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UNIT – 1: THE SOLID STATE

PART – B (2M) PART – D IV (5M) TOTAL


Q. No. 11 Q. No. 27 (a & b) 07 MARKS
Q. No. Questions carrying 1 mark each (Part B or Part D) M

Q1. What is F-centre?


Ans. The anionic sites occupied by unpaired electrons (Farbenzenter) in the 1
crystal lattice.
Q2. What is the coordination number of a metal atom in fcc / ccp/hcp lattice?
Ans. 12 1
Q3. What is p-type semiconductor?
Ans. When Si or Ge is doped with trivalent element, the electron hole is 1
created. This is called p-type semiconductor.
Q4. What type of semiconductor is obtained, when 14th group element is doped
with 13th group element?
Ans. p –type semiconductor. 1

Q5. Name the type of semiconductor obtained when Ge is doped with Indium.
Ans. p-type 1
Q6. Give an example for n-type semiconductor.
Ans. Si or Ge doped with P or As. 1
Q. No. Questions carrying 2 marks each (Part B or Part D) M

Q1. Give the differences between crystalline and amorphous solids with respect
to shape and melting point. (M-15, M-17)
Ans. Crystalline Amorphous
1. They have definite geometrical 1. They have no definite geometrical 1
shape. shape.
2. They have sharp melting point. 2. They melt over a wide range of 1
temperature.
Q2. Aluminium crystallizes in an fcc structure. Atomic radius of the metal is
125pm. Calculate the edge length of unit cell of the metal. (M-14)
Ans. a= = 2√ r = 2 x 1.414 x 125 = 353.5pm. 2

Q3. What is Frenkel defect? Give an example. (M-14, J-14)
Ans. The smaller ion (cat ion) is dislocated from its normal site to an
interstitial site. EX: ZnS or AgBr 1+1
Q4. Give any two differences between Schottky and Frenkel defects.
(J-15, M-16, J-17, M-18)
Ans. Schottky defect Frenkel defect
 It is caused by missing of equal  The smaller ion (cat ion) is
number of cat ions and anions dislocated from its normal site to 1
from lattice points to maintain an interstitial site.
electrical neutrality.
 Density decreases  Density is not changed 1

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Q5. Calculate the number of particles per unit cell of a simple cubic lattice.
Ans. No. of particles/unit cell of SC = 8(corners) x (per corner atom) = 1 atom 1+1

Q6. Calculate the number of particles per unit cell of an FCC lattice. (M-16, J-16)
1
Ans. No. of particles/unit cell of FCC = 8 (corners) x (per corner atom) + 1
6 (face centres) x ½ (per face centre atom) = 1 + 3 = 4atoms.
Q7. Calculate the number of particles per unit cell of a BCC lattice. (M-17)
Ans. No. of particles/unit cell of BCC = 8(corners) x (per corner atom) 1
1
+ 1 (body centre atom) = 1 + 1 = 2 atoms.
Q8. An element having atomic mass 63.1g/mol has fcc unit cell with edge length
3.608 x 10–8 cm. Calculate the density of unit cell. (M-15, M-17)
Ans. d= = = 8.92 gcm–3 2
( )
Q9. An element having atomic mass 107.9g/mol has fcc unit cell with edge
length 408.6pm. Calculate the density of unit cell. (J-15, M-16, 18)
Ans. d= a = 408.6 pm = 4.086 x 10–8cm. 1

d= = 10.5 gcm–3 1
( )
Q10. Mention two types of motion of electrons which originates the magnetic
moment of a substance.
Ans. (i) Orbital motion around the nucleus (ii) Spin motion around its own axis. 1+1
Q11. Mention any two differences between p-type and n-type semiconductors.
Ans. p-type n-type (M-17)
1. They are obtained by doping the 1.They are obtained by doping the
intrinsic semiconductors with intrinsic semiconductors with 1
suitable trivalent elements. suitable pentavalent elements.
2. The presence of positive 2. The delocalized electrons increase
holesincreases the conductivity. the conductivity. 1

Q12. What type of substances would make better permanent magnets,


ferromagnetic or ferri-magnetic? Justify your answer.
Ans.  Ferromagnetic 1

 When a ferromagnetic substance is placed in a magnetic field, all the


domains get oriented in the direction of the magnetic field producing a
1
strong magnetic effect. This ordering of domains persists even when the
magnetic field is removed.
Q13. What are ferromagnetic substances? Give example.
1
Ans.  The substances which are strongly attracted by the magnetic field.
 Fe, Co. Ni. 1

Q14. Which type of defect is shown by the following solids? (a) AgCl (b) KCl.
Ans. (a) Frenkel defect (b) Schottky defect. (J-16) 1+1

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Q15. How ferrimagnetism arises in substances? Give an example. (J-17)


Ans.  When the magnetic moments of the domains in the substance are 1
aligned in parallel and antiparallel directions in unequal numbers.
 Fe3O4/ MgFe2O4/ ZnFe2O4. 1
Q1. Iron (Atomic mass = 56.0u) has a cubic unit cell with edge length 286.65pm.
If its density is 7.87gcm─3. Calculate the number of particles per unit cell. (NA
= 6.022 x 1023mol─1). Predict the type of the crystal
Ans.  1

d = 7.87gcm–3 Z = ? M = 56.0u,
a = 286.65pm = 286.65x10–10cm

Z=
1
=
= 1.993
 BCC 1
Q2. Calculate the packing efficiency in BCC lattice. (J-15, M-16, J-16)
Ans. In BCC
The edge length = ‘a’
Radius of sphere = r
Face diagonal FD= b
Body diagonal AF = c = 4r
InEFD, b2 = a2 + a2 = 2a2 b=√ a
Now in AFD, c2= a2 + b2 = a2 + 2a2 = 3a2
c = √ a But c = √ a = 4r or a = 1

 Number of particles per unit cell ofbcc = Z = 2 spheres.
 Volume of sphere= ( )r3

 Volume of cube = a3 =( )

 Packing efficiency = 1

 Packing efficiency =

= =
( ) √


= = 68% 1

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Q3. Calculate the packing efficiency in simple cubic lattice. (M–14, M-15,16,17,18)
Ans. In simple cube, the particles touch each other
along edge length.
 The edge length, a = 2r
 Volume of the cubic unit cell = a3 = (2r)3 = 8r3 1

 Number of particles per unit cell = 1atom


 Volume of sphere = ( )r3

1
Packing efficiency =

Packing efficiency = =

= = 52.4% 1

Q4. Calculate the packing efficiency in FCC/CCP lattice. (M-17, J-17)


Ans. The edge length = ‘a’
Radius of sphere = r
Face diagonal AC = b = 4r
In AC2 = b2 = AB2 + BC2 = a2 + a2 = 2a2
b = √ a But b = 4r = √ a
a= = 2√ r

 Volume of sphere = ( )r3


 Volume of cube = a3 = (2√ r)3 1
 Number of particles per unit cell in ccp = Z = 4 spheres.
 Packing efficiency = 1

 Packing efficiency =

= =
( √ ) √
1
= = 74%

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UNIT –2: SOLUTIONS

PART – A (1M) PART – D IV (5M) TOTAL


Q. No. 1 & 2 Q. No. 28 (a & b) 07 MARKS
Q. No. Questions carrying 1 mark each (Part A or Part D) M

Q1. What is binary solution? (J-14)


Ans. A homogeneous mixture of solute and solvent. 1
Q2. Define molality. (M-16, M-17, 18)
Ans. Number of moles of a solute dissolved in one kilogram of the solvent. 1
Q3. Define molarity. (M-14, J-14)
Ans. Number of moles of a solute dissolved in one litre of the solution. 1
Q4. Among molarity and molality, which is temperature dependent?
1
Ans. Molarity.
Q5. How does molarity vary with temperature? (M-15, M-17)
1
Ans. Decreases.
Q6. Give an example for liquid solution in which solute is gas. (J-15)
Ans. Oxygen dissolved in water 1
Q7. Give an example for solid in gas solution.
Ans. Camphor in nitrogen gas. 1

Q8. Give an example for solid in solid solution.


1
Ans. Copper dissolved in gold or Alloys
Q9. Ornamental gold containing copper is an example for _______ solution.
1
Ans. Solid in solid solution. (M-16)
Q10. Give an example of solid solution
1
Ans. Copper dissolved in gold.
Q11. What is the effect of temperature on the solubility of gas in a liquid? (J-16)
1
Ans. Solubility of gas in a liquid decreases with increase in temperature.
Q12. 10mL of liquid ‗A‘ is mixed with 10mL of liquid ‗B‘, the volume of the
resultant solution is 19.9mL. What type of deviation is expected from Raoult‘s
law? (M-15, M-17)
Ans. Negative deviation 1

Q13. Mention the enthalpy of mixing value to form an ideal solution.


1
Ans. ∆mixH = 0
Q14. Name the law behind the dissolution of CO2 in water under high pressure.
Ans. Henry’s law (M-16) 1
Q15. How does the enthalpy change during the formation of a non-ideal solution
showing positive deviation from Raoult‘s law?
Ans. ∆mixH = +ve. 1
Q16. van‘t Hoff factor for a solution is more than one. What conclusion do you
draw from it? (J-17)
Ans. Solute undergoes dissociation. 1

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Q17. Soda water bottles are sealed under high pressure. Give reason. (J-16)
Ans. To increase the solubility of CO2. 1
Q18. Why does a solution containing non-volatile solute have higher boiling point
than the pure solvent?
Ans. Because the vapour pressure of solvent decreases in the presence of non-
volatile solute 1
Q19. On which factor do the colligative properties of dilute solutions depend?
Ans. Number of solute particles. (J-15) 1

Q20. What conclusion do you draw when van‘t Hoff‘s factor of a solution is less
than one? (M-18)
Ans. Association of solute in solution 1

Q21. A mixture of chloroform and acetone forms a non-ideal solution with


negative deviation from Raoult‘s law. Give reason. (M-17)
Ans. Chloroform molecules form hydrogen bonds with acetone molecules. 1

Q22. At given T and P nitrogen gas is more soluble in water than helium gas.
Which one of them has higher value of KH?
Ans. Helium 1

Q23. What are isotonic solutions? (M-18)


Ans. Two solutions having same osmotic pressure at a given temperature. 1
Q24. On mixing equal volumes of acetone and ethanol, what type of deviation
from Raoult‘s law expected?
Ans. Positive deviation 1

Q25. Define osmotic pressure.


Ans. The external pressure that must be applied to a solution to prevent 1
osmosis.
Q26. How does the size of blood cells change, when placed in an aqueous solution
containing more than 0.9% (m/V) sodium chloride?
Ans. Blood cells shrink. 1

Q27. Give reason for non-ideal solution to show positive deviation from Raoult‘s
law?
Ans. When A-B (solvent – solute) interactions are weaker than A – A (solvent- 1
solvent) or B – B (solute-solute) interactions.
Q28. Mole fraction of solvent in a solution containing non-volatile solute is 0.95.
What is the relative lowering of vapour pressure?
Ans. 0.05. 1

Q29. Between 0.1M NaCl solution and 0.1M glucose solution, which has high
boiling point?
Ans. 0.1M NaCl solution. 1

Q30. Define van‘t Hoff factor.


Ans. The ratio of normal molar mass to experimentally determined molar mass. 1
Q31. Give reason for non-ideal solution to show negative deviation from Raoult‘s
law? (M-16)
Ans. When A-B (solvent – solute) interactions are stronger than A – A 1
(solvent-solvent) or B – B (solute-solute) interactions.
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Q32. How can the process of osmosis be reversed?


Ans. By applying the pressure greater than osmotic pressure on the solution 1
side.
Q. No. Questions carrying 2 marks each (Part D) M

Q1. How does solubility of a gas in liquid vary with temperature and pressure?
Ans.  Solubility of gas decreases with increase in temperature. Because KH 1
value increases.
 Solubility of gas increases with increase in pressure. (J-14, M-15, J-17) 1

Q2. State Raoult‘s law of liquid mixtures and write mathematical equation.
Ans.  For a solution of volatile liquids, the partial vapor pressure of each
1
component is directly proportional to its mole fraction in the solution.
 Pi = pi0Xi (M-16, J-17) 1
Q3. State Raoult‘s law of dilute solution and write mathematical equation.
Ans.  For a dilute solution, the relative lowering of vapor pressure is equal to
the mole fraction of solute in the solution.
1
 = X2 1
Q4. State Henry‘s law and write its mathematical equation. (M-14,J-16,M-18)
Ans.  The partial pressure of the gas in vapor phase is proportional to the
mole fraction of the gas in the solution”. 1
 P = KHX 1
Q5. What is reverse osmosis? Mention its use. (J-17)
Ans.  When a pressure larger than the osmotic pressure is applied to the
solution, then the pure solvent flows out of the solution through the
semi-permeable membrane. 1
1
 It is used in desalination of sea water.
Q6. Give any two differences between ideal and non – ideal solutions. (J-15)
Ideal solution Non-ideal solution
Ans.
 The solutions which obey  The solutions which do not obey
Raoult’s law over the entire Raoult’s law over the entire range
range of concentration are of concentration are known as
known as ideal solutions. non-ideal solutions.
 mixH = 0.  mixH 0
 mixV = 0  mixV 0 (any two) M-16 1+1
Q. No. Questions carrying 3 marks each (Part D) M

Q1. On dissolving 2.34g of solute in 40g of benzene, the boiling point of solution
was higher than that of benzene by 0.81K. Kb for benzene is 2.53Kkgmol–1.
Calculate the molar mass of solute. (M-14, M-17)
1
Ans. M2 =

Kb = 2.53Kkgmol-1 w1 = 40g, w2 = 2.34g,


M2 =? = 0.81K
M2 = = 182.7gmol–1. 2
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Q2. 5.8g of a non-volatile solute was dissolved in 100g of CS2. The vapor pressure
of the solution was found to be 190mmHg. Calculate the molar mass of
solute. Vapor pressure of CS2 is 195mmHg, Molar mass of CS2 = 76gmol–1

Ans. M2 = [ ] 1

= * += 172gmol–1. (M-16) 2

Q3. 1.0g of a non-volatile solute is dissolved in 50g of benzene.The freezing point


of the solution is lowered by 0.4K. Find the molar mass of the solute.
[Given: Kf for benzene = 5.12Kkgmol–1] (M-15)
K f w2 1000 5.12 11000 2
Ans. M2  
T f w1 0.4  50
512 1
  256 gmol 1
2
Q4. The boiling point of benzene is 353.23K when 1.8g of a non-volatile solute is
dissolved in 90g of benzene the boiling point is raised to 354.11K. Calculate
the molar mass of the solute (Kb = 2.53Kkgmol-1). (J-15, M-18)
1
Ans. M2 =

Kb = 2.53Kkgmol-1 w1 = 90g, w2 = 1.8g, M2 =?


