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    MADE LSE MADE EASY Indiais Best Insticute for IES, GATE & PSUs GS & ENGINEERING | Test No.21 | Test Centres: Delhi, Hyderabad, Bhopal, Jaipur, Lucknow, Bhubaneswar, Pune, Kolkata, Paina ESE 2023 : PRELIMS EXAM CLASSROOM TEST SERIES al Maximum Marks: 200 APTITUDE Full Syllabus Test-5 : (Paper-l) ‘Duration: 2 hrs. Read the following instructions carefully smination, youshould check that this booklet does 11, Immediately after thecommencement ofthe exa itemsete If so, getitreplaced bya complete test ‘nothave ary unprinted or fom or missing pages 07 booklet 2, Encode clearly the test bookletseries A, B, Cor D as the ‘case may bein the appropriste place in the answer sheet, 4, Youave to enter your Roll Number onthe Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside DO NOT writeanything else on the Test Booklet. 4k. There are our alternatives forthe enswrerto every question For eachquestin for whicha W988 ret thas been given by thecandidate, one-third (039) of themaris assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. Use of Calculatoris not permitted. falters cary equal marks. Attempt ALLstems. Your total marks will depend Only on the ‘A oro copret response withcomesponding reduction for wronganswvers marked by you. 1. Before you proceed fo mezk in the Answer Sheet the response to varous items inthe Test Pookie, you have toil is some particulars in che Answer Shet as per intractons sent to you swith your admission Certificate 8, Affor you have completed fling nll your: responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination fasconeluded, you should hand ver toinvigiator Only the Answer Sheet. Youare permitted to takeavway with you the Test Booklet, DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO For any query write to us, at infoOmadeeasy.in. 2 ESE 2023 Prelims Exam « Classroom Test Series Q1 Consider the following statements regarding failure of materials in tension test: 1. At very low temperatures, ductile materials can also fail by brittle fracture. 2. Highly ductile materials like gold and Tead fail by cup and cone failure. 3. Brittle fracture is more disastrous than ductile failure. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (© 1and3 only (@) 1 2and3 Q.2 Which one of the following statements correctly explains Bauschinger effect? (a) Strengthening of metal by a solute by restricting the motion of the dislocations. (©) Negative strains in lateral directions due to a load in longitudinal direction, {6} Increase in tensile strength due to strain hardening on expense of decrease in compressive strength. (4) Hysteresis on stress strain curve as different paths taken during loading and unloading of a materiel. Q3 Consider the following statements regarding crystallinity in polymers: 1. Polymers normally show partially crystalline nature. 2. Density of polymers increases as crystallinity increases. 3. High crystallinity is more easily obtainable in cross-linked polymers as compared to linear polymers. Which of the above statements are correct? {a) Land 2 only (b) 2and 3 only (9 Land 3 only (4) 1,2and3 Scorch MADE EASY MADE EASY QA Which one of the following transformations Os Qs as takes place during devitrification of inorganic glasses? (a) Non-crystalline to fine grained cxystalline state, (b) Crystalline to amorphous super cooled state. (6) Polycrystalline to monocrystalline state. (4) Fine grained crystalline to coarse crystalline, Which one of the following, is predominant form of corrosion in ceramic materials? (0) Chemical dissolution (@) Swelling (©) Weathering (d) Bond rupture due to radiation Which of the following are advantages of Polymer Matrix Composite over Metal Matrix Composites? (2) Higher strength, Light Weight. {b) High operating temperature, better environmental resistance. (0 Light weight, low cost and easy fabrication. (d) Better resistance to moisture and abrasives. Which one of the following is the reason to perform vulcanisation of rubber? (a) To promote branching of linear polymers. (b) To promote higher degree of polymerization. (6) To promote cross linking of polymers. (d) To increase extensibility of the rubber. When trivalent impurity such as gallium or boron is added in Si and Ge, the semiconductor is called (@) intrinsic (©) petype extrinsic (9) type extrinsic (d) none of the above wernmadeeasyin MADE EASY GS & Enginecring Aptitude | Test21 3 8 awe Q.14 Super conductivity is destroyed: (a) m 1, At high temperature (2 Afm (a) Tesla/m 2. Athigh magnetic field Q.10 Clausius-Mesotti relation contains which of 3. In presence of magnetic impurities the following assumptions? Select the correct answer using the codes 1. The polarizability of molecules is given below: isotropic. (a) 1 and 2 only 2, The arrangement of molecules is (b) 2and 3 only isotropic. (© Land 3 only Select the correct answer using the codes (4) 1, 2and3 Biven below: QU5 Which of the following is NOT i in ies) pow wing is NOT ineluded Product Design Specification (PDS)? (9) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (@) Product Mentification Q.11 The Hall effect may be used to: (b) Financial requirements 1, To determine the carrier concentration. (©) Engineer satisfaction 2. To calculate mobility of carriers, (d) Life cycle target 3. Used to measure strength of magnetic Q16 Consider the following statements a regarding methods of engineering: 4, Determine whether the semiconductor 1. In case of sequential engineering, the is ptype or m-type. Information flows only in one direction Select the correct answer using the codes and it is not until the end of the chain given below: that causes time consumption due to (2) Land 2 only many modifications, (b) 2and 3 only 2. Concurrent engineering brings together (© 3and 4 only multi-disciplinary teams, in which (d) 1,2,3.and4 product developers from different Qal2 The magnetic moment of a single electron fanctions work together and in parallel due to its spin alone is togetthings right as quickly as possible. 1 Which of the above statements is/are (a) -2P, ©) “Fe correct? A {a) Lonly © -> (a) -Pp (b) 2 only (©) Both 1 and 2 Q.13 Curie-Weiss law is obeyed by (a) Neither 1 nor 2 (@) Paramagnetic materials (b) Anti-ferromagnetic materials below curie temperature (©) Ferromagnetic materials above Curie Q.17 Concept of “Vanishing Point” is related to ‘which projection method? (0) Perspective projection {b) Cavalier projection temperature ales pro (4) Ferromagnetic material below Curle (€) Cabinet projection temperature (@) Isometric projection cceor: MADE EASY wawmadeonsyla 4 ESE 2023 Prelims Exam « Classroom Test Series QA18 If the front and top views of a line are inclined at 30° and 60° respectively to the Teference ling, the true inclination of the line with ELP. will be (2) Greater than 30° (b) Less than 30° (© Greater than 60° (@) Less than 60° Q.19 Two points A and B are on HP. The point Ais 16 mm in front of V.P. while point B is behind V.P. The distance between their Projectors is 72:mm and the line joining their top views make an angle of 45° with the reference line. the distance of B from V.P. will be @ 8mm —(b) 52mm. © 44mm (4) 56mm Q.20 Consider the following statements regarding fire lifts : 1, Each fire lift shall be equipped with suitable intercommunication equipment for communicating with the control room on the ground floor of the building, 2. Fire lift should be provided with a ceiling hatch for use in case of ‘emergency, so that when the car gels stuck up, it shall be easily operable. 