Super Hot Questions For Sclae 5

PROMOTION MADE EASY
CHAMPARAN GURUKUL
(Your Career is your life / your dream is your life, We make it)
SUPER HOT QUESTIONS - 2023

( FOR SCALE 5 EXAM DTD.28.01.2023)
Dear Colleagues,
“The capacity to learn is a gift; the ability to learn is a skill; the willingness to learn is a choice”
“Learn as if you were to live forever” – Mahatma Gandhi
Everyone knows that the knowledge is the key to success in life. Benjamin Franklin said, “An investment in
Knowledge pays the best interest”. I always believe that “An investment in knowledge pays the best and
perpetual dividend”. We always opine that Knowledge will bring opportunity to make a difference.
Banking has been a dynamic subject. Banks are exposed to various risks and more so, the Operational Risk, due to
rapid changes in domestic and international economy. In this context, well trained, skilful and knowledgeable
staff will be one of the effective risk mitigants in managing the Operational Risk.
With a sense of great delight that,We are giving you SUPER HOT QUESTIONS -2023 Specially compiled for
Scale 5 Promotion Test dated 28.01.2023 ( Approx. 1414 Questions) and also giving you Memory based
recalled Questions of Canara Bank Promotion Test dated 22.01.2023 for Scale 2, 3 & 4 in just 78 pages. This
Study materials prepared based on previous year question patterns, very useful for knowledge based Test
i.e.Promotion Test.
About Team Aarohan-2023: A team of working Professionals of Canara Bank, Regional Office, Kanpur -1, under
Lucknow Circle, Uttar Pradesh State. (under Guidance of Regional Head/AGM Sri Sanjay Kr Trivedi) Our
Mentor, Mr. Sanjay Kumar Trivedi has clear vision to guide, motivate, and stabilize his team. He has taken huge
responsibility to streamline the energy of youngsters and synergize them on the path of progression along with
imputing them knowledge out of their long experience in their area and we are fortunate to have a tree mentor
and guide who enlightened us and streamlined our efforts to give a shape of Aarohan-2023. We are highly
Motivated team of Sri Kirit Nagar [Divisional Manager], Smt Shobhana [ Manager], Smt Shraddha Dwivedi
[Manager], Sri Saurabh Shukla [Manager], Sri Divyanshu Shukla [Officer], Sri Nitin Sharma [ Clerk ], Sri Ankur
MISHRA [Clerk], Smt Nidhi Mishra [Officer] & Sri Ashish Arya[Officer]. To get daily updates & study materials /
Practice Test of Banking Sectors and your Personal benefits including JAIIB, CAIIB, IIBF, Promotion test etc,
Please Share this link among your Banker’s friends to join our Whatsapp group ( Community group) – AAROHAN-
2023 : https://chat.whatsapp.com/CqOwizaBoy898g0K9YHjl3
Happy Learning!
With Best Wishes,
Team Aarohan -2023

TABLE OF INDEX
SI. Page No.
CONTENTS
No
02-03
1. OUR BANK
04-10
2. LATEST CHANGES IN BANKING, ECONOMY & FINANCE
3. 10-14
RBI POLICIES, BANKING LAW & CUSTOMERS (77 Ques)
14-15
4. DEPOSITS, KYC & AML (41 Ques)
5. 15-17
DIGITAL BANKING (46 Ques)
6. 17-18
HRD MATTERS, STAFF LOANS (20 Ques)
7. 18-21
PRIORITY SECTOR LENDING (51 Ques)
8. 21-25
GOVT. BUSINESS & GOVT. SPONSORED SCHEMES (83 Ques)
9. 25-25
AGRICULTURE (20 Ques)
25-31
10. MSME (120 Ques)
11. 31-32
RETAIL LENDING (23 Ques)
12. 32-35
GENERAL MATTERS ON CREDIT (69 Ques)
13. 35-48
NPA & LEGAL ASPECT OF RECOVERY (306 Ques)
14. 48-57
FOREIGN EXCHANGE & INTERNATIONAL TRADE (184 Ques)
15. 57-65
GENERAL BANKING (221 Ques)
65-72
16. BASEL & RISK MANAGEMENT (130 Ques)
17. 72-73
IMPORTANT QUESTIONS BANKING FINANCE & ECONOMY (23 Ques)
18. 73-80
CANARA BANK RECALLED QUESTIONS EXAM DTD 22.01.23 -SCALE 2,3 & 4
Disclaimer: This is purely a voluntary effort for dissemination of knowledge and enabling people to know the
various aspects of Banking and help aspirants to prepare for different types of Knowledge Based Test related to
Banking. Best efforts have been put to provide the accurate and updated information. However, the users are
requested to refer relevant Manuals, Circulars and policies of our Bank/RBI for further clarity.
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Canara Bank, Regional Office, Kanpur -1, Uttar Pradesh 1|P ag e
1. OUR BANK
A Brief Profile of the Bank
Founded as 'Canara Bank Hindu Permanent Fund' in 1906, by late Shri AmmembalSubba Rao Pai, a
philanthropist, this small seed blossomed into a limited company as 'Canara Bank Ltd.' in 19 10 and
became Canara Bank in 196 9 after nationalization A good bank is not only the financial heart of the
community, but also one with an obligation of helping in every possible manner to improve the
economic conditions of the common people" - A. Subba Rao Pai.
Founding Principles: 1. To remove Superstition and ignorance. 2.To spread education among all to
sub-serve the first principle. 3.To inculcate the habit of thrift and savings. 4. To transform the
financial institution not only as the financial hea rt of the community but the social heart as well.
5.To assist the needy. 6.To work with sense of service and dedication. 7.To develop a concern for
fellow human being and sensitivity to the surroundings with a view to make changes/remove
hardships and sufferings. Sound founding principles, enlightened leadership, unique work culture and
remarkable adaptability to changing banking environment have enabled Canara Bank to be a frontline
banking institution of global standards.
Canara Bank has several firsts to its credit. These include:
 Launching of Inter-City ATM Network
 Obtaining ISO Certification for a Branch
 Articulation of ‘Good Banking’ – Bank’s Citizen Charter
 Commissioning of Exclusive Mahila Banking Branch
 Launching of Exclusive Subsidiary for IT Cons ultancy
 Issuing credit card for farmers
 Providing Agricultural Consultancy Services
OUR TAG LINE- “Together We Can” The tag line conveys enduring relationship of Canara Bank with its Customers.
OUR SLOGAN -“Life Long Banking”
OUR CORPORATE VISION -To emerge as a ‘Preferred Bank’ by pursuing global benchmarks in profitability,
operational efficiency, asset quality, risk management and expanding the global reach
OUR CORPORATE MISSION- To provide quality banking services with good customer care, create value for all
stakeholders and continue as a responsive corporate social citizen.
MERGER OF OTHER BANKS INTO OUR FOLD 1. 1961: a. Bank of Kerala Limited, Trivandrum b. Seasia Midland Bank
Limited, Alleppey c. Rughunathmal Bank Limited, Hyderabad d. Trivandrum Permanent Bank Limited, 2. 1963: a.
Sri Poornathrayeesa Vilasa Bank Ltd, Tripunithura b. Arnad Bank Ltd, Tiruchirapally; c. Cochin Commercial Bank
Ltd, Cochin; d. Pandyan Bank Limited, Madurai. 3. 1964: Pollachi Union Bank Limited, Pollachi 4. 1968: Pangal
Nayak Bank Limited, Udupi; 5. 1985: The Lakshmi commercial Bank limited with 230 Branches and 3500 employees
which was the Biggest Merger in the Indian Banking History in 1980s 6. 2020 Government of India has decided to
consolidate ten state run Banks into four megabanks. In the process of consolidation of Banks Syndicate Bank is
merged with Canara Bank.
ORGANISATON SET UP 1. Board of Directors 2. Managing Director and Chief Executive Officer 3. Executive Directors
4. Chief Vigilance Officer 5. Chief Customer Service Officer 6. Wings at Head Office Headed By Chief General
Managers/General Managers 7. Circles Headed By Chief General Managers/ General Managers / Deputy General
Managers 8. Regional Offices headed by Deputy General Managers / Asst. General Managers 9. The Bank comprises
of 24 Circle Offices and 176 Regional Offices.
WINGS AT HEAD OFFICE : 1.ASSOCIATES & SUBSIDIARIES WING, 2.BUSINESS ANALYTICS & INFORMATION SYSTEM
WING, 3.CASH MANAGEMENT & STATIONERY WING, 4.CENTRAL PROCESSING WING 5. COMPLIANCE & RISK BASED
SUPERVISION WING , 6.CREDIT ADMINISTRATION & MONITORING WiNG 7.DEPT OF INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY WING
8.FINANCIAL INCLUSION WING 9.FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT WING, 10.GENERAL ADMINISTRATION WING, 11.GOVT.
SERVICES WING 12. HUMAN RESOURCES WING , 13. INSPECTION WING, 14.INTEGRATED TREASURY WING,
15.INTERNATIONAL OPERATIONS WING, 16. LARGE CORPORATE CREDIT WING, 17. LEAD BANK & REGIONAL RURAL
BANK WING, 18.MARKETING & PUBLIC RELATIONS WING, 19.MID CORPORATE CREDIT WING 20.MSME WING
21.PRIORITY CREDIT WING, 22.RECONCILIATION WING 23.RECOVERY, LEGAL & FRAUD PREVENTION WING 24.RETAIL
ASSETS WING 25.RISK MGMT WING, 26.STRATEGIC PLANNING & DEVELOPMENT WING 27. STRESSED ASSET
MANAGEMENT WING 28. TECHNOLOGY OPERATIONS WING, 29.TRANSACTION MONITORING WING 30. GOLD LOAN
WING 31. .DIGITAL BANKING SERVICES WING
SOCIAL BANKING INITIATIVES 1. Rural Service Volunteer-(RSV) 2. Rural Clinic Service – (RCS) and Mahila Shushrusha
Yojana 3. CANGRAMA Sikshana Kendra (CGSK) 4. Hari Kalyan Yojna 5. Grama Jala Yoga Yojna 6. Tram Campaign 7.
Blood Bank 8. Book Bank 9. Canara Bank Jubilee Education Fund 10. Mahila Abhyudaya Yojana Gramina Mahila
Jagruthi Kendras - CED for Women 11. Canara Bank Relief & Welfare Society A. Sevakshetra Hospital; B.
Matruchhaya 12. Tribal Counselling & Coordination Centre,Dr.Ambedkar Self-Employment Training Institute at
Pudupudur 13. RUDSETI (27) 14. Financial Literacy Centre 15. Kalagrama - KPJ Prabhu Artisans Training, Production
& Marketing Centre at Jogaradoddi 16. C E Kamath Institute for Rural Artisans at Karkala 17. Rural Women Self
Employment Training Institute at Harohalli, 18. A D Pai Institute for Rural Development at Vajrahalli 19. Rural Self
Employment Promotion and Resource Guidance Centre at Holalur 20. Adarsha Grama Project & Jalayoga 21 Subba
Rao Pai Self-Employment Training Institute at Wandoor 22. Computer Training Centre at Bangalore 23. Canara Bank
Institute of Information Technology (CBIIT), Alleppy & Thiruvananthapuram
FINANCIAL RESULTS FOR THE PERIOD/QUARTER ENDED 30 th SEPTEMBER 2022

Key Highlights (September 2021 V/s September 2022)
1. Net Profit stood at Rs.2525 cr against Net profit of Rs. 1333 cr for September 2021.
2. Operating Profit stood at Rs. 6905 cr grew by 23.22%. Non-Interest Income grew by 13.05%.
3. Net-Interest Income grew by 18.51% Fee based income grew by 17.98%.
4. Cost to Income Ratio down by 316 bps.
5. Global Business grew by 13.89%.
6. Gross Advances grew by 20.00%.
7. RAM Credit grew by 16.40%, it constitutes 55% of Total Advances.
8. Retail Credit grew by 12.52% with Housing loan at 17.01%.
9. Gold Loan grew by 32.86% with Portfolio amount of Rs.1,08,794 cr.
10. Gross NPA Ratio stood at 6.37% down by 205 bps.
11. Net NPA Ratio stood at 2.19% down by 102 bps.
12. Provision Coverage Ratio (PCR) at 85.36% improved by 292 bps.
13. CRAR stood at 16.51% as at Sep 2022. Out of which CET1 is 11.14%.
14. Return on Equity stood at 18.86% improved by 664 bps.
15. Bank has shifted to new tax regime. The reduction in Deferred Tax is Rs. 2,451.60 cr
Key Summary of Business Performance (as on 30.09.2022)
Business
1. Global Business increased by 13.89% (y.o.y) to Rs 1958111 cr as at Sep 2022 with Global Deposits at Rs
1133964 cr 9.82% (y.o.y) and Global Advance (gross) at Rs 824147 cr 20.00% (y.o.y) Domestic Deposit of the
Bank stood at Rs 1056519 Cr as at Sep 2022 with growth of 7.77% (y.o.y)
2. Domestic Advances (gross) of the Bank stood at Rs 780049 Cr as at Sep 2022 grew by 17.66% (y.o.y)
3. Retail lending Portfolio increased 12.52% (y.o.y) to Rs 134051 Cr as at Sep 2022
4. Housing Loan Portfolio increased 17.01% y.o.y to Rs 78852 Cr
5. Advances to Agriculture grew by 21.62% (y.o.y) to Rs 196576 Cr as at Sep 2022
Asset Quality
1. Gross Non-Performing Assets (GNPA) ratio reduced to 6.37% as at Sep 2022 down from 6.98% as at June
2022, 7.51% as at March 2022.
2. Net Non-Performing Assets (NNPA) ratio reduced to 2.19% as at Sep 2022 down from 2.48% as at June 2022,
2.65% as at March 2022.
3. Provision Coverage Ratio (PCR) stood at 85.36% as at Sep 2022 against 84.51% as at June 2022.
Capital Adequacy
1. CRAR stood at 16.51% as at Sep 2022 (14.91% as at June 2022). Out of which Tier-I is 13.40% (12.13% as at
June 2022), CET1 is 11.14% (10.49% as at June 2022) and Tier-II is 3.11% (2.78% as at June 2022)
2. Bank successfully raised capital during FY23 through: AT-1 Bonds : Rs.4000 Cr Tier II Bonds : Rs.2000 Cr
3. The Capital Raising Plan for FY-23: AT-1 Bonds : Rs.5500 Cr Tier II Bonds : Rs.3500 Cr
Priority Sector & Financial Inclusion
1. The Bank has achieved Targets in Priority Sector at 52.12% and Agricultural Credit at 23.35% of ANBC as at
Sep 2022, as against the norm of 40% and 18% respectively.
2. Credit to small and marginal farmers stood at 16.96% of ANBC, against the norm of 9.50%.
3. Credit to Weaker Sections stood at 24.46% of ANBC, against the norm of 11.50%.
4. Credit to Micro Enterprises stood at 11.14% of ANBC, against the norm of 7.50%.
5. Credit to Non Corporate Farmers stood at 18.66% of ANBC, against the norm of 13.78%.
Network : As on 30.09.2022, the Bank has 9722 Number of Branches, out of which 3040 are Rural, 2748 SemiUrban,
2002 Urban & 1932 Metro along with 10759 ATMs. Bank is also having 3 overseas branches in London, Dubai and New
York.
2. LATEST CHANGES IN BANKING, ECONOMY & FINANCE
Monetary Policy Highlights December 5-7, 2022
The Monetary Policy Committee :Section 45ZB of the amended RBI Act, 1934 provides for an empowered six-
member monetary policy committee (MPC) to be constituted by the Central Government by notification in the
Official Gazette. The first such MPC was constituted on September 29, 2016. The decision of the Reserve Bank of
India (RBI) Governor Shaktikanta Das headed six-member Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) has been announced. In
the consecutive fifth hike this year, the RBI’s Monetary Policy Committee has raised the repo rate by 35 basis points
(bps) to 6.25 per cent with immediate effect, making loans expensive. Standing Deposit Facility rate, Marginal
Standing Facility rate also increased by 35 basis points each to 6% and 6.5% The policy rate is now at the highest
level since August 2018. The RBI has maintained policy stance at ‘withdrawal of accommodation’
The key highlights of the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) meeting, held from December 5-7, 2022 are as
follows-
 Repo rate increased by 35 basis points to 6.25 % & Fixed Reverse Repo Rate: 3.35%
 Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) rate stands adjusted to 6.00 %.
 Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) rate and the Bank Rate adjusted to 6.50 %.
 Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR): 4.50% & Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR): 18.00%
 CPI inflation forecast for FY23 retained at 6.7 %.GDP growth forecast for FY23 lowered to 6.8 % from 7 %.
 RBI has maintained consumer price index (CPI) inflation forecast for FY23 at 6.7%. Real FY23 GDP forecast
lowered to 6.8% from 7%.
 Inflation expected to be above 4% in the next 12 months.
 India’s retail inflation fell to a three-month low of 6.77% in October, down from 7.41% in September. However,
remained above the RBI’s tolerance band for the 10th consecutive row.
 Equities open flat with a negative bias as Sensex dips over 55 points, Nifty falls 0.2% ahead of RBI’s policy
decision.
 Liquidity conditions are set to improve. Weighted average lending rate is up 117 bps in May-October.
 MPC focused on withdrawal of accommodation to ensure that inflation remains within the target going forward,
while supporting growth.
RBI Policy Rates as on 03.01.2023
Key Rate-As on Wef 30.09.2022 Wef 07.12.2022
LAF/REPO Rate 5.90% 6.25%
SDF Rate 5.65% 6.00%
Fixed Reverse Repo Rate 3.35% 3.35%
MSF/Bank Rate 6.15% 6.50%
CRR 4.50% 4.50%
SLR (wef 11.04.2020) 18.00% 18.00%
LIQUIDITY ADJUSTMENT FACILITY (LAF) helps banks to quickly borrow money in case of any emergency or for
adjusting in their SLR/CRR requirements. LAF consists of Repo and Reverse repo operations.
REPURCHASE AGREEMENT(REPO) : Banks borrow money from RBI to meet short term needs by selling securities to
RBI with an agreement to repurchase the same at predetermined rate and date. The rate charged by RBI for this
transaction is called the repo rate. The collateral used for repo and reverse repo operations are Government of
India securities.
 Under Repo, the RBI injects funds to organizationsie SCBs and Primary Dealers.
 The policy Repo rate under the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) increased by 35 basis points to 6.25 per
cent with immediate effect (07-12-2022)
STANDING DEPOSIT FACILITY(SDF): SDF allows banks to park their excess funds at a higher rate but without taking
any collateral from the central bank. It is priced at 25 bps below the repo rate. Normally this may be for overnight
or RBI may extend. Consequent to the change in Repo rate, the Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) rate stands adjusted
to 6.00 per cent.
FIXED RATE REVERSE REPO (FRRR):The fixed rate reverse repo (FRRR) rate is retained at 3.35 per cent. It will
remain as part of the RBI’s toolkit and its operation will be at the discretion of the RBI. The FRRR along with
the SDF will impart flexibility to the RBI’s liquidity management framework.
MARGINAL STANDING FACILITY(MSF): Under the facility, the eligible entities can avail overnight facility up to two
per cent of their respective Net Demand and Time Liabilities outstanding at the end of the second preceding
fortnight by offering SLR securities to that extent. The interest rate is 25 bps above the repo rate. Banks can
borrow funds through MSF when there is a considerable shortfall of liquidity. The MSF rate (an emergency funding
window) with a spread of 25 bps above the policy rate stands increased to 6.50 per cent.
BANKRATE: Bank Rate refers to the official interest rate at which RBI will provide loans to the banking. Such loans
are given out either by direct lending or by rediscounting (buying back) the bills of commercial banks and treasury
bills.
 The MSF rate and the Bank Rate are calibrated to 25 bps above the repo rate. The Bank Rate thus stands
increased to 6.50 per cent.
Key Highlights of Union Budget 2022-23

Union Budget 2022-23 has been presented by Finance Minister on 01st Feb 2022. India’s economic growth is
estimated at 9.2%, to be the highest among all large economies.The budget provides impetus for growth along four
priorities. They are, (a) PM GatiShakti (b) Inclusive Development, (c) Productivity Enhancement & Investment,
Sunrise opportunities, Energy Transition, Climate Action. (d) Financing Investments. The key highlights of the
budget which are more relevant to banking professionals are provided below:
1.Agriculture: Use of „Kisan Drones‟ will be promoted for crop assessment, digitization of land records, spraying of
insecticides, and nutrients. As 2023 has been announced as the International Year of Millets, the government
announced full support for post-harvest value addition, enhancing domestic consumption, and for branding millet
products nationally and internationally. Rs. 1400 crore outlay has been estimated for implementation of the Ken –
Betwa link project.
2.MSME segment- Udyam, e-shram, NCS and ASEEM portals will be interlinked. ECLGS will be extended up to March
2023. Guarantee cover under ECLGS to be expanded by Rs 50000 Crore to total cover of Rs 5 Lakh Crore. Rs 2 lakh
Crore additional credit for Micro and Small Enterprises to be facilitated under the Credit Guarantee Trust for Micro
and Small Enterprises (CGTMSE). Raising and Accelerating MSME performance (RAMP) programme with an outlay of
Rs 6000 Crore will be rolled out.
3.Banking- 100 % of 1.5 lakh post offices to come on the core banking system. Scheduled Commercial Banks to set
up 75 Digital Banking Units (DBUs) in 75 districts.
4.Digital Rupee- RBI will Introduce Digital Rupee from 2022-23 using Block chain technology.
5.Direct Taxes: The major changes with respect to direct taxes proposed under the Budget are:
(a) Provision to file an Updated Return on payment of additional tax is provided. The updated return can be filed
within two years from the end of the relevant assessment year.
(b) Alternate Minimum Tax paid by cooperatives brought down from 18.5 per cent to 15 per cent.
(c) Surcharge on cooperative societies reduced from 12 per cent to 7 per cent for those having total income of more
than Rs 1 crore and up to Rs 10 crores.
(d) Tax deduction limit increased from 10 per cent to 14 per cent on employer’s contribution to the NPS account of
State Government employees.
(e) Specific tax regime for virtual digital assets has been introduced. Any income from transfer of any virtual digital
asset to be taxed at the rate of 30 per cent. To capture the transaction details, TDS to be provided on payment
made in relation to transfer of virtual digital asset at the rate of 1 per cent of such consideration above a monetary
threshold.
(f) Surcharge on Association of Persons (AOPs-consortium formed to execute a contract) capped at 15 per cent. This
is to reduce the disparity in surcharge between individual companies and AOPs.
(g) Tax deduction provided to person giving benefits, if the aggregate value of such benefits exceeds Rs 20,000
during the financial year.
6.Indirect taxes: The major budgetary announcement made with respect to Indirect taxes are:
(a) Customs duty on cut and polished diamonds and gemstones being reduced to 5 per cent; Nil customs duty to
simply sawn diamond is proposed to give a boost to the Gems and Jewellery sector.
(b) To disincentivise import of undervalued imitation jewellery, it is proposed to impose customs duty of at least Rs
400 per Kg on imitation jewellery import.
(c) Unblended fuel to attract an additional differential excise duty of Rs 2/ lit from the 1 st Oct 2022 - to encourage
blending of fuel.
Cir no. 735/22 RATES OF INTEREST ON RUPEE LOANS AND ADVANCES (MCLR, RLLR, STRLLR, EBLR1) w.e.f.
07.12.2022. Benchmark Lending Rates for Rupee Loans and Advances w.e.f. 07.12.2022
Existing Rate w.e.f.
S.No. Rate Tenor
Rate (%) 07.12.2022 (%)
Overnight MCLR 7.25 7.30
One Month MCLR 7.25 7.30
1 MCLR Three Month MCLR 7.55 7.60
Six Month MCLR 8.00 8.05
One Year MCLR 8.10 8.15
2 RLLR 8.80 8.80
3 STRLLR 5.90 5.90
4 EBLR2 5.90 5.90
Base Rate for rupee loans and advances w.e.f. 07.10.2022(IC-604/22) Present base rate is 8.95% (Old Rate -
8.80%) with effect from 07.10.2022
RATE OF INTEREST ON RETAIL DOMESTIC / NRO TERM DEPOSITS LESS THAN 2 CRORE w.e.f. 19.12.2022 CIR NO. IC/761/2022
DATED 17.12.2022 & Rs 2 CRORE TO LESS THAN 10 CRORE w.e.f. 31.10.2022 CIR NO. IC/650/2022 DATED 29.10.2022
SLABS PERIOD OF DEPOSIT Less than Rs.2 Crore Rs.2 Crore to less than Rs.10 Crore #
Gen Public Sr Citizen Callable Non Callable ++
**
SLAB-1 7 days to 45 days 3.25 3.25 2.90 NA
SLAB-2 46 days to 90 days 4.50 4.50 3.10 3.10
SLAB-3 91 days to 179 days 4.50 4.50 3.35 3.35
SLAB-4 180 days to 269 days 5.50 6.00 3.35 3.35
SLAB-5 270 days to less than 1 year 5.50 6.00 5.75 5.80
SLAB-6 1 year only 6.75 7.25 6.00 6.05
SLAB-7 Above 1 year to less than 2 years 6.80 7.30 6.00 6.05
SLAB-8 666 Days 7.00 7.50 NA
SLAB-9 2 years & above to less than 3 years 6.80 7.30 6.00 6.05
SLAB-10 3 years & above to less than 5 years 6.50 7.00 6.00 6.05
SLAB-11 5 years & above to 10 years 6.50 7.00 3.40 NA
Canara Tax Saver 6.50 6.50
** Rates are applicable only for single deposit of Rs.5 Lakh & above. For Single deposit of below Rs.5 Lakh, the
Minimum tenor of deposit is 15 Days.
 Interest rate for Single Bulk Term Deposit of Rs.2 Crore & above is to be obtained from Integrated Treasury
Wing, Mumbai.
 Non-callable term deposits are Bulk deposits where PREMATURE WITHDRAWAL IS NOT PERMITTED.
 Bank is not accepting Bulk term deposits under Non-callable segment for maturities of below 46 Days and 5
years and above.
 The revised interest rates are applicable to fresh term deposits under DOMESTIC, NRO & CAPITAL GAINS
ACCOUNT SCHEME, 1988 accepted/renewed on or after 19.12.2022.
 A penalty of 0.50% for premature withdrawal of term deposits under Sweep-out facility is introduced w.e.f.
26.01.2022. When there is a premature withdrawal of sweep-out TD, the interest will be paid at the applicable
rate with a penalty of 0.50% for the period the withdrawn TD amount has run (Vide H.O. Circular No 599/2021
dt.09.09.2021, 670/2021, 680/2021 & IC/49/2022 dt.28.01.2022).

 A penalty of 1.00% will be levied for premature closure/part withdrawal/premature extension of Domestic
/NRO term deposits of less than Rs.2 Crore that are placed/renewed on or after 12.03.2019 and Rs.1 Crore &
above that are placed/renewed from 04.02.2011 to 12.10.2012.
 No penalty will be levied for premature closure/part withdrawal/premature extension of Domestic / NRO term
deposits of Rs.2 Crore & above that are placed / renewed on or after 12.03.2019.
 A penalty of 1.00% is applicable on Term Deposits under Capital Gains Account Scheme-1988, which are
prematurely converted/withdrawn/closed, irrespective of the size of the deposit amount.
 No interest will be payable on term deposits prematurely closed/prematurely extended before completion of
7th day.
RATE OF INTEREST ON NRE TERM DEPOSITS LESS THAN 2 CRORE w.e.f. 19.12.2022 CIR NO. IC/762/2022 DATED 17.12.2022 &
Rs 2 CRORE TO LESS THAN 10 CRORE w.e.f. 31/10/2022 CIR NO. IC/651/2022 DATED 29.10.2022
SLABS Period of Deposit Less than 2 Crore Rs.2 Crore to less than 10 Crore
(w.e.f. 19.12.2022) (w.e.f. 31.10.2022)
SLAB-1 1 year only 6.75 6.00
SLAB-2 Above 1 year to less than 2 yrs 6.80 6.00
SLAB-3 666 Days 7.00 NA
SLAB-4 2 yrs & above to less than 3 yrs 6.80 6.00
SLAB-5 3 yrs & above to less than 5 yrs 6.50 6.00
SLAB-6 5 yrs & above to 10 yrs 6.50 3.40
Interest rate for bulk deposits of Rs.2 Crore & above is to be obtained from Integrated Treasury Wing, Mumbai.
 The revised interest rates are applicable to fresh NRE term deposit accounts accepted / renewed on or after
31.10.2022 (for 2 cr to less than 10 cr) & 19.12.2022 (for less than 2 cr)
 The maximum period for accepting NRE term deposits is 10 years and the minimum period for accepting NRE
term deposits is one year.
 The rationalized upper limit for a Branch, to accept NRE term deposit at card rate, has been enhanced to less
than Rs.10 Cr with effect from 26.03.2020. However, if branches are desirous of quoting deposits with validity
period/ preferential rate for Bulk Deposit of Rs.2 Crore and above to less than Rs.10 Crore, then permission has
to be taken from Integrated Treasury Wing through their respective Circle offices.
 The NRE term deposit is auto renewed only once, as the Non-resident status is to be confirmed periodically.
 Senior Citizens are not eligible for additional interest on NRE term deposits.
 A penalty of 1.00% shall be levied for premature closure/premature extension of NRE term deposit of less than
Rs. 2 Crore that are accepted /renewed on or after 12.03.2019.
 No penalty will be levied for premature closure/part withdrawal/premature extension of NRE term deposits of
Rs.2 Crore & above that are placed / renewed on or after 12.03.2019.
 No interest will be payable for the period run on NRE term deposits prematurely closed/prematurely extended
before completion of one year from the effective date of the deposit.
Overdue NRE deposits (i.e. matured deposits) will be paid interest rate as applicable to Savings account from the
date of maturity till the date of payment/ re-investment
Interest rates on FCNR (B) Deposits w.e.f. 07.12.2021 (Cir No.FX/62/2022 dt 06.12.2022) (Interest rate % pa)
CURRENCY OF DEPOSIT USD GBP EUR CAD AUS

1 Year and above but less than 2 years 4.60 3.75 1.50 3.50 3.25
2 years and above but less than 3 years 4.50 3.75 1.25 3.50 3.25
Five years only 3.90 3.00 1.25 3.00 3.25
RFC Term Deposits of amount less than USD 1 million (or its equivalent in other currencies) for one month to three
years term, RFC Saving Bank deposits and currency of deposits USD/GBP/EURO/CAD/AUD
Interest rates on RFC Deposits w.e.f. 07.12.2022 (Cir No.FX/62/2022 dt 06.12.2022) (Interest rate % pa)
PERIOD OF DEPOSIT CURRENCY OF DEPOSITS
USD GBP EUR CAD AUD
SAVINGS BANK 1.00 0.45 NIL 0.95 0.24
1 month & above but less than 3 months 2.25 1.5 0.25 1.50 1.50
3 months & above but less than 6 months 2.50 2.00 0.50 2.00 2.00
6 months & above but less than 1 year 3.00 2.50 0.50 2.50 2.50
1 year & above but less than 2 years 4.60 3.75 1.50 3.50 3.25
2 years & above but less than 3 years 4.50 3.75 1.25 3.50 3.25
3 years only 4.25 3.75 1.25 3.25 3.25
 One year Benchmark Rate for calculating interest on overdue FCNR(B)/RFC Term Deposits in terms of
Circular No. FX/51/2020 dated 11.09.2020 is as follows:
USD GBP EUR CAD AUD
For the Month of Dec 2022
1.00 0.45 0.00 0.95 0.24
❖ No penal cut for FCNR (B) deposits opened/ renewed on or after 19.11.2021,if closed before maturity after
completion of minimum period of one year.
❖ Interest rate payable for such deposit closed before maturity shall be the rate of interest applicab le for the
period run, ruling as on the date of deposit (or) on the date of seeking premature withdrawal, whichever is lower
❖ No interest is payable for closure of FCNR (B) deposits before completion of minimum period of one year. ❖
If the FCNR(B) deposit is closed before maturity before completion of the minimum period of deposit i.e., one
year from the effective date of deposit, no interest is payable on such prematurely closed deposit.
❖ If FCNR (B) deposit is closed before maturity on or after completion of the stipulated minimum period of
deposit of 1 year, the rate of interest payable on such prematurely closed deposit shall be 1% less than the
stipulated rate of interest applicable to FCNR (B) deposit for the period run, as ruling on the date of deposit
❖ If FCNR (B) deposit is closed before maturity on or after completion of the stipulated minimum period of
deposit of 1 year, for reinvestment in FCNR (B) deposit in other permitted currencies (i.e., USD, GBP, EUR, AUD,
CAD), the rate of interest payable on such prematurely closed deposit shall be 0.50% less than the rate applicable
for the period run, as ruling on the date of FCNR (B) deposit.
 DOMESTIC SAVINGS BANK DEPOSITS ( IC NO. 767/2022 wef 21.12.2022)

S.No. Slabs ROI (%)
1. For outstanding Balance of less than Rs. 50 Lakh 2.90%
2. For outstanding Balance of Rs. 50 Lakh to less than Rs 5 Cr 2.90%
3. For outstanding Balance of Rs. 5 Cr to less than Rs 10 Cr 2.95%
4. For outstanding Balance of Rs. 10 Cr to less than Rs 100 Cr 3.05%
5. For outstanding Balance of Rs 100 Cr & less than Rs. 200 Cr 3.50%
10. For outstanding Balance of Rs 2000 Cr & above 4.00%
 LATEST CHANGES IN CGTMSE

CGTMSE ALIGNS GUARANTEE COVERAGE FOR RETAIL/WHOLESALE TRADE AT PAR WITH ALL OTHER SEGMENTS
OF CGS-I: CGTMSE vide its circular dated 30 November 2022 has aligned the trading activity (Retail and Wholesale
trade) at par with other activities of CGS-I. Accordingly the ceiling of credit guarantee cover has been increased
from Rs.100.00 Lakhs to Rs.200.00 Lakhs, and the extent of guarantee cover and rate of annual guarantee fees has
also been made at par with other activities.The above modifications shall be applicable to all guarantees approved
or after 1st December 2022. However, the revised extent of guarantee coverage shall not be applicable in case of
enhancement of existing working capital accounts already covered under guarantee scheme and shall remain at 50%
of the amount in default.
CGTMSE MODIFIES THE EXTENT OF GUARANTEE COVERAGE UNDER CGS-I: CGTMSE vide its circular dated 30
November 2022 has increased the extent of guarantee coverage to 85% for ZED certified MSEs, units under
aspirational districts, women and SC/ST entrepreneurs. Accordingly, the details of guarantee coverage under
CGS-I would be as under;
Category (including trading activity) Maximum extent of guarantee coverage where the credit facility is
Up to Rs.5.00 Lakh Above Rs.5.00 Lakh and up to Above Rs.50.00 Lakh and upto
Rs.50.00 Lakh Rs.200.00 Lakh
Micro Enterprises 85% 75% 75%
MSEs located in North East region 80%
(including Sikkim)
Women entrepreneurs 85%
MSEs situated in aspirational districts 85%
ZED certified MSEs 85%
SC/ST entrepreneurs 85%
All other category of borrowers 75%
The revised guidelines for extent of coverage will be applicable to all guarantees approved on or after 01 December
2022. However, it shall not be applicable in case of enhancement of existing working capital accounts already
covered under the guarantee scheme.
Aspirational Districts Programme: Launched by the Hon’ble PM in January 2018, the Aspirational Districts
Programme (ADP) aims to quickly and effectively transform 112 most under-developed districts across the country.
The broad contours of the programme are Convergence (of Central & State Schemes), Collaboration (of Central,
State level Nodal Officers & District Collectors), and Competition among districts through monthly delta ranking; all
driven by a mass movement. At present, there are 115 districts identified by NITI Ayog as aspirational district in
Phase-I.
ZED certified MSMEs: MSME Sustainable (ZED) Certification is an extensive drive to create awareness amongst
MSMEs about Zero Defect Zero Effect (ZED) practices and motivate and incentivise them for ZED Certification while
also encouraging them to become MSME Champions. Addressing the nation on India's 68th Independence Day,
Hon'ble Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi urged the industry, especially the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
(MSMEs) of India, to manufacture goods in the country with "zero defects" and to ensure that the goods have "zero
effect" on the environment.
CGTMSE REDUCED THE ANNUAL GUARANTEE FEES (AGF) UNDER CGS-I: CGTMSE, vide circular dated 30 November
2022, has announced a downward revision in the guarantee fees and also brought the AGF for loans to
Retail/Wholesale trade at par with other activities. The revised AGF structure will be as hereunder;
Fee Rate after
Standard Fee Rate with Risk Premium
Slab ( Rs.) Discount
Rate (SR)*
(-10%) 15% 30% 50% 70%
0-10 lakh 0.75 0.68 0.86 0.98 1.13 1.28
Above 10-50 lakh 1.10 0.99 1.27 1.43 1.65 1.87
Above 50-2 crore 1.20 1.08 1.38 1.56 1.80 2.04
AGF will be charged on the guaranteed amount for the first year and on the outstanding amount for the remaining
tenure of the credit facility.The standard rate is across all activity including trading activity. In addition to above,
following Categories have been identified for additional concession / relaxation in Standard Rate of guarantee fee
as given in the table below:
Social Category (Weaker
Category Section/ Underserved Section) Geographic MSE Status
Target Group Women/SC/ST NER (Upto 50 Lakh)/ ZED Certified

Aspirational District
Relaxation/
Concession in Standard 10% 10% 10%
Rate
Depending on the degree of risk analyzed by CGTMSE (annually) through external agencies/internal assessment,
MLI with better portfolio would be given the discount of 10% on standard rate whereas MLIs with high risk
associated would be charged maximum risk premium up to 70% of Standard Rate.
MLIs which are newly registered / which don’t have sufficient history of transactions under CGTMSE will be placed
at 70% risk premium for a period of at least one year.
Additional discount in Standard Rate:
Women entrepreneurs/ SC/ST borrowers would be given 10% discount on Standard Rate of fees.
Units in North East Region (including Sikkim) up to Rs.50.00 Lakhs would be given 10% discount on Standard
Rate of fees.
MSEs situated in aspirational districts would be given 10% discount on Standard Rate of fees.
ZED certified MSEs would be given 10% discount on Standard Rate of fees.
An MSE falling in all the above three categories will be eligible for maximum discount of 30% on Standard rate of
fees.
The above revised fee structure shall be applicable to all the guarantees approved / renewed on or after December
01, 2022 including enhancement in existing working capital account already covered under guarantee scheme.
CGTMSE HAS MADE OPTIONAL FOR CAPTURING FINANCIAL DATA IN GUARANTEE APPLICATION FORM: As per
existing guidelines, the financial data of the enterprise is sought during fresh guarantee application as well as
during block renewal of Working capital accounts. On a review, CGTMSE vide its circular dated 03 November 2022,
has made the same optional for guarantee cover application/renewal.
 GOI KEEPS THE INTEREST RATE ON SMALL SAVINGS SCHEMES UNCHANGED FOR Q4: Central Government has
changed interest rates on Small Savings Schemes for Jan 2023 to March 2023 for various small savings schemes
will be;
Scheme Revised Rate of Interest Revised Rate of Interest Compounding

Wef 01.10.22 to 31.12.2022 Wef 01.01.23 to31.03.2023 frequency
Senior Citizen Savings Scheme 7.6 % p.a. 8.0% p.a Quarterly and paid
Public Provident(SCSS)
Fund Scheme (PPF) 7.1 % p.a. 7.1% p.a Annually
Kisan Vikas Patra (KVP) 7.0 % p.a. (will mature in 123) 7.2 % p.a. (will mature in Annually
months) 120) months)
Annually
Sukanya Samriddhi Account Scheme 7.6 % p.a. 7.6 % p.a
Reserve Bank of India, vide their Notification No: RBI/2021-22/07 DGBA.GBD.No. S2/31.12.010/2021-22 dated
01.04.2021 has issued the Master Circular on conduct of government business by agency banks which is updated
till March 31, 2021.According bank has issued subject circular. Banks receives following commission on conduct
of government business :
Sl Type of Transaction Unit Revised Rates

No
1 Receipts - Physical Per transaction Rs 40/-
2 Receipts – e-mode Per transaction Rs 9/-
3 Pension Payments Per transaction Rs 75/-
4 Payments other than Pension Per Rs 100 turnover 6.5 Paise PER 100
Government Business transactions, our Bank is earning : Rs 100/- for each Atal Pension Yojana (APY) account
opened by the branch, Rs 200/- for each National Pension System (NPS) account opened through SAS package / our
Corporate website and Rs 125/- for each e-NPS account opened through NSDL Site.
3.RBI POLICIES, BANKING LAW & CUSTOMERS

