged behind
the vessel continues to move forward and cause
a strong turning moment on the stern of the
vessel
122.A large vessel is coming alongside a pier with
two tugs assisting and there is little wind or current
affecting the vessel. What would be considered the
best use of the tugs and at which position?
a. Pushing on the ship's side and made fast in
case the vessel's movement towards the berth
requires reducing by the tug pulling off.
123.A large vessel is proceeding slowly up a
narrow channel, using its own engines and assisted
by the use of one tug. Where should the tug be
connected to assist the ship in maintaining its
course in the centre of the channel?
a. Made fast on a line through the centre lead
astern.
124.In shallow water a ship will experience
"Squat". What are the principle reasons creating
the effects of squat?
a. There is an increase in the water velocity
and a decrease of water pressure around the
ship's hull
125.What is understood by the term "Balanced
Rudder"?
a. A rudder with part of the rudder area
forward of the turning axis, therefore reducing
the load on the steering motor.
126.When a vessel is moving in shallow water it
will experience an effect known as "Squat". Which
of the following statements most accurately
specify the results of squat on the vessel?
a. There will be a reduction of the vessel's
underkeel clearance and a possible change
of
trim.
127. Discounting slip, if your vessel is turning
RPM for 10 knots and making good a speed of 10
knots, the current could be __________.
c. slack
128. How should you minimize the squat effect?
a. Decrease speed.
9. In relation to the squat effect, which of the
following statements is incorrect?
d. Squat results in a decrease in ship's draft
129. In which of these ship types is
"squat" likely to be most pronounced ?
d. A ship with a high block
coefficient.
130. When will we notice the effect of shallow
water?
c. When underkeel clearance is 50% or less.
131. You are on a VLCC and are approaching
shallow water with an underkeel clearance of
15%. What speed should you have when enter
shallow water and when should you slow down ?
A. Reduce to slow or less in due time before
entering.
132. A ship turns around a point called the
'pivot point'. Where is this point when the ship is
at full sea speed ?
c. At about 1/4 of the ship's length from the bow.
133. A ship turns around a point called the
'pivot point". What is the position of this point
when the ship is stopped in the water ?
a. At the ship's centre of gravity.
134. How is shallow water effect felt by a ship?
c. The ship becomes sluggish when responding to
the rudder.
135. You are in a 360 degrees turn with

engine full ahead. If you reduce speed while in
the turn, how will the turning diameter change ?
A. The turning diameter will increase.
136. You have made a turning circle at full

speed in deep water. If you repeat this in
shallow water, what will the turning diameter
be ?
d. The turning diameter will be increased in
shallow water.
137. You are going to leave a crowded
anchorage by making a 180 degrees turn. You
ship has a right handed propeller and you can
turn either way. How can you make the turn
using as little sea space as possible ?
c. Rudder hard to port, full astern. After you gain
some sternway, rudder hard to starboard and full
ahead.
138. You have made a turning test at full
speed in deep water. You are now going to
make one with initial speed, slow ahead. How
do you think the diameter will differ from that
of initial full ahead?
a. The diameter will be the same whatever initial
speed we have when starting the turn.
139. The ship is in a sharp starboard turn and
the Doppler log shows a sideways motion to port
at both forward and aft positions. Where would the
"pivot point" be considered to be located?
140. At a position outside the hull of the ship
itself
141. Would the indicated speed, as shown on a
Ground Tracking Doppler Log, be suitable for
berthing the vessel?
142. The approach speed is too fast.
143. Your ship is approaching the berth as
illustrated and has a right handed propeller and no
thrusters. What could be a method to retain full
control of the vessel as it comes alongside?
144. Let go starboard anchor to about 1
shackle on deck
145. You are on watch at sea on course
090°T. A man falls overboard on your starboard
side. You immediately start a Williamson Turn.
Which step is NOT a part of a Williamson Turn?
a. Step 2: Stop the engines until clear of the
man.
146. In relation to the turning circle of a ship,
the term "transfer" means the distance
__________.
a. gained at right angles to the original course
147. If two mooring lines are to be placed on
the same bollard, which method is BEST?
a. Place the eye from either line on the
bollard, and then bring the eye of the other
line up through the eye of the first, and place
it on the bollard.
148. The distance a vessel moves parallel to
the original course from the point where the
rudder is put over to any point on the turning
circle is called the __________.
a. advance
149. When turning a ship in restricted space
with a strong wind, it is normally best to
__________.
a. turn so that the tendency to back into the
wind can be used, if on a single-screw vessel
150. In stopping distances of vessels, "head
reach" can best be described as the __________.
a. distance the vessel will run between
taking action to stop her and being stationary
in the water
151. You are the Master of a single-screw
vessel. You are docking at a port which has no
tugs available. You decide to drop the offshore
anchor to help in docking. The amount of chain
you should pay out is __________.
a. 1 1/2 to 2 times the depth of the water
152.As the propeller turns, voids are formed on the
trailing and leading edges of the propeller blades
causing a loss of propulsive efficiency, pitting of the
blades, and vibration. These voids are known as
__________.
a. cavitation
An effective detailed passage plan fully
understood and followed by a competent
bridge
Increase the safety of all ships and the
protection of the environment in the vicinity.
155. When a vessel is transiting a canal with
locks and intense bridge activities overmany hours,
consider?
All of these answer
156. When handing over the con of a vessel to
a pilot, should the Master insist in discussing the
a passage plan should be discussed between
the Master and pilot, when under pilotage in the
same way as discussed with the bridge team
when deep sea.
157. Which of the following answers would
best define the term "risk"?
Risk is a situation involving exposure to
danger and includes both identification of the
occurrence and the likelihood that it will
happen
and make appropriate decisions in theevent of a
Canal?
ThePanama Canal Authority
Gibraltar. The vessel's speed is 18 knots and your
vessel is overtaking several other vessels, when
the visibility reduces down to about 2 nm. What
aspects would you consider when establishing a
"safe speed" for your vessel?
160. Deciding safe speed consider: 2 miles
visibility; traffic density; maneuverability of
(ARPA etc); state of sea and currents and
161. Your vessel is to leave a crowded
anchorage making a 180 degrees turn. The ship
has a right-handed propeller and there is equal
space either side of the ship (asillustrated). What
would be the most suitable method to make the
turn using as little space as possible?
162. Rudder hard to port, full astern. After
gaining some sternway, rudder hard to starboard
and full ahead
could be sounded by a
a. Vessel overtaking another in a narrow
channel
164. In a crossing situation on international
waters, a short blast by the give-way vessel
indicates that the vessel.
a. Is turning to starboard
165. What day-shape is prescribed for a vessel
a. A cylinder
166. A vessel not under command sounds
the same fog signal as a vessel__.Engaged in
towing Constrained by her draft Under sail
a. All of the above.
167. Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE
concerning light signals?
a. The time between successive signals shall
be not less than ten seconds
168. Under what circumstances would an
overtaking vessel sound a whistle signal of two
prolonged followed by one short blast?
169. In which case would an overtaking
vessel sound a whistle signal of two prolonged
followed by one short blast?
170. When vessels are in sight of one another,
two short blasts from one of the vessels means
__________.
a. "I am altering my course to port"
171. Which vessel may NOT exhibit two red
lights in a vertical line?
a. A vessel constrained by her draft
open waters and will pass without changing
course. Vessel "A"
173. Should sound one long blast
174. Of the vessels listed, which must keep out
of the way of all the others?
a. A vessel on pilotage duty
175. Which vessel would NOT sound a fog
signal of one prolonged and two short blasts?
a. A vessel being towed
176. You intend to overtake a vessel in a
narrow channel, and you intend to pass along the
vessel's port side. How should you signal your
intention?
a. Two prolonged followed by two short
blasts
177. A vessel sounds two short blasts. This
signal indicates the vessel
a. Intends to alter course to port
178. A vessel sounds one short blast. This
signal indicates the vessel
a. Intends to pass starboard to starboard
179. You are underway in a narrow channel,
and you are being overtaken by a vessel astern.
After the overtaking vessel sounds the proper
signal indicating his intention to pass your vessel
on your starboard side, you signal your agreement
by sounding
180. One prolonged, one short, one prolonged,
and one short blast in that order
181. A sailing vessel is overtaking a power
driven vessel in a narrow channel, so as to pass
on the power-driven vessel's port side. The
overtaken vessel will have to move to facilitate
passage. The sailing vessel is
a. the Give-way vessel and would sound two
prolonged blasts followed by two short blasts
182. A vessel constrained by her draft may
display
a. Three all-round red lights
183. Two power-driven vessels are meeting. A
two blast whistle signal by either vessel means
a. "I am altering course to port"
a. Two masthead lights in a vertical line
change her course because of her draft in relation
to the available depth of water.
186. A whistle signal of one prolonged, one
short, one prolonged and one short blast, is
sounded by a vessel
187. Your vessel is backing out of a slip
in a harbor and you can see that other
vessels are approaching. You should sound
a. Three short blasts when leaving the ship
188. Which vessel is to keep out of the way of
the others?
a. A vessel engaged in trawling
189. You are in sight of a power-driven vessel
that sounds two short blasts of the whistle.
a. This signal means that the vessel
190. You are operating a vessel in a narrow
channel. Your vessel must stay within the channel
to be navigated safely. Another vessel is crossing
your course from starboard to port, and you are in
doubt as to his intentions.
a. According to Rule 9, you May sound the
danger signal
open waters as shown and will pass without
changing course. Vessel "A" (DIAGRAM 17 )
192. Need not sound any whistle signals
66. If you sighted three red lights in a vertical line
on another vessel at night, it would be a vessel
193. Constrained by her draft
194. On open water two vessels are in an
overtaking situation. The overtaking vessel has
just sounded one short blast on the whistle. What
is the meaning of this whistle signal?
a. "I am changing course to starboard"
195. You are underway in fog and hear a fog
signal consisting of one prolonged and two short
blasts. It could be any of the following EXCEPT
a vessel
safe passage of a vessel constrained by her draft?
a. All of the above
197. A signal of one prolonged, one short, one
prolonged, and one short blast, in that order is
given by a vessel
198. Which signal is sounded ONLY by a
vessel in sight of another and NOT in or near an
area of restricted visibility?
199. In addition to her running lights, an
underway vessel constrained by her draft may
carry in a vertical line
a. Three red lights
200. When two vessels are in sight of one
another and NOT in or near an area of restricted
visibility, any of the following signals may be
given EXCEPT
a. A light signal of at least five short and
rapid flashes
201. In a narrow channel, an overtaking
vessel which intends to PASS on the other
vessel's port side would sound
blasts
would be sounded by a vessel
a. Overtaking another in a narrow channel
203. You intend to overtake a vessel in a
narrow channel, and you intend to pass along the
vessel's port side. How should you signal your
intention?
blasts
204. You are underway in a narrow channel,
and you are being overtaken by a vessel astern.
After the overtaking vessel sounds the proper
signal indicating his intention to pass your vessel
on your starboard side, you signal your agreement
by sounding
a. One prolonged, one short, one prolonged
and one short blast
open waters and will pass without changing
course
a. Vessel "A" should Not sound any whistle
signals
206. Which signal is sounded ONLY by a
vessel in sight of another?
207. The light which may be used with a
vessel's whistle must be
a. Used only at night
208. Which statement is TRUE concerning
light signals?
a. The time between successive signals shall
be not less than ten seconds.
209. While underway and in sight of another
vessel, you put your engines full speed astern.
Which statement concerning whistle signals is
TRUE?
a. You must sound three short blasts on the
whistle.
210. While underway at night, a power-driven
vessel of less than 7 meters in length, whose
maximum speed which does not exceed 7 knots,
may show
a. One all-round white light only
211. At night, a power-driven vessel less than
7 meters in length, with a maximum speed which
does not exceed 7 knots, MUST show when
underway at least;
a. A white light on the near approach of
another vessel
212. Lighting requirements in inland waters are
different from those for international waters for
a. Vessels towing astern
a. Two masthead lights in a vertical line
214. Both international and inland a towing
light
a. Is yellow in color
215. A towing light is
a. Shown below the stern light
216. A light used to signal passing intentions
must be an
a. All-round white light only
217. A vessel constrained by her draft may
display ;
a. Three all-round red lights instead of the
lights required for a power driven vessel of her
class
218. Which day-shape is prescribed for a vessel
a. A cylinder
219. If at night a vessel displays three all
round red lights in a vertical line, during the day
she may show
a. A cylinder
220. A vessel displaying three red lights in a
vertical line is
221. The International Rules of the Road apply
a. Upon the high seas and connecting waters
navigable by seagoing vessels
change her course because of her draft in
relation to the available depth and width of
navigable water.
223. Which statement is TRUE concerning a
vessel "constrained by her draft"?
a. She must be a power-driven vessel.
224. Which vessel is NOT "restricted in her
ability to maneuver"?
a. A vessel servicing an aid to navigation
225. Your vessel is constrained by her draft and
operating in a narrow channel. Another vessel is
crossing your course from starboard to port. You
are in doubt as to her intentions. According to
Rule 9,
a. you May sound the danger signal
226. Your vessel is crossing a narrow channel.
A vessel to port is within the channel and crossing
your course. She is showing a black cylinder
a. You should Not impede the other vessel
227. Your vessel is backing out of a slip in a
harbor. Visibility is restricted You should sound
a. One prolonged blast only
228. You are approaching another vessel and
will pass safely starboard to starboard without
changing course. You should
situation involving a fishing vessel and a vessel
not under command? ;
a. The fishing vessel must keep out of the
way of the vessel not under command
230. Of the vessels listed, which must keep out
of the way of all the others?
a. A vessel restricted in her ability to
maneuver
safe passage of a vessel constrained by her draft?
a. All of the above
232. A signal of intent must be sounded in
international waters by.
a. A vessel overtaking another in a narrow
channel
233. While underway in fog, you hear a vessel
ahead sound two prolonged blasts on the
whistle.;
a. You should Sound only fog signals until
the other vessel is sighted
234. A towing vessel and her tow are
severely restricted in their ability to change
course. When making way, the towing vessel
will show ONLY ;
a. All of the above.
235. You hear the fog signal of another
vessel forward of your beam. Risk of collision
may exist. You MUST
a. Take all way off, if necessary
236. A fog signal of one short, one prolonged,
and one short blast may be sounded by a
a. Vessel at anchor
237. A vessel may enter a traffic separation
zone
a. To cross the traffic separation scheme
238. In a traffic separation scheme, when
joining a traffic lane from the side, a vessel
shall do so
a. At as small an angle as possible
239. A vessel using a traffic separation scheme
is forbidden to
a. Proceed through an inappropriate traffic
lane
240. To indicate that a vessel is constrained by
her draft, a vessel may display, in a vertical line
a. Three 360° red lights
241. In addition to other required lights, a
power-driven vessel pushing ahead or towing
alongside displays
a. Two white masthead lights in a vertical
line
242. Which statement is true concerning a
vessel "constrained by her draft"?
a. She must be a power-driven vessel.
243. You are in charge of a 250-meter freight
vessel constrained by her draft proceedingdown a
narrow channel. There is a vessel engaged in
fishing on your starboard bowhalf a mile away. If
you are in doubt as to the fishing vessel's
intentions you may
a. sound at least five short and rapid blasts
on the whistle.
244. You are underway on the high seas
in restricted visibility. You hear a fog signal
of one prolonged and two short blasts. It
could be any of the following EXCEPT
a. a vessel Minesweeping
245. In a narrow channel, a signal of intent
which must be answered by the other vessel, is
sounded by a vessel
a. Overtaking another
246. When two vessels are in sight of one
another, all of the following signals may be
given
EXCEPT
a. Four short whistle blasts
247. A power-driven vessel leaving a quay or
wharf must sound what signal?
a. No signal is require
248. What whistle signal, if any, would be
sounded when two vessels are meeting,
a. but No signal is require
249. In a narrow channel, a vessel trying to
overtake another on the other vessel's port side,
would sound a whistle signal of
a. Two prolonged blasts followed by two
short blasts
250. On open water, a power-driven vessel
coming up dead astern of another vessel and
altering her course to starboard so as to pass on
the starboard side of the vessel ahead would
sound.
a. One short blast
251. Which signal is required to be sounded by
a power-driven vessel ONLY?
a. A signal meaning, "I am altering my
course to starboard"
252. The light which may be used with a
vessel's whistle is to be
a. A white light
253. The effectiveness of a rudder is
dependant on the flow of water past the rudder. If
the rudder is put hard over when the ship is at full
ahead in deep water, and then the engines are
stopped, how much lift force remains?
254. About 20 %
255. Where is the normal position of the "Pivot
Point" of the vessel when going ahead?
a. 1/3 of the vessel's length from the bow.
256. Williamson Turn 1/3 of the vessel's length
from the bow.
a. The squat effect will be reduced to a
quarter of its original value
257. When a vessel is moving in shallow water
it will experience an effect known as "Squat".
Which of the following statements most
accurately specify the results of squat on the
vessel?
258. There will be a reduction of the vessel's
under keel clearance and a possible change of
trim
259. In shallow water a ship will experience
"Squat". What are the principle reasons creating
the effects of squat?
260. There is an increase in the water velocity
and a decrease of water pressure around the
ship's
Hull
261. The effective stability of a tug, when
assisting a vessel to manoeuvre, can be decreased
by hydrodynamic interaction with the ship it is
assisting. Where is the most dangerous position of
the tug relative to the ship, for this adverse affect
to be found?
262. The most dangerous position is where
the tug approaches the bow rounding the
forward shoulder of the larger vessel.
263. Would the indicated speed, as shown
on a Ground Tracking Doppler Log, be
suitable for berthing the vessel?
264. The approach speed is too fast.
265. As the propeller turns, voids are formed
on the trailing and leading edges of the propeller
blades causing a loss of propulsive efficiency,
pitting of the blades, and vibration. These voids
are known as
266. Cavitation
267. Which of the alternative methods of
using a tug when escorting a ship through
narrow waters would be considered the most
effective in the event of loosing steering power?
268. The tug made fast on a line through the
centre lead astern. (figure 4).
269. The rudder is hard over when steaming
at full ahead in shallow water. How much "lift
force" remains when the engine is stopped?
270. About 80 %
the Doppler log shows a sideways motion to port
at both forward and aft positions. Where would the
"pivot point" be considered to be located?
272. At a position outside the hull of the ship
itself
273. When a vessel is to experience a long
tow across an ocean, what would be the best
system of connecting the tow?
274. Wire from a deep sea tug connected to the
ship's anchor chain.
275. A tug is connected by a line to the bow of
a ship. Will the bollard pull exerted by the tug be
the same at any speed?
276. No, when the ship's speed exceeds
about 5 knots it will be expected that there
will be a reduced pull exerted by the tug
136 . In the situation illustrated, what should be
the distribution of the power requirements from
the tugs, if the ship is to be moved sideways
without changing the heading? Both tugs have
similar bollard pull and are of conventional
propulsion
277. Much greater power on the forward tug
than the after tug while monitoring the gyro
heading
278. It has been established by experience
that the most successful method of double
banking two vessels, when no tugs are available,
is one of the following methods. Select which
answer is considered the most successful method.
279. When both vessels are underway, fig. 1
280. A vessel berths at two different jetties
under the influence of a 1 knot beam current. At
the first jetty the ship has an underkeel clearance
of 5 times the draught and at the second the
underkeel clearance is only 0.5 times the draught.
If the current exerted a force of 50 tonnes on the
ship at the first jetty, what would be the
approximate force exerted at the second if the
draught is the same?
281. 150 tonnes
282. The ship is berthed in a steady offshore
beam wind of 30 knots which suddenly increases
to 60 knots. What will be the change of force
exerted on the ship driving it off the jetty?
283. The force will be Quadrupled
140. The ship is approaching shallow water where
the Under Keel Clearance will reduce to about
0.25 of the ship's draught. Which of the following
answers most accurately summarizes the aspects
to be considered when deciding a suitable speed?
284. All of the suggested answers
285. When connecting a tugboat, what speed
do you think is best for your vessel to maintain
during this operation?
286. The speed should be less than 5 knots,
normally 3 - 5 knots
287. What will have a major effect on the
performance of a tug when used to assist in
the manoeuvring of a large vessel?
288. The position of the tug relative to the
ship's pivot point
289.What would be the correct understanding of
the term "a ship is directionally unstable"? a.
The ship requires continual application of the
rudder to maintain a steady course.
290.Your ship is approaching the berth as
illustrated and has a right handed propeller and no
thrusters. What could be a method to retain full
control of the vessel as it comes alongside?
291. Let go starboard anchor to about 1 shackle
on deck
292. A ship experiences an interaction effect
known as "Squat" when moving in shallow water.
The amount of Squat is affected by the speed of
the vessel through the water. If the speed through
the water is HALVED what will be the change in
the affect of "Squat"
293. The squat effect will be reduced to a
quarter of its original value
294.A ship has turned a complete circle (360 degrees)
in deep water at full ahead throughout the turn. The
same ship, in the same conditions, is now to make a
complete turn (360 degrees) at half ahead throughout
the turn. Would there be any difference in the size
(diameter) of the turning circle?
295. No, the diameter of the turning circle
would be almost the same.
296. A large vessel develops a sudden sheer
when it stops moving through the water, having
been steaming through a shallow water channel
for several miles. The sheer may be strong and
unexpected and is due to what reason?
a. The large volume of water dragged behind
the vessel continues to move forward and cause a
strong turning moment on the stern of the vessel
297.A large vessel is coming alongside a pier with two
tugs assisting and there is little wind or current
affecting the vessel. What would be considered the best
use of the tugs and at which position?
a. Pushing on the ship's side and made fast in
case the vessel's movement towards the berth
requires reducing by the tug pulling off
298. A large vessel is proceeding slowly up a
narrow channel, using its own engines and
assisted by the use of one tug. Where should the
tug be connected to assist the ship in maintaining
its course in the centre of the channel?
a. Made fast on a line through the centre lead
astern.
299. In the situation illustrated, what should be
the power distribution of the tugs to maintain the
ship sideways motion with only minor changes in
the ship's heading?
a. Considerably more power on the aft tug
than the forward tug, while monitoring the ship's
gyro heading
300. The rudder is hard over when steaming
at full ahead in shallow water. How much "lift
force" remains when the engine is stopped?
About 10 %
301. The ship is approaching shallow water
where the Under Keel Clearance will reduce to
about 0.25 of the ship's draught. Which of the
following answers most accurately summarizes the
aspects to be considered when deciding a suitable
speed?
All of the suggested answers
the Doppler log shows a sideways motion to
port at both forward and aft positions. Where
would the "pivot point" be considered to be
located?
At a position outside the hull of the ship
itself
303. What will have a major effect on the
performance of a tug when used to assist in
the manoeuvring of a large vessel?
The position of the tug relative to the ship's
pivot point
304. 25. When a vessel is to experience a long
tow across an ocean, what would be the best
system of connecting the tow
Wire from a deep sea tug connected to the
ship's anchor chain.
305. When connecting a tugboat, what speed
do you think is best for your vessel to maintain
during this operation?
The speed should be less than 5 knots,
normally 3 - 5 knots
306. Where is the normal position of the "Pivot
Point" of a vessel when going astern?
Between 1/4 of the ship's length from the
stern and the rudder post
307. Which of the alternative methods of using
a tug when escorting a ship through narrow waters
would be considered the most effective in the
event of loosing steering power?
The tug made fast on a line through the
centre lead astern. (figure 4).
308. Why does a ship move laterally (sideward
drift) when turning.
Because the pivot point is not at the centre of
the ship
309. 31. Would the indicated speed, as
shown on a Ground Tracking Doppler Log, be
suitable for berthing the vessel?
a. The approach speed is too fast.
310. Your ship is approaching the berth as
illustrated and has a right handed propeller
and no thrusters. What could be a method to
retain full control of the vessel as it comes
alongside?
a. Let go starboard anchor to about 1 shackle
on deck
311. Your vessel has been loaded in a sagging
condition. Enroute you encounter heavy weather
and notice buckling in the midships deck plating
of your vessel. To relieve the strain you could
__________.
a. All of the above
312. Which statement concerning the
handling characteristics of a fully loaded vessel
as compared with those of a light vessel is
FALSE?
a. A light vessel loses more rudder effect in
shallow water.
313. Your vessel has grounded on a bar. What
should you do?
a. Switch to the high suction for condenser
circulating water, if it is submerge
314. The effect of wind on exposed areas of the
vessel is most noticeable when __________.
a. Backing
315.Most of your vessel's superstructure is forward
How will the vessel lie when drifting with no way
on?
a. With the wind from abaft the beam
316. When steering a vessel, a good helmsman
will __________.
a. Repeat back to the watch officer any
rudder commands before executing them
317. The turning circle of a vessel making a
turn of over 360 degrees is the path followed by
the
__________.
a. Center of gravity
318. The distance a vessel moves at right
angles to the original course, when a turn of 180°
has been completed, is called the __________.
a. Tactical diameter
319. Your ship is in shallow water and the
bow rides up on its bow wave while the stern
sinks into a depression of its transverse wave
system. What is this called?
a. Squatting
320. You are on watch at sea on course
090°T. A man falls overboard on your starboard
side. You immediately start a Williamson Turn.
Which step is NOT a part of a Williamson Turn?
a. Step 2: Stop the engines until clear of the
man.
321. In relation to the turning circle of a ship,
the term "transfer" means the distance
__________.
a. Gained at right angles to the original
course
322. If two mooring lines are to be placed on
the same bollard, which method is BEST?
a.Place the eye from either line on the bollard,
and then bring the eye of the other line up
through
the eye of the first, and place it on the bollard
323. The distance a vessel moves parallel to the
original course from the point where the rudder is
put over to any point on the turning circle is called
the __________.
a. Advance
324. When turning a ship in restricted space
with a strong wind, it is normally best to
__________.
a. Turn so that the tendency to back into the
wind can be used, if on a single-screw vessel
325. When heading on a course, you put your
rudder hard over. The distance traveled parallel to
the direction of the original course from where
you put your rudder over to any point on the
turning circle is known as __________.
a. Advance
326. The distance gained in the direction of the
original course when you are making a turn is
known as __________.
a. Advance
201 You have determined the maneuvering
characteristics of your vessel by taking the radar
ranges and bearings of an isolated light while
making a turn. The results are as liste Based on
this data what is the transfer for a turn of 30°?
D035dg
327. 40 yards
202 The turning circle of a vessel is the path
followed by the __________.
328. Center of gravity
329. How does the effect known as "bank
suction" act on a single-screw vessel proceeding
along a narrow channel?
a. It pulls the stern toward the bank.
330. What does the helm command "shift the
rudder" mean?
a. Put the rudder over to the opposite side,
the same number of degrees it is now.
331. In stopping distances of vessels, "head
reach" can best be described as the __________.
a. Distance the vessel will run between
taking action to stop her and being stationary
in the water
332. Your vessel is port side to a pier with a
spring line led aft from the bow. In calm weather,
putting the engines ahead with the rudder hard left
should bring __________.
a. The bow in and the stern out
333. You are the Master of a single-screw
vessel. You are docking at a port which has no
tugs available. You decide to drop the offshore
anchor to help in docking. The amount of chain
you should pay out is __________.
a. 1 1/2 to 2 times the depth of the water
334. The helm command "meet her" means
__________.
a. Use rudder to check the swing
335. How does the effect known as "bank
suction" act on a single-screw vessel proceeding
along a narrow channel?
a.It pulls the stern toward the bank.
336. As a ship moves through the water, it
drags with it a body of water called the wake. The
ratio of the wake speed to the ship's speed is
called __________.
a.Wake fraction
337. The term "Shift the Rudder" means
__________.
a. Change from right to left or left or right
Response to Navigational Emergencies
338. As a probable result of being in
collision with your vessel, the other vessel
involved is on fire? What are your
responsibilities to the other vessel?
a. After checking the extent of the damage
and welfare of your crew, if possible
your vessel should standby and offer
assistance, until being relieved of that
obligation by the other vessel.
339. Ship A is fully loaded with iron ore and is
navigating in a coastal region when it is in
collision with ship B, causing ship A to take in
water in several holds. What is the best course
of action by ship A to save the vessel and the
cargo?
a. Put the ship aground on a soft sandy
bottom as soon as possible
340. The bridge wheelman has not reported
for duty and there is a suspected "Man
Overboard" situation on your vessel. The
ship has been searched and there is one
seaman missing? The vessel turns round and
retraces the course back, calling for
assistance from other vessels in the vicinity.
What should be the focal point for any
search pattern to be established?
a. Determine when the seaman was last
sighted and concentrate the search round
the course line between the last sighting
and present position, taking into account
any prevailing current.
341. The engines have failed and will require
at least 24 hours to be available as a reliable
means of propulsion. Your vessel is about 20
miles off the coast in a tidal area. What are
the initial steps that should be taken to ensure
the safety of the ship?
a. Display NUC lights and investigate the
tidal flow over the next 24 hours and
the probable drift of the vessel.
342. The vessel is passing through the English
Channel when the ARPA radars fail
completely and navigation must continue
without any operational radars. Should there
be any changes to your passage plan or bridge
procedures. Your vessel is equipped with an
operational ECDIS
a. Increase the officers on the bridge to allow
greater use of visual navigation
343. You are Sen.Off.Deck / Duty officer
onboard one of the vessels involved in a
collision. What will your actions be following
the collision?
a. Make sure your vessel + crew are safe
and then offer your assistance to the
other vessel
344. You are Sen.Off.Deck onboard a
merchant vessel. During the night you have
been in a collision with a sail boat and there
are no signs of life in the water. What
would you do?
a. Alarm the rescue centre and commence
searching for any survivors
345. You are witness to a collision between
two other ships close to your vessel. What
immediate action should you take?
a. Nothing, just standby and wait to see if
any assistance is required.
346. Your vessel has been in collision and it is
uncertain whether the vessel has the required
residual stability to remain afloat. After
sounding the general alarm on board and
informing the nearest Coast Radio Station of
your situation, what other immediate steps
should be taken?
a. Complete soundings of all compartments
to determine the number of
compartments flooded. Check the vessels
stability limitations within its statutory
loadline requirements to determine if still
adequate.
347. Your vessel has been in involved in a
collision with an other vessel. As Master
responsible for the ship and persons on board,
what is the first step to take?
Organise someone to assess the extent
of damage and the residual stability of
the vessel.
b. Your vessel is involved in a collision with
another vessel. What should you as Master
tell the Master on the other vessel?
Name; Port of registry; Port of destination
of your vessel.
c. Your vessel is progressing within a Traffic
Separation Scheme and receives a navigational
warning of another vessel progressing the
wrong way within the scheme. What actions
should be taken on the bridge, if any?
Use the Arpa for early identification of
all other ship movements within the
traffic lane and give rogue vessel a wide
berth
348. A vessel restricted in her ability to
maneuver shall __________.
turn off her sidelights when not making
way
349. Your ship is sinking rapidly. A container
containing an inflatable liferaft has bobbed to the
surface upon functioning of the hydrostatic release.
Which action should you take?
Take no action because the painter will
cause the liferaft to inflate and open the
container.
350. You are underway when a fire breaks
out in the forward part of your vessel. If
possible, you should __________.
a. put the vessel's stern into the wind
16, During helicopter evacuation of an
injured man, what course should the
ship steer? As instructed by the
helicopter pilot
351. What manoeuvre should be carried out in
case of a fire onboard a ship?
352. Reduce speed and, if possible, keep the
fire zone to the leeward of the ship
353. Your vessel has been involved in a
collision, and at first opportunity a lot of people
from outsides parties are asking questions. What
shall you tell them?
354. Do not reply to any questions from outside
parties, except the Solicitor appointed by your
company.
355. If you are forced to abandon
ship in a lifeboat, you should
__________. a. remain in the
immediate vicinity
356. You are underway in reduced visibility.
You hear the fog signal of another vessel about
20° on your starboard bow. Risk of collision may
exist. You should __________.
b. reduce your speed to bare steerageway
357. You are approaching a bend in a channel.
You cannot see around the bend because of the
height of the bank. You should __________.
d. sound a whistle blast of 4 to 6 seconds
duration
vessel of 150 meters in length, at anchor?
b. She must show all-round white lights
forward and aft.
359. Which vessel would be required to show
a white light from a lantern exhibited in sufficient
time to prevent collision?
b. A rowboat
360. You sight another power-driven vessel
dead-ahead showing both the red and green
sidelights. The required action to take would be
to __________.
d. alter your course to starboard
361. You are underway in fog and hear one
short, one prolonged, and one short blast in
succession. What is the meaning of this signal?
c. A vessel is at anchor, warning of her position.
362. What is a requirement for any action taken
to avoid collision?
c. The action must be positive and made in
ample time.
363. In the daytime, you see a large sailing
vessel on the beam. You know that she is also
propelled by machinery if she shows __________.
c. a black cone
364. Your power-driven vessel is stopped and
making no way, but is not in any way disabled.
Another vessel is approaching you on your
starboard beam. Which statement is TRUE?.
b. Your vessel is the give-way vessel in a
crossing situation.
365. Vessels of less than what length may not
impede the passage of other vessels which can
safely navigate only within a narrow channel or
fairway?
b. 20 meters
366. A vessel nearing a bend or an area of a
channel or fairway where other vessels may be
hidden by an obstruction shall __________.
b. sound a prolonged blast
367.A power-driven vessel at anchor, not fishing
or otherwise restricted in its ability to maneuver,
sounds her fog signal at intervals of not
__________.
a. More than one minute
368.What day-shape would a vessel at anchor
show during daylight?
a. One black ball
369. Barges being towed at night __________.
a. Must be lighted at all times
370. An anchored vessel on pilotage duty must
show which light(s) at night?
D, A white light over a red light and anchor
lights
371.A vessel which is fishing is required to show
sidelights and a stern light only when
__________.
a. Underway
372. What is a requirement for any action taken
to avoid collision?
a. The action must be positive and made in
ample time.
373. For identification purposes at night, U.S.
Navy submarines on the surface may display an
intermittent flashing light of which color?
a. Amber (yellow)
374.Vessels engaged in fishing may show the
additional signals described in Annex II to the
Rules when they are __________.
a. In close proximity to other vessels
engaged in fishing
375. Which vessel must show a masthead light
abaft of and higher than her identifying lights?
a. A 55-meter vessel trawling
376. While underway in a narrow channel, a
vessel should stay __________.
a. To the starboard side of the channel
377. A lantern combining the sidelights and
stern light MAY be shown on a __________.
a. 6-meter vessel under oars
378. The lights required by the Rules must be
shown __________.
a. From sunrise to sunset in restricted
visibility
379.Which vessel may carry her sidelights and
stern light in a combined lantern on the mast?
a. An 18-meter sailing vessel
380. You are approaching a vessel dredging
during the day and see two balls in a vertical line
on the port side of the dredge. These shapes mean
that __________.
a. There is an obstruction on the port side of
the dredge
381. Which statement is TRUE concerning the
light used to accompany whistle signals?
a. It is used to supplement short blasts of the
whistle.
382.Which vessel must sound her fog signal at
intervals not to exceed one minute?
a. A vessel aground
383. By day, you sight a vessel displaying
three shapes in a vertical line. The top and
bottom shapes are balls, and the middle shape
is a diamon It could be a __________.
a. Vessel engaged in replenishment at sea
384. You are heading due east (090°) and
observe a vessel's red sidelight on your port beam.
The vessel may be heading __________.
a. Southwest (225°)
385. Which vessel is, by definition, unable to
keep out of the way of another vessel?
a. Vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver
386.Which vessel must exhibit forward and after
masthead lights when underway?
a. All of the above
387. As defined in the Rules, a towing light
is a yellow light having the same characteristics
as a(n) __________.
a. Stern light
388. A vessel underway and making way in
fog shall sound every two minutes
__________.
a. One prolonged blast
389.When anchoring a 20-meter vessel at night,
you must show __________.
a. One all-round white light
390. According to the Navigation Rules, all
of the following are engaged in fishing EXCEPT
a vessel ______
a. Trolling
391.When a vessel sounds three short blasts on
the whistle, this indicates that
__________.
a. Her engines are going astern
392.A vessel is overtaking when she approaches
another from more than how many degrees abaft
the beam?
a. 22.5°
393. What equipment for fog signals is required
for a vessel 20 meters in length?
a. Whistle and bell only
394. Sailing vessels are stand-on over power-
driven vessels except __________.
a. When they are the overtaking vessel
395. Which statement is TRUE concerning risk
of collision?
a. Proper use shall be made of radar
equipment to determine risk of collision.
396. You are fishing at night, and you sight a
vessel showing three lights in a vertical line.
The upper and lower lights are red and the
middle light is white. Which statement is TRUE?
a. You must keep out of the way of the other
vessel.
397.Which vessel is to sound a fog signal of one
prolonged followed by two short blasts?
a. All of the above
398. A vessel may exhibit lights other than
those prescribed by the Rules as long as the
additional lights __________.
a. All of the above
399.Which statement is TRUE concerning a partly
submerged vessel being towed?
a. A diamond shape will be carried at the
aftermost extremity of the tow.
400.Your vessel enters fog. You stop your engines,
and the vessel is dead in the water. Which fog
signal should you sound?
a. Two prolonged blasts every two minutes
401.The term "power-driven vessel" refers to any
vessel __________.
a. With propelling machinery in use
402.In which situation do the Rules require both
vessels to change course?
a. Two power-driven vessels meeting head-
on
403. A vessel towing where the tow prevents
her from changing course shall carry
__________.
a. The lights for a towing vessel and the
lights for a vessel restricted in her ability to
maneuver
404. Which statement is TRUE concerning the
danger signal?
a. May be supplemented by an appropriate
light signal
405.If a sailing vessel with the wind on the port
side sees a sailing vessel to windward and cannot
tell whether the other vessel has the wind on the
port or starboard side, she shall __________.
a. Keep out of the way of the other vessel
406. Vessel "A" is on course 000°T. Vessel
"B" is on a course such that she is involved in a
head on situation and is bearing 355°T, 2 miles
away from vessel "A". To ensure a safe passing,
vessel "A" should __________.
a. Maneuver to ensure a port to port passing
407. What is a vessel "restricted in her ability
to maneuver"?
a. A vessel towing unable to deviate from
her course
408. All of the following are distress signals
under the Rules EXCEPT __________.
a. A green star signal
409. The Rules state that vessels may depart
from the Rules when __________.
a. Necessary to avoid immediate danger
410. A vessel is towing and carrying the
required lights on the masthead What is the
visibility arc of these lights?
a. 225.0°
411.Which situation would be a "special
circumstance" under the Rules?
a. More than two vessels meeting
412. You are approaching another vessel on
crossing courses. She is approximately half a
mile distant and is presently on your starboard
bow. You believe she will cross ahead of you.
She then sounds a whistle signal of five short
blasts. You should
a. Make a large course change, accompanied
by the appropriate whistle signal, and slow
down if necessary
413.You are approaching another vessel and are
not sure whether danger of collion exists. You
must assume __________.
a. There is risk of collision
414. Which vessel may use the danger signal?
a. All of the above
415. What is the minimum sound signaling
equipment required aboard a vessel 10 meters
in
length?
a. Any means of making an efficient sound
signal
416. Which statement is TRUE regarding
equipment for sound signals?
a. Manual sounding of the bell and gong
must always be possible.
417. Which statement concerning an overtaking
situation is correct?
a. The overtaking vessel must keep out of the
way of the other.
418. The Rules state that a vessel overtaking
another vessel is relieved of her duty to keep
clear when __________.
a. She is past and clear of the other vessel
419.Which statement is TRUE concerning fog
signals?
a. A vessel aground may sound a whistle
signal
420. Which day-shape would a vessel aground
show during daylight?
a. Three black balls
421. Which vessel must have a gong, or other
equipment which will make the sound of a
gong?
a. Any vessel over 100 meters
422.A sailing vessel is proceeding along a narrow
channel and can safely navigate ONLY inside the
channel. The sailing vessel approaches a vessel
engaged in fishing. Which statement is TRUE?
The fishing vessel is directed not to
impede the passage of the sailing vessel.
423. Day-shapes MUST be shown __________.
During daylight hours
424. Rule 14 describes the action to be taken
by vessels meeting head-on. Which of the
following conditions must exist in order for this
rule to apply?
All of the above
b. The stern light shall be positioned such
that it will show from dead astern to how many
degrees on each side of the stern of the vessel?
67.5°
425.A vessel aground at night is required to show
two red lights in a vertical line as well as
__________.
a. Anchor lights
426. When towing more than one barge astern
at night __________.
a. Each barge in the tow must be lighted
427. Your vessel is aground in fog. In addition
to the regular anchor signals, you will be
sounding
__________.
a. Three strokes of the bell before and after
the rapid ringing of the bell
428. In a crossing situation, the vessel which
has the other on her own starboard side shall
__________.
a. If the circumstances of the case admit,
avoid crossing ahead of the other
429. You are on vessel "A" in DIAGRAM 32,
and hear vessel "B" sound a signal indicating her
intention to overtake you. You feel it is not safe
for vessel "B" to overtake you at the present time.
a. Sound five or more short rapid blasts
430.Which vessel sounds the same fog signal
when underway or at anchor?
a. A vessel restricted in her ability to
maneuver
431. You are approaching a bend in a river
where, due to the bank, you cannot see around the
other side. A vessel on the other side of the bend
sounds one prolonged blast. You should
__________.
a. Sound a prolonged blast
432. Which vessel is "underway" according to
the Rules?
a. A purse seiner hauling her nets
433.When two power-driven vessels are
crossing, the vessel which has the other to
starboard must keep out of the way if
__________.
a. The situation involves risk of collision
434.Which signal may at some time be exhibited
by a vessel trawling?
a. All of the above
135. . Risk of collision is considered to exist if
__________.
435. There is any doubt that a risk of
collision exists
436. You are underway in low visibility and
sounding fog signals. What changes would you
make in the fog signal immediately upon losing
propulsion?
a. Begin sounding one prolonged blast
followed by two short blasts at twominute
intervals.
437.A power-driven vessel shows the same lights
as a __________.
a. Pushing vessel and a vessel being
pushed, when they are rigidly connected in
a composite unit
138. . Which vessel shall NOT show her
sidelights?
A. A fishing vessel that is not making way
438.A vessel is overtaking when she can see which
light(s) of a vessel ahead?
a. Only the stern light of the vessel
439.Which statement about the Navigation Rules
is TRUE?
a. All of the above are correct.
440. A "short blast" on the whistle has a
duration of __________.
a. 1 second
441. As defined in the Rules, the term "vessel"
includes __________.
a. All of the above
442. A vessel shall slacken her speed, stop, or
reverse her engines, if necessary, to
__________.
a. All of the above
443.An anchor ball need NOT be exhibited by an
anchored vessel if she is __________.
a. Less than 7 meters in length, and not in or
near an area where other vessels normally
navigate
444. A vessel that is not equipped with towing
lights should show that it has a vessel in tow
by_________________.
a. Shining a searchlight on the towline of the
towed vessel
445.While underway at night you are coming up
on a vessel from astern. What lights would you
expect to see?
a. One white light
446.What describes a head-on situation?
a. Seeing both sidelights of a vessel directly
ahead
447. A vessel anchored in fog may warn an
approaching vessel by sounding __________.
a. One short, one prolonged, and one short
blast of the whistle
448.While underway in fog, you hear a vessel
ahead sound two prolonged blasts on the whistle.
a. Sound only fog signals until the other
vessel is sighted
449.You are operating in restricted visibility and
hear a signal of a rapidly ringing bell followed by
the rapid sounding of a gong. It could be a
__________.
a. 300-meter power-driven vessel at anchor
450. A vessel being towed, if manned, shall
sound a fog signal of __________.
a. One prolonged and three short blasts
451. A vessel using a traffic separation scheme
shall __________.
a. Avoid anchoring in areas near the
termination of the scheme
452. A proper look-out shall be maintained
__________.
a. At all times
453. Risk of collision may be deemed to exist
__________.
a. All of the above
454. The Rules state that certain factors are to
be taken into account when determining safe
spee Those factors include __________.
a. State of wind, sea, and current, and the
proximity of navigational hazards
455.Which vessel, when anchored at night, would
NOT be required to show anchor lights?
a. A vessel dredging
456.A vessel not under command shall display
__________.
a. Two red lights at night and two black balls
during daylight
457.A vessel engaged in fishing while at anchor
shall sound a fog signal of __________.
a. One prolonged and two short blasts at two-
minute intervals
458. Underway at night you see the red
sidelight of a vessel well off your port bow.
Which statement is TRUE?
a. You may maintain course and speed
459.Which vessel would sound a fog signal
consisting of the ringing of a bell for 5
seconds?
a. A sailing vessel, at anchor
460.A vessel towing a barge astern would show, at
the stern __________.
a. A towing light above the stern light
461. A fog signal consisting of one prolonged
blast followed by four short blasts would indicate
the presence of a __________.
a. Power-driven pilot vessel on station
underway
462.In addition to sidelights what light should a
vessel being towed astern show?
a. A stern light
463.A pilot vessel may continue to sound an
identity signal if she is __________.
a. At anchor
464. When two power-driven vessels are
meeting head-on and there is a risk of collision,
each shall __________.
a. Alter course to starboard
465.A power driven vessel when towing and
the length of the tow exceeds 200 meters shall
exhibit during daylight hours where they can
best be seen which of the following shapes?
a. A diamond shape
466. What is the minimum length of vessels
required to show two anchor lights?
a. 50 meters
467. A vessel showing a rigid replica of the
International Code flag "A" is engaged in
__________.
a. Diving operations
468. In determining "safe speed", all of the
following must be taken into account
EXCEPT the
__________.
a. Maximum horsepower of your vessel
469. You are aboard the give-way vessel in
a crossing situation. What should you NOT do
in obeying the Rules?
a. Cross ahead of the stand-on vessel
470.A vessel, which does not normally engage in
towing operations, is towing a vessel in distress.
She __________.
a. Must show the lights for a vessel towing
471. An all-round flashing yellow light may be
exhibited by a(n) __________.
a. Air cushion vessel
472.Working lights shall be used to illuminate the
decks of a vessel __________.
a. Over 100 meters at anchor
473. Which vessel may show identifying lights
when not actually engaged in her occupation?
a. None of the above
474. A pilot vessel may continue to sound an
identity signal if she is __________.
a. Underway, but not making way
475. If your vessel is the stand-on vessel in a
crossing situation __________.
a. You must keep your course and speed
476. A vessel proceeding along a narrow
channel shall __________.
a. Keep as near as safe and practicable to the
limit of the channel on her starboard side
477.Which vessel would exhibit sidelights when
underway and not making way?
a. A vessel not under command
478. Which vessel is NOT to impede the
passage of a vessel which can only navigate safely
within a narrow channel?
a. All of the above
479.A tug is towing three manned barges in line in fog.
The second vessel of the tow should sound
__________.
a. No fog signal
480. The steering and sailing rules for vessels
in restricted visibility apply to vessels
__________.
a. Navigating in or near an area of restricted
visibility
481. The Navigation Rules state that a vessel
shall be operated at a safe speed at all times so
that she can be stopped within __________.
a. A distance appropriate to the existing
circumstances and conditions
482.A towing vessel 35 meters in length, with a
tow 100 meters astern, must show a minimum of
how many masthead lights?
a. 2
483.BOTH INTERNATIONAL & INLAND What
must be TRUE in order for a standon vessel to
take action to avoid collision by her maneuver
alone?
a. All of the above
484. A vessel being towed astern, where the
length of the tow exceeds 200 meters, will
exhibit
__________.
a. A diamond shape where it can best be seen
485. For a stand-on vessel to take action to avoid
collision she shall, if possible, NOT__________.
a. Turn to port for a vessel on her port side
486. You hear the fog signal of another vessel
forward of your beam. Risk of collision may exist.
You MUST __________.
a. Reduce speed to bare steerageway
487. Two barges are being pushed ahead by a
tugboat. Which statement is TRUE concerning
lights on the barges?
a. The barges should be lighted as one vessel.
488.The Rules state that a seaplane shall
__________.
a. In general, keep well clear of all vessels
489.If practical, when shall a manned vessel being
towed sound her fog signal?
a. Immediately after the towing vessel
sounds hers
490.Your tug is underway at night and NOT
towing. What light(s) should your vessel show aft
to other vessels coming up from astern?
a. One white light
491. A vessel conducting mineclearing
operations will show __________.
a. One ball near the foremast and one ball at
each fore yard
492.A vessel sailing shall keep out of the way of
all of the following vessels except a vessel
__________.
a. Engaged on pilotage duty
vessel under oars?
a. She must show a stern light.
b. She is allowed to show the same lights as
a sailing vessel.
494. A power-driven vessel is underway and
fishing with trolling lines. This vessel
__________.
a. Must keep out of the way of sailing
vessels
495. At night you sight a vessel displaying a
single green light. This is a __________.
a. Sailing vessel
496.When two power-driven vessels are crossing,
which vessel is the stand-on vessel?
a. The vessel which is to starboard of the
other vessel
497. Which vessel must exhibit forward and
after white masthead lights when making way?
a. A 75-meter vessel restricted in her ability
to maneuver
498.By radar alone, you detect a vessel ahead on
a collision course, about 3 miles distant. Your
radar plot shows this to be a meeting situation.
a. Turn to starboard
499. A sailing vessel underway at night may
show __________.
a. A red light over a green light at the
masthead
500. A vessel engaged in trawling will show
identification lights of __________.
a. A green light over a white light
501.What is required of a vessel navigating near
an area of restricted visibility?
a. All of the above
Fungsi II
Inspect and report defects and
damage to cargo spaces,
hatch covers and ballast tanks
502. A bulk cargo declaration shows that the