3. Automatic changeover from normal supply to generator supply is not important because the generator room may be easily be accessible in case of a severe fire, Which of the above statements ate correct? (2) Land 2 only (b) 2and3 only (©) 1and3 only (d}1,2and3 MADE EASY Q.21 Which of the following statement is NOT correct regarding operating characteristic (OC) curve? {a) To obtain ideal OC curve, the sample size should be infinite. (b) As the sample size increases, the OC curve becomes more and more discriminating. (© The OC curve is the primary tool for representing and investing the properties of a lot acceptance sampling plan. (@) As the acceptance number increases keeping the lot size constant, the OC curve becomes more and more steeper. 0.22 Economic order quantity is the quantity at which the cost of carrying is (@) minimum (©) equal to the cost of ordering (6) less than the cost of ordering (@) more than the cost of ordering 223 Consider the following statements with respect to service quality : 1. Service quality is a measure of how well a delivered service matches customers’ expectations. 2 Objective service quality is the customers perceived conformity of working result with expected benefit: 3. Subjective service quality is the concrete measurable conformity of working result with previously defined benefit. Which of the abave statements is/are correct? (a) Lonly (b) 2and 3 only (©) Land 3 only (d) 1,2and3 Somme: MADE EASY wavnmadeeasy!0 MADE EASY Q.24 In GAP model of service quality, GAPA is elated to: {a) Customer satisfaction (b) Absence of goal setting (¢) Service performance gap (a) Tendency to overpromise Q.25 The reliability of a repairable product by exponential distribution is given R() = €9%% and mean time to repair is 30 hours, The mean time to failure for the product {in hours) is {@) 200 {b) 250 (9 170 (a) 150 Q26 Consider the following statements regarding quality process: 1. Quality assurance is a corrective tool while quality control is a managerial tool 2. Quality assurance is product oriented while quality control is process oriented. 3. Quality assurance is a proactive quality process while quality control is a reactive quality process. Which of the above statements is/are correct? @ lonly —() only (©) 1and3 only (a) 1 and 2 only 2.27 With reference to customer consider the following statements : 1. Internal customer is one who purchases a commodity or service, 2. External customers are the driving forces behind an organizations business. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (2) Lonly (b) Zonly (0) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 GS Engineering Aptitude | Test 21 5 2.28 A machine costs Rs, 16000. By constant rate of declining balance method of depreciation, its salvage value after an expected life of 3 years is Rs.2000. The rate of depreciation is, (@) 0.25 © 050 (b) 0.30 (a) 0.40 Q.29 An earned value analysis is performed and it gives the following results: Budgeted cost of work scheduled «BCWS) ~ 10500 Budgeted cost for work performed (Bcwr) = 5000 Actual cost of work performed (ACWP) - 6600 ‘The values for cost variance and schedule variance are respectively a) ~1500, -5500 (b) -1500, 4000 (©) ~4000, 5500 (a) ~4000, 1500 Q.30 The discounting rate which delivers a net Present value of an investment exactly equal to zero is (a) IRR {) ARR (b) Profitability index (4) NPV Q31 Which of the following is not the specification of a project? (@) Project is a set of inter-related activities over a fixed period of time. *(b) Project is unique in nature (@ Project is a temporary endeavours undertaken to create a unique product, service or result (a) A project doesn’t have a definite end Q32 Consider the following statements regarding matrix organization: 1. In matrix organization, priorities continuously changes. cconmont MADE EASY wow madeoasyin ESE 2023 Prelims Exam + Classroom Test Series mADE EASY 2. In matrix organization, conflicts are minimal Which of the above statements is/are correct? (@) 1 only (b) 2 only (©) Both 1 and 2 (A) Neither 1 nor 2 Q.33 Consider the following statements regarding kickoff meeting : 1. Kickoff meetings helps to discuss the role of the team members. 2. In this meeting, all the stakeholders understand the risks, assumptions and constraints of the project 3. Kickoff means that the work starts. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1and2 only (b) 2and 3 only (©) Land 3 only (d) 1 2and3 2.34 The expected return from security A and B under the two different states of economy are given in the table below: Economie] papitny| Return from Return from condition | 77P2PY security A(ts}pcearity B(%) Good | OF 0% 0% Bod 03, 5% 30% If the portfolio investment is in securities A and B, then expected return from portfolio assuming that the proposed investment is divided equally among the two securities is (a) 22.75% — (b) 17.50% (©) 33.33% — (d) 25.00% Q.35 Consider the following statements regarding the objectives of post audit: 1. Identifying the general requirements of a project and breaking it down into discrete activities. 2. Establishing correct time cost relationship. ccopreht MADE ERSY 3. Building up an information base which help in proper estimation of project cost and time. Which of the above statements is/are INCORRECT? (a) i and 2 only (b) 1 only (Q 2only (a) 1. 2and3 Q.36 Resources levelling means: 1. Adjustment of resources to have least variation 2. Validating network depending on resource constraints Which of the above statements is/are correct? {a) 1only (b) Zonly (0) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q.37 Which communication method is used by the project team to share plans and results of project activities? (a) Exchange plans managements system (b) Project change management (© Project management information system (d) Project integration management 0.38 A network diagram is shown below. The critical path of activities is Q.39 How many words can be formed by using all the letters of the word ‘DAUGHTER’ so that the vowels always come together? (@) 720 (b) 600 (©) 3600 (4) 4320 wwmadeossyin mAapeE EASY GS & Engineering Aptitude | Test 21 7 (Q.a0 The diagram below represents the student (a) 5:4 © 6:5 who study Physics, Chemistry and (c) 25:18 (a) 25:24 Mathematics. Study the diagram and identify the region which represents the students who study Physics and Mathematics but not Chemistry. Prysieg ¥ chemistry is 8 ZF Mathmetios @T () P+T+s ov (d) P+T+S+R+Usy Quit Five courses - A, B, C, D and E each of one month duration are to be taught from January to May one after the other though not necessarily in the same order by lectures P, QR Sand 7. P teaches course 'B’ but not in the month of April or May. Q teaches course ‘A in the month of March. R teaches in the month of January but does net teach course “C or’D’. Which course is taught by S? fc QE (©) Either C or D (@D Q.42 The solution of the differential equation (a) family of parabolas (b) family of circles (©) family