Page 1 of 38

Mark schemes

Q1.
(a)  1.      Engulfs;
Accept endocytosis
OR
Description
Ignore ‘taken in’

2.      Forming vesicle/phagosome and fuses with lysosome;

3.      Enzymes digest/hydrolyse;
Accept lysozymes for ‘enzymes’
3

(b)     1.      (Cells from) other organisms/transplants;

2.      Abnormal/cancer/tumour (cells);

3.      (Cells) infected by virus;

Accept ‘own cells’ if autoimmune response suggested
Accept APCs
Accept non-self
2 max

(c)     ‘X’ written at either or both ends of Y shape;

1

(d)     Joins two (different) polypeptides;

Accept holds/attaches
Accept ‘prevents polypeptide chains separating’
1
[7]

Q2.
(a)  1.      Less/no antibody produced;

2.      (Because HIV) destroys helper T cells;

Accept ‘reduces number’ for ‘destroys’

3.      (So) few/no B cells activated / stimulated

OR

(So) few/no B cells undergo mitosis/differentiate/form plasma cells;

3

(b)     Not effective in treating AIDS because

1.      Number of T cells < 200 at 4 months;

Max 4 if not one of 9. or 10.
Accept 3.5 - 5 months

Page 2 of 38
 Reject day/week only once

2.      (So) drug is not effective

OR

AIDS symptoms occur;

3.      Does not remove (all) HIV (particles)

OR

Number of HIV (fairly) constant/stable

OR

(Slight) increase in HIV (over 16 months);

4.      No stats test;

5.      Only shows (results over) 16 months;

6.      Only one person;

7.      Unknown side effects (of drug);

8.      No control group;

Effective in treating AIDS because

9.      Number of T cells > 200 after 5 months

OR

Number of T cells increasing after 4 months;

Reject day/week only once
Accept any month after 5 months OR ‘in the long term’

10.      So drug is effective

OR

AIDS symptoms relieved/removed;

5 max
[8]

Q3.

(a)     1.      C12H22O11;

2.      Condensation reaction

OR

With a glycosidic bond;

Reject if any other named reaction or named bond given.

Page 3 of 38
 Reject if reaction includes addition of water.
Do not credit answers relating to other carbohydrates.
2

(b)     1.      Y shape showing two long and two short (polypeptide) chains correctly
positioned;
Drawing is nothing like an antibody = 0 marks.

2.      (Alpha-gal) binding site labelled on the end of the branches of the Y of the
antibody;
Accept one or two being labelled, if two both must be correct.

3.      Variable region labelled

OR

Constant region labelled

OR

Disulfide bridge/bond labelled;

Accept description of ‘variable region’.
Ignore labelling of light and heavy chains.
List rule applies.
3

(c)     1.      (Part of tick protein and alpha-gal) have a similar shape/structure;

Accept ‘(Part of tick protein and alpha-gal) have the same
shape/structure.’
Do not credit reference to similar/same tertiary structure’.
Ignore reference to alpha-gal being a protein.

2.      Antibody is complementary to both (tick protein and alpha-gal)

OR

Antigen-binding site is complementary to both (tick protein and alpha-gal)

OR

Antibody can form antigen-antibody complex with both (tick protein and alpha-
gal);
Reject reference to substrates or active sites.
2

(d)     1.      Exposure to tick (protein) is followed by increase in antibody (specific to alpha-

gal);
For 'is followed by' accept 'causes'.

2.      (Later) greater/faster increase in antibody suggests there are memory cells;

Must be in relation to EITHER second exposure to tick
(protein) OR to allergic reaction.

3.      Antibody (specific to alpha-gal) increases during/after allergic reaction;

Accept 'eating red meat' or 'eating/exposure to alpha-gal' for

Page 4 of 38
 'allergic reaction'.

4.      During/after allergic reaction, total antibody increases more than alpha-gal

antibody;
Accept ‘eating red meat’ or ‘eating/exposure to alpha-gal’ for
‘allergic reaction’.

5.      (So) may be other antibodies (that are causing allergic reaction);

3 max
[10]

Q4.
(a)  1.      Mutation in the viral DNA/RNA/genome/genetic material;
Accept named examples mutations

2.      Altered (tertiary structure of the) viral attachment protein;

Accept ‘antigen’ for ‘attachment protein’
Accept causes antigenic variability

3.      Allows it/attachment protein/virus to bind (to receptors of other species);

Accept descriptions of binding eg is complementary
2 max

(b)     For one mark, accept any two of the following:

•   The polymerase chain reaction
•   Genetic/DNA fingerprinting
•   (Gel) electrophoresis
•   DNA/genome sequencing;
Accept PCR for polymerase chain reaction
Accept autoradiography
Accept DNA hybridisation
Accept compare DNA/base sequence for ‘DNA sequencing’
Ignore compare mRNA base sequence
Ignore compare amino acid sequence
Ignore DNA probes
1

(c)     1.      (The scientists) could identify proteins (that derive from the genetic code)

OR

(The scientists) could identify the proteome;

2.      (They) could (then) identify potential antigens (to use in the vaccine);
Reject if answer suggests vaccine contains antibodies
2

(d)     1.      B cell (antibody) binds to (viral) specific/complementary receptor/antigen;

Accept B cell forms antigen-antibody complex

2.      B cell clones

OR

Page 5 of 38
 B cell divides by mitosis;

3.      Plasma cells release/produce (monoclonal) antibodies (against the virus);

4.      (B/plasma cells produce/develop) memory cells;

Accept B cell undergoes clonal selection/expansion
3 max
[8]

Q5.
(a)  (Antibodies with the) same tertiary structure
OR
(Antibody produced from) identical/cloned plasma cells/B cells/B lymphocytes;
Accept in context of single plasma/B cell/B lymphocyte
Reject: genetically identical antibody
1

(b)  Accept any one suitable use, eg

Targets/binds/carries drug/medicine to specific cells/antigens/receptors

OR
Block antigens/receptors on cells;
Accept cancer/diseased cells (as a specific cell).
Ignore medical diagnosis/pregnancy/ PSA/ELISA test.
1

(c)
Ignore mixing of direct or indirect ELISA
Accept annotated diagram(s).

1.   (First) antibody binds/attaches /complementary (in shape) to antigen;

2.   (Second) antibody with enzyme attached is added;

3.   (Second) antibody attaches to antigen;

Accept (second) antibody attaches to (first) antibody (indirect
ELISA test).

4.   (Substrate/solution added) and colour changes;

Only award if enzyme mentioned.
4
[6]

Q6.
(a)  1.   Bind to antigen
OR
Are markers;
Accept opsonin for ‘marker’
Accept form (antibody-antigen) complexes/are complementary to
antigen

2.   (Antibodies) cause clumping/agglutination

OR

Page 6 of 38
 Attract phagocytes;
Reject clotting
2

(b)  Correct answer for 2 marks 110/111/111.1;;

Accept for 1 mark, correct readings from graph (5.1 and 2.1)
2

(c)   1.   Mean (antibody concentration) increases;

2.   1st injection protects some mice/1 mouse/2 mice

OR
1st injection causes primary (immune) response/memory cell production;
2. and 3. Accept correct reference to number of unprotected mice

3.   2nd/3rd injection protects most/all mice

OR
2nd/3rd injection causes secondary (immune) response
OR
2nd/3rdinjection uses memory cells;

4.   Because antibody at/above protective level/2.1;

Accept converse

5.   Antibody decreased (rapidly after 3rd injection);

6.   No mice protected after 180 days

OR
Injections/vaccine not effective in long term
OR
Booster required (when antibody below protective
level/after 120/180 days);

7.   One mouse (after first injection) has big response/already had

meningitis/antigen;
4 max

(d)
Mark as pairs, 1 and 2, 3 and 4
Accept for inject, introduce, give, use

1.   Inject vaccine (again)/meningitis antigen/ inactive antigen/dead/living

bacteria/ pathogen/use a booster;
Must refer to antigen or cell, ‘disease’ or ‘meningitis’ is not enough

2.   (Memory cells present if) faster/more rapid production/higher

concentration antibody (than 1st injection)
OR
Immune response is quicker (than 1st injection)
OR
Symptoms do not develop;
Accept converse
Must be a comparison

3.   Add enzyme attached to (second) antibody against memory cell;

Page 7 of 38
 4.   Colour change shows memory cell present;
Ignore to detect (meningitis) antibodies
2
[10]

Q7.
(a)
Accept a labelled diagram.

1.   RNA (as genetic material);

Reject nucleus/DNA/plasmids.