iron ore to be loaded has an angle of
repose of 45 degrees; what does this
indicate?
a.The cargo pile is stable and unlikely to
shift
503. A bulk cargo has a stowage factor (S.F)
of 1.50 cubic metres per metric tonne
(m3/mt). If 1000 tonnes are to be loaded
what volume will this cargo occupy?
a.1500 cubic metres ( m3)
504. A bulk cargo is loaded and the shore
cargo figure is 10 000 tonnes; the chief
officer calculates 9 500 tonnes have
been loaded; what should the Master do?
a.Ask for a draft survey to be carried in
the presence of P& I Club representative
505. A bulk cargo of Coal is to be loaded in
Australia for Europe; the coal is declared as
having a high moisture content (but less
than the transportable moisture Limit
(TML)); what must the Master ensure?
a.All cargo hold bilges are sounded
daily and the amount of water logged;
the bilges can then be pumped out.
506. A bulk cargo of steel coils is loaded
and a number of the coils are noted by
the Chief Officer to be rusted; what must
the Master ensure?
a.Clause the Bill of Lading with the
reference numbers of the rusty coils
and so make the Bill of Lading a
"dirty" Bill.
507. A bulk coal cargo is to be loaded and the
moisture content is declared as 19 ; the
transportable moisture limit of the cargo is
declared as 15, what should the Master do?
a.Refuse to load the cargo unless the
vessel is specially designed for the
carriage of cargo which may liquefy
508. A heavy metal concentrate bulk cargo
has a moisture content of 16 and a
transportable moisture limit of 18, what
should the Master do?
a.Load the cargo as the moisture content
is within acceptable limits
509. What hazards are associated with the
carriage of wood pellets in bulk?
a.Oxygen depletion and generation
of carbon monoxide in cargo and
communicating spaces
510. What is mean by bulk Grain cargoes
have a low angle of repose?
a.Liable to shift
511. What is the primary hazard associated
with the carriage of a bulk cargo of salt on
a Bulk Carrier?
a.The only possible hazard is associated
with ingress of water into the hold and
a loss of stability
512. When loading a bulk cargo of cement
the specific gravity and flow
characteristics are dependant on what
criteria?
a.The volume of air in the cargo
513. When loading a bulk cargo of Coal the
ship must be fitted with appropriate
instruments to measure the concentration
of what gases within the cargo space?
a.The gases specified in all of these
answers
514. When should a master agree to accept a
bulk cargo of concentrates?
a.When he is fully satisfied that the
actual moisture content of the cargo
is less than the Transportable
Moisture Limit (TML)
515. A container full of scrap metal is being
loaded, and you sight water dripping from
it. You should:
a.Reject the container.
516. A typical hazard associated with the
carriage of ammonium nitrate is:
a.Explosion.
517. Although not required by the IMDG
Code, on a container vessel, carrying
Calcium Hypochlorite under
refrigeration is beneficial so as to:
a.Prevent the cargo temperature
increasing into the danger zone.
518. Carriage of wet scrap steel borings,
turnings and swarf in containers is
generally considered dangerous,
because:
a.It can spontaneously ignite.
519. Containerised scrap metal fire is best
extinguished by:
a.Smothering.
520. Exposure to moderate concentrations of
ammonia may cause:
a.Choking and possible loss of eyesight.
521. Fire in a container carrying chemicals is
difficult to extinguish, because:
a.Heat is often produced due to chemical
reactions within the cargo.
522. If a tank container of liquid ammonia is
engulfed in fire, it is recommended:
a.To allow ventilation.
523. Stack allowable weights on a container
vessel should not be exceeded because this
can cause:
a.Failure of the corner posts of the
containers stowed at the bottom of the
stack.
524. The most important consideration,
in terms of stress, when planning
stowage of containers on a container
vessel would be:
a.Distribution and weight of the
containers.
525. "Noxious Liquid Substances which, if
discharged into the sea from tank cleaning
or deballasting operations , are deemed to
present a hazard to either marine resources
or human health or cause harm to
amenities or other legitimate uses of the
sea and therefore justify a limitation on the
quality and quantity of the discharge into
the marine environment". Such substances
are:
a.A category "Y" substance as identified in
MARPOL Annex II.
526. After the discharge of Lube Oils, Lube
Oil Additives, Phthalates and Olefins and
before the loading of "high-spec" cargoes
on a chemical tanker, the test that might be
expected to produce unsatisfactory results
during initial wall-wash analysis would be:
a.Hydrocarbons.
527. As per MARPOL 73/78, coal slurry,
clay slurry, dextrose solution and
molasses are classified as:
a."OS" (Other substances)"
528. In discussing the properties of
Noxious Liquid Substances, the criteria
for defining Threshold Limit Value (TLV)
is:
a.The time-weighted concentration of a
substance to which a worker may be
repeatedly exposed for a normal 8
hour working day and 40 hour week
without adverse health effects.
529. It is considered especially necessary to
continue to ventilate the tank and to
continuously monitor the atmosphere
when working inside a cargo compartment
which still contains vegetable oil residues,
because:
a.The decomposing residues continue to
release hazardous gases, reducing the
levels of oxygen in the tank and making
the atmosphere potentially dangerous.
530. MARPOL 73/78 defines ‘solidifying
substances’ as:
a.A noxious liquid substance which, in the
case of a substance with a melting point
of less than 15°C which is at a
temperature of less than 5°C above its
melting point at the time of unloading,
or in the case of a substance with a
melting point equal to or greater than
15°C which is at a temperature of less
than 10°C above its melting point at the
time of unloading.
531. MARPOL 73/78 defines a ‘high viscosity
substance’ as:
a.A noxious liquid substance in
category "X" or "Y" with a viscosity
equal to or greater than 50 mpa.s at
the unloading temperature.
532. The IMO Code requires protection against
spillage of the most dangerous products
(ethyl ether, antiknock lead compounds such
as TML and TEL etc) by prescribing that:
a.They shall be carried in cargo tanks
independent of the ships hull structure?
533. Which of the following groups of
chemical cargoes is particularly
susceptible to polymerisation,
especially through exposure to heat?
a.Monomers.
534. You are to carry a cargo of Phenol
across the North Atlantic in winter time.
What precaution will you take with the
double bottom tank located under the
cargo tank containing the Phenol?
a.It should be empty, to avoid cold
water contacted the structure
around the product because Phenol
has a relatively high melting point.
535. You have just loaded a cargo of Toluene
on a chemical tanker and are about to clear
the lines into the ship. The one particular
hazard that must be noted about this
product would be that:
a.It is a static accumulator and settling
time must be allowed before gauging.
536. A P - H type Mollier diagram or chart
is often used when dealing with LNG
cargoes. What is the main information
that can be obtained from a Mollier
diagram?
a.Information about the exact values of
the pressure, density, specific volume
and dryness fraction of the vapour
when both the enthalpy and
temperature are known.
537. An important physical property of LNG
is the saturation vapour pressure. What is
the IMO definition of the term "saturated
vapour pressure"?
a.The pressure at which a vapour is in
equilibrium with its liquid at a
specified temperature.
538. During a normal voyage heat is
transferred to the LNG cargo through the
cargo tank insulation which causes some
boil off of the cargo. This boil off changes
the composition of the LNG as more of the
lighter components will vaporise. Which
component of the LNG cargo is likely to
have a lower than original percentage on
arrival at the discharge port?
a.Methane.
539. LNG is often considered as an ideal gas
when looking at the physical properties
and characteristics. With reference to the
physical properties of gas mixtures which
of the given options is the SIGTTO
definition of the term 'mole'?
a.The mass that is numerically equal to
the molecular mass.
540. LNG is one of the liquefied gases
transported by sea. What is the IMO's
definition of liquefied gases?
a.Liquids with a vapour pressure
exceeding 2.8 bar absolute at +37.8 C
and certain other chemicals listed in the
Gas Codes.
541. What is a typical composition of LNG
(Arabian Gulf LNG)?
a.Methane 91% - Ethane 6% - Propane 3%
542. What is the relative liquid density of
Methane?
a.0.427
543. A number of substances are carried as
cargoes on liquefied gas carriers. Of those
given in the options, which is the most
reactive, and therefore least compatible,
with other liquefied gas cargoes?
a.Chlorine
544. Ethylene is normally carried on fully
refrigerated liquefied gas carriers at its
atmospheric boiling point. What is the
approximate atmospheric boiling point of
ethylene?
a.Minus 104 degrees C
545. Hydrate formation may be a problem
with some LPG cargoes. The hydrates may
enter cargo pumps, block lubricating
passages, unbalance impellers and seize
bearings. What is the most common
practice to prevent such problems?
a.Inject a small quantity of freezing-point
depressant into the pump.
546. Polymerisation may be a problem with
some liquefied gas cargoes such as vinyl
chloride and ethylene oxide. What is the
definition of polymerisation?
a.Polymerisation is when single
molecules of the same compound join
together to form a new compound
usually with a higher viscosity.
547. The 'Critical Temperature' is important
when dealing with liquefied gas cargoes.
What is the IMO Gas Codes' definition of
the term 'Critical Temperature'?
a.It is the temperature above which a gas
cannot be liquefied by pressure alone.
548. The densities of most hydrocarbon gas
mixtures which evolve from normal petroleum
products are greater than the density of air.
What would be the approximate relative
density of a mixture of 50% by volume of air
and propane relative to 100% air?
a.1.25
549. What is the main reason that LPG boil-
off gas is unsuitable for use in the vessel's
fuel supply?
a.LPG vapour is heavier than air at
atmospheric conditions and represent
a risk as they may accumulate in
machinery spaces.
550. When butadiene is carried as a liquid
gas cargo it usually has inhibitors added.
One reason for this is to minimise the
formation of polymers. What is the other
reason for adding inhibitors to this
particular cargo?
a.To scavenge any oxygen that may be
present to prevent peroxide formation.
551. Which publication contains detailed
information, in the form of material safety
data sheets, relating to the chemical and
physical properties and associated
hazards of the most commonly
transported liquefied gases, including LPG?
a.The ICS Tanker Safety Guide (Liquefied
Gases)
552. Why must inert gas from a
combustion-type generator never be used
when preparing the cargo tanks of a
liquefied gas carrier for a cargo of
ammonia?
a.Because inert gas from this type of
generator contains carbon dioxide
which reacts with ammonia to form
carbamates.
553. When preparing the cargo tanks of an
LNG carrier for loading it is important to
consider the dew point of the vapour
mixtures present in the tank. What is the
definition of the "dew point" of a vapour
mixture containing water vapour?
a.The dew point is the temperature at
which the water vapour begins to
condense as the temperature decreases.
554. Which of the given options is the
approximate value of the flammable
range for Methane measured as a
percentage volume in air?
a.5.3 - 14.0% by volume
555. A petroleum product is considered
“Non-Volatile” when:
a.With a Flashpoint of 60 degrees C or
above (closed cup method), these
liquids produce, when at any normal
ambient temperature, equilibrium gas
concentrations below the Lower
Flammable Limit.
556. Anti-static additives are used to treat
fuel oil cargoes so as to:
a.Ensure they become non-accumulator
of static charge.
557. At which of the following
concentrations of Hydrogen Sulphide
would dizziness, headache, nausea, etc.
Occur within 15 minutes of exposure,
followed by loss of consciousness and
possibly death, after 30-60 minutes of
exposure?
a.500-700 ppm.
558. Besides danger of vapour inhalation by
crewmembers, if Hydrogen Sulphide is
present in high concentrations in crude oil,
it can also cause:
a.Corrosion.
559. The approximate API gravity of Arabian
Light Crude is:
a.33 degrees.
560. The approximate density ratio of
undiluted gas, in relation to air, from a
typical crude oil is:
a.1.5 times that of the air.
561. The name given to compounds
consisting solely of carbon and hydrogen
atoms joined together by single bonds is:
a.Saturated hydrocarbons.
562. The Vapour Pressure of crude oils is
determined by the:
a.The Reid Closed Test method.
563. When an inhibitor is added to an oil
cargo, the items mentioned on the
accompanying certificate include:
a.Inhibitor name; amount added; date
added; period of efficiency;
precautions if voyage length exceeds
that period; eventual temperature
limitation.
564. When carrying certain cargoes (e.g.
Aviation Turbine Oils) it is important to
carefully monitor ship’s tanks during
passage, because these cargoes can:
a.Release oxygen, which they may have
absorbed during the refining process,
into the ullage spaces of ship’s cargo
tanks
565. When carrying out oil cargo
calculations, the relationship between
absolute and gauge pressure is:
a.Absolute pressure = gauge pressure +
barometric pressure.
566. When describing the characteristics of
oil cargoes or oil/water slops, a ‘mercaptan”
is:
a.A colourless, odorous gas, with a smell
similar to rotting cabbage and which is
generated naturally by the
degredation of natural organisms, as
may be found where water has
remained under oil for a long time.
567. When referring to crude oil petroleum
products, “volatility” means:
a.Their tendency to produce gas.
568. Which of the following type of crude
oil requires special consideration in
terms of carriage and cleaning?
a.Paraffinic Crude.
569. With reference to chemistry of
petroleum cargoes, if 'Alkanes' are
saturated\ hydrocarbons, then
unsaturated hydrocarbons are:
a.Alkenes.
570. With reference to oil cargo
characteristics, ‘cloud point’ is:
a.The temperature at which a liquid
hydrocarbon begins to congeal and
take on a cloudy appearance, due to
the bonding of constituent paraffin
compounds.
571. With reference to oil cargoes, their wax
content is generally referred to as:
a.The percentage of paraffinic wax by
volume, based on a representative
sample of the crude oil.
572. At what latest time shall doors, side
scuttles, gangway doors, cargo- and
coaling ports and other openings which are
to be kept closed watertight at sea be
closed at the start of the voyage?
a.Before leaving the port
573. Cross-flooding fittings shall be operable
from:
a.Above the bulkhead deck
574. How many separate means of escape
from passengers and crew spaces should it
be in each zone?
a.Two
575. How often shall watertight doors in
main transverse bulkheads which is in use
at sea be operated (tested)?
a.Daily
576. In which cases shall side scuttles in
passenger ships be so constructed that
they cannot be opened without the
consent of the master of the ship?
a.Where the sills of the side scuttles are
below the margin line
577. Is there any requirements regarding
double bottom for large passenger ships?
a.Yes, in ship of 76 m in length and
upwards, a double bottom shall be
fitted amidships, and shall extend to
the fore and after peak bulkheads, or
as near thereto as practicable.
578. What is a passenger ship according to
SOLAS regulations?
a.A ship which carries more than 12
passengers
579. When are power-operated watertight
sliding doors (class 3 doors) compulsory
for all watertight doors aboard passenger
ships?
a.Where the ship has passenger spaces
below the bulkhead deck
580. When there is doubt about the
freshness of the atmosphere in enclosed
or confined spaces, what action should be
taken?
a.Arrangements should be made for
testing of the atmosphere to ensure
maintenance of 21% oxygen and a
carbon monoxide content below 50
ppm in the atmosphere of the space
581. Cargoes of frozen beef and chilled beef
have approximate carriage temperatures of
minus 18 and minus 1 degree Celsius
respectively. Greater care is required when
carrying chilled beef as it is more sensitive
to deviations from, and requires finer
control of, its recommended carriage
temperature. Which option best completes
the following statement? "This additional
care is worthwhile because…
a.…chilled beef commands a much higher
price in the market."
582. Certain live refrigerated cargoes such
as fruit, salad, vegetable and plant
cargoes are sensitive to ethylene during
shipment. Select the option which best
completes the following statement.
"Ethylene is described as a gas which …
a....is a natural fruit ripening hormone."
583. During loading of bananas the fruit
should be visually inspected frequently to
check the quality and for any indications as
to its physiological development. Which
one of the options given would indicate
that the fruit is in suitable condition for
shipment?
a.The bananas have a uniform green
colour with relatively sharp ridges
along the length. They can be snapped
or broken with sap clinging between
the broken parts.
584. It is possible to successfully mix certain
types of refrigerated cargo in the same
space if they are compatible. Sometimes
apparently dissimilar cargoes can be
successfully mixed. Which one of the
combinations given in the options could be
successfully carried as a mixed cargo in the
same cargo space?
a.Oranges and apples.
585. Most perishable cargoes are presented
for shipment pre-cooled to the correct
carriage temperature. If the cargo is not
pre-cooled or has warmed up due to the
cold chain being broken it can result in
increased metabolic rates. Which of the
given options would be the most difficult
to deal with if such a situation occurred
during a sea passage?
a.The heat produced by the cargo.
586. Refrigerated cargoes are generally easy
to secure for a sea passage when compared
to some bulk, timber and project type
cargoes. The cargo must be stowed so that
it will not shift during the voyage and so
that a good air flow can be maintained
through the cargo. Which one of the given
options is most likely to result in this
required outcome and a successful carriage?
a.A tight uniform stow which forces air
through the cargo.
587. Some perishable cargoes which are
normally carried refrigerated can also be
carried non-refrigerated even on a long
sea passage. This requires that the
commodity is suitably packed and
correctly ventilated during transport.
Select the option which
correctly completes the following
statement. "The type of cargo most suited
for a sea passage under ventilation only
would be…
a.…onions."
588. Strawberries are a sensitive cargo
with a relatively short carriage life and
can only be carried on short sea passages.
They are often irradiated for transport.
Select the true statement from the
options given relating to the effect of
irradiation.
a.The main effect of irradiating
strawberries prior to transport is that it
kills off any bacteria on the fruit.
589. When considering how non-
containerised perishable cargoes such as
bananas and grapes are presented for
loading the temperature of the cargo is
important. Which one of the statements
included in the options is correct?
a.Bananas are loaded at field temperature
while grapes are pre-cooled.
590. In roro Cargo Planning What should
be considered for the location of
stowage of a heavy loads such as
transformer, locomotive or work boats?
a.The stability of the vessel, access to
the location and the SWL of the
stowage location
591. In roro Cargo planning where should
you look to find information on securing
cargos
a.In the vessels approved Cargo Securing
Manual
592. In roro cargo securing which of the
following can be used as a general rule for
deciding lashing requirements of a cargo
unit
a.The total of the MSL values of the
securing devices on each side of a
unit of cargo (port as well as
starboard) should equal the weight
of the unit.
593. On a roro vessel in a wet climate what
can happen to wheeled cargoes?
a.Lashings can become slack over time
and the cargo is more likely to shift due
to the wet weather
594. On a roro vessel, how should caterpillar
crawlers stowed on hatch covers be secured?
a.By means of wire ropes or chains
secured to the hatch covers and to the
main deck from all four sides of the
unit
595. On a roro vessel, what should be
done first when cargo has shifted at sea
on a roro vessel and re-lashing is not
possible?
a.Alter course and/or speed to reduce
the accelerations and prevent
further damage
596. On a roro vessel, what should be done
when cargoes that transmit stack loads are
to be loaded onto the vessel's decks or
hatch covers?
a.Stow the cargo on timbers of
sufficient thickness so as to distribute
the stack load
597. On a roro vessel, what should one
consider prior to loading machinery with
caterpillar crawlers on the hatch covers?
a.Maximum permissible loading of the
hatch covers and the horizontal
restraint of hatch covers and coamings
598. What kind of damage is most likely
when Ro-Ro cargoes come into contact
with fuel oil spilt/left on roro decks ?
a.Tyre and bodywork damages
599. Where should a Ro-Ro unit that
requires protection from heat and large
temperature variations be stowed?
a.Under-deck away from bulkheads,
fuel tanks, heating coils and
uninsulated machinery
600. At what time should lashings be
released?
a.Lashings should not be released for
unloading before the ship is secured at
the berth, without the Master's
express permission.
601. How can you arrange for safe
movement of passengers on ro-ro decks?
a.Passengers should be warned of
vehicle movements when entering or
crossing car or vehicle decks. They
should preferably keep to walkways
while moving about the ship.
602. Normally ventilation fans in enclosed
ro-ro spaces must be run continuously
whenever vehicles are on board, why?
a.An increased number of air changes
may be required when vehicles are
being loaded or unloaded, or where
flammable gases or liquids are stowed
in closed ro-ro spaces
603. What is the procedure if a tank lorry
containing dangerous goods is not clearly
marked?
a.Refuse to load the vehicle
604. What type of cargo shall always be
secured?
a.Freight vehicles carrying dangerous
goods and adjacent vehicles should
always be secured.
605. When there is doubt about the
freshness of the atmosphere in ro-ro cargo
spaces, what action should be taken?
a.Arrangements should be made for
testing of the atmosphere to ensure
maintenance of 21% oxygen and a
carbon monoxide content below 50
ppm in the atmosphere of the space
606. Which of the following international
regulations is normally used when
handling dangerous goods?
a.IMDG code
607. Who should operate ships' ramps,
car platforms, retractable car decks and
similar equipment?
a.Only competent persons authorised by
a responsible ships' officer, in
accordance with the company's work
instructions.
608. How often shall a survey for renewal
of cargo ship safety construction
certificate be carried out?
a.Every fifth year with a periodical survey
every 12. Month.
609. If extensive repair to the superstructure
has been carried out, it will affect the:
a.Load line certificate
610. What kind of permanent
documentation is required for personnel
assigned specific dutys and
responsibilities related to cargo or cargo
equipment on , for example, a liquefied
tanker?
a.A tankerman certificate
611. On General Cargo ships, cargoes such as
logs, fish meal, scrap metal and bales of
cotton
commonly tend to cause:
 Oxygen depletion in the cargo holds.
612. Steel coils when loaded on a General
Cargo ship tend to be subjected to:
 Crushing and distortion.
613. The carriage of bagged Ammonium
Nitrate in cargo holds of a General Cargo
vessel is associated with:
 Risk of explosion
614. The carriage of logs on General Cargo
vessels tends to cause:
 Oxygen depletion in the cargo holds.
615. When hot rolled steel coils are loaded
on General Cargo ships, it may be correct to
state that:
 They must not be exposed to salt
water contamination.
616. A five yearly thorough survey of cargo
gear on a General Cargo vessel should be
carried out by:
 A classification society surveyor.
617. During a pre-loading survey on board a
General Cargo ship, the most efficient
method of testing the weather tightness of
the hatch covers is considered to be:
 Ultra sonic test.
618. A General Cargo vessel has a 50 tonne
SWL heavy lift derrick and a load of 48
tonnes is to be loaded. The lifting gear of
slings and spreader bar weighs 4 tonnes. In
this case, it would be correct to state that:
 The load cannot be loaded
because the combined weight of the
load and the lifting gear will exceed
the SWL by two tonnes.
619. During cargo watch on a General Cargo
ship, if the OOW informs you that the
condition of the discharge equipment such
as slings and shackles being used by the
stevedores is unsuitable for use, you
should:
 Inform stevedores of concern and
protest by letter.
620. Information about the maximum point
loading in cargo holds and on decks of a
General Cargo Vessel may be obtained
from:
 Ships Capacity plan.
621. On a general cargo ship, operating
the heavy lift derricks with the boom
close to horizontal could result in:
 Excessive stresses acting on parts of
the derrick system.
622. On a General Cargo ship, the most
likely cause of a hatch cover hydraulic
system to deteriorate would be:
 Due to dust and cargo particles
lodged around the piston seals.
623. The main purpose of a hatch cover
ventilator grill on a General Cargo vessel is:
 To prevent sparks entering the cargo
hold.
624. The ship’s lifting plant must be proof
load tested and all parts thoroughly
examined at intervals not exceeding:
 5 years
625. When general cargo is damaged
during heavy weather on a General Cargo
vessel, it must be ensured that the
damage is inspected by the:
 Surveyor representing the vessel's P.
& I. Club.
626. What kind of damage is most likely
when Ro-Ro cargoes come into contact
with fuel oil spilt/left on roro decks ?
A. Tyre and bodywork damages
627. Where should a Ro-Ro unit that
requires protection from heat and large
temperature variations be stowed?
a.Under-deck away from bulkheads,
fuel tanks, heating coils and
uninsulated machinery
6
628. Plan And Ensure Safe Loading,
Stowage, Securing, Care During Voyage
And Unloading Of Cargoes.
629. A bulk cargo is loaded and the cargo stow
has been left with an excessive peak height;
what could be the result of this situation?
a. Excessive stresses on tank top
630. A bulk cargo vessel is found to be 4.0
centimetres over her maximum loadline
draft after loading; what should be the
actions of the master?
a. Order the pumping out of fresh water or
ballast until the maximum allowed load
line is achieved.
631. A bulk carrier is to carry a full deck
cargo of packaged timber; to what
regulations must the vessel comply?
a. IMO Code of Practice for the carriage of
Timber Deck cargoes
632. During a pre-loading survey prior to
loading grain on a Bulk Carrier, very small
amount of the previous grain cargo is found
in a cargo hold; what is the significance of
this situation?
a. The vessel may fail the pre-load survey
and be declared off-hire
633. How should mild steel slabs be loaded in a
bulk carrier?
a. Interlocked across the entire cargo hold
with the longitudinal axes athwartships
634. What are the advantages of ballasting
double bottom ballast tanks by gravity filling
on a Bulk Carrier?
a. There is minimum pressure head on the
tank top and pumps are not required
635. What could happen if a bulk vessel
failed to display placards notifying the
crew of the disposal of garbage within and
outside Special Areas?
a. The vessel could be detained by port state
control authorities
636. What governs the disposal of dry bulk
cargo residues at sea?
a. MARPOL regulations
637. What is essential to ensure that efficient
stripping of ballast tanks on a Bulk Carrier
can be achieved?
a. A good stern trim is maintained during de-
ballasting operations
638. What is the possible concern if fuel tanks
on a Bulk Carrier, which are close to cargo
spaces containing grain, are excessively
heated?
a. The grain cargo may be heated and
damaged
639. What is the purpose of a draught survey
before and after loading on a Bulk Carrier?
a. To ascertain the actual weight of cargo
loaded
640. What measures should be taken in order
to avoid flammable gases forming on top of
coal cargoes on a Bulk Carrier?
a. Ventilation to be carried out as indicated
in the IMO solid Bulk Cargo Code
641. What must be ensured, prior to receiving a
bulk cargo of iron ore on a Bulk Carrier?
a. Cargo hold bilge suctions must be
satisfactorily tested
642. What publication must be carried on a
vessel carrying dry bulk cargoes?
a. IMO Solid Bulk cargo Code or IMO Solid
Bulk?
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643. When considering how to deal with
cargo residues during hatch cleaning at sea
on a Bulk Carrier, what is the most careful
consideration?
a. Consult MARPOL handbook and the
vessels Safety Management System
(SMS) for guidance
644. Which of these covers the rules and
regulations for General Average on a Bulk
Carrier?
a. The York Antwerp rules
645. Which special regulations cover
transportation of grain on a Bulk Carrier?
a. IMO Grain Rules?
646. Which special regulations cover
transportation of solid Bulk cargoes?
a. IMO Bulk Cargoes Code (BC) and the
IMO International Maritime Solid Bulk
Cargo Code( IMSBC)
647. Why do structural steel products often
shift or collapse in a bulk carrier's cargo holds?
a. Because the irregular shape of the cargo
holds results in void spaces
648. Why is air draught an important
consideration when loading bulk cargoes on
Bulk Carriers?
a. Because of movement of the bulk cargo
loader or unloaders
649. A container vessel has lost several
dangerous goods containers overboard. The
master must report this loss of container
incident to:
a. The nearest Coastal state.
650. A heavy piece of machinery is loaded on
deck of a container vessel, stowed across
several flat rack containers. The most
appropriate method for lashing such cargo
would be by:
a. Taking all lashings to the flat-rack lashing
points.
651. Besides normal loads, the lashings of the
containers stowed at the outboard part of the
deck stow are additionally subjected to:
a. Transverse accelerating load condition,
leading to loss of GM.
652. Best location to stow containers loaded
with Calcium Hypochlorite would be:
a. On deck, away from sources of heat.
653. Bulk liquid cargoes carried in flexi-tank
containers are considered dangerous:
a. When the associated material safety data
sheet shows a constituent(s) listed in the
IMDG Code.
654. During a loaded winter passage across
the North Atlantic, the master of a container
vessel would be most concerned with:
a. The added weight of icing on container
stacks, leading to loss of GM.
655. During a loaded winter passage across
the North Atlantic, the master of a container
vessel would be most concerned with:
a. Metacentric height of the vessel.
656. For guidance on lashing arrangement of
containers on-board the vessel, the most
important document to refer is:
a. The Cargo Securing Manual.
657. On multi-purpose vessels, responsibility
for the stowage and securing of containers is:
a. Determined by the clauses of the charter-
party.
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658. The Code of Safe Practice for Cargo
Stowage and Securing was prepared to give
guidance for:
a. Preparation and content of the Cargo
Securing Manual.
659. The dangers associated with carriage of
empty tank containers is that:
a. They may contain flammable cargo
residue.
660. The direction of wave encounter that is
most likely to cause a parametric roll
condition on large container ships is:
a. Head seas.
661. The most appropriate measure to reduce
the build-up of ice on containers during a sea
passage is to:
a. Reduce speed, whilst maintaining course.
662. The most appropriate method for adjusting
the trim on a container vessel would be:
a. By internal shift of ballast.
663. What is the master's position if he is
asked to load a container that is incorrectly
manifested, but which is believed to contain
dangerous goods, about which insufficient
information is supplied?
a. He has the authority to refuse it.
664. When taking action to deal with under-
deck cargo spillage on container ships,
reference must be made to:
a. The ems Guide.
665. With regards to carriage of Calcium
Hypochlorite in containers, as per IMDG
Code it is not allowed to:
a. Pack and ship the cargo in bags.
666. A chemical tanker may be granted, by
the Government of the receiving Party, an
exemption from carrying out a mandatory
prewash provided that the:
a. Unloaded tank is to be reloaded with the
same substance or another substance
compatible with the previous one and
that the tank will not be washed or
ballasted prior to loading.
667. A tank which contained a category "X"
product must undergo a prewash before
leaving port in compliance with MARPOL.
The resulting residues shall be discharged to
a reception facility until the concentration of
the substance in the effluent, as indicated by
analysis of samples of the effluent taken by
the authorized surveyor has reached a level of:
a. 0.1% by weight.
668. As per MARPOL, for control of
discharge of Noxious Liquid Substances,
the area(s) designated as “Special Areas”
are:
a. The Antarctic.
669. Ballast introduced into a cargo tank on a
chemical tanker which has been washed to
such an extent that the ballast contains less
than 1 ppm of the substance previously
carried may be discharged into the sea
without regard to the discharge rate, ship's
speed and discharge outlet location, but under
certain conditions, which require:
a. That the vessel is not less than 12 miles
from the nearest land and is in water that
is not less than 25 metres deep.
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670. Cargo residues of certain chemical
substances are permitted to be removed by
ventilation. This may be carried out
provided that:
The cargo discharged has a vapour
pressure greater than 5 kpa at 20 degrees
Celsius.
671. Definitive information on whether a
particular cargo is classified as a “Noxious
Liquid Substance” (other than products
provisionally assessed) can be obtained
from:
The pollution category column of
chapters 17 or 18 of the International
Bulk Chemical Code (IBC Code).
672. If a cargo tank on a chemical tanker is to
be cleaned by recirculation with a low flash or
static accumulator product:
The tank must be inerted to less than 8%
oxygen content.
673. In respect of a chemical tanker,
carrying category “X”, “Y” & “Z”
Noxious Liquid Substances, the term
“Clean Ballast” as defined in the IBC
Code means:
Ballast water carried in a tank which,
since it was last used to carry a cargo
containing a substance in category
"X","Y" or "Z", has been thoroughly
cleaned and the residues resulting there
from have been discharged and the tank
emptied in accordance with the
appropriate requirements of Annex II.
674. In the event of an accidental or other
exceptional discharge into the sea of a
Noxious Liquid Substance or mixture
containing such a substance, an entry shall be
made in the Cargo record Book, which shall
include:
a. Time of occurrence Approximate
quantity, substance(s) and
Category(ies) Circumstances of
discharge or escape and general
remarks.
675. The „dew point‟ of a liquid chemical can
be defined as:
The temperature at which a gas is saturated
with respect to a condensable component, as in
operational terms is seen at the point when air
is saturated with moisture.
676. The carriage of a new Noxious Liquid
Substance not yet listed in the IBC Code may
be considered possible, provided it is achieved
through a „tri-partite” agreement between:
The Port State of the Shipper / the Flag
State of the Carrier / the Port State of
the Receiver.
677. The chemical term for a substance used
as an additive to start a chemical reaction and
speed up the cleaning of a cargo tank on a
chemical tanker is:
Catalyst.
678. The document which confirms whether a
chemical tanker is authorised to carry a
particular Noxious Liquid Substance, is
called:
The (International) Certificate of Fitness.
679. The tank cleaning requirements for a
Category “X” substance on a chemical
tanker constructed after 01 January 2007,
require the vessel to carry out:
Prewash / strip to 75 litres / 12 miles
from land / 25 metres of water /
minimum 7 knots, proceeding en route /
discharge below waterline.
680. Vegetable Oils as per MARPOL are
classified under:
Category "Y".
681. What is the name given to the risk
assessment programme developed by OCIMF,
under which tankers are inspected and the
results made available to potential charterers
through a database of records?
The Ship Inspection Report Programme
(SIRE).
309
b. When cleaning a cargo tank after carriage and
discharge of Sulphuric Acid, it is important to
ensure that:
Once cleaning commences, large
quantities of washing water can be
delivered as quickly as possible, so that
the acid is quickly diluted.
c. When small amounts of cleaning additives
(detergent products) are added to water in
order to facilitate the washing of tanks which
previously contained liquid chemicals, must
be ensured that:
No additives containing Pollution
Category "X" components shall be used,
except those components that are readily
biodegradable and present in a total
concentration of less than 10% of the
cleaning additive. No restrictions
additional to those applicable to the tank
due to the previous cargo shall apply.
d. You are to load a number of chemical cargoes
in Rotterdam in December, for eventual
discharge in Australia, after the ship has
called at Singapore and Malaysia. None of the
cargoes on board at any stage of the voyage
require heating. None of the tanks to be
discharged in Singapore and Malysia will
require hot washing after discharge. When
determining the filling limits of the tanks
containing the Australian cargoes, you will
need to consider that:
The maximum anticipated temperature
that the cargoes will reach bearing in mind
ambient air and sea temperatures to be
encountered on passage, so that any
expansion does not result in overflow.
e. A greater number of lashings may generally
be required to secure cargo forward on deck
compared with amidships under deck of a
General Cargo Vessel, because:
The dynamic stresses on the lashing are
much greater in the forward areas of the
vessel.
f. A loaded General Cargo ship is bound from
Brazil to Rotterdam during winter time.
During the voyage, ventilation in cargo
spaces should:
Be carried out during voyage, as the vessel
is moving from warm to colder areas.
g. Additional lashings on general cargoes must
be considered when:
Heavy weather is anticipated for the
planned voyage.
h. For a General Cargo ship not specifically
designed for carriage of containers, the
maximum stowage height for containers on
deck is limited to:
One container high.
i. For a General Cargo ship to load Dangerous
Goods in packaged form, it must have on
board a:
D. Safety Construction Certificate for
carriage of IMDG cargoes in packaged form.
682. For special category spaces on board
general cargo ship, the minimum required air
changes per hour should be:
10
683. Information on the forces that may cause
cargo shifting on a general cargo vessel may be
available by referring to:
The Code of Safe Practice for Solid Bulk
Cargoes (BC Code).
684. On a voyage from cold to hot climate
countries, the ventilation of cargo holds of a
General cargo ship should:
Not be carried out at all.
310
685. On a voyage from hot to cold climate
countries, the ventilation of cargo holds of a
General cargo ship should:
a. Be carried out continuously during the
voyage.
686. The IMO Cargo Stowage and Securing
Code (CSS) indicates in the 'Rule of Thumb',
the total strength of the lashings on each side of
a heavy lift; what is the stated value ?
a. The Maximum Securing load of the
lashings must equal the weight of the cargo
unit.
687. The minimum information to that must be
provided be given on a dangerous goods
declaration on a General Cargo Vessel should be:
IMO Class, UN Number, Gross weight,
number of units of cargo, Proper Shipping
Name.
688. The most important consideration when
planning the lashing system for a particular sea
route on a General Cargo Vessel is:
Transverse accelerations.
689. The segregation requirements for
Dangerous Goods to be loaded on a General
Cargo ship may be obtained by referring to:
The IMO International Maritime
Dangerous Goods Code.
690. The two main considerations when
choosing an appropriate paint for a cargo space
of a General Cargo vessel would be:
Corrosion resistant and heat resistant.
691. Which of these can be loaded in the same
hold of a General Cargo Vessel, as steel coils?
Steel rebars
692. How can you best demonstrate in an audit
that you follow company cargo handling
procedures?
By being able to provide comprehensive
and verifiable documentary records of
cargo operations.
693. If all indications are that a cargo has
been received without damages, irregularities or
short shipment and the phrase "apparent good
order and condition" is entered on the Bill of
Lading, what type of Bill is this said to be?
A clean Bill of Lading.
694. What may be issued by the shipper to
indicate that a vessel or her operators will not be
held responsible for any damage that may arise
from the carrier issuing a clean Bill of Lading,
even though the Mate's receipt is marked as
"unclean", such as may apply to atmospheric
corrosion on steel plates that have been waiting in
a port facility for some time awaiting shipment?
A Letter of Indemnity.
75.What term is applied to the compensation
payment by the charterer that is due when a
vessel is unable to load / discharge her cargo
within the allowed and contracted time?
b. Demurrage.
695. What type of Bill of Lading covers "door
to door" shipment?
a. A Through Bill of Lading.
696. When conducting a risk assessment for a
shipboard work activity, what are the two
elements to be considered?
a. The potential severity of harm and the
likelihood that harm will occur.
311
697. According to SIGTTO publications,
what is a typical accuracy for LNG pressure
measurement equipment?
A. +/- 0,0015 bar (which will apply within
the MARVS of the tank)
698. According to the IMO Gas Codes, what is
the minimum number of "Firemen‟s outfits"
required to be carried on an LNG carrier with a
cargo capacity above 5,000 m3?
a. 5 sets
699. Carbon dioxide, CO2, can solidify and
form dry ice at low temperatures. What is the
solidifying temperature of CO2?
a. Approximately minus 78.5 C
700. Does MARPOL apply to LNG carriers?
a. Yes, MARPOL applies to all ship types..
701. Does the Oil Pollution Act, 1990 (OPA90)
apply to vessels engaged in carrying liquefied
natural gas (LNG)?
a. Yes, OPA90 applies to all ships.
702. Due to the very low carriage
temperatures for LNG the thermal conductivity, k
value, is an important property of the insulation
material used in cargo containment systems. For
a given rate of heat leakage across the insulation,
which of the following statements is true?
a. The higher the k value the thicker the
insulation needs to be.
703. During cargo tank gassing up and cooling
down operations on an LNG carrier which of the
given options, regarding temperature, needs to be
observed?
a. Never allow temperature of the insulation
to fall below the safe minimum temperature.
.
85.Having water vapour in an LNG carriers cargo
tanks prior to loading cargo is unacceptable due to
ice formation at low carriage temperatures. How
can water vapour in the tank atmosphere be
removed prior to the cooling down and loading
operation?
A. By displacing the tank atmosphere with
pre-dried inert gas.
704. What is the approximate normal daily
cargo "boil off" rate for an LNG carrier of
125000 cubic metre cargo capacity?
a. From 0,15 % to 0,20 % per day of total
cargo.
705. What is the normal procedure for cooling
down the a cargo tank prior to loading LNG?
a. Introducing liquid LNG into the tank
slowly through the spray lines.
706. What is the typical accuracy for onboard
LNG temperature measurement systems?
a. +/- 0.2 C in the range of - 150 C / - 170 C
707. Which of the gas groups, identified by
SIGTTO, in 'Liquid Gas Handling Principles on
Ships and in Terminals', does LNG belong to?
a. Saturated Hydrocarbons
708. Which term is usually used to describe
the compressor that collects the boil-off from the
header connected to each cargo tank of an LNG
carrier?
a. The low-duty compressor.
709. Why is nitrogen used for the inerting of
hold spaces and interbarrier spaces on LNG
carriers?
a. Because the carbon dioxide in
combustion generated inert gas would
freeze when in close proximity to the cargo.
312
710. With reference to preparations of LNG
carrier cargo tanks for cargo loading operations,
how can it be determined that the cool down
operation is complete?
A. When temperature monitor, or liquid
level gauge, shows that liquid is forming in
the bottom of the cargo tank.
93.Before loading a refrigerated cargo of LPG the
cargo tanks must be cooled down slowly in order
to minimise thermal stresses for the vessel and the
cargo containment system. What is the generally
accepted cooling down rate?
A. 10 degrees C per hour.
711. Cargo tanks on an LPG carrier can be
inerted using either inert gas from a combustion
type inert gas generator or by using nitrogen. Is
gassing up of an inerted cargo tank with LPG
allowed when the tank contains combustion
generated inert gas?
a. Yes, but only if the atmosphere has an
oxygen content of less than 5% by volume
and the charter allows it.
712. During pre-entry checks of an enclosed
space onboard a liquefied gas carrier it is
necessary to check the condition of the
atmosphere. If the gas detection equipment to be
used for the checks included a catalytic type
combustible gas indicator, an absorption type
toxic gas detector and a paramagnetic type
oxygen analyser, which would be the preferred
order for the checks?
a. Oxygen content followed by hydrocarbon
gas content and then toxic gas content.
713. IMO publishes a number of Codes relating
to the carriage of bulk cargoes including the IGC
Code for liquefied gas carriers. What is the main
purpose of the IGC Code?
a. To provide an international standard for
the
construction of, and equipment for, gas
carriers to ensure the safe carriage of
liquefied gases in bulk.
714. Inhibitors are often added to liquefied gas
cargoes prior to loading to prevent or slow down
polymerisation. An inhibitor information form or
certificate must be provided by the cargo shipper
to the vessel. What sort of information must this
certificate contain about the inhibitor in addition
to the technical name and quantity added?
A. Expected lifetime of the inhibitor,
temperature limitations affecting the lifetime
of the inhibitor and the date the inhibitor
was added.
715. Is it permitted to load fully refrigerated
propane directly onto a fully pressurised LPG
carrier without additional conditioning of the
cargo or cargo spaces?
A. Only if the cargo containment
system is designed for temperatures of minus
48 degrees C or less.
716. It is necessary for personnel to enter a
liquefied gas carrier cargo tank to clean up some
dust and other loose debris. What are the permit
requirements before entry into the tank is allowed?
a. Both Enclosed Space Entry and Cold
Work Permits are required.
717. Liquefied gas cargoes will expand as
the temperature increases and therefore tanks
are not allowed to be filled to 100%. What is
the maximum allowable filling limit for the
cargo tanks on liquefied gas carriers?
a. Maximum allowable filling limit on cargo
tanks is 98% on gas carriers.
718. What is the full title of the IMO code
which applies to all gas carriers built after 1986?
a. The International Code for the
Construction and Equipment of Ships
Carrying Liquefied Gases in Bulk (the
IGC Code)
313
719. What is the main reason for adding
inhibitors to some liquefied gas cargoes such as
ethylene oxide and vinyl chloride?
a. To prevent polymerisation of the cargo.
720. What is the requirement for the
atmosphere in the hold spaces surrounding
cargo tanks that require a secondary barrier
when carrying LPG cargoes?
a. The hold spaces must be kept in an inert
condition whenever there is cargo in the
cargo tanks.
721. What method should be used to discharge
a semi-pressurised gas carrier if there is a break
down on the cargo discharge pump?
a. By pressurising the vapour space of
the cargo tank using a vaporiser and
cargo compressor to force liquid cargo
ashore.
722.When a ship is switching from ammonia to LPG
virtually all traces of vapours must be removed. What
is the allowable concentration of ammonia vapour in
the tank prior to loading the next cargo?
a. Less than 20 parts per million.
.
723. Which certificate is issued to LPG and
other liquefied gas carriers in accordance with
the IGC code?
a. The Certificate of Fitness is issued in
accordance with the IGC code
724. With some liquefied gas cargoes special
conditions must be met before they can be loaded
into a cargo tank. Is it permitted load ammonia
into an inerted cargo tank?
a. Only if the tank is inerted with nitrogen.
725. A VLCC is to anchor in a depth of 80
meters in open water with moderate swell
running. How many shackles of anchor chain
should be used to aid a safe anchorage?
a. 11 shackles
726. After the last entry being made, the
retention period of an oil record book on board
must be:
a. Not less than 3 years after the date of the
last entry.
727. Any person who can assume overall
charge of the ships crude oil washing operation
must have:
a. At least 12 months appropriate
experience on oil tankers, have
participated in at least two COW
programmers and be fully knowledgeable
of the contents of the Operations and
Equipment Manual.
728. As per MARPOL, Oil Record Book
Part II, Cargo/Ballast Operations, must be
carried and completed on oil tankers of:
a. 150 gross tonnes and above.
729. As per MARPOL, the contents of lines
and pumps on an oil tanker at completion of
discharge must be:
a. Drained and then pumped either ashore,
or to a cargo tank or slop tank on board.
730. As per requirements of the International
Convention for the Control and Management of
Ship's Ballast Water and Sediments, oil tankers
must have a plan on board to achieve:
a. 95% volumetric exchange of the ballast
taken on-board at the previous port.
731. As per the OCIMF Ship to Ship Transfer
Guide (Petroleum) guidelines, both vessels
engaged in the cargo transfer operation shall:
a. Have their main engines ready and
available for immediate use
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732. As per the US Code of Federal
Regulations, the current Oil Transfer
Procedures for a vessel carrying out discharge
in US ports must be:
Available on board, legibly printed in a
language or languages easily understood
by personnel engaged in the transfer
operation and permanently posted or
available at a place where crew members
can see and use them.
733. Crude Oils required by MARPOL to
be specifically listed in a tanker's Crude Oil
Washing manual as unsuitable for COW are:
Those with high pour point or viscosity.
734.Depending on density or API, an error
measurement of 0.1 degree Fahrenheit in a tank
containing 50,000 cubic metres (314,491 barrels) of oil
will result in which of the following volumes?
25 cubic metres (157 barrels).
735. For a vessel proceeding enroute, located
more than 50 nm from nearest land outside a
special area and having in operation its ODME,
the maximum instantaneous rate of oil discharge
(from washings of cargo tanks) in to the sea
30 litres per nautical mile.
736. On board an oil tanker, slop tanks may be
used for the carriage of oil:
When not being used for the carriage of
slops and are included in the total
cargo capacity of the vessel.
737. Prior to discharging cargo from an oil
tanker, „line displacement‟ or „line pressing‟
must be conducted to ensure:
The verification of the shore line for
calculation purposes.
738. The details of an internal transfer of oil
must be entered in the Oil Record Book:
At all times whenever such an operation is
carried out
739. The ideal maximum viscosity at which
aromatic crude oil cargoes are best discharged at,
is:
250 cst (250 mm2/s)
740. The maximum permitted oxygen
content in the inert gas main when inerting a
cargo oil tank prior to gas freeing is:
5% by volume.
741. The ODME printouts for tank cleaning
operations must be retained on board for a
minimum period:
a. Of 3 years.
742. The recommended guideline for avoiding
the risk of electrostatic potential in a mist
produced by using oil and water during Crude Oil
Washing operations is that:
a. Before washing begins, any tank that is to
be used as a source of oil for Crude Oil
Washing should be partly discharged to
remove any water that has settled out
during the voyage. The discharge of a layer
of at least 1 metreis necessary for this
purpose.
743. To correctly report an oil spill in US
waters:
a. The person in charge must report the spill
to the National Response Center or, if not
practicable, to the Environmental Protection
Agency regional office or local U.S. Coast
Guard Marine Safety Office. This must be
done immediately that person has
knowledge of the spill.
744. What do we mean with a IOPP certificate?
315
A. With IOPP certificate we mean
International Oil Pollution Prevention
certificate and the ship is classed to prevent
oil pollution
745. When discharging dirty ballast from an oil
tanker at a high flow rate with main cargo pumps,
the instantaneous rate of discharge of oil is
calculated by formula:
Instantaneous rate of discharge (l/nm) =
oil content (ppm) x flow rate (m3/h) /
speed (knots) x 1,000
746. When internally transferring any oil cargo
within the vessel, the correct procedure would
be to:
Obtain permission from the charterers
and document all operations fully in the
Oil Record Book.
747. Within the Oil Discharge Monitoring
and Control System, an „overboard discharge
control‟ is defined as:
A device which automatically initiates the
sequence to stop the overboard discharge of
the effluent in alarm conditions and prevents
the discharge throughout the period the
alarm prevails.
748. A hazard is is a source of potential
harm or damage or a situation with potential for
harm or damage. Risk is determined based on
evaluation of two elements. Which two
elements?
The likelihood that a hazard may occur and
the consequences of the hazardous event
749. How frequently should the PA-system
(Public Address) be tested?
Every week
750. How often shall abandon ship- and fire
drills take place on board passenger ships?
Weekly
751. How often shall drills for the operation
of watertight doors, side scuttles, valves and
closing mechanism of scuppers, ash-chutes and
rubbish chutes take place in passenger ships?
Weekly
752. How should chemicals and harmful
substances be stored on board?
In a separate locker. The locker shall be
clearly marked, locked and ventilated.
753. Personnel on board passenger vessels
must undergo training courses before they can be
part of the safe manning and assigned to
emergency duties on board. What is minimum
training requirement for all personnel?
Basic Safety Training Course and Crowd &
Crisis Management Training Course
754. SOLAS regulations require surveys of
ships to be carried out at certain times and at
certain intervals. Which of the following
surveys apply to passenger ships only?
Periodical survey every 12 months
755. The International Convention for the
Prevention of Pollution from Ships (MARPOL)
covers detailed regulations to prevent various
sources of ship generated pollution. Annex I - VI
deals with regulations for the prevention/ control
of pollution from:
Harmful Substances in Packaged Form,
Sewage, Air Pollution, Garbage, Oil and
Noxious Liquid Substances in Bulk
756. What information is required on
passengers prior to departure?
A. All persons on board shall be counted and
details of persons who have declared a need
for special care or assistance in emergency
situations shall be recorded and
communicated to the Master
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757. What is important to prepare prior to a
helicopter operation?
a. Make sure all loose deck equipment at
helicopter deck is stowed away and secured.
758. What is the purpose of Material Safety
Data Sheets?
a. To provide all personnel including
emergency personnel with procedures for
handling or working with that substance in a
safe manner
759. What necessary precautions should be
taken before entering a tank or an enclosed
space?
a. Make sure that the tank/ enclosed space
is gas free, ventilated and the oxygen content
is measured. O2 content shall be 21% before
entering the tank/ enclosed space
760. Which international convention deals
with maritime safety and safety equipment
onboard ro-ro passenger vessels?
a. SOLAS
761. Who is responsible to ensure that all
personnel on board are provided with suitable
Personal Protective Equipment where it is
needed?
a. The Company/ employer
762. You are burning garbage containing
plastics. What shall you do with the ashes from
the vessel's incinerator?
a. Discharge the ashes to a shore facility
763. A cellular container vessel is to load
frozen ice cream in containers. Space is available
either in the hold or as a deck stow. Select, from
the options given, the most suitable stowage
position, with the reason, for this cargo.
A. The deck stow as it is less sensitive to
temperature in the event of a mechanical
problem.
764. A conventional reefer vessel operating a
Controlled Atmosphere (CA) is approaching the
port of discharge in Northern Europe. Which is
the most suitable action to take from the options
given?
a. Turn off the CA plant and thoroughly
ventilate the cargo spaces under CA with
fresh air just prior to arrival.
765. A reefer vessel is loading a cargo of fruit
alongside in a South African port. During loading
another vessel arrives at an adjacent berth to have
its cargo discharged after having been towed in
following a fire onboard which had resulted in
abandonment. What should concern the Master of
the reefer vessel most about the situation?
a. That the cargo may be contaminated by
the smell of smoke and the products of
combustion from the damaged vessel.
766. A reefer vessel is to load a cargo of
plantains and bananas. Due to space restrictions
both have to be loaded into a common space. The
usual delivery temperature for bananas is about 13
degrees Celsius and for plantains it is 7 degree
Celsius. What would be the best delivery
temperature for the mixture of these two fruits?
a. 13 C as plantains are less sensitive to the
consequences of a higher delivery
temperature.
767. A reefer vessel is to load a part cargo of
frozen beef hocks (large joints of beef, usually
quarters, not packed in cartons). In deciding
which would be the most appropriate space on a
conventional reefer vessel, which of the given
options would be the preferred choice?
a. 1C deck as this is the narrowest space on
the vessel and will best constrain the cargo
from any possible movement during the
voyage.
768.A reefer vessel, which is about to carry a
palletised cargo, has to have available sufficient cargo
equipment including air bags (dunnage bags), air lines
and valves, cargo slings, wooden dunnage, nails, etc.
These items are required to ensure a quick loading
operation and a successful passage.
317
Complete the following statement from the
options given. "Air bags are particularly important
in that ….
A. … they reduce the movement of the pallets
and prevent short circuiting of the air flow."
769. A situation arises where there is
insufficient fruit cargo available to fill a cargo
space. There is a cooler arrangement
(cooler/evaporator/brine nest/fans) positioned at
one end of the cargo space. Select, from the
options given, the best method for stowage of the
fruit.
a. Start at the end with the cooler
arrangement and work away from the cooler.
770. A situation exists where a cargo of
palletised fruit is being loaded to capacity on a
conventional reefer vessel. In order to load all of
the available cargo it is proposed to break down
some of the pallets and place the loose cartons on
top of the pallets; there is just enough space to
accommodate this below the deckhead. From the
options given which is the most suitable action to
take?
a. Reject the plan as the reduced gap at the
top of the stow will restrict the return air
flow.
771. A standard convention for a 4 deck reefer
vessel is to designate the decks A to D from upper
to lower deck. Decks A and B common as are C
and D with a gas tight seal between B and C.
Apples are to be carried in decks C and D with
bananas in A and B. Which of the options is the
best to avoid the risk of crossover of temperature
and respiration between the two cargoes?
a. Create a pressure differential with a
higher pressure in decks C and D.
772. After discharge of any refrigerated cargo a
thorough inspection of the vessel should be
carried out before presenting the vessel for
loading the next cargo. Amongst the reasons for
this is to ensure that any traces of or residues from
the previous cargo are removed. This is
particularly so if a fruit or meat cargo is to be
loaded after a fish cargo has been carried. Select,
from the options given, the main reason for this
requirement.
a. Fish is strong smelling and the odour may
contaminate the next cargo.
773. Apart from temperature there are few
differences between carrying cargoes of chilled
meat, minus 1 degree Celsius, and frozen meat,
minus 18 degrees Celsius. A key difference is that
for frozen meat the cooling fans are operated at
half speed or some are switched off whereas for
chilled meat the fans are run constantly at full
speed. Select, from the options given, the main
reason for this difference in fan operation.
a. The chilled meat is more sensitive to
damage and therefore tighter temperature
control is necessary.
774. In preparing a reefer vessel for loading
the next cargo a careful inspection of the cargo
spaces should be carried out. All required
maintenance and the repair of any damage
identified during the inspection should be
completed prior to loading. Select, from the
options given, the most appropriate action to be
taken when the maintenance and any repairs are
completed.
a. Make a detailed record of all
maintenance and repairs carried out for
presentation to the supervisor at the loading
port as proof that the vessel is in an
acceptable condition for loading the cargo.
775. On some trades fruit cargoes may be
subjected to 'in-transit cold treatment' also known
as cold treatment. From the options given which
is the main purpose of this cold treatment?
a. To maintain a specified minimum
temperature for a prescribed time period to
kill off any fruit fly which may be present
when loading the cargo.
776. Reefer vessels form part of the 'cold chain'
in the transport of perishable goods from the
producer to the consumer. There are times when
hatches have to remain open in less than perfect
conditions, for example strong winds. There are
steps that can be taken however to mitigate the
effects of this on cargo that has already been
loaded. Which of the options given could be
considered to be the most important measure to
counter the effect of such conditions?
318
A. Cover the stow with a Tenasco (heavy
plastic) sheet where possible to protect it
from the wind.
777. With the exception of some citrus fruits
and bananas, fruit is usually pre-cooled to the
required carriage temperature prior to loading on a
reefer vessel. In order to protect the cold chain,
and to maintain the temperature of the fruit, a
minimum exposure time to ambient conditions
during loading is necessary. What action should
the deck officers take during loading to achieve
this minimum exposure time?
a. Close the hatches and apply cooling to the
cargo already loaded during any break in
cargo operations that exceed 30 minutes.
778.A Standard Ro-Ro unit weighing 18mt is to be
loaded in the fore and aft direction and lashed by belts
of SWL 2mt. Using the general rule How many lashing
belts should be used to secure the unit?
a. 9 on each side
779. A standard Ro-Ro unit weighing 2mt is to
be loaded fore and aft and lashed by belts of
SWL
0.6mt. Using the general rule How many
lashing belts should be used to secure
the unit? A. 4 on each side
780. On a roro vessel, a ro-ro unit weighing
2mt is to be loaded in the fore and aft direction and
lashed by belts of SWL 0.6mt. How many lashing
belts should be used to secure the unit?
a. 4 on each side
781. On a roro vessel, a vehicle weighing 50mt
is to be loaded in the fore and aft direction and
lashed by chains/turnbuckles of SWL 5mt. By the
general Rule How many sets of
chains/turnbuckles should be used to secure the
unit?
a. At least 10 per side
782. On a roro vessel, how often should a
dangerous goods stowage plan be produced
a. Every time you load a dangerous cargo
783. On a roro vessel, if the vessel is loaded
by stevedores, who is responsible for the lashing
of the cargo
a. The vessel is responsible for cargo as soon
as it crosses the ramp including its securing
784. On a roro vessel, what dangers are
associated with using a steep loading ramp?
a. The ends of ro-ro units can be damaged
785. On a roro vessel, what instruction should
be given to the crew about unlashing of cargo
prior to arrival at the berth
a. This can only be done when the bridge
gives permission and no unit stowed on a
ramp or incline can be unlashed. Provided
the company allow it.
786. On a roro vessel, what must be considered
when planning the loading of ro-ro cargoes on
ramps?
a. SWL and loading limit of the ramp and
Minimum clearances for the operation of
ramp doors
787. On a roro vessel, what must be ensured
onboard the vessel prior to commencing cargo?
a. Cargo hold ventilation systems are
operational
788. On a roro vessel, what standing instruction
should be given to prevent a blackout on board?
a. Check with the duty engineer before
switching on motors, fans or other machinery
789. On a roro vessel, what standing
instruction should be given to protect the Ramps
when loading ro-ro units?
319
A. Units whose weights exceed the ramp load
density/SWL must not be loaded
790. On a roro vessel, what stowage factors
should be taken into account when planning the
loading of cars?
a. The longitudinal and athwartship
distances between the cars
791. On a roro vessel, which of the following is
not required in the pre-stowage plan?
a. Checking communications equipment
792. On a roro vessel, which of the ships
trading certificates details the type and
location that dangerous goods are allowed to
be stowed onboard
a. Certificate of compliance for the carriage
of Dangerous goods
793. On a roro vessel, which of these
situations will result in an emergency
shutdown of cargo operations?
a. Any of the listed situations
794. On a roro vessel, which regulations
require supervising the embarkation of persons
on board ship?
a. The International Ship and Port Facility
Security (ISPS) Code
795. Under SOLAS, what are the minimum
required air changes per hour for 'Special
Category Spaces' on a roro vessel,?
a. 10
796. What must not be obstructed when
planning the loading of ro-ro cargoes?
a. Access to fire-fighting equipment
797. A hazard is is a source of potential
harm or damage or a situation with potential for
harm or damage. Risk is determined based on
evaluation of two elements. Which two
elements?
a. The likelihood that a hazard may occur
and the consequences of the hazardous event
798. How can the Master ensure that all cargo
loading doors, bow visors, weathertight ramps etc.
Are locked and secured before the ship proceeds
on any voyage?
a. By having an effective system of
supervision and reporting of the closing and
opening of doors. Time of closing and
opening of doors shall be entered in the log-
book.
799. How frequently should the PA-system
(Public Address) be tested?
a. Every week
800. How often shall abandon ship- and fire
drills take place onboard ro-ro passenger vessels?
a. Weekly
801. How often shall drills for the operation
of watertight doors, side scuttles, valves and
closing mechanism of scuppers, ash-chutes and
rubbish chutes take place in passenger ships?
a. Weekly
802. How should chemicals and harmful
substances be stored on board?
a. In a separate locker. The locker shall be
clearly marked, locked and ventilated.
803.On most ro-ro passenger ships there is no
requirement to carry out drills with the passengers.
What is the most effective ways of informing
embarking passengers about the emergency procedures?
a. Information on boarding cards, public
announcement on departure, posters in public
areas and cabins, safety video running
continuously
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804. Personnel on board ro-ro passenger
vessels must undergo training courses before they
can be part of the safe manning and assigned to
emergency duties on board. What is minimum
training requirement for all personnel?
A. Basic Safety Training Course and Crowd &
Crisis Management Training Course
805. The International Convention for the
Prevention of Pollution from Ships (MARPOL)
covers detailed regulations to prevent various
sources of ship generated pollution. Annex I - VI
deals with regulations for the prevention/ control
of pollution from:
a. Harmful Substances in Packaged Form,
Sewage, Air Pollution, Garbage, Oil and
oxious Liquid Substances in Bulk
806. What information is required on
passengers prior to departure?
a. All persons on board shall be counted and
details of persons who have declared a need
for special care or assistance in emergency
situations shall be recorded and
communicated to the Master
807. What is important to prepare prior to a
helicopter operation?
a. Make sure all loose deck equipment at
helicopter deck is stowed away and secured.
808. What is the purpose of Material Safety
Data Sheets?
a. To provide all personnel including
emergency personnel with procedures for
handling or working with that substance in a
safe manner
809. What necessary precautions should be
taken before entering a tank or an enclosed
space?
a. Make sure that the tank/ enclosed space
is gas free, ventilated and the oxygen content
is measured. O2 content shall be 21% before
entering the tank/ enclosed space
810. Which international convention deals
with maritime safety and safety equipment
onboard ro-ro passenger vessels?
a. SOLAS
811. Who is responsible to ensure that all
personnel on board are provided with suitable
Personal Protective Equipment where it is
needed?
a. The Company/ employer
812. You are burning garbage containing
plastics. What shall you do with the ashes from
the vessel's incinerator?
a. Discharge the ashes to a shore facility
813. A bulk vessel loads a full cargo to
summer marks of a high density bulk cargo such
as iron ore concentrate; what would be the