of hyperbolas (d) family of straight lines 243 A dog pursues a cat and take 5 leaps for every 6 leaps of the cat, but 4 leaps of the dog are equal to 5 leaps of the cat, The ratio of speed of dog to the speed of cat is Ccoret MADE EASY Q.44 In a class of 150 students, 45 study history, 65 study geography, 10 study both history and geography. The number of students who study neither history nor geography is @) 3 (b) 55 © 30 @ Q45 Ina function each guest shakes hands with every other guest. There were total 78 hand shakes in the party. How many guests were present in the party? @ 2 ) 13 ou @u Q.46 Two cylinders of equal volumes have their heights in the ratio of 3 : 4. The ratio of their radi is (a) 2:43 (b) tv © VEE (d) V2:N3 Q.47 In a single throw with two dice, the probability that dhe sum s a perfect square is 1 1 @F oF 2 7 OF Oy Q.48 The speed of a boat increases by 2 km/h after every one hour. If the distance travelled in the first one hour was 35 kms, the total distance (in km) travelled in 22 hours is (a) 260km (6) 552k (©) 280km — (4) 560km .49 The value of integral 1 gsinnz? + cosa” 2a? (@-De-3) [Here Cis a square with comers at 42 £2] @1 (05 (15 (2 wawimedesasyin mADE EAsy 80,10 and Baste two unt vectors mets that 28 awl Sak ave perpondicutar to each ather, then the angle between dane Whe (a) a5" (h) 60" We n (a) em u QSL IC three distinct numbers are chonen randomly from the (ist 100 natural nuuinbers, then the probabiity (hat all three ‘of theme ore clivinible hy 2 and 3 Ia 4 95 4 ) Tiss parlinl differential eq (v- au min (et aru 2 dv? Ady!) 2 ay? Jo be parabolic, the value of 8? bt wat @ yea OG Pa] oS Q.59 The snlution of the differential equation (a at ay oy de ‘ 4 Fy 0 In ae tae ae (a) Ce? Cyan ey Cycom (0) Cyl Cy ain £ Creo fo) (Cy Faye" Cyr? Ww | Cyanine 4 Cy cose 2-100 0400 QS AM |) 4 9 a) Men tntee of matrix oo 413 Ain (7 (by 4 (93 an 2.08 hue value of pmo for will the Function Jn continuous for alle K, are nin (yd xan yg fy avr vr aoe 1-8 (Peg 1 Wy Pe gta 4 1 (regs 13 (a) Pega 2 56 Var f(x) = 1), the mean value theorem ike to f(a) in the interval: [-2, 2) (b) 12,4) fe} 1 2 (al) Go, ) Q.57 Connidor the following, statements about the Minintry of sand IT’ (MeitY) to the Jnfurmation Technology Rules, 20217 1, The amendment imposes a legal obligation on intermediaries Lo take reasonable efforts to prevent users from ding, harmful funtawful content. e(s) will allow users to appeal jons taken by intermediaries on user complaints. Usera will not have the right te Approach courts for any remedy. pli 2. Grievance Appellate Committ tablished 10 0 int — dee Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 only (¢) Sonly (b) Tond 2 only @) 1, 2and 3 coy MADE EASY wwnmacionasy.t mADE EASY 458 Consider the following statements about Pradhan Mantri Rojgar Protsahan Yojana 1. It has been designed to incentivise employers for the generation of new employment only. 2. The Government of India is paying the Employer's contribution ic, 12% for a period of five years to the new employees. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (only (b) only (Q Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q.59 Which of the following statements is not correct? (2) Government of India has notified millets as nutri-cereals by including them under the POSHAN Mission Abhiyan. (b) Government of India has decided to mark 2023 as the National Year of Millets. (© United Nations, at the behest of the Government of India, declared 2023 the International Year Millets. (4) None of the above Q.60 With reference to Green Bonds, consider the following statements: 1, The International Monetary Fund is a major issuer of green bonds in the international market 2. Greon Bonds are issued to exclusively fund projects having positive environmental impacts Which of the above statements is/are correct? (@) 1only (@) 2only (© Both 1 and 2 (4) Neither 1 mor 2 Scart MADE EASY GS & Engineering Aptitude | Test?t 9 Q61 Consider the following statements about Education Report for India, 2022: 1. This report is released by NITI Aayog and the Ministry of Education. 2, The report focused on the theme of teachers, teaching and teacher education Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Lonly (b) 2only (6) Both 1 and 2 (4) Neither 1 nor 2 62 Consider the following statements in regards to offline digital payments: 1. An offline digital payment means a transaction that does not require internet of telecom connectivity. 2, These transactions require an additional factor of authentication (AFA). 3, There is a lower limit of Rs 2,000 for all transactions. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (@) i only (b) 2 only (©) Land 3 only (d) 1, 2and3 2.63 Consider the following statements about PM MITRA Park Scheme: 1. The seven Mega Integrated Textile Region and Apparel (PMMITRA) parks will be set up at Greenfield or Brownfield sites located in different states. 2. The Scheme shall be implemented on a pan-India basis and is intended for the holistic development of the Textile sector. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (@) Tony. (b) 2 only (©) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 wanuimacioeasyiin 10 Q64 Consider the following statements about Tradhan Mantri Awas Yojana - Urban (PMAy-U): 1, PMAY(U) adopts a demand driven approach wherein the lousing shortage is decided based on demand assessment by States. 2, Bhuvan is a web-based application which provides the facility of grotagging images of houses built tunder the PMAY-U. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (2) Lonly () 2only (6) Both 1 and 2 (4) Neither 1 nor 2 .65 Provisional Estimates of National Income 2021-22 recently released by which of the following? (2) Keserve Bank of India (RBI) (b) Ministry of Finance (©) Ministry of Statisties and Programme Implementation (d) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEB) 66 Cartagena Protocol is related to which of the following? (@) Sharing benefits arising from utilization to the convention on Biological diversity. (&) International trade of endangered species (Q Movements of Living Modified organisms (LMO's) (€) None of the above ecerrist: MADE EASY ESE 2023 Prelims Exam + Classroom Test Series MADE EASY Q.67 “State of World Forest” report is released by which of the following organizations? (a) United Nation Environment Programme (UNEP) (b) Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) (6) World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) (d) None of the above Q.68 Consider the following statements: 1. According to India State of Forest Report 2021, the total forest and tree cover of the country is 24.62 percent of the geographical area of the country. 2. As compared to the assessment of 2019, there is an increase in the total forest and tree cover of the country. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (@) 1 only @) Zonly (© Both 1 and 2 (@) Neither 1 nor 2 2.69 Consider the following statements about Carbon Border Tax, recently in news: 1. The proposal is given by the United States that endeavors to make the U.S. thefirst climate-neutral country by 2050. 