Physical World, Kinematics and 5 others

Total No. of Questions: 180 Total Marks: 720

SECTION 1: Physics
Q1 Gravity is defined  as: (4 Marks)
A. The push of the earth
B. The force of the earth
C. The capacity of the earth
D. The pull of the earth

Q2 Which of the following is true regarding the physical science? (4 Marks)

A. They deal with non-living things.
B. The study of matter are conducted at atomic or ionic levels.
C. Both a and b
D. None of these

Q3 Lightning is observed earlier than the sound is heard because (4 Marks)

A. Light travels faster than sound
B. Thunder is produced later
C. Thunder is produced simultaneously but it travels after light has reached the observer's eyes
D. Man's sense of vision is sharper than his sense of hearing
E. None of the above

Q4 Magnitude force is:- (4 Marks)

A. Contact force
B. Non-contact force
C. Both a and B
D. None of these

Q5 Which of the following statements is incorrect ? (4 Marks)

A. Nuclear force are always attractive
B. Nuclear force are stronger than coulombian force at distance of picometer
C. Nuclear force are repulsive at distance less than or equal to 0.8 picometer
D. Nuclear force are spin dependent

Q6 Which of the following is not a fundamental force ? (4 Marks)

A. Gravitational force
B. Weak nuclear force
C. Strong nuclear force
D. Frictional force
E. Electromagnetic force

Q7 For a graph for acceleration against time for a uniformly accelerated motion. Which of the following (4 Marks)
is/are true?
A. Graph will be a straight line parallel to the time axis
B. The slope of graph is zero 
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above

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Q8 A body has an acceleration of −4ms−2 . Then its retardation is equal to : (4 Marks)
A. −4ms2
B. 4ms−2
C. Zero
D. Nothing can be decided

Q9 Two towns A and B are connected by a regular bus service with a bus leaving in either direction (4 Marks)
every T minutes. A man cycling with a speed of 20 km h−1 in the direction A to B notices that a
bus goes past him every 18 min in the direction of his motion, and every 6 min in the opposite
direction. What is the period T of the bus service and with what speed (assumed constant) do buses
ply on the road?

A. 9 min, 40 Kmph
B. 12 min, 10 Kmph
C. 12 min, 40 Kmph
D. 9 min, 60 Kmph

Q10 If velocity of a particle is given by V = 10 = 2t2 m/s. the average acceleration between 2 and 5 s (4 Marks)
is:
A. 2 m/s2
B. 4 m/s2
C. 12 m/s2
D. 14 m/s2

Q11 An enemy plane is flying horizontally at an attitude of 2km with a speed of 300ms−1 . An army (4 Marks)
man with an anti-craft gun on the ground fires a shell with speed of 600ms−1 , when the enemy
plane is directly overhead. At what angle from the vertical should the gun be fired so as to hit the
plane?
A. 90o
B. 60o
C. 45o
D. 30o

Q12 A cart of mass 150 kg is pulled horizontally on a frictionless surface with force 10 N . If 100 g/s (4 Marks)
sand is being dropped in the cart vertically then find the speed of the system when cart has 100 kg
sand in it.
A. 10 m/s
B. 20 m/s
C. 40 m/s
D. 50 m/s

Q13 Two particle P and Q are initially 10 m apart and P is behind Q. Particle P starts moving with a (4 Marks)
uniform velocity 5 m/s towards Q. particle Q starting from rest has an acceleration 5m/s2 in the
direction of velocity P. Then [Both start simultaneously].
A. P will overtake Q two times
B. P will never overtake Q
C. The minimum separation between P and Q is less than 10 m
D. Both (2) and (3)

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Q14 A ball is bouncing down a set of stairs. The coefficient of restitution is e. The height of each step is (4 Marks)
d and the ball bounces one step at each bounce. After each bounce the ball rebounds to a height h
above the next lower step. Neglect width of each step, in comparison to h and assume the impacts to
be effectively head on. Which of the following relation is correct? (given that h > d)
h
A. ​ = 1 − e2
d
h
B. = 1−e
d
h 1
C. =
1 − e2
​

d
h 1
D. =
1−e
​ ​

Q15 A force of 50 N is required to push a car on a level road with constant speed of 10 m/s. The mass (4 Marks)
of the car is 500 kg . What force should be applied to make the car accelerate at 1 m/s2 ?
A. 550 N
B. 450 N
C. 500 N
D. 2500 N

Q16 A line of men are running along a road at 8 Kmph behind one another at equal intervals of 20m. A (4 Marks)
line of cyclists are riding in the same direction at 15 Kmph at equal intervals of 30 m. Find the
velocity with which on observed must travel along the line so that whenever he meets a runner he
also meets a cyclist.
A. 6 Kmph is the direction of lines
B. 6 Kmph opposite to the direction of lines
C. 10 Kmph in the direction of line
D. 10 Kmph opposite to the direction

Q17 A shell bursts on contact with the ground and pieces from it fly in all directions with velocities upto (4 Marks)
60m/s. Find the time for which a man 180m away is in danger.
A. 2 3 s ​

B. 6 2 s ​

C. 4 3 s ​

D. None of these

Q18 The displacement of a particle is given by x= (t-2)^2 where x is in metres and t is in seconds. The (4 Marks)
distance covered by the particle in first 4 seconds is
A. 4 m
B. 8 m
C. 6 m
D. 16 m

Q19 A particle is projected from the ground with an initial speed of u at an angle of projection θ . The (4 Marks)
average velocity of the particle between its time of projection and time it reaches highest point of
trajectory is :

u
A. 1 + 2cos2 θ
2
​ ​

u
B. 1 + 2sin2 θ
2
​

u
C. 1 + 3cos2 θ
2
​

D. u cosθ

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Q20 A large number of particles are moving towards each other with velocity V having directions of (4 Marks)
motion randomly distributed. What is the average relative velocity between any two particles
averaged over all the pairs?