possible stability conditions produced?
a. The vessel will normally have a large
intact metacentric height (GM) and have a
fast roll period
814. A cargo hatch cover seal on a Bulk Carrier
is known to be damaged and not weather tight
prior to sailing; what is the legal significance of
this situation?
a. The vessel may well be judged to be un-
seaworthy; this could invalidate some
certification and hull and machinery
insurance
815. Before a solid bulk cargo is loaded, the
Master and shore representative must agree a
loading plan which covers which of the
following aspects?
a. All of the items specified in the possible
answers
816. How are cargoes on self-unloading
bulk carriers fed to the vessel's conveyor belts
during discharge?
321
A. Via hydraulically-operated hopper gates at
the bottom of each hold
817. The high level water ingress alarm in
number 1 hold of a Bulk Carrier activates in bad
weather at sea; what would be the actions of a
prudent Master?
a. Sound general alarm, muster ships crew
and transmit a Mayday call and message.
818. Under international regulations for a Bulk
Carrier, who needs to be trained in the use of
oxygen analysis and gas detection equipment?
a. The ship's crew
819. What does the IMSBC Code emphasise
with reference to the exposure of personal to the
dust created when carrying some bulk cargoes?
a. A high standard of personal hygiene
820. What extent of hatch cover spares should
be available on board a Bulk Carrier at all imes?
a. Specimen fittings shown in the hatch cover
manufacturer's manual
821. What height of water above the inner
bottom will activate the cargo hold high level
alarm on a Bulk Carrier
a. Any height above 2.0m
822. What is the maximum period between
the sampling/testing of the moisture content of a
solid bulk cargo and the loading of that cargo
into a bulk carrier?
a. A maximum for seven (7) days, when there
has been no change in the moisture content
due to rain or snow
b. It must always be conducted immediately
before loading
c. A test is not required each time of loading
d. Testing must be carried out on a random
sampling basis.
823. What must be specified when ordering
gas detection equipment when used in
association with bulk carriers?
a. That the instrument is suited for its
purpose of application
824. What specific data must be displayed on
the loading instruments carried on bulk carriers of
150m or more in length?
a. The shear forces exerted on the hull
structure associated with the entered loaded
weight distribution
825. Where are cargo hold water level detectors
required to be fitted on bulk carriers?
a. At the after end of each cargo hold
826. Which of the following is a warning
sign of a faulty hydraulic hatch cover system on
a Bulk Carrier?
a. A fall in the hydraulic header tank level
827. Who needs to be trained in the use of
a. The entire ship's crew
828. Why do bulk cargo carriers need to carry
a. Because of enclosed or confined space
entry requirements
829. Why do the cargo holds of a self-
unloading bulk carrier have a "W" shaped cross
section?
a. So that during discharge the cargo will
automatically fall onto the underlying
conveyor belts
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830. A vessel has lost several containers
overboard during a voyage. Upon arrival into
port, she is being inspected by the attending
surveyors. The most important item to be
checked during this inspection would be:
a. Certificates of approval related to lashing
equipment used to secure those containers.
.
831. An inspection in the amidships area of
the weather deck of a Panamax container vessel
has revealed cracks in the hatch coamings. It is
extremely important to urgently inspect the:
a. Longitudinals in the double bottom tanks
in the amidships half length of the vessel.
832. For a ships loading computer to be
safely used for loading planning and stress
calculations, it must be approved by:
a. A Classification Society.
833. On a container vessel, flexitanks are used
for:
a. The carriage of non-hazardous liquids, in
bulk.
834. Racking forces imposed on a container
would likely cause the greatest deflection to:
a. The door end of the container.
835. Shock loads in a container lashing system
are generally caused by:
a. Loose cargo lashings.
836. The correct weight of a wrongly declared
container may be best indicated by:
a. Strain gauges fitted to the shore gantry
cranes.
837. The most appropriate way of dealing with
twist-locks suffering from excessive wear and
tear is
to:
a. Isolate them from use and dispose them
appropriately.
838. The most dangerous consequence of the
corrosion and wear down of container stools on
weather deck/hatch tops of a container vessel
would be:
a. Collapse of the deck stool, leading to
lashings becoming slack.
839. The most effective method of dealing with
an under-deck cargo space fire on board a
container ship, is to:
a. Deploy the fixed firefighting system.
840. The most important function of a buttress
fitting on a container vessel is:
a. To transfer forces from the container stow
to the ships structure.
841. What contributes to wear-down of
twistlocks on a container vessel?
a. The continuous action of longitudinal
forces.
.
842. What items of container securing
equipment must be used in conjunction with
buttresses?
a. Double stacking cones or link plates.
843. When planning the loading of containers,
the planning officer must refer to:
a. The Cargo Securing Manual (CSM).
844. "Passivation" is a restorative process
periodically applied to stainless steel tanks on a
chemical tanker. What effect does this process
have on the steel surface?
a. It restores and reforms the passive
Chromium Hydroxide surface layer.
845.A cargo pumproom or other enclosed space which
contains cargo handling equipment on a chemical
tanker shall be fitted with a mechanical ventilation
system, capable of being controlled from
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outside the space. What is the minimum number
of atmosphere changes per hour, based on the
total volume of the space, that such a system
must deliver?
A. Not less than 30 changes per hour.
846. Basic manual dew point measurement
devices are commonly used by surveyors when
monitoring the dryness of a cargo tank prior to
loading a liquid chemical product. Which of
the descriptions below is a summary of how
the measurement is carried out?
a. A small quantity of Acetone is placed into the
device and dry-ice is progressively added to it to
steadily reduce the temperature. A sample of the
atmosphere in the tank is continuously drawn
through the device, passing over the polished or
mirrored surface of the container.
When the first drop of mositure (dew) is
observed to form on the polished surface, the
temperature of the Acetone bath is noted.
Reference may be required to tables to
correct the reading for desired parameters.
847. Chemical tankers of 20,000 tonnes DWT
or above, with a keel laid on or after 1st July 1986,
when carrying flammable products with a
flashpoint not exceeding 60 degrees Celsius, such
as those listed in chapters 17 and 18 of the
International Bulk Chemical Code, are exempt
from the requirement to be fitted with and use an
inert gas plant provided certain conditions are met.
Which of the following is a summary of those
conditions?
a. The cargo tank does not exceed 3000
cubic metres capacity / each tank washing
machine nozzle does not exceed 17.5 cubic
metres per hour delivery rate / the total wash
water input to the tank from all tank washing
machines does not exceed 110 cubic metres
per hour.
848. High level and high-high level alarms
must be tested at the tank for proper operation
within 24 hours of the start of cargo transfer on a
chemical tanker. What acceptable alternative is
there to this requirement?
a. That a function test is carried out by
means of an automatic self-test and circuit
monitoring facility within the alarm system.
849. How would you determine whether a
particular cargo transfer hose was compatible
with the chemical product to be transferred?
a. Refer to the product entry in the hose
manufacturer's chemical resistance chart.
850. 118. If your chemical tanker is equipped
with high velocity venting valves, at what
minimum height above the weather deck or
catwalk should they be installed?
a. 3 metres
851. In a typical shipboard de-humidifier
plant as may be found on a modern chemical
tanker, operating on a "rotating bed" principle,
what names are given to the two parts of the
rotating bed?
a. The "process sector" and the "reactivation
sector".
852. The IBC Code prescribes certain design
conditions for a cargo heating or cooling system
fitted to a chemical tanker. What does it require in
respect of pressure within is empty?
a. That a higher pressure can be
maintained within the system than the
maximum pressure head that could be
exerted by the contents of the cargo tank on
that system.
853. The specified maximum working pressure
of a cargo hose in service on a chemical tanker
should be at least which of the following?
a. 10 bar gauge.
854. To what pressure will a new length of
cargo hose be tested by a manufacturer prior to its
supply to a vessel for service onboard a chemical
tanker?
a. Not less than one and a half times its
specified maximum working pressure, but not
more than two-fifths of its bursting pressure.
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855. What temperature defines "hot" water in
the context of tank washing on a chemical
tanker?
a. At least 60 degrees Celsius.
856. When a submerged centrifugal cargo
pump is being run at too high a speed during
discharge of a viscous chemical cargo, the pump
may start racing, causing a heat build-up around
the suction, possible localised solidification of the
cargo and consequent damage to the pump. What
term is applied to this problem?
a. Cavitation.
857. Which of the following is a summary of
the features of a "controlled tank venting
system" as may be found on a chemical tanker?
a. PV valves are fitted to limit the pressure
or vacuum in the tank; no shut-off valves may
be fitted either above or below the PV valves;
provision may be made to by-pass the PV
valves under certain operating conditions;
such a system shall consist of a primary and
secondary means of allowing full flow of
vapour, except that the secondary system may
be replaced by pressure sensors fitted within
the tank.
858. You are carrying a bulk cargo of
Phosphoric Acid. Which components of the cargo
pumps may be damaged as a result of discharging
this particular cargo and why?
a. The cargo seals may be damaged from the
abbrasive effect of any sediment.
859. A five yearly thorough survey of cargo
gear on a General Cargo vessel should be
carried out by:
a. A classification society surveyor.
860. A General Cargo vessel has a 50 tonne
SWL heavy lift derrick and a load of 48 tonnes is
to be loaded. The lifting gear of slings and
spreader bar weighs 4 tonnes. In this case, it
would be correct to state that:
a. The load cannot be loaded because the
combined weight of the load and the lifting
gear will exceed the SWL by two tonnes.
861. During a pre-loading survey on board a
General Cargo ship, the most efficient method of
testing the weather tightness of the hatch covers is
considered to be:
a. Ultra sonic test.
862. During cargo watch on a General Cargo
ship, if the OOW informs you that the condition
of the discharge equipment such as slings and
shackles being used by the stevedores is
unsuitable for use, you should:
a. Inform stevedores of concern and protest
by letter.
863. Information about the maximum point
loading in cargo holds and on decks of a General
Cargo Vessel may be obtained from:
a. Ships Capacity plan.
.
864. On a general cargo ship, operating the
heavy lift derricks with the boom close to
horizontal could result in:
a. Excessive stresses acting on parts of the
derrick system.
865. On a General Cargo ship, the most likely
cause of a hatch cover hydraulic system to
deteriorate would be:
a. Due to dust and cargo particles lodged
around the piston seals.
866. On a General Cargo vessel, a 16T derrick
should be tested to a proof load of:
a. 20T
867. Prior to loading cotton on a General Cargo
vessel, it is important to ensure that:
325
A. The cargo hold fire-fighting system is
thoroughly examined.
868. Prior to loading general cargo on a
General Cargo vessel, with regard to lashing
wires, terminations, shackles, turnbuckles,
pad eyes and D rings etc., you must make
sure that:
a. They must all be certified and be visually
inspected for any apparent damage.
869. Proper guidance on the stowage and
securing of general cargo may be obtained by
referring to:
a. IMO Code of practice for stowage and
securing of cargoes.
870. The lifting plant on a General Cargo
vessel be proof load tested:
a. When equipment is new, every five years
and after repairs or major modifications.
871. The main purpose of a hatch cover
ventilator grill on a General Cargo vessel is:
a. To prevent sparks entering the cargo hold.
872. The ship‟s lifting plant must be proof
load tested and all parts thoroughly examined at
intervals not exceeding:
a. 5 years
873. When general cargo is damaged during
heavy weather on a General Cargo vessel, it
must be ensured that the damage is inspected by
the:
a. Surveyor representing the vessel's P. & I.
Club.
874. According to "Summary of minimum
requirements" in the IGC Code, what is the
requirement for vapour detection for methane
(LNG) cargoes?
a. Flammable vapour detection.
875. According to the IMO Gas Code, what
is the requirement for the number of sets of an
LNG carrier?
a. There must be at least two sets.
876. According to the IMO Gas Codes,
what are the maximum time intervals for
sampling and analysing samples on a LNG
carrier?
a. 30 minutes.
877. According to the IMO Gas Codes, what is
the required number of temperature indicating
devices in the cargo tanks of an LNG carrier?
a. At least two devices in each tank.
878. Gas carrier type A and B cargo tanks
have a MARVS of less than 0.7 barg? What is
the liquid and vapour connection shut off valve
requirement for this type of tank according to the
IMO gas codes?
a. Single shut-off valves with manual closing
facility.
879. LNG tankers are often fitted with fixed
water spray system for fire protection purposes for
deck areas, deck tanks, deck manifolds and
pipelines. What is the minimum required flow rate
of water per minute for horizontal and vertical
surfaces to ensure adequate, uniform coverage of
these areas?
a. 10 litre/m2 per minute for horizontal
surfaces and 4 litre/m2 per minute for
vertical surfaces.
880. Select, from the options given, the
one that best describes a requirement of the
remotely controlled valves fitted in the ESD
(Emergency Shut-Down) systems on an LNG
carrier?
a. They must be fail-safe.
326
881. Some LNG carriers are fitted with a water
glycol system for heating the cofferdam spaces
next to cargo tanks when the vessel is loaded.
What is the purpose of this heating system?
a. To maintain the temperature inside the
space above 5 degrees C to protect the steel.
882. What is the minimum requirement with
respect to pressure relief valves on the cargo tanks
of an LNG carrier where the individual tanks are
over 20 cubic metres capacity?
a. Two valves.
883. What is the preferred method of
accommodating expansion in cargo pipeline
systems on LNG carriers?
a. Use expansion loops.
884. What is the purpose of the "forcing
vaporizer" found in some LNG carrier cargo
plants?
a. To provide gas for burning in the boiler.
.
885. When LNG is used as fuel a double wall
piping system must be used in the engine room.
What condition should the annular space between
the concentric pipes be maintained in when the
fuel system is in service?
a. Filled with nitrogen at a pressure greater
than the LNG fuel pressure.
886. Which kind of cargo pumps are the most
commonly used in cargo systems for LNG
carriers?
a. Submerged electric motor pumps.
887. Which line can be utilized to prevent line
surge when starting the main pumps of a LNG
carrier's cargo system?
a. The condensate spray line.
888. Which of the following insulation
materials that are used in the cargo containment
systems for LNG carriers has the highest
diffusion resistance?
a. Polyurethane foam.
889. A chlorine carrier must be equipped with a
chlorine absorption plant connected to the cargo
tanks and cargo lines. This requirement includes
the provision of gas detectors for the spaces and
areas around the cargo containment system and the
absorption plant outlet. What is the recommended
setting for the visual and audible alarms of the gas
detectors?
a. 5 ppm.
890. Cargo heaters are frequently used when
discharging refrigerated LPG cargoes into
pressurized shore tanks. What would be a typical
"heating range" required from a heater for
discharge of fully refrigerated propane
a. From - 45 C to - 5 C.
891. Cargo hoses intended for liquefied gas
carriers have to be prototyped tested before being
approved. When new hoses of an already approved
type are received onboard they also need to be
pressure tested before being put into service. What
are the IMO Gas Code requirements for such
hoses before they are put into service?
a. Not less than 1.5 times the specified
maximum working pressure or more than two
fifths of bursting pressure at ambient
temperature.
892. LPG carriers rely heavily on the
compressors fitted as part of the reliquefaction
plant. Screw and reciprocating types are widely
used. Which type of reciprocating compressor is
most common as a cargo compressor?
a. Double acting, single stage, oil free
compressor.
327
893. Most reliquefaction plants on LPG
carriers use a direct cooling system. Which of the
statements g cycle?
a. Cargo vapours are drawn off by a
compressor, compressed, condensed than
passed through an expansion valve back to
the tank.
894. Some liquefied gas carriers are fitted with
nitrogen generating equipment, often of the
membrane module design. What would be the
expected purity of the nitrogen produced by such
equipment?
a. 95 to 97% pure nitrogen.
895. The IMO Gas Codes require that all
liquefied gas carrier cargo tanks are fitted with
pressure relief valves. Pilot operated relief valves
are frequently used, particularly with refrigerated
cargoes. What is the main advantage of using
pilot operated relief valves rather than simple
spring loaded types for refrigerated liquefied gas
cargoes tanks?
a. They ensure accurate operation at the very
low cargo carriage pressures.
896. The reliquefaction plant for cargo cooling
of liquefied gas cargoes can operate on either a
direct or indirect cycle. On which liquefied gas
cargoes must indirect cycle cargo cooling plant be
used according to the IMO Gas Codes?
a. Cargoes such as chlorine, ethylene
oxide and propylene oxide for which the
vapours cannot be compressed due to
temperature restrictions.
897. There are a number of standard
reliquefaction plants commonly fitted onboard
LPG and other liquefied gas carriers. What type
of reliquefaction plant is required for a cargo of
Ethylene Oxide?
a. Indirect cycle.
898. There are strict rules governing the
placement and category of electrical equipment
allowed in certain areas of liquefied gas carriers.
One such category is that of flameproof
enclosures. What is a flameproof enclosure?
a. One which can withstand the pressure
build-up during an internal ignition of a
flammable mixture and is designed to cool
any flames occurring within the enclosure to
below the ignition temperature.
899. What is the main disadvantage of using
oil free, screw type compressors for the
reliquefaction plant of an LPG carrier?
a. The compressor has to run at very high
speeds to compensate for internal leakage.
900. What is the purpose of an automatic shut-
down system fitted onboard most liquefied gas
carriers and how is it initiated?
a. To prevent overfilling of the cargo tanks.
It is initiated by a high level sensor in the
cargo tank.
.
901. What is the purpose of the purge gas
condenser fitted to some liquefied gas carrier
reliquefaction plants?
a. It is used to condense out any cargo
vapours which have passed through the
main condenser with incondensable gases.
902. When measuring the liquid level in the
cargo tank of a liquefied gas carrier a number of
different corrections may be necessary to get a
true reading. Why do require a 'tape correction'?
a. The length of tape in contact with very
cold cargo vapours may contract.
903. Which type of reliquefaction plant can
have the cooling coil placed directly in the vapour
space of the cargo tank?
a. One type of the indirect cycle
reliquefaction plants.
904. A “Pellistor” is:
328
A. It is an electrical sensor unit fitted in a
flammable gas detector for measuring
hydrocarbon vapours and air mixtures to
determine whether the mixture is within the
flammable range
905. According to 33 CFR 156, for oil
tankers trading in US waters, the minimum
requirement for testing of cargo transfer hoses
and associated piping system are:
a. That no leakage occurs under static
liquid pressure of at least 1.5 times the
maximum allowable working pressure.
906. After passing through the scrubbing
tower of an inert gas system, the approximate
level of carbon dioxide in the inert flue gas
should :
a. 13%
907. An oil tanker with a defective Oil
Discharge Monitoring Equipment may be
allowed by a Port State Authority to trade for:
a. One ballast voyage before proceeding to a
repair port.
908. An oil tanker's tank-cleaning machine
with a rotational speed of 1 rpm and a selected
pitch angle of 1.5 degrees is used to perform a
bottom wash with a vertical angle from 40 degrees
to 0 degrees for 1.5 cycles (3 passes). If the
throughput of the machine at design pressure is 90
m3/hr, what will be the washing time and quantity
of crude oil required?
a. 40 minutes and 60 cubic metres of oil.
909. As per IMO requirements, the
mechanical ventilation system of the cargo pump
room shall be capable of making:
a. At least 20 air changes per hour
910. As per OPA 90 requirements, a vessel
over 400 feet (121.9 metres) in length must carry
oil spill clean-up gear to be able to handle oil
spillages of:
a. 12 barrels (1.91 cubic metres).
911. Fluid driven eductors operate on
Bernoulli‟s principle, which states that:
a. The speed of a moving fluid increases as
the pressure in the fluid decreases.
912. Ship‟s cargo pump room alarm must be
automatically activated when levels of
hydrocarbon gas concentration are:
a. No higher than 10% of LEL.
913. The automatic stripping systems fitted
on some of the centrifugal cargo pumps operate
on the principle that:
a. If cargo vapour can be stopped from
entering the cargo pump suction inlet, the
flow will continue without cavitation.
914. The calibration of the ODME is carried
with the use of:
a. Fresh water.
915. The difference between the absolute
pressure of a liquid at the inlet to a cargo pump
and the vapour pressure of the liquid is called
the:
a. Net Positive Suction Head Available.
916. The inert gas system shall be capable of
delivering inert gas to the cargo tanks at the rate
of:
a. At least 125% of the maximum discharge
capacity.
917. The typical amounts of sulphur dioxide
gas in flue gas produced when burning high
sulphur content fuels would be:
a. 2,000 ppm
329
918. The usual pressure and vacuum levels at
which the P/V valves on board an oil tanker are
required to activate are:
a. Pressure: 1 psi (0.069 bar) Vacuum: 0.5
psi (0.034 bar)
919. When in-service testing a hose used
for cargo transfer on an oil tanker (and for
which the elongation of the hose assembly
when new was greater than 2.5%), the
maximum permitted elongation before the
hose must be withdrawn from service should
be:
a. Not more than 1.5 times the temporary
elongation measured when the hose assembly
was new, as documented in the
manufacturer's certificate.
920. When tank cleaning hoses are tested for
electrical continuity, they must display a reading
of:
a. Not greater than 6 ohms per metre length.
921. A decision support system for emergency
management shall be provided on the navigation
bridge. What type of emergency situations shall as
a minimum be identified in the emergency plans?
a. Fire, Damage to ship, Pollution,Unlawful
acts threatening the safety of the ship and the
security of its passenger and crew, Pesonnel
accidents, Cargo-related accidents,
Emergency assistance to other ships
922. Emergency instructions in appropriate
languages shall be posted in passenger cabins.
Which information shall as a minimum be
included in the emergency instructions?
a. The method of donning life-jackets, escape
routes and alarm signals
923. Here do you find detailed information
and specific technical requirements for life-
saving appliances?
a. Life-Saving Apliance Code (LSA Code)
924. How many lifejackets are required in a
passenger cabin?
a. Same number as beds in the cabin
925. How many rescue boats should be
provided on passenger ships of 500 gross tons
and above?
a. Two, one on each side of the ship
926. How many two-way VHF radiotelephone
apparatus shall be provided on board a passenger
ship of 500 gross tonnage and upwards?
a. 3
927. Is it required that the PA-system (Public
Address) is connected to a back-up power
sypply?
a. Yes, the public address system shall be
connected to the emergency source of power
928. Is it required to have supplementary
emergency lighting on board passenger ships?
a. Yes, all passenger public spaces and
alleyways shall be provided with
supplementary electric lighting
929. One water fog applicator is required for
each pair of breathing apparatus on board which
type of ship?
a. Passenger ships carrying more than 36
passengers
930.Passenger ships have a normal requirement of 1
lifejacket per person + 10% for children. In addition to
this, how many lifejackets have to be stowed in
conspicuous places on deck or at the must
a. 5% extra
931. Passenger ships shall either carry
automatically self-righting liferafts or canopied
reversible liferafts. What does it mean that a
liferaft is automatically self-righting?
330
A. The liferaft will automatically turn back
into an upright position when it is empty of
people
932. What is the minimum number of
independently driven fire pumps that must be
provided on passenger ships of 4000 tons gross
tonnage and upwards?
a. 3
933. What is the minimum number of lifebuoys
that shall be provided with self-igniting lights an
self-activating smoke signals?
a. 2
934. What is the name of this unit?
a. A hydrostatic release unit
935. What is the purpose of an evacuation
analysis?
a. To identify and eliminate, as far as
practicable, congestion which may develop
during an abandonment
936. What is the time limit for abandonment of
passenger ships?
a. 30 minutes from the time the abandon ship
signal is given
937. Where do you find detailed
information and specific technical
requirements for fire safety systems?
a. Fire Safety Systems Code (FSS Code)
938. Where shall you be able to activate the
ship security alert system on board passenger
ships?
a. From the navigation bridge and in at least
one other location
939. Which one of the listed requirements
for passenger ships regarding personal life-
saving appliances do not correspond to
present regulations?
a. All lifejackets shall be fitted with a whistle,
a light and a smoke signal
940. As part of the decommissioning process
for old reefer vessels they are sent to a recycling
yard where any refrigerant remaining in the
refrigeration system is dealt with. carried out in
preparation for delivery of a vessel to a recycling
yard?
a. Make a careful note of the quantities
of gas onboard and note this in the
Ozone depletionrecord Book prior to
discharging the gas into recovery bottles.
941. As well as having temperature sensors
located in the cargo holds some reefer vessels are
alson fitted with ethylene sensors. Why is it
useful to have information regarding the ethylene
content in a reefer vessel cargo hold when
carrying fruit cargoes?
a. Some fruit cargoes are sensitive to
ethylene and the quality of the cargo can
deteriorate as they may over-ripen.
942. Data loggers are a vital part of the
temperature control and monitoring system on a
reefer vessel. In a situation where the data logger
fails several days before the end of the voyage it is
still necessary to maintain control of and monitor
cargo temperatures. How could an accurate,
portable thermometer be used to the best effect, to
achieve this, in such a situation?
a. Use the thermometer to check and control
the delivery air temperature by inserting it in
the delivery air ducting close to the
evaporators.
943. Despite setting what appears to be the
correct delivery air temperatures in accordance
with
shipper's instructions, large cargo loss claims can
still occur when operating reefer vessels. Which
of the options given is likely to help avoid the
majority of these large claims?
a. By confirming the temperature scale that
the shipper is using in his carriage
instructions, Fahrenheit or Celsius.
331
944. Many fruit cargoes are carried
refrigerated and also under controlled
atmosphere (CA) conditions. A situation
develops where there is a problem with the main
reefer plant that will take several hours to repair
but the CA system is still operation. Which of
the statements given in the options is the most
accurate in these circumstances?
a. The CA plant is only an adjunct for the
refrigeration plant and therefore there
should be concern about the condition of the
cargo.
945. Many reefer vessels are fitted with
controlled atmosphere systems (CA). There are a
number of different systems available but
generally they all work by introducing nitrogen
into the cargo space. Select, from the options
given, the main reason why nitrogen is generally
the gas chosen for controlling the atmosphere in
the cargo spaces of a reefer vessel.
a. Nitrogen displaces the oxygen in the
cargo space and allows the respiration of the
fruit to be controlled.
946. Most fruit cargoes carried under
refrigeration require introduction of fresh air into
the cargo space to remove any excess carbon
dioxide and ethylene produced by respiration of
the cargo and sensors are fitted to detect these
gases. Shipper's instructions will often indicate
'constant air change' as a requirement for a cargo.
Why, even though this is a crude method for
controlling the cargo space atmosphere, is this
type of instruction given?
a. Some cargoes are very sensitive to
ethylene levels and it may be difficult to
accurately measure the low levels that
would affect a cargo.
947. On a conventional reefer vessel is
possible to ventilate the cargo spaces with fresh
air using fans and trunkings. One of the reasons
for using fresh air ventilation is to control the
relative humidity within the cargo space. Select
the option which best completes the following
statement. "It is beneficial to be able to control the
relative humidity within the cargo space because
fruit cargoes should be kept…
a. …relatively moist to avoid the cargo
dehydrating during the passage."
948. On a reefer vessel air is passed over the
cooling coils before entering the cargo hatch via
trunking to cool the cargo. It is important to ensure
that the cooling coils are clear of any material such
as plastic sheeting or bags. Why is this so
important?
a. The plastic may interfere with the air
flow over the cooling coils and
subsequently the cooling of the cargo.
949. Prior to loading a reefer cargo it is good
practise to carry out an 'ice test' of the
temperature sensors within the cargo space. Part
of the test is to immerse the sensors in a test
bucket of known temperature, usually zero
degrees Celsius as this is the melting point of ice.
Which of the options is correct in relation to
preparing the test bucket?
a. Insulated ice buckets should be filled with
ice cubes approximately 2 centimetres square
and a small quantity of distilled water to
produce an ice- water mixture. The ice cubes
should be produced from clean distilled water.
950. Refrigerated cargo spaces are fitted with
temperature sensors and in some cases carbon
dioxide sensors. From the options given select the
one which best completes the following statement.
"Monitoring the carbon dioxide content in a cargo
space loaded with fruit can be useful because…
a. … increasing levels indicate that the fruit
may be starting to ripen."
951. Select the option which correctly
completes the following statement. "A
conventional reefer vessel operating with a
controlled atmosphere plant must have cargo
spaces which…
a. … have a gas tight seal."
332
952. The data logger on a reefer vessel
normally records temperatures for air delivery, air
return and cargo pulp. How would the air
delivery and return temperatures be expected to
vary during the first few days of carrying a cargo
of citrus fruit which had not been pre-cooled
before loading?
a. The difference between the two
temperatures would steadily reduce.
953. To correctly interpret the readings on the
printout from a reefer vessel‟s cargo data logger
it is essential to have some knowledge of the
location of the temperature sensors. Where
would the temperature sensor for the delivery air
to a cargo hold be expected to be located?
a. In the air flow path from the cooling coils,
about 3 metres from the coils.
954. What should be done with the data
logger printouts after completing the
discharge of a refrigerated cargo?
a. They should be retained onboard for a
minimum of 2 years.
955. During sea passage on a roro vessel,
how would you know if gasoline vapours were
escaping from vehicles?
a. By using flammable gas detectors in the
vehicle decks
956. On a roro vessel, to what should you pay
very close attention, when inspecting the structure
and condition of movable car decks?
a. Cracks in way of deck supports
957. On a roro vessel, what additional
securing arrangements should be used when
loading a vehicle on an incline or fixed Ramp
a. The Vehicle should also be chocked under
its wheels
958. On a roro vessel, what is Maximum
Securing Load?
a. The load capacity of a device used to
secure cargo on board
959. On a roro vessel, what is the Maximum
Securing Load of 'D' rings?
a. 50% of the breaking strength
Securing Load of fibre ropes?
Securing Load of mild steel shackles?
Securing Load of reusable use wire ropes?
Securing Load of single use wire ropes?
Securing Load of web lashings?
965. On a roro vessel, when should a trailer
horse be taken out of service
a. If there is any damage to the wheel or
spring, the frame is rusted or distorted or the
pads are worn out
966. On a roro vessel, where can you find the
validity of web lashings
a. On the certificate supplied with the
equipment
333
967. On a roro vessel, where will escaping
gasoline vapourssettle in a cargo hold? If the
forced ventilation system is shut down
a. At the lowest levels
968. What must you ensure when using
portable slopes to discharge ro-ro units?
a. They must be exactly aligned with the
units' tyres
969. When lowering a roro Cargo Side or Stern
Ramp what must be ensured ?
a. The vessel is securely moored and there is
nothing beneath the ramp
970. A decision support system for emergency
management shall be provided on the navigation
bridge. What type of emergency situations shall as
a minimum be identified in the emergency plans?
a. Fire, Damage to ship, Pollution,
Unlawful acts threatening the safety of the
ship and the security of its passenger and
crew, Pesonnel accidents, Cargo-related
accidents, Emergency assistance to other
ships
971. Emergency instructions in appropriate
languages shall be posted in passenger cabins.
Which information shall as a minimum be
included in the emergency instructions?
a. The method of donning life-jackets, escape
routes and alarm signals
972. How many lifejackets are required in a
passenger cabin?
a. Same number as beds in the cabin
973. How many rescue boats should be
provided on ro-ro passenger ships of 500 gross
tons and above?
a. Two, and at least one of the rescue boats
shall be a Fast Rescue Boat
974. How many two-way VHF radiotelephone
apparatus shall be provided on board a ro-ro
passenger ship of 500 gross tonnage and upwards?
a. 3
975. Is it required that the PA-system (Public
Address) is connected to a back-up power
sypply?
a. Yes, the public address system shall be
connected to the emergency source of power
976. Is it required to have supplementary
emergency lighting on board ro-ro ships?
a. Yes, all passenger public spaces and
alleyways shall be provided with
supplementary electric lighting
977. Passenger ships have a normal
requirement of 1 lifejacket per person + 10%
for children. In addition to this, how many
lifejackets have to be stowed in conspicuous
places on deck or at the muster station
a. 5% extra
978.Ro-ro passenger ships shall either carry
automatically self-righting liferafts or canopied
reversible liferafts. What does it mean that a
liferaft is automatically self- righting?
a. The liferaft will automatically turn back
into an upright position when it is empty of
people
independently driven fire pumps that must be
provided on passenger ships of 4000 tons gross
tonnage and upwards?
a. 3
lifebuoys that shall be provided with self-igniting
lights an self activating smoke signals?
a. 2
334
981. What is the purpose of an evacuation
analysis?
a. To identify and eliminate, as far as
practicable, congestion which may develop
during an abandonment
982. What is the time limit for abandonment of
ro-ro passenger ships?
a. 30 minutes from the time the abandon ship
signal is given
983. What is this?
a. A hydrostatic release unit
984. Where do you find detailed
information and specific technical
requirements for fire safety systems?
a. Fire Safety Systems Code (FSS Code)
985. Where do you find detailed information
and specific technical requirements for life-
saving appliances?
a. Life-Saving Apliance Code (LSA Code)
986. Where shall you be able to activate the
ship security alert system on board ro-ro
passenger ships?
a. From the navigation bridge and in at least
one other location
987. Which one of the listed requirements
for passenger ships regarding personal life-
saving appliances do not correspond to
present regulations?
a. All lifejackets shall be fitted with a whistle,
a light and a smoke signal
335
FUNGSI II
Carriage dangerous goods
988. Which of these definitions is that
of a "M arine Pollutant" under the IM DG
Code? A substance w hich is subject to the
provisions of Annex III of M ARPOL
989. If a tank container of liquid am m onia is
engulfed in fire,it is recom m ended:
To allow ventilation
990. Exposure to m oderate
concentrations ofam m onia m
aycause: Choking and possible
loss ofeyesight
991. As understood w ithin the IM DG Code,w hatis
an "article"?
A device thatcontains a dangerous substance orm ixture
ofsubstances
992. You have just loaded a cargo of Toluene on a
chem ical tanker and are about to clear the lines into the
ship. The one particular hazard that m ust be noted The
one particular hazard that m ust be noted about this
product w ould be that:
It is a static accum ulator and settling tim e m ust be
allow ed before gauging
993. You w ill load class 1.2 com m ercial explosives
and need to construct a portable magazine
The magazine MUST Be elevated with skids 10cm (3,9
Inches) above the deck
994. The explosive range of a fuel
lies betw een the low er explosive lim it
and the Upper explosive lim it
995. The reporting of incidents involving harm ful
substances and / or marine pollutants is regulated
under which international guidelines?
Protocol of MARPOL
996. Although notrequired bythe IM DG Code,
on a containervessel, carrying Calcium
Hypochlorite under refrigeration is beneficialso as
to :
Preventthe cargo tem perature increasing into the
dangerzone
997. You are transporting on your vessel. the
dangerous cargo m anifest m ust be signed by
the Master or his authorized representative
998. Substances,m aterials and articles shall be
stow ed as indicated in the Dangerous Goods List of
the IMDG Code,in accordance w ith a series of stow
age categories. How are those categories designated?
999. categories labelled A-E
1000. Which code would you refer to if you are
carrying a hazardous cargo and you have a spill
I M D G Code
13. Which of the follow ing is a definition of the "Proper
Shipping Nam e",as found in the IMDG Code?
The nam e to be used in any ocum entation relating to
the transportation of the dangerous substance, material
or article,such as on form s,labels and placards
1001. You are on a vessel that carries liquefied gasses
in bulk. The person on w atch is required to have what
inform ation about the cargo easily accessible?
Firefighting procedures
1002. A cargo of flam m able solid (Class 4.1) is to be
loaded w ith a cargo of of flam mable
Separated by a com plete com partm ent or hold form
1003. One particular group of hazardous goods is
highlighted by the IMDG Code as potentially being
the most dangerous for carriage. W hich of the follow
ing is it?
Organiic peroxides
1004. In conjunction w ith w hich tw o sets of
international regulations should the DG Code be read
for security purposes?
Chapter XI-2 of SOLAS and Part A of the ISPS Code
1005. Flash point is
The low est tem perature at w hich an oil gives off
sufficient vapor to from
1006. You are to carrya cargo ofPhenolacross the North
Atlantic in w intertime. What precaution will you take
with the double bottom tank located underthe cargo tank
containing the Phenol
It should be empty, to avoid cold w atercontacted the
structure around the productbecause Phenolhas a
relatively high melting point
1007. Exposure to moderate concentrations from monia
maycause
Choking and possible loss ofeyesight
1008. The Classes draw n up bythe UN Com m ittee of
Experts for the safe handling of hazardous substances,as
listed in the I M DG Code, are draw n up on the basis of
which of the follow ing criteria?
The type ofhazard theypresent
1009. Where should placards be located on a freight
container ?
One on each end and one on each side
1010. You are transporting dangerous
cargo on your vessel. You m ust inspect
this cargo Daily
1011. You receive a package,for shipment aboard
your vessel,containing Class 1 explosives. The package
is damp, moldy and stained. You must
seek the shipper's advice w ith regard to with draw all
repair,or replacement
1012. A typicalhazard associated w ith the carriage
ofam m onium nitrate is
Environm ental pollution
1013. You are on a cargo vessel carrying portable
tanks of dangerous cargoes in bulk. Which statement is
TRUE? All electrical equipm ent w ithin 10 feet
horizontally must be explosion proof or intrinsically
safe
1014. Flam m able liquid m eans any liquid w hich
gives off flam m able vapor at or below
80 F (26.7C)
1015. Which ofthe follow ing groups ofchem
icalcargoes is particularlysusceptible to
polymerisation, especiallythrough exposure to
heat?
Monomers
1016.A bulk cargo declaration shows that the iron ore to
be loaded has an angle of repose of 45 degrees; what
does this indicate?
The cargo pile is stable and unlikely to shift
1017.A bulk cargo has a stowage factor (S.F) of 1.50
cubic metres permetric tonne (m3/mt). If 1000 tonnes are
to be loaded what volume will this cargo occupy?
1018. ic metres ( m3)
1019.A bulk cargo is loaded and the shore cargo figure
is 10 000 tonnes; the chief officer calculates 9 500
tonnes have been loaded; what should the Master do?
Ask for a draft survey to be carried in the presence of P&I
Club representative
1020. A bulk cargo of Coal is to be loaded in Australia
for Europe; the coal is declared as having a high
moisture content (but less than the transportable
moisture Limit (TML)); what must the Master ensure?
All cargo hold bilges are sounded daily and the
amount of water logged; the bilges can then be
pumped out.
1021.A bulk cargo of steel coils is loaded and a number
of the coils are noted by the Chief Officer to be rusted;
what must the Master ensure?
Clause the Bill of Lading with the reference numbers of
the rusty coils and so make the Bill of Lading a "dirty"
Bill.
1022.A bulk coal cargo is to be loaded and the moisture
content is declared as 19 ; the transportable moisture
limit of the cargo is declared as 15, what should the
Master do?
Refuse to load the cargo unless the vessel is specially
designed for the carriage of cargo which may liquefy
1023. A heavy metal concentrate bulk cargo has a
moisture content of 16 and a transportable moisture limit
of 18, what should the Master do?
Load the cargo as the moisture content is within
acceptable limits
1024. What hazards are associated with the carriage of
wood pellets in bulk?
Oxygen depletion and generation of carbon monoxide in
cargo and communicating Spaces
1025.What is the primary hazard associated with the
carriage of a bulk cargo of salt on a Bulk Carrier?
The only possible hazard is associated with ingress of
water into the hold and a loss of stability
1026. When loading a bulk cargo of cement the specific
gravity and flow characteristics are dependant on
what
criteria?
The volume of air in the cargo
1027.When loading a bulk cargo of Coal the ship must
be fitted with appropriate instruments to measure the
concentration of what gases within the cargo space?
The gases specified in all of these answers
1028. When should a master agree to accept a bulk cargo
of concentrates?
When he is fully satisfied that the actual moisture content
of the cargo is less than the Transportable
1029.A container full of scrap metal is being loaded,
and you sight water dripping from it. You should:
Reject the container.
1030. A typical hazard associated with the carriage of
ammonium nitrate is:
Explosion.
1031. Although not required by the IMDG Code, on a
container vessel, carrying Calcium Hypochlorite under
refrigeration is beneficial so as to:
Prevent the cargo temperature increasing into the danger
zone.
1032. Carriage of wet scrap steel borings, turnings and
swarf in containers is generally considered
dangerous,
because:
It can spontaneously ignite.
1033. Containerised scrap metal fire is best extinguished
by:
Smothering.
1034. Exposure to moderate
concentrations of ammonia may
cause: Choking and possible loss of
eyesight.
1035. Fire in a container carrying
chemicals is difficult to extinguish,
because: Heat is often produced due to
chemical reactions within the cargo.
1036. If a tank container of liquid ammonia
is engulfed in fire, it is recommended: To
allow ventilation.
1037. Stack allowable weights on a container vessel
should not be exceeded because this can cause:
Failure of the corner posts of the containers stowed
at the bottom of the stack.
1038. The most important consideration, in terms of stress,
when planning stowage of containers on a container
vessel would be:
Distribution and weight of the containers.
1039. "Noxious Liquid Substances which, if discharged
into the sea from tank cleaning or deballasting operations ,
are deemed to present a hazard to either marine resources
or human health or cause harm to amenities or other
legitimate uses of the sea and therefore justify a limitation
on the quality and quantity of the discharge into the
marine environment". Such substances are:
A category "Y" substance as
identified in MARPOL Annex II.
A category "X" substance as
identified in MARPOL Annex II.
1040. After the discharge of Lube Oils, Lube Oil
Additives, Phthalates and Olefins and before the loading
of "high-spec" cargoes on a chemical tanker, the test that
might be expected to produce unsatisfactory results
during initial wall-wash analysis would be:
Hydrocarbons.
1041. As per MARPOL 73/78, coal slurry, clay slurry,
dextrose solution and molasses are classified as:
"OS" (Other substances)"
1042. In discussing the properties of Noxious Liquid
Substances, the criteria for defining Threshold Limit
Value (TLV) is:
The time-weighted concentration of a substance to which
a worker may be repeatedly exposed for a normal 8 hour
working day and 40 hour week without adverse health
effects.
1043. It is considered especially necessary to continue
to ventilate the tank and to continuously monitor the
atmosphere when working inside a cargo compartment
which still contains vegetable oil residues, because:
The decomposing residues continue to release hazardous
gases, reducing the levels of oxygen in the tank and
making the atmosphere potentially dangerous.
1044. MARPOL 73/78 defines ‗solidifying substances„
as:
A noxious liquid substance which, in the case of a
substance with a melting point of less than 15°C which is
at a temperature of less than 5°C above its melting point
at the time of unloading, or in the case of a substance
with a melting point equal to or greater than 15°C which
is at a temperature of less than 10°C above its melting
point at the time of unloading.
1045. MARPOL 73/78 defines a ‗high viscosity
substance„ as:
A noxious liquid substance in category "X" or "Y" with a
viscosity equal to or greater than 50 mpa.s at the
unloading temperature.
1046. The IMO Code requires protection against
spillage of the most dangerous products (ethyl ether,
antiknock lead compounds such as TML and TEL etc)
by prescribing that:
They shall be carried in cargo tanks independent of the
ships hull structure?
1047.Which of the following groups of chemical
cargoes is particularly susceptible to polymerisation,
especially through exposure to heat?
Monomers.
1048.You are to carry a cargo of Phenol across the
North Atlantic in winter time. What precaution will you
take with the double bottom tank located under the
cargo tank containing the Phenol?
It should be empty, to avoid cold water contacted the
structure around the product because Phenol has a
relatively high melting point.
1049. You have just loaded a cargo of Toluene on a
chemical tanker and are about to clear the lines into the
ship. The one particular hazard that must be noted about
this product would be that:
It is a static accumulator and settling time must be
allowed before gauging.
1050.A P - H type Mollier diagram or chart is often used
when dealing with LNG cargoes. What is the main
information that can be obtained from a Mollier diagram?
Information about the exact values of the pressure, density,
specific volume and dryness fraction of the
vapour when both the enthalpy and temperature are
known.
1051.An important physical property of LNG is the
saturation vapour pressure. What is the IMO definition of
the term "saturated vapour pressure"?
The pressure at which a vapour is in equilibrium with its
liquid at a specified temperature.
1052.During a normal voyage heat is transferred to the
LNG cargo through the cargo tank insulation which
causes some boil off of the cargo. This boil off changes
the composition of the LNG as more of the lighter
components will vaporise. Which component of the LNG
cargo is likely to have a lower than original percentage on
arrival at the discharge port?
Methane.
1053.LNG is often considered as an ideal gas when
looking at the physical properties and characteristics.
With reference to the physical properties of gas mixtures
which of the given options is the SIGTTO definition of
the term 'mole'?
The mass that is numerically equal to the molecular mass.
1054. LNG is one of the liquefied gases transported by
sea. What is the IMO's definition of liquefied gases?
Liquids with a vapour pressure exceeding 2.8 bar
absolute at +37.8 C and certain other chemicals listed in
the Gas Codes.
1055. What is a typical composition of LNG (Arabian
Gulf LNG)?
Methane 91% - Ethane 6% - Propane 3%
1056. What is the relative liquid density of Methane?
0.427
1057. A nomber of substances are carried as cargoes on
liquefied gas carriers. Of those given in the options,
which is the most reactive, and therefore least
compatible, with other liquefied gas cargoes?
Chlorine
1058.Ethylene is normally carried on fully refrigerated
liquefied gas carriers at its atmospheric boiling point.
What is the approximate atmospheric boiling point of
ethylene?
Minus 104 degrees C
1059.Hydrate formation may be a problem with some
LPG cargoes. The hydrates may enter cargo pumps,
block lubricating passages, unbalance impellers and
seize bearings. What is the most common practice to
prevent such problems?
Inject a small quantity of freezing-point depressant into
the pump.
1060.Polymerisation may be a problem with some
liquefied gas cargoes such as vinyl chloride and
ethylene oxide. What is the definition of polymerisation?
Polymerisation is when single molecules of the same
compound join together to form a new compound usually
with a higher viscosity.
1061.The 'Critical Temperature' is important when
dealing with liquefied gas cargoes. What is the IMO
Gas Codes' definition of the term 'Critical Temperature'?
It is the temperature above which a gas cannot be
liquefied by pressure alone.
1062.The densities of most hydrocarbon gas mixtures
which evolve from normal petroleum products are greater
than the density of air. What would be the approximate
relative density of a mixture of 50% by volume of air and
propane relative to 100% air?
1.25
1063. What is the main reason that LPG boil-off gas is
unsuitable for use in the vessel's fuel supply?
LPG vapour is heavier than air at atmospheric conditions
and represent a risk as they may accumulate in
machinery spaces.
1064.When butadiene is carried as a liquid gas cargo it
usually has inhibitors added. One reason for this is to
minimise the formation of polymers. What is the other
reason for adding inhibitors to this particular cargo?
To scavenge any oxygen that may be present to prevent
peroxide formation.
1065.Which publication contains detailed information, in
the form of material safety data sheets, relating to the
chemical and physical properties and associated hazards
of the most commonly transported liquefied gases,
including LPG?
The ICS Tanker Safety Guide (Liquefied Gases)
1066.Why must inert gas from a combustion-type
generator never be used when preparing the cargo tanks
of a liquefied gas carrier for a cargo of ammonia?
Because inert gas from this type of generator
contains carbon dioxide which reacts with ammonia
to form carbamates.
1067.When preparing the cargo tanks of an LNG carrier
for loading it is important to consider the dew point of the
vapour mixtures present in the tank. What is the definition
of the "dew point" of a vapour mixture containing water
vapour?
The dew point is the temperature at which the water
vapour begins to condense as the temperature decreases.
1068.Which of the given options is the approximate
value of the flammable range for Methane measured as a
percentage volume in air?
5.3 - 14.0% by volume.
1069. A petroleum product is considered “Non-
Volatile” when:
With a Flashpoint of 60 degrees C or above (closed cup
method), these liquids produce, when at any normal
ambient temperature, equilibrium gas concentrations
below the Lower Flammable Limit.
1070. Anti-static additives are used
to treat fuel oil cargoes so as to:
Ensure they become non-
accumulator of static charge.
1071.At which of the following concentrations of
Hydrogen Sulphide would dizziness, headache, nausea,
etc. Occur within 15 minutes of exposure, followed by
loss of consciousness and possibly death, after 30-60
minutes of exposure?
500-700 ppm.
1072.Besides danger of vapour inhalation by
crewmembers, if Hydrogen Sulphide is present in
high concentrations in crude oil, it can also cause:
Corrosion.
1073. The approximate API gravity of Arabian Light
Crude is:
33 degrees.
1074. The approximate density ratio of undiluted
gas, in relation to air, from a typical crude oil is:
1.5 times that of the air.
1075. The name given to compounds consisting solely
of carbon and hydrogen atoms joined together by
single
bonds is:
Saturated hydrocarbons.
1076. The Vapour Pressure of crude oils is determined
by the:
The Reid Closed Test method.
1077.When an inhibitor is added to an oil cargo, the
items mentioned on the accompanying certificate include:
Inhibitor name; amount added; date added; period of
efficiency; precautions if voyage length exceeds that
period; eventual temperature limitation.
1078. When carrying certain cargoes (e.g. Aviation
Turbine Oils) it is important to carefully monitor ship„s
tanks during passage, because these cargoes can:
Release oxygen, which they may have absorbed during
the refining process, into the ullage spaces of ship„s
cargo tanks
1079.When carrying out oil cargo calculations, the
relationship between absolute and gauge pressure is:
Absolute pressure = gauge pressure + barometric
pressure.
1080. When describing the characteristics of oil cargoes
or oil/water slops, a “mercaptan” is:
A colourless, odorous gas, with a smellsimilar to rotting
cabbage and which is generated naturally by the
degredation of natural organisms, as may be found where
water has remained under oil for a long time.
1081.When referring to crude oil
petroleum products, “volatility” means:
Their tendency to produce gas.
1082. Which of the following type of crude oil requires
special consideration in terms of carriage and cleaning?
Paraffinic Crude.
.
1083.With reference to chemistry of petroleum
cargoes, if 'Alkanes' are saturated hydrocarbons, then
unsaturated hydrocarbons are:
Alkenes.
1084. With reference to oil cargo characteristics, „cloud
point„ is:
The temperature at which a liquid hydrocarbon begins
to congeal and take on a cloudy appearance, due to the
bonding of constituent paraffin compounds.
1085. With reference to oil cargoes, their wax content is
generally referred to as:
The percentage of paraffinic wax by volume, based on a
representative sample of the crude oil.
1086.At what latest time shall doors, side scuttles,
gangway doors, cargo- and coaling ports and other
openings which are to be kept closed watertight at sea be
closed at the start of the voyage?
Before leaving the port
1087. Cross-flooding fittings shall be operable from:
Above the bulkhead deck
1088. How many separate means of escape from
passengers and crew spaces should it be in each
zone?
T
w
o
O
ne
1089. How often shall watertight doors in main transverse
bulkheads which is in use at sea be operated
(tes
ted)?
Dai
ly
1090. In which cases shall side scuttles in passenger ships
be so constructed that they cannot be opened without the
consent of the master of the ship?
Where the sills of the side scuttles are below the margin
line
1091. Is there any requirements regarding double
bottom for large passenger ships?
Yes, in ship of 76 m in length and upwards, a double
bottom shall be fitted amidships, and shall extend to the
fore and after peak bulkheads, or as near thereto as
practicable.
1092. What is a passenger ship
according to SOLAS regulations?
A ship which carries more than 12
passengers
1093. When are power-operated watertight sliding doors
(class 3 doors) compulsory forall watertight doors
aboard passenger ships?
Where the ship has passenger spaces below the bulkhead
deck
1094. When there is doubt about the freshness of the
atmosphere in enclosed or confined spaces, what action
should be taken?
Arrangements should be made for testing of the
atmosphere to ensure maintenance of 21% oxygen and
a carbon monoxide content below 50 ppm in the
atmosphere of the space
1095. Cargoes of frozen beef and chilled beef have
approximate carriage temperatures of minus 18 and
minus
1096. degree Celsius respectively. Greater care is
required when carrying chilled beef as it is more sensitive
to deviations from, and requires finer control of, its
recommended carriage temperature. Which option best
completes the following statement? "This additional care
is worthwhile because…
…chilled beef commands a much higher price in the
market."
1097.Certain live refrigerated cargoes such as fruit, salad,
vegetable and plant cargoes are sensitive to ethylene
during shipment. Select the option which best completes
the following statement. "Ethylene is described as a gas
which …
A ...is a natural fruit ripening hormone."
1098. During loading of bananas the fruit should be
visually inspected frequently tocheck the quality and for
any indications as to its physiological development.
Which one of the options given would indicate that the
fruit is in suitable condition for shipment?
The bananas have a uniform green colour with
relatively sharp ridges along the length. Theycan be
snapped or broken with sap clinging between the
broken parts.
1099. It is possible to successfully mix certain types of
refrigerated cargo in the same space if they are
compatible. Sometimes apparently dissimilar cargoes
can be successfully mixed. Which one of the
combinations given in the options could be successfully
carried as a mixed cargo in the same cargo space?
Oranges and apples.
1100. Most perishable cargoes are presented for shipment
pre-cooled to the correct carriage temperature. If the
cargo is not pre-cooled or has warmed up due to the cold
chain being broken it can result in increased metabolic
rates. Which of the given options would be the most
difficult to deal with if such a situation occurred during a
sea passage?
The heat produced by the cargo.
1101. Refrigerated cargoes are generally easy to secure
for a sea passage when compared to some bulk, timber
and project type cargoes. The cargo must be stowed so
that it will not shift during the voyage and so that a good
air flow can be maintained through the cargo. Which one
of the given options is most likely to result in this
required outcome and a successful carriage?
A tight uniform stow which forces air through the cargo.
1102. Some perishable cargoes which are normally
carried refrigerated can also be carried non-refrigerated
even on a long sea passage. This requires that the
commodity is suitably packed and correctly ventilated
during transport. Select theoption which correctly
completes the following statement. "The type of cargo
most suited for a sea passage under ventilation only
would be…
…onions."
1103. Strawberries are a sensitive cargo with a relatively
short carriage life and can only be carried on short sea
passages. They are often irradiated for transport. Select
the true statement from the options given relating to the
effect of irradiation.
The main effect of irradiating strawberries prior to
transport is that it kills off any bacteria on the fruit.
1104. When considering how non-containerised
perishable cargoes such as bananas and grapes are
presented\ for loading the temperature of the cargo is
important. Which one of the statements included in the
options is correct? Bananas are loaded at field
temperature while grapes are precooled.
1105. In roro Cargo Planning What should be considered
for the location of stowage of a heavy loads such as
transformer, locomotive or work boats?
The stability of the vessel, access to the location and the
SWL of the stowage location
1106. In roro Cargo planning where should you look to
find information on securing cargos
In the vessels approved Cargo Securing Manual
1107. In roro cargo securing which of the following
can be used as a general rule for deciding lashing
requirements of a cargo unit
The total of the MSL values of the securing devices on
each side of a unit of cargo (port as well as starboard)
should equal the weight of the unit.
1108. On a roro vessel in a wet climate what can happen
to wheeled cargoes?
Lashings can become slack over time and the cargo is
more likely to shift due to the wet weather
1109. On a roro vessel, how should caterpillar crawlers
stowed on hatch covers be secured?
By means of wire ropes or chains secured to the hatch
covers and to the main deck from all four sides of the unit
1110. On a roro vessel, what should be done first when
cargo has shifted at sea on a roro vessel and re lashing is
not possible?
Alter course and/or speed to reduce the accelerations and
prevent further damage
1111. On a roro vessel, what should be done when
cargoes that transmit stack loads are to be loaded onto
the vessel's decks or hatch covers?
Stow the cargo on timbers of sufficient thickness so as to
distribute the stack load
1112.On a roro vessel, what should one consider prior
to loading machinery with caterpillar crawlers on the
hatch covers?
Maximum permissible loading of the hatch covers and the
horizontal restraint of hatch covers and coamings
1113. What kind of damage is most likely when Ro-Ro
cargoes come into contact with fuel oil spilt/left on
roro
decks ?
Tyre and bodywork damages
1114. Where should a Ro-Ro unit that requires protection
from heat and large temperature variations be
stowed?
Under-deck away from bulkheads, fuel tanks, heating
coils and uninsulated machinery
1115. At what time should lashings be released?
Lashings should not be released for unloading before
the ship is secured at the berth, without the Master's
express permission.
1116. How can you arrange for safe movement of
passengers on ro-ro decks?
Passengers should be warned of vehicle movements when
entering or crossing car or vehicle decks.
1117. Normally ventilation fans in enclosed ro-ro spaces
must be run continuously whenever vehicles are on
board, why?
An increased number of air changes may be required
when vehicles are being loaded or unloaded, or
where flammable gases or liquids are stowed in
closed ro-ro spaces
1118. What is the procedure if a tank lorry containing
dangerous goods is not clearly marked?
Refuse to load the vehicle Ask the driver to write a
declarationof contents and load the vehicle As long as the
driver looks ok, load the cargo
1119. What type of cargo shall always be secured?
Freight vehicles carrying dangerous goods and adjacent
vehicles should always be secured.
1120. When there is doubt about the freshness of the
atmosphere in ro-ro cargo spaces, what action
should be
taken?
Arrangements should be made for testing of the
atmosphere to ensure maintenance of 21% oxygen and
a carbon monoxide content below 50 ppm in the
atmosphere of the space
1121. Which of the following international regulations
is normally used when handling dangerous goods?
IMDG code
1122. Who should operate ships' ramps, car platforms,
retractable car decks and similar equipment?
Only competent persons authorised by a responsible
ships' officer, in accordance with the company's
work instructions.
1123. How often shall a survey for renewal of cargo
ship safety construction certificate be carried out?
Every fifth year with a periodical survey every 12.
Month.
1124. If extensive repair to the superstructure has been
carried out, it will affect the:
Load line certificate
1125. What kind of permanent documentation is
required for personnel assigned specific dutys and
responsibilities related to cargo or cargo equipment
on , for example, a liquefied tanker?
A tankerman certificate
1126. On General Cargo ships, cargoes such as logs, fish
meal, scrap metal and bales of cotton commonly
tend
to cause:
Oxygen depletion in the cargo holds.
1127. Steel coils when loaded on a General Cargo ship
tend to be subjected to:
Crushing and distortion.
1128.The carriage of bagged Ammonium Nitrate in
cargo holds of a General Cargo vessel is associated with:
Risk of explosion
1129. The carriage of logs on General Cargo vessels
tends to cause:
Oxygen depletion in the cargo holds.
1130.When hot rolled steel coils are loaded on
General Cargo ships, it may be correct to state that:
They must not be exposed to salt water
contamination.
1131.A five yearly thorough survey of cargo gear on
a General Cargo vessel should be carried out by: A
classification society surveyor.
1132.During a pre-loading survey on board a General
Cargo ship, the most efficient method of testing the
weather tightness of the hatch covers is considered to
be:
Ultra sonic test.
1133. A General Cargo vessel has a 50 tonne SWL
heavy lift derrick and a load of 48 tonnes is to be loaded.
The lifting gear of slings and spreader bar weighs 4
tonnes. In this case, it would be correct to state that:
The load cannot be loaded because the combined weight
of the load and the lifting gear will exceed the SWL by
two tonnes.
1134.During cargo watch on a General Cargo ship, if the
OOW informs you that the condition of the discharge
equipment such as slings and shackles being used by the
stevedores is unsuitable for use, you should:
Inform stevedores of concern and protest by letter.
1135.Information about the maximum point loading in
cargo holds and on decks of a General Cargo Vessel
may be obtained from:
Ships Capacity plan.
1136. On a general cargo ship, operating the heavy lift
derricks with the boom close to horizontal could
result
in:
Excessive stresses acting on parts of the derrick system.
1137.On a General Cargo ship, the most likely cause of a
hatch cover hydraulic system to deteriorate would be: Due
to dust and cargo particles lodged around the piston seals.
1138. The main purpose of a hatch cover ventilator grill
on a General Cargo vessel is:
To prevent sparks entering the cargo hold.
1139. The ship„s lifting plant must be proof load tested
and all parts thoroughly examined at intervals not
exceeding:
1140. years
1141. When general cargo is damaged during heavy
weather on a General Cargo vessel, it must be ensured
that the damage is inspected by the:
Surveyor representing the vessel's P. & I. Club.
1142. What kind of damage is most likely when Ro-Ro
cargoes come into contact with fuel oil spilt/left on
roro
decks ?
Tyre and bodywork damages
1143. Where should a Ro-Ro unit that requires protection
from heat and large temperature variations be
stowed?
Under-deck away from bulkheads, fuel tanks, heating
coils and uninsulated machinery
FUNGSI III
CONTROLING THE OPERATION OF THE SHIP AND
CARE FOR PERSONS ON BOARD
Control trim, stability and stress
1144. What are the effects of a bulk vessel loading a high
density cargo resulting in a large metacentric height
(GM)?
Have a fast roll period and possibly suffer racking
stresses
1145. Which plan shows the position of the vertical and
longitudinal centres of gravity for each cargo
compartment of a Bulk Carrier?
Vessel stability book
b. How are ship's stability characteristics affected by
Parametric Rolling?
By the constant change of underwater hull
geometry as waves travel past the ship
c. What roll amplitude is generally used by classification
societies in calculating rolling forces?
24 - 30 degrees
1146. A vessel with a GM of 1.22 M is inclined to 10
degrees. What is the value of the righting arm? b.
0.21 Mtrs.
.
a. A General Cargo vessel develops an angle of loll while
loading a heavy item of deck cargo alongside the jetty.
You should immediately:
Stop cargo, reduce FSE in tanks, lower weights
within vessel and fill small ballast tank on low side
of vessel.
1147. If a load is suspended from the hook of a crane.
What effect does that have on a vessel’s stability? c.
The weight acts upon the vessel from the head of
the crane
a. What is usually the effect on G when the ship is
damaged?
It is unchanged
b. A general cargo vessel is loading to its Summer Marks.
Upon completion of loading, the final level of the water
would be at:
The top of the summer load line mark.
c. Every oil tanker of 5,000 tonnes deadweight and above
delivered on or after 1 February 2002 shall comply with
intact stability whereby it must have a minimum GM
(metacentric height) in port of:
Not less than 0.15 m
A general cargo with a large metacentric height (GM)
would be expected to have:
A fast roll period and large righting levers (GZ
Levers).
12. The disadvantages of large double bottom tanks on a
double hull oil tanker are:
a. Increased free surface effect and reduced
transverse metacentric height.
1148. If properly secured what benefits do high sided car