2.   Reverse transcriptase;

3.   (Protein) capsomeres/capsid;
Reject capsule.

4.   (Phospho)lipid (viral) envelope

OR
Envelope made of membrane;
Reject if HIV has a cell membrane or a cell wall.

5.   Attachment proteins;
Accept gp41 and/or gp 120.
Accept glycoprotein.
Accept description of attachment protein.
Ignore ‘receptor protein’.
Ignore cytoplasm.
4 max

(b)  Automarked q – ☑ 106
1

(c)  1.   (All) have more T helper/CD4 cells;

Accept higher proportion of T helper/CD4 to virus particles.
Statement must be comparative.

2.   Lower viral load to infect/destroy helper T/CD4 cells;

For ‘infect’ accept ‘HIV does not reproduce in’.
Statement must be comparative.

3.   (So more/continued) activation of B cells/cytotoxic T cells/phagocytes;

Accept ‘stimulation’ for ‘activation’.

4.   (With B cells more/continued) production of plasma cells/antibodies

OR
(With cytotoxic T cells more/continued) ability to kill virus infected cells;
Ignore reference to B cells acting as phagocytes/antigen-
presenting cells.

5.   (More able to) destroy other microbes/pathogens

OR
(More able to) destroy mutated/cancer cells;

Page 8 of 38
 3 max
[8]

Q8.
(a)  1.   (Trend of) slowing growth from before birth to 21 days
OR
(Trend of) decreasing percentage undergoing mitosis from before birth to
21 days
OR
(Trend of) decreasing percentage undergoing DNA replication from
before birth to 21 days;
Accept ‘day -6’ for ‘before birth’.
For ’21 days’ accept ‘until the end of the investigation’.

2.   DNA replication happens before mitosis

OR
Heart growth slowing until (fully) developed
OR
These cells lost the ability to divide;
Accept ‘Heart growing/developing before birth and becomes (fully)
developed’.
Accept reference to only unipotent cells/cardiomycetes dividing (at
21 days).
2

(b)  1.   DNA helicase;

2.   Breaks hydrogen bonds (between 2 DNA strands);

Reject ‘hydrolyses hydrogen bonds’
Accept H bonds for hydrogen bonds.

3.   BrdU complementary to adenine (on template strand)

OR
BrdU forms hydrogen bonds with adenine (on template strand);
Accept H bonds for hydrogen bonds.

4.   DNA polymerase joins (adjacent) nucleotides (to incorporate BrdU into

the new DNA strand);
Reject if DNA polymerase catalyses complementary base pairing
or if DNA polymerase catalyses nucleotides joining to template
strand.

5.   Phosphodiester bonds form (between nucleotides);

5

(c)
All mark points must relate to procedure.
Do not negate any mark point for use of additional antibodies.

1.   Add antibody (anti-BrdU with enzyme attached) to cells/DNA

OR
Add cells/DNA to antibody (anti-BrdU with enzyme attached);

2.   Wash (cells/DNA) to remove excess/unattached antibody

Page 9 of 38
 OR
Wash (immobilised antibody) to remove excess/unattached cells/DNA;
Allow ECF for absence of cells/DNA.

3.   Add substrate to cause colour change;

For ‘substrate’ accept description in context of enzyme.
3
[10]

Q9.
(a)     1.      (Presence of) antigen of the (pathogenic) bacteria;
Assume bacteria are pathogenic unless otherwise stated

2.      (Causes) more T cells produced / faster T cell production;

3.      Against (the pathogen and) normal bacteria;

4.      (Long lasting as) cells do not die / live for longer;

5.      (More) cytokines / chemicals causing swelling are produced;

3 max

(b)     1.      (Some people) have a mutation / allele / gene;

2.      (That) increases the chances / risk / makes it more likely for / causes them to
have an unusually large T cell response;
OR
(That) lowers / removes tolerance to (normal) intestinal bacteria;
2

(c)     1.      (Some people might) produce (very) large amounts of cytokine / have large
amounts of swelling;

2.      (That) 5-ASA drugs cannot control / reduce;

OR

3.      Some people may be allergic to / cannot tolerate 5-ASA;

4.      So cannot take it;

Award 1 and 2
OR
Award 3 and 4
2

(d)     1.      (Lack of adenine and guanine) will slow / stop DNA synthesis / replication (in T
cells);

2.      Affects T cells more as they cannot recycle nucleotides;

Needs idea of more / greater effect.
Accept converse idea that ‘other’ cells not as affected as
they can recycle nucleotides.

3.      (6-MP therefore) suppresses / slows the (unusually large) T cell / immune

response

Page 10 of 38
 OR
(6-MP causes) fewer / no T cells (to be) produced;
Accept (6-MP) acts as an immunosuppressant drug

4.      (So) less cytokine is produced (and therefore less swelling);

3 max
[10]

Q10.
(a)     1.      (Antivenom/Passive immunity) antibodies bind to the toxin/venom/antigen and
(causes) its destruction;
For ‘bind’ accept ‘attach’, ignore ‘attack’.
For ‘destruction of toxin’ accept agglutination or
phagocytosis.
Ignore reference to antibodies ‘neutralising toxin/stopping
damage’
Reject reference to ‘killing’ toxin/venom.

2.      Active immunity would be too slow/slower;

Accept ‘passive immunity is faster’, not simply ‘passive
immunity is fast’.
2

(b)     1.      May be different form of antigen/toxin (within one species)

OR
Snakes (within one species) may have different mutations/alleles;

2.      Different antibodies (needed in the antivenom)

OR
(Several) antibodies complementary (to several antigens);
No mark points are available for answers related to collecting
venom from different species of snake.
2 max

(c)     1.      Horses because more antivenom/antibodies could be collected (as more

blood collected);

2.      4550 (cm3) v 26 (cm3) (blood collected);

Accept 175 rabbits needed to (collect the volume of blood
from) one horse.
2

(d)     1.      (So) the animal does not suffer from the venom/vaccine/toxin;

2.      (So) the animal does not suffer anaemia/does not suffer as a result of blood
collection;

3.      (So) the animal does not have pathogen that could be transferred to humans;
Accept ‘To fulfil licence/legal requirements’.
Accept ‘(So) the animal does not have pathogen that could
result in it producing other antibodies (not wanted in the
antivenom)’.
For ‘pathogen’ accept correct form of pathogen.
1 max

Page 11 of 38
 (e)     1.      B cells specific to the venom reproduce by mitosis;
Accept in context of primary or secondary immune response.
Credit idea of specificity if given once in relation to T or B
cell.
Accept a description for specificity.
Accept ‘clone’ for ‘reproduce by mitosis’.
‘Clonal selection of B cells’ = MP1.

2.      (B cells produce) plasma cells and memory cells;

3.      The second dose produces antibodies (in secondary immune response) in

higher concentration and quickly
OR
The first dose must be small so the animal is not killed;
Accept ‘a lot of antibody’ for ‘higher concentration of
antibody’.
3
[10]

Q11.
(a)     Correlation coefficient and because looking for correlation / relationship /
association between two variables / between B cells destroyed and CD20;
Accept Pearson and Spearman
Accept factor for variable
Wrong test or wrong reason = 0 marks
1

(b)     1.      The more CD20 (on B cells), higher the percentage of / more B cells destroyed
/ more effective it is;
Ignore ref. to ‘positive correlation’ unqualified
Ignore ref. to correlation vs. causation
Ignore ref. to effects on the immune system

2.      (At best) only destroys (about) 80% of B cells

OR

In no cases are all B cells killed;

3.      Don’t know % / proportion of cancer cells killed;

4.      Won’t cure CLL / cancer / slows but doesn’t stop CLL / cancer;

5.      Little effect below (about) 5 CD20 on cells;

Ignore ref. to little effect where little CD20
3 max

(c)     1.8 x 108;;

If correct difference but expressed in non-standard form, award 1 mark;

Award 1 mark if answer given as 1.8 x 10–8
2

Page 12 of 38
 (d)     1.      Mutation changes the tertiary structure / amino acid sequence of transcription
factor;
Do not accept unqualified statements about non-functional
transcription factor – this is in stem of question
Answers must be in context of transcription factor, not CD20,
or generic statements

2.      Transcription factor not complementary to / cannot bind to CD20 gene / CD20

DNA;
Do not accept unqualified statements about non-functional
transcription factor – this is in stem of question
Answers must be in context of transcription factor, not CD20,
or generic statements
Accept TF cannot bind to promoter (on DNA)

3.      Little / less / not enough / no mRNA for CD20 produced

OR
Little / less / not enough / no (mRNA for) CD20 translated / produced;