A. 4V /π
B. 4πV
C. V
D. πV /4

Q21 A body of mass 5kg is moving with a velocity 20m/s. If a force of 100N is applied to it for 10 s in (4 Marks)
the same direction as its velocity, what will be the velocity of the body?
A. 180m/s
B. 200m/s
C. 220m/s
D. 250m/s

Q22 It is possible to project a particle with a given velocity in two possible ways so as to make them pass (4 Marks)
through a point P at a horizontal distance r from the point of projection. If t1 and t2 are times taken
​ ​

to reach this point in two possible ways, then the product t1 t2 is proportional to:
​ ​

1
A. ​

r
B. r
C. r2
1
D.
r2
​

Q23 A bus is moving with a velocity 10  ms−1  on a straight road. A scooterist wishes to over take the (4 Marks)
bus in 100s. If the bus is at a distance of 1km from the scooterist, with what velocity should be
scooterist chase the bus?
A. 50 ms−1
B. 40 ms−1
C. 30 ms−1
D. 20 ms−1

Q24 A steamer is heading due North with 20 ms−1 . The wind is blowing 10 ms−1 due west. In which (4 Marks)
direction the flag on the mast flutters?
A. tan−1 1 west of north
2
​

B. tan−1 12 east of north

​

C. tan−1 12 north of east

​

D. tan−1 12 north of west

​

Q25 At Deoprayag (Garhwal, UP) river Alaknanda mixes with the river Bhagirathi and becomes river (4 Marks)
Ganga. Suppose Alaknanda has a width of 12 m, Bhagirathi has a width of 8 m and Ganga has a
width of 16 m. Assume that the depth of water is same in the three rivers. Let the average speed of
water in Alaknanda be 20 kmh−1 and in Bhagirathi be 16 kmh−1 Find the average speed of water
in the river Ganga. 

A. 40km/h
B. 23km/h
C. 56km/h
D. 50km/h
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Q26 A ball is dropped from top of a tower of height 100m. Simultaneously, another ball was thrown (4 Marks)
m
upwards from bottom of the tower with a speed of 50s . They will cross each other after
​

s
m2
[g = 10 ]

s
​

A. 1s
B. 2s
C. 3s
D. 4s

Q27 A train is moving with avelocity of 100 km/hr in the north  east direction If another train is moving (4 Marks)
with a velocity of 50 km/hr in the 
A. 111.34km/h
B. 132.34km/h
C. 142.34km/h
D. 152.34km/h

Q28 Position of particle is given by x = t3 − 4t2 + 5t + 9. What would be the distance traveled by (4 Marks)
particle from instant t = 0 to instant when particle changes its direction of velocity for last time.
A. 1.85 m
B. 2.15 m
C. 2 m
D. 2.85 m

Q29 A cannon on a level plane is aimed at an angle θ above the horizontal and a shell is fired with a (4 Marks)
muzzle velocity v0 towards a vertical cliff a distance D  away.Then the height from the bottom at
​

which the shell strikes the side wall of the cliff is

gD2
A. Dsinθ − 2 2
2v0 sin θ
​

gD2
B. Dcosθ − 2
2v0 cos2 θ
​

gD2
C. Dtanθ − 2
2v0 cos2 θ
​

gD2
D. Dtanθ − 2 2
2v0 sin θ
​

Q30 j + k^ . Its velocity along y-axis

The position vector of an object at any time t is given by 3t2^i + 6t^ ​
(4 Marks)
has the magnitude 
A. 6 t
B. 6
C. 0
D. 9

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Q31 A point traversed half the distance with a velocity v0 . The remaining part of the distance was
​
(4 Marks)
covered with velocity v1 for half the time, and with velocity v2 for thr other half of the time. Find
​ ​

the mean velocity of the point averaged over the whole time of motion-
2v0 (v1 +2 )
A.
​ ​ ​

2v0 + v+ v2
​

v0 + v1 + v2
​ ​ ​

​ ​ ​

B.
3
1 1 1
C. + + ​ ​

v0 v1 v2 ​ ​ ​

D. N one

Q32 Particle has initial velocity 9 ms−1 due east and constant acceleration of 2 ms−2 due west. If the (4 Marks)
n
distance covered by it in fifth second of its motion is m, then the value of ′ n′ is:
10
​

A. 5
B. 1
C. 3
D. 2

Q33 If the magnitude of the cross product of two vector is 3 times to the magnitude of their scalar
​
(4 Marks)
product the angle between two vector will be :
A. π
B. π2
π
C. 3
π
D. 6
​

Q34 During vertical motion under gravity a body passes through a point at 4 sec and 12 sec in upwards (4 Marks)
and downwards journeys. The speed at this point is 
A. g
B. 2g
C. 3g
D. 4g

Q35 If the time-displacement graph of a particle is parallel to the time-axis, then velocity of the particle is (4 Marks)
A. infinity
B. unity
C. equal to acceleration of the body
D. zero

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Q36 A stone is dropped from the top of a tall cliff and n seconds later another stone is thrown vertically (4 Marks)
downwards with velocity u. Then the second stone overtakes the first, below the top of the cliff at a
distance given by:

[Assume u sufficiently enough to overtake the first stone]

2
A. ( ) [n 2 ]
g ( gn − u) ​

2 gn − u
​ ​

2
B. ( ) [n ]
g (gn − u2 ) ​

2 gn − u
​

2
(gn − u)
C. (g) [ ]
gn − (u/2)
​

2
(gn − u)
D. ( ) [ ]
g
5 gn − (u/2)
​ ​

Q37 A girl, moving at 8m/s on in-line skates, is overtaking a boy moving at 5m/s as they both skate on (4 Marks)
a straight path. The boy tosses a ball backward toward the girl, giving it speed 12m/s relative to
him. What is the speed of the ball relative to the girl, who catches it?