2, Carbon border adjustment tax is a duty on imports based on the amount of carbon emissions resulting from the production of the product in question, Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Lonly (b) only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 wonwmnadeassy MADE EASY 70 Consider the following statements regarding COP-27: 1, Warsaw International Mechanism is established at COP-27 for Loss and Damage associated with Climate ‘Change Impacts, 2, India is a partner of Mangrove Alliance for Climate (MAC) launched at COP. 27, Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (© Both 1 and 2 (4) Neither 1 nor 2 Q71 Consider the following statements: 1, India has achieved its target to generate 175 GW of energy from renewables by 2022. 2. India is the largest Solar energy producing country in the world. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (@) Lonly @) 2only (© Both 1 and 2 (2) Neither 1 nor 2 Q.72 Consider the following statements 1. Core forms 70% of Earth’s mass and has a radius of about 5000 ian. 2. Crust can be divided into Ocean crust and continental crust. 3. The upper part of the Mantle is called the Asthenosphere, Which of the above statements is/are INCORRECT? (a) only (b) 2 only (©) land 2 only (d) 1 and 3 only Score MADE ERSY GS é Engi Aptitude | Test 21 11 73 “Ieis the process of buming completely the solid waste biomass to ashes by high temperature oxidation.” The described statement is related 10 which of the following? (© Incineration (4) Pyrolysis Q.74 Consider the following statements about pond ecosystem: 1. In pond ecosystem, herbivores are lesser in number than producers. 2. In this ecosystem, top consumers are least in number. 3. In pond ecosystem, pyramid is inverted. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (@) 1only (b) 2 only (6 Land 2only (d) 1 and3 only Q.75 Consider the following statements about features of Ecocline: 1. It is gradation from one ecosystem to another when there is not sharp boundary beriveen the two. 2. Tk may appear on ground as a gradual blending of two communities across a broad area, 3, It describes variation in forms of species based on genetic differences. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (@) only {b) 2 only (Q Land only (4) 1,2and3 Q.76 Consider the following statement about Forest Conservation Rules, 2022: 1. Zoos established on forest land shall be considered as forestry activity. 2. Under the rules, project developers can purchase land with plantations from private individuels to present them as compensatory afforestation. wrnimadeaasyiin 12 3. The applicants can divert afforestation land for hilly or mountainous states with green cover covering more than one-thirds of its geographical area to other states/UTs where the cover is less than 20%, Which of the above statements is/are correct? (@) Lonly (b) Land 2 only (©) 2and3 only (d) 1,2and3 Q.77 Factor that affects ethical and unethical behaviour is known as: (2) Ethical dilemma (b) Team work (©) Whistleblowing (a) Integrity Q78 Consider the following statements: 1. Affectiveempathy also called emational empathy or primitive empathy, is the subjective state of feeling to respond appropriately to others’ emotions. 2. Cognitive empathy are the only component of empathy that refers to sensations or feeling in response to others’ emotions, Which of the above statements is/are correct? (@) Lonly —(®) 2only (6) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 0.79 Consider the following statements: 1, Honesty has two aspects ie. truthfulness and trustworthiness 2. The two aspects of honesty are very Gifferent from each other. 3. Discretion is sensitivity to legitimate concern of privacy with respect to confidential information, ESE 2023 Prelims Exam + Classroom Test Series MADE EASY Which of the above statements axe correct? (a) and 2 only (@) 2and 3 only (@) Land 3 only (@1,2and3 Q80 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT? (a) Contractual right arises solely out of an employee contract created by organizational policies or contracts, (b) Balance of power is not the component of collegiality. (6) Displaying initiative means going beyond work demands. {d) Computer programming comes under hard skills. 81 Which of the following cannot be exploited by assigning or by licensing the rights to others? (@) Patent ——_(b) Designs (© Trademark (@) All of these Q.82 Consider the following statements: 1, Nepotism describes a variety of practices related to favoritism including Iriring one’s own family members whe are overqualifica. Paternalism is a behavior by an organization which limits employee's autonomy for own benefits, Which of the above statements is/are correct? @ tony (&) 2only (© Both 1 and 2 (¢) Neither 1 nor 2 Q.83 Which of the following is an unwanted and unsolicited form of digital communication that does not pose real privacy and security risk? (@) Spam () Virus (© Worm (4) Spyware comme: MADE EASY wirwsmadveesyi MADE ERSY Q.84 Mobile Application Distribution Agreement (MADA) which was recently in news, is related to: (a) Google (b) Meta (© Amazon (d) Microsoft Q.85 “Hub is the central node through which exchange of data must take place. This central node can process data received from the source node before sending it to the designation node.” Which network topology is described here? (a) Bus Topology (b) Ring Topology (©) Star Topology (d) Mesh topology Q.86 Consider the following statements: 1. In Programmable Read-Only Memory (PROM) data can be modified by multiple times. 2, Erasable Programmable Read-Only ‘Memory (EPROM) can be modified by the user only once. 3. Electrically Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory (EEPROM) is programmed and erased electronically and the process can be continued ten thousand times. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 2only (b) 3 only (©) 1and 3 only (d) 2and 3 only Q87 “It is an error-reporting protocol that network devices such as routers wse to generate error messages to the source [P address when network problems prevent delivery of IP packets.” What is being described here? econ MADE EASY GS & Engineering Aptitude | Test21 13 (a) Dynamic Host Control Protocol (HCP) (b) Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) (©) Internet Control Message Protocol (cP) (d) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) Q.86 “National Single Window System (NSWS} is a digital platform to guide you in identifying and applying for approvals according to your business requirements.” What kind of e-Governance interaction does NSWS offer? (a) Government to Business (b) Government to Citizens (©) Government to Employees (@) Government to Government Q.89 Which of the following secvices is NOT offered in the Session Layer of OSI Model? (@) Dialog Control (b) Flow control Mechanism (© Token Management (@) Syncheonization Direction (2.90 to Q.100): The following items consists of two statements, one labelled as Statement (1) and the other labelled as Statement (If), You have to examine these two statements carefully and select your answers to those items using the codes given below: Codes: {a) Both Statement ({) and Staternent (11) are true and Statement (11) is the correct explanation of Statement (1). (b) Both Statement (1) and Statement (11) are true but Statement (11) Is not a correct explanation of Statement (1). wiewmadseasy.in 14 Fs E 2023 