4.      (Not enough CD20 so) nothing / little for Rituximab to bind to, so few / no B
cells destroyed;
Accept converse for cells with a lot of CD20
Accept lower median percentage for fewer cells destroyed
3 max
[9]

Q12.
(a)     1.      Foreign protein;
Accept glycoprotein / glycolipid / polysaccharide

2.      (that) stimulates an immune response / production of antibody;

2

(b)     1.      A protein / immunoglobulin specific to an antigen;

2.      Produced by B cells

OR

Secreted by plasma cells;

2

(c)     1750(%);
1

(d)     1.      Sample 1 / before vaccination no antibody released because patients not yet

encountered vaccine / antigen / virus;
Accept ‘produced’ for ‘released’

2.      (Sample 2 / primary response / after first dose) activation / clonal selection /

expansion of B cells into plasma cells;

3.      Plasma cells release antibodies;

4.      (Sample 3 / secondary response / after second dose) memory cells produce

Page 13 of 38
 more antibodies / produce antibodies more quickly;
4
[9]

Q13.
(a)     1.      Antigen / epitope on surface of N. meninigitidis / bacterium binds to surface
protein / surface receptor on a (specific / single) B cell.
If answered in context of T cell, allow Antigen binds to
(specific / single) T cell

2.      (Activated) B cell divides by mitosis / produces clone;

If answered in context of T cell, allow (Activated) T cell
releases cytokine.

3.      (Division) stimulated by cytokines / by T cells;

If answered in context of T cell, allow (Cytokine) stimulates
production of plasma cells;

4.      B cells / plasma cells release antibodies;

5.      (Some) B cells become memory cells;

6.      Memory cells produce plasma / antibodies faster

6

(b)     1.      Mutation
Allow horizontal gene transfer

2.      Results in Nm cell with allele for resistance to one antibiotic / to named

antibiotic

3.      (This) cell survives and passes the allele for resistance to offspring;
2. and 3. If gene for resistance, penalise once

4.      Process repeated with different genes conferring resistance to each of the

other (two) antibiotics
If reference made to ‘resistant gene’, 2 max for MP2, 3 and 4
4

(c)     Any five contrasting statements, e.g.

1.      Bacterial cell is much smaller than a human cell;

2.      Bacterial cell has a cell wall but human cell does not;

3.      Bacterial cell lacks a nucleus but human cell has a nucleus;

4.      Bacterial cell lacks membrane-bound organelles but human cell has

membrane-bound organelles;
Accept any named membrane-bound organelle

5.      Bacterial ribosomes smaller than human ribosomes / bacteria have 70S

ribosomes whereas humans have 80S ribosomes;

6.      Bacterial DNA is circular but human DNA is linear;

Page 14 of 38
 7.      Bacterial DNA is ‘naked’ whereas human DNA is bound to histones / proteins
Since contrast is required, both parts of each statement must
be present to gain the mark.
5 max
[15]

Q14.
(a)     1.      Vaccine contains antigen from pathogen;
2.      Macrophage presents antigen on its surface;
3.      T cell with complementary receptor protein binds to antigen;
4.      T cell stimulates B cell;
5.      (With) complementary antibody on its surface;
6.      B cell secretes large amounts of antibody;
7.      B cell divides to form clone all secreting / producing same antibody.
5 max

(b)     1.      Active involves memory cells, passive does not;

2.      Active involves production of antibody by plasma cells / memory cells;
3.      Passive involves antibody introduced into body from outside / named
source;
4.      Active long term, because antibody produced in response to antigen;
5.      Passive short term, because antibody (given) is broken down;
6.      Active (can) take time to develop / work, passive fast acting.
5 max
[10]

Q15.
(a)  1.      Expression of gene from different species;

2.      (So) a new/one more protein (in set/range of proteins);

2

(b)     1.      More/increased aquaporin/channel protein (made)

2.      Increased (water) permeability;

2

(c)     Advantage

1.      More carbon dioxide uptake;

2.      More photosynthesis so faster/more growth;

Disadvantage

3.      More water loss/transpiration

Accept plant wilts for ‘more water loss’

4.      Less photosynthesis so slower/less growth;

Accept reduced metabolic/chemical reactions
4

(d)     Correct answer for 2 marks = x20;;

Accept for 1 mark, any correct simplification of a correct ratio eg 6 : 150 = 1 : 25

2

Page 15 of 38
 [10]

Q16.
(a)     Measure temperature (in tube) at intervals and use appropriate corrective measure
(if temperature has fluctuated);
Accept use thermometer/probe/ equivalent device for
measure temperature
1

(b)     1.      Length and diameter

OR

Surface area

OR

Volume

OR

Mass/weight (of cylinders);

Ignore shape/size

2.      Time in solution;
Ignore ‘time’ if unqualified
2

(c)     1.      1;

2.      Use instrument with closer/finer/smaller intervals/graduations/scale;

Accept correct numerical figure, eg <2 (cm3)
Ignore ‘higher resolution’
2

(d)     1.      Water/25oC caused no damage/no pigment release (in E);

Accept no colour/intensity change for ‘pigment’
Accept ‘high temperature’ for 70°C
Accept description of 'pigment release' for 'damage'

2.      (Damage to) cell(-surface) membrane;

Accept description of membrane, eg phospholipid
bilayer/bilayer

3.      Ethanol/acid caused some/similar/identical damage

OR

70oC caused most damage;

Accept description of ‘pigment release’ for ‘damage’

4.      (By) ethanol dissolving phospholipid bilayer

OR

Page 16 of 38
 (By acid) altering membrane protein;
Accept carrier OR channel OR intrinsic OR extrinsic protein
for membrane protein

5.      (By) 70oC denaturing/altering membrane protein

OR

(By) 70oC increasing fluidity/permeability of membrane;

Accept carrier OR channel OR intrinsic OR extrinsic protein
for membrane protein
Ignore reference to enzymes unless qualified as membrane
bound
4 max
[9]

Q17.
(a)  1.      (ATP to ADP + Pi ) Releases energy;
Reject ‘produces/makes/creates energy’.

2.      (energy) allows ions to be moved against a concentration gradient

OR

(energy) allows active transport of ions;

For ‘ions’ accept Na+ or K+.
Do not accept if this movement is of glucose not ions.
2

(b)     1.      (Maintains/generates) a concentration/diffusion gradient for Na+

(from ileum into cell);
Accept '(Maintains/generates) a lower concentration of Na+
inside the cell compared with outside the cell’.

2.      Na+ moving (in) by facilitated diffusion, brings glucose with it

OR

Na+ moving (in) by co-transport, brings glucose with it;

Accept ‘co-transporter’ for ‘co-transport’.
2

(c)     1.      Folded membrane/microvilli so large surface area (for absorption);

Reject references to ‘villi’.
Accept ‘brush border’ for ‘microvilli’.

2.      Large number of co-transport/carrier/channel proteins so fast rate

(of absorption)

OR

Large number of co-transport/carrier proteins for active transport

OR

Page 17 of 38
 Large number of co-transport/carrier/channel proteins for facilitated diffusion;

3.      Large number of mitochondria so make (more) ATP (by respiration)

OR

Large number of mitochondria for aerobic respiration

OR

Large number of mitochondria to release energy for active transport;

4.      Membrane-bound (digestive) enzymes so maintains concentration

gradient (for fast absorption);
Accept named examples of digestive enzymes.
2 max

(d)     1.      Phospholipids drawn with head and two tails;

2.      Correctly positioned as a bilayer on either side of SGLT1;

Some of every ‘head’ must extend into the hydrophilic region
and some of every ‘tail’ must extend into the hydrophobic
region.
Reject phospholipids drawn within the protein.
2

(e)     1.      One amine/NH2 group joins to a carboxyl/COOH group to form a peptide bond;

Accept on diagram, for example (at least) two amino acids
joining by a correctly drawn peptide bond (MP1) with NH2 at
one end and COOH at the other (MP2).
Ignore incorrect names of NH2 and COOH groups.

2.      (So in chain) there is a free amine/NH2 group at one end and a

free carboxyl/COOH group at the other

OR

Each amino acid is orientated in the same direction in the chain;

Allow ECF for incorrect naming of groups.
2
[10]

Q18.
(a)     69.3 cm3 solvent, 29.7 cm3 water, 1.0 cm3 acid (box 2);
1

(b)     1.      Temperature;

2.      Agitation/mixing/stirring;

3.      Source/age/type of blueberries;

4.      Crushing of the blueberries;

5.      Rinsing of the blueberries prior to mixing;

Page 18 of 38
 6.      Concentration of ethanol/acid;
Do not accept pH.
Accept ‘Filtering method’.
2 max

(c)     1.      Higher absorbance indicates more anthocyanin

OR

Higher absorbance indicates more membrane damage/permeability

OR

(G not zero because) some anthocyanin released when blueberries are

crushed

OR

(G not zero because) some membrane damage when blueberries are

crushed;
For ‘anthocyanin’ accept ‘pigment’.
A direct comparative statement is not needed, can be taken
from the answer as a whole.
Accept 'most' for 'more'.