A. (8 + 5 + 12)m/s
B. (8 − 5 − 12)m/s
C. (8 + 5 − 12)m/s
D. (8 − 5 + 12)m/s
E. (−8 + 5 + 12)m/s

Q38 Then the distance from the thrower to the point where the ball returns to the same level is (4 Marks)
A. 58 m
B. 68 m
C. 78 m
D. 88 m

Q39 ˉ DC is 20
For four particles A, B, C & D, the velocities of one with respect to other are given as V ​
(4 Marks)
m/s towards north,  Vˉ BC is 20 m/s towards east and Vˉ BA  is 20 m/s towards south. Then Vˉ DA is:
​ ​ ​

A. 20 m/s towards north

B. 20 m/s towards south
C. 20 m/s towards east
D. 20 m/s towards west.

Q40 −1 (4 Marks)
A car at 7 : 30 am is moving at a constant speed of 4 km min and an odometer reading
recorded is 28568 km. What would be the odometer reading at 9 : 15 am?
A. 28673 km
B. 28988 km
C. 29255 km
D. 28568 km

Q41 Two bodies of masses 4 kg and 9 kg are separated by distance of 60 cm. A 1 kg mass is placed in (4 Marks)
between these two masses. If the net force on 1 kg is zero, then its distance from 4 kg mass is
A. 26 cm
B. 30 cm
C. 28 cm
D. 32 cm
E. 24 cm

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Q42 A racing car has uniform acceleration of 4 m/s2 . What distance will it cover in 10 seconds after the (4 Marks)
start?
A. 100m
B. 300m
C. 200m
D. 400m

Q43 Determine her average velocities in (in m/s) the first half of the swim. (4 Marks)
A. 2

B. 2.5

C. 6

D. 9

Q44 Find the displacement covered by the bolt during the free fall in the reference frame fixed to the (4 Marks)
elevator shaft.
A. 0.7 m
B. 1.7 m
C. 2.7 m
D. 3.7 m

SECTION 2: Chemistry
Q1 According to Indian and Greek philosophers at 400 B.C. ,the continuous sub-division of matter would (4 Marks)
ultimately yield _______.

A. atom
B. electron
C. proton
D. neutron

Q2 Which of the following is a compound? (4 Marks)

A. Baking soda
B. Octane
C. Hydrogen peroxide
D. All of above

Q3 For a solution of density, d in g/ml containing solute of molecular weight W , the molarity M and (4 Marks)
molality m are related by:
d 1 W
A. = +
M m 1000
​ ​

d 1 W
B. = +
m M 1000
​ ​

W 1 d
C. = +
M m 1000
​ ​

d W 1
D. = +
m M 1000
​ ​

Q4 What is formed if a mixture of powdered iron and sulphur is heated in a test tube? (4 Marks)
A. An element
B. A mixture
C. A compound
D. None of the above

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Q5 Substance
Boiling point (0 C)
Melting point (0 C)
(4 Marks)
A -183 -219
B 445 119
C 78 -15

0
Point out the physical states of A, B and C at room temperature (30 C).
A. Gas, solid, liquid
B. Gas, liquid, solid
C. Liquid, solid, gas
D. Solid, liquid, gas

Q6 If the maximum concentration of P bCl2  in water is 0.01 M  at 298 K , Its maximum concentration
​
(4 Marks)
in 0.1 M N aCl will be :
A. 4  ×  10−3 M
B. 0.4  ×  10−4 M
C. 4  ×  10−2 M
D. 4  ×  10−4 M

Q7 If 200ml solution of 0.5M N aOH is diluted to 800ml then find molarity of resultant solution. (4 Marks)
A. 0.250 M
B. 0.125 M
C. 0.225 M
D. 0.4 M

Q8 The molarity of a solution in which 5.3g N a2 C O3 is dissolved in 500 mL will be:

​ ​
(4 Marks)
A. 1.0M
B. 0.1M
C. 0.20M
D. 0.2M

Q9 Match the List - I with List - II and pick up the correct matching from the codes given below:
(4 Marks)
List - I
List - II

(Electrochemical Parameter) (Units)

(I) Ionic mobility 1. cm−1
(II)  Cell constant 2. ohm−1 cm−1
(III) Specif conductance  3. ohm−1 cm−1 mol−1
(IV) Molar conductance  4. cm2 V −1 s−1

A. I-4 II-1 III-2 IV-3

B. I-2 II-3 III-4 IV-1
C. I-3 II-1 III-2 IV-4
D. I-1 II-2 III-3 IV-4

Q10 Two oleum samples A and B have labeling 109 and 118 respectively. 100 g of A is diluted to an (4 Marks)
a 1 L solution and 100 g of B is diluted to a 1000 mL solution. If both these solutions are
mixed, then normality of H2 S O4 (approx.) in final solution is:
​ ​

A. 1.16
B. 2.04
C. 3.48
D. 4.12 9
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Q11 If the percentage of water of crystallization in MgSO4 .xH2 O is 13%, then what is the value of
​ ​
(4 Marks)
x?
A. 1
B. 4
C. 5
D. 7

Q12 If 25 mL of a H2 S O4 solution reacts completely with 1.06 g of pure N a2 C O3 , what is the

​ ​ ​ ​
(4 Marks)
normality of this acid solution?
A. 1N
B. 0.5N
C. 1.8N
D. 0.8N

Q13 What % of the carbon in the H2 C O3 − HCO3− buffer should be in the form of HCO3− so as to
​ ​ ​ ​
(4 Marks)
have a neutral solution? (Ka = 4 × 10−7 )​

A. 20%
B. 40%
C. 60%
D. 80%

Q14 A solution of KMnO4 containing 3 g/L is titrated with a solution of H2 O2 containing 2 g/L.
​ ​ ​
(4 Marks)
The volume (in ml) of KMnO4 required to react with 20 mL H2 O2 solution is: (as nearest
​ ​ ​

integer) 
A. 28
B. 17
C. 20
D. 25

Q15 A mixture of N a2 C2 O4 (A) and KH2 C2 O4 .2H2 O (B ) required equal volumes of 0.1 M
​ ​ ​ ​ ​ ​ ​
(4 Marks)
KMnO4 and 0.1 M N aOH separately. Molar ratio of A and B in the mixture is :
​