1. As per the MPC statement on December 7, 2022 RBI has decided to retain the Cash Reserve Ratio at _____ of
NDTL: Ans.4.50
2. The RBI in its Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) Statement on December 7, 2022 has cut the projected real GDP
growth for FY 2022-23 to _____ per cent. Ans.6.8
3. The RBI in its Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) Statement on December 7, 2022 has hiked the policy Repo rate
under the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) by 35 basis points to _____ per cent with immediate effect. Ans.6.25
4. In the Monetary Policy Committee Statement on 8th April, 2022, the RBI has replaced the Fixed Rate Reverse
Repo (FRRR) as the floor of the LAF corridor with the Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) rate. With the increase in repo
rate on December 7, 2022 the SDF stands adjusted to ____ per cent. Ans.6.00
5. The RBI in its Monetary Policy Committee Statement on 8th April, 2022, had retained the fixed rate reverse repo
(FRRR) at _____%. FRRR will remain as part of the RBI’s toolkit and its operation will be at the discretion of the RBI
for purposes specified from time to time. Ans.3.35
6. The RBI has projected Real GDP growth for Q1:2023-24 at ______ per cent FY 2023-24. Ans.5.9
7. On the assumption of a normal monsoon in 2022 and average crude oil price (Indian basket) of US$ 100 per
barrel, RBI in its MPC Statement on December 7, 2022 has retained projected CPI inflation at ___ per cent in 2022-
23. Ans. 6.7
8. With the Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) at 6.00 per cent, the policy repo rate being at 6.25 per cent and the
MSF rate at 6.50%, the width of the LAF corridor is of _____ bps. Ans.a) 25
9. The Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) rate is calibrated to 25 bps above the repo rate. The MSF rate as per the
Monetary Policy Statement on December 7, 2022 stands adjusted at ____ per cent: Ans.6.50
10.The Bank rate is calibrated to 25 bps above the repo rate. The Bank rate as per the MPC statement on December
7, 2022 stands adjusted at _____%: Ans.6.15
Compiled by Team Aarohan, Canara Bank, Regional Office, Kanpur -1, Uttar Pradesh 10 | P a g e
11.As per the MPC statement on December 7, 2022 RBI has decided to retain the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) at
_____ % of Net Demand & Time Liabilities (NDTL). Ans.18.00
12. The Reserve Bank of India in consultation with the Government of India, has decided the limit for Ways and
Means Advances (WMA) for the second half of the financial year 2022-23 (October 2022 to March 2023) at Rs._____
crore. Ans. 50,000
13.What is ways and means advances limit of Central Govt. being provided by RBI, for the 2nd half of current
financial year? Ans. Rs.50000 cr
14.As per Ways and Means advances rules, RBI can trigger fresh floatation of market loans, when Govt.of India uses
___ % of WMA limit. Ans. 75%
15.RBI may trigger fresh floatation of market loans when the Government of India utilizes 75 per cent of the WMA
limit and rate of interest on WMA will be at Repo rate and for Overdraft it will be ____ above Repo rate. Ans. 2%
16.The Reserve Bank has recently launched a new tech initiative named _____ which is an Advanced Supervisory
Monitoring System and is expected to make the Supervisory processes more robust. It is a web-based end-to-end
workflow application through which RBI shall monitor compliance requirements in a more focused manner with the
objective of further improving the compliance culture in Supervised Entities (SEs) like Banks, NBFCs, etc. Ans.
DAKSH
17.RBI has decided to allow another window up to Sept. end 2022 to all non-bank Payment Aggregators (PAs)
(existing as on March 17, 2020) to submit applications for seeking authorisation under the Payment and Settlement
Systems Act, 2007. PAs can apply by Sept. 30, 2022 and shall have a net worth of Rs. ___ crore as on March 31,
2022. Further, the timeline of March 31, 2023 for achieving the net worth of Rs. ___ crore shall, however, remain
unchanged.Ans.15 ; 25
18.RBI had constituted the Expert Committee on Urban Co-operative Bank under the Chairmanship of Sh.
__________, former Deputy Governor, RBI to examine the issues in urban co-operative banking sector and to
provide a medium term road map, suggest measures for faster resolution of UCBs and recommend suitable
regulatory/ supervisory changes for strengthening the sector. Ans. N. S. Vishwanathan
19.As per the Revised Regulatory Framework for Urban Co-Operative Banks (UCBs) a simple four-tiered regulatory
framework with differentiated regulatory prescriptions has been adopted. As per the framework a minimum net
worth of Rs.____ crore for Tier 1 UCBs operating in single district and Rs.____ crore for all other UCBs (of all tiers)
has been stipulated. Ans.2 ; 5
20.As per the Revised Regulatory Framework for Urban Co-Operative Banks (UCBs), UCBs have been classified under
four Tiers. Tier 1 refers to all unit UCBs and salary earner’s UCBs (irrespective of deposit size), and all other UCBs
having deposits up to Rs. 100 crore. Tier 2 refers to UCBs with deposits more than Rs.100 crore and up to Rs. _____
crore. The UCBs which do not meet the requirement, will be provided a glide path of five years with intermediate
milestones to facilitate smooth transition to revised norms. Ans. 1000
21.As per the Revised Regulatory Framework for Urban Co-Operative Banks (UCBs), the minimum CRAR requirement
for Tier 1 banks is retained at the present prescription of _______% under current capital adequacy framework
based on Basel I. For Tier 2, Tier 3 and Tier 4 UCBs, while retaining the current capital adequacy framework, RBI
has decided to revise the minimum CRAR to ____% so as to strengthen their capital structure. Further, the banks
that do not meet the revised CRAR will have to achieve a CRAR of 10% by the financial year ended March 31, 2024,
11% by March 31, 2025; and 12% by March 31, 2026. Ans. 9 ; 12
22.As per RBI guidelines on categorization of Urban Co-operative Banks for regulatory purpose, Tier 3 - UCBs are
those with deposits __________ Ans. More than ₹1000 crore and up to ₹10,000 crore
23.As per RBI directions dated 24.5.2022, in case of primary Urban Coop Banks, the home repair/renovation loan in
Metro politancentres can be: Ans.Rs.10 lac
24.As per RBI directions dated 24.5.2022, , in case of primary Urban Coop Banks, the home repair/renovation loan
in non-metropolitan centers can be: Ans. Rs. 6 lac
25.RBI has allowed Banks to include the SLR eligible securities in HTM category at enhanced limit of 23 percent of
NDTL for eligible securities acquired on or after September 1, 2020, and until___________ Ans. 31st March 2024
26.Banks shall disclose the particulars of all such items in the notes to accounts wherever any item under the
Schedule 5(IV)-Other Liabilities and Provisions or Schedule 11(VI)-Other Assets-“Others” exceeds _____per cent of
the total assets. Ans. 1%
27.Given the heterogeneity in the cooperative sector, RBI has decided to adopt a ________tiered regulatory
framework, as against the existing two-tiered framework, for categorization of UCBs for regulatory purposes. Ans.
Four Tiered
28.Tier 1 UCBs operating in a single district shall have minimum net worth of ₹________ and all other UCBs (of all
tiers) shall have minimum net worth of ₹_____. Ans. Rs.2.00 crs and Rs.5.00 crs respectively
29.As per RBI (Transfer of Loan Exposure) Directions 2021, RRBs and cooperative bank can transfer which type of
loans? Ans. standard loans& stressed loans
30.As per RBI (Transfer of Loan Exposure) Directions 2021, where transferor bank transfers a loan and provides
servicing facility also, it can be provided on _____ basis only: Ans.arm’s length basis
31.As per RBI (Transfer of Loan Exposure) Directions 2021, diligence is mandatory by transferee bank. In case of
portfolio, if transferee is unable to perform due diligence for individual loan, it must be done for individual loan at
least for ___ of portfolio by value.Ans.1/3rd
32.As per RBI (Transfer of Loan Exposure) Directions 2021, in case of portfolio, if transferee is unable to perform
due diligence for individual loan, it must be done for individual loan at least for a specific portion of portfolio by
value. In such case, the transferor has to retain at least __ % of economic interest in the transferred loans.Ans. 10%
33.As per RBI (Transfer of Loan Exposure) Directions 2021, transfer of loans can be after minimum holding period of
__ months for loans with tenor of up to 2 years and ___ months in case of loans with tenor of more than 2
years.Ans. 3 months and 6 months
34.As per RBI (Transfer of Loan Exposure) Directions 2021, if loans are acquired from other entities by a transferor,
it can be transferred after ___ months.Ans.6 months
35.As per RBI (Transfer of Loan Exposure) Directions 2021, If credit exposure of the transferor being transferred
(without netting for provisions) is Rs.___ crore or more in case of stressed loans, the transferor shall obtain two
external valuation reports. Ans. Rs.100 cr
36.As per RBI (Transfer of Loan Exposure) Directions 2021, when negotiated on a bilateral basis, it should be by an
auction through Swiss Challenge method if the aggregate exposure (including investment) is Rs.___ crore or more.
Ans. Rs.100 cr
37.As per RBI (Transfer of Loan Exposure) Directions 2021, The lenders shall assign ___% risk weight to the NPAs
acquired from other lenders when loans are classified as ‘standard’ upon acquisition. Ans. 100%
38.As per RBI (Transfer of Loan Exposure) Directions 2021, stressed loans in default for more than ___ days or
classified as NPA can be transferred to Asset Reconstruction Companies (ARCs).Ans. 60 days
39.As per RBI guidelines (Dec 15, 2021) which type of banks can conduct govt. business as agent of RBI?
Ans. PSBs, Private banks, Small finance banks, payment banks
40.As per RBI Retail Direct Scheme – Market Making, who can be a market maker? Ans. all primary dealers
41.As per RBI Retail Direct Scheme – Market Making, Primary Dealers may submit a report to IDMD, RBI, on
successful trades executed in the RFQ segment, monthly on or before ___ of the following month.Ans.10th
42.As per RBI’s Registration of Assignment of Receivables (Reserve Bank) Regulations, 2022 (January 2022), where
any trade receivables are financed through a Trade Receivables Discounting System (TReDS); the concerned TReDS
on behalf of the Factor shall, file with the Central Registry the particulars? Ans. Central Registrar
on behalf of the Factor shall, within a period of ___ , from the date of such assignment or satisfaction there of, as
the case may be, file with the Central Registry the particulars of Ans. 10 days
on behalf of the Factor shall, within a prescribed period, from the date of such assignment or satisfaction thereof
with the Central Registry. If there is delay, Central registrar can extend this period by another: Ans.10 days
45.As per RBI’s Reserve Bank of India (Credit Derivatives) Directions,2022 (Feb 2022), a credit derivative contract in
which one counterparty (protection seller) commits to pay to the other counterparty (protection buyer) in the case
of a credit event with respect to a reference entity and in return, the protection buyer makes periodic payments
(premium) to the protection seller until the maturity of the contract or the credit event, whichever is earlier, is
called? Ans. credit default swap
46.As per RBI’s Reserve Bank of India (Credit Derivatives) Directions, 2022 Feb 2022, who is eligible to participate in
credit derivatives market,: 1) residents 2) non-residents. Ans. 1 and 2 Both
47.As per RBI’s Reserve Bank of India (Credit Derivatives) Directions,2022 (Feb 2022), following entities shall be
eligible to act as market makers in credit derivatives: 1) scheduled commercial banks 2)NBFCs 3) Exim Bank 4)
NABARD Ans.1 to 4 all
48.As per RBI’s Reserve Bank of India (Credit Derivatives) Directions,2022 (Feb 2022), NBFCs, including Standalone
Primary Dealers(SPDs) and Housing Finance Companies (HFCs), with minimum net owned funds of ____ as per the
audited balance sheet as on March 31 of the previous financial year and subject to specific approval of the
Department of Regulation, Reserve Bank, are eligible as market maker? Ans. Rs.500 cr
49.Reverse Repo transactions with RBI are to be reported by banks in the balance sheet as part of?
Ans. balance with RBI
50.Reverse repo transactions with banks with tenor up to 14 days, are to be reported in bank balance sheets as part
of? Ans. money at call and short notice
51.Reverse repos with banks and other institutions having original tenors more than 14 days shall be classified :
Ans. Advances
52.The following communities have been notified as minority communities by the Government of India, Ministry of
Minority Affairs: (a) Sikhs, (b) Muslims,(c) Christians, (d) Zoroastrians, (e) Buddhists, (f) Jain- Ans. all
53.RBI changes its policy Repo rate with the objective of achieving the medium-term target for consumer price
index (CPI)inflation of ____ % within ab and of +/- 2 per cent, while supporting growth. Ans. 4%
54.Urban Coop Banks (UCBs)under Tier 4 category are required to put in place board approved policy and a
Compliance Function, including the appointment of a Chief Compliance Officer (CCO),latest by _____.Ans. 01.04.23
55.As per RBI guidelines for Coop banks, the Compliance Function is to ensure strict observance of all statutory and
regulatory requirements such as 1)standards of conduct, 2)managing conflict of interest, 3) treating customers
fairly and 4) ensuring the suitability of customer service 5) operating profitably Ans. 1 to 4 only
56.As per RBI guidelines for Coop banks, the senior management, is to carry out an exercise, at least once a ___, to
identify and assess the major Compliance risk facing the UCB and formulate plans to manage it. Ans. year
57.As per RBI guidelines for Coop banks, the Chief Compliance Officer (CCO) shall not be given any responsibility
which brings elements of conflict of interest, especially any role relating to business. This called? Ans. dual hatting
58.As per RBI guidelines for Coop banks, the Chief Compliance Officer (CCO), shall be appointed fora minimum
fixed tenure of not less than ___ years. Ans. 3 years
59.The amounts received by a bank from ____ towards claims in respect of guarantees invoked and held by them
pending adjustment of the same towards the relative advances, need not be treated as outside liabilities for the
purpose of computation of NDTL for CRR and SLR. Ans. NCGTC
60.RBI has issued the Master directions on interest rates on deposits for scheduled commercial banks and co-
operative banks incorporating all the amendments made in recent past. The Overnight Alternative Reference Rate
for the respective currency / Swap rates quoted / displayed by Financial Benchmarks India Pvt. Ltd. (FBIL) shall be
used as the reference for arriving at the interest rates on ______ deposits. Ans.FCNR(B)
61.As per extant guidelines, banks shall not open Savings Accounts in the name of the following except: a)
Municipal Corporations b) State Housing Boards c) Panchayat Samitis d) Drainage Boards e) Trust 15) The Primary
(Urban) Co-operative Banks (UCBs) under _____ categories shall treat the compliance function guidelines as a set of
minimum guidelines only and accordingly frame their own guidelines taking into account their corporate governance
framework, the scale of operations, risk profile, organizational structure and code of conduct, etc. Ans. c & d
62. In the backdrop of global uncertainty and the continuing weakness of the rupee against the US dollar and to
boost forex inflows ensuring overall macroeconomic and financial stability the RBI decided that with effect from
the reporting fortnight beginning _________ incremental FCNR(B) and NRE deposits with reference base date of July
1, 2022 will be exempt from the maintenance of CRR and SLR. This relaxation will be available for deposits
mobilised up to Nov. 4, 2022. Further, transfers from Non-Resident (Ordinary) (NRO) accounts to NRE accounts shall
not qualify for the relaxation. Ans. July 30, 2022
63. Reserve Bank of India has decided to temporarily permit banks to raise fresh FCNR(B) and NRE deposits without
reference to the extant regulations on interest rates, with effect from July 7, 2022. This relaxation will be
available for the period up to _________:. Ans.October 31, 2022
64.After latest inclusion of Modified Mumbai Interbank Forward Outright Rate (MMIFOR), how many financial
benchmarks are now administered by Financial Benchmarks India Pvt. Ltd. (FBIL) as ‘Significant Benchmark’?
Ans. Seven
65.Under RBI’s consolidated guidelines for opening of current accounts, banks can allow opening ofcurrent account
where the credit exposure of the borrower with banking system is less than Rs. Ans. Rs.5 cr
66.Under RBI’s consolidated guidelines for opening of current accounts, banks which have allowed CC or OD and has
share of ____% or above in total loans, can allow opening of current account where the credit exposure of the
borrower with banking system is Rs.5 cr and above Ans. 10%
67.Under RBI’s consolidated guidelines for opening of current accounts, banks which have allowed CC or OD and has
share of less ____% in total loans,can allow opening of current account in the formof collection account, where the
credit exposure of the borrower with banking system is Rs.5 cr and above Ans. 10%
68.Under RBI’s consolidated guidelines for opening of current accounts, borrowers which have exposure other than
CC or OD have to arrange escrow mechanism where credit exposure of the borrower with banking system is
Rs.____cr and above Ans. 50 cr
69.Under RBI’s consolidated guidelines for opening of current accounts, current accounts can be opened for real
estate projects mandated under Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act,2016 for the purpose of maintaining
___ % of advance payments collected from the home buyers -Ans. 70%
70.As per ODI Directions of RBI, Overseas Direct Investment (ODI) means (1) acquisition of any unlisted equity
capital or subscription as a part of the Memorandum of Association of a foreign entity, or (2)investment in 10% or
more of the paid-up equity capital of a listed foreign entity, or (3) investment with control where investment is less
than 10% of the paid-up equity capital of a listed foreign entity.Ans.1 to 3 all
71.As per ODI Directions of RBI, once an investment in a foreign entity is classified as ODI, the investment shall
continue to be treated as ODI even if such investment falls below ___% of the paid-up equity capital or the investor
loses control in the foreign entity. Ans. 10%
72.As per ODI Directions of RBI, Overseas Portfolio Investment (OPI) shall not be made in: 1) any unlisted debt
instruments; or 2) any security which is issued by a person resident in India who is not in an IFSC; or 3)any
derivatives unless otherwise permitted by Reserve Bank; or 4) any commodities including Bullion Depository
Receipts (BDRs). Ans. all
73.As per ODI Directions of RBI, Financial commitment by an Indian entity, exceeding USD_____ (or its equivalent)
in a financial year shall require prior approval of the Reserve Bank even when the total financial commitment of
the Indian entity is within the eligible limit under the automatic route. Ans. 1000 million
74.As per ODI Directions of RBI, an Indian entity may open, hold and maintain ____ abroad for the purpose of
making ODI Ans. Foreign currency account
75.The reference rates for arriving at the interest rates on FCNR (B) deposits are be quoted / displayed by___ with
effect from 31.03.22?Ans. Financial Benchmarks India Pvt. Ltd. (FBIL)
76.As per the extant guidelines, interest rates on Foreign Currency Non-Resident Bank [FCNR(B)] deposits are
subject to ceilings of Overnight Alternative Reference Rate (ARR) for the respective currency/swap plus 250 basis
points for deposits of 1 year to less than 3 years maturity and overnight ARR plus ________ basis points for deposits
of 3 years and above and up to 5 years maturity. Ans: 350 bps
77.RBI has decided to put in place an additional arrangement for invoicing, payment, and settlement of exports /
imports in INR. For settlement of trade transactions with any country, AD bank in India may open
___________Accounts of correspondent bank/s of the partner trading country.Ans: Special Rupee Vostro Accounts
4. DEPOSITS, KYC & AML

1. Which statement is incorrect in respect of Current Account- Public Financial Management System - Account
Opening permitted only at specific branches selected and permitted by the Regional Head
2. Periodic updation shall be carried out at least once in every ________ for high riskcustomers, once in every
________ for medium risk customers and once in every_______ for low risk customers from the date of opening
of the account/last KYCupdation.- two years, eight years, ten years.
3. Capturing live photo of the customer and Officially Valid Document or the proof of possession of Aadhaar, where
offline verification cannot be carried out, along with the latitude and longitude of the location where such live
photo is being taken by an authorized officer of the Bank is termed as Ans: Digital KYC
4. As per KYC guidelines, Trusts, Charitable institutions, NGO’s receiving foreign donations is to be categorized
under which category: Ans: High Risk.
5. As per KYC guidelines, Banks should preserve the records pertaining to the KYC of the customers obtained while
opening the account and during the course of business relationship at least for a period of: Ans: 5 years after
the business relationship is ended.
6. Time intervals for periodic updation of KYC is , and years for existing high, medium and low risk customers
respectively. Ans. 2 years(high), 8 years(medium) and 10 years(Low Risk)
7. Audio-Visual KYC Process is called as Ans. VCIP: Video-based Customer Identification Procedure or V-CIP is a
seamless, real-time, and end-to- end encrypted procedure envisaged by RBI for digital customer identification
and paperless KYC verification. This alternative video-based process is carried out by banks or other Regulated
Entities (REs) through an official trained for face-to-face V- CIP.
8. Canara Elite Current account is designed to cater to needs of the elite segment of Current Account Customers
who maintain a quarterly average balance of ____________ cash handling charges are free upto _______ for
denominations of _________, subject to maximum cash deposits of _________.- Name printed Cheque Books up
to ________ can be issued free of charge :Rs 5 lac & above Rs 10 lac per day, Rs 100 and above, Rs 1 Cr per
month, 700 leaves per annum
9. Minimum balance criteria under Canara Elite current account is based on _______ the charges for non
maintenance of minimum balance AND penalty for closing Canara Elite Current account before one year.-
quarterly average balance, Rs 2000 per quarter, Rs 2000 penalty+ Service Charges
10.Auto sweep facility in Canara Elite current account is available for balance above ______ and for ________ in
the multiples of ______.-Rs 5 lac, period 15 to 181 days, Rs 5 lac
11.Product Code for Canara Elite current account? Ans 218
12.CANARA ELITE Current Account is for Customers who maintain a quarterly average balance of ₹5 lac & above.
Cash handling charges free upto ₹10 lac per day for denominations of ₹100 and above, subject to maximum
cash deposits of ₹_ per month. Ans: Rs1 Cr
13.Which among the following is not the feature of Canara DiYA?-Option to submit PAN No or Form 60
14.Canara Diya is application for what purpose? Ans For opening of SB accounts
15.Under Canara CA Holding account, maximum time for which money can be held in this account shall be ________
, after which the money shall be credited back to the Agency Account.-14 days
16.CASA account holders availing POS terminals and maintaining Monthly Aver age Balance of _______ shall be
extended 50 % concession in rent.- Rs 3 to Rs 5 lakh
17.CASA account holders availing POS terminals and maintaining Monthly Aver age Balance of _______ shall be
extended 100 % concession in rent.- Above Rs 5 lakh
18.Who is the authority to sanction concession up to 100% in POS Rent to Low, Normal and Moderate Risk
merchants ?-Regional Head
19.CASA account holders of our Bank, availing POS terminals and maintaining Monthly Average Balance (MAB) of
Rs._ shall be extended 100% waiver in rent for POS terminals. Ans: Rs.5 lakhs
20.What is the minimum amount of deposit under Retail Term Deposit Product “Canara 666”?- Rs 25000
21.Which statement is correct for Retail Term Deposit Product “Canara 666”? 1. Product is available for the
amount slab of less than ₹ 2 Crore 2. Auto renewal facility not available under this product 3. All other
guidelines regarding penalty and preferential interest rates to Senior Citizen and Employees/ex-employees of
the Bank for Domestic term deposits are applicable 4. Product is available under both offline and online
mode
22.Which account is designed to open PFMS accounts of implementing agencies for payment of statutory
deductions/ tax/duties/levies/fees/municipal charges etc.-Canara CA Holding account
23.Which match is incorrect?-a.142 – Canara SB – CNA Central Sector Scheme.b.1652 – Canara CA – CNA Central
Sector Scheme c.1653 - Canara CA - Holding Account(PFMS)
24.Product code for CANARA CA PFMS? Ans 1653
25.Product code For SB accounts for opening central govt accounts under PFMS is 142 What is the product code for
current account in PFMS? Ans 1653
26.Which statement is not correct in respect of Nitya Nidhi Deposit -Rate of interest on NND closed after
completion of 12 months but before completing 24 months is 0.25 %
27.What is the rate of interest on Nitya Nidhi Deposit Scheme: Ans: Upto 12m: 0.1%, 12to 24m: 0.25%, 24 to 39m:
0.5%, 39m to less than 63m: 1%, 63 months: 2%
28.Which authority can sanction concessions beyond 25 % and upto 50 % of standard r ate in Merchant Discount Rate
in Point of Sale for Moderate merchants ?-Circle Head
29.Which authority can sanction concessions above 50 % of standard rate including full waiver in Merchant Discount
Rate in Point of Sale for Low Risk merchants?- DBS Wing Head
30.While opening a bank account of foreign students studying in India due to nonavailability of any proof of local
address, during the 30 days period, the accountshould be operated with a condition of allowing foreign
remittances not exceeding_______ or equivalent into the account and a cap of monthly withdrawal to
_______pending verification of address.- USD 1000, Rs 50,000
31.For Foreign Students, NRO account may be opened on the basis of Passport. With in 30 days, local address proof
is to be verified. During this 30 days period, Inward Remittance of USD 1000 and withdrawals upto Rs._ only will
be allowed: Ans: Rs 50,000/-
32.Compensation for safe deposit locker in case of fire, theft/ burglary/ robbery, dacoity, building collapse is times
of prevailing annual rent. Ans: 100 times
33. Risk classification of customer is also done on the basis of Deposits/account balance.According to this medium
Risk customer is the one who is having depsit /accountbalance of______.-25 lakh & above but less than Rs 100
lakh
34.What is the maximum amount of Advance Deposit can be taken by Bank from locker hirer? Ans. 3 years advance
rent + Break open charges
35.Section 45 ZA to 45 ZF of Banking Regulation deals with: Ans. Nomination facility in Deposit Accounts (ZA & ZB),
articles kept in safe custody (ZC & ZD) and lockers (ZE & ZF).
36.While breaking open of a locker or in case of deceased claim of a locker, if a sealed box is found among other
things, as per the procedure of inventory handling what you will do? Ans. Not required to open sealed/closed
packets left with them for safe custody or found in locker while releasing them to the nominee(s) and surviving
locker hirers / depositor of safe custody article.
37.No. of deposit that can made in one day in SB account? Ans No restriction
38..Rate of Interest payable for SB accounts with outstanding Balance of Rs. 5 Cr to less than Rs 10 Cr is _ Ans: 2.95
% (10cr to 100 cr: 3.05%, >2000 cr: 4%)
39.Interest on savings deposit is calculated on? Ans Daily product basis
40.The interest on Savings Deposit is calculated on _ product basis and credited to the customers‟ accounts on
quarterly intervals, on 1st of February, 1st of May, 1st of August and 1st of November every year. Ans: Daily
41.10 slabs in ROI of SB a/c, starting from 2.90 to 4.00% & The existing system of calculation of interest on daily
product basis and crediting to the SB accounts on 1st February, 1st May, 1st August and 1st November every
year shall continue
5. DIGITAL BANKING
1. 1.As per RBI guidelines on digital lending, a borrower shall be given an explicit option to exit digital loan by
paying the principal and the proportionate APR without any penalty during the cooling-off / lock-up period,
which shall not be less than _____ days for loans having tenor of seven days or more and ____ day for loans
having tenor of less than seven days. Ans.3 ; 1
2. A remote and automated lending process, largely by use of seamless digital technologies for customer
acquisition, credit assessment, loan approval, disbursement, recovery, and associated customer service, is
called? Ans. digital lending
3. Under digital lending guidelines of RBI, if any complaint lodged by the borrower against RE or the LSP engaged
by the RE is not resolved by the RE within___ he/she can lodge a complaint over the Complaint Management
System (CMS) portal under the Reserve Bank – Integrated Ombudsman Scheme (RB-IOS)Ans. 30 days
4. Digital Lending Canara Budget loan through Net Banking is up to Rs 1.00 lakhs, repayable in 36 months and NTH
Rs 10000/- or 25 % whichever is higher. What is the quantum of loan without co-obligation .: Ans: Rs 10000/-
5. NPCI has extended the deadline for UPI players to adhere to a market cap of 30 percent up to____Ans. Dec.31,
2024
6. Who maintains the BBPS (Bharat Bill Payment System)? Ans.National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) has
been authorized by RBI as the Bharat Bill Payment Central Unit (BBPCU) and is responsible for setting business
standards, rules and procedures for technical and business requirements for all participants.
7. As per RBI’s Framework for Facilitating Small Value Digital Payments in Offline Mode of January 2022, such
payment can be made through 1) cards 2) wallets 3) mobile device Ans.1 to 3- all
8. As per RBI’s Framework for Facilitating Small Value Digital Payments in Offline Mode of January 2022, the upper
limit of offline payment transaction is? Ans. Rs.200
9. As per RBI’s Framework for Facilitating Small Value Digital Payments in Offline Mode of January 2022, the total
limit for offline transactions on a payment instrument shall be ___ at any point intime.Ans.Rs.2000
10.168. As per RBI’s Framework for Facilitating Small Value Digital Payments in Offline Mode of January 2022, an
offline payment 1)can be made in proximity (face to face) mode only 2) can be offered without additional
factor of authentication (AFA) 3) replenishment is allowed only in online mode with AFA .Ans. 1 to 3 all
11.The net worth requirement for Bharat Bill Payment Operating Units(BBPOUs) has been reduced by RBI during May
2022 from Rs.___ cr to Rs.___ cr. Ans. Rs.100 cr, Rs.25 cr
12.Under RBI’s policy on Digital Banking Units, following liability products can be undertaken : (i)Account Opening:
Saving Bank account under various schemes, Current account, Fixed deposit and Recurring deposit account; (ii)
Digital Kit for customers: Mobile Banking, Internet Banking, Debit Card, Credit card and mass transit system
cards;(iii) Digital Kit for Merchants: UPI QR code, BHIM Aadhaar, POS, etc. Ans. All ( I to iii )
13.How many free transactions (Financial/Non Financial) are permitted for our Customers using our Bank’s Debit
card in our ATMs: Ans: 6 ( for senior citizens-8, staff 10) thereafter Rs20+ GST for financial & Rs.5+GST per Non
Financial transactions will be charged
14.Number of free transactions permissible for our Card Holders in other Bank ATMs is Ans: 3 transactions in Metro
centres and 5 transactions in non metro centres. Beyond this Rs.20/-+GST for Fin., Rs.10/-+GST for Non
Financial Transaction
15.As per RBI guidelines, in case of Cash-out at any ATM of more than ten hours in a month will attract a flat
penalty of Rs. _______ per ATM. In case of White Label ATMs (WLAs), the penalty would be charged to the bank
which is meeting the cash requirement of that particular WLA. The bank, may at its discretion, recover the
penalty from the WLA operator. Ans. 10,000
16.In terms of Reserve Bank of India guidelines, the wrongful Debit in the customer’s account on account of ATM
failed transactions shall be reversed within T+5 days from the date of transaction, (T is the day of transaction
and refers to the calendar date) failing which a penalty of Rs. for each day of delay shall be credited to the
customer's account along with the disputed amount. Ans: Rs 100/-
17.Whenever an ATM goes out of order and continues to remain down for more than 2 hours, an alert will be
triggered to Mobile Number of Technology Overseeing Executive(TOE)-Circle. Alert will be triggered with a time
interval of 30 minutes, starts from 8.00 AM to on all working days. The alerts for down ATM will not be
repetitive. Ans: 9.00 PM
18.What are the service charges in respect of acceptance of Rupay cards at ATMs and POS channels in Nepal : Ans:
Per transaction: Financial Rs. 50/- + GST, Non- Financial Rs.10/- + GST
19.ATMs that are set, owning and operated by Non Bank Entities are called as: Ans: White Label ATMs (WLAs).
20.The Automated Teller Machines in which hardware and the lease of the ATM machine is owned by the service
provider, but the cash management and connectivity to banking networks is supplied by a sponsor bank, whose
brand is used on the ATM, are called _ Ans: 'Brown label' ATMs.
21.ATMs installed in a radius of metres from branch premises shall be treated as deemed on-site ATM. Ans: 500
metres
22.Our Bank is offering Mobile Banking facility in the name “Ai1 ( All in One ) - Mobile Banking Application”. Fund
transfer through IMPS, the upper ceiling per day per customer is Rs._ ceiling Rs.1,00,000/- per day(
cumulatively) Ans: Rs5,00,000/-. BHIM UPI upper
23.Based on Guidelines on Restriction on Storage of Actual Card Data i.e., Card-on-File (CoF), with effect from
October 1, 2022, no entity in the card transaction / payment chain, other than the card issuers and / or card
networks, shall store CoF data, and any such data stored previously shall be purged before October 1, 2022.
However, for ease of transition to an alternate system in respect of transactions where cardholders decide to
enter the card details manually at the time of undertaking the transaction0, the merchant or its Payment
Aggregator (PA) involved in settlement of such transactions, can save the CoF data for a maximum period of
______ days or till the settlement date, whichever is earlier. This data shall be used only for settlement of such
transactions, and must be purged thereafter. For handling other post transaction activities, acquiring banks can
continue to store CoF data until Jan.31, 2023. Ans. T+4
24._________ is the first and only state in the country to have its own internet service. The announcement followed
the Department of Telecommunications’ granting of an Internet Service Provider (ISP) licence, which aims to
provide everyone in the state access to the internet. Ans. Kerala
25.As per RBI directions, for import of gold under specific codes, the transaction can be routed through IIBX, which
stands for? Ans. India International Bullion Exchange IFSC Ltd.
26.On a review of implementation of the e-mandate framework and the protection available to customers, RBI
during June 2022, increased the additional factor authentication (AFA) limit fromRs.5,000/- to Rs.____ per
transaction. Ans. Rs.15000
27.The first pilot in the Digital Rupee has commenced in India, on November 1, 2022 for: Ans. wholesale segment
28.As per RBI, the digital form of currency notes issued by RBI will be called?. Ans. Central Bank Digital Currency
29.As per extant guidelines of the Reserve Bank on Credit Card, Card-issuers shall seek One Time Password (OTP)
based consent from the cardholder for activating a credit card, if the same has not been activated by the
customer for more than ______ days from the date of issuance. Ans: 30 days
30.As per RBI guidelines, the Credit Card issuer’s representatives shall contact the customers only between 10:00
hrs and _____hrs. Ans: 19:00 hrs
31.Any request for closure of a credit card shall be honoured within seven working days by the credit card-issuer,
subject to payment of all dues by the cardholder. Failure on the part of the card-issuers to complete the
process of closure within seven working days shall result in a penalty of Rs._____ per day of delay payable to
the customer, till the closure of the account provided there is no outstanding in the account. Ans: Rs.500/-
32.To address the queries of digital payment users, the Reserve Bank on March 8, 2022, launched a 24x7 Helpline.
What is the name of this helpline: Ans: DigiSaathi
33.The Central Bank Digital Currency – Retail is in the form of digital token and issued in the denominations of
_______ Ans: Same denominations that currently issued as Paper Currency.
34.Limits for e-Mandate has been enhanced to ₹ per transaction on Recurring Card Transactions without second
factor authorization and Product Enhancement of SiHub (Standing Instruction Hub) Ans: Rs 15,000/- (Rupees
Fifteen Thousand only) (Cir 646/22)
35.What is the quantum of Baggage Insurance and Purchase Protection Cover available under Can Care Policy by
Oriental Insurance Company to Credit Card & Debit card holders: Ans: Rs 25,000/- per card.
36.The validity of EMV chip cards shall coincide with the validity of EMV certification. Present EMV certification is
valid till (date) Ans: 31st December 2028.
37.Auto renewal on expiry of Debit cards shall be extended only for active cards i.e. cards used at least once for
financial transaction in the last _ (period) Ans: 1 year
38.Corporate Credit Cards to be issued together with add-on cards wherever required. 99 Add on cards can be
issued under Main Card with a Minimum Card Limit of Rs. Ans: Rs.25,000/-
39.The minimum amount of deposit into / withdrawal from currency chest will be ₹1,00,000 and thereafter, in
multiples of ₹ . Ans: Rs 50,000/-.
40.What is the maximum limit under prepaid cards(Domestic Prepaid Instrument) Ans: Rs.2,00,000/-
41.Contactless payment through card can be made by placing the card at close proximity to the device using Radio
frequency identification (RFID) and Near field communication (NFC) within a maximum distance of : Ans: 4.00
cm.
42.Net Banking Facility : User-id will be locked if the user has not logged-in for a period of continuously from the
time of last login. Ans: 6 months(180 days)
43.Wrong MPIN or pass-code thrice will block the Ai1 Mobile App for the day. The user session shall expire in case of
inactivity from user for more than seconds Ans: 90 seconds
44.The max amount per transaction that can be deposited by a customer through cash recycler machine is :
Rs.6,00,000/- (i.e. at present with Rs.2000/- denomination,max.300 currency notes), if PAN number updated in
the Cust- ID of the account. If PAN number is not updated in the Cust-ID of the account, maximum deposit
amount per day/per transaction is Ans: Rs.49,900/-
45.Cash cards, prepaid cards, debit cards are a type of Ans. Plastic Money
46.RBI has prescribed a cap of Rs per financial transaction without end- to-end encryption through POS terminals?
Ans. Rs.5000/-
4. HRD MATTERS & STAFF LOANS

1. The policy on Mandatory Leave has been framed with an objective that it will be a tool of preventive
vigilance and as an operational risk management measure. All staff members covered under Mandatory Leave
Policy shall be compulsorily sent on leave by the concerned Leave Sanctioning Authority for not less than _days in
a single spell every calendar year maintaining an element of surprise. Ans: 10 working days
2. Group Term Life Insurance Policy covering all permanent employees of the Bank (covered by M/s Bajaj
Allianz Life Insurance Co Ltd). What is the coverage for employees under this scheme. Ans: 20 month Gross salary
with minimum Rs.10lacs-Substaff; Rs.15 lakhs-Clerks, Rs.20 lakhs-Office Cadre.
3. Job Rotation is compulsory, for both branches/ administrative units, upto Scale , job rotation once in
every 6 months or in lenient way maximum in 12 month.Ans: Scale II
4.As per RBI guidelines, what is the risk weight on staff loans secured by mortgage / superannuation benefits: Ans:
20%
5.The Bank may extend finance to employees for purchasing shares of their own companies under ESOP to the
extent of 90% of the purchase price of the shares or Rs______, whichever is lower (not for bank employees for
acquisition of their bank’s shares). Ans: Rs.20 lakh
6.The banks shall put in place a "mandatory leave‟ policy wherein the employees posted in sensitive positions or
areas of operation shall be compulsorily sent on leave for a few days (not less than ____working days) in a single
spell every year, without giving any prior intimation to these employees, thereby maintaining an element of
surprise. Ans: 10
7.Loans and advances to Banks’ own staff which are fully secured by superannuation benefit and/ or mortgage of
flat/house attract _____ risk weight.- 20%
8.NF 1048 - Supplemental Housing Loan Agreement to be obtained where continuation of EHL liability is permitted
after cessation from services by adding spouse and/or major children of the borrower as co-borrower/s where
they were not added as co-borrower/s at the time of availing the EHL.
9.Halting allowance on transfer for fixing quarter is permitted for max period to Officer Cadre? Ans-15 Days
10.gross salary subject to min.10Lakh ,15 Lakh & 20Lakh resp
11.With the objective of anchoring and promoting a positive culture in our Bank, an“Ethics and Business Conduct
Cell” has been formed under Industrial RelationsSection, Head Office, Bengaluru headed by Chief Ethics Officer
Who will be theChief Ethics Officer?Ans. General Manager, HR Wing
12.The sanctioning authority for CLEAN OD/DPN loan for an employee working at abranch shall be Ans. AGM/DM
overseeing Advances Section at CO
13.Withdrawal under NRW (NON REPAYABLE WITHDRAWAL) under CANARA BANK SPFscheme is restricted to Ans.
Maximum of 4 times during the entire service of the member
14.Under the ESS (Employee Suggestion Scheme) the cash reward awarded by thebank for individuals / teams are
respectively Ans.Rs. 5000, Rs. 3000/-
15.CANARITES application has been enabled with the feature of reporting of incidentsat branch/offices for
effective measurement of Ans. Capital computation for opportunity and business risk the regulatory
capitalrequirement will estimate expected loss to move towards standardizedmeasurement approach
16.The ethical climate of the organization not only helps in boosting employee moralebut also fosters an involved
and retained workforce to aid in improved businessoutcomes. As a Canara bank employee you are not supposed to
do the following asa matter of ethics.Ans. Use the Bank’s assets, properties and resources inefficiently and for
unintendedpurposes
17.“Every Officer employee shall every year submit a return of his movable,immovable and valuable property
including liquid assets like shares, debentures “Ans. in terms of regulation 20(2) of Canara Bank Officer Employees
ConductRegulation (1976) as on 31St March of that year before the 30th June
18.As per the social media policy of the bank the TAT ( turn around time) for firstlevel response and via email
queries is respectively Ans.15 mins, 5 hrs
19.Our friend Mr. Amit Arora is currently working in the Treasury department inMumbai. He has completed 34 years
of service in the bank. He wants to become aCertified Treasury Professional. On successful completion of the
course with marksequal to 65%, Amit is eligible for how much incentive amount?Ans. Rs. 15000/- plus actual fees
reimbursement
20.Withdrawal under NRW (NON REPAYABLE WITHDRAWAL) under CANARA BANK SPFscheme is restricted to Ans.
Maximum of 4 times during the entire service of the member
7. PRIORITY SECTOR LENDING