carriers have over other ship types regarding
seaworthiness?
They can roll to very large angles without taking in
water
1149. Why are pure RoRo car carriers considered as being
high risk design vessels where their stability is
concerned.
Because they can easily capsize if there is ingress of
water or ballast operations are not handled
correctly
b. What is the displacement of a barge which measures
25.9 M x 14 M x 3.96 M and is floating in salt water
with a draft of 3.05 M ?
a. 1117 tons
c. On a vessel of 6,000 tons displacement there are two
slack tanks of carbon tetrachloride (SG 1.6). Each
tank is 12.2 M long and 7.6 M wide. What is the
reduction in metacentric height due to free surface
with the vessel in sea water (SG 1.025)?
b. .23,468.6 Mtrs.
1150. What measures regarding ship stability should be
taken in order to make passenger ships able to
withstand critical damage?
Maintain sufficient intact stability
1151. When cross-flooding arrangements to correct
unsymmetrical flooding and excessive heel angels in
damaged condition are installed in passenger ships,
what is the maximum angle of heel after flooding but
before equalization?
15 degrees
b.What is not usually a concern when
loading a single-hulled tanker?
b. Initial stability
c. When a vessel has positive stability, the distance
between the line of force through B and the line of
force through G is called the __________.
righting arm
d. On a vessel of 10,000 tons displacement, compute the
reduction in metacentric height due to free surface in
a hold having free water on the tank top. The hold is
12.192 M long and 15.24 M wide. The reduction in
metacentric height is __________.
0.366 M
e. Your vessel has a displacement of 10,000 tons. It is
106.68 M long and has a beam of 16.764 M You have
timed it's full rolling period to be 15.0 seconds. What
is your vessel's approximate GM?
0.79 M
f. A vertical shift of weight to a position above the vessel's
center of gravity will __________.
decrease the righting moments
g. When making a turn (course change) on most merchant
ships, the vessel will heel outwards if
__________.
G is above the center of lateral resistance
h. A vessel is floating at a mean draft of 16 feet. At this
draft, the displacement is 8,000 tons. The length of the
vessel is 475 ft., beam is 55 ft., TPI is 45. Calculate KM.
(See P-value, K-value table in the blue pages of the
Stability Data Reference Book)
20.9 feet
i. On a vessel of 12,000 tons displacement, what is the
reduction in metacentric height due to free surface
when a tank 18.288 M. long and 18.288 M. wide is
partially filled with water?
0.78 M.
j. You are making a heavy lift with the jumbo boom. Your
vessel displaces 8390 T. The 40 ton weight is on the
pier and its center is 16.764 M. to starboard of the
centerline. The head of the boom is
33.528 M. above the base line and the center of gravity
of the lift when stowed on deck will be
13.716 M. above the base line. As the jumbo boom
takes the strain the ship lists to 3.5°. What is the GM
with the cargo stowed?
1.396 M.
1152. A vessel's light draft displacement is 7400 tons. The
center of gravity at this draft is 21.5 ft. above the keel.
The following weights are loaded: (WT. #1-450 tons,
VCG #1-17.4 ft.; WT. #2-220 tons, VCG #2-11.6 ft.; WT.
#3-65 tons, VCG #3-7.0 ft.). The new CG above the keel
is __________.
20.9 feet
1153. Many vessels are provided with flume tanks,
which also have a dump tank located under the flume
tanks. In the event the ship is damaged, you could
dump the flume tanks into the dump tank which would
__________.
reduce the free surface effect and lower the KG
1154. A cargo vessel of 9,000 tons displacement is
carrying a slack deep tank of molasses (SG 1.4). The
tank measures 6.096 M. long and 9.144 M. wide. What
will be the reduction in metacentric height due to free
surface, with the vessel floating in sea water (SG 1.026)?
.59.44 M.
b. For a container stowed in a position equidistant from
the roll and pitch axes of a ship, what will
quarter the acceleration forces acting on it?
A. Doubling the roll period
32. How are ship's stability characteristics affected by
Parametric Rolling?
A. By the constant change of underwater hull geometry as waves
travel past the ship
33. What does heaving result in?