A. 1 : 1
B. 1 : 5.5
C. 5.5 : 1
D. 3.1 : 1

Q16 Calculate the volume of oxygen at NTP that would be required to convert 5.2 L of carbon monoxide (4 Marks)
to carbon dioxide.
A. 5.2 L
B. 2.5L
C. 3.52 L
D. None of these

Q17 0.14 g of an element on combustion gives 0.28 g of its oxide. That is that element? (4 Marks)
A. Nitrogen
B. Carbon
C. Fluorine
D. Sulphur

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Q18 To a 25 ml H2 O2 solution, excess of acidified solution of potassium iodide was added. The iodine
​ ​
(4 Marks)
liberated required 20 ml of 0.3N  N a2 S2 O3 solution. The volume strength of H2 O2 solution is:
​ ​ ​ ​ ​

A. 1.344
B. 0.672
C. 2.688
D. 0.896

Q19 Which one of the following element forms interstitial compounds? (4 Marks)
A. F e
B. Co
C. Ni
D. Sc

Q20 4.9 g sample of KClO3 was heated under such conditions that a part of it decomposed according
​
(4 Marks)
to the equation: 2KClO3 → 2KCl + 3O2 and remaining underwent change according to the
​ ​

equation: 4KClO3 → 3KClO4 + KCl. If the amount of O2 evolved was 672 mL at 1 atm
​ ​ ​

and 273 K, the percentage by weight of KClO4 in the residue is : ​

A. 52.72%
B. 46.64%
C. 54.86%
D. 42.35%

Q21 From the following data of ΔH , of the following reactions, (4 Marks)

1
C(s) + O2 (g) → CO(g)AH = −110 kJ

2
​ ​

C(s) + H2 O (g) → CO(g) + H2 (g)ΔH = 132 kJ

​ ​

What is the mole composition of the mixture of steam and oxygen on being passed over a coke at
1273 K, keeping the temperature constant?

A. 0.5 : 1
B. 0.6 : 1
C. 0.8 : 1
D. 1:1

Q22 An aqueous solution of concentrated hydrobromic acid contains 48% HBr by mass. If the density (4 Marks)
of the solution is 1.50 g/mL, what is its concentration?

A. 11.4 mol/L
B. 8.9 mol/L
C. 5.9 mol/L
D. 18.5 mol/L

Q23 The molarity of solution and weight of sodium bromate necessary to prepare 85.5 mL of 0.672 N (4 Marks)
⊝ ⨁ − ⊝
solution when the half-cell reaction is BrO3 ​ + 6H + 6e → Br + 3H2 O , are
​

respectively :
A. M = 0.112M , Weight= 1.446 mg
B. M = 0.224M , Weight= 2.892 g
C. M = 0.112M , Weight= 1.446 g
D. M = 1.112M , Weight= 4.338 g

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Q24 0.1 g of a solution containing N a2  Co3 and N aHCO 3 requires 10 mL of 0.01 N HCl for
​ ​ ​
(4 Marks)
neutralization using phenolphthalein as an indicator.Wt.% of  N a2  Co3 in the mixture is
​ ​

A. 25
B. 32
C. 50
D. 10.6

Q25 The molarity (M) of KMnO4 in aqueous medium is :

​
(4 Marks)
A. 0.8M
B. 0.08M
C. 0.26M
D. 0.026M

Q26 Which one of the following is a standard solution? (4 Marks)

A. It contains one gram equivalent mass of the substance in one litre solution
B. Its strength is accurately known
C. Its strength is to be determined
D. A solution which has been prepared from pure substance

Q27 Normalities of sulphuric acid before and after discharge are: (4 Marks)
A. 5.15, 2.32
B. 2.32, 5.15
C. 5.15, 5.15
D. 2.32, 2.32

Q28 Which of the following expression of concentration of a solution is independent of temperature?

(4 Marks)
A. Molarity
B. N ormality
C. F ormality
D. Molality

Q29 Other element try to attain a stable configuration of noble gases by ___________. (4 Marks)
A. giving away or losing electrons
B. gaining electrons
C. mutual contribution and sharing of electrons
D. all of the above

Q30 14 12 (4 Marks)
Statement I: 6 C and 6 C are isomers of the element carbon.

​ ​

Statement II: Isomers contain the same number of protons but a different number of neutrons.
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation of
A.
Statement I. 
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of
B.
Statement I. 
C. Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
D. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

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Q31 Which of the following orbit is impossible for an electron according to Bohr's theory? (4 Marks)
nh
A. mvr =
2π
​

h
B. mvr = ​

π
2h
C. mvr = ​

π
4h
D. mvr =
2π
​

Q32 Among the following which one contains valence electrons in the ground state of the magnesium (4 Marks)
Mg atom?
A. 1s
B. 2s
C. 3s
D. 3p
E. 3d

Q33 An electron jumps from a certain Bohr orbit to the 5th orbit.
(4 Marks)
−1
The wave no.of radiation emitted is 1340.3cm . Calculate the number of orbits from which these
−1
jumps have taken place. (RH ​ = 109678cm )

A. 4th
B. 1st
C. 6th
D. 7th

Q34 The number of completely filled orbitals in Cu which have at least two nodes is/are:
(4 Marks)
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9

Q35 −13.6 (4 Marks)

The energy of electron in the nth orbit of hydrogen atom is expressed as E n = eV . The
n2
​ ​

shortest and longest wavelength of lyman series will be :

∘ ∘
A. 910A, 1213A
∘ ∘
B. 5463A, 7858A
∘ ∘
C. 1315A, 1530A
D. none of the above

Q36 The kinetic energy of an electron in the second Bohr orbit of a hydrogen atom is: (a0 is Bohr radius) ​
(4 Marks)
2
h
A.
4π 2 ma20
​

2
h
B.
16π 2 ma20 ​

h2
C.
32π 2 ma20 ​

h2
D.
64π 2 ma20
​

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Q37 If the electron in a hydrogen atom jumps from an orbit with level n1 ​ = 2 to an orbit with level (4 Marks)
n2 = 1 the emitted radiation has a wavelength given by:
​

5
A. λ=
3R
​

4
B. λ =
3R
R
C. λ =
4
3R
D. λ =
4
​

Q38 Consider the ground state of Cr atom (Z = 24). The numbers of electrons with the azimuthal (4 Marks)
quantum numbers l=1 and 2 are, respectively:
A. 12 and 4
B. 12 and 5
C. 16 and 4
D. 16 and 5

Q39 Check the correctness of the following statements about the Bohr Model of hydrogen atom:
(4 Marks)
(i) The acceleration of the electron in n = 2 orbit is more than that in n = 1 orbit.