= 354.11 – 353.23 = 0.88K
2
M2 = = 57.5gmol–1.
Q5. 200cm3 of an aqueous solution of a protein contains 1.26g of the protein. The
osmotic pressure of such a solution at 300K is found to be 2.57x10-3 bar.
Calculate the molar mass of the protein. (M-16, J-16)
1
Ans. M2 =
= 2.57x10-3bar, V = 200cm3 = 0.200L
T = 300K, R = 0.083Lbar K-1 mol-1 w2 = 1.26g
M2 = = 61039 gmol-1 2

Q6. Calculate the osmotic pressure of 0.05% aqueous solution of urea at 200C
(R= 0.082latm)
Ans. π = RTC
1
0.05% of urea = 0.05g/100mL

C= = = 0.00833molL–1 1

π = 0.0821x293x0.00833 = 0.2atm 1

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Q7. The v. p. of pure benzene at a certain temperature is 0.85bar. When 0.5g of a


non-volatile solute is added to 39g of benzene (M = 78g mol-1), v. p. of
solution is 0.845bar. What is the molar mass of non-volatile solute? (J-14, 17)

Ans. M2 = [ ] 1

= * + = 170gmol–1. 2

Q8. Vapor pressure of pure water at 298K is 23.8mm of Hg. 50g of urea
(NH2CONH2) is dissolved in 850g of water. Calculate the vapor pressure of
water for this solution and its relative lowering.
Ans.
1

= = 0.0176 1

23.8 – p = 0.0176 x 23.8 = 0.42


p = 23.8 – 0.42 = 23.38mm of Hg. 1
Q9. 31g of ethylene glycol (C2H6O2) is dissolved in 500g of water. Calculate the
freezing point of the resulting solution.
(Given: Kf for water = 1.86Kkgmol-1 Freezing point of water = 273K).
1
Ans. =
Kf = 1.86Kkgmol-1 w1 = 500g
w2 = 31g M2 = 62gmol-1

= = 1.86K 1

= Tf0 ─ Tf = 273 ─ Tf
Tf = 273 – 1.86 = 271.14K 1

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UNIT – 3: ELECTROCHEMISTRY
PART – A (1M) PART – B (2M) PART – D IV (5M) TOTAL
Q. No. 3 Q. No. 12 Q. No. 29 (a & b) 08 MARKS
Q. No. Questions carrying 1 mark each (Part A, B or D) M

Q1. Why does the conductivity of a solution decrease with dilution? (J-18)
Ans. On dilution the number of ions per unit volume of solution decreases. 1
Q2. Write the SI unit of conductivity. (M-17)
1
Ans. Sm–1
Q3. Write the SI unit of molar conductivity. (J-14)
1
Ans. Sm2mol–1
Q4. What happens to molar conductivity when 1mol of KCl dissolved in 1L is
diluted to five liters?
Ans. Increases. 1
Q5. Write the overall reaction taking place in the Daniel cell. (M-16)
Ans. Zn (s) + Cu (aq) →
2+
Cu (s) + Zn2+ (aq) 1
Q6. How many faraday of electricity is required to reduce 1mole of MnO4–1 to
Mn2+ ions? (M-18)
Ans. 5F. 1
Q7. Write the mathematical expression for limiting molar conductivity of NaCl.
Ans. = + (M-15) 1
Q8. Give Nernst equation for Zn-electrode potential.
Ans. Eel = Eel0 ─ log at 298K 1

Q9. Give Nernst equation for the following reaction at 298K;


Ni(s) + 2Ag+ (aq) → 2Ag(s) + Ni2+(aq)
Ans. ECell = E0Cell ─ log at 298K 1

Q10. Write Nernst equation for Daniel cell at 298K. (J-16)

Ans. ECell = E0Cell ─ log at 298K 1

Q11. Mention the concentration of H+ions in the solution used in SHE.


Ans. 1M 1
Q12. What is a primary battery?
Ans. A battery in which the reaction occurs only once and it cannot be 1
recharged again.
Q13. What type of battery is dry cell?
Ans. Primary battery. 1
Q14. How many coulombs of electricity are required for oxidizing1mole of Al to
Al3+ion? (J-15)
1
Ans. 2,89500C
Q15. Name the gas liberated at the cathode during the electrolysis of aqueous
NaCl. (M-16)
1
Ans. Hydrogen gas.

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Q16 Give an example for a fuel cell.


1
Ans. H2 – O2 fuel cell.
Q17. Draw a graph of Λm Vs √ for KCl (strong electrolyte).
Ans.

Q. No. Questions carrying 2 marks each (Part B or D) M

Q1. Name the products of electrolysis of molten NaCl.


Ans. Sodium metal & Chlorine gas. 1+1
Q2. What is corrosion? Name one method to prevent it. (J-14, M-17)
Ans.  The process of deterioration of a metal as a result of its reaction with 1
moisture and air present in the atmosphere.
 Barrier protection / sacrificial protection. 1
Q3. Write the Anodic and Cathode reactions during rusting of iron. (J-16)
1
Ans.  Anode: Fe → Fe + 2e─
2+
1
 Cathode: O2 (g) + 4H+ (aq) + 4e— → 2H2O (l)
Q4. What is molar conductivity? How is it related to the conductivity of a solution
whose concentration is ‗C‘ molm–3? (M-14)
Ans.  The conductance of all the ions produced by the dissociation of one mole 1
of the electrolyte in solution.
 Λm = 1
Q5. Write the cathodic and anodic reactions taking place in the dry cell. (M-17)
1
Ans.  Cathode: MnO2 + NH4 + e–   MnO(OH) + NH3
+

 Anode: Zn  
Zn2+ + 2e– 1

Q6. State Faraday‘s I law of electrolysis. (M-15, M-16)


Ans. The amount of substance discharged at any electrode during electrolysis is 1
proportional to the quantity of electricity passed through the electrolyte.
1
W = ZIt
Q7. State Kohlrausch‘s law of independent migration of ions. (J-15, M-16, 18)
Ans. The limiting molar conductivity of an electrolyte can be represented as the
sum of the individual contributions of the anion and cation of the
2
electrolyte.
Q8. State Faraday‘s II law of electrolysis. (J-14)
Ans. When the same quantity of electricity is passed through different
electrolytes connected in series, the amounts of substances liberated at the
respective electrodes are proportional to their chemical equivalent
weights. = 1+1

Q9. The resistance of a conductivity cell containing 0.001M KCl solution at 298K
is 1500. What is the cell constant if conductivity of 0.001M KCl solution at
298k is 0.146x10-3Scm-1?
Ans. G* = R = 0.146 x 10–3 x 1500 = 0.219cm–1 2

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Q10. A galvanic cell after use is recharged by passing current through it. What
type of cell is it? Give an example.
Ans.  A secondary cell. Lead storage battery. 1+1
Q11. Mention the factors affecting the conductivity of electrolytic solution.
Ans. (i) Nature of the electrolyte
(ii) Nature of the solvent
(iii) Temperature
(iv) Concentration of the electrolyte
(v) Size of ions (Any two) (M-15) 2
Q12. What is limiting molar conductivity? Draw a graph of Λm Vs √ for acetic
acid (weak electrolyte). (M-18)
Ans. The molar conductivity of a solution, when its 1
concentration approaches zero.

Q13. Calculate the emf of the following cell reaction:


Ni(s) + 2Ag+ (0.002M) → 2Ag(s) + Ni2+(0.160M) E0Cell = 1.05V (J-15)
Ans.  ECell = E0Cell ─ log at 298K 1

ECell = E0Cell ─ log = 0.91V 1

Q14. Draw a neat labeled diagram of H2 – O2 fuel cell. Write the reaction occurs at
the cathode of the cell. (M-18)
Ans. O2(g) + 2H2O(l) + 4e → — 4OH—(aq) 1

Q15. What is a secondary cell? Write the cathode reaction for lead storage battery.
Ans.  A cell which can be recharged by passing current through it and used
1
again.
 PbO2 + + 4H+ + 2 → PbSO4 + 2H2O. (M-14, J-16) 1
Q16. Calculate rG0
for the reaction: + Fe2+(aq)
→ Ag+(aq) Fe3+(aq) + Ag(s)
(Given: E Cell = +0.03V, F= 96500C).
0 (M-14)
Ans. 0 = ─ nFE0Cell = ─ 1 96500 0.03 = ─2895 Jmol-1 2
Q17. Write the cathodic and anodic reactions of H2 – O2 fuel cell. (M-15, J-17)
Ans.  Cathode: O2 + 2H2O + 4e– → 1
4OH–
 Anode: 2 H 2 g  + 4OH

 aq  
 4 H 2Ol   4e – 1

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Q18. for NaCl, HCl and CH3COONa are 126.4, 425.9 and 91.0 Scm2mol–1
respectively. Calculate for CH3COOH. (J-17)
Ans.  = + 1
1
= 91 + 425.9 – 126.4 = 390.5 Scm2mol–1
Q19. The limiting molar conductivities of Mg2+ and Cl─ ions are
106 Scm2mol–1 and 76.3Scm2mol–1 respectively. Calculate the limiting molar
conductivity of MgCl2. (M-16)
Ans.  Λ0m(MgCl2) = ( ) 1
1
+2 = 106 + 152.6 = 258.6Scm2mol–1.
Q20. How long a current of 3A has to be applied through a solution of silver
nitrate to coat a metal surface with 0.42g of silver? (Atomic mass of Ag = 108)
W = ZIt t= = = 125.1s 2

Q. No. Questions carrying 3 marks each (Part D) M

Q1. The resistance of a conductivity cell containing 0.02M KCl solution at 298K is
520. Calculate the conductivity and molar conductivity of that solution.
[Cell constant = 1.29cm–1] (M-16)

Ans.  G* = R or  = = = 2.48 10–3 Scm–1 1

2
 m = = = 124Scm2mol–1
Q2. The conductivity of a solution of 0.01M acetic acid at 298K is
1.65x10–4 Scm–1. Calculate its molar conductivity (Λm) and limiting molar
conductivity (Λ0m) of acetic acid in the solution.
(Given: λ0(H+) = 349.1Scm2mol–1 & λ0 ─) = 40.9Scm2mol–1).

Ans.  Λm = = = 16.5Scm2mol-1 2

 Λ0m = 40.9 + 349.1 = 390Scm2mol-1 1


Q3. (i) For the cell reaction,
Mg(s) + 2Ag+(0.0001M) → Mg2+ (0.130M) + 2Ag(s)
(ii) Represent the cell
(iii) Calculate Ecell and 0 values at 298K. If E0Cell = 3.17V. (M-17)
Ans. (i) Mg(s)|Mg2+(0.130M) || Ag+ (0.0001M) | Ag(s) 1
(ii) ECell = E0Cell ─ log at 298K
1

(iii) ECell = 3.17 ─ log 1


= 3.17 - 0.21 = 2.96V
(iv) 0 = ─ nFE0Cell = ─ 2 96500 3.17 = ─611810 Jmol-1 1
Q4. Calculate equilibrium constant for the following reaction at 250C:
Cu(s) + 2Ag+ (aq) → 2Ag(s) + Cu2+(aq) E0Cell = 0.46V (J-17)
Ans. At 298K, E0 (cell) = log KC 1

logKC = = = 15.567 KC = Antilog15.567 = 3.92 x 1015. 2

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Q5. Calculate rG0 for the following electrochemical cell at 250C:


Cu|Cu2+(1M)|| Ag+(1M)|Ag [E0Cu = +0.34V & E0Ag = +0.80V F= 96487C] 1
Ans.  E0Cell = E0Cathode – E0Anode = 0.80 – 0.34 = 0.46V
 0 = ─ nFE0Cell = ─ 2 96487 0.46 = ─88768J mol-1 (J-16) 2

Q6. The electrode potential for the Daniel cell given below is 1.1V.
Zn( s ) | Zn2( aq ) || Cu 2(aq ) | Cu( s )
(M-15)
Write overall cell reaction and calculate the standard Gibb‘s free energy.
Ans. 1
 Zn (s) + Cu2+ (aq) → Cu (s) + Zn2+ (aq)
 ∆G0 = – nF = – 2 96500 1.1 = – 212271 Jmol–1. 2
Q7. Calculate the standard free energy change for the following galvanic cell
reaction at 298K. 3Mg(s) + 2Al3+(aq) → 3Mg2+(aq) + 2Al(s)
/Mg = –2.37V & /Al = –1.66V
1
Ans.  E0Cell = E0Cathode – E0Anode = /Al– /Mg

= –1.66 – (–2.37)= 0.71V


2
 0 = ─ nFE0Cell
= ─ 6 96500 0.71 = – 411090 Jmol-1
Q8. Calculate the electrode potential of following electrode at 298K,
Pt(s) /H2(g, 1bar) / H2O(pure)
Ans. E = E0– log at 298K 1

E = E0– log at 298K pH = 7 or [H+] = 10-7M 1

1
E=0– log = – 0.0591 x 7 = –0.4137V
Q9. Describe construction and working of SHE. (M-14, J-14, J-15, M-16, J-17)
Ans.  SHE consists of a platinum electrode coated
with platinum black. The electrode is dipped
in an acidic solution (1M) and pure
hydrogen gas at 1bar pressure and 298K is
bubbled through it. The potential is
developed due the following equilibrium:
H+(aq) + e— ⇄ ½H2(g)
 Symbol of SHE:
 Pt(s)H2(g, 1bar)H+(aq, 1M)
2+1
 E0H2 = 0V
Q10. Calculate the emf of the following cell reaction at 298K:
Mg(s) + Cu2+ (0.0001M) → (s) + Mg2+(0.001M)
Given that: /Mg = –2.37V & /Cu = +0.34V (M-18)
Ans. E0Cell = E0Cathode – E0Anode 1
= /Cu – /Mg
1
= 0.34 – (–2.37)= 2.71V
ECell = E0Cell ─ log at 298K 1

ECell = 2.71 ─ log = 2.71 – 0.0295 log 10 = 2.68V.