A. Vertical accelerations acting along container corner posts
34. What is the disadvantage of using High Tensile Steel
(HTS) in ship construction?
A. Enhanced vibration in HTS areas
35. What is the primary cause of fatigue damage to the
hull girder?
A. The number of repeated stress cycles
36. What roll amplitude is generally used by
classification societies in calculating rolling forces? A.
24 - 30 degrees
37. What would indicate the onset of Parametric Rolling?
A. When the wave encounter period approaches the natural roll
period of the ship
38. When do vertical accelerations acting on containers

reach their maximum values?
A. When a ship changes direction at its extreme angle of pitch
39. When does wind force cause heeling moments on a
container ship?
A. When the on-deck containers present a certain profile to the
wind direction
40. Why would a very large container vessel pitch more

than a feeder vessel?
1155. Because pitching varies with ship’s length
41. A Bulk Vessel is to load a cargo of grain; pre
loading calculations show that IMO stability criteria
cannot be achieved; the vessel should do which of
the following?
A. The grain surfaces in some or all of the cargo spaces must be
secured
42. A loaded bulk carrier experiences heavy ice
accretion on deck forward, what are the major
concerns of the changes in stability?
A. Reduction of metacentric height (GM) and loss of freeboard
forward
1156. After discharging a high density cargo a serious

crack is found in an upper ballast tank amidships of a
Bulk Carrier; what must the Master do?
A. Inform Designated Person Ashore (DPA) and call in
Classification Society
1157. In a single side skin bulk carrier of 155m in length
constructed in 2000 and carrying cargo of density
1010 kg/cu.m., which cargo hold should be able to
withstand flooding?
A. Any cargo hold
1158. In a single side skin bulk carrier of 180m in length
constructed in 2001 and carrying cargo of density
1,780 kg/m3, or above, which cargo hold is
strengthened to withstand flooding?
A. The foremost cargo hold
1159. Large bulk carriers are more likely to suffer from
cracks in structure in which of the following parts of the
vessel?
A. Around hatch corners and upper ballast tanks amidships
47. On a hold inspection of a Bulk Carrier it is noted
that a number of transverse frame beam knees are
slightly distorted; what is the significance of this?
A. This indicates the vessel is suffering racking stress and is
potentially serious
1160. The vessel is instructed to load alternate holds

when chartered to carry a high density cargo. What
reasons could be given by the master to refuse to do
this?
A. IMO do not recommend alternate loading of cargo holds with
high density cargoes.
49. What are the effects of a bulk vessel loading a

high density cargo resulting in a large metacentric
height (GM)?
A. Have a fast roll period and possibly suffer racking stresses
50. What differences in design are there between a
standard cargo hold and a cargo hold which can also be
used for ballast on a Bulk Carrier?
A. The ballast hold hatch cover must be fitted with
additional securing devices
51. What must by carefully checked when
loading a bulk carrier to maximum draft A.
The minimum bow height must be
maintained
52. What would a cracked cross-deck plating found
during a loaded passage on a bulk carrier indicate? A.
That shear forces have been exceeded
53. Which of the below structures of bulk carriers are
considered critical?
A. Upper and lower connection of main side frames
1161. Which plan shows the position of the vertical
and longitudinal centres of gravity for each cargo
compartment of a Bulk Carrier?
A. Vessel stability book
1162. Which of the following is a characteristic of a “stiff
ship?”
D. A large GM
1163. A chemical tanker intended to transport products with
appreciably severe environmental and safety hazards which
require significant preventative measures to preclude escape
of such cargo, usually of
double-hull construction, with a variety of tank sizes /
capacities is rated as:
A. A type II chemical tanker, as per the IBC Code.
1164. A cofferdam, a pumproom or an empty tank, located
between cargo tanks containing cargoes or cargo residues
which might react with each other in a hazardous manner, are
all acceptable methods
of segregation in chemical tanker stowage according
to the IBC Code. For this purpose, it may also be
acceptable to have:
A. An intervening cargo tank containing a mutually compatible
cargo or cargo residues.
58. As per IBC Code, the information contained in the
loading and stability information booklet, which must
be supplied to the master of a chemical tanker, shall
include:
1165. Details of typical service and ballast conditions,
provisions for evaluating other conditions of loading
and a summary of the ship's survival capabilities,
together with sufficient information to enable the
master to load and operate the ship in a safe and
seaworthy manner.
59. As per the IBC Code, an independent tank on a
chemical tanker is defined as:
A. One which is not contiguous with, or part of the hull structure.
1166. Not counting actual capacity or structural and
cargo specific limitations, the IBC Code states that for a
single tank on a type 3 chemical tanker:
A. There is no applicable filling restriction.
61. Since 1st January 2007, as per changes introduced
by amendment to MARPOL and IBC Code, it has
become mandatory for vegetable oils to be carried in:
A. Double hull tankers.
1167. The design pressure for a cargo compartment
on a chemical tanker to meet the definition and
requirements of a “pressure tank” must be:
A. Greater than 0.7 bar gauge.
63. The maximum quantity of cargo permitted to be
carried in a single tank on a type 1 chemical tanker as
per the IBC Code is:
A. 1250 cubic metres.
64. The maximum quantity of cargo permitted to be
carried in a single tank on a type 2 chemical tanker as
per the IBC Code is:
A. 3000 cubic metres
65. The minimum permissible distance measured
horizontally between the ship's shell plating and the
outer side bulkhead of the first cargo compartment
on a type II chemical tanker is:
A. Not less than 760 mm.
66. A General Cargo vessel develops an angle of loll
while loading a heavy item of deck cargo alongside the
jetty. You should immediately:
1168. Stop cargo, reduce FSE in tanks, lower weights
within vessel and fill small ballast tank on low side of
vessel.
67. A General Cargo vessel is deemed to be cargo worthy
when:
A. The hatch covers and/or hatch pontoons are weather tight.
1169. A general cargo vessel is loading to its Summer
Marks. Upon completion of loading, the final level of
the water would be at:
A. The top of the summer load line mark.
69. A general cargo with a large metacentric height (GM)
would be expected to have:
A. A fast roll period and large righting levers (GZ Levers).
70. Prior to loading heavy lift cargoes on a General Cargo
Vessel, it must be ensured that:
A. There are minimum free surface moments in tanks.
71. The IMO Convention that is not applicable to a
general cargo vessel when it is carrying timber deck
cargoes is:
A. The International Tonnage Convention.
72. The value of GZ is no longer able to be
calculated using GM Sine Angle of Heel formula at?
A. Larger angles of heel.
1170. The value of the GZ lever at small angles of heel
on a General Cargo Vessel can be denoted by the
formula:
A. KM - KG x Sin angle of heel.
74. When loading heavy lift cargoes on a general cargo
vessel, positive stability can be maintained by:
1171. Completely filling the ship's double bottom
tanks and continuously monitoring the loading
operation.
1172. Which type of material is normally used in the
construction of a cargo tank designed for transporting
LPG at atmospheric pressure?
A. Carbon-Manganese steel.
76. An Oil tanker experiences large bending
moments and therefore the deck scantlings must
be maintained within "x" length amidships, where
"x" is:
A. 0.4 Length
1173. As per MARPOL, the formula for calculating the
minimum draft amidships for crude tankers in ballast
condition is:
A. 2.0 + 0.02L
78. Every oil tanker of 5,000 tonnes deadweight and
above delivered on or after 1 February 2002 shall
comply with intact stability whereby it must have a
minimum GM (metacentric height) in port of: A. Not less
than 0.15 m
A.
7
9.
ages of large double bottom tanks on a double hull oil tanker
The are:
disad
Increased free surface effect and reduced transverse
vant
metacentric height.
8 The scantling draft of an oil tanker fitted with

0. segregated ballast tanks is:
A. The draught for which the structural strength of the ship has
been designed
8 What is the purpose of girders in the tank?

1. They support the stiffeners and also take up some of the sea
A. forces
82. What are the main elements in a damage control plan?
1174. Boundaries of the watertight compartments for decks
and holds. Position of controls for opening and closing of
watertight compartments. Arrangement for correction of
list due to flooding.
1175. What arrangement may be installed in

passenger ships to reduce unsymmetrical flooding
in damaged condition?
A. Cross flooding arrangement
84. What is the full name of the International
Convention dealing with stability of passenger ships? A.
The International Convention for the Safety of Life at
Sea
85. What is the result of a large metacentric height?
A. The ship will roll violently.
86. What measures regarding ship stability should be
taken in order to make passenger ships able to
withstand critical damage?
A. Maintain sufficient intact stability
1176. When cross-flooding arrangements to correct
unsymmetrical flooding and excessive heel angels in
damaged condition are installed in passenger ships,
what is the maximum angle of heel after
flooding but before equalization?
A. 15 degrees
88. Who is responsible for maintaining the vessel's
structural strenght?
A. The Master
1177. Achieving a good air flow through the various cargo
compartment of a reefer vessel is a principal design aim of a
Naval Architect. Which of the options given represents the
optimum cargo space
shape?
A. A square space as would be found in a midships lower deck.
90. A long oblong space as would be found in an after
upper deck. Conventional reefer vessels are usually
designed with fine lines and large flared bows.
Consequently, in adverse weather conditions,
especially from forward of the beam, the navigating
officers need to be mainly aware of which of the given
options?
A. This type of vessel is prone to large hull deflections which may
result in structural damage.
1178. Earlier cellular reefer vessels were constructed

with a 'porthole system' for supplying refrigerated air
via ducting to containers. Modern vessels are designed
to supply only electrical power to integral
containers. Select the main reason for this change in
design to the vessels and containers from the options
given.
A. The 'porthole' system design was extremely complex and
construction costs were high.
1179. Earlier reefer vessels designed and built for liner trade
usually had two or three tween decks approximately 2 to 2.5
metres in height and deep lower holds approximately 4 to 5
metres deep. Modern designs usually incorporate more
decks each approximately 2.3 metres in height. What is
the main reason for this fundamental design change?
A. There is an almost universal use of standard height pallets.
93. How is the size of a reefer vessel normally referenced?
A. By the cubic foot capacity.
1180. In some reefer trades cargoes of chilled horse
meat carcasses are stowed hanging from deckhead
rails in refrigerated locker spaces. What position
should the centre of gravity be assumed to be at
when carrying out the stability calculations for a
vessel with such a stow?
A. At the deckhead of the lockers.
1181. Select from the options given the one which best
completes the following statement. "Reefer vessels, loaded
with a homogenous cargo, usually operate with a small GM
due to the fact that…
1182. …they are designed with fine lines and the biggest
cargo spaces are at the top of the holds."
1183. Two conventional reefer vessels are being
considered for a charter that involves the transhipment
at sea, or at anchor, of a cargo of frozen squid, as
weather permits. Both vessels have 4 holds, vessel A
has high speed, 10 tonne deck cranes and vessel B has
5 tonne, union purchase derricks. Which of
the vessels, if any, would be best suited to this type of
operation?
1184. Vessel B would be more suitable as the derricks
will give more control of the operation at sea or at
anchor.
1185. If properly secured what benefits do high sided
car carriers have over other ship types regarding
seaworthiness?
A. They can roll to very large angles without taking in water
1186. On a roro vessel, in addition to longitudinal,
transverse and vertical accelerations what else must
be taken into account when calculating the external
forces acting on a cargo unit?
A. Longitudinal and transverse forces by wind pressure
99. What special design feature is attributed to roro
vessels which are only car carriers?
A. A very large windage area
100. When will a ro-ro vessel pitch heavily?
A. When wave lengths are equal to the ship's length
101. Why are pure roro car carriers considered as being
high risk design vessels where their stability is
concerne
1187. Because they can easily capsize if there is
ingress of water or ballast operations are not
handled correctly
102. Why is it important in a roro vessel to ensure that
cargo is loaded in a uniform way
1188. To prevent high sheer forces and bending
moments on the vessel during the loading /
discharge operations
103. What is the result of a "high metacentric height"?
A. The vessel will roll violently?
104. What is usually the effect on G when the ship is
damaged?
A. It is unchanged
105. What type of dynamic forces may cause indent in
plating on forecastle deck and main deck in way of
pillars inside forecastle?
A. Pressure forces caused by green water on deck
106. Which of the following requirements regarding
on board stability data corresponds to present
regulations? (NSCL 4/12.1)
A. A calculation example showing the use of "KG"
limitation curves.
107. Which of the following requirements to ships
stability for normal operation corresponds to present
regulations? (NSCL 4/12.2)
A. The ship is loaded in such a manner that adequate stability is
achieved in all loading condition.
108. Who is responsible for maintaining the vessel's

structural strength?
A. The master.
109. A bulk vessel loads a full cargo to summer marks
of a high density bulk cargo such as iron ore
concentrate; what would be the possible stability
conditions produced?
A. The vessel will normally have a large intact metacentric height
(GM) and have a fast roll period
110. What specific data must be displayed on the loading

instruments carried on bulk carriers of 150m or more
in length?
1189. The shear forces exerted on the hull
structure associated with the entered loaded
weight distribution
111. Where are cargo hold water level detectors required
to be fitted on bulk carriers?
A. At the after end of each cargo hold
112. Which of the following describes the term couple?
1190. A point through which all of the upward forces
affecting a vessel are considered to act.
113. The side to side, bodily .
motion of a vessel is known as
D. Swaying
114. Which motion of the vessel does a ship’s officer
most easily control through transverse stability
stowage?
D. Pitching
115. In the diagram on the right, which of the following
represents the righting arm?
1191. GZ
116. In the diagram onthe right, the distance between the
points B and M is known as:
A. Metacentric Height
117. Which of the following is true of a vessel in a neutral
stability condition?
D. G is at the same height as M
118. An inclination of a vessel due to negative stability is
known as .
1192. Angle of Loll
119. The geometric center of the underwater
volume of a floating vessel is the center of D.
Buoyancy
120. The ratio of the volume of displacement to a block having
length, breadth and draft of the vessel Is
known as the vessel’s .
1193. Block coefficient
121. Morrish’s Formula is used to determine .
1194. Height of the Center of Buoyancy
122. Which of the following best describes the moment of
inertia about the longitudinal axis?
D. The ratio of the area of the water plane to the product of the
length and breadth of the Vessel.
123. At large angles of inclination, .

the transverse metacenter will D.
Move down while staying on the
transverse centerline.
124. On the attached hydrostatic curves, what is
the value of KM when the draft is 18 feet? A. 9.5
feet
125. Which of the following is true of synchronous rolling?
A. It occurs when the natural rolling of the vessel is the
same as the ocean wave perio
126. The point at which all vertically downward forces of weight
are considered to be concentrated is the
1195. Center of buoyancy
127. When a cargo with a KG above the KG of the vessel
is discharged, the vessel’s center of gravity will A. Move
downward
128. One long ton is equivalent to .
D. 2240 pounds
129. A vessel with a GM of 4 feet is inclined to 10
degrees. What is the value of the righting arm? A. 2.3
feet
130. If a vessel is inclined due to an external force,
assuming that weight on the vessel remain fixed, you
would expect .
A. G and B to both move
131. Which of the following would represent the height of
the center of gravity on a vssel?
1196. KM –GM
132. The metacentric height of a vessel is the distance
from:
1197. The center of gravity to the metacenter
133. What measures the stability of a vessel at all angles
of inclination?
A. KG
134. The number of long tons necessary to change the
mean draft of a vessel 1 inch is known as the
A. Moment to trim 1 inch
1198. If a load is suspended from the hook of a crane. What
effect does that have on a vessel’s stability?
1199. The weight acts upon the vessel at it’s actual height
above the keel.
Fungsi III
Monitor and control compliance with
legislative requirements and measures to
ensure safety of life at sea, security and
the protection of the marine environment
1200. A Cargo Ship Equipment Certificate will be issued for:

 5 years with control every 12 months
1201. Are there any exceptions from OPA-90
 Yes, transit passage through US waters to a non US
port
1202. For a ship operating or calling in US waters, COTP can
request (OPA-90)
 Unannounced drills at any time
1203. For how long is the health certificate valid for a
seafarer above the age of 18?
 One year.
1204. For what period of time is the protection and
environment committee elected?
 1 - 2 years.
1205. For which of the following ships, is the MARPOL
convention applicable?
 For all listed vessels.
1206. For which ships is the SOLAS convention applicable?
 For all vessels.
1207. How frequent should reports from protection
and environmental work be send to shore based
management?
 Annually.
1208. How many annexes do we find in MARPOL and what
is the content of annex 1?
 We find 6 annexes in MARPOL and annex 1 is the
regulations for the prevention of pollution by oil
1209. If pollution takes place, what would you do
immediately?
 Report to relevant authorities.
1210. In case of pollution in US waters, do you always have
to notify the National Response Center (OPA-90)
 Yes, within thirty (30) minutes
1211. In relation ot OPA 90, Which of the following
statement is correct?
 COTP-zones may have additional rules and
regulations
1212. In US waters "Oil Pollution Act of 1990" was
activated in August 1993. What is the main issue for
the introduction of the act?
 To prevent oil spills in US waters?
1213. MARPOL - Annex IV. Prevention of Pollution by
Sewage from ships. What do you understand by the word
"Sewage"?
 Drainage/waste from toilets/urinals.
1214. New MARPOL regulations came into effect from
July 93 stating that the oily water separator which was
previously certified for 100 ppm be changed to:
 15 ppm
1215. OPA-90 is referring to a Qualified Individual (QI)
QI is an authorised individual, situated in the US, and
contracted by the owner or operator of the vessel
1216. What are the functions of a flag state administration?
a. They have responsibility for setting, monitoring and
enforcing standards of safety and pollution
prevention on vessels flying the countries flag
1217. What can lead to "Unlimited responsibility" (OPA-90)
Wilful misconduct, gross negligence and violation of
Federal Safety
1218. What does STCW deal with?
STCW deals with minimum recommendation of
education for seafarers and minimum standards for
training centre and schools
1219. What does the abbreviation SOLAS mean?
International Convention for the Safety of Lives at Sea
1220. What does the abbreviation STCW stand for?
The International Convention on Standards of
Training, Certification and Watchkeeping of
Seafarers
1221. What does the term OIL mean, as used in the Oil
Pollution Regulations?
All of the mentioned
1222. What IMO conventions take care of the human safety
at sea?
It is the SOLAS conventions that take care of the
human safety at sea
1223. What is a "passenger" according to SOLAS regulations?
Every person other than the Captain and the
members of the crew or other persons employed or
engaged onboard the ship in the business of that ship.
1224. What is full form of VRP (OPA-90)
Vessel Response Plan
1225. What is SOPEP?
A Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan
1226. What is the alcohol content in the blood permissible
under US legislation before it is defined as intoxication?
0,04 %
1227. What is the maximum oil content in the sludge/
bilge water allowed to be pumped over board during a
voyage?
30 litres per nautical mile
1228. What is the status of the rules of the SOLAS
convention?
Mandatory.
1229. What is the top priority if an incident occurs in US
waters (OPA-90)
a. Safety of ship and crew
1230. What must be done if the Oil Discharge Monitoring
Equipment (ODME) should fail during a ballast voyage?
a. All of the mentioned must be performed
1231. What rules and regulations are regulating the watch
keeping routines in the engine room?
a. Both STCW and Class rules
1232. What would happen if, when a ship is under-
going a Port State Inspection, certificates were invalid
or missing
a. Rectification would be required before sailing
1233. When a vessel violates the oil pollution laws, who
may be held responsible?
a. Any one involved in the operation
1234. Where is OPA-90 applicable?
a. Within 200 nm of US waters including Guam, Hawaii,
Alaska and San Juan
1235. Where is the Safety Certificates for ships to be kept?
a. In the Captain's office
1236. Where should the placard you are shown be
located, according to U.S. Coast Guard regulations ? (Title
33 Navigation and Navigable waters, $ 155.440 )
a. Both in a conspicuous place in each machinery space
and in a conspicuous place at the bilge and ballast
pump control station
1237. Which IMO convention takes care of the human
safety at sea ?
a. The SOLAS convention
1238. Which international convention deals with fire-
fighting equipment etc.
a. SOLAS
1239. Which international convention deals with pollution
prevention?
a. MARPOL.
1240. Which international organization is preparing
conventions and rules for seafaring nations?
a. International Maritime Organization (IMO)
1241. Which organization or administration is responsible
for surveys and inspections of ships, and the issue of
Safety Certificates?
a. Government Authorities of the Flag State
1242. Who are responsible for safe working conditions
onboard?
a. Master, Chief Engineer & Chief Officer.
1243. Who is responsible for keeping the required official
publications onboard?
a. The master.
1244. Who is responsible for the vessel's radio station and
mandatory radio routines?
a. The master.
1245. Who is responsible that regulatory working hours are
not exceeded?
The master and department heads.
1246. Your vessel has been involved in a collision, which
has resulted in a heavy oil leakage. Who should be called to
handle pollution claims and damages?
The P & I Club's nearest representative.
1247. What governs the disposal of
dry bulk cargo residues at sea?
A. MARPOL regulations
1248. When considering how to deal with cargo residues
during hatch cleaning at sea on a Bulk Carrier, what is the
most careful consideration?
Consult MARPOL handbook and the vessels Safety
Management System (SMS) for guidance
1249. "Noxious Liquid Substances which, if discharged into
the sea from tank cleaning or deballasting operations , are
deemed to present a hazard to either marine resources or
human health or cause harm to amenities or other
legitimate uses of the sea and therefore justify a limitation
on the quality and quantity of the discharge into the marine
environment". Such substances are:
A category "Y" substance as identified in MARPOL
Annex II.
1250. A tank which contained a category "X" product must
undergo a prewash before leaving port in compliance with
MARPOL. The resulting residues shall be discharged to a
reception facility until the concentration of the substance in
the effluent, as indicated by analysis of samples of the
effluent taken by the authorized surveyor has reached a
level of:
0.1% by weight.
1251. As per MARPOL 73/78, coal slurry, clay slurry,
dextrose solution and molasses are classified as:
"OS" (Other substances)"
1252. MARPOL 73/78 defines ‘solidifying substances’ as:
a. A noxious liquid substance which, in the case of a
substance with a melting point of less than 15°C which
is at a temperature of less than 5°C above its melting
point at the time of unloading, or in the case of a
substance with a melting point equal to or greater
than 15°C which is at a temperature of less than 10°C
above its melting point at the time of unloading.
1253. MARPOL 73/78 defines a ‘high viscosity substance’ as:
A noxious liquid substance in category "X" or "Y"
with a viscosity equal to or greater than 50 mpa.s
at the unloading temperature.
1254. As per MARPOL, for control of discharge of Noxious
Liquid Substances, the area(s) designated as “Special
Areas” are:
a. The Antarctic.
1255. Ballast introduced into a cargo tank on a chemical
tanker which has been washed to such an extent that the
ballast contains less than 1 ppm of the substance
previously carried may be discharged into the sea without
regard to the discharge rate, ship's speed and discharge
outlet location, but under certain conditions, which require:
a. That the vessel is not less than 12 miles from the
nearest land and is in water that is not less than 25
metres deep.
1256. In respect of a chemical tanker, carrying category “X”,
“Y” & “Z” Noxious Liquid Substances, the term “Clean
Ballast” as defined in the IBC Code means:
Ballast water carried in a tank which, since it was last used to
carry a cargo containing a substance in category "X","Y" or "Z",
has been thoroughly cleaned and the residues resulting there
from have been discharged and the tank emptied in
accordance with the appropriate requirements of Annex II.
1257. In the event of an accidental or other exceptional

discharge into the sea of a Noxious Liquid Substance or mixture
containing such a substance, an entry shall be made in the Cargo
record Book, which shall include:
Time of occurrence Approximate quantity,
substance(s) and Category(ies) Circumstances of
discharge or escape and general remarks.
1258. Vegetable Oils as per
MARPOL are
classified under: A.
Category "Y".
1259. The reporting of incidents involving harmful
substances and / or marine pollutants is regulated under
which international guidelines?
Protocol I of MARPOL.
1260. When small amounts of cleaning additives
(detergent products) are added to water in order to
facilitate the washing of tanks which previously contained
liquid chemicals, must be ensured that:
a. No additives containing Pollution Category "X"
components shall be used, except those components
that are readily biodegradable and present in a total
concentration of less than 10% of the cleaning additive.
No restrictions additional to those applicable to the
tank due to the previous cargo shall apply.
1261. Since 1st January 2007, as per changes introduced
by amendment to MARPOL and IBC Code, it has become
mandatory for vegetable oils to be carried in:
Double hull tankers.
1262. Which of these definitions is that of a "Marine
Pollutant" under the IMDG Code?
A substance which is subject to the provisions of
Annex III of MARPOL.
1263. Does MARPOL apply to LNG carriers?
Yes, MARPOL applies to all ship types..
1264. Does the Oil Pollution Act, 1990 (OPA90) apply to
vessels engaged in carrying liquefied natural gas (LNG)?
Yes, OPA90 applies to all ships.
1265. An oil tanker with a defective Oil Discharge
Monitoring Equipment may be allowed by a Port State
Authority to trade for:
One ballast voyage before proceeding to a repair port.
1266. An oil tanker's tank-cleaning machine with a
rotational speed of 1 rpm and a selected pitch angle of 1.5
degrees is used to perform a bottom wash with a vertical
angle from 40 degrees to 0 degrees for 1.5 cycles (3
passes). If the throughput of the machine at design
pressure is 90 m3/hr, what will be the washing time and
quantity of crude oil required?
40 minutes and 60 cubic metres of oil.
1267. As per OPA 90 requirements, a vessel over 400 feet
(121.9 metres) in length must carry oil spill clean-up gear to
be able to handle oil spillages of:
12 barrels (1.91 cubic metres).
1268. The calibration of the ODME is carried with the use of:
Fresh water.
1269. After the last entry being made, the retention period
of an oil record book on board must be:
Not less than 3 years after the date of the last entry.
1270. As per MARPOL, Oil Record Book Part II,
Cargo/Ballast Operations, must be carried and completed
on oil tankers of:
150 gross tonnes and above.
1271. As per MARPOL, the contents of lines and pumps on
an oil tanker at completion of discharge must be:
Drained and then pumped either ashore, or to a cargo
tank or slop tank on board.
1272. As per requirements of the International Convention
for the Control and Management of Ship's Ballast
Water and Sediments, oil tankers must have a plan on board
to achieve:
 95% volumetric exchange of the ballast taken on-
board at the previous port.
1273. One purpose of the US Oil Pollution Act of 1990 is
to ………….
a. Enhance the preparedness of shipboard and shore
based personnel in the event of a pollution incident.
1274. All tank vessels under OPA 90 are required to carry
on board spill recovery equipment of sufficient capacity
to ……………
a. Accommodate oil spilt on deck.
1275. Tools for mitigation include the ships fire hoses. Fire
hoses may be used to …
a. Prevent floating oil from escaping downstream.
1276. During oil spill clean up, booming strategies are most
effective to contain spills in ………
a. Calm weather conditions in coastal waters.
1277. The costs of cleaning up a major oil spill can …………
a. All of these.
1278. The intentional discharge of 10,000 gallons of oil into
the sea is best described as
a. Willful misconduct.
1279. OPA 90 response times for salvage and lightering
contractors are calculated from the time of ………….
a. occurrence of the oil spill
1280. Under OPA 90 regulations, each part of the cargo
oil or bunkering system not used during fuel transfer or
cargo oil transfer must be secured …………..
a. With a blank flange.
1281. Under OPA 90, all verbal reports regarding an oil spill
should be followed ……
a. Up in writing to facilitate clear communications
1282. Most landfills in the United States will not
accept ………..
a. Residue from smelting plants.
1283. Under OPA 90, concerning the activation of the
OSRO or Oil Spill Response Organisation, which of the
statements below is true ?
a. The shore management is able to activate the OSRO
1284. In event of an oil spill, mooring lines can be used as
an interim containment barrier ………….
a. To keep an oil slick from escaping downstream.
1285. Most important in monitoring the loading or
bunkering rate is …………..
a. That tanks should be sounded very regularly.
1286. A tank vessel owner or operator can ensure he has
met the planning criteria of the OPA 90
a. Contracting sufficient resources to meet the tiered
planning guidelines for each area in which the ship is
trading.
1287. Which major port is not a high volume port ?
a. Port Angeles
1288. When reporting an oil spill to the National Response
Center and a recorded message is heard and you are
placed on hold, your alternate contact should be …
a. The nearest U.S. Coast Guard Captain of the Port.
1289. The penalty for failure to immediately notify the
appropriate U.S. Government agency of an oil spill is………
a. A fine of not more than U.S $ 10,000 and/or one year
in prison.
1290. To ensure clear communications under OPA 90, all
verbal reports should be followed by
a. A telex, fax or cable.
1291. A routine cause of operational oil spills is ………….
a. The tendency of the vessel to report a lesser amount
of bunkers than actually remains on board and sole
dependency on remote gauging systems.
1292. Basic spill prevention measurements include ……….
a. A signed exchange between ship and terminal.
94.The first phase of emergency response is …………
b. Effective reaction to the situation on board.
1293. A key element of the Incident Command System
is ……………
a. Liaison with government agencies.
1294. The US Oil Pollution Act of 1990 applies to……………
a. Petroleum, animal and vegetable oils.
1295. The most important guideline for dealing with the
news media is …………….
a. All of these.
1296. Three functions of the Incident Command staff
are……………
a. Information, safety and liaison.
1297. Who is responsible for the supervision of cleanup
until the Oualified Individual arrives on the scene. ?
a. The person in charge of oil transfer.
100. Under OPA 90 , Group 1 oils are
…………….
b. Non persistent oils.
1298. The three types of boom are ……………
a. Heavy duty offshore, river & harbour, sorbent.
1299. The primary forces that will affect the movement of
oil on the water are……………
Currents, tides and winds.
1300. According to OPA 90 Pollution Response, clean-up of
which oil group may involve underwater recovery ?
Group V
b. OPA 90 regulations are effective up to ………..miles offshore.
200
c. Under OPA 90 regulations actuation of Tier I response
resources must be made………after discovery oil
discharge.
Immediately, in any case not later than 30 minutes
d. Under normal conditions a spill of Group V oil will ……………
Sink.
e. The Oil Pollution Act of 1990 is ………….
United States legislation
f. Any discharge of oil into the sea is prohibited except
when some conditions are satisfied. One of these
conditions for a tanker is that……….
The tanker is not within a Special Area
g. Any discharge of oil into the sea is prohibited except
conditions for an oil tanker is that…………
The tanker is more than 50 nautical mites from the
nearest land.
h. Any discharge of oil into the sea is prohibited except
conditions for a tanker is that ……….
The tanker is en route.
i. For existing tankers the total quantity of oil discharged into
the sea should be no more than ……..of the total quantity of
the particular cargo of which the residue formed part.
1/15000
j. The instantaneous rate of discharge of oil content of a
tanker shall not exceed ?
30 litres per nautical mile
k. Tank overflows while loading oil cargo or bunkering are
one of the most common cases of oil pollution. Which
flue of these items are the main preventive measures
against tank overflow ?
A. II, IV, V, VI, VII
1301. According to Marpol, what does the term "oil "mean ?
a. Petroleum in any form including crude oil, fuel oil,
sludge oil, oil refuse and refined products
1302. According to Marpol, what is the meaning of the term
"oily mixture " ?
a. A mixture with any oil content
1303. Under Marpol, can a chemical tanker be considered an
oil tanker ?
a. Yes, when it is carrying a cargo or part cargo of oil in
bulk
1304. According to Marpol, what is the meaning of the term
"oil fuel" ?
a. Any oil used on board in connection with the
propulsion and auxiliary machinery
b. Does the definition of an "oil tanker "applies to a gas carrier ?
No, it is not
c. According to Marpol, what does the term "new ship" mean ?
A ship for which the keel was laid or was in any similar
stage of construction after 30 June 1976
d. What does the 'instantaneous rate of discharge of oil
content "mean according to Marpol ?
The rate of oil discharge in litres per hour at any
instant divided by the speed of the ship in knots at
the same instant
e. What is the best description of a "special area" as defined
by Marpol ?
A sea area where for recognised oceanographical
and ecological conditions and in view of traffic
special prevention is required
f. What is the meaning of "slop tank" as defined by Marpol ?
A tank specifically designed for the collection of tank
D drainings, washings or other oily mixtures
g. Which description given below is nearest to the description
of clean ballast as defined by Marpol ?
If discharged from a ship stationary in clean calm
water on a clear day will not produce visible traces
of oil on the water surface nor emulsion below
h. Which answer is nearest to the Marpol description of
segregated ballast ?
The ballast water introduced in a tank which is
completely separated from cargo or fuel oil system and
permanently allocated to ballast
i. In order for a tanker to be called a "new oil tanker
"according to Marpol, the date on its building contract
would read……………
After 1st June 1982.
j. Every oil tanker of …..Tons gross tonnage and above and
every other ship of tons gross tonnage and above shall be
subject to Marpol (IOPP) surveys.
150, 400
k. The initial Marpol (10PP) survey carried out before a ship
enters service in order to ensure compliance with the
applicable regulations shall include……
A complete survey of all wing tanks, centre tanks,
stop tanks.
l. Periodical Marpol surveys are to be carried out at
intervals as specified by the administration. These
intervals are not to exceed…………..
Five years.
1305. At least one survey must to be carried out during the
validity of the IOPP certificate. This shall ensure that the
equipment, pumps and piping systems including ODME are
in order. What is this survey called ?
The Annual survey
b. Marpol permits additional inspections in order to
ensure that the ship and its equipment remain in all
respects satisfactory for service. What are these
inspections called ?
Special surveys
c. Here are FIVE items concerning topping off procedures
during oil cargo loading and bunkering. Which one of these
is not true ?
III - is not true
1306. If Mandatory annual surveys are established by
the Administration, how will it effect unscheduled
Inspections carried out according to Marpol ?
The unscheduled inspections shall no longer be
obligatory
1307. Who may carry out MARPOL surveys ?
Surveyors nominated by Administrations or
organisationsrecognised by Administrations
1308. Who may carry out marpolinspections ?
Officers authorised by the Government having
jurisdiction over the port in which the ship is
located, generally referred to as Port State
Inspectors.
1309. What is the meaning of a “harmful substance" under
Marpol ?
Any substance creating harm to health and life or able
to damage amenities.
1310. These items are standard inspection items for
Marpol as given in guidelines to inspectors and surveyors.
Which item does not belong ?
Item VII - does not belong
1311. What does "discharge" means in relation to harmful
substances as defined by Marpol ?
Dumping or disposal from the ship
1312. What is the meaning of an incident" according to
Marpol ?
a. The actual or probable discharge into the sea of a
harmful substance or effluents containing such
substances
1313. Penalties under the Law for violation of Marpol
requirements shall be…..
Adequate in severity to discourage violations and
shall be equally severe irrespective of where the
violation occurs.
1314. To what administrative matter must you comply with
if an incident under Marpol occurs ?
A. A report shall be made without delay to the fullest
extent in accordance with Marpol Protocol 1.
1315. A new oil tanker of less than 20,000 tons deadweight
may be designated as…
A crude oil I product carrier
1316. A new oil tankers of 20,000 tons deadweight and
above which satisfy the requirements for Segregated
Ballast Tanks with Protective location as well as COW
may be designated as
Crude oil / product carrier
1317. A new oil tanker of 20,000 tons or above satisfying
the requirements SBT and PL, but not fitted with COW
should be designated as a …..….on the IOPP certificate.
Product carrier
1318. New oil tankers of 20,000 tons dwt and above but
less than 30,000 tons dwt NOT fitted with SBT and PL
should be designated as a …….on the IOPP certificate.
Product carrier
1319. Stew oil tankers of 70,000 dwt and above satisfying
the requirements of SBT may be designed as a
…………….on the IOPP certificate.
Product oil carrier
1320. How would existing oil tankers of less than 40,000
tons dwt be designated on the IOPP certificate ?
As a crude oil / product carrier
1321. For existing tankers of 40,000 tons dwt and above
satisfying the requirements of SBT, what should their
designation be on the IOPP certificate ?
Crude oil / product carrier
1322. For existing tankers of 40,000 tons dwt and
above fitted only with a COW system, what should
their designation be on the IOPP certificate ?
Crude oil / petrochemical tanker
1323. Discharge of oily mixtures from machinery space
bilges of tankers are prohibited except when, amongst
other requirements, which of the following equipment is
fitted ?
A 15 ppm oily bilge water separator with alarm
system
1324. When shall the IOPP Certificate cease to be valid ?
Any one of these
1325. When alterations to ships construction,
equipment, materials , fittings or arrangements are
carried out without sanction the IOPP certificate ceases
to be valid. What is the exception
a. Modification of arrangements as long as purpose
and ay-out does not deviate from Marpol
requirements
1326. What are the consequences if an IOPP intermediate
survey is not carried out as specified ?
a. The IOPP certificate shall cease to be valid and a survey
corresponding to the requisite survey is to be carried
out .
1327. Amongst other requirements, what kind of
arrangement is required for a tanker in order to be
allowed to discharge oily mixtures into the sea ?
15 ppm oil filtering equipment
1328. A ship other than tanker of 3000grt and above, but
less than 10,0000, cannot discharge oily mixtures from
machinery spaces, unless certain conditions are satisfied.
Which of these conditions must be satisfied ?
II, V, VII
1329. What is the oil content of a mixture which may be
discharged into the sea when the ship is not in a special
area ?
15 ppm
1330. Is it permitted to introduce dillutants or to apply
other chemical treatment to oily mixtures prior to discharge
these into the sea ?
Not allowed at all
1331. Are the Marpol regulations governing discharge of oily
mixtures applicable to issues of safety at sea ?
They remain in force, only Government
Organisations can decide to lift same in case of
emergencies.
1332. prohibit discharges oil mixtures at sea. The
regulations will not apply if the discharge is the result of
damage arising from which items in this list ?
IV, V
1333. Marpol regulations prohibit oily mixture discharges
at sea. The regulations do not apply if the discharge is the
result of damage to the ship or its equipment. What is the
exception ?
Crew negligence
16 It is possible to discharge substances containing oil,
0. approved by the Administration, (eg. Oil dispersants) for
the purpose of combating specific pollution incidents, into
the sea. Under which of these conditions ?
A
. II IV V
16 For new tankers of 20,000 tons dwt and above, the capacity
1. of the segregated ballast tanks shall be such hat,
at any part of the voyage, the ships draught and trim meet
which of these requirements ?
A
. I, Ill, IV, VI
1334. New tankers of 20,000 dwt and above shall in no case
carry ballast water in cargo tanks, except when which of
these circumstances arise ?
a. III,V
1335. For the purpose of determining the capacity of
the clean ballast tanks in tankers, which tanks may be
included ?
a. Segregated ballast tanks, fore and after peak tanks as
well as cofferdams.
1336. Under which conditions are Fore Peak tanks, After
Peak tanks and cofferdams allowed to be included in the
total capacity determination of Cars for tankers ?
a. Provided oil discharge monitoring equipment with
automatic stop when 15 ppm level is exceeded is to
be fitted
1337. If a tanker with separate independent piping and
pumps for CBT and operating with COW is to change its
designation to product carrier and vice versa, which
provisions will apply ?
a. The tanker needs to be surveyed each time its
switches trade
1338. If an oil tanker is used for the storage of oil and its
machinery modified to immobilise the ship, what are the
requirements for SOT, COT, PL and COW ?
a. The requirements for SBT, PL and CBT do not apply
1339. Hi an oil tanker is used to receive dirty ballast from
oil tankers, what are the requirements for SBT, CBT, PL
and COW ?
a. The requirements for SBT, PL, CBT and COW do not
apply
1340. One of the requirements for an oil tanker operating
with Dedicated Clean Ballast shall be that it is e quipped
with…….
a. A crude oil washing system.
1341. The regulations for existing tankers for SBT, CBT and
COW shall not apply if the tanker is engaged in specific
trades provided reception facilities are existing in ports.
What document is to be endorsed ?
a. The ship's IOPP certificate
1342. Which of the following is NOT classed as pollution
prevention equipment ?
a. Air or electric portable pumps.
1343. Existing oil tankers which complies at all times with
SBT draught and trim requirements without the use of
ballast water, may be considered to comply with SBT
requirements in full provided which of these items apply ?
A. II, IV V
1344. What is the purpose of Regulation 13 E - Rules for
Protective Location of Segregated Ballast Tanks on Oil
Tankers ?
A. To provide a measure of protection against oil
outflow in event of grounding or collision
1345. Where is disposal of wooden dunnage allowed ?
It is never allowed.
1346. Regulation 14 of Marpol states that no ballast
water shall be carried in any fuel oil tank. What is the
exception ?
a. Ships with special nature of trade which stay for long time
at sea, for example: tugs, fishing boats
1347. Under Marpol, slop tanks shall have the capacity to
retain the slop generated by tank washings, oil and dirty
ballast residues. Their total capacity shall not be less
than ….. % of the tank capacity.
1
1348. In an existing tanker, which tanks can be designated
as slop tanks ?
Any tank provided with adequate means for
collecting dirty ballast residue and tank washings
from the cargo tanks.
1349. At least two slop tanks are required for……..
New oil tankers of 4.0,000 tons dwt and above
1350. To prevent pollution you should look at how the
operations that may lead to pollution are conducted on
board of your ship and ask yourself 3 questions. What are
these questions ?
A. II, IV, VI
1351. How can a ship dispose of plastic at sea ?
a. Disposal of plastic is not allowed anywhere at sea.
1352. An Instruction Manual for Oil Retention and Oil
Discharge Monitoring is required on board. This manual
must mention all operations and ……..
a. Shall be approved by the Administration. It must
contain instructions to ensure that no oil can be
discharged except in compliance with regulations.
1353. Any ship of 400 tons gross and above but less than
10000 tons, which does not carry ballast water in fuel oil
tanks shall be fitted with a …….oil filtering equipment for
engine bilge discharge.
a. 100 ppm
1354. Must the ship's Oil Record Book (part I or part II) be
of Standard Format and/or may it be part of the ship's
official Log Book ?
a. It may be part of the ships official Log, its format is
not standard but must contain the required
information.
1355. In the event of accidental or exceptional discharges
(for example allowed discharge in order to save life), a
statement shall be made in the oil record book explaining
what ?
a. The amount and the specifications of the oil
discharged
1356. Each operation as specified by regulations must be
noted in the oil record book without delay and…..…..
a. Will be signed by the Officer or Officers in charge of
the operation and each completed page will be
signed by the Master.
1357. Who can certified true copies of Oil Record Books ?
a. The Master
1358. Of the four categories of discharges associated with
the operation of offshore platforms for which type or
types is Marpol 73.(03 applicable ?
a. Type, I, Ill and IV
1359. What can be a major cause of pollution from a dry
cargo ship without the vigilance of the entire crew ?
Improper discharge from bilges and engine room.
1360. Which of the following oils is not an asphalt solution ?
Blending Stocks
1361. Which of the following products is not listed under
"oils" in Appendix I of Marpol Annex I ?
Clarified
1362. The following products is not listed as "gasoline
blending stock" in Appendix I of Marpol Annex I?
Polymer fuel
1363. Which of the following products is not listed under
"gasolines" in Appendix I of marpolannexi?
Fuel oil No 2
1364. The Record of Construction and Equipment, has a
chapter about Tanks for Oil Residues (Sludges). What
information is recorded in this chapter ?
a. The total tank capacity in m3 and the means for
disposal of oil residue in addition to the provision of
sludge tanks
193. If
ships other than tankers have spaces constructed and utilised to
carry oil in bulk of a capacity of
…….or
more, the regulations of Annex I for oil tankers applies.
500 cubic metres
1365. There are 6 annexes to MARPOL 73R8 (Annex Ito VI).
They dealing with pollution caused by ……..
I = Oil, II = Noxious liquid in bulk, III = Harmful
packaged substances, IV = Sewage, V = Garbage, VI =
Air pollution.
1366. Annex II of Marpol 73/78 deals mainly with……
The pollution hazards from chemical tankers and
their arrangementsfor discharge of cargo residues
1367. Annex IV of Marpol, deals with Sewage. How does it
affect shipboard operations concerning processing and
treatment of sewage ?
A. Only a collecting tank is required for all countries for the
time being
1368. How do the requirements of Marpol stand in relation
to national or port regulations ?
National regulations in the ports visited may be more
tingent and must be complied with
1369. According to Annex V of Marpol , no garbage can be
thrown overboard inside the Special Areas. Which is the
exception ?
Comminuted (ground up) food waste may be thrown
overboard beyond 12 miles offshore
1370. Marpol garbage disposal regulations outside Special
Areas specify that within 3 miles from the nearest land and
in all inland waters……….
You cannot throw paper, crockery, rags, glass metal
or food overboard unless ground to less than 25 mm.
1371. Garbage disposal regulations outside special areas
specify that dunnage, lining and packing materials that
float …….
May be thrown overboard outside 25 miles offshore.
1372. Before starting bunkering operations, which one
of the following precautions would you say is most
important?
a. Exhibit International Code B flag and red light.
1373. Garbage disposal regulations outside special areas
specify that paper, crockery, rags, metal , glass and food
may be thrown overboard within 3 to 12 miles offshore,
provided it is ground to less than ………in
size.
25 mm
1374. Marpol Annex V garbage disposal regulations outside
special Areas specify the type of garbage which can be
thrown overboard at a given distance offshore. Is this
universally accepted ?
Yes, accepted by all states and regions
1375. Why is on board training important in relation to
pollution prevention ?
a. Because pollution related incidents are on the increase
and all efforts are needed to reduce them
1376. How can an on board pollution prevention training
program help the new crew member know clearly what is
expected of him ?
a. By composing a realistic training program with special
emphasis on the personal responsibilities and duties of
the trainee
206. For on board
pollution prevention training to work, it is important that …..
b. A quite considerate amount of time is spent with
the incoming new crew member for the first week
on board
1377. To prevent pollution you should look at how the
operations that may lead to pollution are conducted on
board of your ship and ask yourself 3 questions. What are
these questions ?
A. II, IV, VI
208. Pick the flue operations, from this list, which when
conducted on cargo ships may lead to a pollution incident
?
A. II, IV, V, VII, VIII
1378. Permanently posted information and procedures
concerning bunkering and transfer procedures should be
available on board in a place where they can be easily seen
and used. Where on board?
a. Either in the alleyways near the main entrance OR
near the bunkers emergency shut off valves OR in
the cargo — control room
1379. There is potential for pollution when starting taking
ballast on non-SBT tankers because oil may backflow into
the sea via the sea chests. In order to prevent this a notice
should be placed on the ballast pump. Which one ?
a. ENSURE PIPING IS CLEANED PRIOR STARTING PUMP
1380. Containment is critical when oil has spilled on deck.
Pollution can be avoided if prompt action and careful
preparation for containment is carried out. Which three of
these items are vital ?
A. I, II, IV
1381. In order to contain oil spills Gutter Bars (Fish Plates)
should be regularly inspected to make sure that……..
A. They have not developed cracks or holes.
1382. Tank overflows while loading oil cargo or
bunkering are one of the most common cases of oil
pollution. Which flue of these items are the main
preventive measures against tank overflow ?
A. II, IV, V, VI, VII
21 During Marpol inspections by port state control ……..
4. inspectors ships have been detained because A.
No up to date deck port log was kept.
1383. A master or any other person in authority on board
treating a person in an improper manner or fails to
prevent his being so treated by other persons onboard
shall be liable to:
Fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6
months.
1384. A subordinate who unlawfully brings intoxicating
beverages on board shall be liable to:
a. Fines or in especially aggravating circumstances to
imprisonment for a term not exceeding three
months.
1385. Any master who makes or permits a false entry to
be made in the log book, shall be liable to fines or
imprisonment for a term not exceeding 1 year
according to:
The Ship Safety and Security Act, Section 65..
1386. Any person serving on board who without the
permission of the shipmaster leaves the ship in distress or
other danger while the master still on board shall be
liable to
months.
1387. Any shipmaster who in distress or other danger
abandons the ship without this being necessary shall be
liable to:
Imprisonment for a term not exceeding one year.
1388. Any shipmaster who refuses to provide any person
carried on the ship with anything which he is entitled to
receive in such capacity, or who permits such refusal,
shall be liable to:
months, but not exceeding 1 year if there are
especially aggravating circumstances.
1389. Anyone who without valid reason places, removes,
changes or conceals nationality marks or registration
marks of a registered ship shall be liable to:
Fines.
1390. For how long shall a ship's log-book be kept on board?
For at least two years
1391. How can the master ensure obedience?
He shall ensure obedience by the use of force if he
finds it necessary, but not use harsher means than
the circumstances make necessary.
1392. If the master goes ashore, he is obliged to inform:
The deck officer of the highest rank present
1393. What are the master's duties if punishable acts are
committed on board?
If at sea, the master shall immediately undertake
an investigation, secure evidence and take
statements, inform Norwegian
Consulate/Maritime Directorate
1394. Who is responsible for ensuring that ratings forming
part of a watch and personnel assisting or performing
cargo operations on tankers are properly qualified?
 It is incumbent on the shipowners and the master to
ensure that the requirements are complied with and
documented.
1395. Who is responsible for the ship being safely manned?
a. The master and the shipowner are responsible for the
adequate manning of the ship.
1396. Are the seafarers entitled to free boat service to
exercise their right to go ashore?
a. Where possible the master shall provide such service.
Cost and other circumstances may be taken into
consideration. Yes, but only if it is combined with the
agent's use of the same boat.
1397. Can any ground be given for dismissing a seafarer?