2.      More membrane damage/permeability results in more anthocyanin release

Accept ‘most’ for ‘more’.

3.      (E and F greater than water because) phospholipids dissolve in ethanol;

4.      (E greater than F because) acid denatures membrane proteins;

Accept description of denaturation in terms of change in
tertiary structure or breaking of hydrogen/ionic bonds.
4

(d)     1.      Use known concentration of blueberry juice/extract

OR

Use known concentration of anthocyanin/pigment (solution)

OR

Use known concentration of (extraction) solvent to be added to blueberries;

2.      Prepare dilution series;

Accept descriptions and ‘serial dilutions’
Accept dilution series in terms of pigment or solvent.

3.      Compare (results) with colour standards to give score/value/concentration;

For ‘colour standards’ accept ‘dilutions’.
3
[10]

Q19.

Page 19 of 38
(a)  1.      Reduced surface area;

2.      Increased distance for diffusion;

Accept description of efficient gas exchange in healthy
alveolar epithelium as long as reference made to the
damaged tissue changing this.

3.      Reduced rate of gas exchange;

3

(b)     (No)

EITHER

1.      9 (percent per 5 µg cm–3);

2.      1.42/1.8 (percent per 5 µg cm–3);

Accept any number of significant figures as long as rounding
correct, full answer for mp2 is 1.42105263.

OR

3.      1.8 (percent per 1 µg cm–3);

4.      0.28/0.36 (percent per 1 µg cm–3);

Accept any number of significant figures as long as rounding
correct, full answer for mp4 is 0.28421053.

OR

5.      9% and 36/27% increase here;

6.      (To be linear) 100 (µg cm–3) would be 180/171% (increase)

OR

(To be linear) 5 (µg cm–3) would be 1.8% (increase)

OR

% increase is x4 (0-5 µg cm–3 compared with 0-100 µg cm–3) but 5-100 is more
than x4

OR

% increase is x3 (0-5 µg cm–3 compared with 5-100 µg cm–3) but 5-100 is more
than x3;

OR

7.      (Using y = mx + c) at 5 (µg cm–3) m = 1.8;

8.      (Using y = mx + c) at 100 (µg cm–3) m = 0.36;

9.      At 100 (µg cm–3) y would be 186%;

10.      At 5 (µg cm–3) y would be 7.8%;;

Page 20 of 38
 If no correct answers accept for one mark

Evidence of incorrect graph reading but division by 19

OR

Evidence of incorrect graph reading but division by 95

Accept 1 and 2 OR 3 and 4
OR 5 and 6
OR 7 and 8
OR 7 and 9
OR 8 and 10
2
[5]

Q20.
(a)  1.      (No for aspirin) 1.8 g;
Accept for one mark evidence of 1.8 and 3.44 but no/wrong
stated units
Accept maximum dose of aspirin has 0.6 g less than RDA

2.      (Yes for paracetamol) 3.44 g;

Accept maximum dose of paracetamol has 1.04 g more than
RDA
2

(b)     Same

Accept any two of the following for one mark

1.      BMI, age, sex/gender, other/previous medications, ethnicity, diet, exercise,

health (issues)
Ignore weight

Different

2.      No sodium in the (same) medicine;

Ignore placebo
Ignore ‘salt’ for sodium
Accept concentration of sodium in medicine
2

(c)     Correct answer of 8513/8514 for 2 marks;;

Allow 1 mark for 61 127(.5401) in answer

Incorrect answer but shows sequence of 8513(6) with decimal point in any position
= 1 mark
2

(d)     1.      (Sodium ions) lower the water potential (of blood);

Accept make the blood water potential more negative
Accept decrease the blood water potential

Page 21 of 38
 2.      Water would move into the blood by osmosis (from cells/tissue fluid);

3.      Increasing the blood volume;

3
[9]

Q21.
(a)
Must have MP1 for 5 max
3 max for sodium and 3 max for phosphate

Iron ions

1.   Haemoglobin binds/associates with oxygen

OR
Haemoglobin transports/loads oxygen;
Ignore reference to 2+ or 3+ in Fe2+ or Fe3+
Sodium ions

2.   Co-transport of glucose/amino acids (into cells);

3.   (Because) sodium moved out by active transport/Na – K pump;

4.   Creates a sodium concentration/diffusion gradient;

5.   Affects osmosis/water potential;

Phosphate ions

6.   Affects osmosis/water potential;

Accept 5. OR 6. – not both

7.   Joins nucleotides/in phosphodiester bond/in backbone of DNA/RNA/in

nucleotides;

8.   Used in/to produce ATP;

Reject ‘energy produced’

9.   Phosphorylates other compounds (usually) making them more reactive;

10. Hydrophilic/water soluble part of phospholipid bilayer/membrane;

Accept for 1 mark,
Sodium ions cause water reabsorption in kidneys
OR
Sodium ions establish resting potential (in neurones)
OR
Sodium ion diffusion creates action potential
5 max

(b)  1.   Phospholipid (bilayer) allows movement/diffusion of non-polar/lipid-

soluble substances;
1. and 2. Accept correct named examples
1. and 2. Ignore water
Accept phospholipid (bilayer) allows movement/diffusion of O2/CO2

Page 22 of 38
 Accept water-insoluble

2.   Phospholipid (bilayer) prevents movement/diffusion of polar/

charged/lipid-insoluble substances
OR
(Membrane) proteins allow polar/charged substances to cross the
membrane/bilayer;
Accept water-soluble

3.   Carrier proteins allow active transport;

4.   Channel/carrier proteins allow facilitated diffusion/co-transport;

Accept aquaporins allow osmosis

5.   Shape/charge of channel / carrier determines which substances move;

6.   Number of channels/carriers determines how much movement;

7.   Membrane surface area determines how much diffusion/movement;

6. and 7. Accept correct reference to faster/slower/rate for ‘how
much movement’
Accept microvilli / Golgi (apparatus) / ER / rER
Accept surface area to volume for ‘surface area’

8.   Cholesterol affects fluidity/rigidity/permeability;

Accept cholesterol affects vesicle formation/
endocytosis/exocytosis/phagocytosis;
5 max
[10]

Q22.
(a)
Water Concentration of Volume of
potential / sodium chloride 1 mol dm−3 sodium Volume of water
MPa solution / chloride solution / __________________
mol dm−3         cm3
cm3 ____________/ ____
__________________
0.8
19.2
−1.95 0.04 ___________________
__________________
_
1 mark for each row.
If values do not match the given unit, max 1.
Accept dm3 / mm3 for volume unit.
Accept 0.0008/8 x 10−4 and 0.0192/1.92 x 10−2
Accept 800 and 19200
Ignore units in 2nd row.
Do not accept mm−3/cm−3/dm−3/ ml
2

(b)  Correct answer of 0.07 (mol dm−3) = 2 marks;;

Incorrect answer 1 mark for any evidence of

Page 23 of 38
 48.6 to 48.8
OR
0.02
OR
0.7
OR
A final answer between 0.04 and 0.10
OR
A final answer of minus 0.07/−0.07;
Ignore minus signs on other 1 mark options.
2

(c)  Correct answer of 9 (cm2) = 2 marks;;

Incorrect answer 1 mark for evidence of water potential of

between -1.85 and -1.95 (MPa)
OR
growth of 15%
OR
69 (cm2)
OR
A final answer between 8.7 and <9;
Allow 9.0
Accept correct reading labelled on the graph
shown on Figure 1 or Figure 2.
2

(d)  EITHER

1.   Low/slow growth;

2.   Due to smaller number/area of stomata (for gas exchange);

OR

3.   Growth may continue at lower water potentials;

4.   (Due to) adaptations in enzymes involved in photosynthesis/metabolic

reactions;
Mark as pair – 1 and 2 OR 3 and 4.
Reference to stomata must not relate only to water loss.
2 max

(e)  1.   Stomata close;