1.As per RBI’s Registration of Factors (Reserve Bank) Regulations, 2022, every company seeking registrationas NBFC-
Factor shall have a minimum Net Owned Fund (NOF) of ___,.Ans. Rs.5 cr
2.As per RBI’s Registration of Factors (Reserve Bank) Regulations, 2022, (January 2022), an NBFC-Factor shall
ensure that its financial assets in the factoring business constitute at least fifty per cent of its total assets and its
income derived from factoring business is not less than ____ of its gross income. Ans. 50%
3. As per RBI’s Registration of Factors (Reserve Bank) Regulations, 2022(January 2022), any existing NBFC-ICC,
intending to under take factoring business, shall make an application to RBI for grant of CoR if, its total assets are of
___ crore and above, as per the last audited balance sheet; Ans. Rs.1000 cr
4. As per RBI’s Registration of Factors (Reserve Bank) Regulations, 2022 (January 2022), NBFC Factor or eligible
NBFC-ICC which has been granted CoR by RBI under these regulations, shall commence factoring business within ____
from the date of grant of CoR. Ans. 6 months
5.. Under micro-finance scheme of RBI (14.3.22), to meet qualifying assets criteria condition, a Non banking
Financial Company –Micro finance Institution (NBFC-MFI) is required to have minimum ____ % of its total assets .Ans.
75%
6. Under micro-finance scheme of RBI (14.3.22), an NBFC that does not qualify as an NBFC-MFI,cannot extend
microfinance loans exceeding ___per cent of its total assets.Ans.25%
6.Bank credit to NBFCs (including HFCs) for on lending will be allowed up to an overall limit of___ % of an individual
bank’s total priority sector lending in case of commercial banks. Ans. 5%
7.In case of SFBs, credit to NBFC-MFIs and other MFIs (Societies, Trusts, etc.) which are members of RBI recognized
‘Self-Regulatory Organization’ of the sector, will be allowed up to an overall limit of __ percent of an individual
bank’s total priority sector lending. Ans.10%
8. SFBs are allowed to lend to registered NBFC MFIs and other MFIs which have a ‘gross loan portfolio’ (GLP) of up
to Rs.__crore as on March 31 of the previous financial year, for the purpose of on-lending to priority sector.
Ans. Rs.500 cr
9.All unrated claims on Corporates and NBFCs except CICs having aggregate exposure of More than Rs.200 crore
from Banking System will attract Risk Weight of ______ % Ans: 150%.
10.Co-LendingbyBanksandNBFCs(includingHFCs)toPrioritySector: What is the maximum share of Bank in individual
loans on back to back basis, under Co-Lending arrangement with NBFC: Ans: Max.80% share to Bank and minimum 20
per cent retention by NBFC.
11.Banks’ exposures to a single NBFC (excluding gold loan companies) will be restricted to ____ % of their eligible
capital base. Ans: 20%
12.Bank credit to NBFCs (including HFCs) for on-lending (Ag TL upto Rs.20 lakhs per borrower, MSME loans upto
Rs.20 lakhs per borrower, HLs upto Rs.20 lakh per borrower) will be eligible for classification as Priority Sector under
respectivecategories, will be allowed up to an overall limit of ______ per cent of individual bank’s total Priority
Sector lending. Ans: Five Percent
13.Infrastructure Debt Fund (IDF – NBFC) is a company registered as NBFC to facilitate the flow of long term debt
into infrastructure projects. IDF-NBFC raise resources through issue of Rupee or Dollar denominated bonds of
minimum year maturity. Only Infrastructure Finance Companies (IFC) can sponsor IDFNBFCs. Ans: 5 year
14.Claims on NBFC-ND-SIs (Non Deposit taking Systemically Important NBFCs) attract a uniform risk weight
irrespective of the rating status of the exposure i.e. rated or unrated NBFC-ND-SI carries % risk weight. Ans: 100%
15.The margin cap in respect of NBFC-MFIs under Priority Sector should not exceed 10 percent for MFIs having loan
portfolio exceeding Rs. and 12 percent for others. Ans: Rs.100 crore
16. Loans up to ₹5 crore to co-operative societies of farmers for purchase of the produce of members is classified
under which category of Priority Sector Lending? Ans. Ancillary Services under Agriculture
17.A microfinance loan is defined as a collateral-free loan given to a household having annual household income up
to ___.Ans. Rs.300000
18.Under micro-finance scheme of RBI (14.3.22) each RE will fix limit on the outflows on account of repayment of
monthly loan obligations of a household as a percentage of the monthly household income which shall be maximum
___of the monthly household income. Ans. 50%
19. Interest subvention for short term loans for FY 2021-22 is available for loans sanctioned by 1) public sector
banks, 2) private sector, banks at their rural and semi-urban branches, 3) small finance bank & 4) computerized
PACSs Ans. – all
20. Interest subvention for short term loans for FY 2021-22 is available for loans sanctioned with amount up to Rs.-
Ans.3 lac
21.Rate of Interest subvention for short term loans for FY 2021-22 is ? Ans. 2%
22. Rate of interest charged to borrowers for short term loan for interest subvention for FY 2021-22 can be max?
Ans.7%
23. Under scheme for Interest subvention for short term loans for FY2021-22, the farmers can avail additional
subsidy of __ % where they make repayment of their loans promptly. Ans. 3%
24. Under scheme for Interest subvention for short term loans for FY2021-22, the farmers engaged in animal
husbandry, dairy, fisheries, bee-keeping etc. can avail additional subsidy of __ % where they make repayment of
their loans promptly. Ans. 2%
25.. Under scheme for Interest subvention for short term loans for FY2021-22, the farmers affected by natural
calamities are eligible for subvention of? Ans. 2%
26. The Government of India has approved the continuation of the Interest Subvention Scheme (ISS) with
modification for the financial years 2022-23 and 2023-24 with coverage Upto an overall limit of Rs.3 lakh to farmers
through KCC & Maximum sub-limit of Rs.2 lakh per farmer in respect of those farmers involved only in activities
related to animal husbandry, dairy, fisheries, bee keeping etc. What is the rate of interest subvention? Ans: Interest
Subvention @ 1.5% from date of disbursement till repayment with max.1 year and 3% subvention for prompt
repayment with in a maximum period of 1 year.
27.The Government of India has approved the continuation of the Interest Subvention Scheme (ISS) with
modification for the financial years 2022-23 and 2023-24 with coverage Upto an overall limit of Rs.3 lakh to farmers
through KCC & Maximum sub-limit of Rs.2 lakh per farmer in respect of those farmers involved only in activities
related to animal husbandry, dairy, fisheries, bee keeping etc. What is the rate of interest subvention? Ans:
Interest Subvention @ 1.5% from date of disbursement till repayment with max.1 year and 3% subvention for prompt
repayment with in a maximum period of 1 year.
28.Rs.10, 000/- per weaver. Interest Subvention – The difference between theactual interest charged by the Bank
and 6% p.a. The maximum interest subvention shall be capped at 7% p.a. and will be provided for a maximum
period of 3 years from the date of first disbursement
29."PM Formalisation of Micro food processing Enterprises (PMFME) Scheme" for providing financial, technical and
business support for upgradation of micro food processing enterprises in the country. Credit Linked Subsidy @35%
for establishment of micro food processing unit with a maximum limit of Rs.10 lakh and common infrastructure with
maximum limit of Rs.3 Cr would be provided for upgradation or setting up of new unit. Apart from 35% subsidy,
Interest subvention @ % is available under the scheme. Ans: 3%
30.Loans not exceeding Rs. _____ provided directly by banks to SHG/JLG for activities other than agriculture or
MSME, viz., loans for meetingsocial needs, construction or repair of house, construction of toilets or any viable
common activity started by the SHGs classified under Priority Sector. Ans: Rs.2.00 lakh
31.The applicable target for lending to the non-corporate farmers under Priority Sector-Agriculture for FY 2022-23
will be ______of ANBC or CEOBE whichever is higher. Ans: 13.78%
32.Loans to Farmer Producer Organisations/Farmer Producer Companies of individual farmers and co-operatives of
farmers directly engaged in Agriculture and Allied Activities where the land-holding share of Small and Marginal
Farmers is not less than _____ per cent eligible under Priority Sector-Agriculture. Ans: 75 per cent.
33.Bank loans to any Governmental agency for construction of dwelling units or for slum clearance and
rehabilitation of slum dwellers subject to dwelling units with carpet area of not more than _____ sq.m. classified
under Priority Sector. Ans: 60 sq.m.
34.Under the DRI Scheme, banks provide finance up to ₹15,000/- at a concessional rate of interest of 4 per cent per
annum to the weaker sections of the community for engaging in productive and gainful activities. In order to ensure
that persons belonging to SCs/STs also derive adequate benefit under the DRI Scheme, banks have been advised to
grant eligible borrowers belonging to SCs/STs such advances to the extent of not less than of total DRI advances.
Ans: 2/5th (40 percent)
35.What is the limit for Priority Sector Lending under Healthcare and Social Infrastructure? Ans. Bank loans up to a
limit of ₹10 crore per borrower for building health care facilities including under ‘Ayushman Bharat’ in Tier II to
Tier VI centres and Bank loans up to a limit of ₹5 crore per borrower for setting up schools, drinking water facilities
and sanitation facilities including construction/ refurbishment of household toilets and water improvements at
household level, etc.
36.What is the target for weaker section for scheduled commercial Banks for FY 2022- 23? Ans. 11.50 percent of
ANBC or CEOBE, whichever is higher. It is 12.00 percent for FY 2023-24
37.Loans to Custom Service units managed by individuals, institutions or organizations who maintain a fleet of
tractors, bulldozers, well- boring equipment, threshers, combine etc., and undertake farm work for farmers on
contract basis, are considered under Priority Sector- Agriculture. What is the maximum amount eligible for
inclusion under Priority Sector-Agriculture: Ans: No Ceiling
38.Bank loans up to a limit of Rs. ________to borrowers for purposes like solar based power generators, biomass-
based power generators, wind mills, micro- hydel plants and for nonconventional energy based public utilities,
viz.,street lighting systems and remote village electrification etc., are eligible for Priority Sector Classification.
Ans: Rs.30 Crore
39.Infrastructure Finance Companies are Non-Banking Finance Companies which (a) deploys at least 75 per cent of
its total assets in infrastructure loans; (b) has a minimum Net Owned Funds of Rs. _____ (c) has a minimum credit
rating of ‘A ‘or equivalent; andd) a CRAR of 15%. Ans: Rs.300 crore
40.Loans up to ₹________ to Start-ups, as per definition of Ministry of Commerce and Industry, Govt. of India that
conform to the definition of MSME are classified under Priority Sector. Ans: Rs.50 crore
41.A higher weight (125%) would be assigned to the incremental priority sector credit inthe identified districts
where the credit flow is comparatively lower (per capita PSL lessthan ₹6000), and a lower weight (90%) would be
assigned for incremental prioritysector credit in the identified districts where the credit flow is comparatively
higher ieper capita PSL greater than Rs._______ Ans: ₹25,000
42.Loans against pledge/hypothecation of agricultural produce (including warehousereceipts) for a
periodnotexceeding 12 months subject to a limit up to ₹75 lakh against NWRs/eNWRs and up to ₹_______ against
warehouse receipts other thanNWRs/eNWRs are classified under Priority Sector-Agriculture. Ans: Rs. 50 lakh
43.Loans for Food and Agro-processing up to an aggregate sanctioned limit of₹________ per borrower from the
banking system are classified under Priority Sector-Agriculture. Ans: Rs. 100 crore
44.Dr. Ambedkar Central Sector Scheme of Interest Subsidy on Educational Loans for Overseas Studies for Other
Backward Classes (OBCs) & Economically Backward Classes(EBCs). Income criteria for OBCs is Rs. _ and for
EBCs is Rs._ _ Ans: Rs 8 lakhs, Rs.5 lakhs.
45.Under Realigned scheme of National Livestock Mission (NLM), Central Govt is providing % Capital Subsidy through
SIDBI (subsidy varying from Rs.25 lakhs to Rs.50 lakhs) targeting employment generation and increased production
of meat, goat milk, egg and wool. Ans: 50%
46.NSKFDC would provide interest subsidy for loans sanctioned under SRMS. What is the rate of interest charged
after subsidy: Ans: Projects upto Rs 1 lakh: 5% (4%for women) above Rs.1 lakh: 6%. (Difference between above rates
and actual ROI will be reimbursed by NSKFDC).
47.The Loan System for Delivery of Bank Credit (LSDBC) shall be applicable in the case of borrowers enjoying FBWC
limit of Rs 150 crores and above from the banking system where in minimum 60% of the limits should be in the form
of WCDL. What is the minimum period of WCDL under this system: Ans: minimum 7 days
48.As per Priority Sector guidelines, loans for repairs to damaged dwelling units of families up to Rs. lakh in
metropolitan centres and up to Rs. lakh in other centres can be classified under priority sector lending: Ans: Rs10
Lakh ; Rs6 Lakh.
49. In case of SHG bank linkage programme, credit rating has to be done for assessment of SHG's while extending
credit. The minimum score to qualify for credit linkage is%. ( Both for Fresh & enhancement ) Ans: 70%
50.Micro Credit Groups contain 3 to 10 members. The maximum amount that can be sanctioned to an individual in a
group shall not exceed Rs.50,000/- and to the group is restricted to Rs.2,50,000 in urban areas and Rs. _in Rural
areas and Semi urban areas. Ans: Rs5,00,000/-
51.What is the maximum housing loan amount at metro centres to be classified as Priority Sector Lending? Ans.
Rs.35.00 Lakhs where the overall cost of dwelling unit does not exceed Rs.45.00 Lakhs
8.GOVT. BUISNESS AND SPONSORED SCHEMES

1. Under NRLM scheme, in case of SHG, the first dose of loan may be repaid in ______ months, in
monthly/quarterly instalments. Ans.24-36
2. UndAer Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana (National Rural Livelihoods Mission: DAY-NRLM) adequate coverage of
vulnerable sections of the society is __ of the beneficiaries are SC/STs, __ are minorities and ___ are persons
with disability, while keeping in view the ultimate target of 100% coverage of all households under the
automatically included criteria and households with at least one deprivation criterion as per Socio-Economic and
Caste Census (SECC). Ans. 50%, 15%, 3%
3. Under “Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav”; _________ organized “UdyamitaPakhwara” across the country from 1st to
15th July, 2022. During the fortnight, over 1,400 awareness camps on enterprise promotion and various schemes
related to rural entrepreneurship organized, 3,512 business plans prepared. Ans. Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana-
National Rural Livelihood Mission (DAY-NRLM)
4. As per DAY-National Rural Livelihood Mission (DAY-NRLM)-2022,normally the self-help group (SHG) members can
be between? Ans.10-20
5. As per DAY-National Rural Livelihood Mission (DAY-NRLM)-2022,the self-help group (SHG) members in case of
groups in difficult areas or groups of disabled persons and groups in remote areas, can be between? Ans. 5-20
6. As per DAY-National Rural Livelihood Mission (DAY-NRLM)-2022, revolving fund facility is available subject to
some conditions. What is the amount? Ans. Rs.10000-15000
7. As per DAY-National Rural Livelihood Mission (DAY-NRLM)-2022,for credit support, group should meet ‘Pancha
sutras’ criteria. This includes 1) regular meetings, 2) regular savings, 3) regular internal lending, 4) regular
recoveries and 5) maintenance of proper books of accounts Ans. 1 to 5 all
8. As per DAY-National Rural Livelihood Mission (DAY-NRLM)-2022,to be eligible to avail a normal loan facility, the
group should be inexistence for: Ans. at least for 6 months as per their books of account
9. As per DAY-National Rural Livelihood Mission (DAY-NRLM)-2022,cash credit limit (CCL) of Rs.6 lac for 3 years
should be sanctioned, with a 4-year drawing power limit. Which among the following drawing limit is not stated
correctly? Ans.1st year min Rs.1 lac
10.As per DAY-National Rural Livelihood Mission (DAY-NRLM)-2022Which among the following amount is not stated
correctly? Ans. 4th dose min Rs.8 lac
11.As per DAY-National Rural Livelihood Mission(DAY-NRLM)-2022, term loan repayment period is not stated
correctly, in which of the following Ans. 4th dose 60-72 months
12.As per DAY-National Rural Livelihood Mission(DAY-NRLM)-2022, banks may consider extending loans up to ____
lac to individual members of select matured well performing SHGs (which are more than 2 years old and have
accessed atleast one dose of bank loan with timely repayment):Ans. Rs.10 lac
13.As per DAY-National Rural Livelihood Mission(DAY-NRLM)-2022, one woman in every SHG under DAY-NRLM may be
provided a loan up to___ lac, under the MUDRA Scheme, if she is otherwise eligible.Ans.Rs.100000
14.As per DAY-National Rural Livelihood Mission (DAY-NRLM)-2022, banks are to provide minimum OD facility of ___
to every woman SHG member having PMJDY account as per IBA guidelines. Ans. Rs.5000
15.As per DAY-National Rural Livelihood Mission (DAY-NRLM)-2022, which of the following security and margin
condition is not stated correctly for loan to SHG? Ans. For loan above Rs.10 lakh and up to Rs.20 lakh, a margin
not exceeding 10% of the loan amount maybe obtained.
16. As per DAY-National Rural Livelihood Mission (DAY-NRLM)-2022, the lending target in respect of which is not
correctly stated? Ans. women beneficiaries 30%
17. As per DAY-National Rural Livelihood Mission(DAY-NRLM)-2022, the funding pattern of the scheme will be shared
between Central and State govt. in general, as under: Ans.60:40
18. As per DAY-National Rural Livelihood Mission (DAY-NRLM)-2022, interest subvention is available to banks as per
following rules? Ans. subvention is available for loans whether standard or NPA
19. Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana – National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM) - Women SHGs under DAY NRLM in
rural areas will be eligible for Interest Subvention on loan up to Rs 5.00 lakh during the FY 2022-23. What is the
rate of interest subvention for FY 2022-23. Ans: For loan up to Rs. 3.00 lakhs : 4.5% and above Rs.3 lakhs:5%
p.a.
20. In order to facilitate women SHG members to graduate to entrepreneurs, banks may consider extending loans up
to Rs.10 lakhs to individual members of select matured well performing SHGs. One woman in every SHG under
DAY-NRLM may be provided a loan up to Rs. lakh under the MUDRA Scheme, if she is otherwise eligible. Ans:
Rs1.00 lakh.
21. DAY-NRLM is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme and the financing of the programme would be shared between the
Centre and the States in the ratio of _ _(in case of North Eastern States including Sikkim-90:10; completely
from the Centre in case of UTs). Ans: 60:40
22. For DAY-NRLM loan to SHGs above ₹10 lakh and up to ₹20 lakh, a margin not exceeding % of the loan
amount exceeding ₹10 lakh may be obtained. Ans: 10%
23. Under NRLM, the group should have at least what percentage of members from poor families? Ans. 70%
(maximum 30% of members may be from above poverty line, but APL members not eligible for subsidy
24. Effective from 01.01.2023, the GST e-invoicing will be mandatory for firms with a turnover of over Rs.:_______
Ans: Rs.5.00 crores (from current Rs.20 crore).
25. According to an official notification issued by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, Govt. has amended rules
governing Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR). Under the Companies Act, 2013, certain classes of profitable
companies are required to spend at least _____ of their average net profit of the preceding three financial
years on CSR activities in a particular financial year. Ans. 2%
26. Prior to the amendment, rules governing Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) the expenditure capped for
impact assessment that could be counted towards CSR obligations of a company was 5 per cent of its CSR
expenditure or Rs. 50 lakh, whichever is lower. This limit has now been increased to the higher of 2 per cent or
Rs. ____ lakh, which will enable companies to undertake comprehensive impact assessment for large scale CSR
projects. Ans. 50
27. The Department of Financial Services, MoF, have announced revision of annual premium rates for PMJJBY and
PMSBY schemes. As per the guidelines, the annual premium for Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana
(PMJJBY) increased from Rs.330/- to Rs. _____, and Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY) increased
from Rs.12/- to Rs. _____. Ans.436;20
28. As per the revised guidelines, the Govt. has announced changes in the commission / operational cost payable to
Banks in PMJJBY and PMSBY. The payments of administrative and operational cost payable to the Banks have
been revised to Rs. ___ per annum per enrolment under PMJJBY and Rs.____ per annum per enrolment under
PMSBY. Both the above costs payable to Banks are inclusive of the annual commission payable to BCs/Agents
etc. Ans.11 ; 1.50
29. Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY) offers Rs 2,00,000/- death cover at a nominal annual
premium of Rs.436/- per annum. Individual account holders of the participating banks aged between 18 years
(completed) and (age nearer birthday) are eligible for coverage. Ans: 50 years
30. Women SHGs under DAY-NRLM consists of 10 to 20 members (5 members in case of remote tribal, difficult areas,
disabled persons), which are in existence for 3/6 months are eligible for Revolving fund of Rs. _ Ans:
Rs.10,000/- to Rs.15,000/- per SHG What is the maximum limit of loan under PMEGP in first and 2nd dose?
Ans. First dose at Project cost of Rs.50.00 Lacs for manufacturing and Rs.20.00 Lacs for service less 10% margin
for General category or 5% margin for special category. Second dose maximum project cost @ and Rs.100.00
Lacs for manufacturing and Rs.25.00 Lacs for service sector less 10% borrowers margin.
31. Under 2nd dose financial assistance under PMEGP for existing units, the rate of subsidy is: Ans. 15% (20% in NER
and Hill States)
32. Under PMEGP - second dose, the maximum cost of the project for up gradation of existing PMEGP/MUDRA/REGP
units for margin money subsidy under manufacturing sector should be ________ and under Business/Service
sector is ___________. Ana.1 crore ; 25.00 Lakh
33. UnderPrime Minister Employment Generation Prog. (PMEGP), maximum project cost for margin money subsidy in
respect of manufacturing sector is Rs._____ lakh and business & service sector is Rs. ___ lakh. If the total
project cost exceeds the prescribed ceiling, the balance amount may be provided by Banks without any
government subsidy. Ans. 50, 20
34. As per revised Scheme for Rehabilitation of Manual Scavengers (SRMS), what is the amount of one time cash
assistance? Ans.40000 c
35. As per revised Scheme for Rehabilitation of Manual Scavengers (SRMS), during skill training, eligible persons
are paid a monthly stipend of Rs.___ Ans.Rs.3000
36. Loans are available under Scheme for Rehabilitation of Manual Scavengers (SRMS), to individuals, for projects
with maximum cost of? Ans.Rs.15 lac
37. Loans are available under Scheme for Rehabilitation of Manual Scavengers (SRMS), to self-help groups, for
projects with maximum cost of? Ans.Rs.50 lac
38. Self Employment Scheme for Rehabilitation of Manual Scavengers (SRMS) -Credit linked capital subsidy will be
provided upfront to the beneficiaries. For individual project cost upto Rs. 5 lac- subsidy will be 50% of
project cost and for project cost from Rs. 5 to 15 lacs-subsidy of Rs.2.5 lakh+25% of remaining project
cost. For group project Up to Rs.10.00 lakh per beneficiary with maximum project cost up to Rs.50.00 lakh-
subsidy of Rs. Max Rs. lac per beneficiary is eligible. Ans: Rs 3.75 lakh per beneficiary
39. The time taken for executing the withdrawal requests of National Pension System (NPS) subscribers has been
slashed to ____ days. Ans. T+2
40. Earlier the entry age was 65 years under National Pension System (NPS). Entry Age in increased to 70 years
and any Indian citizen and Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) in the age group of 65-70 years can also join NPS
and continue up to the age of______years. Ans: 75 years.
41. If corpus balances under National Pension System is less than Rs.______ entire amount lumpsum withdrawal
allowed, without Annuity. Ans: Rs.5 lakhs.
42. Under Sovereign Gold Bond (SGB) Scheme, the denomination is? Ans.1 gram of gold
43. Under Sovereign Gold Bond (SGB) Scheme, nominal value shall be in Indian rupees fixed on the basis of simple
average of gold of 999 purity, published by Indian Bullion and Jewellers Association, for the last ___ of the
week, preceding the subscription period. Ans. 3 working days
44. Under Sovereign Gold Bond (SGB) Scheme, interest is payable half-yearly at __ % p.a.Ans.2.5%
45. Under Sovereign Gold Bond (SGB) Scheme, maturity period is __ years and pre-mature redemption is allowed
after __ years? Ans. 8 years, 5 years
46. Under Sovereign Gold Bond (SGB) Scheme, if loan is allowed by a bank, the loan to value ratio will be: Ans.
75%
47. Under Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme, minimum investment 1 gram and maximum 4kg for individuals & HUF
and 20 kg for Trusts & similar institutions. Tenor is 8 years and ROI is 2.5% p.a. Exit Option is available from
______ year onwards. Ans: 5th
48. Rate of discount allowed for Sovereign Gold Bonds subscribed by customers through electronic mode is: Ans.
Rs.50/- per gram
49. Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) allows Banks to park their excess funds with RBI at a higher rate but with out
taking any collateral. What is the SDF rate which is revised from 07-12-20222: Ans: 6.00 per cent.
50. Loans are available under Scheme for Rehabilitation of Manual Scavengers, where repayment period is 5 years
if project cost is up to Rs.___lac? Ans.Rs.5 lac
51. Loans are available under Scheme for Rehabilitation of Manual Scavengers, with repayment period of ___
years if project cost is above Rs.5 lac Ans. 7 years
52. Under Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS) Credit support is enhanced to Airline Companies
upto 100% of their credit outstanding (FB+NFB) as on Reference Date (29-02-2020/31.03.2021) subject to a
cap of Rs.______ crore per borrower. The same is fully guaranteed by National Credit Guarantee Trustee
Company. Ans: 1500 crores.
53. Under Gold Monetisation Scheme, what is the minimum and maximum quantum of deposit of Gold :Ans:
Minimum 30 grams of gold , maximum no ceiling.
54. For Long Term deposits of Gold Monetisation Scheme (12 to 15 years) rate of interest @2.5% p.a. payable
_______ (periodicity) Ans: Annually as on 31st March.
55. Central Government has allowed Super Senior Citizens in the age group of 80 years and above to submit
Annual Life Certificate from _________ (date) onwards. Ans: 01st October onwards instead of 01st November
onwards.
56. What is the frequency of interest compounding in case of Small Savings Schemes of GOI: Ans: Senior
Citizens Savings Scheme: Quarterly, PPF: Annually, KVP: Annually, Sukanya Samrudhi Account: Annually
57. .TDS to be deducted if interest credited or is likely to be paid or credited on Bank term deposits in a financial
year, exceed Ans. Rs.40000/-, and Rs.50000/- for Senior Citizens
58. Under Gold monetization scheme, redemption of Medium and long term gold deposit (MLTGD) in gold shall be
made as per the following : Ans.- The quantity of gold shall be payable in multiples of 10 grams and the
remaining fraction of gold shall be payable in INR (principal along with interest) at the prevailing gold rate on
the maturity date. Administrative charge at a rate of 0.5% is applicable & In case the gold is not redeemed
by the customer on the maturity date, such stock will continue to be kept in the custody of the bank for a
maximum period of 60 days d) All of the above
59. Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY) is an Accident Insurance Scheme offering accidental death and
disability cover for death(Rs 2 lakh) or disability (Rs 1 lakh) on account of an accident, at annual premium of
Rs.20/-. Which is the insurance company covering this in our Bank: Ans: The New India Assurance Company
Ltd
60. If in a PPF account, a customer deposits more than Rs.1,50,000 what is the rate of interest paid for the excess
amount: Ans: No interest payable
61. PPF Account can be opened with minimum and maximum deposit per financial year @ _ _ and _ respectively.
Ans. Rs.500/- and Rs.150000/-
62. What is the age criteria to open Sukanya Samriddhi Deposit account? Ans. Account may be opened by one of the
guardians in the name of girl child who has not attained the age of 10 years as on the date of opening of the
account.
63. Deposit in Sukanya Samridhi Account can be made up to a maximum period of_ Ans. Till completion of 15
years from the date of opening of the account.
64. Partial withdrawl under Sukanya Samriddi scheme for education purpose of the account holder is allowed up
to what portion and in what condition? Ans.Not exceeding 50% of the balance at the end of the financial
year preceding the year in which application for partial withdrawl made after the account holder attains age of
18 years or has passed 10th Standard whichever is earlier
65. What is the period of investment and maturity period for accounts under Sukanya Samridhi Deposit Scheme? Ans.
Deposits may be made in the account till the completion of a period of fifteen years from the date of opening of
the account. The account shall mature on completion of a period of twenty-one years from the date of its
opening.
66. . Under the PM SVANidhi Scheme, there is provision for 3rd loan of Rs.____ after successful repayment of 2nd
loan? Ans. Rs.50000
67. Under the PM SVANidhi Scheme, there is provision for 2nd loan of Rs.____ after successful repayment of 1st
loan? Ans. Rs.20000
68. Under the PM SVANidhi Scheme, there is provision for 1st loan of Rs.____? Ans. Rs.10000
69. Under the PM SVANidhi Scheme, 2nd loan is repayable within ___ and 3rd loan is repayable within ___? Ans. 18
months, 36 months January 5, 2023
70. As per Revised Guidelines of PM SVANidhi 2.0 to Street Vendors, Provision of 3rd loan up to Rs.50,000/- with a
maximum term of 36 months has been allowed on repayment of 2nd Loan of Rs.20,000/- (The first loan is up to
Rs.10000/-). The minimum repayment period for 2nd loan is kept at _____ months. If borrower closes second
loan before completion of prescribed minimum period, he has to wait till completion of this minimum prescribed
period, for availing 3rd loan. Ans: 6 months.
71. The Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA) has revised the definition of “Small Companies” under the Companies
Act, 2013. As per the revised definition, the threshold criteria for paid up capital and turnover for Small
Companies has been increased to not exceeding ____ and ____ respectively: Ans. Rs.4 crore and Rs.40 crore
72. Securities Exchange Board of India has shared the framework for SSE, which would allow the listing of non-profit
organizations (NPOs). The NPOs which are desirous of being listed must be registered in India and the age of the
organization should be a minimum of _____three years. The NPOs' minimum spending in the last fiscal should be
Rs. ____and a minimum funding of ____ in the past financial year Ans.3 years, Rs.50.00 Lakhs and Rs.10.00
Lakhs;
73. Currently, all Central Government securities (G-Secs) with 5-year, 10-year and 30-year tenors are categorized as
“specified securities” under the FAR. In order to encourage foreign portfolio investment, and in order to
increase the choice of G-Secs available for investment by non-resident investors under the Fully Accessible
Route (FAR) as also to augment liquidity across the sovereign yield curve, RBI has decided that all new issuances
of G-Secs of _____ and _____ tenors, including the current issuances of 7.10% GS 2029 and 7.54% GS 2036, will
be designated as specified securities under the FAR. Ans.7-year ; 14-year
74. Government has authorized which Bank for sale and encashment of electoral bonds? Ans. SBI
75. As per Agency Bank Agreement, RBI pays agency commission to Banks for transacting Govt business. What is the
agency commission payable by RBI to Banks in respect of Physical Receipts and E-mode receipts: Ans: Rs.40/-
per transaction for physical and Rs.9/- per transaction for e-mode.
76. As per Agency Bank Agreement, RBI pays agency commission to Banks for transacting Govt business. What is the
agency commission payable by RBI to Banks in respect of Physical Receipts and E-mode receipts: Ans: Rs.40/-
per transaction for physical and Rs.9/- per transaction for e-mode.
77. Capital Gain Bonds under Sec. 54EC of Income Tax Act issued by REC, NHAI, IRFC, PFC in the denomination of
Rs.10000/-.The rate of interest on Bond amount is 5.00% (annually) and lock in period is _ _ years Ans: 5 years.
78. What is the penal interest payable by Banks for delayed remittance of govt business receipts? Ans. Bank Rate +
2%
79. What is the maximum period of repayment under PMAY? Ans. 20 years
80. What is the amount of penalty for late filing of TDS returns? Ans. Rs. 200/- for every day during which the failure
continues.
81. TDS on rent on premises to be paid if the amount of rent exceeds Rs. in a Financial Year. Ans. Rs.2,40,000/-
82. Retired Defence service personal (Excluding civilians) can deposit under Senior Citizen Savings Scheme on
attaining age of _ Ans.50 Years
83. The maximum subsidy for up gradation of existing units will be _______ (Rs.20.00 Lakhs in case of NE States &
Hilly areas) for manufacturing sector and Rs.3.75 Lakhs (Rs.5.00 Lakhs in case of NE States & Hilly areas) for
Business/service sector. Ans. Rs.15.00 Lakh
9.AGRICULTURE
1. Under National Agriculture Infra Financing Facility of Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF), loans are given
for Agriculture Infrastructure Projects that support post harvest activities. For Cold Storage and Controlled
Atmosphere Storages, Credit Linked subsidy @ ______ % per project in General Areas and @_____ % per project in
NE Region, Hill States is provided by AIF. Ans: 35%, 50%
2. Agricultural Credit Centres (ACC) will process fresh Ag Term Loans/Composit Loans (other than VSL,
GL,SHGs, JLFs, Govt.Sponsored, KCC, CKOD) of above Rs. _ lakh for all Core Agricultural Lending Branches
other than AF Hitech branches. Ans: Rs.5 lakh.
3.Under the 'One Nation, One Fertilizer' scheme, companies selling urea, DAP (di-ammonium phosphate), NPK.
(Nitrogen phosphorus potassium) or MOP (muriate of potash) will have the prefix ______: Ans. Bharat
4.What is the Stand by limit for Gold Card Exporters that is permissible in addition to assessed limits. Ans: 20% of
assessed limits.
5.For Agricultural Term Loans, Project Appraisal will be done by Agricultural Innovation Centre (AIC, HO).
Fornewcustomers (Agriculture TLswithProjectCostaboveRs.200lakh and
forexistingcustomerswithProjectCostaboveRs.______conducting project appraisal is applicable as per Bank’s policy
guidelines. Ans: Rs.500 lakh.
6.AEOs and AEO Promotee Managers can do valuation in respect of Agricultural loans upto a limit of Rs _____
Ans: Rs.30.00lakh
7. IVR blast calling is done in respect of all borrowers other than agriculture loans having exposure upto Rs. 1cr
and overdues above Rs. Ans: Rs1000.
8. Credit Guarantee Scheme for Farmer Producer Organizations (CGSFPO) - maximum credit guarantee cover will
be 75% of the sanctioned credit facility with a maximum ceiling of Rs. 1.50 crore (i.e., Loans sanctioned upto Rs
2.0 Crore), covered by NABsanrakshan (subsidiary of NABARD). What is the rate of Annual Guarantee Fee (AGF) :
Ans: For loans up to Rs.1.0 crore @ 0.75%; above Rs. 1 crore, AGF @ 0.85% subject to a maximum AGF ceiling of
Rs. 1,70,000. Coverage for 5 years. Lock in period:12 months.
9. Availability of Grant Assistance from NABARD for promoting New Joint Liability Groups (JLGs) either directly
by Banks or by Corporate Business Correspondents (BCs)/ NGOs : Ans: Rs.4000/-
10.Banks should not grant any advance against bullion/ Primary gold, gold coins, units of Gold Exchange Traded
Funds (ETF) and units of gold Mutual Funds. However, specially minted gold coins sold by banks are not be treated
as "bullion" or "primary gold". Hence Bank may grant loans against such coins, weight upto _ grams subject to
ensuring the end use of funds. Ans: weighing upto 50 grams
11.Bank finance to agriculture Infrastructure projects up to what amount can be classified under Priority Sector:
Ans: Rs. 100 crore.
12.What should be the repayment period of Restructured Agricultural Term Loan in case of Natural Calamity?
Ans. Up to two years including the moratorium period of one year if the loss is between 33% and 50% and up to a
maximum of five years including the one-year moratorium period if the crop loss is 50% or more.
13.Banks should not insist collateral in case of agriculture loans up to an amount of_ .Ans. Rs.1.60 Lakhs
14.What is the land holding norms for Small and marginal farmers? Ans. marginal with holdings of less than one
hectare and small with land holding of 1-2 hectares
15. What is the maximum rate of premium payable by farmer as percentage of Sum Assured for Kharif and Rabi
crops under PMFBY? Ans. 2.0% for Kharif and 1.50% for Rabi crops 5% for commercial crops
16.Rearing/Farming of Fresh Water Fishes is called: Ans. Aquaculture
17.What is the maximum loan amount and period for which loan given to farmers against Warehouse receipts can
be classified under Agriculture and Priority Sector? Ans. Rs.50.00 Lakhs and 12 Months. Rs.75.00 Lakhs for loans
against e-NWR
18.An overdue crop loan account becomes NPA when the overdue continues for; Ans. 2 crop seasons for short
duration crop and one crop season for long duration crop.
19.Minimum Support Price (MSP) of agriculture commodities recommended by;Ans. Commission for Agricultural
Costs and Prices (CACP)
20.Blue Revolution / Blue Economy relates to: Ans. Pisciculture / Fish Production
10. MSME
1. Government has approved the ‘Credit Guarantee Scheme for Startups (CGSS)’ for providing credit guarantees
to loans extended by banks to finance eligible Startups. This scheme would help provide collateral free debt
funding to Startups. The scheme is managed by the Board of National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company
Limited (NCGTC). Startup that have reached stage of stable revenue stream, as assessed from audited monthly
statements over a ___ months period, amenable to debt financing; and are not in default to any
lending/investing institution and not classified as Non-Performing Asset are eligible. Ans.12
2. To be eligible for Credit Guarantee Scheme for Startups (CGSS), a start up should fulfill following conditions
i) Recognized by Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) and ii) Reached stage of
stable revenue stream, as assessed from audited monthly statements over a 12 month period and iii) Not in
default and not classified as Non-Performing Asset as per RBI guidelines and iv) Eligibility is certified by the
member institution for the purpose of guarantee cover Ans. i to iv -all
3. For an NBFC to be eligible for Credit Guarantee Scheme for Startups (CGSS), an RBI registered NBFCs should
have min ___ rating and prescribed level of net worth Ans. BBB
4. For an NBFC to be eligible for Credit Guarantee Scheme for Startups (CGSS), an RBI registered NBFCs should
have prescribed rating and net worth of min Rs. ____ crore Ans. Rs.300 cr
5. Under Credit Guarantee Scheme for Startups (CGSS), guarantee fee is payable with in ____ from the date of
Credit Guarantee Demand Advice Note of guarantee fee. Ans.30 days
6. under Credit Guarantee Scheme for Startups (CGSS), guarantee renewal fee is payable by ___every year?
Ans. 30 April
7. For transaction-based segment, guarantee cover is available under Credit Guarantee Scheme for Startups
(CGSS), A) 80% on amount of default when loan is up to Rs.3 cr, B) 75% for above Rs.3 cr to Rs.5 cr C) 65% for
above Rs. 5 cr. Ans. A-B-C all
8. For umbrella-based segment, guarantee cover is available under Credit Guarantee Scheme for Startups (CGSS),
actual losses or up to a maximum of 5% of portfolio investment on which cover is being taken, maximum of
Rs.___ crore per borrower. Ans. Rs.10 cr
9. Under Credit Guarantee Scheme for Startups (CGSS), max claim payable in a year is ___ % of total sanctions in
a year (where at least 90% amount is disbursed). Ans.20% b
10. Under Credit Guarantee Scheme for Startups (CGSS), 75% amount of claim shall be paid within _ days. Ans.60
days
11. Under CGSS scheme, there are two types of guarantee covers available namely Transaction based Guarantee
Cover and Umbrella based Guarantee Cover. For availing the guarantee cover under Transaction based
Guarantee Cover, the Banks shall pay Annual Guarantee Fee (AGF) of __________ of the disbursement /
outstanding amount (on sanction amount, in case of working capital facility and non-fund based facility) as on
the date of application of guarantee cover, upfront to the Trust within 30 days from the date of Credit
Guarantee Demand Advice Note (CGDAN) of guarantee fee. Ans. 2% p.a. (1.50% p.a in case of units from the
North East region as well as those of women entrepreneurs)
12. W.r.t CGSS scheme, for availing the guarantee cover under Transaction based Guarantee Cover, in case the
outstanding NPAs of that bank as a ratio of outstanding under the scheme as per last Management Certificate
(MC) exceeds 10%, additional risk premium of _____% p.a. shall be charged on future guarantee covers and in
case the outstanding NPAs of that MI as a ratio of outstanding under the scheme as per last MC exceeds 15%,
additional risk premium of ____% p.a. and ____% p.a for over 20% shall be charged on future guarantee covers.
Ans. 0.25 ; 0.5 ; 0.75
13. Under CGSS scheme, the maximum guarantee cover per borrower shall not exceed Rs.____ crore. The credit
facility being covered here should not have been covered under any other guarantee scheme. In respect of
credit facilities where a portion of the same has been secured by way of partial collateral security, the
remaining part comprising of the unsecured facility will be covered under the scheme. Ans.10
14. Credit Guarantee Scheme For Subordinate Debt (CGSSD) is for MSMEs whose accounts have been standard as on
31.03.2018, which are stressed viz., SMA 2 and NPA accounts as on 30.04.2020, which are eligible for
restructuring as per RBI guidelines. Promoter of the MSME unit will be given credit equal to 15% of his/herstake
(Equity + Debt) or Rs.75 Lakhs whichever is lower as personal loan(to be infused as equity/quasi equity/sub-
debt in the MSME Unit.). What is the repayment period. Ans: Max 10 years with moratorium of 7 years. During
moratoriumperiod, only interest is to be serviced.
15. CGTMSE will cover 90% of loan given under Credit Guarantee Scheme ForSubordinate Debt (CGSSD). What is the
guarantee fee payable under this scheme: Ans: 1.50% per annum on outstanding balance.
16. In view of growing credit needs of MSES under trading activity, CGTMSE has decided to align Trading activity
(MSE Retail Trade and Wholesale Trade) with other activities of CGS-I in respect of ceiling of credit guarantee
cover increased to Rs. ____ lakh, extent of Guarantee Coverage at par with other activities and rate of Annual
Guarantee Fee at par with other activities. Ans.200
17. CGTMSE has revised the extent of guarantee coverage under CGS-I. The extent of guarantee coverage has been
increased to _____% for Zero defect zero effect (ZED) certified MSEs, units under aspirational districts, women
and SC/ST entrepreneurs. Ans.85
18. What is the ceiling of CGTMSE guarantee coverage available for MFIs per MSE borrower? Ans. Rs.50.00 Lakhs
19. CGTMSE had introduced a new “Hybrid Security” product under which Member Lending Institutions (MLIs) can
obtain collateral security for a part of the credit facility, whereas the remaining part of the credit facility up to
a maximum of Rs.200 lakh can be covered under Credit Guarantee Scheme of CGTMSE. What is the maximum
stipulated Loan Limit under Hybrid Security Scheme: Ans: No maximum stipulation of Loan amount, but
guarantee coverage is restricted to Rs.200 lakhs.
20. What is the CGTMSE coverage for MSEs in J&K and Ladakh UTs: Ans: Upto Rs.50 Lakhs loan: 80% coverage and
above 50 lakhs to 200 lakhs: 75% coverage. (on par with NE Region & Sikkim)
21.To support AGNIVEERS, credit facilities extended by MLIs after completion of four years of service, CGTMSE has
extended the Extent of Guarantee Coverage and Annual Guarantee Fee at par with Women Entrepreneurs,
Micro Enterprises, for the Guarantees approved on or after 01st December 2022. What is the extent of CGTMSE
coverage and Guarantee Fee: Ans: The extent of guarantee coverage is 85% oftotal exposure uptoRs.200
lakhs. Annual Guarantee Fee is :Upto Rs.10 lakhs: 0.68%, 10 to 50 lakhs:0.99%, Rs.50 lakhs to Rs.200 lakhs :
1.08% (these rates are after allowing 10% discount for Agniveersout of Standard rates of 0.75%, 1.10% and
1.20%))
22.Annual Guarantee fee of CGTMSE will be charged on the outstanding liability as on_______ in case of Term Loans
and __________ in case of Working Capital Limits.Ans: 31st Dec (TLs), On peak working capital limit availed by
borrower duringprevious calendar year in case of Working Capital limits
23.Due Diligence by “Agencies for Due Diligence” is mandatory for first time borrowingabove Rs ______ with
CGTMSE cover : Ans: Rs.10 lakhs
24.Concession of % in applicable rate of interest in CGTMSE covered accounts up to an exposure of Rs. 200
lakh is available, subject to the condition that the ultimate interest rate shall not fall below stipulated
RLLR+0.25% or RLLR + 0.50% as the case may be. Ans: 0.25 %
25.In Hybrid security model under CGTMSE Coverage, CGTMSE will have what type of charge on Primary and
Collateral Securities: Ans: Pari-passu Charge for Primary Security and 2nd charge on collateral security.
26. Condition of legal action for claim under CGTMSE may be waived for claim amount up to Rs. Ans: Rs5.00 Lakh
(enhanced from Rs.1 lakh wef Jan2023, Scale V headed committee report for waiver of legal action, to be
enclosed for claim)
27. What is the Lock-in period for invocation of CGTMSE guarantee by Banks? Ans. 18 months from either the date
of last disbursement of the loan or the guarantee start date whichever is later.
28. In partial modification to the guidelines on Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS), NCGTC has
modified to allow enhanced credit support to the companies up to 100% of their total credit outstanding (both
fund based and non-fund based) as on reference date subject to a cap of Rs._____ crore per borrower out of
which Rs.___ crores shall be available to them subject to they meet an additional condition of infusion of
proportionate equity contribution by promoters. Ans. 1500 ; 500
29.Gold Card Scheme to Exporters - Loan proposals are to be disposed with in maximum Turnaround Time of _ days:
Ans: Fresh Loans:25 days, Renewal:15 days and Adhoc : 7 days.
30. What is the Stand by limit for Gold Card Exporters that is permissible in addition to assessed limits. Ans: 20% of
assessed limits.
31.Under Credit Guarantee Fund Scheme for Factoring (CGFSF), the first loss of ____ of the amount in default to be
borne by Factors. The remaining _____ (i.e., second loss) of the amount in default will be borne by NCGTC and
Factors in the ratio of 2:1 respectively. Ans. 20%, 80%
32.Under Credit Guarantee Fund Scheme for Skill Development (CGFSD), guarantee cover is available for ____% of
the amount in default. 100% of the guaranteed claims shall be paid by the Trust after all avenues for recovery
have been exhausted and there is no scope for recovering the default amount. Ans. 75%
33.Under Credit Guarantee Fund for Micro Units (CGFMU) guarantee cover is available for micro loans in which the
first loss to the extent of _____ of amount in default. Out of the balance, guarantee will be to a maximum
extent of 75% of the amount in default in the crystallized portfolio. Ans.3%
34.Under Credit Guarantee Fund for Micro Units (CGFMU), guarantee cover is available for loans upto Rs.5 lakh -
___% of the amount in default subject to a maximum of Rs. 4.25 lakh, above Rs.5 lakh &upto Rs.50 lakh, ____%
of the amount in default subject to a maximum of Rs. 37.50 lakh, above Rs.50 lakh &upto Rs.200 lakh, ____% of
the amount in default subject to a maximum of 150 lakh. Ans. 85%, 75%, 75%
35.Credit Guarantee Fund for Micro Units (CGFMU) is providing Guarantee Coverage to PMMY Loans upto Rs.10 lakhs
and SHG loans upto Rs._____ Ans: Rs. 20 lakhs.
36.CIRM Hybrid Model Risk Rating is applicable for borrowers with exposure (other than Green Field Projects) above
Rs.2 cruptoRs.____ Ans: Rs. 5 Cr
37.Under Credit Linked Capital Subsidy Scheme (CLCSS ) for Technology Upgradation of MSEs, capital subsidy is
provided to units with loan ceiling upto Rs.100 lakhs. Whatis the percentage of subsidy provided by Govt. Ans:
15% with maximum Rs15 lakhsfor General Category and 25% with maximum Rs.25 lakhs for SC/ST by National
SC/ST Hub.
38.President of India promulgated the IBC Amendment Ordinance 2021, allowing the use of Pre-Pack Insolvency
Resolution Process (PPIRP) for Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) with defaults of Rs. ____ lakh and
above under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code. Ans. 10
39.___________ has been recognized as the ‘World’s Best SME Bank’ by Euro money for the second time. The bank
has established its position as a global industry leader in association with Small to Medium Enterprises (SMEs) to
enhance growth and development. Ans. Development Bank of Singapore Limited (DBS Bank)
40.Government has launched a World Bank supported Central Sector Scheme called RAMP. The scheme aims at
strengthening institutions and governance at the Centre and State, improving Centre-State linkages and
partnerships and improving access of MSMEs to market and credit, technology upgradation and addressing issues
of delayed payments and greening of MSMEs. Full form of RAMP is ______Ans. Raising and Accelerating MSME
Performance
41.Trans Union Cibil launched a ranking system for MSME borrowers called________ in association with Online PSB
Loans, will rate the MSMEs by drawing inputs from their current accounts, income tax returns and also GST
returns to rate a borrower after taking consent to draw the relevant data and uses machine learning algorithms
to predict the probability of a borrower defaulting on its loan repayment in the next 12 months. Ans. FIT Rank
42.The key motivations for issuance of CBDC in India 1) reduction in operational costs involved in physical cash
management, 2) fostering financial inclusion, 3) bringing resilience, efficiency, and innovation in payments
system, 4) adding efficiency to the settlement system Ans.1 to 4 all
43.Lending under the PM SVANidhi Scheme has been extended till December. ___. The credit guarantee and
interest Subsidy claims on all loans shall be paid till March. __. Ans. 2024, 2028
44.The Street Vendors are eligible for Interest Subsidy of _____ % on 1st, 2nd& 3rd Loans sanctioned under PM
SVANidhi and the account should be in Standard Asset Category at the time of submission of claim. Ans: 7% to
be claimed half yearly June30, Dec31.
45.Working Capital Assessment in respect of Specific industries / seasonal activities such as software development,
construction, tea and sugar done under ______ method. Ans: Cash Budget Method
46.In case of large projects with total loan of over Rs.________ & above from banking system (or project term
loan/WC of Rs.100 Crore & above from our Bank), the bank shall stipulate a condition to the effect that cash
flow of the company may also be monitored by an approved / empanelled firm – Agency for Specialised
Monitoring: Ans: Rs.250 crores
47.LoanSystemForDeliveryOfBankCredit(LSDBC) is applicable for Borrowers with FB WC limits of Rs.150 cr and above
from Banking system. Minimum level of ‘loan component’ (WCDL) shall be 60% of the FBWC limit. Beyond this
Cash Credit. What is the minimum tenor of WCDL: Ans: 7 days.
48.AnnualReviewofTermLoans is applicable for TLs sanctioned by Circle Head CAC and above authorities. In case of
Retail Lending Loans uptoRs._____ sanctioned by CO Head CAC and above authorities are exempted from
Annual Review of Term Loans. Ans: Rs.5 crores.
49.For Term Loans (Project cost upto Rs.100 lakh & above Rs.100 lakhs), what is the prescribed Fixed Asset
Coverage Ratio as per our Policy: Ans: 1.33 (1.20 in exceptional cases)
50.Interest coverage Ratio prescribed for specified industries/sectors and the same should not less than _____for
corporates, Not less than 1.50 for MSME sector. Ans: 1.67
51.In case of GENCO and TRANSCO, Working Capital is restricted to _____% of total Revenue as per ABS. Ans: 50%
52.Commitment charges shall be levied on the unutilised / unavailed sanctioned working capital limits / Short Term
limit for working capital purposes, including WCDL / Term loans and the same is applicable for corporate
borrowers with total limits of Rs._____ and above. Ans: Rs.10 crores.
53.Audited financial statements are to be submitted before 31st October every year in case accounting
yearendsat31stMarchorwithin7monthsfromthedateclosing of annual accounts in case accounting year ending is
other than 31st March or within a fortnight of adoption of accounts of the borrower. If not submitted with in
prescribed time, what is the penal interest to be charged: Ans: 2% fromdue date
54.Branches are not empowered to reject any proposals originated through Jansamarth Portal. ______________shall
be the authority to reject the proposals received under the Jansamarth Portal. Ans: Next Higher Authority
55.FB limits may be converted into NFB limits or LC / APG limits may be converted as Fund Based Limits for the
purpose of ______ only. Ans: purchasing Stocks /Raw Materials only.
56.For all MSME borrowers having exposure of Rs. 1 Crore and above and all Corporate borrowers having exposure of
Rs. _______and above, Risk Adjusted Return on Capital (RAROC)shall be computed through SAS package and
shall be prepared along with the proposals being placed for approval. Ans: Rs. 25 Crores
57.What shall be the basis for determining a Group/Associateconcern. Ans: The ‘commonality of management’ and
‘effective control on the management’
58.Credit Exposure Ceiling in respect of SingleentitywithconstitutionasSociety&Trust for Educational Institutions &
Hospitals and Rated as Low Risk is Rs.____ Ans: Rs.350 crores(Rs.250cr for Normal Risk, Rs.200 cr for Moderate
Risk, Rs.125 cr for High Risk)
59.. Canara Bank Proposal Rating (CBPR) is the Credit scoring matrix framework, applicable for Corporate
Loans(FB+NFB) of Rs._____ cr and above, MSME/AG-Food Processing Loans of Rs.10 crores and above. Ans:
Rs.50crore
60.Mapping of our Risk Grades CNR MM2/CNR SVM 2 is to_____ Ans: Normal Risk
61.The credit risk rating of a borrower shall become overdue for updation after the expiry of 15 months from the
month of confirmation of rating or ______ months from the date of signing the balance sheet by auditors based
on which credit risk rating was assigned, whichever isearlier. No credit decisions after expiry. Ans: 18 months
62.In case of large projects with total loan of over Rs.________ & above from banking system (or project term
loan/WC of Rs.100 Crore & above from our Bank), the bank shall stipulate a condition to the effect that cash
flow of the company may also be monitored by an approved / empanelled firm – Agency for Specialised
Monitoring: Ans: Rs.250 crores
63.TreatmentofQuasiEquityforTermLoanofRs.50Crore &above: Maximum cap on quasi equity shall be to the extent
of _____ of equityin case of Proprietary, Partnership concerns as also Corporates/ Companies. Ans: 100% (If
Quasi equity is withdrawn later, 1% additional interest is to be charged.)
64.In case of GENCO and TRANSCO, Working Capital is restricted to _____% of total Revenue as per ABS. Ans: 50%
65.Commitment charges shall be levied on the unutilised / unavailed sanctioned working capital limits / Short Term
limit for working capital purposes, including WCDL / Term loans and the same is applicable for corporate
borrowers with total limits of Rs._____ and above. Ans: Rs.10 crores.
66..Branches are not empowered to reject any proposals originated through Jansamarth Portal.
______________shall be the authority to reject the proposals received under the Jansamarth Portal. Ans: Next
Higher Authority
67.Legal Audit of Title Deeds should be done in Accounts with credit exposure of Rs.5 crores and above, as part of
RBIA after ____ years of sanctioning orcrossing of threshold limit of Rs.5 Crore. Ans: 3 years (coincide with
RBIA)
68.Delegation of powers, collaterals, pricing of loans, Provisioning etc. decided by which committee in the
Bank:Ans: Credit Risk Management Committee
69.The borrowers rated as ______ Risk and better are termed as investment grade exposures. Ans: Moderate
70.Overdraft against property to stockbrokers : Bank may permit overdraft facility against mortgage of property
with ____ % margin on the market value of the property offered as security. Ans: 40%
71.A Small Enterprise is classified, where the investment in plant and machinery orequipment does not exceed ten
crore rupees and turnover does not exceedRs._________ Ans: fifty crore rupees
72.What are the time norms for disposal of MSME loan applications beyond Rs.25 lakhs:Ans: 30 days by branch, 45
days by RO/CO/HO.
73.What is the number of “Simplified Common Appraisal Memorandum for MSME loan above Rs. 10.00 lakhs and
upto Rs. 1.00 Crore: Ans: NF 1028
74.Limits over Rs._______ can be assessed on the basis of MPBF system or cash budgetsystem at the option of the
borrower Ans: Rs.25 Cr
75.In respect of proposed exposure of MSMEs above Rs. 10 lakhs and upto Rs. 10Crores, where two Credit
Information Reports (CIRs) are to be obtained,branches/offices shall obtain one from _______________ and
another report from anyof the Credit Information Companies (CICs). Ans: M/S TransUnion CIBIL including CMR
76.As per Take Over Norms applicable for Manufacturing Units, the unit should be atleast______ years old and DCCO
accomplished more than 6 months. Ans: 1 year
77.For take over of MSE Loans with enhancement, Security coverage including Land &Building, NSC,KVP, Term
Deposits etc not less than ___ % of exposure includingproposed enhancement. Ans: 50%
78.Under “PSB loans in 59minutes”, platform, without any physical contact with BankBranch by customers, MSME
loans under MUDRA category and other loans upto Rs______ will be accorded “In Principle sanction” within 59
minutes. Ans: Rs 5 Crores
79.Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP) is administered by the Ministry of Micro, Small and
Medium Enterprises (MoMSME) and Implemented at the National level by _____ Ans: Khadi and Village Industries
Commission (KVIC)
80.Under Weavers Mudra Scheme, maximum working capital loan of Rs.2 lakhs (included maximum Rs.50,000/-
term loan component) is financed to eligible weaver borrower. What is the quantum of capital subsidy and
interest subsidy on this scheme: Ans:Margin Money Assistance - 20% of the project cost subject to a maximum of
81.To promote Zero Defect Zero Effect practices among MSMEs, Bank is extendingconcessions in Rate of Interest
and Processing charges. What are the concessions in respect of ZED MSE rated as AAA/AA/A (CNR I to V): Ans:
Concession of 0.1%(Bronze), 0.25% (Silver), 0.5% (for Gold) in ROI and Proc Charges.
82.finance extended to eligible hospitals etc for installation of Oxygen generation plants (Canara Jeevanarekha).
What is the maximum quantum of Loan and repayment period. Ans: Rs.2 crore with tenor of 5 years including
moratorium of 6 months.ROI:7.5%
83..M/s. NCGTC Ltd is extending 100% guarantee for loans sanctioned to Covid AffectedTourism Sector. What is the
loan quantum permissible under this scheme: Ans:WCTL/TL upto Rs.1.00 lakh to tourist guides/ Rs.10 lakhs to
tourism stakeholders/operators.
84..Standby credit for capital expenditure of MSMEs - Quantum of loan may be up to 25 % of the original value of
the existing plant and machinery subject to a maximum of Rs_______, will be sanctioned at the time of each
renewal of working capital limits Ans: Rs.25 Lakhs
85.As per Canara GST scheme, WC limits with minimum Rs.above 10 lakhs and upto Rs.10 crore are considered for
MSMEs. What is the mode of assessment of WC limits under the scheme: Ans: Maximum 25% of the Annual
Turnover as per GST Returns, with NIL margin. (min.6 months GST returns to be obtained and verified)
86.MSME Sugam scheme for lending under Origination Tie-ups wherein maximum loan of Rs.10 lacs is sanctioned
under TL/WCTL. What is the repayment period: Ans: 12 to 60 months for WCTL and 12 to 84 months (3m
moratorium) for TLs.
87.What is the maximum loan quantum of Canara Easy Equipment Finance : Ans: Min.Rs.10 lakhs. Max. Rs.100 cr for
CNR-5 Low Risk(AAA/AA/A) and Rs.50 cr for Normal/Moderate Risk (BBB/BB), Line of Credit Rs.25 crores.
88.As per modified guidelines of MSMEs, in case of an upward change in terms of investment in Plant & Machinery or
Equipment or Turnover or Both and consequent reclassification, an enterprise shall continue to avail of all Non-
Tax benefits of the category (Mircro or Small or Medium) it was before reclassification, for a period of____
years from the date of such upward change. Ans: 3 years.
89. Loan Sanctions made by each sanctioning authority at branch/office shall be placed before the Next Higher
Authority (NHA) for Review. All sanctions/renewal upto Rs.____ (FB+NFB) and upto Rs.____ for SHG, review will
be carried out on consolidated basis by Regional Offices based on monthly registers submitted by branches. Ans:
Rs.5 lakh, Rs.6 lakh.
90. Pre Release Audit is to be conducted in respect of exposures of Rs.____ and above (FB+NFB/Clean) and Retail
Lending facilities of Rs.5 cr and above which are backed by mortgage and same to be conducted with in 48
hours of obtention of documentation. Ans: Rs.3 crore
91. Credit Audit is to be conducted in respect of exposures of above Rs.3 crores with in______ months from the
first disbursement. Ans: 3 to 6 months.
92. What is the fee payable to Agencies for Specialised Monitoring who monitor Quarterly cash flows of corporate
borrowers enjoying credit facilities of Rs 250 crores and above from Banking system (min.Rs.100 crores with our
Bank) : Ans: Rs.5 lakh per annum for credit limits upto Rs.500 crores and Rs.8 lakh per annum for exposures of
above Rs.500 crores.
93. Working Capital Loan upto Rs.10 crores permitted under Canara GST scheme, with collateral security of 75%
(50% for Mfg units by CO Head CAC). Vacant Land may be accepted as security upto a maximum of % of the
permitted security comfort. Ans: 25%
94. All accounts under retail loans and MSME loans up to Rs. _ with over dues are ported in the ITsolution and the
call centre executives will follow up with respective customers and update the status in the Collection
Management Package. Ans: Rs1 Crore
95. All Restructured Loans (Personal Loans and Corporate Loans) under Resolution Framework for Covid Related
Stress, should keep provisions @ percent or the existing provision before restructuring, which ever is higher, to
be provided from the date of implementation. Ans: 10 per cent. (For MSME upto 25 crores, additional provision
of 5% only)
96. As per Framework of MSME Restructuring, Specified Period’ means a period of from the commencement of
the first payment of interest or principal, whichever is later, on the credit facility with longest period of
moratorium under the terms of restructuring package. Ans: one year
97. Micro and Small Enterprises Loans of above Rs.5 lakh and upto Rs.25 lakhs are to be disposed off within a
maximum Turnaround Time of days.Ans: 30 days.
98. In terms of the recommendations of the Prime Minister's Task Force on MSMEs, branches and offices are advised
to achieve a % year-on-year growth in credit to Micro and Small Enterprises and to achieve 10% annual
growth in the number of Micro Enterprise accounts. Ans: 20%
99. Bank is mandated not to accept collateral security in the case of loans upto Rs. extended to MSE sector. Bank
also advised to extend collateral free loans upto Rs. to all units financed under PMEGP scheme administered by
KVIC. Ans: Rs. 10 lakhs, Rs. 10 lakhs
100. An enterprise shall be classified as Medium enterprise, where the investment in plant and machinery or
equipment does not exceed Fifty Crore rupees and turnover does not exceed rupees. Ans: Two Hundred and
fifty crore
101. While assessing Working Capital Limits under MPBF system, what is Working Capital Gap: Ans: Total Current
Assets (Gross Working Capital) minus Current Liabilities excluding Bank Borrowings.
102. What will be the DSCR of a unit if its Net Profit is Rs.8.00 Lakhs, Depreciation Rs.2.00 Lakhs, the interest on
Term Loan is Rs.1.00 Lakhs and installment of TL is Rs.3.00 Lakhs: Ans: 2.75
103. What is the target for Banks to achieve finance to Micro Enterprises? Ans: 7.5% of ANBC or CBOE whichever
is higher.
104. What is the margin under 2nd method of Tandon/Chore committee (MPBF) method: Ans: 25% of total
Current Assets or available NWC in the system whichever is higher
105. Cash Budget method is used for assessing working capital requirements for _ : Ans: An estimation of the
cash flows of a business over a specific period of time for seasonal industries such as tea, sugar, jute etc, or
order based industries such as software, exports etc.
106. If an SME unit holds a margin of Rs.25 lac and its projected Sales are Rs.400 lac, its working capital limit
will be : Ans: Rs.75 lac (margin being more, the limit will be lower by that amount).
107. In order to reduce the cost of credit for the Regulatory Reail segment consisting of individuals and small
businesses (i.e. with turnover of upto ₹ 50 crore), and also to harmonise with the Basel guidelines, it has been
decided that the threshold limit of ₹ 5 crore for aggregated retail exposure to a counterparty shall stand
increased to . Ans: ₹ 7.5 crore
108. All proposals of close relatives (Other than Agrl & Retail personal Loans) in respect of individual borrowers,
Proprietor in Proprietorship, Partnership firms where any of the partners are close relatives, shall be placed
before for sanction. Ans: Next Higher Authority.
109. What is the borrowers margin requirement for loans under Stand-up India scheme? Ans.15%
110. What should the financing Bank do after receipt of subsidy under PMEGP loan sanctioned in favour of a
particular beneficiary? Ans. it should be kept in the form of Term Deposit Receipt of three years at branch
level in the name of the beneficiary/Institution. No interest will be paid on the TDR and no interest will be
charged on loan to the corresponding amount of TDR.
111. Which method of capital budgeting is more appropriate where obsolescence rate is high? Ans. Pay-back period
method
112. If an account remains overdue for 31-60 days, it will be classified under which SMA Category? Ans.SMA-I
113. What is the maximum time period within which Banks must complete staff accountability exercise in case a
borrowal account classified as fraud? Ans. Six Months from the date of classification as fraud
114. What is the minimum and maximum loan amount under MUDRA-Tarun ? Ans. Above Rs.5.00 Lakhs and up
to Rs.10.00 Lakhs
115. The Pre-Packaged Insolvency Resolution Process for MSMEs introduced in IBC with use of _ method of
bidding to get best possible resolution plan. Ans. Swiss challenge method. A ‘Swiss challenge’ is a method
where a bid is published and third parties are invited to match or better it. This system has been specifically
provided in PPIRP regulations.
116. How to calculate P/E Ratio of a share? Ans. P/E Ratio is calculated by dividing the market price of a share by
the earnings per share.
117. What is the provisioning required for Standard Micro and Small Enterprises Loan accounts? Ans. 0.25%
118. Which committee recommended that, a full-service approach to cater to the diverse needs of the SME sector
may be achieved through extending banking services to recognized SME clusters by adopting a 4-C approach?
Ans. Ganguly Committee (Cluster Based Approach for SMEs)
119. What is the criteria for investment and turnover for medium enterprises under MSME? Ans. Investment in plant
and machinery or equipment exceeding Rs.10.00 cr and does not exceed Rs. 50.00 cr and turnover exceeding
Rs.50.00 cr and does not exceed Rs. 250.00 crs
120. What is solvency ratio? Ans. A solvency ratio indicates whether an enterprise's cash flow is sufficient to meet its
long-term liabilities.
11. RETAIL LENDING