a. No, only those listed in the Seamen's Act as
dereliction of duty.
1398. Do regulations on the scope of the Seamen's Act
apply:
a. To both passengers and cargo ships? Yes.
1399. Does the employer have to give a reason for a notice
of termination?
a. Yes, if the seafrers demands it
1400. Does the seafarer have a right to leave service on
board for special reasons?
a. Yes, if the ship, for example, is not in a seaworthy
condition for the voyage and the master fails to take
steps to remedy the defects
1401. For how long shall time sheets concerning working
hours on board ships be kept after their completion?
a. For minimum 3 years
1402. How shall accidents and health hazards be prevented?
a. By all the other mentioned alternatives.
1403. Is it the duty of the Master to see to it that legislation
and CWA/CBA are available to seafarers on board?
a. The seafarers shall have available for their use the
Seamen's and NIS-acts with regulations, together
with all relevant CWA's/CBA's.
1404. Is the crew entitled to compensation if the master has
to reduce the diet during a voyage?
a. Yes
1405. Is there any particular procedure to be followed when
dismissing a seafarer?
a. A hearing shall be held before a committee on board.
1406. On what kind of document shall working hours on
board ships be kept?
a. On a time sheet arranged by the Norwegian Maritime
Directorate
1407. Shall the seafarer receive a statement showing the
calculation of his wages?
a. Yes, showing how it has been calculated and with
possible deductions.
1408. The restriction of overtime work is that the person
shall not be required, under normal circumstances, to
work more than:
a. 14 hours per day
1409. What are the average total working hours per week
that must be exceeded over a period of at most one year
on board NIS ships?
a. 56 hors
1410. What are the duties of a master if a seafarer gets ill at
sea?
a. All the other mentioned alternatives according to the
situation
1411. What are the duties of a master if he has to leave a
sick or injured seafarer behind in a foreign port?
a. Notify nearest Norwegian Consulate
1412. What are the duties of the master if a seafarer dies in
service on board?
a. The master shall notify next of kin/ Norwegian
Consulate - arrange for burial/ repatriation of
coffin/ashes - and maritime inquiry
1413. What are the duties of the master regarding a sick or
injured seafarer?
a. He shall arrange for proper care, including medical
care
1414. What is the difference between the Safety
Representative and the Working Environment
Committee's area of activity?
a. The Safety Representative's field is the work
situation, the committee’s the total environment,
also spare time
1415. What is the main rules as to period of notice of
termination as per the Seamen's Act?
a. One month
1416. Which mandatory handbooks for medical treatment
shall be carried on board?
a. One control book for special medicines, one
approved by Norwegian authorities medical book
("International Medical Guide for ships") and three
pamphlets regarding first aid.
1417. Which of the below word(s) is defined as follows: "Service
on board a ship which gives the knowledge, insight and skills
required for the issue of a certificate or other document referred
to in these regulations"
a. Seagoing service
1418. Which rights does a seafarer who is unfit for work
normally have?
a. Care, wages, free passage home
1419. Who is responsible for the storage and use of
substances injurious to health on board?
a. The shipping company and the master
1420. Who shall check the ship's medical supplies?
a. A pharmacy authorised or accepted by the
Norwegian Board of Health or, if no such pharnacy is
available, the master and a doctor approved by a
Norwegian Consulate shall perform inspection once
every 12 months.
1421. A rating has approved emergency preparedness
training, a certificate for watchkeeping in the deck
department and 3 years of service time on deck and
necessary knowledge of English. What post is a
seafarer, with these required qualifications, qualified
for on a Norwegian cargo vessel?
a. As an able seaman
1422. A seaman's right to go ashore on a day when shops
and offices are open is:
a. At least once a month if circumstances permit it
1423. An invalidated vessel's certificate shall be:
a. Returned to the Ship Control via a Norwegian
Consulate
1424. For how long shall a ship's log-book be kept on board?
a. For at least three years
1425. How often shall a survey for renewal of cargo ship
safety construction certificate be carried out?
Every fifth year with a periodical survey every 12.
Month.
1426. If extensive repair to the
superstructure has been carried out, it will
affect the: A. Load line certificate
1427. The restriction of overtime work is that no person
shall be required, under normal circumstances, to work more
than:
14 hours a day
b. To whom does the requirement as to knowledge of English
apply?
Seafarers employed or engaged on board ship on
the business of that ship as part of the ship's
complement with designated safety or pollution
duties
c. What are the contents of the book "Excerpts from the
Norwegian Ship Control Legislation" ?
A compilation of Norwegian laws and regulations
concerning the safety of ships and crew.
d. What is the ISM Code?
The ISM Code is an international standard for the
safe management and operation of ships and for
pollution prevention.
e. What is the purpose of the unscheduled inspections on
board ships?
To determine wether the ship is seaworthy
f. What kind of permanent documentation is required
for personnel assigned specific dutys and
responsibilities related to cargo or cargo equipment
on , for example, a liquefied tanker?
g. A tankerman certificate
1428. Where do you find regulations concerning washing of
crockery and cutlery?
The regulations are a part of the Norwegian Ship
Control Legislation regulations, concerning
production and serving of foodstuffs.
1429. Who has the overall responsibility for the general
supervision of ships and for matters governing the
seaworthiness of ships?
The Norwegian Maritime Directorate
1430. Who is responsible for keeping documentation of the
qualifications required for personnel on board?
The ship's master
1431. Who shall check the ship's medical supplies if the ship
is in a foreign port, for example outside Europe?
A pharmacy authorised to do so or if no such
pharmacy is available, the master and an approved
seamen's doctor
1432. As per the legislation in question, a copy of the
provisions, as you know, shall generally speaking be
accessible to the crew. Does this apply as well as to a
collective wage agreement?
Yes, if an employment agreement refers to the
collective wage agreement
1433. At what number of crew members is it mandatory
to have an Working Environment Committee on board?
Minimum eight crew members.
1434. How many Working Environmental committee
members should be elected on a ship with a crew of 13
members?
a. 1 member
1435. To which Act(s) do(es) the special provisions relating
to the seafarers in the Act chiefly relate?
a. The Act relating to hours of work and the Seamen's
Act
1436. Which provisions concerning holidays must the
master ensure that is carried onboard?
a. The Act relating to holydays and Regulations relating
to holydays for employees on ships.
1437. Who is responsible for implementation of working
environment work on board?
a. Both master and shipping company.
1438. All requirements of the ISM code are to ensure that
safe practices are taken into account in ship operation
through written procedures. These requirements include
the following information: …………….
a. All of these.
1439. The functional requirements for a Safety
Management System is to develop, implement and
maintain a system which includes the
following :……………..
a. 1) a safety and environmental protection policy 2)
instructions and procedures to ensure safe
operations and protection of the environment.
1440. Under ISM, the Company should establish ………….to
describe how the objectives of the ISM code will be
achieved.
a. A safety and environmental policy
1441. Under the ISM code the Company must ensure that
the Safety and Environmental Policy is …………….
a. Known and implemented by all Officers and members
of the ships crew.
1442. The safety objectives and requirements of a Company
may be …………..standards required by the ismcode
?
a. Set above
1443. A Company's safety management objectives and
requirements, which are set above the standards of the
ISM code, should be …………..
a. Encouraged and supported.
1444. It is the responsibility of the Company to define
and document the company's ………… which forms an
integral part of the Safety Management System ?
a. Safety management objectives
1445. Under ISM, the holder of the DOC or Document of
Compliance is the company who ………..the ship.
a. Owns
1446. Under ISM, can a company contract with third
parties to manage specific ship related activities such as
manning, technical support or maintenance ?
a. Yes, it is allowed
1447. Under ISM, if the Company has subcontracting
arrangements for manning, technical support or
maintenance, how many Documents of Compliance
are to be issued ?
a. Only one DOC can be issued to the Company
1448. Linder ISM, any responsibility imposed on the
Company by the ISM Code which is subcontracted……..
a. Remains the responsibility of the Company
1449. Under ISM, during assessment for issue and
compliance with a DOC the auditor must be satisfied that
the company is in control of ……………
a. All activities concerning the Safety Management
System which have been subcontracted.
1450. Under ISM, the company should define and
document the responsibility, authority and interrelation of
all personnel who manage, perform and verify work
relating to and affecting safety and pollution prevention.
How ?
a. By charts and/or job descriptions to identify
positions related to safety and pollution prevention
activities for each functional area
1451. Under ISM, what kind of support is to be provided
to the Designated Person in order to carry out his
functions ?
a. All of these.
1452. Under ISM, the responsibility and authority of the
Designated Person should include………….
a. Final control over all shipboard operations and
maintenance activities
1453. Under ISM, what qualifications are required by the
Designated Person ?
a. Appropriate knowledge and experience associated
with verification and control of safety and pollution
prevention requirements of the ISM code
1454. Under ISM, is shipboard presence required by the
Designated Person ?
a. May be necessary
291. Under ISM, who is responsibility to implement the
Company's Safety and Environmental Policy on board ?
b. The Master's
1455. Under ISM, how could it be assessed whether or not
the Master has effectively implemented the Safety and
Environmental Protection policy as defined by the
Company ?
a. By the state of cleanliness on board
1456. Under ISM, who should motivate the crew to observe
the Safety and Environmental policy on board ?
a. All ships officers
1457. Under ISM, what methods should be used to
motivate the crew to observe the Safety and
Environmental protection policy ?
a. Ensure that the crew understands the dangers
present on board and the heavy fines to be paid for
Pollution
1458. How can the crew be helped to understand how
they personally benefit from the SEP policy and how
could their perception of ownership be encouraged ?
a. Through regular meetings at which the crew
members are encouraged to participate in the
continuous development of the objectives of the
SEP
1459. Under ISM, the master must implement the
Company's Safety and Environmental policy and should
issue appropriate orders and instructions in a clear and
simple manner. How is this to be done ?
a. By Standing Orders, Bridge night order book, as
examples
1460. It is the Master's responsibility to verify that the specific
requirements (procedures and instructions) regarding the
Safety Management System are observed. Who will actually
verify this on board ?
a. The Designated Person
1461. What are the best means of verifying that specked
requirements (procedures and instructions) regarding the
Safety Management System are observed ?
a. By use of a check list for verification of
actions/activities cof crew members
1462. It is the Master's responsibility of reviewing the
Safety Management System and reporting its deficiencies
to ………..
a. The shore based management
1463. The Master's review reporting on the Safety
Management system should include any deficiencies and
may include…………..
The officer's and crew's appraisal reports
1464. Whenever the Master, in his role as the responsible
person for on-board safety, finds a deficiency in the
Safety Management system relevant to the ships
operation he should …………
Correct the deficiency and make note of the
correction applied in the official log book.
1465. When is the Master to review the Safety
Management System and to report to the Company ?
A.Prior to the arrival of the external auditor every year
1466. Should the Master's authority be emphasized in the
Safety Management system ?
a. The Company should ensure that the SMS operating
on board the ship contains a clear statement
emphasizing the Master's authority
1467. Under ISM, the overriding authority of the Master
applies …………….
In both normal and extreme circumstances
1468. It should be checked that the Company has
documented that the Master has overriding responsibility
and authority as required …………..
By the Company's Main Policy Objective
1469. The Company must be sure that the Master
is …………….
Properly qualified for command.
1470. Verification of the master's qualifications should be
done firstly by …………..
Interview of the candidate with emphasis on safety
and environmental awareness.
1471. The Company should ensure that the Master is
informed of all requirements relating to safety and
environmental protection by ……………..
Having the Superintendents prepare monthly
information sheets
Including such requirements in operating instructions.
1472. To make sure that the Master and the crew
understand the tasks required of them by the Safety
Management System ………..should be described.
Job responsibilities
1473. Masters are to be given the necessary support so
that they can perform their duties safely. Support from
the Company includes ……………
Having port watchmen assigned on the ship in
every port
1474. Manning requirements and qualifications are part
of ……….with which the Company should be familiar.
The shipping business
1475. The Company should have a system in place for
firstly ………….personnel, especially if obtained through a
manning agent.
Selecting
1476. To confirm seafarers as medically first is generally
difficult …………
Since there are no International or National
standards.
FUNGSI III
CONTROLING THE OPERATION OF THE SHIP
AND CARE FOR PERSONS ON BOARD
Use of the leadership and managerial
1477. The Safety Management System requires that the
shipping company develops and implements?
a. A system to report, analyse and follow up non-
conformities, accidents and hazardous situations
1478. What is the fundamental assumption of trait theory?
a. Leaders are born and not made
1479. Why did the Trait Theory of Leadership suffer a
decline in interest?
a. Because no consensus could be reached on what to
include/omit from the list of necessary traits
1480. The major concern of which leadership theory
is focused on how a leader can increase employees'
motivation to attain organisational goals?
1481. House's Path-Goal.
a.Establishing challenging goals, seeking performance
improvement, and displaying confidence that people will
exert high levels of effort, are associated with which
element of the path-goal approach
c. Achievement-oriented leadership.
b. Which type of leader energises others?
Transformational
c.What type of leader is defined as a visionary and
dreamer concerned about charting a mission and
direction?
Pathfinding
d. Leadership interventions are needed less, if at all,
when which of the following conditions are found
within a group?
Individual job expertise, intrinsic task satisfaction,
formalised rules and procedures.
e. Which of the following statements describes a key
difference between managers and leaders
Leaders see themselves as promoters of change,
whereas managers focus on preserving the status
quo.
f. The process of motivating, influencing, and directing
others in the organization to work productively in
pursuit of organization goals is known as:
leadership.
g. Which of the following is a contingency theory of
leadership?
Fiedler's theory
1482. What is the most important factor in the master's
ability to make good decisions in an emergency?
Feedback from the crew
1483. What can cause crewmembers to abdicate their
safety roles?
Lack of leadership
1484. Who is responsible for the ship being safely
manned?
The master and the shipowner are responsible for
the adequate manning of the ship.
1485. Departmentalization is
associated with the task of
organizing
1486. A company must update its Safety Management
System and Manual:
whenever regulations change
b. What are the master's duties if punishable acts are
committed on board?
If at sea, the master shall immediately undertake
an investigation, secure evidence and take
statements, inform Norwegian Consulate/Maritime
Directorate
c. How can the master ensure obedience?
He shall ensure obedience by the use of force if he
finds it necessary, but not use harsher means than
the circumstances make necessary.
The most common form of communication in any
organization is
nonverbal
A supervisor is experiencing poor communication
with the people she supervises. The supervisor’s
boss has identified the various barriers to effective
communication on that unit. The worst barrier
identified would be
poor listening on the part of the supervisor
Why is it important to have good relationship on-board
a vessel?
It leads to better work performance and positive
atmosphere among the crew
A decision support system for emergency management
shall be provided on the navigation bridge. What type
of emergency situations shall as a minimum be
identified in the emergency plans?
Fire, Damage to ship, Pollution, Unlawful acts
threatening the safety of the ship and the security
of its passenger and crew, Pesonnel accidents,
Cargo-related accidents, Emergency assistance to
other ships
d. Which of the following persons is considered a
connected link between employees and
administration? union representative
supervisor
1487. The functions of management are equally
applicable in large corporations only
any organization
1488. To maintain good relationship among the crew on
board a vessel, one must be:
Understanding, Co-operative, and have respect
from both sides
1489. Of all the resources managed by a supervisor, the
most important resource is machinery
human resources
1490. Which of the following best describes
management? the process of coordinating people to
achieve the organization’s purpose
the process of coordinating resources to achieve
certain results
1491. It is the Master's responsibility to ensure that:
concerned personnel carry out the on-board traing
progamme effectively
1492. A supervisor directed a subordinate to accomplish
a certain task. The supervisor asked the subordinate to
repeat the directions in him own words. The supervisor is
downward communication to ensure effective
communication
1493. The contemporary management theories discussed
in the text have which of the following in common?
recognition of the complexity of the environment
1494. Which of these is not a principle of great man
theory?
A great leader is only great in certain situations
1495. In leadership trait theory what is a trait?
a. A list of key characteristics that makes a leader
great.
1496. What is Skinner's A-B-C of behaviorism? .
a.,Antecedents-behavior-consequences
1497. Contingency theory is based on the assumption
that the ideal leader:
a. Shapes their leadership style depending on the
situation.
1498. A transactional leader is one who:
a. Does deals with people in order to get them to do
things the leader wants
1499. What is a transformational leader?
a. A leader who inspires the workers to new
levels by offering them a vision of a better
future.
1500. What is post-heroic leadership theory?
a. A theory which states that there is too
much emphasis on leaders and more
attention should be placed on followers
1501. What is the social construction of leadership?
a. What counts as good leadership is a
construction of the perceptions of the
followers.
1502. Which of the following statements concerning the
rational and emotional aspects of leadership is
false?
a. Good leadership involves touching others’ feelings
1503. To many, the word management suggests
a. Efficiency
1504. According to the text, leadership is often more
associated with
a. Change
1505. This is a conventional distinction made between
managers and leaders.
a. Managers maintain while leaders develop
1506. Which of the following statements about leaders
versus managers is false?
C.Leaders are thought to do things right, managers do the right
things
1507. According to the text, which of the following

statements is true?
a. Leadership and management have some unique
functions with an area of overlap
1508. What best describes the leader-follower
relationship?
a. Leadership and followership merge and are linked
concepts
1509. Ideal leaders according to a survey were
commonly characterized as all of the following
except a. Cooperative
1510. The transformational leadership style
a. Encourages and inspires group members to go
above and beyond selfish interests and do what
is the best for the common good of the group as
a whole
1511. Which style of leadership focuses on goals,
standard and organization ?
a. Task leadership
1512. People who become leaders in any field tend to
first stand out by virtue of their
a. Interpersonal skills
reflection component of the AOR model is false? a.
Leaders are always aware of the value of reflection in
leadership development
1514. Master of every ship must provide
a. A link between the shipboard training officer and
the company training officer ashore
1515. Onboard training should be organized in such a way
that:
a. It is an integral part of the overall training plan
1516. The majority of conventions adopted under the
auspices of IMO fall into which of the three main
categories
a. Maritime Safety, Prevention of Marine pollution,
Liability and compensation
1517. Why is it important to make weekly/routine rounds
in the accomodation areas?
a. To ensure that cabins and common spaces are
maintained in a clean, safe
and hygienic condition
1518. All necessary information for the next port of call
should be:
a. Procured before departure from a port
1519. An emergency situation on board must be reported
to the company by:
a. The fastest means available
1520. If Master finds reason to doubt whether the
agent is giving the vessel's interest full and proper
attention he should:
a. Investigate the matter carefully and report the
findings to the company
1521. Prior to arrival at a US port from a foreign port,
as per present regulation, the USCG requires a.
96 hours notice of arrival
1522. Prior to ordering stores for any department
a. The store inventory should be checked so that you
order only the items required
1523. Proper and accurate inventory of stores should be
maintained in order to:
a. Control the ship's budget
1524. Representative of the port authorities should
always receive the best possible treatment
a. For ship's clearance to take place quickly and
without complications
1525. The office phone, fax, telex and after office hours
telephone numbers can be found in:
a. The Ship's emergency contingency manual
1526. The responsible person for maintaining budget on
board normally is:
a. Master
1527. Where will you normally find the ship's documents
including Crew Passports and CDC on board a
vessel?
a. Ship's Office
1528. Which of the following will be reported to a
company on the emergency phone?
a. All accidents where crew are injured or killed
1529. Who is responsible for the safe keeping of the
ship's documents?
a. Master
1530. The document which shows a vessel's nationality,
ownership, and tonnage is the
a. Certificate of Documentation
1531. What requires a Report of Marine Accident, Injury
or Death?
a. All of the above
1532. You have completed a Dangerous Cargo Manifest
for dangerous cargoes loaded on board It should be kept in a
conspicuous location __________.
a. On or near the bridge
1533. Total responsibility for shipping and discharging the
seamen is that of the
a. Master of the vessel
1534. seaman about to be discharged has a Continuous
Discharge Book. Which statement is TRUE ?
Certificate of Discharge with the white copy
forwarded to the Commandant or The record of
entry in the book must be submitted to the Coast
Guard
1535. A supervisor directed a subordinate to
accomplish a certain task. The supervisor asked the
subordinate to repeat the directions in him own words.
The supervisor is...
Downward communication to ensure effective
communication
1536. Of all the resources managed by a supervisor, the
most important resource is...
a. Human resources
1537. Which of the following persons is considered
connected link between employees and administration?
Supervisor
1538. the function of management are equally applicable
in
a. any organization
1539. which of the following best describe management ?
a. the process of coordinating resources to achieve
certain result
1540. According to a survey research by Judith Rosener,
in terms of their leadership experiences
Women helped subordinates develop
commitment for broader goals than their own
self-interest
1541. What term did Rosener coin to describe how
some women leaders encouraged participation and shared
power and information, but went far beyond what is
commonly thought of as participative management?
a. Interactive leadership
1542. Which type of leader energizes others?
a. Transformational
1543. Women leaders‟ interactive leadership style
developed
a. Due to their socialization experiences and career
paths
1544. According to female executives, what is the major
factor that prevents senior female executives from
advancing to corporate leadership?
a. Male stereotyping and preconceptions
1545. According to a recent study, one of the general
factors that explains the shift toward more women
leaders is that women themselves have change. It is
evident in all except
a. Women’s aspirations and attitudes have become less
similar to those of men over time
1546. The symbolic message often intended by
appointment of women to important leadership positions is
evidence of the fact that
a. Culture has changed
1547. What describes a kind of learning between the
individual and the environment in which learners seek
relatively little feedback that may significantly confront their
fundamental ideas or actions?
a. Single-loop learning
1548. Confronting one‟s beliefs, inviting others to
challenge you and working on personal blind spots are
aspects of the process of
a. Double-loop learning
1549. Mastering _____ can be thought of as learning how
to learn.
1550. In an organization, one can gain valuable
perspectives and insights through close association with an
experienced person willing to take one under his/her wing.
Such an individual is often called a
a. Mentor
1551. The process by which an older and more
experienced person helps to socialize and encourage
younger organizational colleagues is called
a. Mentoring
1552. How are mentorees benefited in a mentoring
relationship ?
a. By gaining an influential ally and by
learning about the subtler aspects of
organizational ethics
1553. What is seen as an investment that can help
change counterproductive behavior, often interpersonal,
that threatens to derail an otherwise valued manager?
a. Executive coaching
1554. The proper way to correct a mistake in the logbook
is to __________
a. Draw one line through the entry, rewrite, and initial
the correction
1555. Your vessel is in a foreign port and you find that
one of the crew members has been incarcerated for
drunkenness. The Official Logbook shows that the seaman
doesn't have funds to cover the costs of the fine. Which
action should the Master take?
a. Pay the seaman's fine
1556. An alien crewmember with a D-1 permit leaves the

vessel in a foreign port and fails to return. The first report
you make should be to the __________.
a. Immigration Service
1557. Your vessel is on an extended foreign voyage.
Several vacancies have occurred in your Unlicensed crew
through sickness and repatriation. Which statement is
correct?
a. Qualified aliens may be employed to fill the vacancies
1558. While a vessel is in a foreign port where there is no
American Consul, a seaman becomes violent prior to sailing.
The Master should __________
a. Put the seaman in irons and sail to the next port
where there is an American Consul
1559. seaman is entitled by law to a release from Foreign
Articles when __________.
a. The vessel is overloaded
1560. Who is responsible for providing urine specimen
collection kits to be used following a serious marine incident?
a. The marine employer
1561. If there are any changes in the crew in a foreign
port, the changes will be made by
a. The Master on the Shipping Articles
1562. functional leader is one who:
a. Does deals with people in order to get them to do
things the leader wants
rational and emotional
aspects of leadership is false?
d. Good leadership involves touching others’ feelings
1564. To many, the word
management
suggests c.
Efficiency
1565. Ideal leaders according to a survey
were commonly characterized as all of the
following except
a. Cooperative
1566. A seaman lost his continuous discharge
book during the voyage. Upon discharge from Articles,
he should be issued a __________.
a. Certificate of Discharge with the white copy
forwarded to the Commandant
1567. The most common form of
communication in any
organization is d. Non verbal
MULTIPLE CHOICE of MARINE INSUNCE
a. In case any accident occurs, the cause is known as
Marine peril
1568. A cover note is a temporary certificate of
insurance issued by the Insurer before the issuance of a
policy. The information that would not usually appear on
a cover note is.
Deductable
1569. In Marine Insurance Policy Insurable interest must
exist at the time of...
At the time of claim
1570. Broker is Person who serves as a trusted agent
that has legal expertise related to the coverage of insured
from the prospective assured. The fee of services by
broker is paid by
Insurer of the premium received from the assured.
1571. Cover Note is a temporary coverage of Insurance,
which then by the insurer will be issued a policy. The policy
is:
The insurance agreement signed by the insurer only
1572. Which is the following principle in general
insurance that not written in policy but must be obeyed
by the Insured (Assured) ?
Principle of legality
1573. Peril on The Sea is a marine perils, that a ship may
be damaged or destroyed because of
Pirates in the ocean who can harm the people and all
the things of a ship
Under the terms of the Marine Insurance Act 1906 the
party possessing Feasible Interest is:
Shipper in the form of goods rejected by the buyer due
to damage or delay
1574. Under the terms of the Marine Insurance Act 1906
the party possessing Contingent Interest is:
Consignee which is a loss due to ship delay or damaged
goods.
b.One of the basic principles of insurance that is not
written in the policy but must be obeyed by the
insured (assured) is the Principle of Indemnity. The
purpose of the Principle of Indemnity is.
The Assured is not permitted to make a profit on the
Insurance
c. In the case of responsibility of cargo where the carrier is
responsible for carriage, the cargo owner shall take
action .............................................. except
Make a note of protest if the carrier rejects the receipt
is clean.
d.The goods which can be coverage by marine insurance
are ...................................... except
The cost to deal with marine pollution from ship
The fee charged by the insurer on account of providing
services is called
A. Premium
14.Which principle suggests that insured assured) should try
to minimize the loss of hishis property even if it is insured?
1575. Principle of indemnity
15.The assured (insured) must have an insurable interest in
the policy when
a loss occurs.
1576. In what circumstances, if any, can a ship owner
limit its liability?
A. In negligence only.
1577. A full laden tanker spills oil in a territory subject
to the International Convention on Civil Liability for Oil
Pollution Damage 1992. Which principal party(ies) are
liable to pay compensation?
The vessel owner only.
1578. A vessel insured on Institute Time Clauses —
Hulls 1/10/83 is entirely to blame when she collides
with another vessel, upon which a person is killed as a
result of the collision. How does thehull insurer of the
offending vessel respond to the liability claim for this
death?
Decline the claim completely.
1579. When a vessel collides with another vessel, what
is the limit of an insurer's liability under the institute
Time Clauses —Hulls 1/10/83?
The hull value for property damage plus three-fourths
for collision liability.
1580. Which one of the following Liability Risks not
Covered by P&l Insurance
Liability of Increased Value Insurance
1581. P&1 insurance provides liability coverage in the
following hypothetical situations:
If the ship causes damage to piers, docks, harbor
equipment or installations
1582. Peril of the sea is a marine perils, that a ship may
Ship may be damaged or destroyed because of any
sudden storm
1583. Implied Condition is unwritten condition of an
insurance policy which has evolved (from the basic insurance
principles) that must be obeyed by the assured and , if it is
not adhered to the insurance agreement is considered
invalid which one of principle is not include as implied
condition
Principle of fairness.
1584. Which one of the following Liability Risks not
Covered by P&I Insurance
Liability for Disbursement
1585. Peril on the sea is a marine perils, that a ship may
A. Loss or damage caused by accident in loading,
discharging or shifting cargo or fuel
1586. Notice of abandonment is the act by which the assured
informs the Insurer of his decision to abandon and
claim for
a. Presumed Total Loss
1587. Which is the following action is not General
Average act when fire breaks out on board the ship, and
order to extinguish it is
a. The ship's machinery broken to get at the seat fire
1588. Which is the following action is not General
Average act when the vessel is aground in position
of peril, and in order to refloat her.
Holes are cut in the ship's structure for this purpose
1589. Which principle suggests that insured should
try to minimize the loss of his property even if it is
insured?
a. Principle of indemnity
1590. Which of the following risks covered under
Institute Cargo Clauses (B) are not covered under
Institute Cargo Clauses (C)
Statement A: Discharge of cargo at port of distress
Statement B: Earthquake, volcanic eruption, lightning.
Statement B only
31. The fee charged by the insurer on account of providing
services is called .................................
D. Premium
b. When a collision occurs, what contribution to the
loss does the protection and indemnity insurer (P&1)
make to the hull insurer?
25%
c. A ship owner takes positive steps to avert or minimize a
loss that would otherwise be covered by its hull
insurance. The expenses incurred by the ship owner in
taking this action are normally recoverable under
provisions relating to
Sue and labor
1591. Ordinary Leakage as per Institute Cargo Clause
means
Evaporation of Liquids in atmosphere
b. The principle of ......... ensures that an insured does not
profit by insuring with multiple insurers
Indemnity
c. CTL as used in insurance stand for..
Constructive Total Loss
d. A full laden tanker spills oil in a territory subject to the
International Convention on Civil Liability for Oil
Pollution Damage 1992. Which principal party(ies) are
liable to pay compensation?
The vessel owner only cover by P& I. Insurance
e. In what circumstances, if any, can a shipowner limit its
liability?
Under statute and in negligence
f. A document that contains key information regarding
quantification for a hull loss that has been submitted
to an insurer is a
Survey report
g.Core Covers in P&I for Third Party Liabilities in respect
of ...:except
Disbursement
h.Which one of the foIlowing statement act is not include
loss due gieneral Average Sacrifices. Jettison from under
deck.
Water or other means used to extinguish a fire on
hoard ship
i. Which one of the following statement act is
not include loss due General Average
expenditure
Expenses incurred in floating a stranded ship in peril.
j. For Hull and Machinery Insurance which one of the
following statement which written on the Insurance
Policy (express warranty) is not included?
Trading warranty Indonesia-Japan
k.For Cargo Insurance which one of the following statement
which written on the Insurance Policy
(express warranty) is not included?
l. Warranty subject to connecting for towing must be
approved by independent surveyor.
1592. As per Marine Insurance Act 1906 Article 44
- 49 Deviation or Delay in prosecuting the voyage
contemplated by the policy is excused are..... except.
a. Where the destination is specified in the policy
and the ship instead of sailing for that
destination.
1593. Which one of the following statement is a Franchise
Clause.
a. Warranted free from particular average under 3 %
1594. Which one of the following Liability Risks is Cover by
P&I Insurance
Liability under Bill of Lading
1595. Average Bond or Average agreement,
Is a bond required to procure delivery of goods and
given by a Consignee to the master of a ship for
prompt payment of any chargeable general average.
1596. Which of the following risks covered under Institute
Cargo Clauses A ( All Risk).?
Pirate
1597. Which of the following risks covered under Institute
Cargo Clauses B (With Average)?
A. Jattizon
Q.1Why is air transport preferred in mountainous areas?
1598. Mountainous area has a rough terrain.
Q.2. Which is the best means of transport for transporting
bulky goods in huge quantity?
b. Railways.
Q.3 Which is the most environment friendly means of
transport?
1599. None of the above.
Q.4Which is the major drawback of air transport?
1600. All of the above.
Q5. Which of the following is not covered under the ‘contract
of Indemnity’?
c. Life insurance
Q.6. Which of the following is not covered under General
Insurance?
c. Life insurance
Q.7. The fee charged by the insurer on account of providing
services is called……
d. Premium
Q.8. Which principle suggests that insured should try to
minimize the loss of his property even if it is
insured? b. Principle of Mitigation
Q.9 Perishable goods should be stored in ______________
b. Cold storage
Q.10 Which of the following is not a function of a warehouse?
d. Ensuring Profit
Q.11 Warehouses licensed by the government to accept
imported goods before the payment of custom duty are
known as:
b. Bonded warehouses
Q.12 Warehouses create ______utility
b. Form utility
Q13. Who authorizes Mercantile Agents to buy or sell goods?
1601. Principal
Q14. The one who solicits and procures business from
potential customers on behalf of one or more principals,
usually against payment of a percentage of the realized
sales revenue as commission, is a:
1602. Commercial agent
Q15. A person who serves as a trusted agent or intermediary
in the commercial transactions is called a:
Broker
Q16. The amount paid to the broker for facilitating
exchange of goods is called:
Brokerage
Choose the best answer to the following Multiple
Choice Questions.
1603. You are signing on a crew. You can

determine the minimum number and qualifications
of the crew that you are required to carry by
consulting which document?
a. Certificate of Inspection
1604. You will load class 1.2 commercial explosives

and need to construct a portable magazine. Which is
a requirement of the magazine?
a.It must be elevated with skids 10cm (3.9 inches)
above the deck
1605. What does the signal L1210 indicate?