(ii) The angular momentum of the electron in n = 2 orbit is more than that in n = 1 orbit.

(iii) The KE of the electron in n = 2 orbit is less than that in n = 1 orbit

A. All the statements are correct
B. Only (i) and (ii) are correct
C. Only (ii) and (iii) are correct
D. Only (iii) and (i) are correct

Q40 −1 + 3+ (4 Marks)
Wave number of spectral line for a given transition is x cm for He , then its value for Be
(isoelectronic of He+ ) for same transition is:
x −1
A. cm
4
​

B. x cm−1
C. 4x cm−1
D. 16x cm−1

Q41 A hydrogen like species (atomic number Z) is present in a higher excited state of quantum number n (4 Marks)
. This excited atom can make a transition to the first excited state by successive emission of two
photons of energies 10.20 eV and 17.0 eV respectively. Alternatively, the atom from the same
excited state can make a transition to the second excited state by successive emission of two photons
of energy 4.25 eV and 5.95 eV respectively. Determine the value of Z .
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Q42 The wave number of electromagnetic radiation emitted during the transition of electron in between (4 Marks)
the two levels of Li2+ ion whose principal quantum numbers sum is 4 and difference is 2, is:
A. 3.5R
B. 4R
C. 8R
D. 8/9R

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Q43 The ionization energy of hydrogen atom in terms of Rydberg constant (RH ) is given by the
​
(4 Marks)
expression 
A. RH hc ​

B. RH c ​

C. 2RH hc ​

D. RH NA hc ​ ​

Q44 If λ0 is the threshold wavelength for photoelectric emission from a metal surface, λ is the
​
(4 Marks)
wavelength of the light falling on the surface of metal and m is the mass of electron, then the
maximum speed of ejected electrons is given by
1/2
2h
A. [ (λ0 − λ)] ​ ​

m
1/2
2hc
B. [ (λ0 − λ)]
m
​

1/2
2hc λ0 − λ
C. [ ( )]
​

m λ0 λ ​

1/2
2h 1 1
D. [ ( − )] ​ ​ ​

m λ0 λ ​

Q45 The minimum repulsive energy between the two electron would then be: (4 Marks)
A. 3.4eV
B. 6.8eV
C. 13.6eV
D. 27.2eV

Q46 Among the following, the set of isoelectronic ions is : (4 Marks)

A. N a+ , Mg 2+ , F − , Cl−
B. N a+ , Ca2+ , F − , O −
C. N a+ , Mg 2+ , F − , O 2−
D. N a+ , K + , S 2− , Cl−

Q47 Zeff for 4s electron in 30 Z n is :

​ ​
(4 Marks)
A. 1.65
B. 4
C. 12.85
D. 4.35

Q48 The dynamic mass (in kg ) of the photon with a wavelength corresponding to the series limit of the (4 Marks)
Balmer transitions of the He+ ion is
A. 4.22 × 10−36
B. 2.24 × 10−34
C. 2.42 × 10−35
D. 4.22 × 10−35

Q49 The lines in hydrogen spectrum correspond to the energy levels. What do the fine lines in the (4 Marks)
spectrum correspond to?
A. Orbitals
B. Spin of an electron
C. Orientation of orbitals
D. Sub energy levels 15
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Q50 An ion X − has configuration 2s2 2p 6 , which is same for other ion Y + . Then :- (4 Marks)
A. IP of X = IP of Y
B. EA of X = EA of Y
C. IP of X > EA of Y +
D. IP of X − > IP of Y +

Q51 The quantum numbers of most energetic electron in Ar atom when it is in first excited state is: (4 Marks)
1
A. 2, 1, 0, ±
2
​

1
B. 4, 1, 1, ±
2
​

1
C. 4, 0, 0, ±
2
​

1
D. 4, 1, 0, ± .
2
​

Q52 An odd electron molecule among the following is : (4 Marks)

A. CO
B. SO2 ​

C. CO2 ​

D. NO
E. OF2

Q53 Identify the correct matched lists

(4 Marks)
List I List II
Total number of lines in H-spectrum
i A Decreases
for a transition 5 -> 1
Intensity of spectral line in the
ii B H-spectrum
spectrum, as 
iii n value increases C 10
Rotations and vibrations of atoms in molecules in
iv Band spectrum is due to D
addition to electronic transition

The proof for the presence of energy

E lncreases
levels in an atom
A. i-A, ii-E, iii-D, iv-B
B. i-E, ii-E, iii-D, iv-D
C. i-C, ii-A, iii-D, iv-B
D. i-C, ii-E, iii-D, iv-B

Q54 Find the correct electronic configuration, which represents an excited state of Scandium. (4 Marks)
A. 1s2 2s2 2p 6 3s2 3p 6 3d1 4s2
B. 1s2 2s3 2p5 3s2 3p6 3d1 4s2
C. 1s2 2s2 2p 6 3s2 3p 6 3d2 4s1
D. 1s2 2s2 2p 6 3s2 3p 6 3d2 4s2
E. 1s2 2s2 2p 6 3s2 3p 6 3d1 4s0

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Q55 The difference between the wave number of 1st  line of Balmer series and last line of paschen series (4 Marks)
for Li2+ ion is :
R
A.
36
​

5R
B.
36
C. 4R
R
D.
4
​

Q56 What idea states that lower energy level orbitals will be filled with electrons before higher energy (4 Marks)
level orbitals?
A. Pauli's exclusion principle
B. Octet rule
C. Aufbau principle
D. Hund's rule