1. As per RBI’s Monetary and Credit Policy announcement dated 08.06.22, for urban cooperative banks, the
housing loan limits for Tier I /Tier II UCBs has been revised from Rs.30 lakh/Rs.70 lakh to___, respectively.
Ans. Rs.60 lakhs / Rs.140 lakhs
2. As per RBI’s Monetary and Credit Policy announcement dated 08.06.22, State Coop Banks and Distt. Central
Coop Bank can extend finance to Commercial Real Estate – Residential Housing(CRE-RH) within the existing
aggregate housing finance limit of ___ per cent of their total assets. Ans. 5%
3. For classification of loans under Commercial Real Estate– Residential Housing(CRE-RH) :Loans to builders/
developers for residential housing projects comprising of some commercial space (e.g. Shopping complex,
school etc.) that does not exceed _____ of the total Floor Space Index (FSI) of the project. Ans: 10%
4. What is the Standard Asset Provisioning in respect of Housing loans and CRE-RH :Ans: 0.25% for HLs and 0.75%
for CRE-RH.
5. For classification of loans under Commercia lReal Estate–Residential Housing(CRE-RH) :Loans to builders/
developers for residential housing projects comprising of some commercial space (e.g. Shopping complex,
school etc.) that does not exceed _____ of the total Floor Space Index (FSI) of the project. Ans: 10%
6. While financing to NBFC-Factors, the eligible criteria is, Its financial assets in the factoring business constitute
at least _____ percent of its total assets and its income derived from factoring business is not less than ____
per cent of its gross income. Ans: fifty, fifty
7. “Canara Green Wheels” a new scheme for Financing Electric Four Wheeler Vehicle (4-Wheeler). What is margin
and repayment: Ans: Margin 15% upto loan of Rs.25 lakhs & 25% margin for loans above Rs.25 lakhs. Repayment
84 months.
8. For take over of Retail Loans, minimum Risk Grade should be: Ans : CRG-3 (Moderate Risk)
9. For Education Loans Guaranteed by Credit Guarantee Fund Scheme for Education Loans (CGFSEL) under IBA’s
Model Education Loan scheme, upto limit of Rs. 7.50 lacs, the risk weight will be _____ Ans: NIL
10. The National Disaster Management Authority(NDMA) guidelines : For all types of Real Estate Exposures of
Rs._____ and above including Housing Loans, NDMA guidelines are applicable. Ans: Rs.1 Cr.
11. As per special package under retail lending schemes to the employees of India’s premier educational
institutions/colleges and central universities coming under MoE & MOHFW, Sanctioning of Canara Budget Loans
can be permitted by the respective Branches with higher quantum of loan up to 25 months’ gross salary subject
to a maximum of Rs Lakh with risk gradation up to “Moderate Risk” as per CRG under this package. Ans:
Rs.20.00 Lakh
12. Under Educational loan scheme for abroad studies from select top ranking Universities, the loan quantum is
min. Rs.7.50 lakhs and maximum Rs.100 lakhs if collateral is less than 100%. If collateral is more than 100%,
what is the maximum quantum of loan: Ans: No Cap (as per Project cost)
13. Canara Vidya Jyothi Scheme, to provide Scholarship to meritorious SC/ST Girl Students, implemented by our
Rural, Semi Urban and Urban Branches, each branch to 6 girl students. What is the amount of scholarship under
this scheme: Ans: Rs.2500/-per student for students of class 5th to 7th and Rs. 5000/- per student for students
of class 8th to 10th.
14.Credit Guarantee Fund Scheme for Education Loan (CGFSEL) coverage is for all ELs without collateral security,
upto Rs.7.50 lakhs and Skill Edn Loans upto Rs. Ans: Rs.1.50 lacs.
15.What is the maximum quantum of Housing Loan to our employees, Clerk and Scale II manager: Ans: Rs.60 lakhs
(clerk) and Rs.80 lakhs for Scale II manager. (20% of this loan loan is permissible for Repairs & Renovation with in
maximum HL eligibility)
16.Central Sector Scheme Of Interest Subsidy (CSIS) on education loans-As per revised scheme, Students availing
education loans for pursuing professional / technical courses only from National Assessment and Accreditation
Council(NAAC) accredited Institutions or professional / technical programmes accredited by National Board of
Accreditation (NBA), Institutions of National importance, Central Funded Technical institutions (CFTls) and
Professional institutions/programmes approved by respective regulatory body are eligible. Entire interest accrued
for loan amount up to Rs.(out of total loan amount) during the Moratorium period i.e. Course period plus one year
is subsidized for the eligible education loan accounts. Ans: Rs.10.00 Lakhs (coverage upto Rs.10 lakhs loan,
income criteria 4.5 lacs)
17.The payment of service charges to Car Dealers and Sales Executives, i.e., 1.30% of loan amount with a max of
Rs. 50,000/- and Rs. respectively, can be made flexible between both within the overall permissible cap. Ans:
Rs1,500/-
18.Vidya turant is an online instant education loan sanction facility for the students of IIMs/IITs/NITs/IISC/ISB. What
is the maximum eligible limit under Group A, B & C institutions : Ans: Rs. 50 lacs, Rs. 40 lacs, Rs. 30 lacs
19.What is the Pre-payment penalty applicable for pre-closure of Term loan by way of take over by other Banks :
Ans: 2% of outstanding liability. Applicable for Fixed Rate & Floating Rate of Interest Loans. Not applicable for HLs
with Floating ROI and also in case of all floating rate term loans sanctioned to individual borrowers
20.The Definition of Commercial Real Estate : The funding will result in the creation / acquisition of real estate
(such as, office buildings to let, retail space, multifamily residential buildings, industrial or warehouse space and
hotels) where the primary source of cash flow i.e. more than of cash flows for repayment would generally
be lease or rental payments or the sale of the assets as also for recovery in the event of default where such asset
is taken as security. Ans: 50%
21.In case of Inland studies, if student directly gets admission without entrance test etc., they should secure
atleast % marks in qualifying exam for EL eligibility. In case of Girl students, SC/ST students, the qualifying
marks is _ %. Ans: 60%, 50%
22.Housing Loan sanctioned for 3rd unit to an individual is considered as Commercial Real Estate and attracts
additional interest of _ % on card rate. Ans: 0.5%
23.Margin on HL is 10% for loans upto Rs.30 lakhs and 20% for HL Rs.30 to 75 lakhs. What is the margin for Flat
/House of more than 10 years old: Ans: 25%
12. GENERAL MATTERS ON CREDIT

1. What is the aggregate exposure ceiling for financing to Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) and ceiling to
Individual InvIT: Ans: Rs.1000 crores including investment exposure. For individual InvIT, ceiling is Rs.100 crore
(on par with maximum exposure to a single Trust)
2. All unrated claims on Corporates and NBFCs except CICs having aggregate exposure of More than Rs.200 crore
from Banking System will attract Risk Weight of ______ % Ans: 150%.
3. Fixed Assets valuation should be done once in 3 years. In respect of fixed assets (primary/ collateral),
mortgaged to loan accounts (classified as standard assets) under all Housing Loan variants, Canara Mortgage,
Canara Rent, Canara LRD & Canara Site where loan outstanding is Rs. 50 lakhs or above, revaluation of property
has to be undertaken through the empanelled valuers oncein every _____ years. Ans: Five years.
4. ECAI rating shall be obtained from all the Borrowers who are enjoying credit exposure (FB + NFB) of above Rs. 25
crore from Banks/FIs, for the purpose of Risk weighting of Exposures as well as for Pricing. In case of externally
unrated borrowers with exposure above Rs 25 Crores up to Rs 100 Crores, additional interest of 0.25% shall be
charged over and above the applicable rate of interest. For exposures above Rs.100 crores, additional interest of
____ % shall be levied. Ans: 0.50%
5. What is the minimum CRAR requirement for Banks in India including Capital Conservation Buffer, as per BASEL-III
norms? Ans.11.50% (T1 : 7%; T2 : 2%, CCB : 2.5%)
6. Valuation of properties (Land and Building) of Rs. and above, Bank shall obtain minimum 2 independent
valuation reports from 2 empanelled valuers. Ans: Rs.10 crore
7. 7.Mandated Bank concept is applicable for which type of Finance Arrangement by Banks. Ans: Loan Syndication
8. 8.Treatment of Quasi Equityf or Term Loan of Rs.50Crore &above: Maximum cap on quasi equity shall be to the
extent of _____ ofequityin case of Proprietary, Partnership concerns as also Corporates/ Companies. Ans: 100%
(If Quasi equity is withdrawn later, 1% additional interest is to be charged.)
9. 9.What is the validity period for credit facilities sanctioned under consortium lending arrangement
(whereourbankisaLeaderorMember) Ans: 6 months. If financial closure is not completed, revalidation by another
6 months by SA.
10.10.Default with one lender that may trigger default with another lender. This may be Considered as Cross
Default if it is not cured with in ____ days. Ans: 30 days
11. In respect of Consortium meetings, where we are Leader and for important decisions, GM/CGM of Circle if
limits are Rs.______ & DGM of Circle for limits below______ should attend apart from branch incharge. Ans:
Rs.25 crores and above, Rs.25 crores
12. Minimum margin requirement for Bank Guarantees issued beyond 5 years shall be ____ % in the form
ofTDR. (apart from tangible securities/collaterals as applicable/prescribed. Ans: 25%
13. If the seller is not required to tender documents of title to goods for obtaining payment under the terms of
LC, such Letter of Credit is termed as _______ Ans: Clean Letter of Credit.
14. Standby LCs aresimilar to financial BGs and themaximumperiodof Standby LCwillbe _____ Ans: Oneyear
15.Unsecured exposure is defined as an exposure where the realisable value of security, as assessed by the Bank /
approved valuers / the RBI’s inspecting officers is not more than_____ % of the outstanding exposure. Ans: 10%
ab-initio
16.It is suggested that minimum gap between two valuations should be three years. If carried out at frequency
lesser than 3 year, then value of property shall be taken at ____ % of the present value of the property (latest
valuation) and valuation shall be carried out by valuer other than the valuer who had given the earlier report.
Ans: 85%
17.What is the maximum period of Inter Bank Participation Certificates (IBPC): Ans: 91days to 180 days (with Risk
sharing) 90 days without risk sharing.
18.For Assessment of Group Risk, Key financials (Turnover, Net Profit, Leverage, TNW, Liquidity etc) of
majorgroupconcerns/companiesincludingJVshavingholdingabove ____ % of paid up capital in all the accounts
and also where corporate guarantees are stipulated shall be incorporated in the office note. Ans: 30%
19.What is the validity period for credit facilities sanctioned under consortium lending arrangement (where our
bank is a Leader or Member) Ans: 6 months. If financial closure is not completed, revalidation by another 6
months by SA.
20.Credit Exposure Ceiling in respect of Single entity with constitution as Society&Trust for Educational
Institutions & Hospitals and Rated as Low Risk is Rs.____ Ans: Rs.350 crores(Rs.250cr for Normal Risk, Rs.200 cr
for Moderate Risk, Rs.125 cr for High Risk)
21.MSME Sulabhs Shall handle all fresh and enhancement MSME loan proposals (exceptVSL, GL) beyond
Rs._______or Branch powers (Small, Medium,Large, VLBS)whichever is less. Ans: Rs.25 lakhs
22. Where the security interest created in favour of the Bank has been duly registered with_______ in tune with
provisions of the SARFAESI Act, 2002 Bank will have priority overall crown debts (to Central/State Govts). Ans:
CERSAI
23.Charge Modification or Redemption also to be informed to CERSAI immediately. If borrower informs CERSAI
about redemption, Bank to inform CERSAI any objection with in ____ days. Ans: 14 days.
24.For Recommending to Ministry of Home Affairs to issue Look Out Circular in respect of Wilful Defaulters, Non
Co Operative Borrowers, Red Flagged Accounts, A/cs with Early Warning Signals-suspicion of fleeing the country,
what are the cut off limits: Ans: FB+NFB Rs.10 cr and above if Fraud is Reported/under process of reporting. In
other cases, Rs.50 crores and above.
25.Borrowal accounts with aggregate exposure of Rs.15 lakhs and above becoming NPAs with in 12 months from
the date of commencement of repayment either interest or instalment in respect of limits sanctioned to the
borrower for first time is termed as _______ Ans: Quick Mortality
26.Red Flagged Account (RFA) is one where suspicion of fraudulent activity is thrown up by the presence of one or
more Early Warning Signals (EWS) and the threshold limit for RFA is exposure of Rs._____ and above. Ans: Rs.50
crore
27.Formation of Credit Monitoring Cells is mandatory at all branches having borrowal accounts with exposure
Limits of Rs._____ and above (Working capital / Term loan).Ans: Rs 50 lakhs
28.Project Implementation Progress Report (PIPR) is applicable for Term Loans of Rs.50 lakhs and above and to be
obtained ________ (periodicity) Ans:Quarterly basis
29.While accepting mortgage of properties towards security, 2 Legal Scrutiny Reports are to be obtained if the
value of property is Rs._____ and above. Ans: Rs.5 crore
30.When immovable property (Land & Building) is taken as security, the residual age of the property should be
atleast ____ years more than the tenure of the loan. Ans: 5years.
31.What is the fee payable to Stock Auditor for Current Asset Valuation: Ans: Mfg unit:Rs.500 per 1 crore of
stocks/BDs with min.Rs.10,000/- max. Rs.1 lakh. Other than Mfg. Rs.300 per 1 crore with min.Rs.7500/-
max.Rs.1 lakh.
32.Wherever, Securities (immovable properties) are insufficient to cover contractual dues, Branches shall at the
time filing DRT Case, engage detective agency in all the cases where Book Liability is Rs._______ and above to
identify other assets of the borrowers/ guarantors and note to file ABJ before DRT / Civil Court. Ans:
Rs.50.00lacs
33.Central Vigilance Commission has prescribed cut off limit for reporting of cases of wilful default by the banks /
FIs to RBI. Any wilful defaulter with an outstanding balance of Rs._______or more, would attract the stipulated
penal measures. Ans: Rs.25 lakhs
34.Bank should report information on their non- cooperative borrowers to Central Repository of Information on
Large Credits(CRILC) under CRILC Main returns every quarter within _____ days from the close of the relevant
quarter as advised by RBIAns: 21 days
35.For exposure of Rs.5 crores and above, the Credit Audit shall be allotted to the empanelled External
Auditors. Maximum fees payable to external auditor is Rs._____plus out of pocket expenses as applicable. Ans:
Rs. 6000/-
36.What is the Rate of Interest charged under Short Term Repo Linked Lending Rate (STRLLR) for exposures under
BULC scheme: Ans: For Bills upto 90 days usance : STRLLR+1.25%, for Bills above 90 days upto 180 days usance :
STRLLR+1.50%
37.All the Credit Proposals of MCBs falling under the powers of Head Office shall be submitted by the MCBs directly
to the concerned wing (MCCW/MSME/PC/SAM Wing) at HO with a copy to concerned Circle Office. Further, the
respective Circle Heads shall submit their recommendations on the proposal by way of Front Sheet to the
concerned wing at HO within _ days of receipt of the proposal. Ans: 2 days
38.In case of Branch/RO/CO/MSME Sulabh sanction, if the enhancement/ increase is more than _ % during
the mid-term enhancement of previous limit, the proposal for sanction shall be placed to the Next Higher
authority as per delegated powers. Ans: 100%
39.Additional commission of % shall be stipulated in respect of Bank Guarantees exceeding 5 years where minimum
margin of 25% is not maintained. Ans: 0.25%
40.In case of loan/overdraft facility of Rs.1 Crore and above against the term deposit, necessary due diligence shall
be ensured by the branches and offsite monitoring should be done at the BS&IC Section, Circle Office for Loans of
less than Rs.10 Crore sanctioned against a term deposit and by _above. Ans: OTM Cell, Inspection Wing, Head
Office for Loans Rs.10 Crore&
41.Beneficial Ownership- A natural person ultimately owns or control client and/or the person on whose behalf the
transaction is being conducted, and includes a person who exercises’ ultimate effective control over a juridical
person. Control ownership in case of Company is more than 25%, Partnership/Trust/Unincorporated Association is
Ans: more than 15%
42.Housing-cum-solar loan -Capital Finance Assistance (CFA) for Residential Sector (with or without Housing Loans),
subject to maximum 10 KW per house along with Central Financial Assistance (CFA) @ 40% of benchmark cost upto
3 kW+ _% for RTS system above 3 kW and up to 10 kW. Ans: 20%
43.Credit Monitoring Format is applicable for all borrowers having exposure (FB+NFB Limits) of Rs.3 Cr and above in
case of Low, Normal and Moderate Risk Rated Accounts. In case of High Risk accounts borrowers having exposure
(FB+NFB Limits) of above Rs.1 Cr. CMF to be submitted quarterly. What is the periodicity of submission of CMF for
High Risk Accounts of above Rs.1 cr and Moderate Risk accounts of Rs.200 cr and above: Ans: Monthly
44.Large Credit Monitoring Package (LCM) is a SAS based web portal that would enable the branches and admin unit
officials to monitor and review the large borrowal accounts on a periodical basis and take proactive measures.
Applicable for Sanctioned Limit (both Fund based & Non Fund based) of Rs. and above. Ans: Rs1 Crore
45. As per existing guidelines for Flats under construction, Maximum Repayment Holiday is 36 months where
tripartite agreement has been executed for completion of flats. GM-HO-CAC can permit extension by 6 months for
valid reasons. After completion of this extension period, if EMT is not done/EMT not done with in 6 months from
the date of Registration, Penal interest of _ _ % pa. will be charged. Ans: 2% p.a.
46.In respect of existing borrowers, project appraisal shall be applicable as under: Internally rated as moderate
Risk or externally rated BB: Rs 500 lakh & above and Internally rated as Low/Normal Risk or externally rated BBB
or better : _ & above Ans: Rs1000 lakh
47.In respect of Term Loans towards Project Finance, Minimum Equity Contribution by Promoters’ shall be % of the
Overall Margin for the Project. Ans: 50% (Quasi equity i.e. Subordinated debt should not exceed half of total
prescribed margin)
48.Exposures to Credit Information Companies, rated as well as unrated, will continue to be risk-weighted at % Ans:
100%.
49.Current Assets Valuation (Stock & Receivables Audit) is to be conducted once in a year in respect of Standard
Assets. What is the cut off limit: Ans: LR,NR : Rs5 cr and above. MR/HR: Rs.1 cr and above.
51.All Loan Accounts of borrowers where the aggregate liability is Rs.15.00 lakhs and above, becoming NPAs within
a period of 12 months from the date of commencement of repayment of either Interest or Instalment in respect of
loans/limits sanctioned to the concerned borrowers for the first time shall be henceforth defined as account
suffering Ans: Quick Mortality
52. Lending on the guarantee issued by other banks / FIs - The borrower shall have satisfactory dealings with the
Bank for at least 3 years. The guaranteeing bank should have a fund based exposure to the party to the extent of
at least _ % of the amount guaranteed. Ans: 10% (5% in case of Infrastructure Projects)
53. Once the documents are executed by the borrower, limits are deemed to have been availed even though the
disbursement has not taken place. However, where disbursement from sanctioned limit has not been availed for a
period of _ from the date of documentation, from our bank/any member banks in the consortium/JLA, such cases
have to be taken up for revalidation of sanction with the sanctioning authority. Ans: 12 months
54.If the Borrower /guarantor/mortgagor makes any representation or raises any objection to the Demand Notice
on its receipt, and if such representation or objection is not acceptable or tenable to the bank, the Authorized
Officer shall communicate the reasons for not accepting the same to the concerned
Borrower/Guarantor/mortgagor within days from the date of receipt of such representation or objection. Ans: 15
(Fifteen)
55.If a partnership firm is unregistered, what is the effect: Ans: In case of dispute, unregistered partnership firms
cannot sue others, but other firm can sue the unregistered firm
56.For creation and modification of charges under Section 77, the time period has been reduced to 60 days i.e., 30
days of normal filing period and 30 days with additional fees. The provision of seeking extension of time under
Section 87 as per second proviso to section 77(1), is also modified, whereby a prohibitive ad valorem fees based
on the amount of charge be levied for creation / modification of charge beyond 60 days but within days: Ans:120
days from creation of charge.
57.A bank has sanctioned credit facility to a Company. The responsibility of getting the charge registered with
Registrar of Companies is that of : Ans: Borrowing Company.
58.Bank Guarantee is based on the legal concept of guarantee as contained in the Contract Act. Sec 126 of
Indian Contract Act, 1872 defines a contract of guarantee as: _ Ans: A contract to perform the promise, or
discharge the liability of a third person in case of his default.
59.Joint Liability Group is an informal group comprising of _ individuals coming together for the purpose of availing
bank loan on individual basis or through group mechanism against mutual guarantee. Ans: 4-10
60.Maximum Credit Limit permissible to Panchayat Level Federation (PLF) of SHGs is not to exceed Rs 50.00 lakhs
(On an average of Rs2.50 lakh per SHG in a PLF). PLF Loan to individual member of the SHG not to exceed Rs
Ans: Rs 50,000/-
62.Unsecured exposure is defined as an exposure where the realisable value of the security, as assessed by the
Bank /approved valuers / Reserve Bank‘s inspecting officers, is not more than ------ percent, ab-initio, of the
outstanding exposure. Ans. 10% ab initio(from beginning)
63.What is the Limitation period for filing suit for Personal liability of the mortgagor (borrower / guarantor) in
case of loans against mortgage of immovable properties except in case of Term Loans? Ans. 3 years from date of
agreement / acknowledgement of Promissory Note. It is not related to right to sale the mortgaged property and
only for personal liability based on loan agreement
64.In case of consortium accounts, Asset classification is done by: Ans. Individual banks based on recovery of dues
65. What does deferred payment guarantee mean? Ans. Deferred Payment Guarantee is a guarantee for a payment
usually on instalments which has been deferred or postponed. Banks issue DPG in the cases of purchase of
capital goods/machinery where the seller offers credit to the buyer and buyer's bank guarantees the due
payments to the seller. (Similar to Term Loans)
66.The key difference between a Term Loan and a Deferred payment guarantee lies with; Ans. Outlay of funds.
Term Loan is a fund-based facility where as deferred payment guarantee is a non-fund-based facility
67.What is the limitation period for documents in case of Term Loan? Ans. 3 years from the due date of each
instalment
68.Difference between Gross Working Capital and Positive Net Working Capital is: Ans: Current Liabilities
69.The Bank may extend finance to employees for purchasing shares of their own companies under ESOP to the
extent of 90% of the purchase price of the shares or Rs______, whichever is lower (not for bank employees for
acquisition of their bank’s shares). Ans: Rs.20 lakh
13. NPA & LEGAL ASPECT OF RECOVERY