The latitude is 12°10'
1606. How can the Coast Guard determine that a

crew member is "able to understand any order
spoken by the officers"?
a.Require a demonstration by the officer and the crew
member
1607. Freeing ports on a vessel with solid bulwarks

accomplish which task?
a.Allow water shipped on deck to flow off rapidly
1608. Following a collision or accident, the Master

of each vessel involved must render assistance to
persons affected by the collision or accident under
which circumstances?
If he/she can do so without serious danger to his
vessel or to individuals on board
1609. A load line certificate is valid for how many years?

5
1610. A tug should not come alongside a tank vessel
in way of its cargo tanks while it is loading grade A,
B, or C cargo without the permission of the
__________.
person in charge of the transfer
1611. What is the most useful drug to reduce a high

fever?
Aspirin
1612. On an inspected vessel, when may a stability test

be dispensed with?
Coast Guard has the approved stability test results
of a sister vessel
1613. Which item do you NOT have to provide for

the Coast Guard representative at the time of a
stability test?
a.A stability letter.
1614. Why does a centrifugal bilge pump require

priming?
Lack of ability to lift liquid to the impellers
1615. How should longitude 119°56.3'W be written

when preparing an AMVER report?
a. 11956W
1616. As the propeller turns, voids are formed on the

trailing and leading edges of the propeller blades
causing a loss of propulsive efficiency, pitting of the
blades, and vibration. Which term defines this effect?
a. Cavitation
1617. What are symptom(s) of a ruptured appendix?

a.Muscle tenseness in almost the entire abdomen
1618. You are in charge of a U.S. documented
vessel. Under title 46 of the United States Code, if
you fail to report a complaint of a sexual offense,
which action(s) may be taken against you?
a.Civilly charged and fined
1619. A thirty pound plate would be which thickness?

a.3/4" thick
1620. Which international body is responsible
for drafting the convention prohibiting marine
pollution (MARPOL)?
The International Maritime Organization
1621. The vapor pressure of a gas is defined as the

pressure necessary to keep it in what state?
liquified state
1622. Which statement is TRUE concerning buoyant

work vests aboard tank vessels?
a. They must be used only under
supervision of a designated ship's
officer.
1623. Which term indicates the rise in height of the

bottom plating from the plane of the base line?
a. Deadrise
1624. You are approaching the pilot station with the

wind fine on the starboard bow and making about 3
knots. You can help to calm the seas by taking what
action just before the pilot boat comes along on the
port side?
A short burst of ahead full with left full rudder
1625. A vessel that does not possess any

reserve buoyancy will sink. Which of the
following is considered a direct measure of
reserve buoyancy?
a.The vessel's freeboard
1626. What is the calling and distress frequency on a

single side band (SSB) marine radiotelephone?
a. 2182 kHz
1627. Which action(s) is/are included in crane

operations?
All of the above
1628. Which term describes the distance a

vessel moves parallel to the original course from
the point where the rudder is put over to any
point on the turning circle?
Advance
1629. What is the meaning of the signal "G1325"?

The longitude is 13°25'.
1630. Which statement about tunnel bow thrusters fitted

to large vessels is TRUE?
When going astern at slow speed, they provide
effective steering control.
1631. During counterflooding to correct a

severe list aggravated by an off-center load,
your vessel suddenly takes a list to the
opposite side. Which action should you take?
Immediately stop counterflooding
1632. Grade D combustible liquids have a maximum

flash point of __________.
a.149°F
1633. According to regulations when, if ever, may
cargo hatches on Great Lakes vessels, with more than
6 feet of freeboard, be left uncovered or open while
the vessel is being navigated?
At the discretion of the Master, for reasonable
purposes
1634. Your ship is dead in the water with the

rudder amidships. As the right-handed screw starts
to turn ahead, which way will the bow tend to go?
To port
1635. If a passenger vessel navigating the Great

Lakes is required to carry 8 life buoys, what is the
allowable minimum number of these buoys that
must have self-igniting lights attached?
4
1636. How should you signal the crane operator to stop

in an emergency?
Extend arm and move hand rapidly right and left
with the palm down.
1637. Vessels subject to SOLAS are required to

have which of the following items onboard to aid in
SAR communications?
a. GMDSS equipment
1638. What is it called when you sort accident victims

according to the severity of their injuries?
Triage
1639. A precaution you should take before bunkering is

to __________.
plug the scuppers
1640. Overspeed of the diesel engine driving an electric

generator could cause which situation to occur?
a. Damage to the generator
1641. You are going ahead on twin engines when

you want to make a quick turn to port. Which actions
will turn your boat the fastest?
Reverse port engine; apply left rudder
1642. You are at sea and have received a General

Emergency message announcing the outbreak of war
in Europe. You are directed to comply with the
instructions in NGA (NIMA) PUB 117, Chapter Eight.
a.You should attempt to submit an AMVER report to
NSA.
1643. Which action must be taken annually concerning

inflatable liferafts carried on passenger vessels?
Shall be sent to a Coast Guard approved service
facility
1644. A man who is conscious has fallen overboard

is being picked up by a lifeboat. In a mild breeze
how should the the boat should approach the
person in the water?
a.With the wind just off the bow and the victim to
leeward
1645. A tanker is loaded with 8,000 barrels of fuel oil. The

temperature of the cargo is 50°F. API gravity is 37°. The
volume correction factor (VCF) is .0005. What is the net
amount in gallons of cargo loaded?
337,680
1646. If another station sent you the signal "KG", what

would this indicate?
a.Asking you if you needed a tug
1647. When selecting the fuel oil tanks for the "burn-
out" of bunkers during a voyage consideration of all of
the following must be taken with the EXCEPTION of
__________.
flashpoint
1648. In the United States, which organization sets the
load line markings?
a.American Bureau of Shipping
1649. Which term defines the volume of a vessel's

intact watertight space above the waterline?
Reserve buoyancy
1650. A seaman deserts the vessel in a foreign

port. What should the Master do with any of the
deserter's personal effects remaining on board?
Transfer them to the appropriate district court of the
U.S. at the end of the voyage.
1651. Which statement about the forecastle card is

TRUE?
Is a copy of the shipping articles excluding
crewmember signatures
1652. When a helicopter is lifting personnel from a

rescue boat, what should the other individuals in
the boat do?
Remain seated inside to provide body weight for
stability
1653. Addition of weight to a vessel will ALWAYS

__________.
reduce reserve buoyancy
1654. What is the period of validity of a Cargo Ship

Safety Radio Certificate?
60 months
1655. Your vessel has the symbol shown in
illustration D022DG below inscribed on the side.
Which statement concerning this symbol is
TRUE?
a.The applicable gross and net tonnage of the ship
will change if this mark is submerged and the load
line mark is visible.
1656. You are signing on crew members. The

minimum number of people required aboard, and
the qualifications of each, is listed on the
__________.
a.Certificate of Inspection
1657. A hydraulic accumulator is designed to

__________.
store fluid under pressure
1658. Which document is NOT required by law to be

posted aboard a vessel?
Official Crew List
1659. When taking a Pilot from a pilot vessel in a

seaway, which way should you head your vessel if
the ladder is on the leeward side?
Sea on the weather bow and ship moving ahead
slowly
1660. What is the spoken emergency signal for a "man

overboard" on the VHF radio?
Pan-Pan
1661. SOLAS requires that all passenger vessels
maintain Muster Lists. What information is required to
be contained in this document?
a.Duties assigned to members of the crew in relation
to passengers
1662. How should you signal the crane operator to use

the main hoist?
First tap the top of your head with your fist, and
then proceed to use regular signals.
1663. Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. What
is the designation number for the middle boat on the
starboard side?
3
1664. How often are each EPIRB and SART for lifeboats
required to be tested on the vessel?
Monthly
1665. How should the letter "D" be pronounced when

spoken on the radiotelephone?
DELL TAH
1666. You are conducting trials to determine the

maneuvering characteristics of your vessel. While
making a turn, you take ranges and bearings of an
isolated light. The results are shown in illustration
D034DG below. What is the transfer for a turn of 45°?
a. 130 yards
1667. On a ship's crane, the load chart relates the

allowable load to the combination of the boom length
and __________.
load radius
1668. According to the Chemical Data Guide, to what

chemical family does 1,3 - pentadiene belong?
a. Olefins
1669. You are proceeding to a distress site where the

survivors are in liferafts. Which action will assist in
making your vessel more visible to the survivors?
a.Making smoke in daylight
1670. Which is TRUE concerning a certificated
lifeboatman assigned to command a lifeboat?
Must have a list of the persons assigned to the
lifeboat
1671. How long must GMDSS Radio Logs be

retained by the licensee when they relate to a
distress situation or disaster?
3 years
1672. What is the lowest temperature at which a

liquid gives off sufficient vapors to form a flammable
mixture with air in the presence of an ignition source?
a.Flash point
online
01
Question 1
How can the structure of the international society
be displayed?
1673. International society consists of a
constellation of sovereign States and other
international organizations, which are
dispersed in a rather horizontal order of
authority
Question 2
Is there any hierarchy or priority among States
under international law?
1674. No, all States are considered equal as
sovereign States (the principle of sovereign
equality, enshrined in article 2, para 1 UN
Charter)
Question 3
What is the 'Lotus principle'?
1675. The so-called Lotus principle is that
'restrictions upon the independence of States
cannot therefore be presumed', or, as it has
been construed, 'whatever is not prohibited is
permitted in international law'
Question 4
What is the problem of 'fragmentation' of
international law?
1676. It is possible for several legal regimes
(ie foreign investment law and human rights
law) to exist and develop in isolation of each
other, ultimately culminating in the
production of divergent rules of international
law
Question 5
Is there any priority among international courts and
tribunals?
1677. Since there is no lis pendens rule in
international law and all depends on the
consent of the parties to a dispute, there is no
priority or hierarchy among international
courts and tribunals
Question 6
What is the major difference between naturalism
and positivism?
1678. On the one hand, naturalism is based
on a set of rules that are of universal and
objective scope and on the other hand,
positivism is based on a structured and
coherent legal system that is created by States
in light of their interests and desires
Question 7
What is jus cogens?
1679. They are peremptory norms of
international law, from which no derogations
are allowed and which can never be altered
even with the consent of the States
Question 8
Which rule of jus cogens was the first to be
accepted explicitly as such by the ICJ?
c) The prohibition of genocide
Question 9
Are the peremptory norms of international law the
only norms that set out obligations erga omnes?
1680. No, even though all peremptory
norms set out obligations erga omnes, the
latter may also spring from treaties regulating
objective regimes or unilateral acts
Question 10
Are there any limits to the application of article 103
of the UN Charter?
c) Yes, article 103 of the UN Charter cannot
trump jus cogens norms
02
Question 1
Which are the formal sources of international law?
c) Treaties, custom and general principles of law
Question 2
Which treaties are considered as 'source of
international law' under article 38 ICJ
Statute? b) Only the treaties that are in
force and binding upon the parties to
the dispute
Question 3
What is required for a general rule of customary law
to be formed?
1681. Both the elements of widespread and
consistent State practice and of the opinio
juris are required
Question 4
What kind of State practice is required?
a) Widespread, consistent and uniform practice,
consisting both of acts and omissions
Question 5
Who is a 'persistent objector'?
1682. The State which persistently and
publicly objects to the formation of a rule of
customary law from its outset
Question 6
Where do we find the 'general principles of law
recognized by civilized nations' (article 38 ICJ
Statute)? b) We look for established principles
of law, which are common to all major legal
systems
Question 7
What is the relationship between the formal
sources of international law?
a) There is no hierarchy between the formal
sources of international law
Question 8
What is the value of the Resolutions of the UN
General Assembly in terms as a 'source' of
international law?
1683. GA Resolutions are considered as
material source, in the sense that they may
enunciate statements of customary law
Question 9
How can customary law be related to treaty
provisions?
1684. Treaties may 1) codify customary law, 2)
'crystallise' customary law, 3) lead to the
emergence of customary law
Question 10
What is 'unilateral acts'?
b) They are acts creating unilateral legal
obligations to the acting State
03
Question 1
What is a 'treaty' according to the Vienna
Convention on the Law of Treaties (VCLT)?
1685. Treaties are agreements concluded
between States in written form and
governed by international law
Question 2
Should treaties assume a particular form?
c) Treaties do not have to assume a particular
form or designated as such
Question 3
Who has the authority to conclude a treaty on the
part of States?
1686. Treaties are concluded by the
competent representatives of States. Heads of
States, heads of governments, ministers of
foreign affairs and heads of diplomatic missions
are presumed to have such authority
Question 4
How the consent to be bound of a State may be
expressed?
1687. The consent of a state to be bound by
a treaty may be expressed by signature,
ratification, acceptance, approval or accession
Question 5
Do treaties bind third States, ie non-State parties?
c) Treaties do no create obligations or rights for
third States without their consent
Question 6
How treaties are to be interpreted?
1688. Treaties are to be interpreted in good
faith in accordance with the ordinary meaning
to be given to the terms of the treaty in their
context and in the light of its object and
purpose
Question 7
What does the principle 'pacta sunt servanda' mean?
c) Parties to a treaty should adhere to its terms
in good faith
Question 8
When a reservation is considered as invalid under
the law of treaties?
d) A reservation is invalid when it is
incompatible with the object and purpose of
the treaty
Question 9
What is 'material breach' of the treaty?
1689. 'Material breach' is the repudiation
or a significant violation of the treaty and
serves as a ground for the unilateral
termination of the treaty
Question 10
What does the 'fundamental change of
circumstances' entail for the treaty?
1690. A fundamental change of the
circumstances which constituted an essential
basis of the consent of the parties to be bound
by the treaty and which was not foreseen by
the parties, may be invoked as a ground for
terminating or withdrawing from the treaty
04
Question 1
Can countries rely on their domestic law as an
excuse to violate their obligations under
international law?
c) Obligations under international law prevail
over domestic law
Question 2
What is the fundamental premise of monist theory?
b) Monism posits that international and
domestic law are part of the same legal order
Question 3
What is dualism?
b) Under dualism, international and domestic
laws comprise distinct legal Systems
Question 4
What does the doctrine of incorporation suggest in
respect of treaties?
1691. The doctrine of incorporation
suggests that ratified treaties automatically
pass into the sphere of domestic law
Question 5
What are self-executing treaties?
1692. Self-executive treaties are clear
and precise enough so as not to require
any further implementing measures
Question 6
What is the fundamental prerequisite for
the incorporation of custom under
English law? a) Custom is incorporated if
it is not in conflict with existing
legislation
Question 7
What dimension did the Kadi judgment
introduce with respect to the incorporation of
UN Security Council resolutions?
1693. The Kadi judgment demanded that
UNSC resolutions are construed in accordance
with human rights
Question 8
What was the consequence from the absence of
implementing legislation in the Tin Council case?
1694. The absence of implementing
legislation with respect to the Council's
founding treaty meant that individuals did not
derive rights and duties from it in the English
legal system
Question 9
Are there any limitations to the incorporation of
customary crimes under English law?
d) The situation is not clear-cut but an act of
parliament would most probably be required
Question 10
Is the recognition of foreign judgments
subject to the same rules as those applicable
to the incorporation and transformation of
treaties?
1695. The recognition of foreign judgments
is dependent on the existence of appropriate
bilateral or multilateral treaties
05
Question 1
What is the meaning of international legal
personality?
1696. It means having rights and duties
under international law and a capacity to
enforce these by or against the relevant actor
Question 2
What are the criteria for statehood under the 1933
Montevideo Convention?
1697. It requires a permanent population, a
defined territory, a government and a capacity
to enter into foreign relations
Question 3
What other criteria were imposed by the
Badinter Commission on the former
Yugoslav republics? c) The Commission
required a commitment to human rights
and democracy
Question 4
What is meant by an international organisation's
implied powers?
1698. Implied are those powers which are
necessary in order for an organisation to carry
out the tasks conferred upon it and which are
not stipulated in its charter
Question 5
May States incur liability for the debts and
wrongdoings attributable to an international
organisation to which they are parties?
b) The legal person of the organisation is
distinct from that of its member States
Question 6
Do individuals (physical) persons enjoy
international legal personality in the same manner
as States and international organisations?
a) Individuals enjoy international legal
personality, but this is limited
Question 7
What is the declaratory theory of recognition?
b) Recognition is simply declaratory of
statehood but not determinate
Question 8
What is the constitutive theory of recognition?
a) Recognition is determinative of statehood
Question 9
What is the meaning of functional recognition?
1699. Recognition is only afforded to
particular administrative acts not to the
entity's declared statehood
Question 10
Is recognition of governments prevalent in
contemporary international practice?
b) Recognition of governments has largely been
replaced by functional Recognition
06
Question 1
What is the ordinary geographical scope of
jurisdiction?
c) Jurisdiction is ordinarily territorial
Question 2
Which State ordinarily exercises jurisdiction in
respect of crimes committed on board
vessels? b) The flag State
Question 3
What is the effects doctrine?
1700. The effects doctrine serves to confer
jurisdiction to the State on whose territory the
conduct produces effects
Question 4
What is passive personality jurisdiction?
c) It is jurisdiction based on the nationality of
the victims
Question 5
What is the protective principle of jurisdiction?
a) It is jurisdiction based on the harm to national
interests by conduct committed abroad
Question 6
What is the purpose of universal jurisdiction?
c) Its aim is to provide jurisdiction to all States
in respect of particular crimes
Question 7
Is piracy under international (jure gentium) law
subject to universal jurisdiction?
b) Piracy jure gentium is subject to universal
jurisdiction
Question 8
Is the jurisdiction of international tribunals
regulated by the same principles applicable to
national courts?
d) The jurisdiction of international tribunals is
dictated solely by their founding treaties
Question 9
Is extra-territorial abduction a ground for refusal
of otherwise lawful jurisdiction by English
courts? a) Such abduction constitutes abuse
of process and leads to a stay of proceedings
Question 10
What does it mean for a State to be sovereign?
c) Sovereignty means freedom to determine
one's own affairs without external interference
07
Question 1
What is the purpose of sovereign immunity?
c) Immunity shields States from being sued in
the courts of other States
Question 2
What is an act jure imperii?
b) An act is jure imperii when undertaken in an
official State capacity
Question 3
What is an act jure gestionis?
a) Acts jure gestionis are those undertaken by
States in a private capacity
Question 4
Is the unlawful homicide committed by
Minister of country X abroad an act jure
imperii or jure gestionis?
c) Such conduct is a private act (jure gestionis)
Question 5
What is the meaning of "act of State" doctrine?
1701. The act of State doctrine denotes that
the assessment as to the existence of an
alleged tort committed by a State belongs to
the executive and not the courts
Question 6
What is personal (ratione personae) immunity?
1702. Personal immunity is afforded only to
particular persons irrespective if their
conduct was undertaken in a private or
public capacity
Question 7
What is functional (ratione materiae) immunity?
b) Functional immunity covers the act and
incidentally also the person committing the act
>
Question 8
What was the outcome before the European
Court of Human Rights in the Al-Adsani case?
c) The Court held that immunities were not
in conflict with the right to a fair trial >
Question 9
What is the principal source of immunity in respect
of international organisations (IOs)?
1703. The principal sources of immunity
for IOs are headquarters agreements and
multilateral treaties providing specific
immunities >
Question 10
What was the most important finding by the House
of Lords in the Pinochet case?
c) The Pinochet case confirmed that former
heads of State cease to enjoy personal
immunity once removed from office >
08
Question 1
What is the purpose of baselines under the law of
the sea?
1704. The determination of baselines is
instrumental to the establishment of all
maritime zones, since they constitute the
starting point for measuring the breadth of
each zone >
Question 2
Which is a 'rock'under the UN Convention of the
Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)?
1705. Rocks are the islands which cannot
sustain human habitation or economic life of
their own and according to article 121 (3)
have no Exclusive Economic Zone or
continental shelf >
Question 3
When coastal States do enforce their criminal
jurisdiction over foreign vessels in their ports?
a) Port States generally do not enforce their
criminal jurisdiction over crimes that do not
infringe their customs laws or disrupt peace and
public order >
Question 4
What kind of passage does qualify as 'innocent
passage'?
1706. A vessel's passage is considered
'innocent' where it is not prejudicial to the
peace, good order or security of the coastal
State >
Question 5
What is the function of the contiguous zone?
1707. The contiguous zone is a zone in which
the coastal State is permitted to prevent and
punish infringements of customs, fiscal,
immigration or sanitary laws >
Question 6
What kind of rights do coastal States enjoy over
their continental shelf?
1708. The coastal State enjoy ipso facto and
ab initio sovereign rights over its continental
shelf for the purpose of exploring it and
exploiting its natural resources >
Question 7
Do third States enjoy any fishing rights within the
Exclusive Economic Zone of another State?
1709. When the coastal State cannot harvest
the 'total allowable catch', the coastal State is
to give other State access to that surplus with
priority to be given to developing and land-
locked States
Question 8
Which State exercises jurisdiction over vessels on
the high seas?
1710. The flag State is to exercise exclusive
jurisdiction over its vessels on the high seas,
with the exception of specific cases, such as
piracy
Question 9
When does an illegal act of violence on the high
seas fall short of qualifying as piracy?
1711. When it is not committed against
another vessel and when it is not committed
for 'private ends'
Question 10
What is the 'equitable result' in the law and practice
of maritime delimitation?
1712. It is the end result that all
delimitations of areas of continental shelf and
EEZ should achieve, after, however, drawing a
provisional 'equidistance line' and adjusting
the zone in the light of the relevant
circumstances and the proportionality test >
09
Question 1
What is the meaning of 'secondary rules' in the law
of international responsibility?
1713. Secondary rules are the rules that
govern the legal consequences arising from a
breach of the primary rules, i.e. of the
international obligations of the States >
Question 2
What is an 'internationally wrongful conduct'?
1714. An internationally wrongful conduct
consists of an action or omission attributable
to the State, which constitutes a breach of
an international obligation of the State >
Question 3
Are all acts of State organs attributed to the State
under the law international responsibility?
1715. The conduct of any State organ shall be
considered an act of that State, even in the
case that this conduct was unauthorized or
ultra vires >
Question 4
Which persons are considered as 'de facto'
organs of the State under the law of
international responsibility?
1716. 'De facto organs' are the persons, which
are, in fact, acting on the instructions of, or under
the direction or control of, that State in carrying
out the conduct attributable to the State >
Question 5
When 'consent' can serve as a circumstance
precluding the wrongfulness of a State conduct?
1717. Consent can serve as a circumstance
precluding wrongfulness, provided the
consent is valid and to the extent that the
conduct remains within the limits of the
consent given >
Question 6
When are countermeasures illegal?
1718. Countermeasures are illegal when
inter alia are disproportionate or in
violation of a peremptory norm of
international law (e.g. the use of force,
human rights) >
Question 7
When a State may lawfully invoke necessity as a
circumstance precluding wrongfulness?
1719. Necessity may be invoked by a State in
the exceptional cases where the only way it
can safeguard an essential interest threatened
by a grave and imminent peril is, for the time
being, to avoid performing some other
international obligation of lesser weight or
urgency >
Question 8
What forms may the obligation of reparation take?
1720. Reparation includes restitution,
compensation, and satisfaction, either alone
or alongside other forms of reparation >
Question 9
Who is an 'injured State' in the law of international
responsibility?
1721. A State is 'injured' if the obligation
breached was owed to it individually or if it was
owed to a group of States, including that State,
and it was specially affected >
Question 10
In which cases may a non-injured State invoke the
responsibility of the culprit State?
1722. In cases of breaches of specific
obligations protecting the collective interests
of a group of States (obligations erga omnes
partes) or the interests of the international
community as a whole (obligations erga
omnes) >
10
Question 1
What is the obligation of the peaceful settlement of
disputes?
1723. It is an obligation of conduct, i.e.
States have an obligation to try to resolve
their disputes through peaceful means. This
does not entail an obligation to resolve their
disputes >
Question 2
Is there any hierarchy or priority among the various
methods of peaceful settlement of disputes?
c) There is no hierarchy among these methods
and the choice belongs to the disputing States >
Question 3
What is the difference between political and legal
means of dispute settlement?
1724. The outcome arising from legal
methods, ie arbitration or adjudication by the
ICJ, is final and binding upon the parties,
whereas this is not the case with diplomatic
methods >
Question 4
Are States under any obligation when they conduct
negotiations?
b) States are under an obligation so to conduct
themselves that the negotiations are meaningful
Question 5
What is the difference between conciliation and
mediation?
1725. Mediation is usually conducted by a
person appointed with the consent of the
parties, while conciliation involves a
commission, which proceeds to an impartial
examination of the dispute and proposes
settlement terms
Question 6
How are the members of the arbitral tribunal
appointed?
1726. Each party selects one or two
members of the arbitral tribunal, while the
president of the tribunal, the umpire, is
selected by the arbitrators or the president of
the ICJ >
Question 7
What is the judge ad hoc?
1727. If a party to a contentious case before
the ICJ does not have a national sitting as
judge, it is entitled to nominate someone as a
judge solely for that case, with the title of
judge ad hoc >
Question 8
What is the 'optional; clause' in the ICJ Statute?
1728. Optional clause is the declaration
deposited by a State, whereby it accepts the
jurisdiction of the Court in respect of
international legal disputes in relation to any
other State accepting the same obligation >
Question 9
Are the provisional measures issued by the ICJ
binding upon the parties?
1729. Yes, it has been consistently held by
the Court since the La Grand case (2001) that
they are binding >
Question 10
Who is entitled to request an advisory opinion of
the ICJ?
1730. The General Assembly and the Security
Council may request advisory opinions on any
legal question, as well as 'other organs of the
United Nations and specialized agencies, which
may at any time be so authorized by the
General Assembly, may also request advisory
opinions of the Court on legal questions arising
within the scope of their activities' >
11
Question 1
Was the use of armed force permitted prior to the
United Nations Charter?
a) Armed force was prohibited >
Question 2
What types of force does Article 2(4) of the UN
Charter prohibit?
a) Article 2(4) encompasses only armed force >
Question 3
What is the meaning of "armed attack" in Article 51
UN Charter?
b) "Armed attack" includes all high intensity
instances of armed force >
Question 4
Is the ICJ hostile to the idea that an armed attack
may arise through a series of lower intensity, yet
cumulative, instances of armed force?
a) The ICJ was not hostile to the accumulation
theory >
Question 5
What is the meaning of proportionality in relation
to the options available to the victim State?
c) The victim State may only use such means
and force as it is necessary to defeat the
aggressor
Question 6
Can armed violence perpetrated by non-State
actors ever amount to an armed attack under
Article 51 UN Charter?
1731. The Caroline case serves as
precedent that non-State actors can
under particular circumstances commit
an armed attack >
Question 7
What was the particular advantage of UNSC
Resolution 678 over a collective defensive action
under Article 51 UN Charter during the Gulf War?
1732. Resolution 678 is broader because it
authorised the use of force with respect to any
matter threatening the peace and security of
the Gulf region. >
Question 8
What is the meaning of collective security?
c) The authorisation of armed force by the UN
Security Council >
Question 9
What is the meaning of implied authorisation?
a) Presumption of Security Council approval of
armed force when a State has been forewarned >
Question 10
In what way is Responsibility to Protect (R2P)
different from humanitarian intervention?
1733. R2P is less arbitrary because it requires
some UNSC input and its primary objective is to
avert a humanitarian crisis >
12
Question 1
What is the function of "standard-setting in human
rights diplomacy?
c) Standard-setting means putting forward non-
binding legal standards
Question 2
What is the legal nature of the Universal
Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR)?
b) The UDHR is a UN General Assembly
resolution
Question 3
What is the meaning of cultural relativism?
1734. Cultural relativism posits that local
culture should validate the existence and
practice of all human rights
Question 4
What is the meaning of collective rights?
1735. Collective rights are those that
belong to particular groups as opposed to
the individual members of the group >
Question 5
What is the meaning of justiciability?
1736. Justiciability refers to the possibility of
enforcement of a particular right by the
relevant rights holders >
Question 6
What is a derogation?
1737. A State may suspend particular
rights by means of a derogation in
circumstances that threaten its existence >
Question 7
Would a reservation to the definition of torture in
the ICCPR be acceptable in contemporary practice?
1738. This is an unacceptable reservation
because it contravenes the object and purpose
of the
ICCPR >
Question 8
Which of the following is a treaty-based human
rights mechanism?
a) The UN Human Rights Committee
Question 9
Under what circumstances do human rights
violations taking place outside the territory of
ECHR member States fall within the remit of
the ECtHR?
1739. The ECHR applies extraterritorially in
circumstances where a member State exercises
effective control
Question 10
What is the rationale for the exhaustion of local
remedies in international human rights?
1740. The local remedies rule aims on
the one hand to restrict the volume of
petitions to international tribunals while
at the same time building up the capacity
of local courts
1741. When did the third UN Convention on the Law of te
Sea Conference (UNCLOS III) take place?
a. Between 1973 and 1982
1742. Which of the UN member states below has signed
UNCLOS III ?
a. Guyana
1743. Which one the following Liability Risks is Cover by
P&I Insurance
a. Hull and Machinery
1744. Peril of the sea is a merine perils, that a ship may
be damaged or distroyed because of
a. There can be found pirates in the ocean who can
harm the people and all the things of a ship
1745. In conjunction with which two set sets of
international regulations should the IMDG code be read
for security purposes?
a. Chapter XI-2 of SOLAS and part A of the ISPS Code
1746. Which of the following statements is correct with
respect to IMDG cargo, loaded on a general cargo
vessel, that is also classed as a marine pollutant
a. Cargo must be loaded in a protected location and
preferably under deck if IMDG code allows
1747. You will load class 1.2 commercial explosive
and need to construct a portable magazine. The
magazine MUST ___________
be elevated with skids 10cm (3.9 inches) abovethe
deck
1748. Substances, materials and articles shall be stowed
as indicated the Dangerous Goods List of the IMDG
Code in accordance with a series of stowage categories.
How are those categories designated?
5 categories, labelled A-E
1749. Which statement is NOT true concerning the
stowage of class 1 explosives?
Class 1.4 explosives may not be stowed in the same
hold with class 6.1 poisons
1750. Flammable liquid means any liquid which gives off
flammable vapors at or below ____________
80°F (26.7°C)
1751. A cargo of flammable solid (Class 4.1) is to be loaded
with a cargo of flammable gases (Class 2.1) which has a
subsidiary risk of being an infectious substance (Class 6.2).
What stowage is correct?
Separated by a complete compartment or hold
form ........
1752. According to the load line rules, the minimum
height of hatch coaming shoud be ________
75 cm
1753. Where is bituminous paint applied ?
To the ballast tank
1754. To make sure that there’s no any damages into
cargo hold is best by __________
inspection of the hold at completion of discharge
1755. When cleaning holds after carrying a cargo of
quick drying cement it is advisable to remove the wash
water in the hold ___________
by baling out the water using a 200 litre drum
attached to acrane or derrick or other lifting
device
1756. At what calendar interval is a “Special Survey”
required?
5 years
1757. At what calendar interval must lifting appliances
on board a vessel be suitably tested by a competent
person?
a. 5 years
1758. During the 5-yearly overhaul and operational
test of a lifeboat on-load release gear, to what level
should the gear be load tested?
a. The Equvalent to the total mass of the lifeboat
when loaded with its full complement of
persons and equipment
1759. Where would you find the document relating to the
“Condition of Freeboard Assigment” onboard?
a. With the Load Line Certificate
1760. You have another ship overtaking you close
aboard. You have 3 radar targets bearing 090° relative
at ranges of 5 mile, 1 mile, and 1.5 miles. In this case,
the unwanted echoes are called __________
a. multiple echoes
1761. How often is the performance check of a data
Voyage Data Recorder by a competent person required
under SOLAS?
a. Annually
1762. When a Classification Society surveyor identifies
corrosion, structural defect or damage to the hull of a
vessel, machinery and/or any piece of equipment which,
based on the society’s rules and in the opinion of the
surveyor affects the ship’s class, which of the following
is that surveyor likely to issue?
a. A Condition of Class.
KOMPETENSI 7
1763. IMO Standard Marine
Communication Phrases and Use the IMO
Standard Marine Communication Phrases
and use English in written and oral form
(Menggunakan Kalimat Komunikasi Maritim
Standar IMO dan menggunakan bahasa
Inggris dalam bentuk tulisan dan ucapan)
1764. During the anchoring procedure, what
would the 2nd Officer understand by the following
request from the bridge, "How is the chain"?
The Master is requesting the Chief Officer to
inform the bridge of whether he can determine
which way the ship is moving in the water.
1765. How should the tug be secured to the ship,
when the bridge tells the poop that "It is the tug's
wire"??
The tug will send a wire to the ship for making fast.
1766. In the diagram which line would be the
"AFT SPRING", if the vessel was port side
alongside a
jetty?
The Aft Spring is indicated by A, in the figure
1767. In the diagram, the depth of water under
the keel is indicated by the letter "C". Which
bridge instrument would indicate this depth?
Echo Sounder
1768. In the diagram, which arrow is pointing at
the position known as the "Bridge"?
The Bridge is i Indicated by A, in the figure

1769. In the diagram, which letter is
indicating the "bits" which would probably be
used by the "FORWARD SPRING" when
mooring the ship?
The bits for the Forward Spring is indicated by D, in
the figure
1770. In the diagram, which letter is indicating the
position "MIDSHIPS"?
Midships is indicated by B, in the figure

1771. In the diagram, which letter is pointing at
the area known as the "BOW" of the ship?
The Bow is indicated by B, in the figure

1772. In the diagram, which letter is pointing to
the area of the ship known as the "STERN"?
The Stern area is indicated by C, in the figure l.
1773. In the figure is shown the direction of
possible mooring lines from the stern of a vessel,
when moored port side alongside a jetty. Which
letter shows the direction which would be used by a
"STERN LINE"?
The Stern Line is indicated by A, in the figure

1774. In the figure, which arrow indicates the
direction "ASTERN"?
Astern is indicated by D, in the figure

1775. In the figure, which letter indicates the
"BREADTH” of the vessel?
Breadth is indicated by B, in the figure

1776. In the figure, which letter indicates what is
known as "mooring bits"?
The mooring bits are indicated by D, in the figure

1777. In the figure, which letter indicates which
item is the "WINDLASS"?
The Windlass is indicated by B, in the figure
1778. In which direction would the "FORWARD
HEAD LINE" normally run?
The forward head line would normally lead forward

from the bow
1779. On the diagram, what is the area at the
forward end of the vessel shown by the letter "A"?
It is normally raised by one deck above the main
deck
Fo'c's'le or Forecastle
1780. On the diagram, which arrowed line is
indicating the "Breadth" of the vessel?
The breadth is indicated by letter B, in the figure

1781. On the diagram, which letter indicates what
is meant by the word "DRAUGHT" of the ship?
Draught is indicated by D, in the figure

1782. On the diagram, which letter is indicating
the "BOW"?
The Bow is indicated by B, in the figure
1783. Read the text in the diagram and answer the
following question: When should training in
personal survival techniques be given?
Before being employed
1784. Read the text in the diagram and answer
this question: What should be given to
prospective seafarers?
Approved training in survival techniques
1785. Read the text in the picture before answering
the question. What is the fundamental requirement
relating to the older ships, which are still in service?
The older ships must be in good condition.
1786. What are the duties of the bridge lookout
during the night, when the vessel is in the
middle of the
ocean?
The lookout must keep a lookout all-round the ship
and report anything sighted, or heard, to the Officer
of the Watch
1787. What could the wheelman be asked to do, to
help in the preparations to leave the berth and go
to
sea?
Test the steering by putting the wheel hard over both
ways
1788. What do you understand by the term "Let
Go" when applied to mooring and unmooring?
Let Go means to cast off the mooring ropes and
wires
1789. What is a "cargo plan", when applied to a
ship?
The plan indicating where cargo is to be loaded and
in what quantities
1790. What is a "Fairlead"?
A Fairlead is a special device through which is
passed ropes or wires to stop them moving
sideward’s and reduces friction and chafing
1791. What is a mooring line?
A mooring line is a thick rope used to moor the ship
1792. What is a ship's "Gangway"?
A Gangway is a portable means of access between
the ship and the shore
1793. What is meant by the term "Single up"
when a vessel is preparing to leave the jetty to
which it was moored?
Single up is the term used to describe the process of
letting go most of the moorings lines and just
leaving sufficient lines to stay safely alongside.
1794. If you are going to
enter fairway, what should you
say : Question. Do i have
permission to enter the fairway ?
1795. If you will reply the
question , what should you
say : Answer you have
permission to enter the
fairway
1796. If you will intent the
question , what should you
say : Intention I will enter the
fairway
1797. If you will order the
coming ship , what should you
say : Advice anchor in
anchorage A1
1798. If you will warn
the ship , what should you
say: Warning you are
running into danger
1799. When the information requested is
not immediately available, what should you
say: Standby ......followed the time interval
1800. When the information requested cannot be
obtained , what should you say
No information
1801. My present speed is 14
knots-mistake, what should you
say: Correction my present speed
is 12 , one-two knots
1802. If any part of the massage is considered
sufficiently important to need safeguarding, what
should you say :
My draft is 10,5 repeat ten point five metres
1803. Briefing on how to dress and what to take
assembly station ,what should you say:
Take your life jacket and a blanket
1804. If you see anybody fall
overboard, what should you do
first: Keep your eyes on the
person in the water
1805. Safety regulation do not permit
passengers to enter the following
spaces : Navigating bridge
1806. Taking care measure for cargo are in
carrying out inspection, what should you do:
The hold must be inspected by the surveyor
before loading
1807. Operating shipboard equipment for cargo
care , what should you do:
The equpiment for cargo care shoud be in
operational
1808. Action in case of
incidents, what should you
do: Take action according
to emergency plan
1809. Preparing for sea, what should you do:
Close and secure the hatch cover for sea and report
1810. Drill onboard the ship, what should you do:
International regulation require for all passangers to
be assembled in a drill
1811. For preventing fire on
board we, what should you do:
Always remember that fire is the
greatest hazard aboard ship
1812. If you detect a fire or smell fumes or smoke
act immediately, what should you do:
Call out “fire”
1813. Master has over riding authority, means:
He may deviate from the procedure laid down in this
manual
1814. The standing order must address:
The master’s special requirement and expectation
1815. The master should be refuse to sign the Bill
of Lading if :
The BL quantity and ship’s quantity differ by more
than 0,3%
1816. The master is at all times the servant of:
The owners
1817. At the discharge port the cargo as
described in the Bill of Lading to be
delivered to: The consignee
1818. If the company accepts responsibility for
any and all consequences arising from the master
signing BL, the company should make :
Letter of indemnity
1819. If the charterers fail to load or to
discharge the ship in the agreed lay times will be
the owners responsibilities as:
Demurage
1820. A structure which maintain calm waters in
a harbours and block the worst ocean waves, we
call: Breakwater
1821. The agency that controls the maintenance
and use of all the port’s facilities, we call:
Port authority
1822. The evening watch can be devided into
two short watches as from , from 18.00-20.00 we
call: 2nd dog watch
1823. The onboard management who can reads
and understand charters parties,BL,MR,maritime
insurance, we call:
Management level
1824. Instruction on how to embark and behave in
lifeboats/liferafts, what should you do:
Enter the lifeboat/liferaft when ordered by an
officer/lifeboat man
1825. Protective measure for
the children , what should you
do: Children must be kept under
permanent observation
1826. For following the instruction on
compability and stowage, what should you
do: Chek the proper segregation of goods
1827. The manifest are
An official list of everything carried by a vessel
1828. Agency means :
A shore establishment handles all the ship’s, while it
is in port
1829. Stevedore means:
The personnel who perform cargo operations
1830. Purser is :
The staff officer who handles paper work and
records for master
1831. The minimum standard of competence
for ratings forming part of a navigational watch
are: Steer the ship and comply with helm orders
also in the English language
1832. Tramps means:
Sail all parts of the world
1833. If we are going to build a ship what should
you pay attention
Cost
1834. Scope of cover by P&I :
Liability for marine pollution damage
1835. If the charterer completed cargo
operations before the time he was allowed, the
owner should pay, we call:
Demurrage
1836. Mate’s received is given and signed by :
Master
1837. A statement which declares that there is
nothing wrong or suspected wrong with the
apparent quality and quantity, what should we call:
Clean Bill of Lading
1838. one of the function B.L is:
A received for good shipped on board
1839. Ship’s
communication on board
consist of: Ship’s radio
1840. Refrigerated cargo is one of:
The type of cargo
1841. Radio direction finder is on of the electronic
aids to navigation for:
To indicate the ship’s position by signal
1842. The master will ensure that all the shipbord
operation are carried out as:
Per procedure laid down in the company’s SMS &
QMS
1843. Base on the colreg rule no 6 about safe
speed means:
She can take proper and effective action to avoid
collision
English Language
1844. Certain basic precautions, when in port,
need to be taken to ensure the vessel’s overall
security
______ may be necessary for the protection of
unmanned compartments outside the engine
room.
a. Mentioned
1845. The bosun prefers swimming at the
beach ………. Going to discos.
a. Than
1846. __________ propellers has your vessel got?
a. How many
1847. They drove for 512 miles
a. Over five hundred
1848. How frequent should reports from
protection and environmental work be send to
shore based management.
a. Annually
1849. What are AB’s doing on main deck right
now?
a. They are doing chipping on main deck
1850. Chief officer __________ a car but he
__________ it very often
a. Has – is not driving
1851. Referring to the SOLAS convention, how
often should a crew member on a cargo ship
participate in one abandon ship drill and one fire
drill?
a. Monthly
1852. X: why didn’t you answer my phone last
night?
Y: Sorry, I ………. Out to meet may lecturer,
and I left my mobile phone at home
a. Am going
1853. When a vessel has positive stability, the
distance between the line of force through B and
the line of through G is called the __________.
a. Righting arm
1854. Which statement is TRUE of a tender vessel ?
a. Its period of roll is long
1855. On an inspection of your tankship you
notice that __________ no portable fire
extinguishers in the pumproom. To comply with
requlations, you __________ arrange to have a
B-II extinguisher placed in the lower pumproom.
a. There are – should
1856. If, for any reason, it is necessary to
abandon ship __________ far out at sea, it is
important that the crew members __________
remain together in the area because rescuers
will start searching at the vessel’s last known
position.
a. When – must
1857. __________ to carry a spare face mask?
a. Did you forget
1858. What does the word “pirates” mean?
a. Pirates are persons who attempt to board and
take over a ship at sea
Monitor and control compliance with legislative
requirements and measures to ensure safety of
life at sea, security and protection of the marine
environment
1859. The reporting of incidents involving
harmful substances and / or marine pollutants
is regulated under which international
guidelines?
a. Protocol I of MARPOL
Control trim, stability and stress
1860. Which of the following is a definition of
the “Proper Shipping Name”, as found in the
IMDG code?
a. The name to be used in any documentation
relating to the transportation of the
dangerous substance, material or article,
such as on forms, labels and placards.
1861. As understood within the IMDG code, what
is an “article”?
a. A device that contains a dangerous substance
or mixture of substances
1862. A cargo ship construction certificate has a
validity of:
a. 5 years
1863. Which of the following statements is
correct with regard to IMDG class 4
(flammable solids) cargoes loaded on a
General Cargo Vessel?
a. The goods require protection against
movement and can only be loaded is a cargo
declaration is supplied by the shipper
1864. On a General cargo ship which of the
following statements is correct?
a. Cold rolled steel coils must never be loaded in
rain
1865. In discussing segregation, the IMDG code
defines what it means by the term “separated
from”.
Which of the following is that definition?
a. In different compartments or holds when
stowed “under deck” provided an intervening
deck is resistant to fire and liquid, a vertical
separation may be accepted as equivalent. For
“on deck” stowage, this segregation means a
distance of least 6 metres.
Carriage of Dangerous Goods
1866. The Classes drawn up by the UN
committee of Experts for the safe handling of
hazardous substances, as listed in the IMDG
code, are drawn up on the basis of which of
the following criteria?
a. The type of hazard they present
1867. You are transporting dangerous cargo on
your vessel. The dangerous cargo manifest
must be signed by the__________.
a. Master or his authorized representative
1868. You will load class 1.2 commercial
explosives and need to construct a portable
magazine. The magazine MUST__________.
a. Be elevated with skids 10 cm (3.9 inches)
above the deck.
1869. IMO recommendations on allowance for
water absorption in timber deck cargoes on a
General cargo vessel state that:
a. 15% additional weight should be used in
stability calculation for the arrival condition
Plan and ensure safe loading, stowage, securing,
care during voyage and unloading of cargoes
1870. Which of the following cargoes can
normally be loaded next to each other in the
same space of a General Cargo Vessel ?
a. Drums of cement and steel pipes
Manoeuvre and handle a ship in all conditions
1871. The bridge is informed by an eye-witness
that a man has just fallen overboard. Which of
the following manoeuvres is the most
appropriate action when the person is still close
to the vessel? a. Williamson turn
Assess reported defects and damage to cargo
spaces, hatch covers and ballast tank
1872. When laying a double layer of dunnage at
the bottom of the hold__________
a. The first tier is laid fore and aft and the second
tier athwarthship
1873. Hatch coaming drains are fitted
with__________
a. Non-return valves
FUNGSI III
CONTROLING THE OPERATION OF THE SHIP AND CARE FOR PERSONS ON BOARD
Use of the leadership and managerial
1. The Safety Management System requires that the shipping company develops and implements?
a. A system to report, analyse and follow up non-conformities, accidents and hazardous situations

a) Leaders are born and not made
3. Why did the Trait Theory of Leadership suffer a decline in interest?