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UNIT –4: CHEMICAL KINETICS

PART – A (1M) PART – B (2M) PART – D IV (5M) TOTAL


Q. No. 4 Q. No. 13 Q. No. 30 (a & b) 08 MARKS
Q. No. Questions carrying 1 mark each (Part A or Part D) M

Q1. What is molecularity of a reaction?


Ans. The number of reacting species taking part in an elementary reaction. 1
Q2. For the reaction 2HI → H2 + I2write its molecularity. (M-14)
Ans. Two 1
Q3. Define order of reaction.
Ans. The sum of powers of the concentration of the reactants in the rate law 1
expression.
Q4. Rate constant of a reaction is k = 3.4x10–4 mol–1Ls–1. What is the order of the
reaction? (J-16, M-18)
Ans. Second order. 1
Q5. What is unit for rate constant of first order reaction?
Ans. s-1 1
Q6. Give an example for zero order reaction. (J-14)
Ans. 2NH3 (g) → N2 + 3H2 1

Q7. Unit of rate constant of a reaction is same as that of unit of rate of reaction.
What is order of the reaction?
Ans. Zero order reaction 1
Q8. What is pseudo first order reaction?
Ans. A reaction which appears to be of higher order but follows first order 1
kinetics.
Q9. Give an example for pseudo first order reaction. (M-14)

Ans. Inversion of cane sugar OR C12 H22O11 + H2O → C6H12O6+ C6H12O6 1

Q10. What is collision frequency? (Mar-14, 15, Mar-17)


Ans. The number of collisions per second per unit volume of the reaction
1
mixture.
Q11. Define threshold energy. (M-17)
Ans. The molecules must possess the sufficient kinetic energy to collide
1
effectively.
Q12. What is the relation b/w half-life period and initial concentration in case of
zero order reaction?
Ans. Half-life period of a zero order reaction is directly proportional to the
initial concentration of the reactant. OR t½ = 1

Q13. What happens to the half-life of a first order reaction, if the initial
concentration of the reactants is increased? (M-16)
Ans. No change or Remains constant. 1

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Q14. Write Arrhenius equation. (M-15, 17)


Ans. k = A e─Ea/RT 1
Q15. In a zero order reaction the time taken to reduce the concentration of the
reactant from 50% to 25% is 30min. What is the time required to reduce the
concentration from 25% to 12.5%? (J-15)
Ans. 15min 1
Q16. For a reaction X + Y → P the rate law is given by, Rate = k[X]─1[Y]3/2.
What is the overall order of the reaction? (M-17)
Ans. 0.5 or Half order. 1
Q17. All the collisions between molecules having threshold energy do not lead to
the formation of products. Why?
Ans. Because of improper orientation. 1

Q18. Rate of a reaction, A  B increases two times by increasing the


concentration of ‗A‘ by four times. What is the order of a reaction? (J-17)
1
Ans. ½ order.
Q19. The rate of a reaction increases in the presence of catalyst. Why? (M-17)
Ans. It reduces the activation energy of the reaction. 1
Q. No. Questions carrying 2 marks each (Part B or Part D) M

Q1. Write any two differences between molecularity and order of a reaction.
Ans. Order Molecularity
1. The sum of powers of the 1. The number of reacting species
concentration of the reactants in taking part in an elementary
the rate law expression. reaction.
2. It is an experimental quantity. 2. It is theoretical quantity.
3. It can be zero and even a fraction. 3. It is always a whole number. 1+1
Q2. Show that rate of I order reaction doubles when the concentration of the
reactant is doubled. (J-15)
Ans. Consider a I order reaction, A → Product
Initial rate R1 = k[A]
1
When concentration of A is doubled R2 = k[2A]
R2 = 2R1 1
Q3. Draw energy profile (Graph) diagram for the effect of catalyst on activation
energy of the reaction. (M-16, 18)

Ans.

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Q4. In a reaction 2A → P, the concentration of A decreases from 0.5M to 0.4M in


10 minutes. Calculate the rate during this interval. (J-17)
2
Ans. Rate = – ½ =–½ = = 0.005Mmin–1
Q5. The rate constant of a certain first reaction is 5.5x10–14 s-1. What is its half-life
period? (M-18)
2
Ans. = = = 1.26 x 1013 s
Q6. From the graph, identify the order of reaction and mention the unit of its rate
constant. (M-15, 17)

Ans. First order reaction & s-1 1+1


Q7. Show that the half-life period of a first order reaction is independent of initial
concentration of the reactant. (M-14, J-14)
Ans.  For the first order reaction, rate constant is given by equation,
k= log
At t = t½, [R] = ½ . The rate constant at t½ becomes,
1
k= log OR = log 2

= 0.301 OR = 1

 For a first order reaction, is independent of the initial concentration


of the reactant [R]0.
Q8. Write the energy distribution curve showing temperature dependence of
rate of a reaction. (J-16)
Ans.

Q9. The rate constant of a certain first reaction is 200s-1. What is its half-life
period? (J-15) 1
Ans. =
= = 0.003465 s 1

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Q10. 75% of the first order reaction is completed in 30 minutes. Calculate rate
constant of the reaction. (J-16)
Ans.  k= log = log = 4.62x10-2 min-1 2

Q11. (i) Draw variation in the concentration [R] vs time (t) plot for a zero order
reaction. (M-16)

Ans.
1

(ii) What is the relation b/w rate constant and slope?


Ans.  k = – Slope 1
Q12. Derive an expression for half-life period of a zero order reaction.
Ans.  For a zero order reaction, rate constant is given by equation,
k= At t = t½, [R] = ½ . The rate constant at t½ becomes,

k= = OR = 1

 For a zero order reaction, t½ is directly proportional to the initial


1
concentration of the reactants and inversely proportional to the rate
constant.
Q. No. Questions carrying 3 marks each (Part D) M

Q1. Rate constants of a reaction at 300K and 400K are 0.034s–1& 0.136s–1
respectively. Calculate the activation energy for the reaction.
1
Ans.  log = * +


log = * + 1

Ea = = 13834.2Jmol-1 1

Q2. The rate of a reaction doubles when the temperature changes from 300K to
310K. Calculate the energy of activation of the reaction (M-14, J-14)
1
Ans.  log = * +


log 2 = * + 1

Ea =
= 53598.5Jmol-1 1

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Q3. Derive integrated rate equation for rate constant of a zero order reaction.
(M-15, J-15, M-16, J-16, M-17)
Ans.  Zero order reaction means that the rate of reaction is independent of
concentration of the reactants.
 Consider a zero order reaction, R → P

Q4. Derive integrated rate equation for rate constant of first order reaction.
Ans. Consider a first order reaction, R → P
1

(M-16, M-17, J-17, M-18)

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UNIT –5: SURFACE CHEMISTRY

PART – A (1M) PART – D IV (5M) TOTAL


Q. No.5 Q. No.31 06 MARKS
Q. No. Questions carrying 1 mark each (Part A or Part D) M

Q1. What is adsorption?


Ans. The accumulation of molecular species at the surface rather than in the
bulk of a solid or liquid. 1
Q2. Write the catalyst used in the decomposition of potassium chlorate to get
potassium chloride and oxygen. (M-2014)
Ans. Manganese dioxide or MnO2. 1
Q3. Mention the role of alum in the purification of drinking water. (M-14)
Ans. It coagulates the suspended impurities or it acts as a coagulant. 1

Q4. Give an example for oil dispersed in water emulsion. (M-14)


Ans. Milk 1
Q5. What is physical adsorption? (JULY 2014)
Ans. Accumulation of gas molecules on the surface of a solid by weak van der
1
Waal’s forces of attraction is called physical adsorption.
Q6. Name the enzyme used in the inversion of cane sugar. (JULY 2015)
Ans. Invertase 1
Q7. What is meant by selectivity of a catalyst? (JULY 2015)
Ans. The ability of a catalyst to direct a reaction to produce a particular product. 1
Q8. Define Brownian movement. (JULY 2015)
Ans. The continuous zig- zag motion of colloidal particles in the dispersion 1
medium
Q9. Define Tyndall effect. (JULY 2015, JULY 2016)
Ans. Scattering of light by colloidal particles is called Tyndall effect. 1
Q10. What is the entropy change (ΔS) for adsorption?
What happens to the entropy of a gas after adsorption? (M-17, JUL-17)
Ans. Decreases OR ΔS = – ve. 1
Q11. Out of physisorption and chemisorption, which one has lower enthalpy of
adsorption? (MARCH 2016)
Ans. Physisorption. 1
Q12. What is the effect of temperature on chemical adsorption? (M-17)
1
Ans. Increases with increase in temperature.
Q13. Which is the dispersed phase in emulsion? (JULY 2016)
Ans. Liquid. 1
Q14. Give an example for shape selective catalyst.
Ans. Zeolite. 1
Q15. In the coagulation of negative sol, arrange the following ions in the ascending
order of their flocculating power. Ba2+, Na+, Al3+ (JULY 2016)
Ans. Na+< Ba2+< Al3+ 1

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Q16. Name the adsorbent used for the removal of coloring matter form raw sugar
solution?
Ans. Animal charcoal/Activated charcoal. 1
Q17. Give the mathematical expression for Freundlich adsorption isotherm.
Ans.
= k p1/n (M -18) 1

Q18. What is coagulating ion?


Ans. The ion of the electrolyte which causes coagulation of the colloidal
1
solution.
Q19. Name the enzyme involved in the conversion of glucose to ethyl alcohol and
CO2 during fermentation.
Ans. Zymase. 1
Q20. Name the zeolite catalyst used to convert alcohols to gasoline in petroleum
industry.
Ans. ZSM – 5. 1
Q. No. Questions carrying 2 marks each (Part D) M

Q1. What is homogeneous catalysis? Give an example. JULY 2014


Ans.  A reaction in which all the reactants and the catalyst are in the same 1
phase is called homogeneous catalysis.
 2SO2(g) + O2(g) → SO3(g) 1
Q2. What is heterogeneous catalysis? Give an example. (M-16, J-16, M-18)
Ans.  A reaction in which the reactants and the catalyst are in different phases
is called heterogeneous catalysis. 1

 N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g) 1


Q3. Write any two characteristics of chemisorption. JULY 2015
Ans. i. Adsorbate is held on the surface of adsorbent by strong bonds.
ii. Monolayer adsorption.
iii. Specific in nature.
1+1
iv. Enthalpy of adsorption is high. i.e 80-240 kJ mol–1 (ANY TWO)
Q4. Write any two applications of adsorption. JULY 2016
Ans. 1. Number of drugs is used to adsorb germs in curing disease.
2. Activated charcoal is used in the decolorizing of raw sugar solution.
1+1
3. Silica gel or alumina gel is used to adsorb moisture to control humidity.
Q5. Give reason for the following: (M-16)
(i) Brownian movement of colloidal particles.
(ii) Stability of lyophilic sols.
Ans. (i) The unbalanced bombardment of the particles by the molecules of the
1
dispersion medium.
(ii) Solvation or Hydration. 1

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Q6. What is peptization? Give an example. (M-16)


Ans.  The process of converting a precipitate into colloidal sol by shaking with
dispersion medium in the presence of a small amount of electrolyte is 1
called peptization.
 When freshly prepared precipitate of ferric hydroxide is treated with a
small amount of ferric chloride solution, peptization occurs and sol is 1
obtained.
Q7. Write the two steps involved in the mechanism of enzyme catalyzed reaction.
a. Binding of enzyme to substrate to form an activated complex
Ans. ES ES  1
b. Decomposition of the activated complex to form product.
ES  
E P 1
Q8. What is shape selective catalysis? Give an example for such type catalyst.
Ans.  The catalytic reaction that depends upon the pore structure of the
catalyst and the size of the reactant and product molecules is called 1
shape selective catalysis.
 EX: Zeolites OR ZSM – 5. 1
Q9. Name the phenomenon observed: Ans.
(i) When a freshly prepared precipitate is (i) Peptization
1
shaken with dispersion medium in the
presence of a small amount of electrolyte.
(ii) When an electrolyte NaCl is added to (ii) Coagulation or
hydrate ferric oxide sol. Precipitation. 1
Q10. What are emulsions? Give an example of oil dispersed in water (o/w) type
emulsion. JULY 2017
Ans. A colloidal system containing liquid dispersed in liquid medium. Milk. 2
Q. No. Questions carrying 3 marks each (Part D) M

Q1. (a) What is the cause for Tyndall effect?


(b) Mention any two characteristics of enzyme catalyst.
(c) Why finely divided metals are good adsorbents? (M-17)
Ans. (a) Colloidal particles scatter light in all directions. 1
1
(b) Highly effective, highly specific & active under optimum pH. 1
(c) Large surface area.
Q2. Give any three differences between physisorption and chemisorption. (M-15)
Ans. PHYSISORPTION CHEMISORPTION
1. It arises due to van der Waal’s 1. It arises due to chemical bond
forces formation. 1

2. It is not specific in nature. 2. It is specific in nature


1
3. It is reversible. 3. It is irreversible
4. Energy of adsorption is low. 4. Energy of adsorption is high 1

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Q3. What is coagulation of a sol? Name the two methods by which a lyophobic
sol can be coagulated. JULY 2014
Ans.  The process of settling of colloidal particles by an electrolyte.
1
 1) Electrophoresis 2) Boiling 3) Adding an electrolyte 4) Prolonged
2
dialysis. (any two)
Q4. Name the phenomenon/effect for the following: MARCH 2015
i. Colloidal particles are in zigzag motion.
ii. When an electrical potential is applied across two platinum electrodes
dipping in a colloidal solution, particles move towards one or the other
electrodes.
iii. Scattering of light by colloidal sol.
Ans. (i) Brownian movement.
1
(ii) Electrophoresis 1
(iii) Tyndall effect. 1

Q5. Describe Bredig‘s arc method for the preparation of gold sol.