1. As per the 25th issue of Financial Stability Report (FSR), released by RBI in June 2022, Scheduled Commercial
Banks’ gross non-performing assets (GNPA) ratio slipped to a six-year low from 7.4% in March 2021 to _____ per
cent in March 2022. The net non-performing assets (NNPA) ratio fell to ______ per cent in March 2022. Banks
have been able to lower the GNPA ratio through recoveries, write-offs, and slippage reductions. Ans 5.9 ; 1.7
2. Provisioning Coverage Ratio (PCR) is the proportion of funds set aside by a bank for bad debt losses. A high PCR
help banks to protect themselves against losses if NPAs begin to rise rapidly. As per the 25th issue of Financial
Stability Report (FSR), the PCR increased to ______ per cent in March 2022 from 67.6 per cent in March 2021.
Ans. 70.9
3. RBI had set up a Committee in April 2021 to undertake a comprehensive review of the working of Assets
Reconstruction Companies (ARCs) under the chairmanship of _____ and recommend suitable measuresfor
enabling them to function in a more transparent and efficient manner. Ans.Sudarshan Sen
4.RBI had set up a Committee in April 2021 to undertake a comprehensive review of the working of Assets
Reconstruction Companies (ARCs) under the chairmanship of Mr. Sudarshan Sen and recommended suitable
measures for enabling them to function in a more transparent and efficient manner. As per revised regulatory
framework of RBI, minimum net owned funds required for ARCs is Rs. ____ crore by March 31, 2024 and Rs.
_____ crore by March 31, 2026 .Ans. 200 ; 300
5.RBI has provided the glide path for the existing ARCs to achieve the minimum required Net Owned Funds criteria.
As per the guidelines, ARC from the current minimum NOF of Rs. 100 crore has to glide to Rs. _____ by March
31, 2024 and further to Rs. ____ crore by March 31, 2026. Ans.200 ; 300
6.RBI has decided under the provision of Section 10(2) of the SARFAESI Act to permit ARCs to undertake those
activities as a Resolution Applicant (RA) under IBC which are not specifically allowed under the SARFAESI Act.
This permission shall be subject to the condition that the ARC has a minimum NOF of Rs. ______ crore, and the
ARC shall have a Board-approved policy regarding taking up the role of RA which may include the scope of
activities, internal limit for sectoral exposures, etc. Ans.1000
7. In order to enable ARCs to garner investments from a broader set of Qualified Buyers (QBs) and foster healthy
competition among ARCs, RBI has stipulated an additional disclosure that has to be made in the offer document.
Which of the following is / correct stipulated conditions? Ans.-Summary of financial information of the ARC for last 5
years or since commencement of business of the ARC, whichever is shorter, Track record of returns generated for all
Security Receipt (SR) investors on the schemes floated in the last 8 years & Track record of recovery rating migration
and engagement with rating agency of schemes floated in the last 8 years.
8.ARCs can deploy the available surplus funds in short-term instruments viz., money market mutual funds,
certificates of deposit and corporate bonds/ commercial papers which have a short-term rating equivalent to the
long-term rating of AA- or above by an eligible CRA provided the maximum investment in such instruments is capped
at ____% of the NOF of the ARC. Ans.10%
9.ARCs can undertake those activities as a Resolution Applicant (RA) under IBC 2016 which are not specifically
allowed under the SARFAESI Act provided it has a minimum NOF of ₹____crore. Ans. Rs.1000 cr
10. Net Owned Funds of Asset Reconstruction Companies has been enhanced from Rs.100 crores to Rs.________ in
a phased manner by 31-03-2026. However, those Asset Reconstruction Companies (ARCs) which are allowed to act as
Resolution Applicant under Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code,2016 (IBC), Such ARCs should have NOF of Rs.1,000
crores.Ans: Rs.300 crores
11.Asset Reconstruction Companies (ARCs) shall by transferring funds invest in the Securitised Receipts (SRs) at a
minimum of either ______of the transferor’s investment in SRs or 2.5% of the total SRs issued whichever is higher.
Ans: 15%
12.Net Owned Funds of Asset Reconstruction Companies has been enhanced from Rs.100 crores to Rs.________ in a
phased manner by 31-03-2026. However, those Asset Reconstruction Companies (ARCs) which are allowed to act as
Resolution Applicant under Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code,2016 (IBC), Such ARCs should have NOF of Rs.1,000
crores.Ans: Rs.300 crores
13.Asset Reconstruction Companies (ARCs) shall by transferring funds invest in the Securitised Receipts (SRs) at a
minimum of either ______of the transferor’s investment in SRs or 2.5% of the total SRs issued whichever is higher.
Ans: 15%
14.For transfer of loans to ARCs, stressed loans which are in default for more than 60 days or classified as NPA for
________ (period) are permitted to be transferred to ARCs. Ans: more than One Year
15.In case of Sale of Assets to ARCs, a minimum of ____ % of the sale consideration should be in the form of cash
only and remaining in the form of Security Receipts. Ans: 15%.
17.Whenever Bank is transferring a stressed loan to ARCs, no fresh exposure shall be taken on the borrower till ____
months from the date of such transfer and thereafter GM-HO-CAC and above authorities only delegated to sanction
on the merit of proposalAns: 24 months.
18.Among the following which is not the objective of NPA recovery policy.- Sale of PA to ARCs
19.If the transferee(s), except ARCs, have no existing exposure to the borrower whose stressed loan account is
acquired, the acquired stressed loan shall be classified as “………… Asset” by the transferee(s) immediately after
transfer. Ans. Standard
20.Which class of stressed loans are permitted to be transferred to ARCs? Ans. Stressed loans which are in default for
more than 60 days or classified as NPA
21.Net Owned Fund (NOF) for ARCs shall be minimum of _________on an ongoing basis. Ans. Rs.100 crore
22. ARCs are required to obtain, the consent of secured creditors holding not less than ________% of the amount
outstanding to a borrower as against 75% hitherto for the purpose of enforcement of security interest. Ans.60%
23.The chairperson of committee constituted by RBI, to undertake a comprehensive review of the working of ARCs
is? c. Mr. Sudarshan Sen
24.RBI has provided the glide path for the existing ARCs to achieve the minimum required Net Owned Funds
criteria. As per the guidelines, ARC from the current minimum NOF of Rs. 100 crore has to glide to Rs. _____ by
March 31, 2024 and further to Rs. ____ crore by March 31, 2026. Ans.200 ; 300
25.As per the revised ARCs framework, ARCs shall by transferring funds invest in the Security Receipts (SRs) at a
minimum of either ____% of the transferors’ investment in the SRs or _____% of the total SRs issued, whichever is
higher, of each class of SRs issued by them under each scheme on an ongoing basis till the redemption of all the SRs
issued under such scheme. Ans.12.5 ; 2
26.RBI has decided under the provision of Section 10(2) of the SARFAESI Act to permit ARCs to undertake those
activities as a Resolution Applicant (RA) under IBC which are not specifically allowed under the SARFAESI Act. This
permission shall be subject to the condition that the ARC has a minimum NOF of Rs. ______ crore, and the ARC shall
have a Board-approved policy regarding taking up the role of RA which may include the scope of activities, internal
limit for sectoral exposures, etc. Ans.1000
27. In order to enable ARCs to garner investments from a broader set of Qualified Buyers (QBs) and foster
healthy competition among ARCs, RBI has stipulated an additional disclosure that has to be made in the offer
document. Which of the following is / correct stipulated conditions?
28. Net Owned Fund (NOF) for ARCs shall be minimum ofRs. _____ croreon an ongoing basis. Ans. 100
29. The minimum net owned funds (NOF) requirement has been increased by RBI for ARCs from Rs.100 cr to
___ crore on an ongoing basis. Ans. 300
30. ARCs can deploy the available surplus funds in short-term instruments viz., money market mutual funds,
certificates of deposit and corporate bonds/ commercial papers which have a short-term rating equivalent to the
long-term rating of AA- or above by an eligible CRA provided the maximum investment in such instruments is
capped at ____% of the NOF of the ARC. Ans.10%
31.ARCs can undertake those activities as a Resolution Applicant (RA) under IBC 2016 which are not specifically
allowed under the SARFAESI Act provided it has a minimum NOF of ₹____crore. Ans. Rs.1000 cr
32.Demand Notice under SARFAESI Act, sec 13(2) will be issued by Authorised Officer to discharge liability with in
60 days. In case the notice is served by e mail, confirmatory copy may be sent through ______ Ans: Regd Post.
33.In case of Doubtful/Loss Asset with Book liability exceeding Rs._______, we may avail services of Resolution
Agent for taking possession under Sec 13(4) of SARFAESI. Ans: Rs 50 lacs
34. As per the newly introduced Section 17 (4-A) of the SARFAESI Act (As per2016 amendment), ________ are
empowered to decide on the issues related to tenancy/lease and no other Courts/Judicial Forums has the
jurisdiction to entertain any such litigations. Ans: DRTs
35.Purchase of Non Banking Assets by Bank under SARFAESI, after serving 13(2) notice and taking physical
possession under SARFAESI Act and after sale notice and public auction failed atleast once for want of bidders, bank
may purchase the non banking asset under sec 13(5)A of SARFAESI Act for the _____ Price. Ans: Reserve Price
36.What are the eligible accounts to initiate recovery action under SARFAESI Act2002: Ans: NPA a/c Claim not less
than Rs.1 lakh, Amount due is more than 20% of Principle & interest thereon and where security interest is
registered with CERSAI.
37.While proceeding under SARFAESI, If property is more than Rs. , Two valuations are required by SARFAESI
empanelled valuers. Ans: Rs.5 crores
38.Under SARFAESI Act, Borrower has right to file appeal in DRT with in 45 days of possession of secured assets
{u/s 13(4)} by depositing % of claim amount. Ans: NIL.
39.In case of Consortium/>1 bank involved, 13(2) demand notice under SARFAESI may be sent independently by
each bank. However, for 13(4) possession notice, mandatory requirement of consent of _ % of lenders with value
is required. Ans: 60% of creditors with value
40.For selling secured asset through Private Treaty under SARFAESI, atleast one attempt should be made through
Public Auction for Reserve Price upto Rs.100 lacs and atleast attempts should be made if reserve price is more than
Rs.100 lacs. Ans: Two
41. For taking action under SARFAESI, the bank has to give demand notice of days under Sec 13(2) of the SARFAESI
Act: Ans: 60 days.
42.Which section of SARFAESI Act mandates DM/CMM to deliver possession of a security asset within 30 days,
extendable to an aggregate of 60 days to secured creditors? Ans. Section 14. However, the Supreme Court has held
that a provision of the SARFAESI Act empowering District Magistrates to take possession of secured assets of
defaulting borrowers for handing them over to the lending FIs was “directory” and not “mandatory” in nature as
banks cannot be made to suffer for the delay on the part of the government officers
Hypothecation is defined in which act? Ans. SARFAESI Act
43. For being eligible to proceed under SARFAESI Act, the amount claimable from the borrower (including the
accrued interest) should be not less than _____.- Rs 1 lakh
44. For being eligible to proceed under SARFAESI Act, the amount due should be more than ____ of the Principal
Amount and interest there on.- 20%
45. Under Section 14 of SARFAESI Act, CMM or DM is bound to take possession of secured assets and hand over such
assets to the Bank within a period of ______ from the date of application.- 30 days
46.As per SARFAESI Act, possession notice should be published in two leading newspapers within _______ of taking
possession, out of which one should be in vernacular language, having sufficient circulation in the locality.- 7 days
47.Wherever the original value of any one of the individual mortgaged security is more than ________, valuation
from two independent valuers on the panel (SARFAESI) of the bank should be obtained for fixation of reserve price.-
Rs 5 Crore
48.If the valuation, which is obtained after the account becoming NPA is more than one year old, fresh valuation
should be obtained through SARFAESI empaneled valuer before going for e-auction. If the variation in Realisable
Value between new and immediate previous valuation is more than ____ then Reserve Price shall be fixed by next
higher authority.
49. As per SARFAESI act, the borrower has a right to file an appeal in the DRT within a period of _____ from the
date of possession of secured assets.- 45 days
50.What is the fee payable to SARFAESI agents for Pre inspection/Pre Seizure Activities?
51.What is the fee payable to SARFAESI agents for obtaining orders from Magistrate (District Magistrate/ Chief
Metropolitan Magistrate / Chief Judicial Magistrate) in case of need and to assist Authorized Officer for taking
possession?
51. There is no need to take the services of SARFAESI Agents for taking Symbolic Possession. In case their services
are utilized, then a consolidated sum of _______ will be paid.- Rs 5000
52.What is the fee payable to SARFAESI agents for assistance in taking actual possession of immovable properties
and for preparing the inventory and panchanama and other incidental services required for publishing the
possession notice?
53.The aggregate amount so payable to the SARFAESI agents for his assistance to the Authorised Officer in taking
possession of the secured asset, including any extra ordinary expenses, shall not exceed _______ or ____ of the
Reserve Price fixed for the property whichever is less.- Rs 500000, 2%
54. An additional incentive of ____ or ______ whichever is less may be permitted to SARFAESI agents for recovery
made within ______ from the date of entrustment of the case.- 0.25%, Rs 100000, 6 months
55.Any person including a SARFAESI Agent / Recovery Agents/Ex-Employee of Canara Bank, who brings a
successful bidder is entitled to _____ of realized value of the property or contractual liability whichever is less
with minimum of ____ upto a maximum of ______-1.00%, Rs 5000, Rs 200000
56.In accounts wherein the liability is less than ______, Circle may take a suitable decision for conducting auction
under SARFAESI act in online/offline mode- Rs 4 lakhs
57.Which accounts are not eligible to transfer to ARM branch – Ans. Accounts in which Fraud is already reported,
Accounts settled under OTS and due date of payment are not over or OTS amount fully recovered, Accounts
which are not within reasonable distance from ARM Branches for operational/ follow up convenience, Accounts
having Book Liability of Less than Rs. 50.00 lakh, if not eligible for SARFAESI Action & 5Accounts having NFB
Liabilities, yet to be crystallised.
58.To protect the interest of the Bank, notice under SARFAESI Act to be issued by the authorized officer within
……. days of account becoming NPA.- 3
59.Who is Authorized officer to issue notice under SARFAESI Act 2002.- Scale IV and above officials.
60.Securities exempted from proceeding under the SARFAESI Act. Find out the wrong one!
61.Action under SARFAESI act extend the limitation period for advance.- Action not enough, suit have to be filed
62.As per SARFAESI Act demand notice is issued under Section ……. to borrower to discharge/regularizes his
liabilities within …. Days.- 13(2) , 60
63. Under SARFAESI Act, for doubtful and loss accounts with book liability exceeding Rs 50 Lakhs. Authorized
officer may utilize the services of,- Resolution agent empanelled by bank
64. If borrower/mortgagor is not cooperative in taking of possession of securities under Sarfaesi Act, the branch
shall take help of DM/CMM as per ……………. Of the act.- Section 14
65.Under section ……… of SARFAESI Act empowers banks to take possession of the charged movable and immovable
assets..- Section 13(4)
66.Va luation from two independent SARFAESI Values to be obtained when the original value of the mortgaged
security exceeds-5 Crore
67. Se ction 17 of the SARFAESI act refers to- File application in DRT
68.Se ction 18 of the SARFAESI refer to- File application in DRAT against order of DRT.
69.Cersai is established under which act ……………..- Sarfaesi Act
70.As per the Sarfaesi Act, section 13(5)A pertains to.- Purchase of non-banking assets.
i. Accounts having Book Liability of more than Rs. 50.00 lakhs, if not eligible for SARFAESI Action.
71.As per the RBI guidelines on responsibilities of Regulated Entities employing recovery agents, it should be
ensured by Banks that, the agents should not call the borrower before________ and after _________for recovery
of dues. Ans. 8:00 am and 7:00 p.m.
72.Entrustment of Recovery cases to Recovery Agents: RO head with liability upto Rs.____ and beyond this CO
Head will entrust. Ans: Rs.50 lakhs
73.Recovery Agents should not resort to intimidation or harassment of any kind eith er verbal or physical against
any person or call the borrower ____________ in their debt collection efforts.- before 8:00 am and after 7:00 pm
74.Who is empowered to empanel Recovery Agents?- Circle Head
75. To empanel retired employees of Government/PSUs (other than PSBs) as recovery agents, they have to
undergo, _____ training conducted by IIBF or their affiliated institutes and obtain certificate to that effect.- 100
hours
76. Company/LLP/NBFC who are having presence throughout India can be empanelled as Pan India recovery
agents.Such recovery agents have to give a Bank guarantee or EMD or deposit or approved security for an amount
equivlanet to _______.- Rs 5 lakh
77. If Recovery Agent is also engaged for assisting the Bank for sale of the asset by identifying the buyer, Bank
may pay Recovery Agents up to ____ subject to a maximum of _____of net sale price or liability whichever is
less.- 5%, Rs 25000
78.Which statement is incorrect in respect of maximum fee payable to recovery agents towards recovery of dues
under persuasive method?- 2% of amount payable for recovery in substandard accounts
79. Maximum fees payable to recovery agents in case of settlement of account by way of compromise is 50%. In
such cases step up fee is payable if the assignment for recovery is _________.- more than 5 borrower
80. What is the maximum Step-up Fees payable to recovery agents in cases of resolution/ recovery is done within
a time frame of 3-6 months?- Rs 5 lakh
81.Maximum fees payable to recovery agents in case of seizure of two wheeler and auto rickshaw is _______and
_______ respectively.- Rs 2000, Rs 3000
82.Maximum fees payable to recovery agents in case of seizure of car and bus is _______and _______
respectively.
83.As per the RBI guidelines on responsibilities of Regulated Entities employing recovery agents,it should be
ensured by Res that, the agents should not call the borrower before_______ am and after __________pm for
recovery of dues.Ans. 8:00 a.m and 7:00 p.m.
84.As per RBI directions on responsibilities of regulated entities employing Recovery Agents, such recovery agents
cannot call borrowers before ____ am and after ___ pm?Ans. 8.00 am, 7.00 pm
85. In order to get categorized as Financially Sound and Well Managed (FSWM), the Net NPA of Urban Cooperative
Banks should not exceed_______ Ans.3%
86. RBI’s NPA guidelines provide that ‘previous 90days period’ for determination of ‘out of order’ status of a CC/OD
account shall be inclusive of the day for which: Ans. day-end process is being run.
87.As per NPA guidelines of RBI, in case of borrowers having more than one credit facility from a lending
institution, loan accounts shall be upgraded from NPA to standard asset category only upon repayment of entire
____ arrears of :Ans. Interest and principal in all credit facilities
88.For the financial statements for the year ending March 31, 2023, banks shall make suitable disclosures if the
additional provisioning for non-performing assets (NPAs) assessed by the RBI exceeds ____ per cent of the reported
profit before provisions and contingencies for the reference period; Ans. 10%
89.For the financial statements for the year ending March 31, 2023, banks shall make suitable disclosures if the
additional Gross NPAs identified by the RBI exceed ___ per cent of the reported incremental Gross NPAs for the
reference period. Ans. 10%
90.Commercial banks shall disclose the details of divergence made by them while disclosing their annual gross
profit and asset classification (NPAs) in their financial statements if the same is identified by RBI. Banks have to
disclose the details of the same in financial statements; if the divergence in reported profit before provisions and
contingencies exceeds ______and Reported incremental Gross NPA exceeds _______with effect from March 31,
2024. b. 5%, 5%
91. For the financial statements for the year ending March 31, 2023, banks shall make suitable disclosures if the
additional provisioning for non-performing assets (NPAs) assessed by the RBI exceeds ____ per cent of the reported
profit before provisions and contingencies for the reference period; Ans. 10%
92. For the financial statements for the year ending March 31, 2023, banks shall make suitable disclosures if the
additional Gross NPAs identified by the RBI exceed ___ per cent of the reported incremental Gross NPAs for the
reference period. Ans. 10%
93. What is the Jurisdiction of District Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission and State Consumer Disputes
Redressal Commission :Ans: Upto Rs.50 lakhs (for District), Above Rs.50 lakhs to Rs.200 lakhs (for State).
94.Appeal to State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission with in 45 days by depositing _____ % of amount. Ans:
50%
95.Any aggrieved person against orders of DRT may approach DRAT with in 30 days from the date of receipt of DRT
orders. Borrower has to deposit 50% of dues with DRAT which may be reduced to _____ by DRAT. Ans: 25%
96.Who is the adjudicating authority under IBC for insolvency proceedings in case of individuals and partnership
firms? Ans. DRT
97. Cases can be filed to DRT where claim is _____ and above.- Rs 20 lakhs
98.Wherever, Securities (immovable properties) are insufficient to cover contractual dues, at the time of filing DRT
Case, detective agency should be engaged in all the cases where Book Liability is _______- Rs 50 lakhs and above
99.DRAT entertain appeal by borrower, only if the borrower deposit _____ of his dues (either as claimed by the
Bank or determined by the DRT, whichever is less) with the DRAT. DRAT can reduce such amount to not less than
_____ of the debt.- 50%, 25%
100. The Advocate who has filed the Vakalatnama in case of recovery made by filing EPs/Execution of RCs in DRT &
non DRT decreed cases, incentive over and over the scheduled fee for filing suit is payable. What is the incentive
amount?
101.The Advocate who has filed the Vakalatnama in case of decree obtained within 6 months from the date of filing
case in DRT, incentive over and over the scheduled fee for filing suit is payable. What is the incentive amount?
102. Account in which decree is obtained within 6 months from the date of filling case in DRT. Incentive payable to
the advocate over and above his normal fees will be.- 20% of the entitled Fees shall be paid over and above the
schedule fees.
103. "U nder DRT, Where cases are filed and Decree is pending and recovery certificate is yet to be issued. Net
Present Value (NPV) should be of how many years."- 3
104.The time limit for payment of compromise amount may not ordinarily exceed a tenure of _______ from the
date of conveying the OTS sanction. Ans: 12 to 18 months
105.Upon payment of OTS amount, the name of borrower will appear in records of CICs for ___ years with remark
as “settled”. Ans: 7 years.
106. The compromise amount carry interest at One Year MCLR (prevailing on 01.04.2022) plus _______ from the due
date of OTS sanction or first installment due (if OTS permitted in installments) till the date of final payment.-
1.50% (Simple)
107. In respect of OTS proposals which have lapsed due to non-payment / part payment and or withdrawn and a
period of _______ have elapsed from the due date, any request for revival of such proposals may be treated as
fresh proposal.
108. Recovery in NPA accounts in case of OTS/NCLT/TWO & Accounts covered by Government Guarantees and
Subsidy if any, shall be appropriated in the order of- Principal, Charges and Interest
109.Recovery in NPA accounts other than OTS/NCLT/TWO & Accounts covered by Government Guarantees and
Subsidy, shall be appropriated in the order of- Charges, Interest and Principal
110.Accounts with book liability of Rs.1.00 crore & above, where securities are available to cover the dues, any OTS
proposal falling under branch/RO/CO CAC should be placed before ……………….. for sanction. Except for any special
OTS scheme.- GM/CGM-HO-CAC
111.Am ount payable by the guarantor/obligant for releasing them from personal guarantee in loan, with or without
release of security where RVS of the security amount in name of guarantor/obligant is sufficient to cover the dues.
Recover full amount. However, where the parties are paying less than the contractual / decretal dues under OTS,
at least Book Liability + Simple interest at …………..% p.a. should be recovered."- MCLR + 1.50% p.a.
112. "T he value of security should be as per the valuation report given by approved valuer which should not be
more than …………. year old as on the date of the compromise/ OTS proposal."-1
113.Bo rrower approaches branch for OTS of write off account with amount more than 50 % of book liability. Who is
the delegated authority for settlement of such account?- CO Head CAC
114. In respect of special OTS schemes which are schematic and are non-discretionary the Branch manager is
empowered to settle the loans as per the guidelines , the same is to be submitted to review to ……..within……..
Days of the succeeding month.- RO , 7
115.De legated authority to permit One Time Settlement (OTS) to write off account where OTS amount offered is
less than 50 % of book liability.- RO-Head-CAC
116."D elegated power to GM/CGM –CO- CAC for condonation of delay in making payment of compromise amount of
OTS permitted by MC of the board. "- No Powers
117.What is the formula for calculation of base Amount as per OTS Scheme?-(Amount disbursed) + (expenses) –
(recoveries made) – (amount of relief underADW&DR Scheme )
118.As per IBC-2016, Appointment of Resolution Professional with 66% vote share of Committee of Creditors (CoC).
However, Process of withdrawal altogether by ____ % vote share of CoC. Ans: 90%
119.Under IBC-2016, Consent of ____% of Financial Creditors to be obtained by Corporate Debtor for Pre-Packaged
Insolvency Resolution Plan and for Resolution Professional approval. Ans: 66%
120.If the quantum of claim admitted is less than or equal to Rs 50 crore, the minimum fees structure per Borrower
(not per account) for the Interim Resolution Professional/Resolution Professional (appointed on or after 01.10.2022)
according to provisions of Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (Insolvency Resolution Process for Corporate
Persons), shall be ___________.a. Rs 1 lakh per month b. Rs 2 lakh per month c. Rs 3 lakh per month d. Rs 4 lakh
per month
121.The performance-linked incentive fee for value maximisation may be paid to the resolution professional at the
rate of ________ of the amount by which the realizable value is higher than the liquidation value. -1.00 per cent
121.Adjudicating Authority may on an application made by the resolution professional,on the basis of a resolution
passed by the Committee of Creditors, by a vote of ____of voting shares may extend completion of resolution
process but not exceeding_______.-66%, 90 days
122.Recovery Agent has to undergo, ____ hours training conducted by IIBF or their affiliated institutes or our STC,
Bangalore. For retired employees of PSBs, training exempted. Ans: 100 hours
123.If Recovery Agent assists Bank for sale of Asset by identifying buyer, Bank pays 5% of sale amount with max
Rs.______ to Recovery Agent. Ans: Rs.25,000/-
124.What is the amount payable to Recovery agent in respect of Loss Accounts/Bad Debts W/O. Ans: 10% of amt
recovered subject to a maximum of Rs. 5.00 Lacs.
125.What is the fee payable to Recovery Agent for seizure of Heavy Vehicles/Bus/Lorry : Ans: Rs.10,000/- (RO head
may permit additional Rs.4,000/- basing on need)
126. To cover the risk in engaging Recovery Agent, individual has to give a Bank guarantee or EMD or deposit or
approved security for an amount equivalent to _______ in case of other than retired employees (either for seizing
the vehicles/tractors, etc. or for assisting the Bank for recovery under persuasive method or both).- Rs 1 lakh
127. To cover the risk in engaging Recovery Agent, individual has to give a Bank guarantee or EMD or deposit or
approved security for an amount equivalent to _________ in case of retired government employees/ retired
employees of PSUs including our Bank.- Rs 50000
128. If Recovery Agent assists the Bank in selling the vehicles and identified purchaser, Circle Head may permit up
to ____ subject to a maximum of _____of net sale price or liability whichever is less.- 5%, Rs 25000
129. As per the Outsourcing policy of the bank, new recovery agent at the time of joining have to give security
deposit of …………. .and for retired employees of PSU / bank it is…………….... Rs 1 Lakhs , Rs 50000.00
130.M aximum fees payable to recovery agent for amount recovered made in doubtful assets is-5 % of amount
subject to maximum amount of Rs 5.00 Lakhs
131.Permanent Lok Adalats are Similar to Lok Adalats and deal cases with civil matters falls with in value of Rs.
_____ . They can pass award even in parties in dispute does fail to arrive an agreement . Ans: Rs.1.00 crore.
132.What is the extent of loan amount that can be referred to Lok Adalat: Ans: Upto Rs.20 lakhs
133.Permanent Lok Adalats are empowered to entertain the matters of civil and criminal in nature, provided, the
value of such civil matter falls within ______ and the criminal dispute is compoundable in nature.- Rs 1 crore
134.Aw ard of the Lok Adalat is final and binding to all parties of the dispute. Appeal against the Lok Adalat award
can be done in which court.- No appeal against the award can be filed.
135.Which state has introduced the first digital Lok Adalat in the country? Ans. Rajastan
136.Corporate Debtors defaulting in repayment of Rs 1 Crore and above can invoke Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code
- 2016 (IBC) provisions. For Individuals and unlimited Partnerships, code applies for default of Rs._____ and above.
Ans: Rs 1000/-
137.As per IBC-2016, Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (CIRP) should mandatorily be completed with in a
period of _____ days from the insolvency commencement date. Ans: 330 days
138.Pre-Packaged Insolvency Resolution Process [PIRP] under IBC-2016 – Corporate Debtors classified as MSMEs with
minimum default of Rs.10.00 lacs are eligible under PIRP. Central Govt may enhance the eligibility to Rs.______
Ans: Rs 1.00 crore
139.Pre-Packaged Insolvency Resolution Process shall be completed within a period of _____ days. Ans: 120 days.
140.Which act / section allows RBI to direct Banks in matters related to initiation of insolvency proceedings against
specific borrowers under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (IBC) for resolution of stressed assets? Ans.
Section 35AA of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949
141.Pre-pack resolution plans have to be submitted within a period of _ _ by the stake holders and the NCLT will
have another days to approve them. Thus, the pre-packaged insolvency resolution process shall be completed
within a period of _ from the pre-packaged insolvency commencement date. Ans. 90 days, 30 days and 120 days
142.Provisions for Performance Linked Incentive has been made under the IBC Regulations.In which case no
incentive is payable to Resolution Profession? - If insolvency commencement date is more than 330 days
143. Provisions for Performance Linked Incentive has been made under the IBC Regulations.In which case maximum
incentive is payable to Resolution Profession?- If insolvency commencement date is less than or equal to 165 days
144. The provisions relating to the insolvency and liquidation of corporate debtors areapplicable only when the
amount of the default is _______ rupees or more. -one lakh
145.The Central Government may, by notification, provisions relating to the insolvency and liquidation of corporate
debtors, may specify the minimum amount of default of higher value which shall not be more than ________
rupees.-one crore
146. The Central Government has specified Rs ______ as the minimum amount of default for the matters relating to
the pre-packaged insolvency resolution process ofcorporate debtor under Chapter IIIA of the IBC.-ten lakhs
147.Under IBC “insolvency resolution process period” means the period of __________beginning from the insolvency
commencement date.- 180 days
148. Which of the following entity cannot file application under Fast track insolvency resolution process?-Ans. . A
listed company with a maximum turnover of Rs. 50 crore
149. President of India promulgated the IBC Amendment Ordinance 2021, allowing the use of Pre-Pack Insolvency
Resolution Process (PPIRP) for Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) with defaults of Rs. ____ lakh and
above under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code. Ans. 10
150.On 4 April 2021, President of India promulgated the IBC Amendment Ordinance 2021, allowing the use of Pre-
Pack Insolvency Resolution Process (PPIRP) for Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) with defaults of Rs.
____ lakh and above under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code. Ans. 10
151.Under Pre-Pack Insolvency Resolution Process (PPIRP) for Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs), before
submitting a resolution plan to the NCLT, it must be approved by at least _____% of the creditors who are unrelated
to the corporate debtor. Furthermore, it is up to the NCLT to reject or accept any application for a pre-pack
insolvency proceeding before considering a petition.Ans. 66
152. Under Pre-Pack Insolvency Resolution Process (PPIRP) for Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs), the
pre-pack is limited to a maximum of _____ days and ____ days will be provided to the stakeholders to bring in the
resolution plan to the NCLT. Ans. 120 ; 90
153.As per compromise settlement guidelines of the Bank applicable to Non Wilful defaulters, if the realisable
value of the security is sufficient to cover the contractual/decretal dues, what is the minimum settlement amount
to be recovered: Ans: Atleast Book Liability + Simple Interest @MCLR(as on 01st April)+1.50% p.a.
154.In case of delay beyond permissible period for payment of Compromise amount, what is the rate of interest
payable by borrower: Ans: 1 yr MCLR+1.5% simple int. (normally 3 months with out int. CO head CAC may extend to
6 months with outint)
155.Normally Branches have to collect ______ % of compromise amount upfront at the time of entering compromise
proposal. Ans: 10 to 15%
156.As per compromise settlement in respect of Agricultural NPAs upto Rs.25 lakhs, what is the settlement formula
for SS and DA1 assets: Ans: Minimum 80% of Book Liability in case of Restructured accounts, min.90% book liability
for Non Restructured accounts.
157. Which is non legal method of recovery.- Settlement through compromise
158. Bank has formulated a Compromise Policy setting out guideline"s which were approved by the Board of
directors on ………11.12.1993
159. "As per the compromise policy matrix for non-wilful defaulters, maximum points allotted in case where the
Realisable Value of Security (RVS) of security is sufficient to cover the contractual/decretal dues "-8
160. "As per the compromise policy matrix for non-wilful defaulters, in case where the RVS of security and net
worth of borrower is sufficient to cover the dues. The minimum settlement amount will be sufficient to cover the
contractual"
161. In case of compromise settlement matrix for Willful defaulter, point allotted and
compromise amount as per matrix when the value when the RVS of security and net worth of the borrower/
guarantor is sufficient to cover the dues.- "6, At least Book Liability + Simple interest at MCLR + 1.50% p.a. should be
recovered.
162.Un der Compromise proposal for settlement, the unapplied interest on doubtful assets (except decreed
account) is calculated as at One Year MCLR prevailing on 01.04.2022 minus ……. % or contractual rate including panel
rate (whichever is lower) on simple basis.- 1.50%
163. All compromise proposals involving total sacrifice of Rs one crore and above and for proposals for fixing
reserve price in respect of sale of assets to ARC/ Banks involving sacrifice should be examined by Advisory
committee. Member of the committee are - Two retired High Court Judges, two former bankers not below the rank
of ED of nationalized bank or Deputy managing direct of SBI and one member from external agencies.
164.As per Canara MSME CAP (Credit Against Property) scheme, maximum loan quantum of Rs.20 crore for
Manufacturing unit and Rs.10 crore for Service Unit is eligible with collateral comfort wherein select Rural Properties
are also accepted(150% of loanamount), provided they are located with in ____ kms radius from Metro/Urban city or
with in ____ kms radius of Semi-urban city: Ans: 20kms, 10 kms.
165.As per Banking Code and Standard Board of India (BCSBI) guidelines, what is the prudent time to call a person
for recovery of Banks dues: Ans: Between 7.00 AM to 7.00 PM.
166. Tenure of MD/ CEO or WTD of Asset Reconstruction Company, shall not be for a period of more than ___
years at a time and the individual shall be eligible for re appointment. Ans. 5 years
167. Report from Central Economic Intelligence Bureau to be sought for exposures above Rs.________ in respect
of all prospective borrowers and also wherever the borrowal account with an amount exceeding Rs. ______ slips
to NPA. Ans: Rs. 50 crore; Rs. 50 crore
168. For a property with assessed value/ reserve price Rs________ at least, two attempts should be made to sell
the property through public auction/ auction by inviting tenders,before opting for sale by private treaty. Ans:
above Rs 100.00 lakhs
169. For internal purpose, Unapplied interest is calculated for Doubtful Assets @ ____Ans: 1year MCLR(01st April)
– 1.50% or contractual rate with penal whichever islower(simple int.)
170. All proposals involving total sacrifice of Rupees one crore & above should be examined by Advisory
Committee which consists of 2 Retired High Court Judges, 2 former Bankers not below rank of ED of a
Nationalised Bank, one from external agencies – total 5 members. What is the quorum and who is Chairman of
this committee: Ans: Quorum is 2 members incl.one HC Retd Judge. Chairman is Senior most HC Judge in the
committee.
171. Bank provides concessions / reliefs to units during the Restructuring package implementation period and
can recoup whole / a part of the sacrificed amount by way of ______ Ans: Right of Recompense (RoR).
172. .Bank may write off advances at HO level for availing tax benefits, even though the relative advances are
still outstanding in the branch books. This is called as: Ans: Prudential / Technical Write Off.
173. Accounts recommended for writing off should have completed ___ years or more from the date of advance
and continuing as NPA for a minimum period of 3 years and classified as Loss Asset on 31st March preceding year.
Ans: 5 years
174. All NPA accounts of Rs.____ lakhs and above are to be invariably examined from Wilful default angle. Ans:
25 lakhs
175. In case any falsification of accounts, if auditors are negligent, complaint may be lodged with_____, copy
endorsed to RBI and IBA. Ans: ICAI
176. .Bank has to lodge criminal complaint against Wilful Defaulter with State CID/CBI after review by Grievance
Redressal Committee. If liability is more than Rs.3 crores and upto Rs.25 crores complaint is to be lodged with
_____ Ans: CBI Economic Offences Wing.
177. Borrower with liability of Rs.5 cr and above, who does not engage constructively with his lender by
defaulting in timely repayment of dues while having ability to pay, thwarts lender recovery efforts, denying
access to assets financed/collateral securities, obstructs sale of securities is termed as ______ Ans: Non Co
Operative Borrower
178. What is the fee payable for Resolution Agents in respect of Recovery in Doubtful assets outstanding with
less than or equal to 5 years old NPA accounts. Ans: 5 % of the recovery amount / book liability whichever is less
subject to maximum of Rs.12.00 lacs
179. As per Section 9 of BR Act, no banking company shall hold any immovable property howsoever acquired,
except such as is required for its own use, for any period exceeding _______ years from the acquisition. RBI may
extend by another 5 years. Ans: seven years
180. Branches having NPA level of more than 5% under any retail lending schemes have no powers to sanction
the loans under the scheme and such proposals have to be sanctioned by _ authorities upto their delegated
powers. Ans: RO Head CAC and above (RAH can not sanction mortgage loans also if branch RL NPA level more
than 5%)
181. What is the provision to be made for a DA-II Advance with outstanding Rs.50.00 Lakhs and the value of
security is Rs.40.00 Lakhs? Ans. Rs. 16.00 Lakhs @ 40% of secured portion + Rs.10.00 Lakhs @ 100% of unsecured
portion = Rs.26.00 Lakhs
182. What is the limitation period for execution of a decree? Ans.12 Years from the date of decree
183. In the case where there is erosion in the value of security and the realisable value of the security is less
than 50 per cent of the value (more than 10%) assessed by the bank or accepted by RBI at the time of last
inspection, as the case may be, such NPAs may be straightaway classified under category. Ans. Doubtful Asset
184. In which section recovery provisions invoked where cheques issued towards repayment of debt is
dishonoured for want of funds?- Section 138 of N I Act
185. If the borrower raises any objection to the Demand Notice on its receipt, and if such objection is not
acceptable to the bank, the Authorized Officer shall communicate the reasons for not accepting the same to the
concerned Borrower within _____ from the date of receipt of such objection.- 15 days
186. If the borrower fails to discharge his liability in full within _____ from the date of receipt of demand
notice, Bank can take possession of the secured asset of the borrower.- 60 days
187. In the case of Doubtful and Loss Accounts with book liability exceeding _____, the Authorized Officer may
utilize the service of Resolution Agents empanelled with the Bank in taking possession of the movable properties.-
Rs 50 lakhs
188. In respect of securities of immovable properties which were valued at more than _____ at the time of last
sanction /renewal and the reduction in the present value is more than ____ of the same, 2 valuation reports
should be obtained for fixing reserve price.- Rs 1 Crore, 30%
189. For a property with assessed value/ reserve price above _____ at least, two attempts should be made to
sell the property through public auction/ auction by inviting tenders, before opting for sale by private treaty.- Rs
100 lacs
190. If the Authorized Officer fails to conduct the sale of the immovable property by any of the methods, sale
can be conducted again by the Authorized Officer by serving, affixing and publishing notice of sale of not less than
_____ to the borrower in case there is no change.- 15 days
I. Minimum Rs.2500/- and Maximum Rs.5000/-Minimum Rs.10000/- and Maximum
Rs.30000/-
II. Upto Rs 50000
191. -2% of actual recovery subject to maximum of Rs. 1.50 Lacs
192. -20% of the entitled Fees shall be paid over and above the Schedule of Fees
193. The Advocate who has filed the Vakalatnama in case of decree passed /RC issued within 12 months from
the date of filing the suit, incentive over and over the scheduled fee for filing suit is payable. What is the
incentive amount?
194. -10% of the entitled Fees shall be paid over and above the Schedule of Fees
195. . Wilful Defaulters are debarred from institutional finance for floating new ventures for a period of _____
from the date of removal of their names from the list of willful defaulters published/ disseminated by RBI/CICs.- 5
years
196. Recovery committee formed at Head Office comprise ______-6 wing heads
197. Which statement is correct? Accounts recommended for write off ______
198. Ans. should have completed 5 years or more from the date of advance, should be continuing as NPA for a
minimum period of 3 years & should be classified as Loss Asset on 31st March preceding year-
199. The decision to identify Wilful Default cases is taken by a committee of higher functionaries. The
committee consists ____- Executive Director and two GMs/DGMs as decided by the concerned Bank
200. Representation against the decision of identification of willful defaulter is heared by another committee
consisting ____- Managing Director & CEO and include two other senior officials
201. If the borrowe with liability of Rs.25 lacs and above upto Rs.3.00 crs, is classified as Wilful Defaulters by
Grievance Redressal Committee (GRC), Criminal proceeding should be initiated by lodging complaints to______
202. -Senior officer of the State CID/ Economic Offences Wing of the State concerned.
203. . If the borrowe with liability of Rs.3 cr and above upto Rs.25.00 crs, is classified as Wilful Defaulters by
Grievance Redressal Committee (GRC), Criminal proceeding should be initiated by lodging complaints to______-
CBI (Economic Offences Wing)
204. If the borrowe with liability of more than 25.00 crs, is classified as Wilful Defaulters by Grievance
Redressal Committee (GRC), Criminal proceeding should be initiated by lodging complaints to______-CBI Banking
Security and Fraud Cell unit
205. In classifying a borrower as non-cooperative, borrowers should have aggregate fundbased & non-fund based
facilities of _______ or more.- Rs 50 million
206. Bank should report information on their non- cooperative borrowers to Central Repository of Information on
Large Credits(CRILC) under CRILC Main returns every quarter within ______ from the close of the relevant
quarter.- 21 days
207. Publication of photographs of willful defaulter should be considered only in "exceptional circumstances”
and is restricted to "wilful defaulters" with a liability above ______.- Rs ten lakhs
208. Publication of Photographs and details of Wilful Defaulters and names of the guarantors in newspapers, can
be permitted by ______- DGM of the Circle
209. The Person and/ or all the entities taken together have combined loan outstanding (FB+NFB) of not less than
______ from the Bank where a fraud is reported, is the indicative basis and trigger for making of request for
opening of look out circular. Ans. .Rs 10 crore
210. The Person and/ or all the entities taken together have combined loan outstanding (FB+NFB) of not less
than _______ from the Banking industry in case of consortium/multiple Banking or from our Bank in case of sole
banking, is theindicative basis and trigger for making of request for opening of look out circular.- Rs 50 cror
211. The RO Head, is delegated with the power to entrust Recovery/Seizure Agent NPAaccounts under doubtful,
loss and written off category with book liability up to _____ per account.- Rs 100 lakh
212. What is the fee payable to Resolution Agents in respect of recoveries made in doubtful assets outstanding
with less than or equal to 5 years old NPA accounts?- 5 % of the recovery amount / BL whichever is less subject to
maximum of Rs.12.00 lacs
213. What is the fee payable to Resolution Agents in respect of recoveries made in doubtful assets outstanding
with greater than 5 years old NPA accounts?- 5 % of the recovery amount / BL whichever is less subject to
maximum ofRs.15.00 lacs
214. What is the fee payable to Resolution Agents in respect of recoveries made in loss assets/ written off
accounts?-7 % of the recovery amount / BL whichever is less subject to maximum of Rs.20.00 lacs
215. The empanelment of Detective / Investigating agencies shall be done to utilize their services for recovery
in high value NPA accounts where the Book Liability involved is more than _______.- Rs 50 lakhs
216. A maximum time limit of ______ shall be provided to the Detective / Investigating agencies, to submit
their report and in deserving cases the Circle head may extend further period as deem fit.- 60 days
217. What is the fee payable to detective / investigating agencies for locating properties other than details of
which are available in Bank’s records, which may lead to attachment of the same along-with the satisfactory
documentary proof?Rs.25000/- for each property traced
218. What is the fee payable to detective / investigating agencies on submission of information about
whereabouts of the missing / absconding borrower / guarantor / C0-borrower / director etc. subject to
production of satisfactory documentary proof/evidence? Rs.10000/- per person subject to maximum fee of
Rs.30000/- under this category, per account
219. What is the fee payable to detective / investigating agencies for providing information such as other
firms/companies where borrower is involved, which may be helpful for recovery of Bank’s dues subject to
production of satisfactory documentary proof / evidence?-Rs.5000/- per information subject to maximum of
Rs.20000/-.
220. The NPA Targets will be allotted based on the outstanding NPA of the ARM Branches as on ______ of the
respective financial year.- 15th April
221. . In case of suit filed accounts having Book Liability of ______ and above, the same may be transferred to
ARM Branches even if it is not within the operative distance.- Rs 1 crore
222. Securities having Market Value of _____ and above as per the last available valuation report, are
necessarily to be inspected by ARM Branch Head, in other cases same may be done by any officer of Scale- II and
above.- Rs 5 crore
223. Which is a legal method of recovery.- Winding up of the company.
224. Calling from recovery call center is done to customers except To NPA borrowers with book liability above Rs
1 crore to clear the dues.
225. Periodicity of recovery committee meeting at C0/RO is- Once in a month or need based
226. Branches should submit credit files along with NF …. for recommending to initiate the legal action to
recovery section.- NF606/607
227. "Credit Section/Monitoring Cell shall look into and decide on the viability of the unit, chances of revival /
rehabilitation/restructuring/ gradation of accounts, staff lapses if any etc., and to decide the future course of
action in each account within ....... days of account slipping to NPA."- 60 day
228. The cut off limit for follow-up, review and monitoring of accounts, wherever permission obtained for
recovery/legal action on transfer of files. Limit for RO is- NPA accounts with Book liability up to Rs.10.00 Lakhs
229. The cut off limit for follow-up, review and monitoring of accounts, wherever permission obtained for
recovery/legal action on transfer of files. Limit for CO is- NPA accounts with Book liability above Rs.10.00 Lakhs
230. The cut Off limit for follow-up, review and monitoring of accounts at HO, wherever permission obtained
for recovery/legal action.- NPA accounts with Book liability above Rs.100.00 Lakhs
i. At least Book Liability + Simple interest at MCLR - 0.50 % p .a
ii. NPA account with dues more than Rs 1.00 Lakhs
231. If tenants are occupying the property before the mortgage to bank and over period of time loan become
NPA. For vacating such property banks should approach which authority.- To move in civil court under due process
of law
232. Fi xing reserve price for the secured asset is crucial for fetching the appropriate sale value. If asset is
unsold. For re-fixing the price who is delegated authority to decrease the reserve price below 75 % of RVS for
sanctioned limits up to Rs 25.00 Crore.- CGM/GM -HO-CAC
233. Co mpetent authority for release of guarantor/co-obligant with or without release of security for wilful
defaulters/account where fraud is reported is.- MC of the board
234. M inimum ……………….. % of the Book liability (as on date of settlement) is payable for settlement, in case
of Agricultural restructured NPA (Substandard) account of less than Rs 25.00 Lakhs.- 80%
235. M inimum……… % of the Book Liability (as on date of settlement) is payable for settlement, in case of other
than restructured Agricultural NPA (D4 & Loss category) account of less than Rs 25.00 Lakhs,- 70%
236. . Co mpromise settlement where total sacrifice exceeds Rs 50000.00. It should be forwarded to the
sanctioning authority in ……………….- NF 724
237. Se curities of immovable properties which were valued more than Rs 1.00 crore at the time of last sanction
and reduction in the present value is more than 30 %.In such cases to ascertain the exact value , we need to how
many valuation reports.- 2 valuation reports
238. De legated authority to permit for issuance of legal notice is.- RO/CO Head
239. OT S proposal which lapsed period of …… for non-payment / part payment/ withdrawn, any request for
revival of such proposal will treated as …………..-12 months, fresh.
240. Ac count in which there are no chances of recovery. Bank write off such accounts. The basic condition for
write off is. Ans. - Accounts for writing off should have completed 5 years or more from date of advance , NPA for
at least 3 years and classified as loss assets as on 31st March of preceding year.
241. "Net book values " means - The funded outstanding in a loan exposure reduced by the specific provisions
made against such exposure.
242. As per CVC the cut off limit for classifying borrower as Wilful defaulter is.- Rs 25 Lakhs and more
243. The Delegated power of GM CO CAC , for write off/waiver of unapplied interest in case of fraud / wilful
defaulters is __________- No power
244. Th e delegated power to RO head (AGM/DGM) for write off / waiver of unapplied interest in case of ex-
employees of our Bank availed /guarantee/Obligation while is service is up to ___- No power
245. De legated power for waiver of unapplied interest for medium branch in case of D4 & loss is__- up to Rs
0.75 Lakhs
246. Delegated power of CAC of board for waiver of legal action …..- Rs 300.00 Lakhs
247. Su it filed accounts with book liability of ……….. and above are eligible to transfer to ARM branches- Rs 20
Lakhs
248. AR M branches after receiving the NPA file, will have to do the physical inspection of the securities within
…………. Working days.- Thirty
249. As per Banking regulation act Section 9, banks should sale non-banking assets within how many years.- 7
years
250. NB A stands for- Non-Banking assets
251. Th e delegated power for purchase of NBA up to Rs 200.0 lakhs has been delegated to …..- GM CO CAC
252. As per the "Look Out Circular" guidelines, bank had to approach government agency for issuance of the
lookout notice against customers who have defrauded the bank and are suspected to leave country. The name of
the said agency is.- Bureau of Immigration , Government of India
253. As per the recovery policy “Counter Offer Policy " of the bank for the settlement is applicable to which
type of customers.- Non Wilful Defaulters
254. Te rm" Novation " means- Novation is the act of replacing a legitimate existing contract with a new
contract.
255. As per the recovery policy, purchase of pool of loans can be done from transferor which are rated …………
and above - AA
256. Re gistration of Security interest with Cersai to be done with in how many days…- Immediately
257. . Cersai is to be done immediately. The consequence of delay of registering security interest with Cersai.
The Bank will have to pay panel interest.
258. Th e empanelment of detective/investigation agencies shall for recovery of NPA account with book liability
of ……………and above.- Rs 50.00 Lakhs
259. As per the bank recovery policy, guidelines for transfer of loan accounts to ARM branch is
260. Or iginal Title Deeds / loan documents shall be retained by the originating branch. Time norms for ARM
branches to take confirmation from the originator branch regarding documents is.- Half yearly February and
August
261. De legated power to VLB branch for waiver of Unapplied interest in case of D4 andloss accounts is.- Rs
100000.0
262. Fo r classifying borrower as non- cooperative the total exposure of fund based and non- fund based will of
……………Rs 5 Crore
263. Re porting of Non Cooperative borrowers from banks is done to- CRILIC
264. Re covery agents (Retired employees of PSBs are exempted) have to undergo ………… hours of training
conducted by ………….. or their affiants institutes including our ………….-100, IIBF , STC Bangalore
265. Fo llowing agencies are eligible for empanelment of resolution agent. Find the odd one out.- Individual
266. Th e authorized authority for appointment of resolution agent in our bank is- Circle Head
267. M aximum fees payable to resolution agent for recovery in loss asset or write off accounts is-7 % of the
recovery amount / book liability whichever is less subject to maximum of Rs.20.00 lacs
268. As per the bank's outsourcing policy, security deposit which resolution agent had to deposit at time of
joining isRs 5 Lakhs
269. Em panelled detective and investigating agencies will on approved panel of bank for ………………-3 years
270. . Recovery Call Centres, Calls to the NPA borrowers with book liability _________ asking them to pgrade the
account/ clear the liability in full.- upto Rs 1 crore
271. Recovery committee at RO review individually the accounts with liability of _______slipped to NPA
subsequent to last review.- above Rs 2 lakhs
272. Recovery committee at CO review individually the accounts with liability of _______ slipped to NPA subsequent
to last review.- above Rs 10 lakhs
273. Branches/Offices to seek a report from Central Economic Intelligence Bureau in respect of prospective
borrowers and NPA borrowers whose exposure exceeds ______.-Rs 50 Crores
274. Probability of Default means probability that the borrower will default withi n a _______ horizon-1 year
275. Branches having NPA more than _____ under e-NWR Produce Loans are not permit ted to sanction further
loans under the scheme.- 5%
276. Principal business for the purpose of Asset Finance Company classification is defined as aggregate of
financing real/physical assets supporting economic activity and income arising there from is not less than _____ of its
total assets and total income respectively.- 60%
277. Borrowal Account irrespective of the fact whether sanctioned under Sole Banking,Multiple Banking
Arrangement or Consortium, with exposure of more than _______,if classified as NPA, should be examined by bank
from the angle of possible fraud.- Rs 50 crore
278. As per IBC, any person aggrieved by the order of National Company Law AppellateTribunal may file an
appeal to the Supreme Court within ______ from the date ofreceipt of the order.- 45 days
279. The advantage in IBC, 2016 is that in absence of resolution plan in ________ (or evenearlier as decided by
COC), Corporate Debtor goes in for automatic liquidation.- 330 days
280. In case of transfer of stressed assets, the lenders shall hold the acquired stressed loans in their books for
a period of at least …………… before transferring to other lenders except when the transfer of a stressed loan is to an
ARC or is undertaken as a resolution plan. Ans. 6 months
281. . In case of Securitization of Standard Assets, what is the Minimum Retention Requirement (MRR) for
underlying loans with original maturity of 24 months or less? Ans. 5% of the book value of the loans being securitized
282. In case of Securitization of Standard Assets, what is the Minimum Retention Requirement (MRR) for
underlying loans with original maturity of more than 24 months as well as loans with bullet repayments? Ans.10% of
the book value of the loans being securitized
283. In case of Securitization of Standard Assets, what should be minimum ticket size for issuance of
securitisation notes? Ans. Rs.1.00 cr
284. If due date of a loan account is September 30, 2021, and full dues are not received and if the account
continues to remain overdue, it shall get classified as NPA upon running day-end process on …………… Ans.29
December 2021
285. In case of only interest payments in respect of term loans, w.e.f 31st March 2022, an account will be
classified as NPA if; Ans. The interest applied at specified rests remains overdue for more than 90 days.
286. If loans with moratorium on payment of interest (permitted at the time of sanction of the loan) become
NPA after the moratorium period is over; Ans. The capitalized interest corresponding to the interest accrued during
such moratorium period need not be reversed.
287. The finance ministry had advised on broad guidelines to be adopted by all PSBs. Accordingly, Public sector
banks will implement common staff accountability policies for loan accounts up to………….., excluding fraud accounts,
turning into NPA on or after April 1, 2022. Ans. Rs 50 crore
288. Banks will have to complete staff accountability exercises within a period of………… from the date of
classification of the account as NPA. Ans.6 months
289. An ARC may effect change in or takeover of the management of the business of the borrower, where the
amount due to it from the borrower is not less than ___% of the total assets (as per last audited financials) owned by
the borrower; and where the borrower is financed by more than one secured creditor (including ARC), secured
creditors (including ARC) holding not less than ___% of the outstanding SRs agree to such action. Ans. 25% and 60%
290. ARC shall invest a minimum of _____% of the Security Receipts (SRs) of each class issued by them under
each scheme on an ongoing basis. Ans. 15%
291. Every ARC shall maintain, on an ongoing basis, a capital adequacy ratio, which shall not be less than 15
percent of its total risk weighted assets. Ans. 15%
292. RBI has recently increased minimum networth requirement for an ARC to ______and the same is to be achieved
by March 31,2026. d. Rs. 300 crore
293. SEBI has recently reduced the minimum face value of debt security or non-convertible redeemable
preference share issued on private placement basis by the Corporates from Rs. 10 lakh to _____with effect from 1st
Jan 2023. b. Rs. 1 lakh
294. Every Asset Reconstruction company to obtain Certificate of Registration from ________to commence
their business activities.-Ans. RBI
295. Minimum net owned funds required for an Asset Reconstruction Company (ARC) to commence its business
operations is?-Ans. Rs. 100 crore
296. An ARC may effect change in or takeover of the management of the business of the borrower, where the
amount due to it from the borrower is not less than ________% of the total assets owned by the borrowed entity.-
Ans. 25%
297. . An ARC proposes to take over management of a defaulted firm. In this case, it should give a prior notice
of _____days before initiating such action.-Ans. 60 days
298. . The official name of Bad bank constituted to resolve NPA crisis in India is? -Ans. National Asset
Reconstruction Company Limited (NARCL)
299. Which of the following is the appellate authority for Small companies set up in India? -Ans. National Company
Law Appellate Tribunal
300. Recently Ministry of finance has issued common staff accountability guidelines in public sector banks for
NPA accounts up to _______ -Ans. Rs. 50 crore other than fraud cases
a. Summary of financial information of the ARC for last 5 years or since commencement of business of the
ARC, whichever is shorter.
b. Track record of returns generated for all Security Receipt (SR) investors on the schemes floated in the last 8
years.
c. Track record of recovery rating migration and engagement with rating agency of schemes floated in the last
8 years. Ans. All
301. The Net Owned Fund (NOF) for Assets Reconstruction Company shall be minimum of _____ on an
ongoing basis. Ans. Rs.100 crore
302. Every Asset Reconstruction Company (ARC) shall get itself registered with _________: Ans. RBI
303. As per the revised Prompt Corrective Action Framework if Net Non-Performing Advances (NNPA) ratio is
equal to or more than 9% but less than 12% it will be treated as breach of Risk Threshold _____: Ans. 2
304. As per the revised Prompt Corrective Action Framework if Regulatory minimum Tier 1 Leverage Ratio if
more than 100 bps below the regulatory minimum, it will be treated as breach of Risk Threshold _____: Ans.3
305. Tenure of MD/ CEO or WTD of Asset Reconstruction Company, shall not be for a period of more than ___
years at a time and the individual shall be eligible for re appointment.Ans. 5 years
306. Every Credit Information Company shall appoint the Internal Ombudsman for a fixed term of not less than
___ years, but not exceeding __ years, Ans.3, 5
14.FOREX AND INTERNATIONAL TRADE