2+
Q57 The radius of the hydrogen atom in the ground state is 0.53A0 . The radius of 3 L i ​ ion in (4 Marks)
the similar state is:
A. 1.06A0
B. 0.265A0
C. 0.17A0
D. 0.53A0

Q58 The ratio of (E 2 ​

− E 1 ) to (E 4 − E 3 ) for the hydrogen atom is approximately equal to:
​ ​ ​
(4 Marks)
A. 10
B. 15
C. 17
D. 12

Q59 According to Bohr - Bury scheme, the maximum number of electrons which can be accomodated in (4 Marks)
a given shell is given by the formula:
A. 2n2
B. n2
C. 3n2
D. 2n

Q60 Which of the following ion do not have a noble gas electronic configuration? (Atomic numbers: (4 Marks)
O = 8, N a = 11, Ca = 20, Mn = 25, l = 53)

A. O 2−
B. N a+
C. Ca2+
D. Mn2+
E. I−

Q61 This time all you are told is 5s2 4d2 .

(4 Marks)
What element contains this valence level configuration?
A. T i
B. Zr
C. Hf
D. Rf 17
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Q62 Atomic weight of the isotope of hydrogen which contains 2 neutrons is the nucleus would be: (4 Marks)
A. 2
B. 3
C. 1
D. 4

Q63 A neutral atom has a total of 17 electrons. The electron configuration in the outermost principle (4 Marks)
energy level will look closest to:
2 2 5
A. 1s , 2s , 2p
B. 3s2 , 3p5
C. s2 , p 5
2 8 7
D. s , p , d
7
E. s, p

Q64 Electromagnetic radiation of wavelength 242 nm is just sufficient to ionise the sodium atom. (4 Marks)
Calculate the ionisation energy of sodium atom? (c = 3 × 108 ms−1 , h = 6.626 × 10−34 J s)
A. 5.6 × 10−19 kJ
B. 6.9 × 10−18 kJ
C. 8.2 × 10−19 J
D. 495 kJ

SECTION 3: Biology
Q1 Smallest flowering plant/ flower is? (4 Marks)
A. Polyalthia
B. Rafflesia
C. Azadirachta
D. Wolffia

Q2 Which of the following things grow?  (4 Marks)

A. Road
B. Pen
C. Water
D. Tree

Q3 Lungs expel _________________. (4 Marks)

A. CO2 ​

B. H2 O​

C. CO2 & water

​

D. CO2 & water vapours

​

Q4 Assertion : "Touch" responses in Mimosa is an example of such movement.

(4 Marks)

Reason : Nastic movements occur in the direction of stimulus.

A. If both the assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion
B. If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion
C. If the assertion is true but the reason is false
D. If both the assertion and reason are false
E. If the assertion is false but reason is true

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Q5 Temporary cessation of breathing after forced deep breathing for a few minutes, by a person sitting at (4 Marks)
rest is due to
A. Too much oxygen in blood.
B. Too much carbon dioxide in blood.
C. Very little carbon dioxide in blood.
D. Both, too much oxygen and very little carbon dioxide in blood.

Q6 Organisms using protonephridia for excretion are... (4 Marks)

A. flatworms rotifers ,earthworm
B. amphioxus,cockroach, prawn
C. planaria ,cephalochordates ,rotifers
D. rotifers cephalordates ,Annelids

Q7 If the CO2  concentration in the blood increases, the rate of breathing will (4 Marks)
A. Decrease.
B. Have no effect.
C. Increase.
D. Depends on the individual.

Q8 Metabolism is 
(4 Marks)
A) Total of all the chemical reactions accuring in the body of organisms

B) Observed even outside the body in a test tube

C) Not observed in non-living objects

A. A only
B. C only
C. AC only
D. ABC

Q9 Which of the following property differentiates the living organism and crystal? (4 Marks)
A. Growth can be reserved in living organism
B. Growth cannot be reserved in crystal
C. Growth can be reserved in crystal
D. None of the above

Q10 The practical purpose of classification of living organisms is to? (4 Marks)

A. Explain the origin of living organisms
B. Trace the evolution of living organisms
C. Name of the living organisms
D. Facilitate identification of unknown organisms

Q11 What processes would be considered essential for maintaining life?

(4 Marks)
A. Nutrition and metabolism
B. Respiration and exchange of materials
C. Transportation and excretion
D. All of the above

Q12 In a man, the percentage of CO2 transported as bicarbonates is

​
(4 Marks)
A. 5% to 10%.
B. 70% to 75%.
C. 90% to 95%.
D. 50% to 65%.

Q13 The process which helps in perpetuation of race is______________

(4 Marks)
A. Nutrition
B. Photosynthesis
C. Excretion
D. Reproduction
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Q14 Cellular organization has ______ stages (4 Marks)
A. 3
B. 5
C. 2
D. 4

Q15 A living organism can be unexceptionally differentained from a non-living thing on the basis of its (4 Marks)
ability for....
A. Reproduction
B. Growth and movement
C. Responsiveness to touch
D. Interaction with environment and progressive evolution

Q16 Higher concentration of CO2 causes ​

(4 Marks)
A. Reduced transport of O2 in blood.
​

B. Low diffusion of O2 in blood.

​

C. Quick diffusion of O2 . ​

D. All of the above.

Q17 Growth occurs due to synthesis of  (4 Marks)

A. Protoplasmic substance
B. Apoplasmic substance
C. Both A and B
D. Lipids

Q18 Glucose, synthesized in leaves are transported in the form of  (4 Marks)
A. Starch
B. Sucrose
C. Fructose
D. Carbon dioxide

Q19 Professor Birbal Sahani discovered 100 million years old fossil plant from fossil forest at Rajmahal (4 Marks)
Hills, Bihar. This plant was
A. Rhynia
B. Horneophyton
C. Williamsonia
D. Red alga

Q20 Which of the following is not a taxon? (4 Marks)

A. Species
B. Family
C. Population
D. Class

Q21 Plants which flower only once are (4 Marks)