Ans.  This process involves dispersion as well


as condensation. It is used to prepare
sols of metals such as gold, silver, 1
platinum etc.
 In this method, electric arc is struck
between electrodes of the metal
immersed in the dispersion medium
containing a little alkali.
 The intense heat produced vaporizes the metal which then condenses to 2
form particles of colloidal size. The colloidal particles formed adsorb
charges from the solution and get stabilized.
Q6. Write any three differences between lyophilic and lyophobic colloids. (M-18)
Ans. LYOPHILIC SOL LYOPHOBIC SOL
1. Dispersed phase has affinity 1. Dispersed phase has no affinity 1
towards dispersion medium. towards dispersion medium.
2. These are quite stable. 2. These are unstable 1
3. These are reversible. 3. These are irreversible
4. These are formed by direct 4. These are not formed by simply
1
mixing with suitable liquid. mixing with dispersion medium.
Q7. (a) How does free energy change during adsorption of a gas on solid?
(b) What is coagulating value? The coagulating values of ‗A‘ and ‗B‘ are
2.4x10–3 mmolL–1 and 1.2x10–2 mmolL–1 respectively. Which one has
higher coagulating power?
Ans. (a) Decreases OR ΔG = – ve. 1
(b) The minimum concentration of an electrolyte in millimoles per litre
required to cause precipitation of a sol. 1

 ‘A’ has higher coagulating power. 1

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UNIT – 6: GENERAL PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES OF ISOLATION OF ELEMENTS

PART – A (1M) PART – C III (3M) TOTAL


Q. No. 6 Q. No.19 04 MARKS
Q. No. Questions carrying 1 mark each (Part A or Part C) M

Q1. Name a carbonate ore of iron.


1
Ans. Siderite.
Q2. Name the method used for the refining of semiconductors (Silicon or
Germanium). (M-14) 1
Ans. Zone refining.
Q3. What is the principle involved in zone refining? (J-16)
Ans. Impurities are more soluble in melt than in the solid state of metal. 1

Q4. What types of ores are refined by froth flotation process?


1
Ans. Sulphide ores.
Q5. Name the depressant used in the separation of PbS from ZnS by froth
flotation process. (M-17) 1
Ans. Sodium cyanide
Q6. Write the composition of copper matte. (J-14, M-16, J-17)
1
Ans. Molten Cu2S + FeS
Q7. Out of C and CO, which is a better reducing agent for Fe2O3 above 1073K?
1
Ans. Carbon (M-16)
Q8. Out of C and CO, which is a better reducing agent for Fe2O3 below 1073K?
1
Ans. Carbon monoxide.
Q9. Out of C and CO, which is a better reducing agent for ZnO?
1
Ans. Carbon.
Q10. Which metal is purified by Mond‘s process? (M-15, M-17)
1
Ans. Ni
Q11. Which metal is refined by ―van Arkel method‖? (J-15, M-18)
1
Ans. Zr or Ti
Q. No. Questions carrying 2 marks each (Part C) M

Q1. Explain the froth flotation process for the concentration of sulphide ores.
Ans.  Powdered sulphide ore is suspended in water in a tank.
 A little pine oil or eucalyptus oil is added.
 Air is blown into the solution.
 Oil wets the sulphide ore particles. Froth is formed.
 Forth is collected and degassed.
 Gangue wetted by water sinks to the bottom of the tank. 2

Q2. Write the chemical reactions involved in the extraction of gold using NaCN.
Ans.  4Au + 8NaCN + 2H2O + O2 → 4Na[Au(CN)2] + 4NaOH 1
 2Na[Au(CN)2] + Zn → 2Au + Na2[Zn(CN)4] 1

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Q3. How is copper extracted from its low grade ores?


Ans. The low grade copper ore is leached out using acid or bacteria. The 1
solution containing Cu2+ ions is treated with scrap iron or H2.
Cu2+(aq) + H2(g) → Cu(g) + 2H+(aq) 1
Q. No. Questions carrying 3 marks each (Part C) M

Q1. Describe the three steps involved in the leaching of bauxite to get pure
alumina. (J-14, M-16, M-17)
Ans.  Powdered ore is digested with a concentrated solution of NaOH at
473 – 523K and 35 – 36 bar pressure. Al2O3 is leached out as sodium
aluminate, leaving the impurities behind.
Al2O3 + 2NaOH + 3H2O → 2Na[Al(OH)4] 1
35 – 36bar
 The aluminate in solution is neutralized by passing CO2 gas and
hydrated Al2O3 is precipitated. The precipitation is induced by seeding
with freshly prepared hydrated Al2O3.
1
2Na[Al(OH)4] + CO2 → Al2O3.3H2O + 2NaHCO3
 The precipitate is filtered, dried and ignited to get pure alumina.
1
Al2O3.3H2O → Al2O3 + 3H2O
Q2. On the basis of Ellingham‘s diagram explain the principle of extraction of iron
from its oxide ores. (J-15)
Ans. In E.D. ∆G Vs T curve for the formation of
oxides of carbon and iron cross at about
1073K.
Below 1073K the CO – CO2 line is below
Fe – Fe2O3 line. So, in this range CO reduces
oxides of iron to iron.
Fe2O3 + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO2
Above 1073K,
∆G (Fe, Fe2O3) > ∆G (C, CO) hence, coke
reduces hematite.
1+2
Fe2O3 + 3C → 2Fe + 3CO
Q3. During extraction of aluminium by Hall-Heroult process: (M-15, M-16)
(i) Give the composition of electrolyte.
(ii) What is the role of cryolite?
(iii) Write overall cell reaction.
(iv) At which electrode oxygen gas is liberated?
Ans. (i) Molten Al2O3 + Na3AlF6 1
(ii) It lowers the melting point of the electrolyte (mix) and brings
1
conductivity.
(iii) 2Al2O3 + 3C → 4Al + 3CO2(g) 1
(iv) Anode 1

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Q4. Draw a neat labeled diagram of Hall–Heroult electrolytic cell for the
extraction of aluminium from pure alumina (Al2O3). Write anode and cathode
reactions. (M-14, J-16, M-17)
Ans. Anode reaction:
C (s) + O2–(melt) → CO(g) + 2e– 1
C (s) + 2O2–(melt) → CO2(g) + 4e–
Cathode reaction:
Al3+(melt) + 3e– → Al (l)
1

Q5. Explain the process of extracting ―blister copper‖ from ―copper matte‖ with
equations. (M-18)
Ans.  Copper matte is charged into silica lined converter. Some silica is
also added and hot air blast is blown. The following reactions take 1

place:
 2FeS + 3O2 2FeO + 2SO2
 FeO + SiO2 FeSiO3 1

 2Cu2S + 3O2 2Cu2O + 2SO2


 2Cu2O + Cu2S 6Cu + SO2 1
 The solidified copper obtained has blistered appearance due to the
evolution of SO2 and so it is called “blister copper”.
Q6. Draw a neat labeled diagram of blast furnace and give the reactions
taking place in the various zones of the furnace.
Ans.  A mixture of Calcined hematite ore,
coke and lime stone (8:4:1by mass) is
smelted by blowing hot air.
(i) At Combustion zone:
Coke burns in air to form CO2 1
C + O2 → CO2
Temperature rises to about 2200K.
(ii) 1570K (Molten zone)
CO2 + C → 2CO
(iii) At Slag zone (1200K – 1300K)
CaCO3 → CaO + CO2
1
CaO + SiO2 → CaSiO3
Flux Gangue Slag
(iv) At Reduction zone (500K – 800K)
Fe3O4 + 4CO → 3Fe + 4CO2
Fe2O3 + CO → 2FeO + CO2
At 900 – 1500K
FeO + CO → Fe + CO2 1
Spongy iron

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UNIT – 7: THE p – BLOCK ELEMENTS

PART – A (1M) PART – C III (3M) TOTAL


Q. No. 7 Q. Nos. 20, 21 & 22 10 MARKS
Q. No. Questions carrying 1 mark each (Part A or Part C) M

Q1. Which oxide of nitrogen causes depletion of ozone layer? (M-17)


Ans. NO 1

Q2. Write the balanced equation for the action of conc.H2SO4 on Cu. (M-17)
Ans. Cu + 2H2SO4 (conc.) → CuSO4 + 2H2O + SO2↑ 1

Q3. Give the composition of oleum. (M-18)


Ans. H2S2O7 1
Q4. Complete the following equation. Br2 + 5F2(excess) → _____
1
Ans. 2BrF5
Q5. What is aqua-regia?
Ans. A mixture of conc. HCl and conc. HNO3 (3:1by volume). 1

Q6. Complete the equation. Na2SO3 + 2HCl → 2NaCl + H2O + _?_ (M-18)
Ans. SO2 1

Q7. Give an example of inter halogen compound.


Ans. ClF3 1

Q8. Name the noble gas which does not have the general noble gas electronic
configuration? (J-15)
Ans. Helium. 1
Q9. Write the general electronic configuration of group 18-elements (except He).
Ans. ns2np6. 1
Q10. Write the structure of chlorous acid. (M-17)

Ans. 1

Q11. Name the main commercial source of helium. (M-16)


1
Ans. Natural gas.
Q12. Noble gases are chemically inert. Give reason: (M-14, M-16)
1
Ans. Due to completely filled valence shell or octet (ns2np6) configuration.
Q13. Name the most abundant noble gas in air. (M-15, M-17)
1
Ans. Argon.
Q14. Noble gases have very low boiling points. Why?
1
Ans. Because of weak dispersion forces.
Q15. Why noble gases exhibit high ionization enthalpy? (M-17)
Ans. Due to stable octet state configuration. 1

Q16. Which noble gas does not occur in air?


Ans. Radon. 1
Q17. XeF6 + 2H2O → P + 4HF. What is ‗P‘?
Ans. XeO2F2 1

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Q18. XeF4 + P → XeF6+ O2. What is ‗P‘?


Ans. O2F2 1
Q19. Complete the following equation. XeF6 + H2O → _____ + 2HF (M-18)
Ans. XeOF4 1

Q20. Inter halogen compounds are more reactive than halogens (except F2). Why?
Ans. X-X1 bond is weaker than X-X bond. (M-16) 1

Q21. Why is ICl more reactive than I2? (M-16, J-17)


Ans. I ─ Cl bond is weaker than I ─ I bond. 1
Q22. Name the noble gas prepared by artificial method or decay product of Ra226.
Ans. Radon. (J-16) 1
Q23. Identify ‗A‘ XeF6 + 3H2O → A + 6HF (J-17)
Ans. XeO3 1

Q24. Which halogen has highest electron gain enthalpy / electron affinity?
Ans. Chlorine. (J-15) 1
Q25. Write the structure of Ans.
(i) Perchloric acid (J-15)
2
(ii) Chloric acid

2
(iii) Pyrophosphoric acid

(iv) Pyrosulphuric acid

(v) XeF4 (J-14) 2

(vi) Sulpuric acid (J-16)

Q26. Name the gas liberated when zinc reacts with dil. HNO3 (J-15)
Ans. Nitrous oxide. 1

Q27. How does electronegativity of halogens vary down the group? (J-16)
Ans. Decreases. 1

Q. No. Questions carrying 2 marks each (Part C) M

Q1. Mention any two reasons for the anomalous behavior of oxygen/fluorine.
Ans. (i) small size and high electro negativity 1
(ii) Absence of d-orbitals. (M-15, 17) 1
Q2. How chlorine is prepared using KMnO4? (M-16)
Ans. By the action of conc. HCl on potassium permanganate.
2KMnO4 + 16HCl 2KCl + 2MnCl2 + 8H2O + 5Cl2 2

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Q3. Complete the following equations. (M-14, M-15, M-17)


(a) 2NaOH + Cl2 →
(cold & dil.)
(b) Cl2 + 3F2(excess) →
Ans. (a) NaCl + NaOCl + H2O 1
(b) 2ClF3 1

Q4. Complete the following equations. (J-15, M-16)


(a) Cl2 + 2H2O + SO2 →
(b) H2SO4 + SO3 →
Ans. (a) H2SO4 + 2HCl 1
(b) H2S2O7 1

Q5. Complete the following equations. (M-16, J-17)


i) PbS + 4O3 → _____ + 4O2
ii) 2NaCl + H2SO4 → ____ + Na2SO4
Ans. (i) PbSO4 1
1
(ii) 2HCl
Q6. Write any two anomalous behavior of oxygen. (J-16)
Ans.  Oxygen is diatomic gas while other elements of this group are solids.
 Oxygen forms hydrogen bonds while other elements do not.
 It exhibits maximum covalence of four while other elements can show a
1+1
maximum of six. (any two)
Q7. Write any two anomalous behavior of fluorine.
Ans.  Ionization enthalpy, electro negativity and electrode potentials are all
higher for fluorine than others.
 Hydrogen fluoride is a liquid while other hydrogen halides are gases.
 Bond enthalpy and electron affinity are quite lower than expected. 1+1
Q8. How does hot and conc. NaOH reacts with chlorine? Give equation. (J-16)
Ans. 6NaOH + 3Cl2 → 5NaCl + NaClO3 + 3H2O 2
(Hot & Conc.) Sodium chlorate
Q9. How is sulphuryl chloride formed from sulphur dioxide? (M-17)
Ans. By passing SO2 and Cl2 over charcoal catalyst.
SO2 + Cl2 → SO2Cl2 2

Q10. Give reason: (J-17)


(i) Fluorine exhibits only –1 oxidation state.
(ii) H – F is liquid but other hydrogen halides are gases.
Ans. (i) Fluorine is the most electronegative element and it has no d-orbitals. 1

(ii) Because of hydrogen bonding in HF. 1


Q11. How is ozonized oxygen prepared in the laboratory? Give equation.
Ans. When a slow dry stream of oxygen is passed through a salient electrical 1

discharge, about 10% ozone is formed. 3O2 → 2O3 (J-14, M-18) 1

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Q12. What happens when potassium chlorate is heated in the presence of MnO2?
Write the equation.
Ans. Oxygen gas is evolved. 2KClO3→ 2KCl + 3O2 2

Q13. Write the structure of hypo phosphorous acid and mention its basicity.