a) Because no consensus could be reached on what to include/omit from the list of necessary traits
4. The major concern of which leadership theory is focused on how a leader can increase employees'
motivation to attain organisational goals?
d. House's Path-Goal.
5. Establishing challenging goals, seeking performance improvement, and displaying confidence that people
will exert high levels of effort, are associated with which element of the path-goal approach
6. Which type of leader energises others?

b. Transformational
7. What type of leader is defined as a visionary and dreamer concerned about charting a mission and
direction?
c. Pathfinding
8. Leadership interventions are needed less, if at all, when which of the following conditions are found
within a group?
c. Individual job expertise, intrinsic task satisfaction, formalised rules and procedures.
9. Which of the following statements describes a key difference between managers and leaders
d. Leaders see themselves as promoters of change, whereas managers focus on preserving the
status quo.
10. The process of motivating, influencing, and directing others in the organization to work productively in
pursuit of organization goals is known as:
a. leadership.
11. Which of the following is a contingency theory of leadership?

b. Fiedler's theory
12. What is the most important factor in the master's ability to make good decisions in an emergency?
a. Feedback from the crew
13. What can cause crewmembers to abdicate their safety roles?

a. Lack of leadership

a. The master and the shipowner are responsible for the adequate manning of the ship.
15. Departmentalization is associated with the task of

organizing
16. A company must update its Safety Management System and Manual:
a. whenever regulations change
17. What are the master's duties if punishable acts are committed on board?
a. If at sea, the master shall immediately undertake an investigation, secure evidence and take
statements, inform Norwegian Consulate/Maritime Directorate

a. He shall ensure obedience by the use of force if he finds it necessary, but not use harsher
means than the circumstances make necessary.
19. The most common form of communication in any organization is

a. nonverbal
20. A supervisor is experiencing poor communication with the people she supervises. The
supervisor’s boss has identified the various barriers to effective communication on that unit.
The worst barrier identified would be
a. poor listening on the part of the supervisor
21. Why is it important to have good relationship on-board a vessel?

a. It leads to better work performance and positive atmosphere among the crew
22. A decision support system for emergency management shall be provided on the navigation bridge.
What type of emergency situations shall as a minimum be identified in the emergency plans?
a. Fire, Damage to ship, Pollution, Unlawful acts threatening the safety of the ship and the
security of its passenger and crew, Pesonnel accidents, Cargo-related accidents, Emergency
assistance to other ships
23. Which of the following persons is considered a connected link between employees and
administration? union representative
a. supervisor
24. The functions of management are equally applicable in large corporations only
a. any organization
25. To maintain good relationship among the crew on board a vessel, one must be:
a. Understanding, Co-operative, and have respect from both sides
26. Of all the resources managed by a supervisor, the most important resource is machinery
a. human resources
27. Which of the following best describes management? the process of coordinating people to achieve
the organization’s purpose
a. the process of coordinating resources to achieve certain results

a. concerned personnel carry out the on-board traing progamme effectively
29. A supervisor directed a subordinate to accomplish a certain task. The supervisor asked the subordinate to
repeat the directions in him own words. The supervisor is
downward communication to ensure effective communication
30. The contemporary management theories discussed in the text have which of the following in common?
a. recognition of the complexity of the environment
31. Which of these is not a principle of great man theory?

d. A great leader is only great in certain situations
d. A list of key characteristics that makes a leader great.
33. What is Skinner's A-B-C of behaviorism? .

a., Antecedents-behavior-consequences
34. Contingency theory is based on the assumption that the ideal leader:
a. Shapes their leadership style depending on the situation.

b. Does deals with people in order to get them to do things the leader wants

c. A leader who inspires the workers to new levels by offering them a vision of
a better future.

a. A theory which states that there is too much emphasis on leaders and more
attention should be placed on followers

C. What counts as good leadership is a construction of the perceptions of the
followers.
39. Which of the following statements concerning the rational and emotional aspects of leadership is
false?
a. Good leadership involves touching others’ feelings

c. Efficiency
41. According to the text, leadership is often more associated with

d. Change
42. This is a conventional distinction made between managers and leaders.

43. Which of the following statements about leaders versus managers is false?
C. Leaders are thought to do things right, managers do the right things
44. According to the text, which of the following statements is true?

a. Leadership and management have some unique functions with an area of overlap
45. What best describes the leader-follower relationship?

c. Leadership and followership merge and are linked concepts
46. Ideal leaders according to a survey were commonly characterized as all of the following except
a. Cooperative

d. Encourages and inspires group members to go above and beyond selfish interests and do
what is the best for the common good of the group as a whole
48. Which style of leadership focuses on goals, standard and organization ?

a. Task leadership
50. People who become leaders in any field tend to first stand out by virtue of their
51. Which of the following statements concerning the reflection component of the AOR model is false?
a. Leaders are always aware of the value of reflection in leadership development
52. Master of every ship must provide

a. A link between the shipboard training officer and the company training officer ashore
53. Onboard training should be organized in such a way that:

54. The majority of conventions adopted under the auspices of IMO fall into which of the three main
categories
a. Maritime Safety, Prevention of Marine pollution, Liability and compensation
55. Why is it important to make weekly/routine rounds in the accomodation areas?

a. To ensure that cabins and common spaces are maintained in a clean, safe
and hygienic condition
56. All necessary information for the next port of call should be:
57. An emergency situation on board must be reported to the company by:

58. If Master finds reason to doubt whether the agent is giving the vessel's interest full and proper
attention he should:
a. Investigate the matter carefully and report the findings to the company
59. Prior to arrival at a US port from a foreign port, as per present regulation, the USCG requires
a. 96 hours notice of arrival
60. Prior to ordering stores for any department

a. The store inventory should be checked so that you order only the items required
61. Proper and accurate inventory of stores should be maintained in order to:
62. Representative of the port authorities should always receive the best possible treatment
a. For ship's clearance to take place quickly and without complications
63. The office phone, fax, telex and after office hours telephone numbers can be found in:
64. The responsible person for maintaining budget on board normally is:
a. Master
65. Where will you normally find the ship's documents including Crew Passports and CDC on board a
vessel?
a. Ship's Office
66. Which of the following will be reported to a company on the emergency phone?
67. Who is responsible for the safe keeping of the ship's documents?
a. Master
68. The document which shows a vessel's nationality, ownership, and tonnage is the
c. Certificate of Documentation
69. What requires a Report of Marine Accident, Injury or Death?

d. All of the above
70. You have completed a Dangerous Cargo Manifest for dangerous cargoes loaded on board It should be
kept in a conspicuous location __________.
c. On or near the bridge
71. Total responsibility for shipping and discharging the seamen is that of the
77. seaman about to be discharged has a Continuous Discharge Book. Which statement is TRUE ?
a. Certificate of Discharge with the white copy forwarded to the Commandant or The record of
entry in the book must be submitted to the Coast Guard
78. A supervisor directed a subordinate to accomplish a certain task. The supervisor asked the
subordinate to repeat the directions in him own words. The supervisor is...
a. Downward communication to ensure effective communication
79. Of all the resources managed by a supervisor, the most important resource is...
c. Human resources
80. Which of the following persons is considered connected link between employees and administration?
a. Supervisor
81. the function of management are equally applicable in

c. any organization
82. which of the following best describe management ?

b. the process of coordinating resources to achieve certain result
83. According to a survey research by Judith Rosener, in terms of their leadership experiences
a. Women helped subordinates develop commitment for broader goals than their own self-
interest
84. What term did Rosener coin to describe how some women leaders encouraged participation and
shared power and information, but went far beyond what is commonly thought of as participative
management?
a. Interactive leadership
85. Which type of leader energizes others?

b. Transformational
86. Women leaders‟ interactive leadership style developed

a. Due to their socialization experiences and career paths
87. According to female executives, what is the major factor that prevents senior female executives from
advancing to corporate leadership?
a. Male stereotyping and preconceptions
88. According to a recent study, one of the general factors that explains the shift toward more women
leaders is that women themselves have change. It is evident in all except
a. Women’s aspirations and attitudes have become less similar to those of men over time
89. The symbolic message often intended by appointment of women to important leadership positions is
evidence of the fact that
90. What describes a kind of learning between the individual and the environment in which learners seek
relatively little feedback that may significantly confront their fundamental ideas or actions?
a. Single-loop learning
91. Confronting one‟s beliefs, inviting others to challenge you and working on personal blind spots are
aspects of the process of
b. Double-loop learning
92. Mastering _____ can be thought of as learning how to learn.

93. In an organization, one can gain valuable perspectives and insights through close association with an
experienced person willing to take one under his/her wing. Such an individual is often called a
a. Mentor
94. The process by which an older and more experienced person helps to socialize and encourage
younger organizational colleagues is called
a. Mentoring
95. How are mentorees benefited in a mentoring relationship ?

a. By gaining an influential ally and by learning about the subtler aspects
of organizational ethics
96. What is seen as an investment that can help change counterproductive behavior, often interpersonal,
that threatens to derail an otherwise valued manager?
a. Executive coaching
97. The proper way to correct a mistake in the logbook is to __________

d. Draw one line through the entry, rewrite, and initial the correction
98. Your vessel is in a foreign port and you find that one of the crew members has been incarcerated for
drunkenness. The Official Logbook shows that the seaman doesn't have funds to cover the costs of the fine.
Which action should the Master take?
a. Pay the seaman's fine
99. An alien crewmember with a D-1 permit leaves the vessel in a foreign port and fails to return. The first
report you make should be to the __________.
a. Immigration Service
100. Your vessel is on an extended foreign voyage. Several vacancies have occurred in your Unlicensed
crew through sickness and repatriation. Which statement is correct?
a. Qualified aliens may be employed to fill the vacancies
101. While a vessel is in a foreign port where there is no American Consul, a seaman becomes violent prior
to sailing. The Master should __________
a. Put the seaman in irons and sail to the next port where there is an American Consul
102. seaman is entitled by law to a release from Foreign Articles when __________.
b. The vessel is overloaded
103. Who is responsible for providing urine specimen collection kits to be used following a serious marine
incident?
a. The marine employer
104. If there are any changes in the crew in a foreign port, the changes will be made by
b. The Master on the Shipping Articles
105. functional leader is one who:

106. Which of the following statements concerning the rational and emotional
aspects of leadership is false?

c. Efficiency
108. Ideal leaders according to a survey were commonly characterized as all of the
following except
d. Cooperative
109. A seaman lost his continuous discharge book during the voyage. Upon discharge from
Articles, he should be issued a __________.
a. Certificate of Discharge with the white copy forwarded to the Commandant

d. Non verbal
JAWABAN LATIHAN SOAL
KEPEMIMPINAN ETOS KERJA DAN KETERAMPILAN MANAJERIAL
DIKLAT PENINGKATAN (DP) I PERIODE II TAHUN 2019
TANGGAL 18 OKTOBER 2019
KELAS : ANT – I A DAN I B

NAMA :
NIPD :
Bacalah dengan cermat sebelum menjawab. Pilihlah satu jawaban yang benar.
Ketentuan : Lingkari jawaban yang saudara anggap paling benar!.
1. Which of these is not a principle of great man theory?

a. Leaders are born not made.
b. Great men rise up in times of crisis.
c. We can learn from the biographies of great leaders.
d. A great leader is only great in certain situations.

a. A list of the things that make leaders different to everyone else.
b. A list of the key things that a leader should do to be great.
c. The list of key behaviors a leader exhibits.
d. A list of key characteristics that makes a leader great.
3. Contingency theory is based on the assumption that the ideal leader:

a. Shapes their leadership style depending on the situation.
b. Provides clear instructions to the followers so that they know what
they are doing.
c. Knows what their strengths are and makes the most out of them.
d. Spends time with their followers and therefore listens and responds to their
needs.

a. Inspires people and has strong interactions with them
c. Is the ideal form of leadership
d. Works for long-term goals of the organization

a. Someone who is involved in organizational change.
b. A leader, like Taylor, who provided new ways of carrying out management.
c. A leader who inspires the workers to new levels by offering them a vision of
a better future.
d. A leader who tries to transform their staff by giving them rewards
for what they do.
1
6. Which of the following statements concerning the rational and
emotional aspects of leadership is false?
a. Leaders can use rational techniques and/or emotional appeals in
order to influence followers
b. Leadership includes actions and influences based only on reason and logic
c. Aroused feelings can be used either positively or negatively

a. Dynamism
b. Risk-taking
c. Efficiency
d. Creativity
8. According to the text, leadership is often more associated with

a. Consistency
b. Planning
c. Paperwork
d. Change
9. This is a conventional distinction made between managers and leaders.

b. Managers innovate while leaders administer
c. Managers inspire while leaders control
d. Managers originate while leaders imitate
10. Which of the following statements about leaders versus managers is false?
a. Leadership is a value-laden, activity, management is not
b. Leaders focus on risk taking; managers perform functions such as
planning and controlling
c. Leaders are thought to do things right, managers do the right things
d. Leaders develop, managers maintain unit 1 Examination 29 Leadership
11. According to the text, which of the following statements is true?

a. Leadership and management have some unique functions
with an area of overlap
b. A good leader can be a good manager, but the reverse is never true
c. Leadership and management are not related
d. Leadership and management are effectively the same for all
practical purposes
12. What best describes the leader-follower relationship?

a. The relationship is a one-way street
b. Leadership and followership are the same thing
c. Leadership and followership merge and are linked concepts
d. It is based on the idea of ‘one-man leadership’
2
13. Ideal leaders according to a survey were commonly characterized as
all of the following except
a. Honest
b. Competent
c. Forward-looking
d. Cooperative

a. Encourages group members to transform themselves into better people
b. Strives to change the group members opinions by showing them a better
way to think
c. Changes opinions and attitudes without changing behaviors
d. Encourages and inspires group members to go above and beyond
selfish interests and do what is the best for the common good of the
group as a whole
15. Which style of leadership focuses on goals, standard and organization ?

a. Task leadership
b. Social leadership
c. Semantic leadership
d. Transformational leadership
16. People who become leaders in any field tend to first stand out by virtue of their
b. Technical proficiency
c. Emotional intelligence
d. Intercultural competence
17. A supervisor directed a subordinate to accomplish a certain task. The supervisor asked
the subordinate to repeat the directions in him own words. The supervisor is...
a. Downward communication to ensure effective communication
b. Using filtering to improve communication
c. Using feedback to ensure effective communication
d. Diagonal communication to enhance communication
18. Of all the resources managed by a supervisor, the most important resource is...
a. Machinery
b. Materials
c. Human resources
d. Money
19. Which of the following persons is considered connected link between employees
and administration?
a. supervisor
b. Professional workers
c. Union representative
d. Physician
3
a. Written
b. Oral
c. Visual media
d. Non verbal
21. A supervisor is experiencing poor communication with the People she supervises. The
supervisor's boss has identified the various barriers to effective communication on that
unit. The most barrier identified would be.
a. workplace diversity
b. Status and position
c. Resistance to organizational change
d. Poor listening on the part of the supervisor.
22. The contemporary management theories discussed in the text have which of the
following in common.?
a. freedom of employees to act
b. recognition of the complexity of the environment
c. realization that organization will eventually fail
d. the presence of predictable event in the organization
23. The function of management are equally applicable in

a. large corporation
b. small business only
c. any organization
d. education institution only
24. Which of the following best describe management ?

a. getting thing done through and with technical resource
b. the process of coordinating resources to achieve certain result
c. the poll of highly paid individuals who direct an organization
d. the process of coordinating people to achieve the organization’s purpose

a. Leaders are born and not made
b. Leaders are made and have to learn how to be a leader
c. That everyone can become a leader
d. Leaders need to be trained
26. Why did the Trait Theory of Leadership suffer a decline in interest?
a. Because no consensus could be reached on what to include/omit from the
list of necessary traits
b. Because feminist writers disliked the idea
c. Because traits could not be measured
d. Because older children performed better at school
4
27. The major concern of which leadership theory is focused on how a leader can increase
employees' motivation to attain organisational goals?
a. Situational Leadership
b. Vroom and Yetton Decision Tree.
c. Fiedler's Contingency.
d. House's Path-Goal.
28. Establishing challenging goals, seeking performance improvement, and displaying

confidence that people will exert high levels of effort, are associated with which
element of the path-goal approach
a. Supportive leadership.
b. Participative leadership.
d. None of the above.

a. Transactional
b. Transformational
b. Authoritative
c. None of the above.
30. What type of leader is defined as a visionary and dreamer concerned about charting a
mission and direction?
a. Transformational
b. Transactional
c. Pathfinding
31. The process of motivating, influencing, and directing others in the organization to work
productively in pursuit of organization goals is known as:
a. leadership.
b. management.
c. charisma.
d. strategic thinking.
32. Which of the following is a contingency theory of leadership?

a. power-influence theory
b. Fiedler's theory
c. trait theory
d. emotional intelligence theory
33. What is the most important factor in the master's ability to make good decisions in an
emergency?
a. Feedback from the crew
b. Input from company personnel
c. Planning of emergency procedures
d. Following safety regulations
5
34. What can cause crewmembers to abdicate their safety roles?
a. Lack of leadership
b. No lifeboat drills for passengers
c. Inadequate fire-fighting training
d. Inadequate fire-fighting provisions
35. Departmentalization is associated with the task of

a. influencing
b. controlling
c. staffing
d. organizing
36. The contemporary management theories discussed in the text have which of the
following in common?
a. freedom of employees to act
b. the presence of predictable events in the organization
c. recognition of the complexity of the environment
d. realization that organizations will eventually fail

a. Transactional
b. Transformational
c. Authoritative
d. None of the above.
38. In an organization, one can gain valuable perspectives and insights through close
association with an experienced person willing to take one under his/her wing. Such an
individual is often called a
a. Supervisor
b. Facilitator
c. Role model
b. Mentor
39. The process by which an older and more experienced person helps to socialize and
encourage younger organizational colleagues is called
a. Evaluating
b. Consulting
c. Mentoring
d. Networking
40. What is seen as an investment that can help change counterproductive behavior, often
interpersonal, that threatens to derail an otherwise valued manager?
a. Mentoring
b. Executive coaching
c. Team building
b. Change management
6
41. Which of the following statements describes a key difference between managers and
leaders
a. Managers do the right things, whereas leaders do things right.
b. Managers focus on vision, mission, and goals, whereas leaders focus on
efficiency.
c. Management is about coping with change, whereas leadership is about coping
with complexity
d. Leaders see themselves as promoters of change, whereas managers focus on
preserving the status quo.
42. Quantitative approaches for decision-making are most often associated with :
a. Programmed decision making
b. Decisions made by team leaders
c. Complex decision with controlled environments
d. Decisions made by first line supervisors
43. Vertical coordination is comparable to horizontal coordination because :

a. Both involve departments at varying levels of the organization
b. Both involve other departments
c. Both involve department and persons on the same organizational level
b. Neither requires communication efforts
44. Which of the following is not a major management dimension ?

a. Maintaining satisfactory relationships with others
b. Being a public spokesperson for the organization
c. Being a good boss
d. Being a competent subordinate
45. In the decision-making process, a manager should

a. Develop an alternative course of action
b. limited the number of choices
c. Ensure that all employees contribute alternatives
b. Develop as many alternatives as possible
46. What is referent power in leadership ?

a. Power that is designated by an organizational authority
b. Power that is based on attraction or identification with another person
c. Power that stems from a persons leadership skill
d. Power that group members acknowledge because of special circumstances
47. Which of the following assumptions is characteristic of contingency approaches to

leadership
a. Cultural valves will effect the type of leadership likely to be effective
b. Members skill and experience will effect the type of leader ship likely to be
effective
c. Group situations very with different situations, requiring different leader ship
styles
7
d. All of the above
48. The.....leadership style is an expression of the leaders trust in the abilities of his
subordinates
a. Participative
b. b. All of the above
c. Delegative
d. Authoritarian
49. Which of the following has been identified as a source of power in the leadership ?
a. Legitimate referent
b. All of the above
c. Reward
b. Punishment
50. The examination of characteristics relating to leadership, such as enthusiasm, verbal

skill, creativity, critical thinking ability, and self – confidence, is a refered to as a........
a. Situational approach
b. Styles approach
c. Traits approach
b. Communication approach
51. The two dimentions of leadership which emerged from the leader behavior description
questionnaire were consideration and......
a. Deliberate
b. Initiating structure
c. Commanding
b. Energizing
52. All of the following describes planning except :

a. A road map for managers
b. A continuous process
c. Deciding in advance what is to be done in the future
d. A process perform by senior managers only
53. Hunches are most often associated with

a. non-programmed decision making
b. brainstorming
c. programmed decision making
d. scientific decision making
54. To enhance the recall process of information shared, one should

a. shout the information repetitively to the recipient
b. read the information to the intended recipient
c. utilize visuals for the intended recipient
d. read and visually display the information for the recipient
8
56. Individuals recall more information when they
a. read, hear, and see it
b. read it multiple times
c. hear and see it
d. hear it
57. Which of the following is the most powerful method of communication?

a. the written word
b. body language
c. feedback
d. voice mail
58. Which of the following is the most reliable channel of communication?

a. informal channel
b. grapevine
c. formal channel
d. directional channel
59. Written communications to one’s supervisor should

a. be timely, and provide findings and recommendations
b. occur during the scheduled meetings
c. be delayed until a resolution has been secured
d. not cause the supervisor any grief
60. Genuine desire, listening, and being approachable are techniques to encourage
a. downward communication
b. upward communication
c. informal communication
d. diagonal communication
- SELAMAT BEKERJA -
9
LATIHAN SOAL TAHAP KEDUA
KEPEMIMPINAN, ETOS KERJA DAN KETERAMPILAN MANAJERIAL
DIKLAT PENINGKATAN (DP) I PERIODE III TAHUN 2019
BIDANG KEAHLIAN NAUTIKA
TANGGAL 4 NOVEMBER 2019
KELAS : ANT – I A
NAMA :
NIPD :
Bacalah dengan cermat sebelum menjawab. Pilihlah satu jawaban yang benar.
Ketentuan : Lingkari jawaban yang saudara anggap paling benar.
1. What is Skinner's A-B-C of behaviorism?

a. Antecedents-behavior-consequences
b. Attitude-behavior-conclusions
c. Aptitude-behavior-consequences
d. Antecedents-behavior-conditioning

a. A theory which states that there is too much emphasis on
leaders and more attention should be placed on followers.
b. A theory looking beyond current leadership styles to new, more
creative ways of leading.
c. A theory which tries to create new organizations which do not need leaders.
d. A theory which tries to find the ideal form of leadership.

a. The view that all leadership is social and what matters is how
leaders interact with others.
b. Leadership is a made up idea that therefore we should pay more
attention to more significant aspects of the organization.
c. What counts as good leadership is a construction of the
perceptions of the followers.
d. Leadership is something that the leader constructs as they meet with others.
4. Which of the following statements concerning the reflection component of

the AOR model is false?
a. Leaders are always aware of the value of reflection in leadership
development
b. It is the most neglected component of the AOR model
c. It can provide leaders with a variety of insights into how to frame problems
differently
1
d. A reason for the reflection component to be neglected often may be due to
time pressure at work

a. Concerned personnel carry out the on board training program
effectively
b. All information regarding the on-board training is given to the ship manager
c. All personnel participate in the training at the same time
d. Safety equipment is not used during the training
6. Master of every ship must provide:

a. A link between the shipboard training officer and the company
training officer ashore
b. Facilities to conduct training whenever required by the training officer
c. Proper rest to the crew after each training program
d. The training during crews working hours only
7. Onboard training should be organized in such a way that:

b. It does not contravene with the rest hours of the crew
c. Each crew member is trained individually
8. To maintain good relationship among the crew on board a vessel, one must be:
a. Understanding, Co-operative, and have respect from both sides
b. Strict and authoritative while giving orders
c. Polite and diplomatic while talking to crew members
d. Give authority to others
9. Why is it important to have good relationship on-board a vessel?

a. It leads to better work performance and positive atmosphere among the
crew
b. It will prevent accidents from happening
c. It encourages crew to extend their contract
d. Crew comes to know each others problems
10. Why is it important to make weekly/routine rounds in the accomodation areas?

a. To ensure that cabins and common spaces are maintained in a clean,
safe and hygienic condition
b. To search for any contraband goods hidden on board
2
c. It is a requirement as per flag state
d. To check for alcohol in cabins
11. All necessary information for the next port of call should be:
b. Procured during the voyage prior arrival at the next port
c. Procured on arrival at the next port
d Requested on email
12. An emergency situation on board must be reported to the company by:

b. The Telex to have a record
c. The email to save cost
d. The Sat-C
13. If Master finds reason to doubt whether the agent is giving the vessel's interest
full and proper attention he should:
a. Investigate the matter carefully and report the findings to the company
b. Report the matter to the harbour Master
c. Report to the vessel P & I club
d. Change the agent
14. Prior to arrival at a US port from a foreign port, as per present regulation, the
USCG requires:
a. 96 hours notice of arrival
b. 72 hours notice of arrival
c. 48 hours notice of arrival
d. 24 hour notice of arrival
15. Prior to ordering stores for any department;

a. The store inventory should be checked so that you order only the items
required
b. Consult the ISSA catalogue to ascertain what stores are available for
ordering
c. Consult the ISSA catalogue and order whatever is available but not on board
d. Ask the departmental head for a list of store to be ordered
16. Proper and accurate inventory of stores should be maintained in order to:
b. Order the required stores
c. Report to the office
3
d. Show to the port authorities
17. Representative of the port authorities should always receive the best possible
treatment:
a. For ship's clearance to take place quickly and without
complications
b. Because you always have some faults in arrival/departure
documents
c. Because the ship's trading certificate are not normally in order
d. Because you have undeclared
dutiable items in excess of permitted on board
18. The office phone, fax, telex and after office hours telephone numbers can be
found in:
b. Vessel health, safety and environment manual
c. Vessel operation manual
d. Radio log book
19. The responsible person for maintaining budget on board normally is:
a. Master
b. Chief Engineer
c. Chief Officer
d. Chief Steward
20. Where will you normally find the ship's documents including Crew Passports
and CDC on board a vessel?
a. Ship's Office
b. Master's cabin
c. On the bridge
d. Tally clerk room
21. Which of the following will be reported to a company on the emergency phone?
b. All arrival and departure time from port
c. All cases concerning cargo shortages
d . All near misses
22. Who is responsible for the safe keeping of the ship's documents?
a. Master
4
b. 3rd Officer
c. Chief Engineer
d. Chief Officer
23. The document which shows a vessel's nationality, ownership, and tonnage is the
__________.
a. Manifest Certificate
b. Bill of Lading Certificate
c. Certificate of Documentation
d. Official Logbook
DPKP
24. What requires a Report of Marine Accident, Injury or Death?
a. Collision with a bridge
b. Injury beyond first aid
c. Loss of life
d. All of the above
25. You have completed a Dangerous Cargo Manifest for dangerous cargoes
loaded on boar It should be kept in a conspicuous location __________.
a. In the radio room
b. In the ship's office
c. On or near the bridge
d. Outside the Captain's stateroom
26. Total responsibility for shipping and discharging the seamen is that of the
__________.
b. Steamship company
c. Custom Service
d. Coast Guard
27. A seaman about to be discharged has a Continuous Discharge Book.

a. A Certificate of Discharge Form should be attached to the book.
b. An entry should be made in the book and a Certificate of
Discharge Form issued to the seaman.
c. If a vessel was on coastwise articles, the record of discharge will be
made in the Official Logbook.
d. The record of entry in the book must be submitted to the Coast Guard
5
28. According to a survey research by Judith Rosener, in terms of their leadership
experiences,
a. Women tended to describe themselves in transactional terms
b. Men tended to describe themselves in somewhat transformational terms
c. Men influenced others primarily in terms of personal characteristics
d. Women helped subordinates develop commitment for broader goals
than their own self-interest
29. What term did Rosener coin to describe how some women leaders encouraged
participation and shared power and information, but went far beyond what is commonly
thought of as participative management?
a. Autocratic leadership
b. Laissez faire leadership
c. Interactive leadership
d. Transactional leadership unit 1 Examination 30 Leadership
30. The Safety Management System requires that the shipping company develops and
implements?
a. A system to report, analyse and follow up non-conformities, accidents
and hazardous situations
b. A system for voyage planning
c. A system for main engine maintenance
d. A system for managing unplanned maintenance tasks
31. A company must update its Safety Management System and Manual:
a. whenever regulations change
b. at least once every 6 months
c. at least once every 12 months
d. at least once every 18 months
32. What are the master's duties if punishable acts are committed on board?
a. If at sea, the master shall immediately undertake an investigation, secure
evidence and take statements, inform Norwegian Consulate/Maritime
Directorate
b. The company shall be informed and shall take over the case.
c. Alleged suspects should be sent home at the first opportunity.
d. The least possible fuss should be made to ease over the situation
33. A decision support system for emergency management shall be provided on the
navigation bridge. What type of emergency situations shall as a minimum be identified in
the emergency plans?
6
a. Fire, Damage to ship, Pollution, Unlawful acts threatening the safety of the
ship and the security of its passenger and crew, Pesonnel accidents,
Cargo-related accidents, Emergency assistance to other ships
b. Fire, Evacuation, Pollution, Personnel accidents and Ship Security
c. Evacuation, Fire, Pollution and Man-Over-Board
d. Man-Over-Board, Evacuation and Fire
34. What describes a kind of learning between the individual and the environment in which
learners seek relatively little feedback that may significantly confront their fundamental
ideas or actions?
a. Deutero-learning
b. Double loop learning
c. Triple-loop learning
d. Single-loop learning
35. An alien crewmember with a D-1 permit leaves the vessel in a foreign port and fails to
return. The first report you make should be to the __________.
a. Customs Service
b. Immigration Service
c. Local police
b. OCMI
36. A seaman is entitled by law to a release from Foreign Articles when __________.
a. Intoxicated
b. The vessel is overloaded
c. There is a change of home port
d. There is a change of Master
37. Who is responsible for providing urine specimen collection kits to be used following a
serious marine incident?
a. Qualified medical personnel
b. The marine employer
c. The U.S. Coast Guard
d The local police department
38. If there are any changes in the crew in a foreign port, the changes will be made by
a. The Master on the Certified Crew List
b. The Master on the Shipping Articles
c. Consul on the Certified Crew List
d. Consul on the Shipping Articles
39. To be an effective communicator in a team
a. Never Praise your team mates

b. Never Judge your team mates
7
c. Never Listen by yourself
d. Never Respond to your team mates
40. The symbolic message often intended by appointment of women to important leadership
positions is evidence of the fact that
b. Women themselves have changed
c. Leadership roles have changed
d. Organizational practices have changed
a. He shall ensure obedience by the use of force if he finds it necessary,

but not use harsher means than the circumstances make necessary.
b. He has the power of denying the seafarer their democratic right if they refuse
to obey orders given.
c. By giving clear orders and referring to the necessity of having the work carried
out as ordered.
d. Only by giving clear orders in an understandable language. It is not allowed to
use any means which may result in personal injuries.
a. The master and the ship owner are responsible for the adequate
manning of the ship.
b. Marine Department is responsible for the ship being at all times adequately
manned in accordance with Maritime International acts and regulations.
c. The shipping company shall ensure that information on the number and
composition of the crew is posted in the ship and has the sole responsibility
for the ship being adequately manned.
d. The manning agent is responsible for supplying the ship with adequately
qualified seafarers.
43. Leadership interventions are needed less, if at all, when which of the following
conditions are found within a group?
a. Individual job expertise, intrinsic task satisfaction, little structure

b. Individual job expertise, little structure, self directed work teams
c. Individual job expertise, intrinsic task satisfaction, formalised rules and
procedures.
d. All of the above.
44. Mastering _____ can be thought of as learning how to learn.
b. Single-loop learning
8
c. Deutero-learning
d. Triple-loop learning unit 1 Examination 32
45. Confronting one’s beliefs, inviting others to challenge you and working on
personal blind spots are aspects of the process of
a. Attribution
b. Double-loop learning
c. Self-fulfilling prophecy
d. Single-loop learning
46. According to a recent study, one of the general factors that explains the shift
toward more women leaders is that women themselves have change. It is
evident in all except:
a. A trend toward less stereotypically masculine characterizations of leadership
b. Women’s aspirations and attitudes have become less similar to those of
men over time
c. A legislation prohibiting gender-based discrimination at work
d. Changes in organizational norms that put a higher priority on results than an
“old boy” network
47. Most male CEOs attribute the paucity of women in corporate leadership
roles to which of the following?
a. Exclusion from informal networks
b. Women not in pipeline long enough
c. Male stereotyping and preconceptions
d. Inadequacies in the quality of experience for the top spots
48. According to female executives. Which of the following factors least prevents women
from advancing to corporate leadership?
a. Women not being in the pipeline long enough
b. Exclusion from informal networks
c. Inhospitable corporate culture
d. Lack of significant line experience
49. According to female executives, what is the major factor that prevents senior female
executives from advancing to corporate leadership?
a. Lack of significant general management

b. Male stereotyping and preconceptions
c. Inhospitable corporate culture
b. Exclusion from informal networks
50. Women leaders’ interactive leadership style developed
a. Due to their socialization experiences and career paths

b. Because of exchanges with subordinates for services rendered
c. By influencing others primarily through their organizational position and authority
d. Because of their organizational position
9
51. Your vessel is on an extended foreign voyage. Several vacancies have occurred in your
unlicensed crew through sickness and repatriation. Which statement is correct?
a. Aliens may be employed except that all U.S. flag vessels must maintain no less
than 90% U.S. citizens in the crew.
b. Qualified aliens may be employed to fill the vacancies.
c. Seamen to fill vacancies must be flown from U.S. to join the vessel in the
foreign port.
d. Vacancies can only be filled by U.S. citizens with valid Merchant Mariner's
Documents.
52. Your vessel is in a foreign port and you find that one of the crew members has been
incarcerated for drunkenness. The Official Logbook shows that the seaman doesn't
have funds to cover the costs of the fine. Which action should the Master take?
a. Inventory his gear and send it and a pay voucher ashore with the agent.
b. Leave the seaman in jail and log him as a fail to join after the vessel sails.
c. Leave the seaman in jail and log him as a deserter after the vessel sails.
d. Pay the seaman's fine
53. The proper way to correct a mistake in the logbook is to __________
a. Erase the entry and rewrite
b. Draw several lines through the entry, rewrite, and initial the correction
c. Completely black out the entry, rewrite, and initial the correction
d. Draw one line through the entry, rewrite, and initial the correction
54. A seaman lost his continuous discharge book during the voyage. Upon
discharge from Articles, he should be issued a __________.
a. Letter of service on company letterhead signed and sealed by the master
b. Record of Entry in a Continuous Discharge Book for use in
applying for a duplicate book
c. Certificate of Discharge with the white copy forwarded to the
Commandant
d. Mutual Release (CG-2119), and the articles should be annotated
as to the loss
55. Which of the following best describes negligence ?
a. The comsission of an act
b. Doing what a reasonable person would not do, and not doing what you
should
c. Doing what a reasonable person would not do
d. Not doing what a reasonable person would have done
56. Which of the following assumptions is characteristic of contingency approaches to

leadership
a. Cultural valves will effect the type of leadership likely to be effective
10
b. Members skill and experience will effect the type of leader ship likely to be
effective
c. Group situations very with different situations, requiring different leader
ship styles
d. All of the above
57. One of the more difficult tasks for a manager when he or she is coordinating activities is :
a. Planning the coordinating effort
b. Securing cooperation
c. Utilizing automation
d. Identifying the activyties
58. Which of the following is most likely to influence changes to emergency plans and
procedures ?
a. The safety requirements of the USCG
b. The ISM CODE
c. The design and layout of the ship
d. MARPOL
59. An efficient manager will :

a. Acknowledge the presence of the grapevine
b. Be persistent in eliminating the grapevine
c. Fire those who exchange news through the grapevine
d. Not be attuned to the grapevine
60.The doctrine of captain of the ship is exhibited in.....

a. Sport medicine
b. Operating rooms
c. Navy hospitals
d. Nursing rooms
61. If master finds reason to doubt whether the agent is giving the vessel’s interest full and
proper attention he should :
a. Report to the vessel P & I club
b. Change the agent
c. Investigated the master carefully and report the findings to the company
d. Report the matter to the harbour master
62. Which principle suggests that insured (assured) should try to minimize the loss of his
property :
a. Principle of Indemnity
b. Principle of Mitigation
c. Principle of contribution
d. Principle of Proximate Cause
11
63. Verbal communication that is supported by appropriate action will help a supervisor
overcome many barriers. The manager of central supply services could demonstrate
this concept by saying and doing the following
a. I am always available to meet with subordinates. The door to her office is kept
closed
b. I am always available to meet with subordinates. The door to her office
is kept opened
c. I will provide the resources that my staff needs to do their jobs. The people
she supervises are overworked and supplies are limited.
d. I will motivate my staff to be productive. The new employees are not being
oriented to their jobs.
64. Which of the following is not associated with the grapevine?
a. Reliable organizational channel of communication
b. Fulfills the desires of subordinates to be kept posted
c. An outlet for members to relieve apprehension
d. Helps determines what subordinates feel
65. Which is the most important factor in the safety awareness of the ships crew?
a. The shipboard training provided
b. The safety awareness of the senior officers
c. The level of emegency-preparedness
d. The quality of emergency drills.
= SELAMAT BEKERJA =
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KUNCI

50. A vessel sounds two short blasts. This signal

6.While underway at night, a power-driven vessel

80. Can voyage planning be executed on ECDIS?

135. You are in a 360 degrees turn with

136. You have made a turning circle at full

502. A bulk cargo declaration shows that the

1148. If properly secured what benefits do high sided car

33. What does heaving result in?

38. When do vertical accelerations acting on containers

40. Why would a very large container vessel pitch more

1156. After discharging a high density cargo a serious

1160. The vessel is instructed to load alternate holds

49. What are the effects of a bulk vessel loading a

8 The scantling draft of an oil tanker fitted with

8 What is the purpose of girders in the tank?

1175. What arrangement may be installed in

1178. Earlier cellular reefer vessels were constructed

108. Who is responsible for maintaining the vessel's

110. What specific data must be displayed on the loading

123. At large angles of inclination, .

1200. A Cargo Ship Equipment Certificate will be issued for:

1257. In the event of an accidental or other exceptional

1397. Can any ground be given for dismissing a seafarer?

1507. According to the text, which of the following

1556. An alien crewmember with a D-1 permit leaves the

1603. You are signing on a crew. You can

1604. You will load class 1.2 commercial explosives

1605. What does the signal L1210 indicate?

1606. How can the Coast Guard determine that a

1607. Freeing ports on a vessel with solid bulwarks

1608. Following a collision or accident, the Master

1609. A load line certificate is valid for how many years?

1611. What is the most useful drug to reduce a high

1612. On an inspected vessel, when may a stability test

1613. Which item do you NOT have to provide for

1614. Why does a centrifugal bilge pump require

1615. How should longitude 119°56.3'W be written

1616. As the propeller turns, voids are formed on the

1617. What are symptom(s) of a ruptured appendix?

1619. A thirty pound plate would be which thickness?

1621. The vapor pressure of a gas is defined as the

1622. Which statement is TRUE concerning buoyant

1623. Which term indicates the rise in height of the

1624. You are approaching the pilot station with the

1625. A vessel that does not possess any

1626. What is the calling and distress frequency on a

1627. Which action(s) is/are included in crane

1628. Which term describes the distance a

1629. What is the meaning of the signal "G1325"?

1630. Which statement about tunnel bow thrusters fitted

1631. During counterflooding to correct a

1632. Grade D combustible liquids have a maximum

1634. Your ship is dead in the water with the

1635. If a passenger vessel navigating the Great

1636. How should you signal the crane operator to stop

1637. Vessels subject to SOLAS are required to

1638. What is it called when you sort accident victims

1639. A precaution you should take before bunkering is

1640. Overspeed of the diesel engine driving an electric

1641. You are going ahead on twin engines when

1642. You are at sea and have received a General

1643. Which action must be taken annually concerning

1644. A man who is conscious has fallen overboard