1. As per RBIs Unhedged Foreign Currency Exposure (UFCE) guidelines, ___ Hedge shall mean hedging through
a derivative contract with a financial institution and shall be considered only where the entity has documented
the purpose and the strategy for hedging at inception of the derivative contract and assessed its effectiveness as
a hedging instrument at periodic intervals. Ans.Financial
2. As per RBIs Unhedged Foreign Currency Exposure (UFCE) guidelines, ______ Hedge shall mean a hedge
arising out of the operations of the company when cash flows offset the risk arising out of the Foreign Currency
exposure (FCE). An exposure shall be considered as naturally hedged only if the offsetting exposure has the
maturity / cash flow within the same accounting year. Ans. Natural
3. As per RBIs Unhedged Foreign Currency Exposure (UFCE) guidelines, Alternative method has been made
applicable for exposure to ‘smaller entities’ which have Foreign Currency Exposure, instead of UFCE, and are not
in position to provide information on their UFCE. Further, the definition of ‘Smaller entities’ for this purpose has
been revised. Smaller entities are those entities on which total exposure of the banking system is at Rs. ____
crore or less. Ans.50
4. As per RBIs Unhedged Foreign Currency Exposure (UFCE) guidelines, Banks also given an option to follow an
Alternative method for their exposure to smaller entities - instead of obtaining information on UFCE from smaller
entities, bank could maintain incremental provisioning of _____ bps for such exposures. Ans.10
5. As per RBIs Unhedged Foreign Currency Exposure (UFCE) guidelines, at present, the incremental capital
requirement for exposures falling in the last bucket - more than 75 per cent of Potential Loss / Earnings before
Interest and Depreciation (EBID), is provided as _____ per cent increase in risk weight. Ans.15
6. As per RBIs Unhedged Foreign Currency Exposure (UFCE) guidelines, in cases where the bank is not able to
get sufficient data to assess UFCE and compute incremental capital and provisioning requirements except for the
smaller entities covered under the alternative method, the bank shall take a conservative view and place the
exposure to the entity at the last bucket which requires incremental provisioning of ____bps and a ___ per
centage point increase in risk weight. Ans.80 ; 25
7. For Unhedged Foreign Currency Exposure (UFCE), banks shall calculate the incremental provisioning and capital
requirements at a minimum, on a ___ basis. Ans. quarterly
8. For Unhedged Foreign Currency Exposure (UFCE), the incremental capital and provisioning requirement shall be
subjected to a minimum floor of ___ bps of provisioning requirement. Ans. 20 bps
9. For Unhedged Foreign Currency Exposure (UFCE) purposes, smaller entities are those entities on which total
exposure of the banking system is at Rs.___crore or less. Ans. Rs.50 cr
10. For Unhedged Foreign Currency Exposure (UFCE), the incremental provision requirement for UFCE shall be
treated as general provision for disclosures and inclusion in Tier _____ capital. Ans. Tier2
11.In case of Borrowers with exposures upto Rs.50 crores, if they do not provide Unhedged Foreign Currency
Exposure (UFCE) details, bank shall apply incremental provisioning of _____over and above Standard Asset
provisioning instead of computing incremental capital & provisioning requirements. This incremental provision
(general provision) inclusion under Tier 2 capital. Ans: 10 bps
12.Information on UFCE (Unhedged Foreign Currency Exposure) should be obtained from entities on a quarterly
basis on self-certification basis. At least on an annual basis, UFCE information should be audited and certified by
the statutory auditors of the entity. In case any eligible entity is not submitting the required UFCE data to our
bank, an additional interest of % p.a. over & above the contracted rate to be levied for the period of default. Ans:
1%
13. In case of Borrowers with exposures upto Rs.50 crores, if they do not provide Unhedged Foreign Currency
14. Information on UFCE (Unhedged Foreign Currency Exposure) should be obtained from entities on a quarterly
basis on self-certification basis. At least on an annual basis, UFCE information should be audited and certified by
the statutory auditors of the entity. In case any eligible entity is not submitting the required UFCE data to our
bank, an additional interest of % p.a. over & above the contracted rate to be levied for the period of default. Ans:
1%
15.As per RBIs Unhedged Foreign Currency Exposure (UFCE) guidelines, ___ Hedge shall mean hedging through a
derivative contract with a financial institution and shall be considered only where the entity has documented the
purpose and the strategy for hedging at inception of the derivative contract and assessed its effectiveness as a
hedging instrument at periodic intervals. Ans.Financial
16.As per RBIs Unhedged Foreign Currency Exposure (UFCE) guidelines, ______ Hedge shall mean a hedge arising
out of the operations of the company when cash flows offset the risk arising out of the Foreign Currency exposure
(FCE). An exposure shall be considered as naturally hedged only if the offsetting exposure has the maturity / cash
flow within the same accounting year. Ans. Natural
17.As per RBIs Unhedged Foreign Currency Exposure (UFCE) guidelines, Alternative method has been made
applicable for exposure to ‘smaller entities’ which have Foreign Currency Exposure, instead of UFCE, and are not
in position to provide information on their UFCE. Further, the definition of ‘Smaller entities’ for this purpose has
been revised. Smaller entities are those entities on which total exposure of the banking system is at Rs. ____
crore or less. Ans.50
18.As per RBIs Unhedged Foreign Currency Exposure (UFCE) guidelines, Banks also given an option to follow an
Alternative method for their exposure to smaller entities - instead of obtaining information on UFCE from smaller
entities, bank could maintain incremental provisioning of _____ bps for such exposures. Ans.10
19.As per RBIs Unhedged Foreign Currency Exposure (UFCE) guidelines, at present, the incremental capital
requirement for exposures falling in the last bucket - more than 75 per cent of Potential Loss / Earnings before
Interest and Depreciation (EBID), is provided as _____ per cent increase in risk weight. Ans.15
20. As per RBIs Unhedged Foreign Currency Exposure (UFCE) guidelines, in cases where the bank is not able to get
sufficient data to assess UFCE and compute incremental capital and provisioning requirements except for the
smaller entities covered under the alternative method, the bank shall take a conservative view and place the
exposure to the entity at the last bucket which requires incremental provisioning of ____bps and a ___ per
centage point increase in risk weight. Ans.80 ; 25
21.For Unhedged Foreign Currency Exposure (UFCE), banks shall calculate the incremental provisioning and capital
requirements at a minimum, on a ___ basis. Ans. quarterly
22.For Unhedged Foreign Currency Exposure (UFCE), the incremental capital and provisioning requirement shall
be subjected to a minimum floor of ___ bps of provisioning requirement. Ans. 20 bps
For Unhedged Foreign Currency Exposure (UFCE) purposes, smaller entities are those entities on which total
exposure of the banking system is at Rs.___crore or less. Ans. Rs.50 cr
23.For Unhedged Foreign Currency Exposure (UFCE), the incremental provision requirement for UFCE shall be
treated as general provision for disclosures and inclusion in Tier _____ capital. Ans. Tier2
24. In case of Borrowers with exposures upto Rs.50 crores, if they do not provide Unhedged Foreign Currency
25. For borrower entities which are not able to provide the data on unhedged foreign currency exposure in
timely manner, the entire exposure for such entity would attract incremental provisioning of _____ and a ______
increase in risk weight.- 80 bps, 25%
26. The present applicable Foreign Trade Policy 2015-20 has been further extended by the Commerce Ministry
till ______ as the ministry felt the need to have wider consultation with industry before releasing the new policy.
The present policy which has expired on 31-03-2020 was previously extended till 30th September 2022. Ans.31-03-
2023
27. The present applicable Foreign Trade Policy 2015-20 has been further extended by the Commerce Ministry
till ______ as the ministry felt the need to have wider consultation with industry before releasing the new policy.
The present policy which has expired on 31-03-2020 was previously extended till 30th September 2022. Ans.31-03-
2023
28. Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs) can invest in government securities and corporate bonds through which
of the following channels: Ans. The Medium-Term Framework (MTF) introduced in Oct. 2015; The Voluntary
Retention Route (VRR) introduced in March 2019; and The Fully Accessible Route (FAR) introduced in April 2020.
29. At present, Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPI) investment in government and corporate debt under the
Medium Term Framework (MTF) is subject to a macroprudential short term limit viz., not more than ____% of
investments each in govt. securities and corporate bonds can have a residual maturity of less than one year. RBI
has now decided that investments by FPIs in government securities and corporate debt made till October 31, 2022
will be exempted from this short term limit. These investments will not be reckoned for the short term limit till
maturity or sale of such investments. Ans.30
30. As per RBI’s ‘Voluntary Retention Route’ (VRR) for Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs) investment (Feb 2022)
guidelines, investment limit under VRR has been raised from ___ to ___: Ans. Rs.150000 cr to Rs.250000 cr
31. As per RBI’s ‘Voluntary Retention Route’ (VRR) for Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs) investment (Feb 2022)
guidelines, whocan investments in debt markets in India? Ans. foreign portfolio investors
32. Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs) can invest in government securities and corporate bonds through which of
the following channels: Ans. The Medium-Term Framework (MTF) introduced in Oct. 2015; The Voluntary
Retention Route (VRR) introduced in March 2019; and The Fully Accessible Route (FAR) introduced in April 2020.
33. At present, Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPI) investment in government and corporate debt under the Medium
Term Framework (MTF) is subject to a macroprudential short term limit viz., not more than ____% of
investments each in govt. securities and corporate bonds can have a residual maturity of less than one year. RBI
has now decided that investments by FPIs in government securities and corporate debt made till October 31,
2022 will be exempted from this short term limit. These investments will not be reckoned for the short term
limit till maturity or sale of such investments. Ans.30
34. As per extension of Interest Equalization Scheme on Pre and Post Shipment Rupee Export Credit(till 31.3.24),
the interest equalization ( other than MSME) rate is ___%Ans. 2%
the interest equalization rate is ___%for MSME manufacturer exporters. Ans. 3%
the interest equalization claim is to be submitted every __ within ___ days. Ans. month, 15 days
37. With effect from October 1, 2022, banks shall obtain the LEI number from the resident entities (non-individuals)
undertaking capital or current account transactions of Rs.___crore and above (per transaction) under FEMA,
1999 Ans. Rs.50 cr
38. Non-individual borrowers enjoying aggregate exposure of aboveRs.25 crore and above from banks and financial
institutions(FIs) shall be required to obtain LEI codes latest by? Ans. 30.04.23
39. Non-individual borrowers enjoying aggregate exposure of above Rs.5crore to Rs.10 cr from banks and financial
institutions (FIs) shall be required to obtain LEI codes latest by? Ans. 30.04.25
40. . Non-individual borrowers enjoying aggregate exposure of above Rs.10 crore to Rs.25 cr from banks and
financial institutions (FIs) shall be required to obtain LEI codes latest by? Ans. 30.04.24
41. The Legal Entity Identifier (LEI) is a 20-digit number used to uniquely identify parties to financial transactions
worldwide to improve the quality and accuracy of financial data systems. The RBI decided that with effect from
Oct. 1, 2022 all AD Cat-1 banks shall obtain the Legal Entity Identifier (LEI) number from the resident entities
(non-individuals) undertaking capital or current account transactions of Rs.________ and above (per
transaction) under the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 Ans: Rs. 50 crore
42. AIC in External AIC in External Commercial Borrowing: It includes rate of interest,other fees, expenses,
charges, guarantee fees, ECA charges, whether paid in foreigncurrency or INR but will not include commitment
fees and withholding tax payablein INR. In the case of fixed rate loans, the swap cost plus spread should not be
morethan the floating rate plus the applicable spread. AIC means……….? Ans. All In Cost
43. Legal Entity Identifier (LEI) code mandatory for all NEFT and RTGS payments of Rs & above undertaken by
entities (nonindividuals) and mandatory to include Sender and Beneficiary LEI code while initiating outward
NEFT & RTGS payments. Ans: Rs 50 crore
44. With effect from 1.1.2022, the benchmark rate in case of Foreign Currency ECB/trade credit shall refer to ___
of 6-month tenor, applicable to the currency of borrowing. Ans. Alternative reference rate
45. To take into account differences in credit risk and term premia between LIBOR and the alternative reference
rate, the all-in-cost ceiling for new FCY ECBs and Trade Credit has been increased by 50 bps to ___ bps and ___
bps, respectively, over the benchmark rates. Ans. 500 bps, 300 bps
46. As per the extant guidelines, interest rates on Foreign Currency Non-Resident Bank [FCNR(B)] deposits are
subject to ceilings of Overnight Alternative Reference Rate (ARR) for the respective currency/swap plus 250
basis points for deposits of 1 year to less than 3 years maturity and overnight ARR plus ________ basis points for
deposits of 3 years and above and up to 5 years maturity. Ans: 350 bps
47. To take into account differences in credit risk and term premia between LIBOR and the alternative reference
rate, the all-in-cost ceiling for new FCY ECBs and Trade Credit has been increased by 50 bps to ___ bps and ___
bps, respectively, over the benchmark rates. Ans. 500 bps, 300 bps
48. As per the extant guidelines, interest rates on Foreign Currency Non-Resident Bank [FCNR(B)] deposits are
subject to ceilings of Overnight Alternative Reference Rate (ARR) for the respective currency/swap plus 250
basis points for deposits of 1 year to less than 3 years maturity and overnight ARR plus ________ basis points for
deposits of 3 years and above and up to 5 years maturity. Ans: 350 bps
49. At present, AD Cat-I banks can undertake overseas foreign currency borrowing (OFCB) up to a limit of 100 per cent
of their unimpaired Tier 1 capital or US$ 10 million, whichever is higher. The funds so borrowed cannot be used
for lending in foreign currency except for the purpose of export finance. RBI has now decided that AD Cat-I
banks can utilise OFCBs for lending in foreign currency to entities for a wider set of end-use purposes, subject to
the negative list set out for external commercial borrowings (ECBs). The measure is expected to facilitate
foreign currency borrowing by a larger set of borrowers who may find it difficult to directly access overseas
markets. This dispensation for raising such borrowings is available till _________: Ans. October 31, 2022.
50. External Commercial Borrowings (ECB) under Automatic Route to Eligible Borrowers who are rated as
Investment Grade by Indian Rating Agencies, is permissible upto USD 1.5 billion per financial year. What is the
All in Cost Ceiling for Foreign Currency denominated ECBs under this route: Ans: Benchmark rate + 600 bps
51. External Commercial Borrowings (ECB) under Automatic Route to Eligible Borrowers who are rated as Investment
Grade by Indian Rating Agencies, is permissible upto USD 1.5 billion per financial year. What is the All in Cost
Ceiling for Foreign Currency denominated ECBs under this route: Ans: Benchmark rate + 600 bps
53. At present, AD Cat-I banks can undertake overseas foreign currency borrowing (OFCB) up to a limit of 100
per cent of their unimpaired Tier 1 capital or US$ 10 million, whichever is higher. The funds so borrowed cannot
be used for lending in foreign currency except for the purpose of export finance. RBI has now decided that AD
Cat-I banks can utilise OFCBs for lending in foreign currency to entities for a wider set of end-use purposes,
subject to the negative list set out for external commercial borrowings (ECBs). The measure is expected to
facilitate foreign currency borrowing by a larger set of borrowers who may find it difficult to directly access
overseas markets. This dispensation for raising such borrowings is available till _________: Ans. October 31,
2022.
55. Banks to report suspicious transaction report to FIU-IND within a period of_ _ Ans: Within 7 days of arriving at a
conclusion that any transaction, whether cash or non-cash, or a series of transactions integrally connected are
of suspicious nature.
56. Cross border wire transfers of value what to be reported by financial institutions to FIU-IND? Ans: All cross-
border wire transfers of the value exceeding Rs.5 lakh or its equivalent in foreign currency where either the
origin or destination of fund is in India to be reported to FIU-IND
57. Cross border wire transfers of value what to be reported by financial institutions to FIU-IND? Ans: All cross-
border wire transfers of the value exceeding Rs.5 lakh or its equivalent in foreign currency where either the
origin or destination of fund is in India to be reported to FIU-IND
58. FCLRs to NBFCs can be considered to _______rated NBFCs who are dealing with our Bank, with an excellent
track record and rated _________.- AAA, Low Risk
59. Claims guaranteed by State Govt., Claims on ECGC attract ____ % Risk Weight. Ans: 20%
60. Approval from ECGC is required if export bills are not realized after a period of:Ans.180 days
61. As per the obligations under ECIB-WTPC/ WTPS covers framed by ECGC, sanction letter issued to the exporter
should be submitted to ECGC along with limit notification form where the total limit under PC/ PS is _____ and
above.- Rs 10 Crore
62. As per the obligations under ECIB-WTPC/ WTPS covers framed by ECGC, p rior approval of ECGC should be
obtained, where per buyer limit/exposure exceeds _______ per buyer.- Rs 100 crore
obtained, where the exporter having export turnover equal or more than Rs _____ diversify into unrelated
business activities, wherein the share of the unrelated business activity is equal to or more than ____ of Export
turnover.- Rs 500 crore, 10%
obtained, where the total PC and PS Limits of all the banks under consortium/Multiple banking on the exporter
or exporter group is equal to or more than ______ in respect of all commodities including GJD.- Rs 200 crore
65. As per the obligations under ECIB-WTPC/ WTPS covers framed by ECGC, Repor t of Default should be submitted
in prescribed format on any account within ______ of recall or within _______ from the due date or extended
due date whichever is earlier.- 30 days, 4 months
66. Which one of the following is not to be accepted in a presentation received againstLC opened under UCPDC 600,
if there is no specific mention in the LC? Ans.Provisional Invoice
67. UCPDC 600, issued by ICC is a document containing rules and regulations for issuanceof ….…Ans. LCs
68. Uniform Customs and Practice for Documentary Credit (UCPDC) contains rules thatapply to a documentary
credit. Which one of following presently applicable Ans.UCPDC-600 d) UCPDC-800
69. Under, UCPDC-600 the term ‘first half’ of a month in a LC, shall be construed as the………….. of the month, all
dates inclusive Ans.1-15th day
70.As part of the macroprudential framework under the MTF, FPIs can invest only in corporate debt instruments with
a residual maturity of at least one year. RBI has now decided that FPIs will be provided with a limited window till
October 31, 2022 during which they can invest in corporate money market instruments viz., commercial paper and
non-convertible debentures with an original maturity of up to _____. FPIs can continue to stay invested in these
instruments till their maturity / sale. These investments will not be included for reckoning the short term limit for
investments in corporate securities. Ans. one year
71.RBI has decided to temporarily increase the limit under the automatic route from US$ ____ million or its
equivalent per financial year to US$ 1.5 billion. The all-in cost ceiling under the ECB framework is also being
raised by 100 basis points, subject to the borrower being of investment grade rating. Accordingly, the all in cost
ceiling for new foreign currency denominated ECBs has been temporarily raised to Benchmark rate + ____ bps
from the existing rate of Benchmark rate + 500 bps. The above dispensations are available up to December 31,
2022.Ans. 750 ; 600
72.In order to promote growth of global trade with emphasis on exports from India and to support the increasing
interest of global trading community in INR, all exports and imports under this arrangement may be denominated
and invoiced in _______. Exchange rate between the currencies of the two trading partner countries may be
market determined: Ans. Rupee (INR)
73.To promote growth of global trade with emphasis on exports from India and to support the increasing interest of
global trading community in INR, the settlement of trade transactions under this arrangement shall take place in
INR in accordance with the stipulated procedure. In terms of Foreign Exchange Management (Deposit) Regulations,
2016, AD banks in India have been permitted to open ____ of correspondent banks of the partner trading country.
Ans. Special Rupee Vostro Accounts
74.Under the broad framework for Cross Border trade transactions in INR, AD banks in India have been permitted to
open Special Vostro Accounts. The Rupee surplus balance held may be used for permissible capital and current
account transactions in accordance with mutual agreement. The balance in Special Vostro Accounts can be used
for which of the following: Ans. Payments for projects and investments, Export/Import advance flow management
& Investment in Govt. Treasury Bills, Govt. securities, etc. in terms of extant guidelines and prescribed limits,
subject to FEMA and similar statutory provision.
75.If there is reporting delay in submission of Form ODI Part-II/APR, FCGPR (B), FLA Returns, Form OPI, evidence of
investment or any other return which does not capture flows or any other periodical reporting, late submission fee
shall be ___:Ans. Rs.7500
76.. ___ shall mean a hedge arising out of the operations of the company when cash flows offset the risk arising out
of the Foreign Currency exposure (FCE). Ans. natural hedge
77.As per Forex Management (Hedging of Commodity Price Risk and Freight Risk in Overseas Markets) Directions,
2022, banks can issue Standby Letters of Credit (SBLC) / Guarantees, for a maximum period of ___ , on behalf of
their clients in lieu of making a remittance of margin money for commodity hedging transactions entered into by
their customers. Ans.12 months
78.RBI has decided to put in place an additional arrangement for invoicing, payment, and settlement of exports /
____________Accounts of correspondent bank/s of the partner trading country.Ans: Special Rupee Vostro
Accounts
79..For waiver of Hedging in respect of Foreign Currency Exposures, by concerned delegated authorities, a minimum
hedging of 25% for LR1, LR2 (AAA) parties and minimum _____ % for LR3 (AA) parties is required. Ans: 50%
80..Incremental Export Credit over corresponding date of the preceding year, up to 2 percent of ANBC or
CEOBEwhichever is higher, subject to a sanctioned limit of up to ₹________ per borrower are classified under
Priority Sector. Ans: Rs.40 crore
81.Our Bank is on boarded for participating as ‘Financing Bank’ on the TReDS digital platform of M/s.RXIL,
M/s.A.TReDS Ltd. (Invoicemart) and M/s.Mynd Solutions (M1xchange) for online discounting of trade receivables
by executing Master Agreement with them. Bills upto a tenor of _______ days can be quoted for discounting on
the platform. Ans: 180 days
82.The borrowing under ECB by Startup Company will be limited to USD or equivalent per financial year either in
INR or any convertible foreign currency or a combination of both. Ans: USD 3 million and minimum average
maturity period of 3 years
83.Which type of buying rate is applied when Nostro account of the Bank is already credited before making payment
to the tenderer: Ans: TT Buying
84.What is Known Holiday in respect of FEDAI guidelines: Ans: Known holiday’ is one which is known at least 3
working days before file date. A holiday that is not a “known holiday” is defined as a “undeclared holiday
85.Amount up to which AD category - I branches can receive the document directly from Overseas Supplier: Ans: US $
3,00,000
86.Export Credit sanction limit under Priority sector is_ _ Ans: Incremental export credit over corresponding date of
the preceding year, up to 2% of ANBC or CEOBE whichever is higher, subject to a sanctioned limit of up to Rs.40
crore per borrower.
87.What is the rate to be applied while purchasing / discounting of foreign currency bill? Ans. Bill buying rate
88.51.What is the maximum amount of overdue export bill that can be allowed for write-off by AD Bank? Ans. 10% of
the total export proceeds realized during the calendar year preceding the year in which the write-off is being
done
89.What is crystallization of export bills? Ans.The process of converting foreign currency liability of the exporter into
Indian Rupee liability
90.Which type of exchange rate it can be referred to where the value of foreign currency is stable and local currency
is variable? Ans.Direct quote
91. What is the maximum amount of foreign coins an individual can keep in India? Ans. Without any limit
92. The exporter should submit the export documents within days to authorised dealer for collection? Ans. 21 days
(with in LC validity period)
93. Crystallisation of foreign currency import bills drawn under letters of credit shall be done into Rupee liability
within what period? Ans. On the 10th day from the date of receipt of documents in the case of demand bills and
on the due date in the case of usance bills.
94. Crystallization of export bills sent for collection to be done at which rate? Ans. TT Buying rate
95. The unspent foreign currency has to be surrendered within a period of from the date of return to India?
Ans. 180 days
96. Crystallisation of import bills means what? Ans. The process of converting foreign currency liability of the
importer into Indian Rupee liability
97. Hedging against foreign currency exposure is meant for Ans. To prevent loss from exchange rate fluctuation
98. What is the maximum amount of Indian currency and foreign currency that a traveller can carry abroad? Ans. INR
25000, and equivalent amount of USD 3000 (For Iraq & Libya - USD 5000 ) (For Iran, Russian Federation and other
Republics of Commonwealth of Independent States - Full exchange may be released up to a maximum of USD
250,000 per financial year)
99. The ratio of long term borrowed funds to own funds can be best described as; Ans. Debt: Equity Ratio
100. Internal Rate of Return is arrived at a point where future cash flows on Net Present Value basis should be:
Ans.Zero.
101. For contracts involving INR, user shall be allowed to book forward contractsupto____________ equivalent of
notional value Ans. USD 10 Million
102. How many days in advance, Indian Exporter can receive advance payment fromoverseas counter party for the
services rendered from India?Ans. One year before the proposed date of rendering service to the overseas buyer
103. India is following ……………quote system under Forex transactions. Ans. Direct
104. In case of SPOT transaction, the settlement happens onAns. T +2 Working days
105. ……are the rules regarding usage of trade related terms ,framed by ICC tofacilitate Global Trade Ans. INCO
Terms
106. How Many INCO Terms are there? Ans.11
107. How Much Foreign Exchange a person can bring with him while coming to India? Ans.NO such limit
108. 12. If the aggregate value of the Foreign exchange in the form of Currency and Banknotes is more than USD
10000 and in the form of currency itself is more than USD5000 than party has to submit CDF. CDF stands for?Ans.
Currency Declaration Form
109. How much FC, can be carried for travelling to Iraq/Libya? Ans.USD 5000
110. How much FC, can be carried for travelling to IRAN/RUSSIA and CIS States?Ans. USD 3000 per trip
111. A resident Individual should surrender the unused foreign exchange in currency within………………..days from the
date of purchase or return to India? Ans.180
112. A returning traveller is permitted to retain unused foreign currency up to USD …….Or Equivalent or Coins with
our any ceiling beyond 180 days)? Ans.USD 2000
113. It is obligatory on the part of the exporter to realize and repatriate the full value ofgoods/ software / services
to India within a stipulated period from the date ofexport, and It has been decided by the RBI in consultation
with the Government ofIndia that the period of realization and repatriation of export proceeds shall
be……………..months from the date of export for all exporters including Units in SEZs,Status Holder Exporters,
EOUs, Units in EHTPs, STPs & BTPs until further notice. Ans.9 Months
114. It is obligatory on the part of the exporter to realize and repatriate the full value ofgoods/ software / services
to India within a stipulated period from the date ofexport, and in case of Goods exported to a warehouse
established outside India, theyshould repatriate as soon as it is realized and in any case within ………. months
fromthe date of shipment of goods. Ans.15
115. For Setting up of Offices Abroad and Acquisition of Immovable Property for OverseasOffices AD Category – I
banks may allow remittances towards initial expenses upto………..per cent of the average annual sales/income or
turnover during the last twofinancial years or up to twenty-five per cent of the net worth, whichever is higher.
Ans.15
116. In terms of Regulations under FEMA, where an exporter receives advance payment(with or without interest),
from a buyer outside India, the exporter shall be underan obligation to ensure that the shipment of goods is
made within …… year/s fromthe date of receipt of advance payment; Ans.1
117. In case of advance payments received the rate of interest, if any, payable on theadvance payment does not
exceed Alternate reference rate (ARR) + ……… basispoints; and the documents covering the shipment are routed
through the AD
118. Category – I bank through whom the advance payment is received. Ans.200
119. AD Category- I banks can also allow exporters having a minimum of three years’satisfactory track record to
receive long term export advance up to a maximumtenor of……. years to be utilized for execution of long term
supply contracts forexport of goods subject to the stipulated conditions. Ans.10
120. Any person resident outside India, not being a citizen of Pakistan and Bangladeshand also not a traveller coming
from and going to Pakistan and Bangladesh, andvisiting India may take outside India currency notes of
Government of India andReserve Bank of India notes up to an amount not exceeding Rs. …………. while
exitingonly through an airport. Ans.25000
121. Within ………… from the date of export, exporter should lodge the duplicate copytogether with relative shipping
documents and an extra copy of the invoice with theAD Category– I banks named in the EDF form. Ans.21
122. If, after a bill has been negotiated or sent for collection, its amount is to be reducedfor any reason, AD Category
– I banks may approve such reduction, if satisfied aboutgenuineness of the request, provided:(i) The reduction
does not exceed …………per cent of invoice value:(ii) It does not relate to export of commodities subject to floor
price stipulations.The exporter is not on the exporters’ caution list of the Reserve Bank, and(iii) The exporter is
advised to surrender proportionate export incentives availed of, Ans.25
123. Self “write-off” by an exporter (Other than Status Holder Exporter)…….%Self “write-off” by Status Holder
Exporters ………%‘Write-off” by Authorized Dealer Bank- …..% Ans.5,10,10
124. In terms of the extant RBI regulations, remittances against imports should becompleted not later than ……….
months from the date of shipment, except in caseswhere amounts are withheld towards guarantee of
performance, etc. Ans.6
125. AD Category – I banks may permit settlement of import dues delayed due to disputes,financial difficulties, etc.
However, interest if any, on such delayed payments,usance bills or overdue interest is payable only for a period
of up to ………… yearsfrom the date of shipment Ans.3
126. Normally AD Category – I banks can consider granting extension of time forsettlement of import dues up to a
period of six months at a time (maximum up tothe period of …….years) irrespective of the invoice value for
delays on account ofdisputes about quantity or quality or non-fulfilment of terms of contract;
financialdifficulties and cases where importer has filed suit against the seller. Ans.3
127. Any person resident in India who had gone out of India on a temporary visit, maybring into India at the time of
his return from any place outside India (other thanfrom Nepal and Bhutan), currency notes of Government of
India and Reserve Bankof India notes upto an amount not exceeding Rs…………. Ans.25000
128. If the amount of advance remittance for Imports exceeds USD ………….. or itsequivalent, an unconditional,
irrevocable standby Letter of Credit or a guaranteefrom an international bank of repute situated outside India or
a guarantee of an ADCategory – I bank in India, if such a guarantee is issued against the counter-guaranteeof an
international bank of repute situated outside India, is obtained. Ans.200000
129. In cases where the importer (other than a Public Sector Company or aDepartment/Undertaking of the
Government of India/State Government/s) is unableto obtain bank guarantee from overseas suppliers and the AD
Category – I bank is
130. satisfied about the track record and bonafides of the importer, the requirement ofthe bank guarantee / standby
Letter of Credit may not be insisted upon for advanceremittances up to USD ………………duly framing guidelines in
their internal policy. Ans.5 Million
131. A Public Sector Company or a Department/Undertaking of the Government of India/State Government/s which is
not in a position to obtain a guarantee from aninternational bank of repute against an advance payment, is
required to obtain aspecific waiver for the bank guarantee from the Ministry of Finance, Government ofIndia
before making advance remittance exceeding USD ……….. Ans.100000
132. AD Category – I banks may allow advance remittance, without obtaining a bankguarantee or an unconditional,
irrevocable Standby Letter of Credit, up to USD …….million, for direct import of each aircraft, helicopter and
other aviation relatedpurchases, who are permitted by DGCA for Operations in India. Ans.50
133. Where the amount of advance paid for Import of services exceeds USD ……….. or itsequivalent, a guarantee from
a bank of international repute situated outside India,or a guarantee from an AD Category – I bank in India, if
such a guarantee is issuedagainst the counter-guarantee of a bank of international repute situated outsideIndia,
should be obtained from the overseas beneficiary. Ans. 500000
134. AD Category – I bank may accept, in lieu of Exchange Control Copy of Bill of Entryfor home consumption, a
certificate from the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) orauditor of the company that the goods for which remittance
was made have actuallybeen imported into India provided the amount of foreign exchange remitted is lessthan
USD ………… or its equivalent . Ans. 1000,000
135. Where imports are made in non-physical form, i.e., software or data throughinternet / data com channels and
drawings and designs through e-mail / fax, acertificate from a……………….. that the software / data / drawing/
design has beenreceived by the importer, may be obtained by AD Category – I bank Ans. Chartered Accountant
136. Nominated banks and nominated agencies, as notified by DGFT, are permitted toimport gold on ………………basis.
All sale of gold domestically will, however, be againstupfront payment. Nominated banks are free to grant gold
metal loans. Ans.Consignment
137. Suppliers’ and Buyers’ credit (trade credit) including the usance period of Letters ofCredit opened for import of
gold in any form, including jewellery made ofgold/precious metals or/and studded with diamonds/semi-
precious/precious
138. stones, should not exceed……. Days from the date of shipment. Ans. 90
139. Suppliers’ and Buyers’ Credit, including the usance period of Letters of Creditopened for import of Platinum,
Palladium, Rhodium and Silver and rough, cut andpolished Diamonds, Precious and semi-precious stones; should
not exceed …….. daysfrom the date of shipment. Ans.90
140. Regarding Clean Credit i.e. credit given by a foreign supplier to its Indiancustomer/buyer, without any
Letter of Credit (Suppliers’ Credit)/ Letter ofUndertaking (Buyers’ Credit)/ Fixed Deposits from any Indian
financial institution
141. for import of rough, cut and polished diamonds, precious and semi-precious stones,usance may be
permitted for a period not exceeding ………… days from the date ofshipment. Ans.180
142. All Merchanting Trade Transactions shall be completed within an overall period of…….months and there
shall not be any outlay of foreign exchange beyond…………months. The commencement date of merchanting trade
shall be the date ofshipment / export leg receipt or import leg payment, whichever is first. Thecompletion date
shall be the date of shipment / export leg receipt or import legpayment, whichever is the last. Ans. 9,4
143. 46. In case of Merchanting trade transaction goods acquired will not enter ------ and ourcustomer will act as
a facilitator between actual importer and exporter. Ans. Domestic Tarrif Area
144. U/s 2(77) ‘‘relative’’, with reference to any person, means anyone who is relatedto another, if —apart from
spouse and members of HUF, Father, Mother, son,daughter, their spouses, brother and sister (including step) are
considered as
145. relatives under revised RBI guidelines for FEX transactions as per ……………………….act2013 Ans. Companies
Act
146. A person resident in India, not being a company incorporated in India, may borrowin INR from NRIs/PIOs,
subject to other conditions, at a rate of Interest not morethan..........per cent above Bank Rate prevailing on the
date of availment of loan; Ans.2
147. IOSCO Compliant Country: A country whose securities market regulator is a signatoryto
the………………………..IOSCO Multilateral Memorandum of Understanding (AppendixA Signatories) or a signatory to
bilateral Memorandum of Understanding with theSEBI for information sharing arrangements. IOSCO Means?
148. Ans.International Organisation of Securities Commission
149. MAMP (Minimum Average Maturity Period) normally for ECB will be ….. years otherthan specific sectors
where exceptions are stipulated. Call and put options, if any,shall not be exercisable prior to completion of
minimum average maturity period Ans.3
150. Export Incentives are valued at …. Value. Ans.FOB
151. Import duties are valued at …. Value. Ans.CIF
152. ‘Foreign Portfolio Investment’ is any investment made by a person resident outsideIndia in capital
instruments where such investment is
a. less than …..percent of the post issue paid-up equity capital on a fully dilutedbasis of a listed Indian
company or
b. less than….. percent of the paid up value of each series of capital instruments ofa listed Indian
company.Ans.10
153. Our Bank is on boarded for participating as ‘Financing Bank’ on the TReDS digital platform of M/s.RXIL,
154. Crystallisation of foreign currency import bills drawn under letters of credit shall be done into Rupee
liability within what period? Ans. On the 10th day from the date of receipt of documents in the case of demand
bills and on the due date in the case of usance bills.
155. For which foreign currency, we offer NIL rate of interest in RFC SB account Ans. EURO
156. What is the maximum amount of Indian currency and foreign currency that a traveller can carry abroad?
Ans. INR 25000, and equivalent amount of USD 3000 (For Iraq & Libya - USD 5000 ) (For Iran, Russian Federation
and other Republics of Commonwealth of Independent States - Full exchange may be released up to a maximum of
USD 250,000 per financial year)
157. Obtention of status report/OPL on THE OVERSEAS ENTITY which of the following iscorrect
a. It is Centralised at CPC-FT. request for status report/OPL to the service provideris sent by CPC
b. Branch has to directly write to service provider to get the OPL -Ans. Both a and c are correct
158. The minimum amount of Foreign Currency Loans (FCLR) to residents should be equivalent to ________ in
case of working capital loans/Term loans and equivalent to ________ in case of Short Term Import financing.- USD
150000, USD 50000
159. .What is the maximum upper limit per NBFC for granting FCLR loans to NBFC?- USD 5 million
160. What is the maximum repayment period for FCLR term loan granted to NBFCs?- 3 years
161. As part of the macroprudential framework under the MTF, FPIs can invest only in corporate debt
instruments with a residual maturity of at least one year. RBI has now decided that FPIs will be provided with a
limited window till October 31, 2022 during which they can invest in corporate money market instruments viz.,
commercial paper and non-convertible debentures with an original maturity of up to _____. FPIs can continue to
stay invested in these instruments till their maturity / sale. These investments will not be included for reckoning
the short term limit for investments in corporate securities. Ans. one year
162. RBI has decided to temporarily increase the limit under the automatic route from US$ ____ million or its
equivalent per financial year to US$ 1.5 billion. The all-in cost ceiling under the ECB framework is also being
raised by 100 basis points, subject to the borrower being of investment grade rating. Accordingly, the all in cost
ceiling for new foreign currency denominated ECBs has been temporarily raised to Benchmark rate + ____ bps
from the existing rate of Benchmark rate + 500 bps. The above dispensations are available up to December 31,
2022.Ans. 750 ; 600
163. In order to promote growth of global trade with emphasis on exports from India and to support the increasing
interest of global trading community in INR, all exports and imports under this arrangement may be
denominated and invoiced in _______. Exchange rate between the currencies of the two trading partner
countries may be market determined: Ans. Rupee (INR)
164. To promote growth of global trade with emphasis on exports from India and to support the increasing interest of
global trading community in INR, the settlement of trade transactions under this arrangement shall take place in
INR in accordance with the stipulated procedure. In terms of Foreign Exchange Management (Deposit)
Regulations, 2016, AD banks in India have been permitted to open ____ of correspondent banks of the partner
trading country. Ans. Special Rupee Vostro Accounts
165. Under the broad framework for Cross Border trade transactions in INR, AD banks in India have been permitted to
open Special Vostro Accounts. The Rupee surplus balance held may be used for permissible capital and current
account transactions in accordance with mutual agreement. The balance in Special Vostro Accounts can be used
for which of the following: Ans. Payments for projects and investments, Export/Import advance flow
management & Investment in Govt. Treasury Bills, Govt. securities, etc. in terms of extant guidelines and
prescribed limits, subject to FEMA and similar statutory provision.
166. . If there is reporting delay in submission of Form ODI Part-II/APR, FCGPR (B), FLA Returns, Form OPI, evidence
of investment or any other return which does not capture flows or any other periodical reporting, late
submission fee shall be ___:Ans. Rs.7500
167. As per Forex Management (Hedging of Commodity Price Risk and Freight Risk in Overseas Markets) Directions,
2022, banks can issue Standby Letters of Credit (SBLC) / Guarantees, for a maximum period of ___ , on behalf of
their clients in lieu of making a remittance of margin money for commodity hedging transactions entered into by
their customers. Ans.12 months
168. RBI has decided to put in place an additional arrangement for invoicing, payment, and settlement of exports /
____________Accounts of correspondent bank/s of the partner trading country.Ans: Special Rupee Vostro
Accounts
169. Our Bank is on boarded for participating as ‘Financing Bank’ on the TReDS digital platform of M/s.RXIL,
170. What is the remuneration payable to Panel Advocate conducting Legal Audit/Legal Enforceability Certificate?-
Minimum of Rs.1000/- per mortgage and maximum of Rs.10000/- plus GST
171. Post sanction scrutiny of loan papers should be done by Legal Section for limits of ________.- Rs.1 crore and
above.
172. For any particular borrower having term loan account with limit of ______ eitherProject Implementation
Progress Report (PIPR) or Lenders Independent Engineer (LIE) is to be obtained.- Rs 50 lakh and above
173. LIE’s services should be engaged for non-infrastructure projects with the project cost of __________.- Rs 50
crore and above
174. Th e minimum loan amount under the Foreign Currency Loans (FCLR) to Residents scheme should be equivalent
to ________ in case of working capital loans/Term loans and equivalent to _______ in case of Short Term Import
financing.- USD 150000, USD 50000
In case FCLR is granted for liquidation of existing Rupee Term Loans, the original repayment schedule already
fixed by the bank/FI at the time of sanction of the Term Loan is to be retained and also the residual repayment
period should be within ______.-5 years
175. Th e maximum upper limit per NBFC for granting FCLR is ________.- USD 5 Millions
176. Trade credit can be raised in any freely convertible foreign currency (FCY denominated TC) or Indian Rupee (INR
denominated TC) Up to _______ or equivalent per import transaction for oil/gas refining & marketing, airline
and shipping companies.- USD 150 million
177. Ad hoc credit facilities should be sanctioned within ______under Gold card scheme?- 7 days
178. . Fresh credit limit shuld be sanctioned within ______ under Gold Card Scheme?- 25 days
179. Commitment charges are levied on the unavailed sanctioned working capital limits / Short Term limit for
working capital purposes, including WCDL / Term loans in respect of corporate borrowers with sanctioned limits
of _______and above from Bank.- Rs 10 crore
180. Where borrower is willing to offer _____ margin / additional collateral comfort by way of deposit exclusively to
take care of adverse movement in exchange rate, CGM/GM-HO-CAC and above authority may waive hedging of