Prelims Exam » Classroom Test Series mabe EASY 14 Fe 2023 Pictime Bam + Clssoom Fat series MADE (©) Statement (f) is true but Statement (1) is false, (2) Statement (1) is false but Statement Q)is true. 2.90 Statement (I); Use of wood working machinery causes injuries which are invariably more serious than those caused by ordinary machinery and a great many of the victims suffer from permanent incapacity. Statement (II): Wood dust are health hazards, and workers in the industry can suffer from skin and respiratory diseases. Q.91 Statement (1): Lateral thinking is solving problems through an indirect and creative approach, using reasoning that is not immediately come in mind. Statement (II): Many times conscious, devoted search for new ideas is ‘unsuccessful but it leads to preparation of the necessary background for a nev idea. Q.92 Statement (I): Taguchi loss function curve is U-shaped. Statement (II): Taguchi uses a quadratic equation to describe the Taguchi loss function, Q.93 Statement (I): A project comes to an end when the execution is completed and the project cbjective are fulfilled, ‘Statement {II}: For every project there must bea formal process for declaring the closure of the project. Q.94 Statement (I): Fuel cells work like batteries, but they do not run down or need recharging. Statement (II): Fuel cells produce electricity and heat as long as fuel is supplied. Q.95 Statement (Dj: It is moral obligation 0 whistleblow the unethical practice once it comes to one’s knowledge. 7 Statement (I): Central vigilance commission doesn't reveal the identity of complainant. 2.96 Statement (1): Maximum amount of UV radiation passing through the atmosphere reaches the surface in the polar region. Statement (II): Absorption of UV radiation by the ozone layer increases exponentially ‘with its thickness, 97 Statement (I): The Development of professional code for engineers began in England. Statement (Uf): Engineers should not work for those who fail to respect human rights. 9.98 Statement (I): A patent isan exclusive right awarded for an invention. Statement (II): The protection is granted for full a limited period, generally 20 years from the filing date of application. Q.99 Statement (0): Medium Access Control is a special sublayer in the Physicel layer deals with the issue of access control to the shared channel. Statement (11): The network layer is necessary if two systems are connected to different links with connecting devices between the links to ensure the source-to- destination delivery. Q.100 Statement (I}: When two qubits are entangled, changes to one qubit directly impact the other. Statement (II): Entanglementis a quantum, mechanical effect that correlates the behavior of two separate things, e000 Score MADE EASY wummadesesyin ™ er MADE ERsy India's Best institute for IES, GATE € PSUS Test Centres: Deli, Hyderabad, hop Jou Lucknow Bhubanesat Pune, Kolkata, Patna ESE 2023 : PRELIMS EXAM CLASSROOM TEST SERIES CIVIL. = ENGINEERING | Test No. 22 | Full Syllabus Test-6 : Paper-II Duration: 3 hrs. Maximum Marks: 300 Read the following instructions carefully Immediately after the commencement ofthe examination, you should check thatthis booklet does Rot haveanty unprinted or orn or missing pages or itemscte. Iso, getitreplaced by acomplets test booklet. 2. Encode clearly the test booklet series A,B, Cor Das the ‘case may bein the appropriate place in the answer sheet 3. Youhave toenter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongpide. DONOT writeanything else on the Test Booklet, 4, There are fouralternatives for tne ansivec to every question. Foreach question for whicha wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0,33) of the marks assigned to that question ‘will be deducted as penalty. Use of Calculator isnot permitted. All items carry equal marks. Attempt ALL items, Your total marks will depend Only on the number of correct responses with corresponding reduction for wrong answers marked by you. 7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fil in some parliculars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your admission Certificate. 8, After you havecompleted filling inall your responses on the Answer Sheetand the examination has concluded, you should hand over toinvigilator Only the Answer Sheet. Youare permitted to takeaway with you the Test Booklet. DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO. For any query write to us, at: info@madeeasy.in 2 Qa Q2 Qs Qa ESE 2023 Prelims Exam » Classroom Test Series Ikin a concrete mix, the fineness modulus of coarse aggregate is 7.6, the fineness modulus of fine aggregate is 2.8 and the fineness modulus of combined aggregate is 6.4, then the proportion of fine aggregate to coarse aggregate is: (a) 25% (b) 33.33% (©) 66.67% (a) 75% Match List-l (Type of test) with List-II (Type of rod used in the test) and select the correct option using the codes given below the lists: List-l A. Consistency B, Initial setting time C. Final setting time List-It 1. Square needle 2. Plunger 3. Annual collar with needle at the centre Codes: ABC (3 1 2 ®3 21 @2 13 @1 23 Which of the following cement finds its application in typical grouting operation? (a) Rapid hardening cement (b) Low heat cement (© Portland pozzolana cement (d) Quick setting cement The following figure represents which type of shakes? CE sO} SE Scott MADE EASY Qs Q6 Qr Qs MADE EASY (a) Heart shakes (b) Cup shakes (© Star shakes (@)Radial shakes Which of the following cement doesn’t make C-S-H gel during it’s hydration? (@) OPC (Ordinary Portland Cement) (©) PPC Portland Pozzolana Cement) {2 LHC (Low heat Cement) (@) HAC (High Alumina Cement) Pozzolana cement was popularly used in Bhakra dam: (a) Since ordinary portland cement was expensive (©) Since ordinary portland cement was not available sufficiently (6) Since it has a higher heat evolution (@)Since it has a lower heat evolution Consider the following statements repsding conifers: These tress have thinner leaves, 2. Annular rings are less distinct and narrow but medullary rays are distinct. 3. Thesearelightin colour, lightin weight and soft in nature. 4, Teak Sal, Oak are some of the examples of conifers. Choose the incorrect statements: (a) 1 and 3 only (b)1 and 4 only (©) 2and 4 only (d)1 and 2 only The weight of coarse aggregate having specific gravity 2.65, which is completely filling into a cylinder of volume 0.003 m? is 5247 gm. Whatis the angularity number? @o 1 ©- (a) 38 woneradeeasy it MADE ERSY CivilRngineering | Test? 3 Q9 Q10 Qa Q12 Permissible Timit of sulphate in water for concrete mixing is: (a) 200 mg/lit (b) 3000 mg/tit (©) 400 mgstit (A) 2000 mg/l Number of cement bags required for 7 m? of concrete having design mix of 1:2.6:3.4 by volume is: (2) 35 bags (©) 44 bags () 38 bags (a) 49 bags Consider the following statements regarding aggregate-cement ratio: 1. Higher is the aggregate-cement ratio, richer is concrete mix, and higher is the workability. 