2.   Less carbon dioxide (uptake) for less photosynthesis/glucose

production;
‘Less’ only required once.
Reject ‘no photosynthesis’ but accept ‘carbon dioxide can’t enter
so less photosynthesis’.
Ignore oxygen for respiration but reject oxygen for photosynthesis.
Ignore less water for photosynthesis.
Accept only correct chemical formulae.
For ‘glucose’ accept named product of photosynthesis eg triose
phosphate, TP, amino acid, lipid.
2

Page 24 of 38
 [10]

Q23.
(a)     (a monomer is a smaller / repeating) unit / molecule from which larger molecules /
polymers are made;
Reject atoms / elements / ’building blocks’ for units /
molecules
Ignore examples
1

(b)     Similarity
1.      Both contain galactose / a glycosidic bond;
Ignore references to hydrolysis and / or condensation

Difference
2.      Lactulose contains fructose, whereas lactose contains glucose;
Ignore alpha / beta prefix for glucose
Difference must be stated, not implied
2

(c)     1.      (Lactulose) lowers the water potential of faeces / intestine / contents of the

intestine;
Accept Ψ for water potential

2.      Water retained / enters (due to osmosis) and softens the faeces;

Accept descriptions of soft faeces, eg faeces is less dry /
less hard
2

(d)     (-) 84.1(%);;
Accept (-) 84.15(%)
Allow 1 mark for
84
OR

OR

2
[7]

Q24.
(a)     1.      (Movement) down a gradient / from high concentration to low concentration;
Ignore along / across gradient
Reject movement from gradient to gradient

2.      Passive / not active processes;

OR
Do not use energy from respiration / from ATP / from metabolism;
OR

Page 25 of 38
 Use energy from the solution;
Reject do not use energy unqualified
2

(b)     1.      Movement through carrier proteins;

OR
Facilitated diffusion;
Between A and B
Accept MP1 in either section
Ignore co-transport / active transport
Accept channel proteins

2.      Rate of uptake proportional to (external) concentration;

Between C and D
Accept description of proportional

3.      All channel / carrier proteins in use / saturated / limiting;

Accept used up
Accept transport proteins
3

(c)     1.      Rate of uptake is proportional / does not level off (so diffusion occurring);
Accept as one increases the other increases

2.      (Lipid-soluble molecules) diffuse through / are soluble in phospholipid (bilayer);

2
[7]

Q25.
(a)     1.      The (individual) chromosomes are visible because they have condensed;
Both parts of each answer are required – evidence and
explanation.
For ‘they’ accept ‘chromosomes/chromatin/DNA’
Accept ‘tightly coiled’ or ‘short and thick’ for condensed but
do not accept ‘contracted’.
Ignore references to nucleus/nucleolus/nuclear membrane.

2.      (Each) chromosome is made up of two chromatids because DNA has

replicated;
Both parts of each answer are required – evidence and
explanation.
Accept ‘sister chromatids’ for ‘two chromatids’.
Ignore references to nucleus/nucleolus/nuclear membrane.

3.      The chromosomes are not arranged in homologous pairs, which they would be
if it was meiosis;
Both parts of each answer are required – evidence and
explanation.
Accept not meiosis because bivalents/chiasmata/crossing
over not seen.
Ignore references to nucleus/nucleolus/nuclear membrane.
2 max

Page 26 of 38
(b)     Automarked q – ✔ prophase
1

(c)     1.      Water moves into the cells/cytoplasm by osmosis;

Reject water moving into chromosomes/nucleus.

2.      Cell/cytoplasm gets bigger;

Accept idea of cell/cytoplasm has greater
volume/swells/expands.
Ignore references to pressure changes, turgidity and
chromosomes being more dilute.
Ignore references to changing water/fluid contents of the cell.
Allow ECF for ‘nucleus expands’ but not for ‘chromosomes
expand’.
2

(d)     Differences in base sequences

OR

Differences in histones/interaction with histones

OR

Differences in condensation/(super)coiling;
Answer must be in context of differences in arrangement of
chromosomes not just related to the properties of the stain.
Accept spec section 8 ideas e.g. different
methylation/acetylation
Accept different genes
Reject different alleles
1

(e)     (Two chromosomes that) carry the same genes;

Reject ‘same alleles’
Accept ‘same loci’ (plural) or ‘genes for the same
characteristics’
1

(f)      (Prokaryotic DNA) is

1.      Circular (as opposed to linear);

2.      Not associated with proteins/histones ;

3.      Only one molecule/piece of DNA

OR
present as plasmids;
Max 1 if prokaryotic DNA only found as plasmids OR if
prokaryotic DNA is single stranded.
Ignore references to nucleus, exons, introns or length of
DNA. Do not credit converse statements.
Ignore descriptions of eukaryotic DNA alone.
2 max
[9]

Page 27 of 38
Examiner reports

Q1.
Students should be reminded to use the correct biological terminology when describing
phagocytosis. Some students wrote of vacuoles rather than vesicles or confused
lysosomes with lysozymes. However, it was pleasing that some students could give a
clear sequence of events. Many students did not read question (b) properly and still
named types of pathogens in their answer, which was not creditworthy. It was surprising
how many students could not correctly identify the ends of the Y-shape where the
antibody binds in question (c) or did not refer to the polypeptide chains within the
quaternary structure that are held together in question (d)

Q2.
(a)     Many students demonstrated a sound understanding of the principles involved in the
immune response, with over 30% achieving at least 2 marks and very few scoring
no marks. The progression of an HIV infection, in reducing the production of
antibodies, was known by the majority of students and many could explain how the
action of the virus produces this effect.

(b)     This question discriminated well, with students achieving the full range of marks.
Over 90% of students demonstrated their ability to read information from the graph
and explain what it meant in terms of drug effectiveness. The best answers showed
a logical sequence of thought and made careful use of values taken from the graph.
Some students noted the significance of the low, relatively constant HIV level and
linked this expertly to low drug effectiveness. A small number of answers examined
broader issues associated with the design of this drug-test programme, gaining
marks for noticing the involvement of only one person along with the limitations of
using only 16 months for the test.

Q3.
(a) Nearly all students could describe how two monosaccharides would join by a
condensation reaction to form a glycosidic bond, but only 49% could combine this with
correctly determining the chemical formula. Even though many stated that water would be
lost in the reaction, they could not show this when giving their chemical formula.

(b) Most students could draw a basic Y shape for an antibody, but more detail of the heavy
and light chain configuration was less common. Some negated correct answers for
marking point 3 by incorrectly labelling disulfide bridges/bonds as hydrogen bonds or
peptide bonds.

(c) Many students got in a muddle by referring to active sites and enzyme-substrate or
antibody-substrate complexes. Many also forgot that alpha-gal is a carbohydrate (as
answered in (a)) and referred to its tertiary structure. Several students suggested that the
two arms of the antibody could be complementary to different antigens. This has not been
shown in naturally produced antibodies, but it was felt that this was beyond expected A-
level knowledge and so would be credited in this ‘suggest’ question.

(d) The ‘consider’ command word requires students to review and respond to the given
information in this context. The mark scheme for this question was generous, with several
mark points being awarded for little more than descriptions of the graph. I think students
were thrown by this being related to an allergic reaction rather than a simpler primary and
secondary immune response to a pathogen. As a result, answers often lacked the detail of
the formation of memory cells and, therefore, faster and larger production of antibodies at

Page 28 of 38
 repeated exposure. Several students seemed to think that the immune response was
caused by a lack of relevant antibodies. Many students were not clear in their answers
whether they were referring to total antibody or antibody specific to alpha-gal and did not
make a distinction between them.

Q4.
Roughly 30% of students scored 2 marks on (a). It discriminated well. For mark point 1,
there were generic responses stating ‘the virus mutates’, others simply stated how viruses
are replicated and others misunderstood the question and explained how viruses evade a
secondary immune response.

Only a quarter of students scored the mark on (b), with many not considering what the
question had asked, ie techniques to analyse viral DNA. Instead they gave answers about
analysing mRNA and proteins or immunological comparisons.

Although (c) is direct AO1 recall of knowledge from the specification, only 11% of students
scored 2 marks. Mistakes included having antibody binding to DNA and RNA, and
students stating that antigens could be identified, but then stating that this antigen would
be used to make an antibody to use in a vaccine.

Aside from the essay, (d) was the question that discriminated best. Just over 37% scored
all 3 marks, and it was generally well answered. Errors included not naming plasma cells
and making B cells be macrophages. Despite being told not to include the cellular
response in their answer, most students did.

Q5.
Students found question (a) very difficult and most were unable to give a clear definition of
a monoclonal antibody. The most common misconception was that a monoclonal antibody
is a clone of an antibody, rather than an antibody produced by a clone of a plasma cell.