forex exposure upto their respective delegated powers.- 10%
181. For non-borrower customers, designated branches are permitted to effect advance remittance towards import of
goods excluding rough diamond and for air craftwithout obtaining Advance Payment Guarantee up to ______ and
for import ofservicesupto _______.-USD 200000, USD 100000
182. Standby credit in respect of export credit can be permitted upto______ of thesanctioned limit or the delegated
power whichever is lower.- 10%
183. Circle Head CAC can waive obtention of Lloyds Certificate, where the value of LCsor the value of each part-
shipment is less than _________.- Rs 1.00 Crore
184. Circle Head CAC can waive obtention of SGS Certificate, where the value of LC orthe value of each part-
shipment is less than ____________.- Rs 2.00 Crore
15.GENERAL BANKING
1. Currency chest holding banks levy service charges on cash deposited by non-chest bank branches at the rate of
Rs. _____ per packet plus GST of 100 pieces and in case of the large modern Currency Chests at the rate of Rs.____
per packet plus GST of 100 pieces. Ans. 5 ; 8
2.The service charges being levied by Large Modern Currency Chests on non-chest bank branches for remittance of
cash per packet of 100 pieces has been enhanced from the existing Rs.5 per packet to Rs._ per packet plus
applicable taxes. Ans: Rs 8/-+Tax
3..What is the penalty levied by RBI to Currency Chests for Non functioning of CCTVs, Non utilisation of Note Sorting
Machines (NSMs) for higher denomination notes of Rs.100 and above: Ans: Penalty of ₹5000 for each instance of
irregularity. Penalty shall be, enhanced to ₹10,000 in case of repetition/ recurrence of irregularity.
4.As per Premises Policy of the Bank, what is the maximum carpet area prescribed for Currency Chest upto AAA
category and for Mega Currency Chest/Cash Processing Centre: Ans: 3500 sft for AAA, 7000 sft for mega.
5.What is the periodicity of RBIA in respect of Currency chest – Risk rated as high by security cell, GA Wing, HO :
Ans: 6 months
6.As per RBI instructions, Fire Audit of Currency Chest is required to be conducted once in _ years by the Govt.
Fire Department and in case of nonavailability of officials of the District Fire Department, the fire audit can also
be conducted by the agencies approved by the respective State / District Fire Departments. Ans: once in 2 years/
biannually
7.What is penalty for Refusal by any bank branch to exchange soiled notes / refusal by any currency chest branch to
adjudicate mutilated notes tendered by any member of public or Non acceptance of lower denomination notes (i.e.
denomination of ₹ 50 and below) tendered by members of public and linked bank branches. Ans: ₹ 10,000 for
any violation of agreement or deficiency of service and ₹ 5 lakh in case there are more than 5 instances of violation
of agreement/ deficiency in service by the branch. The levy of such penalty will be placed in public domain.
8. Chief Security Officer should visit Sensitive Currency Chests once in years and Other area Chests once in years.
Ans: 1 year, 2 years.
9.What is the penalty on the currency chests for delayed reporting to RBI irrespective of the value of net deposit?
Ans. A flat penalty of ₹ 50,000/-
10.What is the penalty imposed by RBI on Banks if mutilated notes detected in soiled note remittances and currency
chest balances? Ans. ₹ 50/- per piece irrespective of the denomination.
11.The currency chests should invariably report all transactions through CyM – CC portal on the same day to RBI by _
Ans.7 pm
12.For setting up new Currency Chests in areas other than hilly / inaccessible places, the minimum area of strong
room should be _ and the minimum Processing capacity of pieces of banknotes per day. Ans. 1500 square feet and
6,60,000
13.As per recent RBI directives, all the scheduled SFBs, after completion of at least ______ of operations as
Authorized Dealer Category-II, will be eligible for Authorized Dealer Category-I license: Ans.2 years
14.Eligibility norms for Small Finance Banks for Authorized Dealer Category-I include 1) it should have a minimum
net worth of ₹500 crore. 2) its CRAR should not be less than 15%. 3) the net NPAs of the bank should not exceed 6%,
during previous four quarters. 4) it should have made profit in the preceding two years. Ans. All - 1 to 4 are correct
15.The Chief Compliance Officer shall not be given any responsibility which brings elements of conflict of interest,
especially any role relating to business. Ans. Dual hatting
16.The Chief Compliance Officer shall be appointed for a minimum fixed tenure of not less than ___ years.
However, in exceptional cases, the Board/ Board Committee may relax the minimum tenure by _____ year,
provided appropriate succession planning is put in place. Ans. 3, 1
17.Pradhan Mantri Kusum Yojna was launched in 2019 and the scheme was approved by the Cabinet Committee on
Economic Affairs on 19 th February 2019. In this, ‘Kusum’ stands for: Ans. Kisan Urja Suraksha and
UthanMahabhiyan
18.PM KUSUM is aimed at ensuring energy security for farmers in India, along with honouring India’s commitment to
increase the share of installed capacity of electric power from non-fossil-fuel sources to ____ by 2030 as part of
Intended Nationally Determined Contributions (INDCs).Ans. 40%
19.Under the Integrated Ombudsman Scheme, the complaint is to be made to the Ombudsman within one year after
the complainant has received the reply from the Bank, or where no reply is received, within ______ from the date
of the complaint.Ans.1 year plus 30 days
20. The Regulated Entity shall comply with the Award passed by the Ombudsman and intimate compliance to the
Ombudsman within ______ from the date of receipt of the letter of acceptance from the complainant, unless it has
preferred an appeal. Ans. 30 days
21. The Bank may, aggrieved by an award passed by the Ombudsman or closure of a complaint within ____ days of
the date of receipt of communication of Award or closure of the complaint, prefer an appeal before the Appellate
Authority. The period of ____days for filing an appeal shall commence from the date on which the Regulated Entity
receives the letter of acceptance of Award by the complainant. Ans. 30, 30
22. RBI’s Integrated Ombudsman Scheme, 2021 covers regulated entities. In August 2022, which of the following has
been included in regulated entity? Ans. Credit Information Companies
23.Every Credit Information Company shall appoint the Internal Ombudsman for a fixed term of not less than ___
years, but not exceeding __ years, Ans.3, 5
24.In CPGRS Package - Before rejecting or providing partial relief to any of the customers’ complaints they need to
be escalated to the _ of the Bank Ans: Internal Ombudsman (IO)
25. An award has been given by Ombudsman. Any party can file appeal within _ on receiving award or the
Ombudsman rejecting his complaint to Appellate Authority – Deputy Governor: Ans: 30 days from the date on
which the bank receives letter of acceptance of Award by complainant.
26.What is the timeline for internal ombudsman for redressal of customer grievances? Ans. 30 days from the date of
receipt of complaint
27.SEBI has recently cancelled the Certificate of Registration (CoR) granted to Brickwork Ratings India Private
Limited as a Credit Rating Agency (CRA). The CRA has been directed to wind down its operations within a period of
___ months from Oct. 6, 2022 and not to take any new clients /fresh mandates from the date of Order. Ans.6
28. Securities Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has issued Public notice in respect of SEBI-Settlement Scheme 2022,
the objective of which is: Ans. To provide an opportunity for settlement to the entities who have executed reversal
trades in the illiquid stock options segment of BSE between April 1, 2014 to September 30, 2015, Against whom
proceedings have been initiated and are pending before any forum or authority, viz. Courts/ Securities Appellate
Tribunal (SAT"), Adjudicating Officer and Recovery Officer.
29.Immediate Payment Service (IMPS) of National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) is providing 24x7 instant
domestic funds transfer facility and is accessible through various channels like internet banking, mobile banking
apps, bank branches, ATMs, SMS and IVRS. In view of the importance of the IMPS system in processing of domestic
payment transactions, RBI has increased the per-transaction limit from Rs.2 lakh to Rs. ______ lakh for channels
other than SMS and IVRS. Ans. 5
30. Fund transfer limit for IMPS transaction through Internet Banking : ₹ 5,00,000/- per day & NEFT/RTGS/FT
transfer is Rs _ _ Ans: Rs10,00,000/-
31. With the reduction of marginal standing facility to2% from 3% of NDTL from January 1, 2022, the total high
quality liquid assets (HQLA) carve out from the mandatory SLR, which can be reckoned for meeting LCR
requirement, has been reduced to ___ of NDTL from __.Ans.17%, 18%
32.RBI enhanced the existing HTM limit of __ % of NDTL to __ % of NDTL and allowed banks to include securities
acquired between April 1, 2022and March 31, 2023 under the enhanced limit Ans. 22%, 23%
33..RBI enhanced the existing HTM limit to 23 % of NDTL and allowed it till March 31, 2023 which will be rolled back
to ___ by 31.3.24, Ans. 19.5%
34.As per RBI directions, enhanced Held to Maturity (HTM) limit of ___ % of Net Demand and Time Liabilities
(NDTL), for Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) eligible securities acquired between September 1, 2020 and March 31,
2023, until March 31, 2024, has been extended till 31.3.2024? Ans. 23%
35.Ceiling per NEFT transaction in Indo Nepal remittance - By cash Rs. 50,000/- and by account- Rs. 2 lacs.
Maximum number of remittance per annum- By cash 12, and by account: Ans: No restriction.
36.For sending NEFT, What is the minimum amount and maximum amount: Ans: Min.Rs.1/- maximum: not
prescribed.
37.There will be 48 half-an hourly NEFT settlements per day i.e. starting from hrs without holidays and on 24 x 7
basis. Ans: 00.30 hrs to 00.00
38.NEFT/ RTGS delay in Credit/return are compensated as per existing RBI guidelines. At present for NEFT/RTGS, it
is current RBI LAF Repo Rate plus _ % Ans: 2%
39.RTGS above Rs. _ shall be ‘authorized by 2 persons’ and released by ‘Releaser’. Ans: Rs. 100 crores
40. In case of RTGS amount exceeding Rs.50 crores, for funds clearance, branches to take up with Ans: Integrated
Treasury Wing, Mumbai.
41.Companies are resorting to the strategy of Shrinkflation to reduce the impact of rising input costs. Which of the
following is correct w.r.t its implications: Ans. It gives rise to hidden inflation, It is because inflation indexes
consider the changes in the average price levels but ignore minor changes in the sizes of the products
&Shrinkflation can lead to customer frustration and deterioration of consumer sentiment towards a producer's
brand.
42.Yield Curve Control (YCC) involves targeting a longer[1]term interest rate by a central bank - buying or selling as
many bonds as necessary to hit that rate target. It tracks yields on government bonds of varying durations, starting
with the one-month Treasury and ending with the ___ years. Ans.30
43.On 1st October, 2022, the new account settlement system for the stock broking industry became operational.
The market regulator mandates stockbrokers to settle i.e., transfer the available credit balance from trading
account to bank account, at least once in a quarter (90 days) or ____ days. Ans. 30
44. AD Cat-I banks can offer Foreign Currency Settled Overnight Indexed Swaps (FCS-OIS) based on MIBOR published
by FBIL through 1) their branches in India, 2) through their International Financial Services Centre (IFSC) Banking
Units(IBUs) 3) through their foreign branches : Ans. 1 to 3 all
45.Capturing the geographical coordinates (latitude and longitude) of payment touch points deployed bymerchants
to receive payments from their customers, is known as ____ Ans. geo-tagging
46. In terms of sections 17(1),11(2)(b)(ii) and 56 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 banks are required to transfer,
out of the balance of profit as disclosed in the profit and loss account, a sum equivalent to not less than ____ % of
such profit to Reserve Fund Ans. 20%
47.Under ways and means advances, States / UTs can avail overdraft for a period of? Ans. 14 days
48. Under ways and means advances, State Governments/UTs can be in OD for a maximum number of ____ days in a
quarter. Ans 36 days
49.As per RBI Guidelines 2022, on Note Authentication and Fitness Sorting Parameters, a fit bank note is a note,
which is genuine, sufficiently clean to allow its denomination to be readily ascertained and suitable for recycling.
Ans. all
50. As per RBI Guidelines 2022, on Note Authentication and Fitness Sorting Parameters, an unfit bank note is a note
that is a) not suitable for recycling b) because of its physical condition c) belongs to a series that has been phased
out by Reserve Bank of India. Ans. All correct
51. As per RBI Guidelines 2022, on Note Authentication and Fitness Sorting Parameters, which of the following is a
fitness sorting criteria : soiling, limpness, dog-ears, tears, holes, strains Ans. all
52.As per RBI Guidelines 2022, on Note Authentication and Fitness Sorting Parameters, for Rs.2000 bank note, the
max density difference and min reflectance allowed is: Ans.0.03, 95%
53. As per RBI Guidelines 2022, on Note Authentication and Fitness Sorting Parameters, banknotes with dog-ears
with an area of more than ___ mm² and a minimum length of the smaller edge greater than ___ mm shall be sorted
as unfit. Ans. 100 mm², 5 mm
54.As per RBI Guidelines 2022, on Note Authentication and Fitness Sorting Parameters, bank notes exhibiting at
least one tear at the edge shall be classified as those having tears Notes with tears larger than ____ (width and
length) in vertical direction, shall be sorted as unfit. Ans. 4 mm, 8 mm
55. As per RBI Guidelines 2022, on Note Authentication and Fitness Sorting Parameters, incase the total area
covered by stains exceeds ___mm², the bank note shall be sorted as unfit. Ans. 500 mm²
56.. As per RBI Guidelines 2022, on Note Authentication and Fitness Sorting Parameters, crumpled / folded notes
shall be sorted as unfit if the folds result in reduction of the original note in length or width greater than __mm.
Ans.5 mm
57.A new tool to absorb liquidity from the banking system has been introduced during April 2022 by RBI, which will
not involve exchange of collateral like govt. securities: Ans. Standing deposit facility
58.The no. of minority concentration districts in India having at least 25% minority population, as per Govt. of India
notifications: Ans. 121
59.Data on credit extended to members of minority communities should be furnished to Reserve Bank of India and
to the Government of India, Ministry of Finance and Ministry of Minority Affairs, on ____basis every year within one
month. Ans. half-yearly
60. _____ means hedging through a derivative contract with a financial institution. It shall be considered only
where the entity has documented the purpose and the strategy for hedging at inception of the derivative contract
and assessed its effectiveness as a hedging instrument at periodic intervals. Ans. financial hedge
61. No person shall continue as MD/ CEO or WTD beyond the age of ___ years. Ans. 70 years
62. As per RBI guidelines, if “Miscellaneous Income” under the head “Schedule 14 - Other Income” in Profit & Loss
account of a bank, exceeds one (1%) of total income, particulars shall be given in the notes to accounts. Ans. 1%
63. Which of the following are benchmarks administered by FBIL and approved by RBI (1) Overnight Mumbai
Interbank Outright Rate (MIBOR) (2) Mumbai Interbank Forward Outright Rate (MIFOR) (3) USD/INR Reference Rate
(4) Modified Mumbai Interbank Forward Outright Rate (MMIFOR) Ans.1 to 4 all
64.Appeal to State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission with in 45 days by depositing _____ % of amount. Ans:
50%
65. Domestic Systematically Important Banks (D SIBs) implies too big to fail. Which Indian Banks are recognised as
on date as D SIBs : Ans: SBI, HDFC Bank, ICICI Bank.
66. To support the development of long-term infrastructure financing in India, Reserve Bank has set up __________
as a development Financial Institution which is Fifth All India Financial Institution after EXIM Bank, NABARD, NHB
and SIDBI. Ans: National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development (NaBFID)
67. Time frame for issuance of NOC/Pari-Passu letters and Ceding of charge in respect of consortium/ MBA: What is
the maximum period within which a member bank in consortium has to issue NOC and cede paripassu charge: Ans:
Max.75 days (15 days to convene meeting by Lead Bank, 30 days for sanction by Lead Bank and another 30 days for
sanction by member bank)
68. Report from Central Economic Intelligence Bureau to be sought for exposures above Rs.________ in respect of
all prospective borrowers and also wherever the borrowal account with an amount exceeding Rs. ______ slips to
NPA. Ans: Rs. 50 crore; Rs. 50 crore
69. If the average utilisation during the quarter is more than _____ %, no commitment charges will be levied. Ans:
75%
70. To enhance the insurance force in India, the IRDAI will soon introduce _______ in each gram panchayat, who
would be tasked to sell and service simple parametric bundled insurance products, BimaVistar, covering health,
property, life and personal accident. Ans. BimaVahaks
71.IDFC Mutual Fund to be Renamed ________ after its acquisition by the later. Ans. Bandhan Mutual Fund
72.Domestic Systematically Important Banks (D SIBs) implies too big to fail. Which Indian Banks are recognised as
on date as D SIBs : Ans: SBI, HDFC Bank, ICICI Bank.
73.To support the development of long-term infrastructure financing in India, Reserve Bank has set up __________
as a development Financial Institution which is Fifth All India Financial Institution after EXIM Bank, NABARD, NHB
and SIDBI. Ans: National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development (NaBFID)
74.Time frame for issuance of NOC/Pari-Passu letters and Ceding of charge in respect of consortium/ MBA: What is
the maximum period within which a member bank in consortium has to issue NOC and cede paripassu charge: Ans:
Max.75 days (15 days to convene meeting by Lead Bank, 30 days for sanction by Lead Bank and another 30 days for
sanction by member bank)
75.If the average utilisation during the quarter ismore than _____ %, no commitment charges will be levied. Ans:
75%
76.Audited financial statements are to be submitted before 31st October every year in case accounting
yearendsat31stMarchorwithin7monthsfromthedateclosing of annual accounts in case accounting year ending is other
than 31st March or within a fortnight of adoption of accounts of the borrower. If not submitted with in prescribed
time, what is the penal interest to be charged: Ans: 2% fromdue date
77. In respect of Low Risk and Normal Risk Rated accounts, what is the periodicity and cut off limit for conducting
Stock Audit: Ans: Rs.5 crores and above, Once in a year.
78. Fixed Assets valuation should be done once in 3 years. In respect of fixed assets (primary/ collateral),
mortgaged to loan accounts (classified as standard assets) under all Housing Loan variants, Canara Mortgage,
Canara Rent, Canara LRD & Canara Site where loan outstanding is Rs. 50 lakhs or above, revaluation of property has
to be undertaken through the empanelled valuers oncein every _____ years. Ans: Five years.
79.It is suggested that minimum gap between two valuations should be three years. If carried out at frequency
lesser than 3 year, then value of property shall be taken at ____ % of the present value of the property (latest
valuation) and valuation shall be carried out by valuer other than the valuer who had given the earlier report. Ans:
85%
80.As per Offsite Transaction Monitoring System, the generated alerts based on scenarios will be assigned to
ROs/COs after analysis at HO OTM section level before 12 Noon. CO/RO to ensure closure of alerts in _ (period)
Ans: T+1 day
81.As per the guidelines in vogue, Bank shall lodge the complaint with the law enforcement agencies immediately
on detection of fraud. Permission to file complaint with CBI should be obtained from _ Ans: MD & CEO.
82.Official Language Implementation Committees (OLIC) are to be formed at RO/CO/HO/ Administrative Units with
maximum 4 staff members in the committee and these OLIC meetings are to be conducted (periodicity). Ans:
Quarterly
83.For prevention of Frauds and Monitoring of Transactions, in line with recommendations of RBI/FIU-IND, new wing
is formed at HO. It is Transaction Monitoring Wing
84.Undelivered Cheque Books & Debit Cards will be redirected/returned and delivered to CPHs linked to respective
base branch. Personalised Cheque books and debit cards, lying undelivered beyond a period of _ from the date of
issue/return of the cheque books by India Post /Courier agency, shall be destroyed by CPH after exhausting all
steps for delivery of the same. Ans: THREE months
85..Depreciation can be added back to the total income selectively for arriving loan quantum under Housing Loan
scheme to Businessmen, Professionals, Self- Employed. Maximum cap of _ % for adding back depreciation
and other income, if any (both put together) to add to total income”. Ans: 20%
86.Cash @ POS facility - The minimum amount of cash withdrawal will be Rs.100/- and thereafter in multiples of
Rs.100/- subject to maximum of Rs 1000/- per day per debit card in Tier I & II Cities and Rs._ in other centres. Ans:
Rs2000/-
87.What is the prescribed Preservation period in respect of Records which relate to disputes or litigations in the
Court of Law : Ans: 20 years after the disputes are over
88.Preservation of physical cheques as required under CTS - The presenting branches should preserve the physical
cheques in their custody securely for a period of 10 years. The images of all the Government cheques paid should
be preserved by the drawee banks for a period of years. Ans: 10 years.
89.For distribution of coins, incentive by RBI is ₹65/- per bag. An additional incentive of ₹ per bag shall be paid for
coin distribution in rural and semi urban areas on the submission of a Concurrent Auditor (CA) certificate to this
effect. Ans: Rs 10/-
90.Not exceeding Rs. in respect of outstation cheques will be credited immediately to all the eligible account
holders without any specific request from the account holder. Instant credit will be extended in case of dividend
warrants / Interest Warrants to all the eligible account holders provided they are drawn on banks and payable on
demand without any pre-condition. Ans: Rs 15000/-
91.Bank shall collect account payee cheque for an amount not exceeding Rs. to the account of cooperative
societies account holders, if the payees of such cheques are the constituent of such cooperative societies. Ans: Rs
50,000/-
92.Positive Pay System is a process of reconfirming the key details of high value cheques issued to the drawee
Bank by the customers. Positive Pay System enables customers to minimise / avoid cheque related frauds by
sharing required details of cheques above Rs. that are being issued. Ans: Rs 50000/-
93.Companies to spend a minimum of % of their net profit on Corporate Social Responsibility(CSR) activities as per
companies act 2013, and CSR Committee to be formed if turnover of Rs.1000 crores or more OR a net worth of
Rs.500 crores or more OR net profit of Rs.5 Crore or more in any financial year. Ans: 2%
94.Bank would return to the borrowers all the securities/ documents/ title deeds to mortgaged property within _
_ days of repayment of all dues agreed to or contracted. Ans: 15 days
95.As per the provisions of the Indian Evidence Act, presumption of death can be made only after a lapse of
years from the date of a person being reported missing, i.e. the date when the FIR / non-traceable report was
lodged. Ans: seven years
96.In case of dishonour of cheques for the reason “Insufficient Funds”, with value less than Rs. 1 Crore, on SIX
occasions during the financial year will attract stoppage of cheque book facility and closure of account. If ECS
mandates are dishonored on _ occasions – closure of account. Ans: FOUR
97.Ministry of Finance has stipulated time schedule for redressal of Customer complaints. Accordingly, General
Complaints – 30 days, forwarded By RBI/MoF/MPs/VVIPs:21 days and by PM Office:15 days. However, Bank has
adopted _ days: Ans: 21/15/7 days for resolving customer complaints.
98.An instrument having date as per SakaSamvat calendar is a valid instrument. A Date Conversion inquiry facility
is provided in_ _. Bank shall ascertain the Gregorian calendar date corresponding to the National Saka calendar in
order to avoid payment of stale cheques. Ans: CBS
99.Accounts of Non Profit Organsiations - All transactions involving receipts by these NPOs of value more than Rs.
or its equivalent in foreign currency is to be reported to FIU-IND centrally from Head Office. Ans: Rs 10 lac
100.The recommended minimum area for a strong room is 150 sqft in rural places, 200 sqft in Semi urban/urban
places and sqft in metropolitan centres. Ans: 300 sft
101.Bank shall report the proposals involving transactions of Premises Rent of Rs._ and above to CBI‚ in
respect of rent (per month), quantum of rental deposit. Ans: Rs25.00 lacs
102..In case of non payment of locker rent for years, Bank shall proceed for break open of locker if no response is
received from the defaulting hirer within 30 days of notice. Ans: three consecutive years
103..Review of Bank Guarantee Progress Report all outstanding performance, advance payment and other
guarantee exceeding Rs._ , shall be done on an ongoing basis at half yearly intervals after completion of 6 months
from the date of issue of the guarantees. Ans: Rs5 lacs
104.In case of VLB/ ELB / LCB / MCB wherever income leakage detected is Rs.25 lacs and above per branch per
audit, such things are to be reported as Special reports. However, income leakage detected below Rs.25 lacs in
these branches, to be invariably reported under _ observations. Ans: Part B
105.As per Guidelines issued by the Ministry of Finance, weightage under Risk Based Internal Audit (RBIA) is for
Business Risk: 20% (growth risk) & Control Risk: 80%. Branches with composite Risk of 35 and above to less than 55
are classified as Risk grade branch. Ans: Moderate Risk
106. Cash Remittance above Rs. 20 lakhs and upto Rs. 50 lakh–One Armed guard should accompany. Cash
Remittance above Rs. 50 lakhs- Armed guards should accompany. Ans: Two
107.Recordings of CCTV to be are to be preserved for days. Ans: 90 days
108. Whistle Blower Policy -the employees of the Bank may make a written complaint regarding unethical
practice/ frauds observed by him. The complaint shall be in a closed/ secured envelope and should be addressed
to the Chief General Manager, _Wing, Head Office, who is the “Designated Authority”. Ans: H R Wing.
109. In case of Bank employees /customers/ members of public who actively resist bank robberies and
terrorists’ attacks on Banks, the Bank may consider a cash reward not exceeding Rs. Ans: Rs2 lakhs
110. As per RBI Guidelines all death claims shall be settled in stipulated time line of _ days. Ans: 15 days
111. Charges for issuance of withdrawal slips for those account holders who hold Cheque book with them.
Ans: Rs.50+ GST per instance
112. A mutilated note is a note of which a portion is missing or which is composed of more than pieces. Ans:
two
113. When Counterfeit Notes are detected in the soiled note remittance of the bank, Penalty at _ % of the
notional value of Counterfeit Notes, in addition to the recovery of loss to the extent of the notional value of such
notes, will be imposed. Ans: 100%
114. For cases of detection of Counterfeit Notes up to _ pieces, in a single transaction, a consolidated
report in the prescribed format should be sent by the Nodal Bank Officer to the police authorities or the Nodal
Police Station, along with the suspect Counterfeit Notes, at the end of the month. Ans: 4
115. An individual travelling from India to Nepal or Bhutan can carry Reserve Bank of India notes of Mahatma
Gandhi (new) Series of denominations Rs. 200/- and/or Rs. 500/- up to a total limit of Rs Ans: Rs.25,000/- (No
celing for currency notes upto denomination of Rs.100/- to Nepal and Bhutan)
116. What are the Current Ratio Norms for Working Capital Assessment: Ans: Turnover Method: 1.25, MPBF&
Cash Budget Method: 1.33
117. As per extant instructions, banks may shift investments to/from HTM with the approval of the once a
year and such shifting will normally be allowed at the beginning of the accounting year. Ans: Board of Directors
118. Where the number of Soiled notes presented by a person is up to 20 pieces with a maximum value of
per day, banks should exchange them over the counter, free of charge. Ans: ₹ 5000/-
119. As per Large Exposure Norms, Bank's exposure to its counterparties may result in concentration of its
assets to a single counterparty or a group of connected counterparties. This leads to what type of Risk: Ans:
Concentration Risk
120. As per Framework of MSME Restructuring, ‘Satisfactory Performance’ means no payment (interest and/or
principal) shall remain overdue for a period of more than _ days. In case of cash credit / overdraft account,
satisfactory performance means that the outstanding in the account shall not be more than the sanctioned limit
or drawing power, whichever is lower, for a period of more than days. Ans: 30 days, 30 days.
121. The Lenders‟ Independent Engineers (LIE) provide professional engineering consultancy services in project
finance. LIE‟s services shall be engaged for non- infrastructure projects with the project cost of more than Rs. .
Ans: Rs. 50 crore
122. Status holders, 100% EOU, EHTP, Software Technology park (STP) etc, are permitted to realize and
repatriate within a period of months from the date of export. For units having Warehouses abroad the time period
is months: Ans: 9m & 15m.
123. What is the Definition of Shell Bank: Ans: A company doing Banking business but having no physical
presence.
124. What is the minimum Leverage ratio decided by RBI for banks: Ans: 4% for domestic systemically
important banks (D-SIBs) and 3.5% for other banks.
125. Bankers’ right to sell the pledged gold ornaments is under which Act: Ans: Indian Contract Act, 1872.
126. Deferred tax assets arising due to timing differences may be recognised as CET-1 capital up to % of a
bank’s CET-1 capital. Ans: 10%
127. Aggregate Capital market exposure restricted to _ % (Both indirect and direct) of net worth of the
bank as on March 31 of previous year both on Solo and Consolidated basis. Within the overall limit, direct
exposure by investment in shares, debentures / bonds not to exceed % of net worth: Ans: 40 ; 20
128. Under Large Exposure framework, maximum exposure which bank can take to single counterparty is %
and the board of directors can further allow upto __ over and above the stipulated limit: Ans: 20% , 5%
129. As per UCPDC, the issuing Bank is allowed a time period of following the day of the receipt of the
documents to verify its genuineness: Ans: 5 Banking days.
130. What is the liability of a partner in a partnership firm. Ans: Joint and several liability
131. An account holder has given power of attorney to an agent for operating the account. The principal
account holder has died and you receive a cheque signed by an agent. Whether cheque issued by POA holder can
be passed: Ans: Since the principal has died, agency stands terminated and such cheques signed by the agent will
be returned unpaid.
132. Garnishee order will be applicable in accounts where banker customer relationship is that of : Ans: Debtor
and Creditor.
133. Under Prevention of Money Laundering Act, all necessary records of transactions between the Bank and
the customer should be maintained for minimum :Ans: 5 years.
134. What is the liability of a partner in a Limited Liability Partnership (LLP): Ans: To the extent of their share
in business only and personal assets are not liable.
135. When a person dies intestate, Court will appoint : Ans: Administrator through Letter of Administration.
136. No Bank can hold shares in any Company by way of pledge or absolute ownership in excess of % of
paid up capital and reserves of that bank of _ % of the paid up capital of the Company, whichever is less: Ans:
30% ; 30%.
137. Reserve Bank of India pay interest @ _ on the CRR balances maintained by Scheduled Commercial Banks:
Ans: NIL
138. As per Section of Banking Regulation Act, Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) is a minimum percentage of
deposits that a commercial bank has to maintain in the form of liquid cash, gold or other securities in relation to
its Demand and Time Liabilities of the Bank: Ans: Section 24
139. DI&CGC fees is per Rs.100: Rs 12 paisa per Rs 100 deposit per annum, payable half yearly
140. Money laundering means _ : Ans: Conversion of illegal funds into legal funds through banking channels and
financial frauds.
141. Bankers Lien is a general lien is a _: Ans: Implied pledge. (A lien is the right of a creditor in
possession of goods/ securities or any other assets belonging to the debtor to retain them until the debt is repaid,
provided that there is no contract express or implied, to the contrary.
142. Bank has sanctioned credit facilities to two Partnership firms in which partners are common and identical.
Firm A has overdue loan liability. Firm B has credit balance. Can the bank exercise the right of Set-Off: Ans: Yes,
because partners are common and identical and further partners are jointly and severally liable.
143. A financial contract that derives its value from another financial product / commodity called underlying
such as a stock, stock index, a foreign currency, a commodity is defined as _ _ Ans: Derivative
144.As per Social Media Policy of the Bank, e-mail queries/issues of customers should be responded by first level
contact with in 5 hours and if no response, it will be escalated to second level who has to respond with in _ time.
Ans: Before end of working hour of day1.
145.Cheques dishonoured for the reason insufficient funds : should be returned/ dispatched to the customers
within_ , along with a memo Ans: 24 hours
146.Customers’ day observed by branches on 15th of every month. Branch manager to beavailable in the branch to
meet customers without any prior appointment on this day between time. Ans: 3pm to 5 pm.
147.Banks are mandated to send online alerts to the cardholders for all for the value of ₹ and above. Ans: Rs 5000/-
148.Branches have to report actual/suspected frauds immediately on detection within (time) to R& R Section,
Recovery, Legal and Fraud Prevention Wing, HO, who shall report the frauds to RBI with in 1 week if fraud is Rs.5 cr
and above, with in 3 weeks in other cases. Ans: 24 hours
149.Frauds of more than Rs are to be lodged by Circle Head to CBI – to be lodged with Head of Zone, CBI, New
Delhi (B&F Zone, the Nodal Officer on behalf of CBI). Ans: Rs.50 crore
150. Compensation to Borrower in case of theft of Gold Loan Packet, Should be settled by CO HEAD, in maximum
of months time from the date of the complaint. Ans: 4 months
151. Cheques presented in High value clearing (with minimum Rs 1 lakh) shall be credited Ans: on the same day
152.Snap Audit of Moderate Risk branches where credit growth is abnormally steep / NPAs are high and recovery is
stagnant - shall be carried out after 6 months from the end of review, but before 9 months. What are trigger points
for Snap Audit . Ans: NPA >20% of gross advances, spurt in credit >20% in 6m, NPA recovery <50% of target & Credit
Risk marks >50% of allotted score.
153.The time line for closure of RBIA reports of branches / units are : Small / Medium / SME Branches/ Service units
viz. LPC, Accounts Section, CPH / RO etc. : Months & Large / VLB / ELB / MCB / LCB / RAH / MSME Sulabhs :
months from the date of submission of the report Ans: 2 months, 3 months.
154.Payment of Cheques after Stop Payment Instructions - if acknowledged by the bank, the bank shall reverse the
transaction and give value-dated credit and any consequential financial loss will be compensated. Debits will be
reversed within working days of the customer intimating the transaction to bank. Ans: 2 working days
155. Delay in revision of pension and payment of arrears to pensioners including non State resident pensioners,
the Bank shall compensate the pensioners' for the delayed period beyond the due date at % penal interest. Ans: 8%
156. In cases where the responsibility for the un-authorized Electronic Banking Transaction lies neither with
the bank nor with the customer, but lies elsewhere in the system and when there is a delay (of 4 to 7 working days
after receiving the communication from the bank), what is the maximum liability of a Customer: Ans: Maximum
Rs.25,000/- (Bank not liable to compensate delay in reporting by customer beyond 60 days )
157.. Unclaimed deposits of more than 10 years are transferred to Depositor Education Awareness Fund (DEAF).
Rate of Interest payable on DEAF fund deposits is _ Ans: 3% p.a. simple interest.
158.. What is the quantum of insurance coverage for a branch premises: Ans: Rs.200 cr (covered by National
Insurance Company Ltd) Basic sum insurance is Rs.2 crores.
159. What amount to be attached in case of no amount is mentioned in Garnishee order?Ans. Full amount
160. What is the minimum and maximum amount of guarantee cover on loan amount is available under the
Credit Enhancement Guarantee Scheme for the Scheduled Castes (SCs)? Ans. Rs.15.00 Lakhs and Rs.5.00 crores.
161. What is the relationship between Bank & Customer when customer left items in the bank inadvertently
Ans. Trustee and beneficiary
162 Prior notice of at least what period to be given by Banks to customers in case of change in service charges?
Ans. 30 days
163. The banks should ensure that cash receipts in the denominations of ₹ are not put into re- circulation without
the notes being machine processed for authenticity.Ans: Rs.100/- and above
164. What is the limit on number of members/shareholders in a Private Limited Company?Ans. minimum of 2
shareholders and a maximum of 200.
165. What is the meaning of an inchoate negotiable instrument? Ans. Instrument which is incomplete but is
signed by the drawer.
165. Cash Reserve Ratio is defined in which act and section? Ans. Section 42(1) of RBI Act
166. Banks should preserve Counterfeit Notes for a period of years from the date of receipt from the Police
authorities/ Courts. Further, counterfeit notes, which are subject matter of litigation in the court of law should be
preserved with the branch concerned for years after conclusion of the court case. Ans. 3 years and 3 years.
167. Which data to be provided to Banks by the drawer of a cheque under Positive pay system? Ans. Beneficiary
name, amount and date of cheque.
168. Soiled note remittances to RBI should not be shown as withdrawal by chest/s. In case such remittances to
RBI are wrongly reported as 'withdrawals', a penalty of ₹ will be levied irrespective of the value of
remittance and period of such wrong reporting. Ans. ₹ 50,000/-
169. Flying club maintains account with your Bank which is operated by Secretary and treasurer. Bank gets
information that, the treasure has died recently. What will be the course of action when Bank receives the cheque
signed by Secretary and treasurer? Ans. Cheque will be passed
170. Banking outlet which does not provide delivery of service for a minimum of hours per day for at least days
a week will be considered a part time banking outlet. Ans. 4 hours & 5 days
171. Attestation of nomination made by a literate person is required to be done with how many witnesses? Ans.
No attestation/witness is required. Only for illiterates, 2 witnesses required.
172. Who supervises / registers the Limited Liability Partnerships in India? Ans. Ministry of Corporate
Affairs/ROC
174. What does the Breakeven point shows? Ans: It is the level of business activity at which the entity in a
position of no profit and no loss
175. What is the provision required for a secured advance classified as substandard asset 6 months before? Ans.
15% of total outstanding balance
176. Which period denotes Middle of the Months as per UCPDC? Ans. Date range from 11th to 20th of a month
177. What is the relationship between customer and Bank in case of Standing Instruction given by customer?
Ans. Principal and Agent
178. Safe custody of article falls under which Act? Ans. Indian Contract Act
179. Safe Deposit vault / locker falls under which Act? Ans. Transfer of property Act
180. What is the definition of noting? Ans. Noting is the process of getting the dishonoured bill or Promissory
Note, being noted by a notary public upon the instrument within a reasonable time after dishonour.
181. Paying Banker gets protection under which section of NI Act for making payment of materially alter
cheque which appears to be genuine? Ans. Section 89
182. In the matter of settlement of deceased claim, what is the meaning of Testamentary succession? Ans.
Testamentary succession is the succession in which the property is transferred as per the Will made by the person
before his death.
184. Section 131 of Negotiable Instrument Act 1881 gives protection to Collecting Banker against: Ans.
Conversion
185. Stamped receipt for payments has to be affixed if the payment through voucher is above: Ans: above Rs.
5000/-
186. Banks should reply at least what percentage of letters in C category states in Hindi? Ans. 55 percent
187. What is the periodicity of submission of Form-15G/H by customers? Ans. Once in a Financial Year
preferably during April
188. Takeout financing is related with; Ans. Financing Infrastructure with long repayment tenor
189. Lending rate at which commercial banks can borrow from the RBI without providing any security & by way
of Rediscounting Bills with RBI is: Ans. Bank rate
190. What is the stamp duty applicable in case of issue of Bonus shares? Ans. In case of issuance of bonus
shares, no consideration/ price is involved and thus, no stamp duty will be levied.
191. Conversion of physical certificate into electronic form is termed as; Ans. Dematerialization
192. Nomination facility other than individuals is available in case of: Ans. Proprietorship accounts
193. What is the limitation period for securities under lien? Ans. No limitation period for filing suit by
exercising the right of lien
194. What is the relationship between the Bank and customer in case of lockers? Ans. Lessor and Leasee
195. What is Net Interest Income? Ans. Net interest income (NII) is the difference between the interest income
a bank earns from its lending activities and the interest it pays to depositors.
196. The notice board/notices should be in which language? Ans.Hindi followed by English in Hindi speaking
states and in trilingual form with regional language followed by Hindi and English in other states
197. Where refund has been claimed from DEAF, Banks shall preserve records/documents in respect of such
accounts and transactions, for a period of at least from the date of refund from the fund. Ans. 5 years
198. What is the period of Notice Money? Ans. Between 2 to 14 days
199. Money market instruments for borrowing or lending in unsecured funds for periods exceeding 14 days and
up to one year is termed as: Ans. Term Money
200. What is the penalty payable by Bank to RBI for detection of counterfeit notes in soiled note remittance
and chest balance? Ans. 100% of the notional value of Counterfeit Notes, in addition to the recovery of loss to the
extent of the notional value of such notes
201. What is the penalty payable by Bank to RBI for detection of mutilated notes in soiled note remittance and
chest balance? Ans. ₹ 50/- per piece irrespective of the denomination in addition to recovery of amount of loss
203. What is the maximum limit under Liberalized Remittance Scheme for remittance abroad by a resident
individual? Ans. USD 250000 per Financial Year
204. What is the platform of RBI for registration of frauds of Rs.1.00 Lakh and above?Ans. Frauds Reporting and
Monitoring System-FRMS.
205. What is the type of liability in case of a Bank guarantee? Ans. Contingent Liability
206. Bankers right to combine the accounts of customer having debit and credit balance and settle the dues is
called: Ans. Right to Set-Off.
207. Under RTI Act, what is the penalty per day for not replying the information sought within 30 days or
wrong reply? Ans. Rs.250/- per day with max.Rs25,000/-
208. As per which act/section, Bank notes not to be stapled? Ans: As per RBI directives issued under Section
35A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, regarding Clean Note Policy
209. What is the relationship between Bank and customer in case of safe custody of articles? Ans: Bailee and
Bailor
210. What is Paripassu Charge? Ans. Charge on a Asset by more than one lenders/charge holders with equal
rights proportionate to their loan amount
211. What is the relationship between Bank and a customer in case of Overdraft?Ans. Creditor and Debtor
212. What is Pledge? Ans. Pledge is defined u/s 172 of Contract Act, is bailment of moveable goods as security
for securing payment of debt and interest. Possession of goods with the Bank, while ownership remains with the
Borrower.
213. What is the limitation period of right to lien? Ans. No limitation in case of lien and pledge
214. What is Fund Flow Statement? Ans. A fund flow statement is a statement prepared to analyse the reasons
for changes in the financial position of a company between two balance sheets. It portrays the inflow and
outflow of funds i.e. sources of funds and applications of funds for a particular period.
215. What is spot rate in Currency transactions? Ans. The transactions where the Cash delivery/ standard
settlement happens in two business days after the transaction date (T+2).
216. What is right of subrogation? Ans. Right of guarantor to claim on the securities of principal borrower
charged to Bank upon repayment of debt obligations by the guarantor
217. For Zero liability of a customer on online fraud where negligence lies neither with customer nor with
Bank but with a third party breach, reporting to the Bank to be done by the customer within a period of _ Ans. 3
working days of receiving the communication from the bank regarding the unauthorised transaction.
218. What is the minimum and maximum number of partners in an LLP? Ans. Minimum of two and no maximum
limit
219. What is the maximum award, the Banking ombudsmen can impose for mental agony of customer? Ans.
Rs.1.00 Lakh
220. What is the Liability of banks arising from events like fire, theft, burglary, dacoity, robbery, building
collapse or in case of fraud committed by the employees of the bank: Ans: The banks’ liability shall be for an
amount equivalent to one hundred times the prevailing annual rent of the safe deposit locker.
221. What is the Liability of banks arising from events like fire, theft, burglary, dacoity, robbery, building
collapse or in case of fraud committed by the employees of the bank: Ans: The banks’ liability shall be for an
amount equivalent to one hundred times the prevailing annual rent of the safe deposit locker.
16. BASEL & RISK MANAGEMENT