2. Lower is the aggregate-cement ratio, leaner is concrete mix, and lower is the workability. Which of these statements is/are correct? (@)lonly ——) 2only (©) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Match List-t (Test to measure workability) with List-I (Suitability) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: . List A. Slump test B. Vee Bee consistometer test . Compaction factor test D. Flow table test List-II 1, Low to very low workability 2, High to very high workability 3. Medium to high workability 4, Medium to low workability Codes: ABCD (3 14 2 3 2414 @4 231 @4 324 Q13 Que Qas Q16 The state of stress at a point is shown with Tespect to the xy-axes. What is the magnitude of stress 0,’ with respect to y-axes? —~ a ¥ I} Kee |I Sey ora —— @4mra ——(b) AVE MPa (© 8MPa (@) 243 MPa For the beam shown below, which of the following is/are correct for its conjugate beam? 1. Determinate 2. Indeterminate 3, Stable 4, Unstable (@) Land 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only (© 2and3 only (d) 2and 4 only A hollow circular section of a column has ‘extemal and internal diameter of 160 mim and 80 mm respectively. For no tension condition under a compressive eccentric point load, the eccentricity of the load shall be (@) less than 20.5 mm (b) greater than 20.5 mm (6) less than 4.5 mm (@) greater than 45 mm ‘The ratio of buckling loads for a column of length | when, fixed at both ends to when hinged at both ends is me @2 © i () ; corm MADE EASY wwwmadeeasyin 4 Quz Qs Quis Q20 ESE 2023 Prelims Exam « Classroom ‘Test Series Which of the following is/are incorrect with reference to plane of maximum shear in 2D stress analysis? 1. Plane of maxinmm shear has non-zero normal stress always. 2. Plane of maximum shear is at 90° from ‘major principal plane, 3, Planes of maximum shear areseparated by 180°. (a) 1 2and 3 (b) and 2 only (©) Land 3 only (@2and 3 only ‘The principal stresses ata point inan elastic material are 180 MPa (tensile) and 80 MPa (compressive). Ifthe clastic limit in tension is 200 MPa, then as per St. Venant’s theory, the limiting value of Poisson's ratio is 1 1 @> 5 1 a oF @s Maximum shear strain energy theorem is given by (a) Mises and Henky (b) Haigh (c) Guost and Tresca (@)Rankine ‘A solid shaft of diameter d is acted upon by a twisting moment of 27 and a bending moment of M ata point on surface. Which of the following are correct? 1, Major principal stress is 4 M+¥M? +7? ] xd? 7 2. Major principal stress is Zb[me Wwrvar] 3. Minor principal stress is 2S [mS] Depron MADE EASY MADE EASY 4. Minor principal stress is 26fm it] xi (@) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only (6) Zand 3 only (a2 and 4 only Q21 Two solid shafts AB and BC are rigidly fastened at B and a torque of 20 kNm is applied at B. Whatis the rotation at section X-X? oF o8 oF Q.22 What is the deflection at A for the shown cantilever beam due to point load P at free end? c P K—_ L26r A. 4 3PP 3PP OTF © oa p w@ Se SPF 2 Er @ Ser Q23. Arectangular section of width 300 mmand depth 450 mm is subjected to a maximum shear stress of 150 MPa under a vertical shear force. What is the average sheat ‘Stress of section? {@)50MPa——(b) 100 MPa ()150MPa — (@) 75MPa wowmadenasyt MADE EASY Q24 Q25 0.26 A triangular section of height 150 mun and base 100 mm is subjected to 100 kN transverse shear force, Whal is the value of shear stress at a distance 50 mm from apex A? A 150mm : el k= 100 en > (@)89MPa —(b) 178 MPa (9 133MPa (a) 3.3MPa An Lsection beam is subjected toa certain point load producing maximam tensile stress of 21 MPa. The total depth of section is 120 mm with the neutral axis 70 mm below the top fibre, What is the maximum compressive stress in the elastic Isection under eagging moment? (@)361MPa —(b) 294MPa (Q125MPa (a) 428MPa Axectangularbeam ofspan 8 mis subjected to a uniformly varying load of 5 KN/m The cross-section of the beam is shown in figure below. What is the force acting on the shaded distributed portion? r (romna 20 a 40 mn | + Jojam uum 200mm r L 10mm —4 @)45KN (b) 6KN @4kn (d) 2k Q.27 9.26 Q29 Q.30 CivilEngineering [| Test22 5 What is number of independent stress componenis in the 3D stress tensor? @3 5 ©9 @a A continuous member is bent in one plane and loaded in the same plane as shown in figure, What is the bending moment at A? A |} 4 m——1 10K | 3m 1 ive 11 D 2m (2) 10/2 KNm (b) 60/2 KN (6) 3043 KNm (d) 25V2 kNm Shear centre of a semi-circular are of diameter d is () © from centre 2a a (b) 5 from centre 24 trom contre © (from centre ‘Specific modulus is defined as the ratio of @ Young's modulus Specific weight Yield strength ) Specific weight Young's modulus Specific weight Yield strength © a Scoot MADE EASY wrrnadeaaayin 6 ESE 2023 Prelims Exam « Classroom Test Series MADE EASY Q81 For the truss shown in figure below, the force in the member BE is: a st ete SEI EI SEF EL bbe wy @ lg a Ole 6s A z c EL 3a, er] y 64 8 a 8 L 3E1 ET| ‘Ser ET I ols a) Ore . oS : D H H ft P Q.34_ In the portal frame shown below, what are (@) Zero (©) P (compressive) the distribution factors for members BA, (©) P (tensile) (4) YIP (compressive) 232 Consider the following statements about the load system moving from left to right on a simply supported gitder of span 10 meters: oI seo1ae sou ro d_ 4 gg 08m -++— 12m +19 mt Lead system 1. The maximum bending moment under 80 KN Toad occurs when it is 0.25 m on the right side of the mid-span of the girder. 2. For thecondition of maximum bending moment under 80KN load, thereaction at right support of girder is 210 KN. Which of these statements) is/arecorrect? (a) 1 only (b)2 only (© Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 ner 2 Q33 For the beam shown in the figure, the flexibility matrix is: @ b=) +—— tm ——4 BC and BD respectively? raaaaaaso ¢ r 1 qa A e 2 a i 1 1 a e ol b= 18 4 2. —_+ Nie ale Q35 A rigid cantilover frame ABC is fixed at ‘C’ asshown in the igure, tcarriesa point load “P’ at ‘A’. Neglecting the axial deformation, the horizontal deflection of the point “A” will be: ocomat MADE EASY wera madevasyin MADE EASY Civil Engineering | Test22 7 ey Bh 1. Minimum number of members for 2Et EL internally determinant truss is 13. © (ued 4) (a 2 (nad) ‘The horizontal thrust at each support for the three-hinged arch as shown in the 0.36 a Siti is Hah, AEG=2) (gy) Wale Oe Tak on () heh, A distributed live load of 60 KN/m may cccur any position(s) (either continuously or in patches) on the girder as shown in the igure. Themaximum negativebending moment that can occur at section marked Q37 "Cis A © 3 —_ 6n—— ans bom (510 KN (6) 320kN-m (9 ZOKNm (Ad) 180 KN Q38 Consider the following statements regarding the truss shown in the figure: by occ MABE ERSY 039 Q40 2, Number of equations of equilibrium of the joints is 16. Number of unknown member forces is15. 4, Degree of extemal indeterminacy is 4. ‘Which of the these statements aze correct? (a) 2and3 only (©)3 and 4 only (6) 1,2 and3 only (@)1,2, 3, and 4 The negative bending moment at the support next to end support of a continuous beam is: Consider the following statements with respect to splicing of reinforcement: 1. Splices in tension member shall be enclosed in spirals made of bars rotless than 6 mm in diameter with pitch not more then 300 mm. 2. Normal lap splices should not be used for bars larger than 32 mm diameter, 3. Splices in flexural members should not be located where bending moment is Tess than 50 percent of the moment of resistance. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? (@)1,2and3 (b)1 and3 only (6) 1 and 2 only (€)2and3 only wunumadeeasyin Qa2 ESE 2023 Prelims Assquarecolumnis subjected toan.ultimate axial load of 2640 KN. Assuming concrete of grade M25, steel of grade Fet15 and 2% Of longitudinal steel, the size of column would be (consider minimum eccentricity), (2) 380 mun * 380 min (6) 550 man * 550 mm (©) 500 mm x 500 mm (4)470 mm x 470 mm Bending moment coefficients for two way slab simply supported on four sides are given in the table below: tye | 1 | 1a [az [a3 | as | oa6z | oor | 0084 | oo | 0009 % | e002 | 006: | 0039 | cess | oon 43 The effective long and short span of the slab are 62 m and 44 m respectively and factored load acting on slab is 15 kN/mt, Ultimate bending moment per meter in the two directions are: (a) 57.08 KN and 14.81 kN-m () 28.75 kN-m and 29.41 kN-m (©) 57.08 KN and 29.41 KN-m (4) 28.75 kiN-m and 14.81 KN-m A concrete beam of 10 m span, 100 mm wide and 300 mun deep is prestressed bya cable with cross-sectional area of 2000 min, The cable profile is parabolic with an eccentricity of 50 min above the centroid of the section at the supports and 50 ma below at mid-span. If the cable is tensioned from one end only then the percentage loss of prestress in the cable duc to the effect of friction is: [Assume jt = 0.35 and k= 0.0015 per m] (048% (b) 43% (93.8% (a) 3.3% Exam ¢ Classroom Test Series MADE Ensy Q4t4 The ring beam of intze tank carries ahcop tension of 175 KN per unit width. The beam cross-section is 150 mum deep and it isreinforced with 4 bars of20mm diameter of Fed15 grade, The modular ratio of concrete is 11. The tensile stresses. i N/man} in the concrete is: (@) 108 N/mm? (0) 130 N/mm? (©) 117 N/mm? (092 N/mm? Q45_ A modification factor is to be multiplied with the basic values of span to effective depth, which depends on the stress at service (f) and amount of stee! for tension reinforcement. The value of f, is given by (Assume that the A,, provided is same as Ag required) is =e A © Tes © tr a6 Coneider the following statements with respect to shear wall in a building: 1. Itis primarily designed to racist lateral forces in its own plane. 2. Ttxesists major portion of lateral shear in building through flexure deformation and not through shear deformation. 3. It is efficient in terms of construction cost and is effective in minimizing earthquake damages. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (2) Land 2 only (®)2and 3 only (6) Land 3 only (@)1, 2and3 ctomm MADE EASY warnmadceasyin MADE ERSY QA7 In ease of seismic loading, ductile frame fails by formation of plastic hinges. It is desirable to design the frame such that plastic hinges first form in: (@) Beam (©) Cotuma ©) Both beam and column simultaneously (@) At joint of column ond beam Q48 A RCC beam of span § m has shear resisting capacity of 300 KN. At the cut off Point of flexural reinforcement, shear force should not be more than, (a) 300 kN (2) 225 kN (© 200 kN (4) 100 kN Q49 The seismic weight 'W” to be considered for a structure carrying live load of GKN/m? as per IS : 1893 - 2016 is: @W,=DL+LL Q)W,= DL. +05LL (W,=1S(OL+Lt) (2) W, = DL + 0.25LL 250 Economical depth for a plate girder is obtained when: (a) the weight is minimum (b) bending stress is minimum (6) head clearance is adequate (d) None of these Q51 The thickness of web for unstiffened plate gitder with clear distance ‘d’ between the flanges, for serviceability requirement, (web connected to flange along one longitudinal edge only) should not be Tess then: a ©) 30 é a © (©) 305 Civil Engineering | Test22 9 Q52 To prevent plate girders from being floxible normal to their web plane during fabrication and erection, following limits is/are placed by 1S : 800 (where ‘cis the spacing of transverse stiffeners, and ‘a! is the depth of web] a @ fez ) $>3 ©) Both (a) and (6) tess Q53 Match List-I (Type of stiffener) with List-Il (Purpose) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists Lista A. Intermediate transverse web stiffener B. Load carrying stiffener C. Bearing stiffener D. Diagonal stiffener List-It 1. To prevent local crushing of the wed due to concentrated loading 2. To prevent local buckling of the web due to concentrated loading 3, To improve the buckling strength of a slender web due to shear 4. To provide local reinforcement to a ‘web under shear and bearing Codes: ABCD @4123 @4 213 3 124 @3 214 Scommnt MADE EASY wonwmadesasy.in 10 ESE 2023 Prelims Exam + Classroom Test Series Q.54 Consider the following statements regarding economic spacing of the truss: 1. lf depends upon the relative cost of the trusses, purlins and roof coverings, 2. Thecost of trassis directly proportional to the spacing of trusses. 3. The cost of purlins is directly Proportional to the square of spacing of trusses, 4, The cost of roof coverings is directly proportional to the spacing of trusses, Which of these statements are correct? {a)1,2and3 only (b)1, 2and 4 only (1,3 and donly @1L2,3and4 Q55_ The top chord of a roof truss is inclined at an angle of 22°. No access to x00! is provided for maintenance. The live load to be considered for the design will be: (a) Zero (0) 0.75 KN/m? (6) 15 KN/m? (€)0.51 KN/mt Q.56 In a bolted gusset base as shown in the figure, the critical section for caleulating thickness is: (1-1 (2-2 (3-3 (aa-a MADE EASY Q57 A rolled steel [section with plastic section, modulus of 820 * 10° « mm’, flange width 250 mm, yield stress 250 N/mm, is embedded in a pocket base to develop its strength with M20 concrete in the design of beam column, The required depth will be nearly: (2) 200mm = (b) 325 mm {6 500mm (4) 575 mm Q58 A fillet welded joint is shown in figure below. The size of the weld is 6 mm and angle between fusion faces is 90°, f- 75mm —s4 fe 75 mm —ot The safe load that can be transmitted by the joint is nearly: (Assume permissible stress for weld in shear as 108 N/mm?) (@)6SKN ) 75KN ()85KN —(€) 95 EN 059A portal frame is shown below. If plastic moment capacity of each member is 100KN-m, then load factor considering the beam mechanism only is: 201N/m som 6m ip = 100100 (a) 1.22 (b) 2.22 (9333 (4) 23 ecco MADE EASY wand MADE ERSY CivilEngineering | Test22 11 Q60 The plastic collapse load ‘W’ for the ‘Which activity will be crashed first? Propped cantilever supporting two point @) Activity 10 - 20 Toadsas shown in figure in terms of plastic ©) Activity 20-30 moment capacity, Mp is given by: (© Activity 20-40 w Ww (@) Activity 30-40 Q.64 A project consists of three activities along, the critical path with standard deviations L L L Rog of 26, 6 and 3c. What is the variance of 2M ‘Mp projet duration? OT oO (@ let (&) 70? SMp 6Mp 2 © Me Se (fF ae Q.61 Consider the following network diagram | 9.65 Which of the following is/are correct with, with activity duration (in days) beside reference to critical path method (CPM)? the arrow: 1. CPM is activity oriented, 2. Probability of completion of project ender CPM is. 3. Project crashing can be applied in CPM. 4, CPM utilizes floats of the activities for resource allocation. a | {@)1,2,9and 4 What is the critical path duration? (0)2 Band 4 only (a)19 days (b} 26 days (©) 1.3and 4 only (©) days (d) 29 days (d) and 2 only 0.62 Which of the following statements is/are | Q.66 Output of a power shovel depends on Somrect? 41. Class of material 1. In resource smoothing, the critical path 2. Angle of swing does not change. 