In question (b), some students were correctly able to give a suitable example of a
monoclonal antibody, but many did not give a medical use or did not give a full enough
answer to gain the mark. There were many unqualified treatments, for example ‘cancer’,
which is not enough to gain a mark on its own.

It was really pleasing to see so many successful answers to question (c). Students were
able to give full accounts of how an ELISA test is performed and many were able to score
3 or 4 marks. Students were able to discuss direct or indirect ELISA tests.

Q6.
(a)  This question tested knowledge of an immune response leading up to phagocytosis,
and many students knew it well. It was a good discriminator. Examiners noted good
descriptions of antibody-antigen complex formation leading to
agglutination/clumping of pathogens. There were fewer references to these
complexes attracting phagocytes. Inaccurate statements, such as ‘they signal’,
‘identify’ or ‘alert’ phagocytes, gained no mark. More than occasional references to
antibodies with active sites or antibodies as memory cells were some of the
misconceptions observed in answers. Descriptions of cell-mediated responses
gained no credit.

(b)  Approximately 40% of students successfully translated information between

graphical and numerical forms and successfully completed the calculation. A further
10% achieved one mark for identifying the correct co-ordinates in the graph, but
could not calculate the correct figure. A frequent error was to use 5.2 as the

Page 29 of 38
 concentration of antibody in mouse Z, rather than the correct number of 5.1.
Approximately 10% of students did not attempt to answer this question.

(c)  This question discriminated quite well. Many students successfully used their graph-
reading skills to take appropriate information from the graph and linked it to a good
understanding of the humoral immune response. Examiners noted many well
explained answers contained references to primary and secondary responses and
identified the long-term effectiveness of this vaccine.

Many students did not gain marks because they failed to use mean values in their
explanations, or they described a pattern shown in the graph without going further to
link it to underlying changes in the immune response. Relatively few students
included references in their explanation to either memory cell production or memory
cell use, so failed to gain marks. A minority of students gave nicely worded general
explanations of the immune response without linking any of these ideas to
information shown in the graph; they also achieved no marks. Most students
appreciated the significance of the protective antibody concentration and
successfully used it to determine the success or otherwise of each injection.

Examiners noted that marking this question was more than occasionally hindered by
poor legibility of handwriting and students’ poor expression.

(d)  Over half of the students achieved at least one mark on this question, but it was not
a good discriminator. The marks were usually given for references to injecting the
antigen or pathogen and observing faster/more rapid antibody production. Using a
‘disease’ or ‘injecting meningitis’ were common misconceptions. Occasionally, ideas
on ELISA testing were used; however, these invariably tested for antigens rather
than for memory cells. Many students did not make a comparative answer about the
amount of antibody produced, saying ‘high/fast antibody production’ instead of
‘higher/faster antibody production’.

Q7.
(a)  This proved to be a highly discriminatory question testing recall of the structure of
HIV. It was well answered, with over half the students achieving 4 or 5 marks. Many
concise responses were seen, often aided by a clear diagram, although the diagram
was not necessary. There was some confusion between viruses and bacteria, with
students describing the wrong structure. On occasions, students negated a correct
mark later in their answer, often by referring to DNA as the genetic material or to the
attachment proteins as antibodies.

(b)  Maths skill 0.1, requiring conversion between mm3 and cm3, was successfully
achieved by approximately 40% of students.

(c)  Students were confident to use the data for both viral load and number of CD4 cells
to explain the impact of these on the immune system. Although many students
accurately described the immune response resulting from the increased number of T
helper cells, very few students could make the link to the lack of AIDS symptoms, so
MP5 was very rarely seen.

Q8.
(a)  It is unusual to use the command word ‘describe’ at A-level, but it was felt to be
appropriate here with these quite challenging data. The description was expected to
be of A-level standard and, as such, required identification of the trend with stated
start (with a clear appreciation that this was before birth) and end points for this
investigation. The explanation for the data could be achieved by:

Page 30 of 38
 •   application of knowledge from section 3.2.2 of the specification
(option 1 and 3), or
•   an appreciation that these data referred to the heart only and therefore the
heart was growing and developing from before birth up until the end of this
investigation, when it was fully developed (option 2).
Students who appropriately used their knowledge from section 3.8.2.1 of the
specification to answer this question were given credit, although this was rarely
seen. It was not uncommon for students to suggest that DNA replication was part of
mitosis.

(b)  This question was mainly a test of AO1 skills, similar to one asked in 2018, with
some additional application (AO2) making use of the context of the question. It was
noteworthy that the standard of answers was generally good and conveyed a
greater understanding of DNA replication than was the case in the 2018
examination. Mark points 1 and 2 were commonly achieved together and there was
only a small minority of scripts in which students incorrectly described hydrolysing
hydrogen bonds. Most students were also good at identifying phosphodiester bonds
forming during polymerisation of nucleotides. MP3 and MP4 were gained by fewer
students, with some students still confusing the role of DNA polymerase with
complementary base pairing, or incorrectly describing the joining of bases rather
than of nucleotides. It should be noted that A in place of adenine is not an
abbreviation used in the specification, so was not credited.

(c)  This question proved a good discriminator, with answers representing all marks. The
most successful responses were concise and made use of only the one antibody
named in the question stem. Many students detailed the addition of 2 or 3 different
antibodies and, although this did not prohibit them gaining all 3 marks, it often
resulted in confused suggestions. It should be noted that this question specifically
asked ‘how the scientists identified the cells’; it therefore required a description of
the procedure the scientists would undertake.

Q9.
Generally, the comprehension was far better answered than in 2017. This may be partly
due to the specification content included this year compared with last. The main issue, as
with last year, is that students attempted to answer the question without using the
passage. However, these are true comprehension questions. This was the main issue with
question (a), though 70.7% of students did score at least one mark. Many students
appreciated that the presence of an antigen caused the production of more T cells which
resulted in increased amounts of cytokines being produced. Other students appreciated
the former but attributed the swelling to the accumulation of T cells. There were some
spurious arguments based on alteration of water potential resulting in accumulation of
water, and hence swelling.

(b) was similarly well answered, but those students who failed to score (28.8%) gave
vague responses, such as ‘it is passed on’ and also thought that those with Crohn’s
disease had genes to make bacteria pathogenic instead of normal.

(c) was poorly answered, with nearly 80% scoring zero marks. Students failed to get from
the passage that 5-ASA is a drug that reduces swelling. Incorrect answers centred round
“the body seeing the drug as foreign”, “being immune to the drug”, “making antibodies
against the drug”, “digesting the drug”, “having no receptors for the drug” or, as 5-ASA is
an acid, it “denaturing protein/cytokines”. A significant number of students attempted to
relate their argument to an allergy to the drug, but many expressed this in terms of
suffering side-effects.

(d) was better answered, with the majority of students able to follow the idea that DNA

Page 31 of 38
 replication will slow, meaning fewer T cells and less cytokine. The question gave guidance
not to include details of enzyme inhibition or protein synthesis. This was to help guide
students to the correct answer; many based their arguments on a failure to form enzyme-
substrate complexes, despite the advice. There was some confusion of cytokine and
cytosine, and some students thought that 6-MP would have stopped bacteria or “Crohn’s”
reproducing, not T cells.

Q10.
This question was all based on section 3.2.4 of the specification, in the novel context of
production of snake antivenom.

There were two parts to question (a) – how does an antibody work and what is the
difference between passive and active immunity? 28.1% of students could answer both of
these correctly. Confusion was demonstrated between antigens on a toxin and antibody
binding to a pathogen. Errors resulting in the first marking point not being awarded
included describing binding, but failing to discuss destruction, or discussing destruction
without reference to binding. Commonly, students used the idea of ‘complementary’ in
place of binding. Those who were not awarded marking point two tended not to make a
comparative statement about active and passive immunity, and some made vague
statements about active immunity ‘taking time’, rather than expressing length of time. A
mark of zero was commonly the result of confusing active and passive immunity or
treating the antivenom as a vaccine which would then trigger an immune response.

In (b), many students gave answers relating to not needing to identify the species of
snake that had bitten a person, as the antivenom would work against the venom of
several species – this was not creditworthy as the question is clearly related to several
snakes of the same species. A pleasing number of students understood the production of
antivenom and appreciated the need for several antibodies to be produced by the animal
to be used in the patient. Some suggested that one antibody could be effective against
several antigens; this was not given credit. Pleasingly, few students confused antigens
and antibodies. Common errors included referring to different forms of venom, which was
indicated in the question stem, or failing to include reference to antibodies and instead
making vague statements about “being effective against” or “fighting off” or
“neutralising/counteracting” the venom. Roughly even proportions of students scored two,
one and zero marks for this question.