Ans.
one 1+1

Q14. How is chlorine prepared from MnO2 in the laboratory?


Ans. By heating manganese dioxide with concentrated hydrochloric acid.
2
MnO2 + 4HCl → MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl2↑
Q. No. Questions carrying 3 marks each (Part C) M

Q1. Give the principle involved in the manufacture of sulphuric acid by ‘contact
processes’ with equations and reaction conditions. (J-15, J-18)
Ans. (i) Burning of sulphur or sulphide ores in air to generate SO2.
S + O2  SO2
The SO2 produced is purified by removing dust and other impurities
such as arsenic compounds.
(ii) Conversion of SO2 to SO3 by the reaction with oxygen in the presence of
a catalyst V2O5
V2O5
2SO 2 g   O 2 g  723 K |2 bar
2SO 3 g  rH
0
 196.6kJmol —1 1

To get maximum yield of SO3, the following conditions are used;


Pressure of 2bar and a temperature of 723K and V 2O5 catalyst.
(iii)Absorption of SO3 in H2SO4 to give Oleum. 1
SO3(g) + H2SO4 → H2S2O7
(iv) Dilution of oleum with water gives H2SO4 of the desired concentration
1
(98%). H2S2O7 + H2O → 2H2SO4
Q2. Give the principle involved in the manufacture of nitric acid by Ostwald’s
process with equations and reaction conditions. (M-16, J-16, J-17, M-18)
Ans.  This method is based upon catalytic oxidation of ammonia by
atmospheric oxygen.
1
4 NH 3 g   5O2 g  
500 K |9bar  4 NO g  + 6 H 2O g 
Pt / Rh catalyst

 Nitric oxide thus formed combines with oxygen giving NO2


1
2NO(g) + O2(g) 2NO2(g)
 NO2 is dissolved in water to give HNO3
3NO2(g) + H2O(l) → 2HNO3(aq) + NO(g) 1

 NO thus formed is recycled and aqueous HNO3 can be concentrated by


distillation.

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Q3. Describe the manufacture of ammonia by Haber’s process with reactions


and conditions. (M-14, J-14, M-15, M-16, M-17)
Iron oxide
Ans. N2( g )  3H 2( g ) 2 NH3( g )
Al2O3 / K2O 1
 The optimum conditions for
the production of ammonia
are; 1
 High pressure of 200atm
and temperature of 700K
 Finely divided Iron oxide 1
catalyst and promoter K2O
and Al2O3.

Q4. Give reason: (J-15)


(i) PH3 has lower boiling point than NH3
(ii) Nitrogen is less reactive at room temperature
(iii) H2S is less acidic than H2Te
Ans. (i) PH3 molecules are not associated through hydrogen bonding in liquid 1
state.
(ii) Because of strong overlap resulting into the triple bond. 1
1
(iii) Bond dissociation enthalpy of H2S is more than H2Te.
Q5. Complete the following reactions. (J-14)
(i) 2Al + 3Cl2 →
(ii) H2S + Cl2 →
(iii) 8NH3(excess) + 3Cl2 →
Ans. (i) 2AlCl3 1
(ii) S + 2HCl 1
(iii) 6NH4Cl + N2 1

Q6. Write the balanced equations for, Ans.


The action of SO2 on an aqueous 2Fe3++ 2H2O + SO2→ 2Fe2+ + 4H+ + SO42– 1
solution of Fe (III) salt.
The action of aqueous NH4Cl + NaNO2 → NaCl + 2H2O + N2↑ 1

ammonium chloride with


sodium nitrite.
The action of Conc. HNO3 on Cu + 4HNO3 → Cu(NO3)2 + 2H2O + 2NO2. 1

copper metal. Conc.

When white P is heated with P4 + 3NaOH + 3H2O → PH3 + 3NaH2PO2 1

conc. NaOH in an atmosphere of


CO2.
The action of ammonia on excess NH3 + 3Cl2 (excess) → NCl3 + 3HCl 1

of chlorine gas.

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UNIT – 8: THE d AND f – BLOCK ELEMENTS

PART – B (2M) PART – C III (3M) TOTAL


Q. No.14 Q. No. 23 & 24 08 MARKS
Q. No. Questions carrying 1 mark each (Part B or Part C) M

Q1. 3-d series elements show variable oxidation state. Why? (J-15)
Ans. Due to comparable energies of (n-1) d and ns orbitals. 1
Q2. What are lanthanoids?
Ans. The elements involve filling of 4f orbitals followed by lanthanum. 1
Q3. 2Ln + N2 → ?
Ans. 2LnN 1

Q4. What is mischmetall?


Ans. It is an alloy which consists of a lanthanoid metal (~95%) and iron (~5%) 1
and traces of S, C, Ca & Al.
Q5. Atomic radii of second and third transition series elements are almost
identical.
Ans. Due to Lanthanoid contraction. 1
Q. No. Questions carrying 2 marks each (Part B & C) M

Q1. Give reason: Sc3+ ions are colorless whereas V3+ ions are colored.

Ans. Sc3+ (3d0) - no unpaired electrons. 1

V3+ (3d3) - three unpaired electrons. 1
Q2. Give reason: Ti4+ salts are colorless whereas Cr3+ salts are colored.

Ans. Ti4+ (3d0) - no unpaired electrons. 1
 1
Cr3+ (3d3) - three unpaired electrons.
Q3. What is lanthanoid contraction? Mention the cause for it. (M-14, J-16, J-17)
Ans.  The gradual decrease in atomic / ionic radii from lanthanum to 1
lutetetium.
 Due to poor shielding of one 4f electron by another. 1

Q4. Study of actinoid elements is difficult. Give two reasons. (J-17)


Ans.  They are radioactive 1
 Their ability to exist in different oxidation states and occur rarely. 1
Q5. Zr and Hf have almost identical atomic radii. Give two reasons. (J-14, M-16)
Ans. i. Due to lanthanoid contraction. 1
ii. Poor shielding by 4f electrons. 1
Q6. Give two consequences of lanthanoid contraction. (M-14)
Ans.  The second and third series elements have similar radii. 1
 They have very similar physical and chemical properties. 1
Q7. What are interstial compounds? Give an example.
Ans.  The compounds which are formed when small atoms like H, C or N are
trapped inside the crystal lattices of metals. 1
 Ex: TiC or Mn4N 1

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Q8. Write any two differences between lanthanoids and actinoids.


Ans. Lanthanoids Actinoids
(i) They are non-radioactive (i) They are radioactive
(except: Pm)
(ii) Involve filling of 4f orbitals (ii) Involve filling of 5f orbitals
(iii) General configuration; (iii) General configuration;
[Xe] 4f1 – 14 5d0 – 1 6s2 [Rn] 5f1 – 14 6d0 – 1 7s2 (any two) 1+1
Q9. Give reason:
(a) Actinoid contraction is greater from element to element than Lanthanoid
contraction.
(b) Among lanthanoids Ln(III) compounds are predominant. However,
occasionally in solutions or in solid compounds +2 and +4 ions are also
obtained.
Ans. (a) Because of poor shielding by 5f electrons in actinoids. 1
(b) This irregularity arises mainly from the extra stability of empty (f 0),
1
half filled (f7) or filled f-sub-shell (f14).
Q10. Complete the equations:
(i) Cr2O72─ + 14H+ + 6I─
(ii) 5C2O42— + 2MnO4— + 16H+
Ans. (i) 2Cr3+ + 7H2O + 3I2 1

(ii) 2Mn2+ + 8H2O + 10CO2 1


Q11. Give any two reasons for the catalytic property of transition elements. (M-18)
Ans.  Their ability to adopt multiple oxidation states to form complexes.
 They provide large surface area to adsorb reactants on their surface.
 They possess vacant d-orbitals. (any two) 1+1

Q12. Give any two reasons for the formation of complexes by transition metals.
Ans.  Due to the comparatively smaller size of metal ions and high ionic
charges.
 The availability of vacant d-orbitals for bond formation. (J-14, M-17) 1+1

Q13. Give reason;


(i)Actinides show variable oxidation states. (J-14, M-16)
(ii) Cerium exhibits +4 oxidation state. (M-18)
Ans. (i) Due to comparable energies of electrons in 5f, 6d and 7s orbitals. 1
(ii) Because Ce4+ has noble gas configuration of Xe. 1

Q14. Calculate the magnetic moment of Mn2+ ion. (J-15)


Ans. µ = √
1
=√
=√
= 5.92BM 1

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Q. No. Questions carrying 3 marks each (Part C) M

Q1. (i) Calculate the spin – only magnetic moment of Fe2+ (At. No. of Fe = 26)
(ii) Which element of 3d series exhibits maximum oxidation state? (M-17)
Ans. (i)   n (n  2) 1
n= 4
= 4 (4  2)
1
 24  4.90BM
(ii) Manganese or Mn (M-15, M-17) 1
Q2. Explain the manufacture ofpotassium dichromate from chromite ore.
Ans.  Powdered chromite ore is roasted with sodium carbonate or potassium
carbonate in excess of air. The yellow mass is extracted with water.
4FeCr2O4 + 8Na2CO3 + 7O2   8Na2CrO4 + 2Fe2O3 + 8CO2
1
 The yellow solution is filtered and acidified with H2SO4 to give orange
solution of sodium dichromate.
2Na2CrO4 + 2H+   Na2Cr2O7 + 2Na+ + H2O
 Sodium dichromate solution is treated with KCl to get orange crystals 1

of potassium dichromate.
Na2Cr2O7 + 2KCl   K2Cr2O7 + 2NaCl. (M-14, J-14,15, M-16,17, J-17) 1
Q3. With reference to the first row transition series: (M-14)
(i) Name the metal which possesses maximum oxidation number.
(ii) Among Zn2+ and Cu2+ which is colorless?
(iii) Between Ti2+ and V2+ which ion contains more number of unpaired
electrons? 1
Ans. (i) Manganese.
(ii) Zn2+ 1

(iii) V2+ 1
Q4. Explain the preparation of potassium permanganate from MnO2.
Ans.  MnO2 is fused with KOH and oxidizing agent like KNO3 in air. This
produces the dark green potassium manganate which disproportionate 1
in a neutral or acidic solution to give permanganate.
1
2MnO2 + 4KOH + O2 → K2MnO4 + 2H2O
1
3MnO42─ + 4H+ → 2MnO4─ + MnO2 + 2H2O
OR
 It is prepared by the alkaline oxidative fusion of MnO2 followed by the
electrolytic oxidation of manganate (VI) ion.
MnO2→ MnO42─
(Manganate ion)
MnO42─→ MnO4─
(permanganate ion)
(M-15, 16, J-16, M-17, M-18)

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UNIT – 9: COORDINATION COMPOUNDS

PART – C III (3M) TOTAL


Q. Nos. 25 & 26 06 MARKS
Q. No. Questions carrying 1 mark each (Part C) M

Q1. What is coordination number of metal in a complex?


Ans. The number of ligand donor atoms to which the metal is directly bonded. 1

Q2. Give an example for cationic complex.


Ans. tetraammine copper(II) sulphate. 1

Q3. How many moles of AgCl will be precipitated when an excess of AgNO3 is
added to 1M solution of [CrCl(H2O)5]Cl2?
Ans. 2moles. 1
Q4. Write the structure of trans isomer of [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+

Ans.
1

Q5. Name the type of isomerism in the following complexes;


(i) [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3& [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O
(ii) [Ti(C2O4)3]2─
Ans. (i) Hydrate isomerism 1
(ii) Optical isomerism 1

Q6. Write the formula of tetraammineaquachloridocobalt(III) chloride.


Ans. [Co (NH3)4 (H2O)Cl]Cl2 1
Q. No. Questions carrying 3 marks each (Part C) M

Q1. (a)Write the IUPAC name of [Co (NH3)4 (H2O)Cl] Cl2 (M-18)
Ans.  tetraammineaquachloridocobalt(III) chloride 1

(b)Explain linkage isomerism with example.


Ans.  The coordination compounds which have the same molecular formula
but differ in the mode of attachment of the ligands to the central metal
1
ion are called linkage isomers. The phenomenon is known as linkage
isomerism.
 Example: [Co(NH3)5(ONO)]Cl2 and [Co(NH3)5(NO2)]Cl2 1
Q2. Give the IUPAC name of [Ti(H2O)6]3+.
Draw cis and trans isomers of [Pt (NH3)2Cl2] (M-14)
Ans.  hexaaquatitanium(III) ion. 1

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Q3. (i) Write the cis and trans isomeric structures of  Fe  NH 3 2  CN 4 


_

(ii) What is the coordination number of Fe in [FeCl2(en)2]Cl?


Ans. (i)

(ii) Six or 6 (M-17) 1

Q4. Using Valence Bond Theory, account for the hybridization, geometry and
magnetic property of [Ni(CN)4]2─ ion. (Atomic No. of Ni = 28)
(M-14, J-14, M-15, M-16, M-17)
Ans.  E.C. of Ni2+ ion is [Ar]3d8 4s0
1

 Under the influence of strong


ligands (CN¯) spin pairing takes
place in 3d orbitals against Hund’s
rule.
1
 dsp2 hybridization:
 [Ni(CN)4]2— ion:
 Square planar geometry
1
 Diamagnetic because of the
absence of unpaired electrons.
Q5. Using Valence Bond Theory, explain the hybridization, geometry and
magnetic property of [Co (NH3)6]3+ ion. (Atomic No. of Co = 27
Ans.  E.C. of Co3+ ion is [Ar]3d6 4s0 1

 Under the influence of strong NH3


ligands spin pairing takes place in
3d orbitals.

 d2sp3 hybridization takes place. 1

 [Co (NH3)6]3+ ion.