7 3. Distance travelled by the power shovel 2. In resource smoothing, availability of Which of the above statements are correct? resources is just enough to meet the {@) Land2 only demand. (b) Land 3 only (a)1only —_(b) Zorly (© 2and3 only (©) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 2and3 Q.63 Consider the following table: Q.67 The initial cost of an equipment is € 1000. —T-Nomar | Gash | Normal) Gash ‘The equipment serves for 8 years with a Activity | iene (4ays) | tine (days)| cost (| cost @) salvage value of € 200. The book value of wo | 4 3 aco | oo the equipment after 2 years as per double 2-30 |S 2 30_| 750 declining balance method is: 2-0 | 7 5 30 _|_50 (a) 2594 (b) 75625 x0 | 4 2 ‘500 | 1000 (ted — (A) £750 wonwmagoeasy.in Score MADE EASY 12 Qs 269 Q70 Q7 a7 ESE 2025 Prelims Exam + Classroom Test Series Consider the following statements regarding line of balance method: 1. Line of balance method assumes rate of production for an activity is uniform, 2, Line of balance method is suitable for repetitive projects, Which of the above statement is incorrect? (@) Lonly (b) 2 only, (©) Both 1 and 2 (@)Neither 1 nor 2 The probability factor, Z for an activity scheduled to complete at its expected time ie: (a0 wa @1 (a2 For the activity Eas shown below, the total float is 2 days, then the earliest finish time is: (Duration in days) - |. : OO (b) 8 days (4) 34 days =| (a) 16 days (©) 24 days Given the population figure of a place is 50000 in 1990. The average increase in population per decade of the place is 5000 and average incremental increase is 500 per decade. The expected population of the place in 2020 will be: (a) 66500 (b) 62500 (6) 68000 (@ 72000 A flash mixer of volume 5.0n¢ with power input per unit volume 1250 W and fluid having absolute viscosity of 1.0% 10N-s/m*iscontinuously operated. What is the temporal velocity gradient (in sec")? (450 ©) 600 (©) 400 (a) 500 0.73 Qs Qn 76 MADE EASY If pH value of solution ‘A’ is 4 and that of solution ‘8’ is 5, then the hydrogen-ion concentration of solution: (8) Ais ten times higher than that of B. (b) Bis double than that of A. (© Ais ten times lesser than that of B. (@)A is double than that of B Which of the following biological units is/are based on attacked growth process? 1. Rotating biological contractor 2, Bio towers 3. Sequential batch reactor {alonly (0) 2enly (© Land 2 only (4) 1, 2and3 Match List-I (Type of settling) with List-lI (Occurrence) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List-l A. Discrete settling B. Flocculent settling C. Compression settling D. Zone settling List-ll 1, Just abovethe sludge zone in secondary sedimentation tank 2. In sludge zone sedimentation tank 3. In upper portions of secondary sedimentation tank 4, Settling in grit chamber in secondary Codes: ABCD @4324 4312 @3 421 (3 412 Sludge bulking can be controlled by: {@) Chlorination (b) Coagulation (¢) Acration (4) None of these scm MADE EASY wormmadeeasyin MADE EASY QU7 Consider the following statements regarding Sludge Volune Index (SVD): 1. SVLis defined as the volume occupied in ‘mY by 1 gm of MLSS after settling for 30 minutes. 2. Very highSVI represents sludge having good settleability characteristics. Which of the following statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (©) 2only (© Both 1 and 2(a) Neither 1 nor 2 Q78 Match List with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List A. Infiltration galleries B. Infiltration wells C. Springs D. Wells List 1, Natural flow of ground water onto the earth's surface. 2, Horizontal tunnels constructed though water bearing stratum. 3. Brick masonry structures closed at the top. constructed along the banks of rivers for tapping water. 4, Vertical cylindrical opening made inthe ground for tapping water. Codes: ABCD @2 13 4 @23 14 @3 214 @3 412 Q.79 Consider the following valves used in rapid sand filter unit 1. Influent valve 2, Filtered water outlet valve 3. Back-wash water inlet valve 4. Wash water drain valve corre MADE EASY Civil Engineering | Test22 13 Which of these valves should be closed while back-washing the rapid sand filter? (@2and3 only ()1 and 2only (© Land 4 only (@)8 and 4 only rection (Q.80 10 Q.92}: The following items consists of two statements, one labelled as Statement (1) and the other labelled 2s Statement (II). You have to examine these two statements carefully and select your answers to these items using the codes given belo Cod (a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (1) are true and Statement (10) is the correct explanation of Statement (1). (b) Both Statement (1) and Statement (I) are true but Statement ([I} is not a correct explanation of Statement (1). (© Statement ()is true but Statement (1) is false. (a) Statement (I) is false but Statement (Uy) is true. 2.80 Statement (Ij: For a given composition, a finer cement will develop strength and generate heat more quickly than a coarse cement. Statement (M1): The reaction between water and cement starts on the surface of the cement particles and in consequence the greater the surface area of a given volume of cement, the greater is the hydration. Q.81 Statement (1): Variation of stress ina bar hanging vertically under its own weight is uniform. Statement (II): Stress obtained in statement-I depends directly on length of bar, wowrradeeasy.in 14 Q.82 Q83 a4 Q.85 0.86 ESE 2023 Prelims Exam » Classtoom Test Series Statement (l): The curvature ofa cantilever beam at fixed end, subjected toa pointload at free end is zero, ‘Statement (11): Curvature of a cantilever beam subjected to a point load varies linearly with distance of section of consideration, Statement (I): In a prestressed concrete beam, lever arm varies with the bending moment whereas magnitude of net compressive force and net tensile force remain constant, Statement (II}:Stecl actsasa tension flange of a beam in a prestressed concrete. Statement (0): Unequal angles with long legs connected are more efficient for tension members. Statement (ff): The shear lag reduces the effectiveness of the component of the section which is notconnected to the gusset plate. Statement (1): Tapered flocculationis more efficient when compared to the conventional process flocculation Statement (11): In tapered flocculation, velocity gradient at inlet is less than that at the outlet of the flocculation unit. Statement (I): Rate of settlement of a consolidation layer depends upon its coefficient of consolidation which is dicectly proportional to change is void ratio. Statement (I); Primary consolidations the process of expulsion of pore water by applying steady load for a long time. Q.88 Statement (1): Bernoulli's equation can be applied outside the boundary layer. Statement (II): Outside the boundary layer the uid can be treated as inviscid fluid. 89 Statement (1): Crop-rotation is necessary ecause soil gradually looses its fertility if the same crop is sown every year. Statement (If): Gram is one in various rotation combinations of crops, as being Ieguminous crop it gives nitrogen to the field. Q90 Statement (I): For best results in Muskingum method of routing, the time interval Af should be chosen such that Dx At

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