A. Pericarpic
B. Monocarpic
C. Polycarpic
D. Cleistocarpic

Q22 Which of the following combinations of features is true for saprophytic selfincompatibility? (4 Marks)
A. 3-Cell pollen, dry stigma and rejection reaction in the style
B. 2-celled point, short pollen viability, rejection reaction on the stigma
C. 2-celled pollen, wet stigma, rejection reaction in the style
D. Short pollen viability, dry stigma, rejection reaction on the stigma
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Q23 Cladonia rangiferina is, (4 Marks)
A. Lichen
B. Alga
C. Fungus
D. Angiosperm

Q24 Primary atypical pneumonia disease is caused by (4 Marks)

A. Viroid
B. Bacterium
C. Virus
D. Mycoplasma pneumoniae

Q25 In order to attack a host cell (4 Marks)

A. The virus must have the DNA or RNA key sequence to enter the host cell.
The virus must have the enzymes to cause the host cell to burst so that the host cell may be used
B.
as raw materials.
C. The virus must have the proper enzyme to puncture the membrane of the host cell.
The virus must have a particular shape that will match up with the proteins on the surface of the
D.
host cell.
The viral DNA or RNA must have a sequence that is recognized by the ribosomes of the host
E.
cell.

Q26 The smallest prepatent period in man is of 9-14 days passed, by which of the following, Plasmodium (4 Marks)
species?
A. Falciparum
B. Ovale
C. Malariae
D. Vivax

Q27 Choose the correct answers from the alternatives given.

(4 Marks)
Which of the following domains contains the most primitive bacteria that live in extreme
environments?
A. Archaea
B. Plantae
C. Fungi
D. Eukarya

Q28 Which is a phaeophycean alga? (4 Marks)

A. Gelidium
B. Polysiphonia
C. Porphyra
D. Laminaria
E. Gracilaria

Q29 Which of the following pigments are found in brown algae? (4 Marks)
A. Chl a, Chl c
B. Chl a, Chl d
C. Chl a, Chl c and fucoxanthin
D. Chl a, phycoerythrin

Q30 Which of the following algae have a cup shaped chloroplast? (4 Marks)
A. Spirogyra
B. Volvox
C. Chlamydomonas
D. Chlorella

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Q31 In prokaryotes, chromatophores are (4 Marks)
A. Specialised granules responsible for colouration of cells
B. Structures responsible for organising the shape of the organism
C. Inclusion bodies lying free inside the cells for carrying out various metabolic activities
D. Internal membrane systems that may become extensive and complex in photosynthetic bacteria

Q32 Ten cells each in the two adjacent filaments of Spirogyra affinis are participating in reproduction. (4 Marks)
How many new Spirogyra plants are produced through sexual reproduction?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 20
D. 40

Q33 Chaos is also known as  (4 Marks)

A. Yellow amoeba
B. Giant amoeba
C. Parasite amoeba
D. None of the above

Q34 A septum having pore complex in eumycota is  (4 Marks)

A. Septal pore
B. Dolipore septum
C. Lomasome
D. Coenocyte

Q35 Choose the correct answers from the alternatives given.

(4 Marks)
The infective stage of Plasmodium is known as
A. sporozoite
B. gametocyst
C. merozoite
D. schizont

Q36 Select the correct combination of the statements (a-d) regarding the characteristics of certain (4 Marks)
organisms.

(a) Methanogens are archaebacteria, which produce methane in marshy areas.

(b) Nostoc is a filamentous blue-green alga, which fixes atmospheric nitrogen.

(c) Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria synthesise cellulose form glucose.

(d) Mycoplasma lacks a cell wall and can survive without oxygen.

The correct statements are

A. (a), (b), (d)

B. (b), (c)
C. (a), (b), (c)
D. (b), (c), (d)

Q37 In Entamoeba histolytica, the presence of chromatid bodies is characteristic of (4 Marks)

A. Precystic stage
B. Trophozoite stage
C. Mature binucleate stage
D. Both A and B

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Q38 Match the organism and their infection material given in columns.
(4 Marks)
Organism Infections material
(A) TMV (p) Protein
(B) ϕ × 174   (q) Spiral RNA
(C) Viroid (r) DNA single stranded
(D) Prions (s) Circular RNA
(t) Circular DNA
A. A- q, B- r, C- s, D- p
B. A- r, B- q, C- s, D- p
C. A- q, B- r, C- s, D- t
D. A- s, B- r, C- t, D- q

Q39 Metagenesis refers to (4 Marks)

A. Presence of a segmented body and parthenogenetic mode of reproduction.
B. Presence of different morphic forms.
C. Alternation of generation between asexual and sexual phases of an organism.
D. Occurrence of drastic change in form during post embryonic development.

Q40 Choose the correct answers from the alternatives given.

(4 Marks)
Into which of the following kingdoms would you place a multicellular land organism that carries on
photosynthesis
A. Animalia
B. Plantae
C. Fungi
D. Protista

Q41 A thalloid red algae used for commercial production of agar-agar is (4 Marks)
A. Gelidium
B. Cladophora
C. Chlorella
D. Corallina

Q42 With a growth rate of about 5 mm a minute, it is one of the fastest growing organisms in the world. It (4 Marks)
is also known as 'the lady of the white veil'. Identify it.
A. Sphagnum moss
B. Stinkhorn fungus
C. Bamboo
D. Clubmoss

Q43 In Ulothrix, meiosis (reduction division) occurs in

(4 Marks)
A. Gamete
B. Zygospore
C. Zoospore
D. Thallus

Q44 Choose the wrong pair (4 Marks)

A. Root not of vegetables - Meloidogyne species
B. Late blight of Potato - Alternaria solani
C. Black rust of wheat - Puccinia graminis
D. Loose smut of wheat - Ustilago nuda

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Q45 Match the two columns.
(4 Marks)
A. Protein and vitamin rich algae 1. Gonyaulax
B. Causes red tides 2. Anabaena
C. They are traced in the roots of Cycas 3. Ulothrix
D. They have flagellated antherozoid 4. Porphyra
A. A- 1, B- 2, C- 3, D- 4
B. A- 4, B- 1, C- 3, D- 2
C. A- 4, B- 1, C- 2, D- 3
D. A- 1, B- 4, C- 2, D- 3

Q46 Which of the following plants can carry out photosynthesis even at −20∘ C or below freezing point? (4 Marks)
A. Palms
B. Marine algae
C. Diatoms
D. Lichens

Q47 Match and find the correct option.