 Octahedral geometry. 1
 Diamagnetic because of the
absence of unpaired electron.
(J-16, M-17)

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Q6. State any three postulates of Werner‘s theory of coordination compounds.


Ans.  In coordination compounds, central metal possess two types of
valences.
(i) The primary valence or principal valence.
(ii) The secondary valence.
 The primary valences are ionisable and are satisfied by negative ions.
 The secondary valences are non-ionisable. These are satisfied by anions
or neutral molecules or both. It is fixed for a metal.
 The secondary valences are directed in space around central metal
giving definite structure and geometry. (J-14, M-16, J-17) 3
Q7. (a) Explain the crystal field splitting of d – orbitals in octahedral coordination
entity. (M-16)
Ans.  In an octahedral coordination entity, there is repulsion between the
electrons in metal d orbitals and the electrons of ligands.
 The and orbitals which are in the direction of ligands,
experience more repulsion than dxy, dyz and dxz orbitals which are
directed between the ligands.
 Thus, the degeneracy of the d orbitals has been removed and they split
up into two sets;
(i) Two orbitals ( and ) become of higher energy and are called eg
orbitals. 2
(ii) Three orbitals (dxy, dyz and dxz) become of lower energy and are called
t2g orbitals.
This may be shown as;

 The energy of two eg orbitals will increase by 3/5∆o and that of the three
t2g will decrease by 2/5∆o.
Q8. (a) Explain ionization isomerism with an example. (J-16, M-17)
Ans.  The coordination compounds which have the same molecular formula
but give different ions in solution by ionization are called ionization 1
isomers. The phenomenon is known as ionization isomerism.
 Example: (1) [Co(NH3)5SO4]Br and [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4 1

(b) What are homoleptic complexes?


Ans.  The complexes in which a metal is bound to only one kind of donor 1
groups.

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Q9. (i) Write the IUPAC name of [Cr(NH3)3 (H2O)3]Cl3.


(ii) Draw the facial and meridional isomers of [Co(NH3)3 (NO2)3]. (J-15)
Ans. (i) triamminetriaquachromium(III) chloride. 1
(ii)

fac – isomer mer – isomer


Q10. Using Valence Bond Theory, explain the hybridization, geometry and
magnetic property of [CoF6]3– ion. (Atomic No. of Co = 27).
Ans.  E.C. of Co3+ ion is [Ar]3d6 4s0 1

 F— ions are weak ligands no spin


pairing takes place in 3d orbitals.
 sp3d2 hybridization 1

 [CoF6]3– ion.
 Octahedral geometry.
 Paramagnetic because of the 1

presence of four unpaired


electrons. (J-15, M-16, J-17)
Q11. Using Valence Bond Theory, account for the hybridization, geometry and
magnetic property of [NiCl4]2─ ion. (Atomic No. of Ni = 28) (M-18)
Ans.  E.C. of Ni2+ ion is [Ar]3d8 4s0 1

 sp3 hybridization: 1

 [NiCl4]2– ion:

 Geometry:  Tetrahedral geometry


1
 Magnetic property:  Paramagnetic because of the presence
of two unpaired electrons.
Q12. Out of the following two coordination entities cis-[PtCl2(en)2]2+ and trans-
[PtCl2(en)2]2+Which is chiral?Draw the structures of its enantiomers.
Ans.  cis-[PtCl2(en)2]2+ or cis-isomer 1

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UNIT – 10: HALOALKANES AND HALOARENES

PART – A (1M) PART – D V (5M) TOTAL


Q. No. 8 Q. No. 32 06 MARKS
Q. No. Questions carrying 1 mark each (Part A or D) M

Q1. What are allylic halides?


Ans. The organic halogen compounds in which halogen atom is attached to sp3 1
hybridized carbon atom next to carbon-carbon double bond.
Q2. What are benzylic halides?
Ans. The organic halogen compounds in which halogen atom is attached to sp3 1
hybridized carbon atom next to benzene ring.
Q3. What are vinylic halides?
Ans. The organic halogen compounds in which halogen atom is directly
attached to sp2 hybridized carbon atom of carbon-carbon double bond. 1
Q4. In aryl halides, what is the hybridization of carbon atom to which halogen is
attached?
Ans. sp2 1
Q5. Give an example for a geminal halide.
1
Ans. 1, 1-Dichloroethane.
Q6. p-Dichlorobenzene has higher melting point than those of ortho and meta
isomers. Give reason. (J-16)
Ans. Symmetry of para – isomer that fits in crystal lattice. 1
Q7. H3C–Br + AgF → H3C–F + AgBr. Name the reaction. (M –14, J-16 M-18)
Ans. Swarts’ reaction. 1
Q8. What are freons? J - 2014
Ans. The chlorofluorocarbon compounds of methane and ethane. 1
Q9. Name the organic product formed when chlorobenzene is treated with
sodium in dry ether. M – 2015
Ans. Biphenyl. 1
Q10. R – X + NaI → R – I + NaX. (J – 2015)
C2H5 – Br + NaI → C2H5 – I + NaBr (M-17)
What is the name of the reaction?
Ans. Finkelstein reaction. 1
Q11. What is chirality? M - 2016
Ans. The phenomenon of an object being non-super imposable on its mirror
1
image is called chirality.
Q12. Write the general formula of Grignard reagent. (M-16)
Ans. RMgX. 1
Q13. Which poisonous gas is evolved, when chloroform is oxidized by air in the
presence of light? (M-17)
Ans. Phosgene or COCl2 1

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Q14. Write the IUPAC name of J – 2016

Ans. 1-Chloro-2-methyl benzene or 2-Chlorotoluene. 1


Q15. What is the name of the following reaction? (M-16,M – 2017)

Ans. 1
Fittig’s Reaction
Q16. Name the major product formed when tertiary butyl bromide is heated with
alcoholic KOH solution. J – 2017
Ans. 2-Methyl propene 1
Q17. What is asymmetric or chiral carbon? (M-15, M-17)
Ans. A carbon atom which is attached to four different substituent’s in the 1
molecule.
Q18. Name the reagent used in the conversion of alkyl halide to alkene.
Or dehydrohalogenation of haloalkanes. (M-18)
Ans. Alcoholic Potassium hydroxide 1
Q19. Write the general equation for ‗Williamson‘s ether synthesis.

Ans. R —X + R1—ONa → R—O—R1 + NaX 1

Q20. Which gas is liberated when 2-Bromopropane is heated with alcoholic


potash? (M-16)
Ans. Propene or CH3 ─ CH = CH2 1

Q21. Which would undergo SN1 reaction faster in the following pair?
CH3─ CH2─ CH2Br and (CH3)3CBr
Ans. (CH3)3CBr 1
Q22. What is inversion?
Ans. A reaction in which the product formed will have the configuration
1
opposite to that of the reactant is called inversion.
Q23. What are enantiomers? (J-15)
Ans. The stereo isomers related to each other as non – super imposable mirror
1
images.
Q24. What is a racemic mixture?
Ans. A mixture containing two enantiomers in equal proportions will have zero
1
optical rotation.
Q25. Write the general equation for the reaction of primary alcohol with SOCl2.
Ans. R—CH2OH + SOCl2 → R—CH2Cl + HCl + SO2 (J-16) 1
Q. No. Questions carrying 2 marks each (Part D) M

Q1. Explain Finkelstein reaction.


Ans. When alkyl chlorides /bromides react with NaI in dry acetone, alkyl 1
iodides are formed.
1
R ─ X + NaI → R ─ I + NaX

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Q2. Complete the following equations: Ans.


(i) C2H5OH + SOCl2 → ………. (i) C2H5Cl + HCl + SO2 1

(ii) (ii)

Q3. Explain Wurtz-Fittig‘s reaction. (M-16)


Ans. When a mixture of an alkyl halide and aryl halide is treated with sodium in
dry ether, alkylarene is formed.

Q4. Explain Wurtz reaction.


Ans. When alkyl halides react with sodium in dry ether, higher alkanes are
formed.

2
Q5. Explain Swart‘s reaction.
Ans.  When alkyl chlorides / alkyl bromides are heated with metallic fluorides
such as AgF, alkyl fluorides are formed. This reaction is known as ‘Swarts 1
reaction’.
 CH3—Br + AgF → CH3—F + AgBr 1
Q6. Complete the following reactions: (J-15) Ans.
(i) CH3 – CH2 –NC + AgBr 1
(i) CH3-CH2Br + AgCN →
(ii) CH3CH2OH + SOCl2 → (ii) CH3CH2Cl + HCl + SO2 1
Q7. Aryl halides are extremely less reactive towards nucleophilic substitution
reactions than halo alkanes. Give any two reasons. (M-14, 15, 17, J-17)
Ans. i) C – X bond acquires double bond character due to resonance.
ii) In haloarene the C-atom attached to halogen is sp2 hybridized. Hence
due to more‘s’ character of C – X bond the reactivity is less.
1+1
iii) Instability of phenyl cation. (Any two)
Q. No. Questions carrying 3 marks each (Part D) M

Q1. Mention the major product formed in the following reaction: J – 2014
(i) C6H5Br + Mg →
(ii) 2-Bromopentane→
(iii) CH3Cl + NaI→
Ans. (i) C6H5MgBr 1
(ii) Pent-2-ene 1
1
(iii) CH3I

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Q2. Write the structure of the major product in each of the following reactions.
 i  CH 3
 CH 2  CH 2  CHBr  CH 3  KOH  alc  
Anhydrous AlCl
(ii) C6 H 5Cl  CH 3COCl 
3

(iii) C6 H 5  X  2 Na  R  X 
Ether

Ans.
(i) CH3 – CH2 – CH=CH – CH3
1

1+1

Q3. Explain SN1 mechanism with a suitable example. Write the equations.
(M-14, J-14, M-16, 17, J-17, M-18)
Ans. Step – 1: Formation of Carbocation:

(Slow)
Step 2:Attack of nucleophile:

(Fast)
 Step 1 is the slowest step and hence is the rate determining step.
1
 Rate  [R-X]. Therefore SN1 reaction is a first order reaction.
Q4. Explain SN2 mechanism taking an example of chloromethane.
(M-15, J-15, J-16, M-17)
Ans.
 Mechanism: It involves only one step;
The nucleophile OH— attacks the carbon atom from the side opposite to the
chlorine atom to form a new C – OH bond. There exists a transition statein
which both OH— and Cl— are partially bonded to the carbon atom.
As the C – OH bond becomes stronger C – Cl bond weakens. Hence finally
Cl— gets detached to give the end product methyl alcohol.

This reaction follows a second order kinetics, i.e. Rate  [R – X] [OH—] 1


Thus SN2is a second order, bimolecular reaction.

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UNIT – 11: ALCOHOLS, PHENOLS AND ETHERS

PART – B (2M) PART – D V (5M) TOTAL


Q. No. 15 Q. No. 33 07 MARKS
Q. No. Questions carrying 1 mark each (Part B or D) M

Q1. What is denatured alcohol?


Ans. The alcohol is made unfit for drinking by mixing in it some methyl alcohol, 1
copper sulphate and pyridine.
Q2. Alcohols have higher boiling points than hydrocarbons. Give reason.
Ans. Due to intermolecular hydrogen bonding in alcohols. 1
Q3. Write the general equation for esterification reaction.
Ans. R-COOH + HOR¹→ RCOOR + H2O 1
Q4. What is Lucas reagent? (J-16)
Ans. A mixture of anhydrous ZnCl2 and Conc. HCl 1
Q5. Write the IUPAC name of major product formed in Friedel Craft‘s acylation
of anisole. (J-15)
Ans. 4–Methoxyacetophenone. 1

Q6. Among the alcohol and phenol which one is more acidic? And why? (M-18)
Ans. Phenol. Because phenoxide ion formed is resonance stabilized. 1

Q7. Name the reagent used in the conversion. R—COOH → R—CH2OH


Ans. LiAlH4 or Lithiumaluminiumhydride. 1

Q8. Complete the reaction. Ans.


(J-15) 1

(M-14) 1

(J-15) 1

Q. No. Questions carrying 2 marks each (Part B or D) M

Q1. Identify ‗A‘ and ‗B‘ (J-16)


CH3 – CH = CH2→ A→ B
Ans. A = CH3 ─ CHOH ─ CH3 B = CH3 ─ CO ─ CH3 2
Q2. How do you prepare ethanol by using Grignard reagent?

Ans. HCHO + CH3MgI → CH3CH2OMgI → CH3CH2OH + Mg(OH)I 2


Methanal Methyl magnesium iodide Ethanol

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Q3. Complete the following reactions: (M-14)


(i) R—CH2OH → ……….

Ans. (i) R—CHO 1


(ii) CH3—CHOH—CH3 1

Q4. How does anisole react with acetyl chloride in the presence of anhydrous
AlCl3? (M-15, M-17)

Ans.
2

Q5. How does anisole react with a mixture of Conc. HNO3 and Conc. H2SO4?
Write the equation. (M-17)

Ans.
2

Q6. What is the action of bromine in ethanoic acid on anisole? (M-16, M-18)

Ans. 2

Q7. Explain Kolbe‘s reaction. (J-14, M-15, J-15, M-16, M-17, J-17)

2
Ans.

Q8. Explain Reimer-Tiemann reaction with an example. (J-16, M-17, J-17)

2
Ans.

Q9. Explain Williamson‘s ether synthesis. (M-14, J-14, J-15, J-16)


Ans.  When an alkyl halide reacts with alcoholic sodium alkoxide, ether is 1
formed.
1
 R – X + R¹ – ONa → R – O – R¹ + NaX
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Q10. Complete the following reaction equations:


(a) (CH3)3C─O─CH3 + Conc.HI →
(b) CH2 = CH2 + H2O →
(c) C6H5ONa + CH3Br →
Ans. a)(CH3)3C-I + CH3OH 1
b) CH3 CH2OH 1
1
c) C6H5OCH3 + NaBr
Q11. Give the equations for reactions involved in the preparation of phenol from
cumene. (M-14, M-16)

Ans.
3

Q12. What is the effect of (J-14)


(i)Electron withdrawing group on acidity of phenols
(ii) Electron donating group on the acidity of alcohols
(iii) Boiling point of alcohols on increasing number of carbon atoms.
Ans. (i) Increase the acidity of phenols. 1
(ii) Decrease the acidity of alcohols. 1
1
(iii) Boiling point increaseswith increasing number of carbon atoms.
Q13. Explain the mechanism of acid catalyzed dehydration of ethanol to ethene.