In question (c), most students could complete the required calculation. Even so, many
students suggested the rabbit would be better as it would likely be safer for the rabbit as
less blood was removed or suggested that the same number of antibodies would be
produced in a smaller volume of blood. Of those who did pick the horse, many only stated
that more blood could be collected, rather than linking this to more antibodies/antivenom
being collected from each animal. 81% of students scored at least one mark here.

Too many generalised answers were given to question (d). At this level, a specific reason
why it would be ethical to have veterinary supervision in this particular procedure was
required. Confusion was sometimes demonstrated here over whether the animals were
being administered venom or antivenom.

In (e), very few students could give a complete account of the humoral immune response
in this context, but those who could (7.3%) gave some excellent answers. It was rare to
see the idea of specificity to the venom antigens being key to the B-cells cloning, and
confusion was demonstrated between T-cells and B-cells and which produced antibodies.
About half of the students achieved the second marking point for recognising the two
differentiated forms of B-cells, but beyond this many did not achieve any further marks
due to vague statements or misconceptions. A small number of students demonstrated a
more detailed understanding but still did not obtain marks due to key ideas being missed.

Page 32 of 38
 Examples included the idea of specificity of T/B-cells missing from their answer for
marking point 1, mitosis/cloning missing from marking point 2, or one of the ideas of high
concentration or ‘quickly’ missing from marking point 3.

Q11.
Question (a) related to the figure, a scatter graph. 41% of students correctly suggested
some form of correlation coefficient and the reason that some form of correlation between
two variables was being considered. The question discriminated well.

Question (b) started with an instruction to consider the data in the figure. This question
tested AO3, the ability to draw conclusions from information and data provided. The data
concern the use of Rituximab to treat CLL, a ‘real life’ context. Many students (57%)
obtained onemark, usually for noting that the more CD20 on B cells, the more B cells
Rituximab destroys. A further 28% obtained two marks, usually for either noting that in no
case are all B cells killed, or that the data do not show the proportion of cancerous and
normal B cells killed. Only 5% of students made both points to score three marks. Very
few students noted that Rituximab cannot cure CLL. There was a mark available for noting
that Rituximab has little effect below 5 arbitrary units of CD20, but few students accurately
noted this point in the trend of the data. Many students who failed to score simply
described the data, quite often point to point. Others drifted away from these data and
speculated on the possible lethal effects of damage to the immune system by Rituximab,
meaning that it should not be used. This question was based on a treatment that is used,
for a real cancer. Students should assume that doctors and scientists follow proper, ethical
scientific and medical procedures and do not set out to kill patients.

In question (c), 54% of students calculated the correct difference and expressed it in
standard form. One mark was obtained by 6% of students who calculated the correct
difference but did not put it into standard form. The question discriminated well.

Question (d) discriminated very well. One mark was obtained by 20% of students, usually
for either deducing that less CD20 would be produced in people with the NOTCH1
mutation, or that there would be little for Rituximab to bind to and so few B cells
destroyed. 24% of students obtained two marks, usually by making both linked points.
Some obtained two marks by noting that the mutation would lead to a change in the
tertiary structure of the transcription factor, leading to it not binding to the gene for CD20.
Some 14% of students gave the whole story and obtained all three marks. This left 20%
who failed to score. Many appeared not to know what a transcription factor is and often
wrongly suggested that the mutation would affect the gene for CD20, or the structure of
CD20, making it the wrong shape to bind to Rituximab.

Q15.
In questions (a) and (b), few students appreciated that adding an additional gene from
another species would result in one new protein being expressed. However, many
realised that this would cause more protein channels to be synthesized and so would
increase membrane permeability. Question (c) was well attempted with many students
appreciating the effect of stomatal density on both gas exchange and transpiration.

Q16.
(a)     Most answers successfully suggested it was a method to measure and monitor the
temperature of the solutions over time. However, almost all then assumed that the
temperature of the waterbath would not change during the investigation and made
no mention of a suitable corrective measure.

(b)     This question discriminated well because it gave credit to those who described an

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 aspect of cylinder size, such as measuring the surface area, mass or volume.
Descriptions in which the dependent variable or the independent variable was given
as a control variable was a common misconception.

(c)     Approximately 20% of answers identified the correct uncertainty (±1), with many
giving a figure of 2 (a correct scale reading, but the value was not halved) or 0.5 (an
incorrect scale reading which was halved). Many students suggested using a valid
type of graduated scale to reduce the uncertainty of measurement, although
suggestions referring to increased resolution or better reading of the meniscus
gained no mark.

(d)     This question produced answers covering the full range of marks with a mean of 2
marks. Many students successfully described the different levels of pigment release
from the shading given in the figure. Those who focussed on the damage caused to
cell-surface membranes achieved more marks, but many referred to cell walls rather
than cell-surface membranes or made vague references to ‘the damage caused to
cells’ in general.

Q17.
Although this was based on fundamental aspects from topics 1, 2 and 3, it was based on
novel figures and required linking of knowledge to the context of the question. This often
resulted in less than full marks for (a) and (b). Descriptions of how Na+ moving out of the
cell would generate a concentration gradient for the diffusion of Na+ in from the lumen of
the ileum were often confused and incomplete.

(c) required students to describe a feature and then explain it, so simple answers of ‘it
would have a large surface area’ or ‘it would have protein carriers in the membrane’ were
insufficient to score. There was much evidence of confusion of villi and microvilli. ‘Thin
membranes/walls’ were often stated, but are misconceptions that should not appear at A-
level.

(d) If given a blank answer space, many students would be able to draw the fluid-mosaic
model of membrane structure. The requirement here to draw the phospholipids around a
given membrane protein confused many students, with only 32% achieving 2 marks.
Students were only required to draw phospholipids on one side of the protein to gain the
2nd mark but they had to be positioned as a bilayer with some of each hydrophilic head
within the hydrophilic area of the protein and some of each hydrophobic tail within the
hydrophobic area.

(e) The best way for students to score highly here was to draw a diagram showing how
two amino acids join together to form a peptide bond, showing a free amine group at one
end and a free carboxyl group at the other end. Inaccurate knowledge of the structure of
amino acids and of the peptide link were often seen, sometimes leading to marks being
negated as the written answer and the diagram were self-contradictory.

Q18.
This question was based on the required practical 4 on the effect of a variable on the
permeability of cell membranes. Although we tried to make this very clear in the opening
sentences of the stem of the question, there was a surprising number of students who
thought this was an investigation about osmosis.

Students who kept their answer specific to this investigation scored well on (b), but many
standard answers relating to pH or concentration of ‘solutions’ were seen and were not
creditworthy.

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 (c) and (d) were very revealing about the confidence students had in their own practical
experience; many were found lacking. Perhaps understandably, being able to explain why
ethanol disrupted the membrane was uncommon but it was disappointing how many
students could not describe how acid would damage membrane proteins. Mark points 1
and 2 were for explaining what the graph shows, linking the data with the objectives of the
investigation.

Students found (d) difficult, with the requirement to apply their practical experience to
designing a method for an investigation using standard college or school laboratory
equipment; 11% did not even attempt to answer this question. Many suggested obtaining
colorimeter values ‘from a book’ or drawing a calibration curve (never going to be of any
use when there is no measuring equipment available for the test results).

Q19.
(a) Students found it difficult to express themselves when the question asked how the gas
exchange would change rather than simply what the adaptations of alveoli are. The idea
of slower gas exchange (but not less gas exchange) was awarded for marking point 3. At
A-level, students should be able to discuss changes in the rate of diffusion.

(b) Many students did not know how to approach this question and thought that if the
relationship was linear it also must be directly proportional. There were many different
ways to approach this question, using either maths skill (c) or (e), and all these
approaches were covered by the mark scheme.

Q20.
Nearly half of all students scored two marks on (a); errors included failing to add units, or
not factoring in the maximum dose allowed.

Students were able to score mark point 1 relatively easily, with roughly 70% scoring at
least 1 mark. Students did not consider the investigation for mark point 2, and gave
generic responses such as ‘give a placebo.’

Roughly 66% of students scored both marks on (c), and only 13% of attempted answers
were wrong. Both 8513 and 8514 were acceptable answers here, as correct rounding
would yield an answer of 8514; however, as 8514 patients was not reached by the
calculation, an answer of 8513 is also acceptable in this case.

(d) discriminated well and was well answered with roughly 44% scoring 3 marks. Where
students made an error it was through trying to bring the kidney or the formation of tissue
fluid into their answers.