(4 Marks)
   I      II
(a) Siphonogamy and zooidogamy (i) Amphibians of plant kingdom
(b) Living fossil (ii) Arachis
(c) Liverworts (iii) Ginkgo
(d) Double fertilization (iv) Cycas
(v) Laminaria
A. a − v, b − iv, c − i, d − ii
B. a − ii, b − iv, c − i, d − iii
C. a − iv, b − iii, c − ii, d − i
D. a − iv, b − iii, c − i, d − ii

Q48 All living organisms are linked to one another because 

(4 Marks)
A. They have common genetic material of the same type
B. They share common genetic material but to varying degrees
C. All have common cellular organization
D. All of above

Q49 The viruses which can cause bacterial diseases are called (4 Marks)
A. Slime moulds
B. Smuts
C. Bacteriophages
D. Bacteriomosaics

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Q50 Which is the correct Aristotle's ladder of nature? (4 Marks)
Inanimate matter → lower plants → higher plants → zoophyta → entoma → ostracoderma →
A. molluscs → malacostraca → fish → oviparous quadrupeds → cetacea → birds → viviparous
quadrupeds → humans
Inanimate matter → lower plants → higher plants → zoophyta → entoma → molluscs →
B. malacostraca → ostracoderma → fish → oviparous quadrupeds → cetacean → birds →
viviparous quadrupeds → humans
Inanimate matter → lower plants → higher plants → zoophyta → molluscs → malacostraca
C. → ostracoderma → fish → oviparous quadrupeds → cetacea → birds → viviparous
quadrupeds → humans
Inanimate matter → lower plants → higher plants → zoophyta → entoma → ostracoderma →
D. malacostraca → molluscs → fish → cetacea → oviparous quadrupeds → birds → viviparous
quadrupeds → humans

Q51 Who published the book 'Species Plantarum' and provided a basis for classification of plants?
(4 Marks)
A. Charles Darwin
B. Robert Hoook
C. Carolus Linnaeus
D. Anton Leeuwenhoek

Q52 Systema Naturae was written by  __________.

(4 Marks)
A. Lamarck
B. Cuvier
C. Aristotle
D. Linnaeus

Q53 Choose the correct statements from following:

(4 Marks)
A. Taxonomic hierarchy include seven obligation categories.

B. Haeckel introduced the taxon phylum.

C. Three-domain classification was introduced b Carl Woese.

A. A & B
B. B & C
C. A & C
D. All

Q54 Virus envelope is known as  (4 Marks)

A. Core
B. Capsid
C. Virion
D. Nucleoprotein

Q55 Food reserve in Rhodophyta is (4 Marks)

A. Floridean starch
B. Mannitol
C. Leucosin
D. All of the above

Q56 Choose the correct answers from the alternatives given.

(4 Marks)
Surface appendages used by -bacteria to attach to one another and to host organisms are called:
A. thylakoids
B. mesosomes
C. pili
D. spirilla

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Q57 The dried spent slurry obtained after the production of biogas is an excellent: (4 Marks)
A. fuel
B. pesticide
C. manure
D. none of these

Q58 Food chain begins with: (4 Marks)

A. Respiration
B. Photosynthesis
C. Decomposition
D. Decay

Q59 Pedology is science of  (4 Marks)

A. Earth
B. Soil
C. Pollution
D. Diseases

Q60 Study of body viscera, is called  (4 Marks)

A. Angiology
B. Conchology
C. Splanchnology
D. Rhinology

Q61 Determination of age by counting growth rings falls under  (4 Marks)

A. Dendrology
B. Dendrochronology
C. Chronology
D. Chorology

Q62 Hina observes the rates of one chemical reaction at various temperature, an example of  (4 Marks)
A. Observational science
B. Statistical science
C. Experimental science
D. None of the above

Q63 Select the correct form of a hypothesis. (4 Marks)

A. If I sow bean seeds in soil, then it will grow.
B. If I sow bean seed, then it will grow in soil.
C. The bean seeds sprout best in clay soil.
D. None of the above.

Q64 The branch of science dealing with process of improvement of human race by selective breeding is (4 Marks)
called as 
A. Eugenics
B. Euthenics
C. Euphenics
D. Obstetrics

Q65 Father of gerontology is (4 Marks)

A. Korenchevsky
B. Hayflick
C. Trembley
D. Sachs

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Q66 Nutrition of animals is related to (4 Marks)
A. Trophology
B. Teratology
C. Dysteleology
D. Trichology

Q67 Study of nests of birds is known as  (4 Marks)

A. Myrmecology
B. Craniology
C. Nidology
D. Ichthyology

Q68 Find the incorrect match  (4 Marks)

(i) Crab - Sacculina - Interaction + + 
(ii) Human being - Mosquito - Interaction - + 
(iii) Sea anemone - Hermit Crab - Interaction + O
A. (i) only
B. (ii) and (iii)
C. (iii) and (i)
D. (ii) only.

Q69 Syndesmology is the study of (4 Marks)

A. Ligaments and bones
B. Syndromes
C. Joint articulations and ligaments
D. Monstrals

Q70 Why are mathematical models useful in biology? (4 Marks)

Mathematical models allow for the study of complex systems that cannot be easily observed
A.
directly.
B. Mathematical models can replace field work.
C. Mathematical models can replace lab work.
D. Mathematical models do not take as long to set up as traditional research methods.

Q71 Which of the following institutes prepares antivenins? (4 Marks)

A. Hofkin, Mumbai
B. CDRI Lucknow
C. CIT Lucknow
D. CIV Pune

Q72 Branch of biology dealing with the study of birds is (4 Marks)

A. Anthropology
B. Herpetology
C. Ornithology
D. Onchology

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