Ans. Reaction: CH3CH2OH → CH2 = CH2 + H2O


443K

Mechanism: It involves three steps;


Step-1: Protonation of ethanol to form oxonium ion.

Step -2: Formation of carbocation. It is a slow step and hence rate


determining step.

Step-3: Deprotonation of carbocation to form ethene.

(M-15, M-16, M-17, J-17, M-18)

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UNIT – 12: ALDEHYDES, KETONES AND CARBOXYLIC ACIDS


PART – A (1M) PART – B (2M) PART – D V (5M) TOTAL
Q. No. 9 Q. No. 16 Q. No. 34 08 MARKS
Q. No. Questions carrying 1 mark each (Part A or Part D) M

Q1. What is the IUPAC name of CH3 – CHO? (Jly – 14)


1
Ans. Ethanal
Q2. Write the IUPAC name of CH2 = CH – CHO (J – 17)
1
Ans. Prop – 2 – enal
Q3. Write the IUPAC name of CH3COCH2CH2CH3 (J – 18)
1
Ans. Pentan–2–one
Q4. Which oxidizing agent is used in ―Etard‘s reaction? (J – 15, M - 18)
1
Ans. Chromyl chloride in CS2 or CCl4
Q5. What is the type of hybridization involved in carbon atom of carbonyl
(>C=O) group? (M-14) 1
Ans. sp2
Q6. Name the following reaction.
1. SnCl / HCl
RCN 2
2. H O
RCHO
3
1
Ans. Stephen’s Reduction
Q7. Formaldehyde undergoes Cannizzaro‘s reaction: Give reason. (M15, 17)
1
Ans. Due to absence of - hydrogen
Q8. Acetaldehyde does not undergo ‗Cannizzaro‘s reaction. Why? (J – 15)
OR Ethanal undergoes aldol condensation reaction: Give reason. (M-18)
Ans. Because it possesses - hydrogen. 1

Q9. Acetophenone does not react with solution of NaHSO3. Why? (M – 16)
1
Ans. Due to steric hindrance.
Q10. Name the de-carboxylating agent.
1
Ans. Soda lime
Q11. Complete the following chemical reaction: (M – 16)
>C = O + NH2OH → ____ + H2O
Ans. >C = N – OH 1

Q12. What is the major product of the following reaction? (M – 16)

Q13. Complete the following chemical reaction. (J – 16)


RCH 2OH 
1. Alkaline KMnO4
2. H O
?
3
1
Ans. RCOOH

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Q14. What is the effect of electron withdrawing group on the acidity of carboxylic
acid? (M – 17)
Ans. Increases. 1
Q15. Which types of aldehydes do not undergo ―Cannizzaro‘s reaction‖?
1
Ans. Aldehydes containing - hydrogen.
Q16. Lower members of aldehydes and ketones are miscible with water: Give
reason.
Ans. Formation of hydrogen bonding with water molecules. 1

Q17. What are acetals?


1
Ans. Addition products of aldehydes with alcohols.
Q18. Arrange the following in the increasing order of their acidic strength.
ClCH2COOH, BrCH2COOH , FCH2COOH
Ans. BrCH2COOH < ClCH2COOH < FCH2COOH 1

Q19. Name the product formed when acetaldehyde reacts with hydroxyl amine.
1
Ans. Acetaldoxime or Ethanal oxime
Q20. Name the product formed in the following reaction.
H2C=O + H2N-OH → ?
1
Ans. Formaldoxime.
Q21. Name the product formed when acetaldehyde reacts with HCN. (J-16)
1
Ans. Acetaldehyde cyanohydrin.
Q22. Complete the reaction

Q23.

Give the IUPAC name of ‗X‘


Ans. Triiodomethane 1
Q. No. Questions carrying 2 marks each (Part B or Part D) M

Q1. Identify ‗A‘ and ‗B‘ (J- 16)

CH3 – CH = CH2→ A→ B
Ans. A = CH3 ─ CHOH ─ CH3
2
B = CH3 ─ CO ─ CH3
Q2. Aldehydes are generally more reactive than ketones towards nucleophilic
addition reactions. Give two reasons. (J-16)
Ans. Due to steric and electronic reasons. 1+1

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Q3. What is the action of ammonia on benzoic acid? Give equation. (M-15,17)
OR
How do you convert benzoic acid to benzamide? Write the reaction.

Ans. 2

(M-14,16)
Q4. Among methanoic (formic) acid and ethanoic acid which is more acidic?
Why? (J-16, J-17)
Ans.  Methanoic acid 1
 Due to +I effect of methyl group in ethanoic acid, its acidic strength
decreases. 1
Q5. What is the acion of dil. NaOH on Ethanal? Name the reaction. OR
Explain aldol condensation with an example. ( J-14, M – 16)
Ans.  2CH3CHO → CH3 – CH – CH2 – CHO
1
Ethanal |
OH 3 – Hydroxybutanal
1
 Aldol condensation.
Q6. How are carboxylic acids prepared from nitriles? (J-14)
2
Ans.

Q7. Explain Hell – Volhard – Zelinesky (HVZ) reaction.


Ans. When carboxylic acids having  – hydrogen are treated with chlorine or
bromine in the presence of red phosphorous,  – halo carboxylic acids are
formed.
2

Q8. Explain Wolff – Kishner reduction.


Ans. Aldehydes and Ketones react with hydrazine to form hydrazones, which on
heating with NaOH or KOH in ethylene glycol give corresponding
hydrocarbons.

Q9. Name the reducing agent used in the conversion of ketones to hydrocarbons.
Name the reaction. (J-15)
Ans.  Zn-Hg/Conc.HCl 1
 Clemmensen’s reduction. 1

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Q10. Explain Gatterman – Koch reaction. (M-15, M-17)


Ans. When benzene is treated with carbon monoxide and hydrogen chloride in
the presence of anhydrous AlCl3 or cuprous chloride, it gives
Benzaldehyde.

Q11. Explain Clemmensen‘s reduction. (M-16, M-17)


Ans. Aldehydes and Ketones are reduced to hydrocarbons by Zinc-amalgam and
concentrated hydrochloric acid.

Q12. Give the equation for the reaction b/w benzaldehyde and acetophenone in
the presence of dilute alkali. Name the reaction. OR
Explain cross aldol condensation with an example. (M-16, J-16)

Ans.
1

1
 Cross aldol condensation
13. How are carboxylic acids prepared from Grignard reagent? (J-15, M-18)
Ans. When Grignard reagent reacts with solid carbon dioxide (dry ice) in ether, 1
an addition product is formed. This on hydrolysis gives carboxylic acid.

Q14. Name the reactions; Ans.

1
Gattermann – Koch reaction.

Rosenmund’s reduction

Q15. Explain Rosenmund‘s reduction of benzoyl chloride. (M-14, M-18)

Ans. 2

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Q16. What happens when carbonyl compounds are treated with hydrazine? Write
the reaction. (M-14)
Ans. Aldehydes and ketones react with hydrazine to form hydrazones. 1

Q17. How do you prepare acetaldehyde from acetyl chloride?


Name the reaction. (J-15)
Ans.  CH3COCl + H2 → CH3CHO + HCl 2
 Rosenmund’s reduction
Q18. Explain decarboxylation with an example. (M-16)
Ans. When sodium salts of carboxylic acids are heated with soda lime,
decarboxylation takes place to give lower hydrocarbons.
2

Q19. Explain Cannizzaro‘s reaction with an example. (J-17)


Ans. Aldehydes with no  - hydrogen atom when treated with concentrated
alkali (NaOH or KOH), undergo self-oxidation and reduction
(disproportionation) to give carboxylic acid salt and alcohol.
2
C6H5CHO + Conc.NaOH → C6H5COONa + C6H5CH2OH
Benzaldehyde Sodium benzoate Benzyl alcohol
Q20. How does propanone react with hydrazine? Give equation. (M-18)

Ans. 2

Q21. Name the reagents used to convert; Ans.


1
a) Ethanal to But – 2 – enal Dilute NaOH/∆
b) Ketone to Oxime Hydroxyl amine 1

Q22. How does ketone react with ethylene glycol? Give equation.

Ans. 2

Q23. How do you convert benzamide to benzoic acid?


Ans. By hydrolysis C6H5CONH2 + H2O→ C6H5COOH + NH3 2
Benz amide Benzoic acid
Q24. Name the products A & B in the following reaction.
2CH3CHO → A→ B
Ans. A = 2 – Hydroxybutanal 1
1
B = But – 2 – enal
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Q25. How are ketones prepared from nitriles? Write equation.


Ans.

Ketone
Q. No. Questions carrying 3 marks each (Part D) M

Q1. Write equation for


(i) The reaction between carboxylic acid and PCl5
(ii) The reaction between formaldehyde and Conc. KOH
(iii) The formation of oxime from carbonyl compound. (J-14)
Ans. (i) RCOOH + PCl5 → RCOCl + POCl3 + HCl 1
(ii) 2HCHO + KOH → HCOOK + CH3OH 1
(iii) >C = O + H2N – OH → >C = N – OH + H2O 1

Q2. Explain the mechanism of addition of HCN to a carbonyl group in the


presence of a base. (M-16)
Ans. Step 1: Attack of nucleophile on carbonyl carbon to form alkoxide ion
intermediate. 1

Step-II: Attack of H+: The intermediate alkoxide ion captures a proton to


form the addition product.

Q3. Identify A, B and C in the following reaction;


A + NaOH → B + C → C 6 H6
↓Lucas reagent
Turbidity
3
Ans. A= C6H5CHO
B = C6H5CH2OH
C = C6H5COONa

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UNIT – 13: AMINES

PART – D V (5M) TOTAL


Q. NO: 35 05 MARKS
Q. No. Questions carrying 1 mark each (Part D) M

Q1. Write the IUPAC name of Ans.


1
(i) (J-15) (i) N, N-Dimethylethanamine

(ii) CH3 – CH2 – NH2 (M-15, 17) (ii) Ethanamine 1

(iii) H3C – NH – CH2 – CH3 (M-14) (iii) N – Methyl ethanamine 1

(iv) C6H5 – N (CH3)2 (M-18) (iv) N, N-Dimethyl benzenamine 1


Q2. Identify ‗A‘ A + 2R-X → R4N+X─
Ans. R2NH 1
Q3. Arrange the following in the increasing order of their basic strength in
aqueous solution. (CH3)3N, (CH3)2NH, CH3NH2 (M-15, M -17)
Ans. (CH3)3N < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH 1
Q4. Give reason: Ammonia is more basic than aniline.
1
Ans. +R effect of –NH2 group in aniline.
Q5. The pKb values of Ammonia, Methanamine and Benzenamine are 4.75, 3.38 &
9.38 respectively. Arrange them in the increasing order of their basic strength.
1
Ans. Benzenamine < Ammonia < Methanamine
Q6. Complete the following equation. (M – 17)
C6H5NH2 + NaNO2 + 2HCl →
Ans. C6H5N2Cl + NaCl + 2H2O 1

Q7. Which is more basic among methyl amine and aniline? (M – 14)
Ans. Methyl amine. 1
Q8. Arrange the following in the increasing order of their basic strength in
aqueous solution. (C2H5)3N, C2H5NH2, (C2H5)2NH.
Ans. C2H5NH2 < (C2H5)3N < (C2H5)2 NH 1
Q9. What is Hinsberg‘s Reagent?
Ans. Benzene sulphonyl chloride 1
Q10.
Complete the equation. R – CO – NH2→

Ans. 1
R – CH2 – NH2
Q11. Complete the following reaction. (M-16)

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Q12. Why aromatic primary amines cannot be prepared by Gabriel synthesis?


Ans. Aryl halides do not react with potassium salt of phthalimide. (J-16) 1
Q. No. Questions carrying 2 marks each (Part D) M

Q1. Explain Hoffmann‘s bromamide degradation reaction. (M-15, 17, J–15, 17)
Ans. When an amide is heated with bromine in an aqueous or alcoholic NaOH,
lower primary amine is formed.
R – CONH2 + Br2 + 4NaOH   R – NH2 + Na2CO3 + 2NaBr + 2H2O 2
Amide 10 – Amine
Q2. Explain Hoffmann‘s bromamide degradation for the preparation of aniline.
Ans. C6H5CONH2 + Br2 + 4NaOH   C6H5NH2 + Na2CO3 + 2NaBr + 2H2O 2
Benzamide Aniline (M – 14)
Q3. Explain carbyl amine reaction with an example. (J-14, M-16)
Ans. When primary amine is heated with chloroform and alcoholic KOH, afoul
smelling substance iso-cyanide or carbyl amine is formed.
2
CH3 – NH2 + CHCl3 + 3KOH → CH3 – NC + 3KCl + 3H2O
Methanamine (alc) Methyl isocyanide
Q4. Name the major products formed when nitrous acid reacts with the following
compounds at lower temperature.
(i) Methyl amine
(ii) Aniline
Ans. (i) Methanol 2

(ii) Benzene diazonium chloride


Q5. What is the action of bromine water on Benzenamine at room temperature?

Ans.
2

(White ppt.)
Q6. How is aniline converted into Phenyl isocyanide? (J-16)
Ans. C6H5 – NH2 + CHCl3 + 3KOH → C6H5 – NC + 3KCl + 3H2O 2
Aniline (alc) Phenyl isocyanide
Q7. Explain the reduction of nitro compounds to amines with an example.