Q21.
(a)  This question discriminated extremely well, with many answers showing that
students have a secure knowledge of the role of ions in cells and can present their
thinking as a logical sequence.

Most students achieved at least one mark because they knew oxygen associates
with iron ions in haemoglobin, although some answers associated oxygen with red
blood cells. They also gave co-transport, usually linked with glucose, as a role of
sodium ions, but far fewer gave a clear description of how the sodium concentration
gradient is created. Some students confused the direction taken by ions moving in
the Na+/K+ pump. Many knew phosphate ions are in nucleotides and ATP; however,
a significant number of students could not be awarded this mark by going further to
state that energy is ‘created’. A smaller number of answers referred to

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 phosphorylation but sometimes erroneously linked it to reducing the activation
energy of reactions and substances. When answers made reference to
phospholipids in the bilayer they rarely considered the water solubility of the
phosphate in this molecule. Very few students considered the role of ions in
osmosis.

(b)  This question discriminated very well. Many students accurately described the
structure of the phospholipid bilayer without always going further to describe how it
affected the movement of substances. The hydrophilic and hydrophobic components
of a bilayer and how they affect the movement of water-soluble and water-insoluble
substances was known well. About 13% of students achieved four or five marks and
gave well-structured descriptions using appropriate terminology. These students
often mentioned that the number of carriers/channels affected membrane
permeability.

A common misconception observed by examiners is the idea that membranes vary

in width. Also, many answers referred to differences in the size of substances rather
than consider differences in solubility or charge. Examiners regarded this to be
obvious detail missed at AS.

Students did not always link active transport precisely to carrier proteins and
frequently described in detail the process of active transport.

Cholesterol was mentioned frequently, usually in the context of affecting membrane

rigidity, but general comments such as it ‘affected stability/support’ or ‘increased
membrane strength’ were not credited. Numerous answers referred to the effect of
temperature on membrane permeability and, again, gained no mark.

Q22.
This question was based on required practical activity 3 – production of a dilution series of
a solute to produce a calibration curve with which to identify the water potential of plant
tissue.

(a)  Just under half the students scored one mark here, most commonly for the top row.
Those who did not score any marks usually tried to use the voltage information
given in Figure 1, so put voltage into the final column. It was not uncommon to see
volume units of cm−3/dm−3 which was a shame for those students who got everything
else in the table correct but only achieved one mark.

(b)  Just over 10% of students made no attempt to answer this maths question but, of
those who did, approximately 60% got the correct final answer and 20% got close
enough to score one mark. Since all data in the table were given to 2 decimal
places, the calculated answer here could not be more accurate than this (maths skill
1.1), so correct calculations with a final answer giving 3 or more decimal places only
achieved one mark.

(c)  Again, over 10% of students did not attempt this question. Of those who did,
approximately three-quarters of students achieved at least one mark. Many students
used Figure 1 to read off the water potential for a voltage reading of –7µV but did
not appreciate that, to the right of –2, the axis was becoming less negative so
started with a water potential of approximately –2.1 MPa rather than –1.9 MPa. 69
cm3 was a common 1-mark answer, giving the final size of the leaf rather than by
how much it increased in area.

(d)  This was a tricky question with very few students able to achieve both marks as it
required an appreciation that the x-axis in Figure 2 showed the water potential of

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 the leaf, not of the soil in which the plants were growing. This meant responses
related to the xerophyte retaining more water were not relevant to this question.

(e)  Very few students took note of the instruction to use their knowledge of gas
exchange in leaves to answer this question. The majority went with the idea that
less water would mean less water available for photosynthesis and so reduced
photosynthesis. Several students seemed to think that ‘plants grown in soil’ meant
that the whole plant, including the leaves, was underground. Of those who did try to
use their knowledge of gas exchange, a surprising number suggested plants need
carbon dioxide for respiration.

Q23.
Question (a) was a question requiring recall of a definition from the specification. Almost
60% of students gained the mark; those who failed to score only gave the first part of the
definition, i.e. it is a small unit. Many students also used simpler descriptive words, such
as ‘building blocks.’

Question (b) required a similarity and a difference; students generally performed well with
the similarity, but failed to give a difference, with answers such as “lactulose contains
fructose”. Students must state the actual difference when asked, e.g. lactulose contains
fructose but lactose contains glucose.

Question (c) showed that many students do not understand high and low water potentials,
confusing the two. Also, many students thought water moved from the lactulose solution
into faeces, thereby showing a lack of understanding of water movement by osmosis.
Only 28.6% scored two marks.

In question (d), students did not show an understanding of how to use standard form, with
many choosing to ignore it. Only 12.2% of students scored two marks, and 77.9% scored
zero. A common error was to base the calculation on the lower range of H+ concentration.

Q24.
Most answers to (a) achieved one mark for describing the movement of substances down
a gradient. Some went further to identify the concentration gradient in diffusion and the
water potential gradient in osmosis. No marks were awarded when movement was
described inaccurately as being along or across a gradient, or from one gradient to
another gradient. A commonly held misconception about passive processes was found in
a large number of answers which described these processes as ‘requiring no energy’.

Many students answered question (b) well by applying an understanding of facilitated

diffusion to explain the shape of the curve and 9.3% of them achieved all three marks.
Often these explanations demonstrated logical progression of thought, by describing a
trend in the data and explaining how the action of carrier proteins accounted for it. The
principles of diffusion were well understood. The most common errors were to suggest
that the loss of a concentration gradient accounted for levelling off in the curve or to write
about no uptake between C and D: they suggested these students had not taken sufficient
notice of the y-axis label. The description of a correlation, to achieve the second marking
point, was often little more than a ramble of tortuously unclear comparisons. A significant
minority referred incorrectly to enzyme active sites in the context of carrier proteins.

In question (c), on the whole, students demonstrated good ability to apply their
understanding of facilitated diffusion and membrane structure to the graph and scored
marks. Their ability to describe the relationship shown by the monoglyceride curve,
however, was weaker. Many described the change in rate as ‘constant’, when what they
really meant was ‘constant increase’, or they did not include both variables in the

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 description of the relationship. Some stated incorrectly that concentration had no effect on
the rate of uptake. Most students understood that the graph indicated the absence of
active transport and carrier proteins. Students often went on to discuss the phospholipid
bilayer, but occasionally failed to mention diffusion or the solubility of monoglycerides in
the bilayer.

Q25.
This question was loosely based on the skills students would have developed when
completing required practical activity 2 – “Preparation of stained squashes of cells from
plant root tips; set-up and use of an optical microscope to identify the stages of mitosis in
these stained squashes and calculation of a mitotic index”. Students should have
observed cells undergoing mitosis surrounded by many cells that were not and, therefore,
should have considered why they looked different.

Many incomplete answers were seen to question (a). Students were required to give
evidence and to explain that piece of evidence, but often only gave half the story. Some
students used Figure 2 rather than Figure 1 and some tried to explain which stage of
mitosis was shown, rather than simply that it was happening. Confusion was
demonstrated here and in question (e) between a homologous pair of chromosomes and
a pair of chromatids in a single chromosome. Worryingly, 62% of students failed to score
on this opening question; only 5.8% gained both marks.

In part (b), 69.3% of students correctly identified that these cells were in prophase.VWithin
required practical activity 2, students needed to spread the cells out to gain a clear view;
question (c) was based on a similar principle, but using a different method. It required
standard knowledge of osmosis, but the novel context threw many students. The majority
could state that the water would move into the cells by osmosis, but then often referenced
increased pressure, rather than the idea of the volume of the cells increasing. Some
complex, incorrect answers were seen in which students attempted to describe changes
in polar interactions between the chromosomes and water, and how these would change.

Question (d) tested Assessment Objective 2 (application of knowledge) and there were
several parts of the specification from which students could select material to support their
answer. 42.2% did this successfully; those who did not often did not describe sufficiently
how a feature would be different along the length of the chromosome to result in the
striped appearance. For example, mentioning “histones” or “bases” alone was not
creditworthy.

In question (e), only 36.9% of students could define the term ‘homologous chromosome’.
It is likely that more students could have written about independent segregation or
crossing over of homologous chromosomes, but this question revealed that they did not
fully understand this biological term. Many students only referred to the origin of the
chromosomes as paternal and maternal.VFor question 01.6, most students (83.2%)
scored at least one mark, but there were many good answers limited to one out of two by
demonstration of fundamental misunderstanding. The most common of these was that
only eukaryotic DNA is a double helix and that prokaryotic DNA is single-stranded.

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