Ans. 2

(J-16, M-18)

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Q8. Name the major products formed in the following conversions. (J-17)
(i) When nitrous acid is treated with methyl amine.
(ii) Benzene diazonium chloride is treated with KI.
Ans. (i) Methanol 1+1

(ii) Iodobenzene.
Q. No. Questions carrying 3 marks each (Part D) M

Q1. Write the chemical equations involved;


a) when primary amine (R-NH2) is heated with chloroform and alcoholic
KOH
b) When arene diazonium salt is reduced with H3PO2.
c) When benzene diazonium chloride reacts with phenol in the presence
of alkali.
Ans. (a) R – NH2 + CHCl3 + 3KOH → R – NC + 3KCl + 3H2O 1
(alc)
1
(b) ArN2+X— + H3PO2 + H2O   ArH + H3PO3 + HX + N2↑
(c)

Q2. Give the reactions involved in the Gabriel‘s phthalimide synthesis of a


primary amine.

3
Ans.

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UNIT – 14: BIOMOLECULES

PART – A (1M) PART – D V (5M) TOTAL


Q. No. 10 Q. No. 36 06 MARKS
Q. No. Questions carrying 1 mark each (Part A or Part D) M

Q1. Name the reducing agent used to show that glucose contains straight chain
structure.
Ans. Hydrogen iodide or HI 1
Q2. Name the water soluble component of starch. (M-14)
Ans. Amylose 1
Q3. Name the water insoluble component of starch.
Ans. Amylopectin. 1
Q4. Is lysine an essential or non-essential amino acid? (M-14)
Ans. Essential amino acid. 1
Q5. Give an example for an acidic amino acid. (J- 14)
Ans. Aspartic acid or Glutamic acid. 1
Q6. Name optically inactive amino acid. (M-16, M-17)
Ans. Glycine. 1

Q7. Zwitter ionic form of glycine. (M-18)

Ans. 1

Q8. Give an example for globular protein. (M-17)


1
Ans. Albumin or Hemoglobin.
Q9. Name the protein present in hair. (J-14)
1
Ans. Keratin.
Q10. Which structure of protein remains intact during denaturation?
1
Ans. Primary structure
Q11. Which hormone is an iodinated derivative of amino acid tyrosine?
1
Ans. Thyroxin
Q12. Name a hormone which maintains the blood glucose level. (M-16)
1
Ans. Insulin.
Q13. Deficiency of which vitamin causes the disease pernicious anemia?
Ans. Vitamin B-12 1
Q14. Deficiency of which vitamin causes the disease scurvy? (M-15, M-17)
Ans. Vitamin – C 1
Q15. Mention one water soluble vitamin. (M-14)
Ans. Vitamin – B1 or B2 or B12 or Vitamin – C. 1

Q16. Give an example for fat soluble vitamin. (J-17)


Ans. Vitamin – A/D/E/K 1

Q17. Name the disease caused by deficiency of vitamin A. (M-16)


Ans. Night blindness / Xerophthalmia. 1

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Q18. Which vitamin deficiency causes rickets in children? (J-16)


Ans. Vitamin – D. 1

Q19. What are nucleosides? (J-16)


Ans. A unit formed by the attachment of a base to 1¹ position of sugar moiety. 1
Q20. Name the nucleic acid which is responsible for genetic information.
Ans. DNA. (M-15, M-17) 1

Q21. Name the nitrogenous base present only in RNA. (M-14, M-16)
Ans. Uracil. 1

Q22. Which is the nitrogenous base present only in DNA? (J-15)


Ans. Thymine 1
Q23. Name the pentose sugar present in RNA molecule. (J-17)
Ans. Ribose. 1
Q24. Give an example for steroid hormone. (J-16)
Ans. Estrogen or Androgen. 1

Q25. Name the complimentary base which forms hydrogen bond with adenine in
double stranded helix structure of DNA.
Ans. Thymine. 1
Q26. Why cannot vitamin ‗C‘ be stored in our body?
Ans. Vitamin C is water soluble and readily excreted in the urine. 1
Q. No. Questions carrying 2 marks each (Part D) M

Q1. What are carbohydrates? How are they classified?


Ans. The Poly-hydroxy aldehydes or ketones or the compounds which produce 1
such units on hydrolysis.
Mono-saccharides, Oligosaccharides and Polysaccharides. 1
Q2. Name the products formed, when D-glucose is heated with the following
reagents.
i. HI
ii. Acetic anhydride
Ans. (i) n – Hexane. 1
(ii) Glucose pentaacetate. 1
Q3. What is zwitter ion? Write its general formula. (J-15, M-16)
Ans. Dipolar ionic form of an amino acid in aqueous solution. 1

Q4. What are essential amino acids? Give example. (J-17)


Ans.  The amino acids which cannot be synthesized in the body and must be
obtained through diet. 1
 EX. Valine, leucine, lysine. 1
Q5. What are fibrous proteins? Give an example. (J-16)
Ans.  Proteins having fiber like structure. 1
1
 EX. Keratin or Myosin.
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Q6. What is denaturation of protein?


Ans. A process where the change in the physical as well as biological properties
of a protein by the action of heat, change in pH is called denaturation of
protein. 2
Q7. How do you show that glucose contains a linear chain of six carbon atoms?
1
Ans. On prolonged heating with HI, it forms n - hexane. This indicates that
glucose contains a straight chain of six carbon atoms. (M-16)

Q8. Write the Haworth‘s structure of – D(+) Glucose. (J-14)

Ans. 2

Q9. Write the Haworth‘s structure of Maltose / Lactose / Sucrose.


(J-15, M-16, J-16, J-17, M-18)

1
Ans.
1

Q10. What are non-essential amino acids? Give example. (M-18)


Ans. The amino acids which can be synthesized in the body are known as
non-essential amino acids. Example: Glycine, alanine, glutamic acid. 1+1
Q11. What is peptide linkage? How many peptide bonds are present in tetra
peptide? (M-17)
Ans.  The amide (-CO-NH-) bond formed by the combination of —COOH and
—NH2 groups of two amino acid molecules with the elimination of a 1
water molecule.
 Three. 1
Q12. What are hormones? Give an example. (J-15)
Ans.  These are substances produced by endocrine glands in the body, which
act as intercellular messengers. 1
 Ex. Insulin, Glucagon. 1

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UNIT – 15: POLYMERS

PART – D V (5M) TOTAL


Q. No. 37 05 MARKS
Q. No. Questions carrying 1 mark each (Part D) M

Q1. Give an example for thermosetting polymer. (M-14)


1
Ans. Bakelite.
Q2. Give an example for thermoplastic polymer.
1
Ans. PVC or Polythene.
Q3. Give an example for co-polymer. (M-16)
1
Ans. Buna-S, Buna-N.
Q4. What is vulcanization? (J-15)
1
Ans. The process of heating a mixture of raw rubber with sulphur at
373K–415K
Q5. Write the partial structure of natural rubber.

Ans.
1

Q6. Write the IUPAC name of monomer of natural rubber. (M-16)


Ans. 2-Methylbuta-1, 3-diene 1

Q7. Write the partial structure of polythene. (M-16)


1
Ans. –[—CH2 — CH2—]n–
Q8. Write the partial structures of: Ans.

(i) Polyacrylonitrile 1

(ii) Nylon-6, 6 1

(iii) Nylon-6 1

(iv) Terylene or Dacron 1

(v) Neoprene. (M-16)


1

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Q9. Give an example of non-biodegradable polymer.


Ans. PVC 1
Q10. Write the structure of isoprene. (M-18)

Ans. 1

Q. No. Questions carrying 2 marks each (Part D) M

Q1. Give the classification of polymers on the basis of their structure.


Ans. Linear Polymers, Branched Chain Polymers and Cross linked or Network 2
Polymers
Q2. Among the following which is a homo-polymer and a copolymer?
(i) Nylon – 6, 6 (ii) PVC.
Ans. (i) Nylon – 6, 6 is copolymer (ii) PVC is homo-polymer. 1+1
Q3. Name the monomers used in the preparation of Ans.
(i) Polythene (M-14) (i) Ethene 1
(ii) Natural rubber (ii) Isoprene
(M-14, M-15, M-17, J-17) 1

(iii) Nylon – 6 (iii) Caprolactum


(J-17) 1
(iv) PVC (J-14, M-15, M-17) (iv) Vinyl chloride 1
(v) Bakelite (J-14)(v) Phenol and
2
Formaldehyde
(vi) Polystyrene (J-14) (vi) Styrene 1

(vii) Neoprene (J-17) (vii) Chloroprene 1


Q4. What are condensation polymers? Give an example. (M-16)
Ans.  The polymers formed by repeated condensation between different bi-
functional or tri-functional monomer units with the elimination of small
1
molecules such as water, alcohol etc.
 EX: Nylon- 6, 6 or Dacron. 1
Q5. Name the monomers of Nylon – 6, 6. (M-16, J-16)
Ans. Adipic acid and Hexamethylenediamine. 2

Q6. Explain addition polymerization with an example. (M-16)


Ans. The molecules of the same monomer or different monomers add together
on a large scale to form a polymer.

Q7. What are copolymers? Give an example. (J-17)


Ans.  A reaction in which a mixture of more than one monomer species is
allowed to polymerize to form copolymer. 1
1
 EX: Buna – S
Q8. What are thermoplastic polymers? Give an example. (M-18)
Ans.  These are the linear or slightly branched long chain molecules capable of
repeatedly softening on heating and hardening on cooling. 1
1
 EX: PVC.
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Q9. What are thermosetting polymers? Give an example.


Ans.  These polymers are cross linked or heavily branched molecules, which
on heating undergo extensive cross linking in moulds and again become
1
infusible.
 EX: Bakelite. 1
Q10. What are biodegradable polymers? Give example. (M-15, J-15, J-16, M-17)
Ans.  The polymers which undergo bacterial degradation into raw materials of
nature. 1
1
 EX: PHBV or Nylon–2–nylon–6
Q11. Explain the preparation of Buna – N. (M-14, M-15, M-17)
Ans. It is obtained by the copolymerization of 1, 3 – Butadiene and acrylonitrile
in the presence of a peroxide catalyst.

Q12. How is Neoprene prepared? (J-15)

2
Ans.

Q13. Explain the preparation of Nylon – 6, 6 with equation. (M-18)

2
Ans.

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UNIT – 16: CHEMISTRY IN EVERYDAY LIFE

PART – B (2M) TOTAL


Q. Nos. 17 & 18 04 MARKS
Q. No. Questions carrying 1 mark each (Part B ) M

Q1. Give one example each for Ans.


1
(a) Anti- fertility drugs. (a) Novestrol
(b) Antacid (b) Ranitidine 1
(c) Cetyl trimethyl ammonium bromide 1
(c) Cationic detergent.
Q2. What are antacids?
1
Ans. The chemical substances which neutralize stomach acidity.
Q3. What are artificial sweeteners?
Ans. These are low calorie substances which are used as sweetening agents to
replace sugar and other calorific food substances. 1
Q4. Give an example for non-biodegradable detergents.
Ans. Sodium - 4 - (1, 3, 5, 7 - tetra methyl octyl) benzene sulphonate. 1
Q. No. Questions carrying 2 marks each (Part B) M

Q1. What are antiseptics? Give example. (J-14)


Ans.  These are applied to the living tissues such as wounds, cuts, ulcers etc. 1
 Dettol. 1
Q2. What are antibiotics? Give an example. (J-15)
Ans.  The chemical substances produced by micro-organisms and that inhibit
the growth or even destroy the harmful micro-organisms. 1
1
 Penicillin.
Q3. What are analgesics? Give an example. (M-16)
Ans.  The drugs used to relieve body pain. 1
 EX: Aspirin 1
Q4. What is saponification? Give equation. (J-15, M-17)
Ans. When oil or fat is heated with aqueous NaOH, sodium salts of fatty acids 1
(soaps) are formed.

Q5. Mention a drug which can act both as an analgesic as well as an antipyretic.
Name an artificial sweetening agent. (M-14)
Ans. Aspirin and Saccharin. 1+1

Q6. What are the advantages of artificial sweeteners over natural sweeteners?
Ans. They control intake of calories and excreted from the body in urine 2
unchanged.

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Q7. What are food preservatives? Give an example. (M-14, J-14)


Ans.  Food preservatives prevent spoilage of food due to microbial growth. 1
 Table salt, Sugar, Sodium benzoate. 1
Q8. Among the following compounds which is narcotic and non-narcotic
analgesics?
Ans.  Aspirin (Non-narcotic) 1

 Morphine (Narcotic) 1
Q9. Why do soaps not work in hard water? Explain.
Ans. Hard water contains calcium and magnesium ions. These ions form
insoluble calcium and magnesium soaps respectively, when sodium or
potassium soaps are dissolved in hard water. These insoluble soaps
separate as scum and are useless as cleansing agents. 2

Q10. Give an example for: (M-15, M-17)


(i) Non-narcotic analgesics
(ii) Antiseptics.
1
Ans. (i) Aspirin or Paracetamol
(ii) Dettol. 1

Q11. What is the role of following chemicals in food? (M-16)


(i) Saccharin (ii) Sodium benzoate
Ans. (i) Artificial sweetener 1

(ii) Food preservative 1


Q12. What are anionic detergents? Give example. (M-15, M-16, M-17)
Ans.  Sodium salts of sulphonated long chain alcohols or hydrocarbons. 1
 Ex: Sodium lauryl sulphate. 1
Q13. What are cationic detergents? Give an example. (M-18)
Ans.  Cationic detergents are quaternary ammonium salts of amines with 1
acetates, chlorides or bromides as anions.
 Example: Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide 1
Q14. Name (J-16, J-17)
(i) Artificial sweetening agent used only in cold food.
(ii) First popular artificial sweetener.
Ans. (i) Aspartame 1
(ii) Saccharin 1

Q15. What are antifertility drugs? Give an example. (M-16, J-17)


Ans.  A drug which is used in birth control. 1
 Ex: Norethindrone or Novestrol. 1
Q16. What are tranquilizers? Give an example. (J-16)
Ans.  The drugs used for the treatment of stress or mental disorders. 1
 Ex: Equanil or Serotonin 1
Q17. What are antioxidants? Give an example.
Ans.  These are food additives which help in food preservation by retarding
the action of oxygen on food. 1
 Example: BHT or BHA 1
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