1. As per the extant guidelines on Basel III Capital Regulations, banks are permitted to apply zero percent risk
weights in respect of claims on Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises (CGTMSE), Credit Risk
Guarantee Fund Trust for Low Income Housing (CRGFTLIH) and National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company Ltd
(NCGTC). In case of a portfolio-level guarantee, effective from _____, the extent of exposure subjected to first
loss absorption by the MLI, if any, shall be subjected to full capital deduction and the residual exposure shall be
subjected to risk weight as applicable to the counterparty in terms of extant regulations, on a pro rata basis. Ans.
April 1, 2023
weights in respect of claims on CGTMSE, CRGFTLIH and NCGTC. Further, any future scheme launched under any of
the Trust Funds, in order to be eligible for zero percent risk weight, shall provide for settlement of the eligible
guaranteed claims within ____ days from the date of lodgement, and the lodgement shall be permitted within
____ days from the date of default. Ans.30,60
3. Capital market regulator SEBI has enhanced disclosure rules for credit rating agencies (CRAs) and put in place a
framework for rating withdrawal of ______. Ans. Perpetual debt securities
4. The framework for credit rating agencies (CRAs) pertaining to Sharp Rating Action will be applicable from the
first half of the financial year ____ those related to issuers not cooperating by March 31, 2023, enhanced
disclosures will be applicable for disclosures made after March 31, 2023. Ans.2022-23
5. A credit rating agency (CRA) will have to disclose a sharp rating action if the rating change between
___consecutive rating actions is more than or equal to _____ notches downward. Ans. 2, 3
6. To facilitate withdrawal of ratings of perpetual debt securities, a credit rating agency CRA may withdraw rating
of such securities in case the rating agency has rated such securities continuously for _____ years; or received an
undertaking from the issuer as well as other CRA that a rating is available on such securities. Ans. 5
7. In order to facilitate enhanced transparency and usability of disclosures made by credit rating agencies (CRAs)
on their websites, these disclosures should be in Excel or machine readable format and an archive of disclosures
should be maintained by them on their website for at least ___ years. Ans. 10
8. As per the 25th issue of Financial Stability Report (FSR), released by RBI, Scheduled Commercial Banks
maintained robust capital positions, with the Capital to Risk Weighted Assets Ratio (CRAR) and Common Equity
Tier 1 (CET-1) Ratio reaching a new high of ____ per cent and _____ per cent, respectively, in March 2022. Ans.
16.7;13.6
9. As per RBI’s Basel III Framework on Liquidity Standards –Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR), Liquidity Risk Monitoring
Tools and LCR Disclosure Standards and Net Stable Funding ratio – Small Business Customers (Jan 2022), RBI
increased the threshold limit for deposits and other extensions of funds made by non-financial Small Business
Customers from ___ to __ crore for the purpose of maintenance of Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR).Ans.Rs.5 cr to
Rs.7.50 cr
10. As per RBI’s Basel III Framework on Liquidity Standards – Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR),Liquidity Risk Monitoring
Tools and LCR Disclosure Standards and Net Stable Funding ratio– Small Business Customers (Jan 2022), liabilities
receiving a ___ ASF factor comprise “less stable”non-maturity (demand) deposits and/or term deposits with
residual maturities of less than one year provided by retail and small business customers Ans. 90%
11. For Assessment of Group Risk, Key financials (Turnover, Net Profit, Leverage, TNW, Liquidity etc) of major
group concerns/companies including JVs having holding above ____ % of paid up capital in all the accounts and
also where corporate guarantees are stipulated shall be incorporated in the office note. Ans: 30%
12. Exposures to CICs will continue to be risk-weighted at _____ % Ans: 100%.
13. What is the Risk Weight in respect of Housing Loans where LTV is more than 80% and less than or equal to 90%
:Ans: 50%
14. The credit risk rating of a borrower shall become overdue for updation after the expiry of 15 months from the
month of confirmation of rating or ______ months from the date of signing the balance sheet by auditors based
on which credit risk rating was assigned, whichever isearlier. No credit decisions after expiry. Ans: 18 months
15. Claims guaranteed by State Govt., Claims on ECGC attract ____ % Risk Weight. Ans: 20%
16. What is the Risk Weight in respect of Housing Loans where LTV is equal to or less than 80% :Ans: 35%
17. As per BASEL III guidelines, Deferred Tax Assets arising due to timing differences may be recognised as CET1
capital upto ____ % of Bank’s CET1 capital. Ans: 10%
18. Innovative Perpetual Debt Instruments and Perpetual Non Cumulative Preference Shares put to gether should not
exceed _____ % of Tier 1 Capital as per BASEL III.Ans: 40%
19. The value of Redeemable Instrument (RCPS, RNCPS) is taken at a discount based on the remaining period, for
inclusion under Tier 2 Capital. If the remaining maturity period is two year and more- less than three years, the
rate of discount applicable is______ Ans: 60%
20. As per BASEL III guidelines, banks to maintain Liquidity Coverage Ratio of 100%. To meet this norm, banks have
to maintain High Quality Liquid Assets to meet ____ days Net Cash Outflows: Ans: 30 days.
21. External Credit Assessment Institutions (ECAI) Rating will only applicable for Risk Weightage and Pricing of Loans
& Advances. Rating Disclosures through Press Releases by ECAI should contain Bank’s name and corresponding
Credit facilities. ECAI rating without above disclosures will be treated as unrated and will attract _____ % of Risk
Weight, if the exposure is above Rs.200 crores. Ans: 150%
22. The third pillar of BASEL III: Ans. Market discipline
23. What is systemic risk? Ans. Systemic risk refers to the risk of a breakdown of an entire system rather than simply
the failure of individual parts. In a financial context, it denotes the risk of a cascading failure in the financial
sector, caused by linkages within the financial system, resulting in a severe economic downturn.
24. As per BASEL-III norms, RBIA Audit system relates to which pillar? Ans. Pillar- II, Supervisory review process
25. What is the capital charge for operational risk under Basic Indicator Approach?Ans.15% of average Positive Gross
income of preceding three financial years
26. What is the risk weight for State Government guaranteed loan? Ans. 20%
27. What type of risk is associated with failed internal processes, manpower mistakes etc.? Ans. Operational Risk
28. The value of Redeemable Instrument (RCPS, RNCPS) is taken at a discount based on the remaining period, for
inclusion under Tier 2 Capital. If the remaining maturity period is two year and more- less than three years, the
rate of discount applicable is______ Ans: 60%
29. External Credit Assessment Institutions (ECAI) Rating will only applicable for Risk Weightage and Pricing of Loans
& Advances. Rating Disclosures through Press Releases by ECAI should contain Bank’s name and corresponding
Credit facilities. ECAI rating without above disclosures will be treated as unrated and will attract _____ % of Risk
Weight, if the exposure is above Rs.200 crores. Ans: 150%
weights in respect of claims on Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises (CGTMSE), Credit
Risk Guarantee Fund Trust for Low Income Housing (CRGFTLIH) and National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company
Ltd (NCGTC). In case of a portfolio-level guarantee, effective from _____, the extent of exposure subjected to
first loss absorption by the MLI, if any, shall be subjected to full capital deduction and the residual exposure
shall be subjected to risk weight as applicable to the counterparty in terms of extant regulations, on a pro rata
basis. Ans. April 1, 2023
weights in respect of claims on CGTMSE, CRGFTLIH and NCGTC. Further, any future scheme launched under any
of the Trust Funds, in order to be eligible for zero percent risk weight, shall provide for settlement of the
eligible guaranteed claims within ____ days from the date of lodgement, and the lodgement shall be permitted
within ____ days from the date of default. Ans.30,60
32. Capital market regulator SEBI has enhanced disclosure rules for credit rating agencies (CRAs) and put in place a
framework for rating withdrawal of ______. Ans. Perpetual debt securities
33. The framework for credit rating agencies (CRAs) pertaining to Sharp Rating Action will be applicable from the
first half of the financial year ____ those related to issuers not cooperating by March 31, 2023, enhanced
disclosures will be applicable for disclosures made after March 31, 2023. Ans.2022-23
34. A credit rating agency (CRA) will have to disclose a sharp rating action if the rating change between
___consecutive rating actions is more than or equal to _____ notches downward. Ans. 2, 3
35.To facilitate withdrawal of ratings of perpetual debt securities, a credit rating agency CRA may withdraw rating of
such securities in case the rating agency has rated such securities continuously for _____ years; or received an
undertaking from the issuer as well as other CRA that a rating is available on such securities. Ans. 5
36. In order to facilitate enhanced transparency and usability of disclosures made by credit rating agencies (CRAs)
on their websites, these disclosures should be in Excel or machine readable format and an archive of disclosures
should be maintained by them on their website for at least ___ years. Ans. 10
37. As per the 25th issue of Financial Stability Report (FSR), released by RBI, Scheduled Commercial Banks
maintained robust capital positions, with the Capital to Risk Weighted Assets Ratio (CRAR) and Common Equity
Tier 1 (CET-1) Ratio reaching a new high of ____ per cent and _____ per cent, respectively, in March 2022. Ans.
16.7;13.6
38. As part of capital adequacy framework in India, which of the following is part of Tier-2 capital and at the same
time, the 1.25% of risk weighted assets ceiling is not applicable on that? investment fluctuation reserves
39. The risk weight for a housing loan to individual (sanctioned from 16.10.20 to 31.03.23) is ____ where the loan
to value ratio is less than or equal to 80%, irrespective of amount of loan. 35%
40. The risk weight for a housing loan to individual (sanctioned from 16.10.20 to 31.03.23) is ____ where the loan
to value ratio is >80% to 90%, irrespective of amount of loan. 50%
41. The provision on standard loan under housing loans to individual scheme shall be __ , if loan to value ratio
criteria of RBI is complied with. 0.25%
42. As per the latest RBI guidelines, which of the following will be the applicable Risk Weight Percentage on
Individual Housing Loans sanctioned from 16thOctober 2020 till March 31,2023 ? LTV of the loan ≤ 80%-Risk
weight will be 35% and LTV of > 80% and ≤ 90% -Risk weight will be 50%
43. According to Basel 1, The minimum capital requirement was fixed at What % of risk weighted assets (RWA)?Ans.
8%
44. The Guidelines of Basel III were released in which year? Ans. 2010 & Implemented in India wef 01.04.2013
45. Which of the following is known as the third pillar of basel-II accord? Ans.Market discipline
46. The minimum total capital ratio under Basel -III is ………..% of RWA. That is Ans. 9%
47. With reference to basel III how much capital conservation buffer are bank required to maintain? Ans. 2.5%
48. ----------- is not under the three pillars of BASEL III norms in banking industry? Ans. Risk oriented Supervision
49. W hat are the elements of Tier-I capital, including additional Tier-I capital as per BASEL-III?
50. Ans.a) Paid up equity capital, statutory & disclosed reserves, b) Capital reserves representing surplus
arising out of sale proceeds of assets , c) Perpetual non-cumulative preference shares and debt capital
instruments eligible for inclusion under additional tier-I - All of the above
51. To calculate capital adequacy ratio, the banks are required to take into account which of the following
risks?Ans. Credit risk, market risk, operational risk
52. Basel Committee on Banking Supervision is a committee of banking super authorities that was established
by:Ans. Central Bank governors of the group of 10 countries
53. What is the full form of NSFR? Ans.Net stable funding ratio
54. As per the basel III implementation in India, minimum Tier1 capital must be ____________ % of risk weighted
assets on on-going basis. Ans. 7%
55. As per Basel III, the risk of losses in on balance sheet and off balance sheet positions arising from movements in
market prices is called_______Ans. Market risk
56. How many pillars is the Basel II Framework based? Ans.3
57. Operational risk is the risk of loss arising from various types of;Ans.Human error,System failed in the bank &
Breakdown in internal control - All
58. Which of the following is the risk of default on a debt that may arise from a borrower failing to make required
payments? Ans.Credit Risk
59. What is the effect on capital requirement of bank if it takes exposure on riskier assets? Ans. More capital is
required
60. The net stable funding ratio (NSFR) under basel III was implanted in India from …… Ans. April 1,2018
61. As per Basel III norms, the risk of losses in on-balance sheet and off balance sheet positions arising from
movements in market prices is called______Ans.Market Risk
62. Which among the following are domestic credit rating agencies approved by RBI for the purpose of credit rating
to determine risk weight for rated exposures?Acuite Ratings and Research Limited (erstwhile SMERA Ratings
Ltd.) 2. Brickwork Ratings India Pvt. Limited; 3. CARE Ratings Ltd. (erstwhile Credit Analysis and Research
Limited); 4. CRISIL Limited; 5. ICRA Limited; 6. India Ratings and Research Private Limited; 7. Informerics
Valuation and Ratings Pvt. Ltd." Ans. All
63. What is the capital conservation buffer that banks have to maintain as per BASEL-III framework? Ans. 2.5%
64. What is the range of Counter Cyclic Buffer as per BASEL-III framework? Ans. 0% - 2.5%
65. What is the minimum Tier-I capital, banks have to maintain as per Basel-III framework? Ans.7%
66. What is the minimum Common Equity Tier-I capital, banks have to maintain as per Basel III
framework?Ans.4.5%
67. What is the minimum total capital including CCB that Indian banks have to maintain as per Basel-III
framework?Ans. 11.5%
68. What is the minimum Common Equity Tier-I capital, Indian banks have to maintain as per Basel-III framework?
Ans.5.5%
69. The minimum Leverage Ratio should be ____ for Domestic Systemically Important Banks (DSIBs) and ___ for
other banks as per RBI Guidelines Ans. 4%, 3.5%
70. Under Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR), banks are required to hold an amount of highquality liquid assets that is
enough to fund cash outflows for ______ days. Ans.30
71. What is the minimum Net Stable Funding Ratio (NSFR) that banks have to maintain in ongoing basis? Ans. 100 %
72. Basic indicator approach is used for computation of which risk? Ans. Operational Risk
73. Advanced internal rating based approach is used for computation of which risk? Ans. Credit Risk
74. What is the full form of LCR with regard to basel norms? Ans. Liquidity coverage ratio.
75. For Indian banks, revaluation reserves are to be included in Tier-2 capital at a discount of_________Ans. 55%
76. _____________ is a measure of the worst expected loss over a given time normal market conditions at a given
confidence level? Ans. VaR
77. Default by one financial institution leads to defaults by other financial institutions. The effect is
called?Ans.ripple effect
78. ICAAP means Ans. internal capital adequacy assessment process
79. RAROC stands for Ans. Risk adjusted return on capital
80. With minimum CRAR of 9%,Tier -2 capital can be admitted maximum upto _________Ans. 2%
81. What is the risk weighted for loan guaranteed by state government? Ans. 20%
82. What is the risk weighted for cash balance maintained with other bank? Ans. 20 %
83. Under Basel III, risk weight for capital charge for credit risk on the basis of standardized approach for exposure
to regulatory retail portfolio is? Ans. 75%
84. What is the risk weight for credit exposure to a unrated corporate (loan above RS 5 crores)? Ans. 150 %
85. Probability of Default (PD) is probability that the borrower will default within a ___ year horizon. Ans.1
86. Whenever both internal and external ratings are available, the ______ratings shall be taken in to consideration
for determining the exposure ceiling for the single borrower entity. Ans. external
87. As per Basel III requirements, modified by RBI during 2014, banks can issue Tier 2 capital instruments with a
minimum original maturity of at least ______ years. Ans. Five years
88. Under Basel III, the option available to compute capital for operational risk are:Ans. Basic indicator approach,
standardized approach, advance measurement approach
89. Under Basel III, the options available to compute capital for market risk are:Ans. Standardized approach –
maturity method, standardized approach – duration method, internal risk management approach
90. In India banks are required to maintain a minimum pillar I capital to risk weighted assets ratio (or minimum total
capital to risk weighted assets ratio) of_______ as on_______Ans. 9%ongoing basis
91. Under Basel III, the risk weight for capital charge for credit risk on the basis of standardized approach for home
loan above Rs.30 lac upti Rs.75 lac, where loan to value (LTV) ratio is 75% is: Ans.35%
92. As per Basel III implementation, the risk weight for unsecured portion of NPA for credit risk as per standardized
approach is ____% if the specific provision is at least 50% of the outstanding in NPA account: Ans.50
93. As per Basel III, which of the following is an element of Common Equity component of Tier I1) Common shares
i.e paid up equity capital 2) Stock surplus i.e share premium, 3) Statutory reserves,4) Capital reserves
representing surplus arising out of sale proceeds of assets 5) Balance in profit and loss account at the end
of the previous year. Ans. 1 to 5 all
94. As per Basel III, which of the following can be included in Additional Tier I capital: 1) Perpetual non-
cumulative preference shares-PNCPS, 2) Stock surplus or share premium resulting from issue of Additional
Tier I instruments, 3) Debt capital instruments eligible to be included inadditional Tier I. Ans. 1 to 3 all
95. As per Basel III, the value of revaluation reserve is to be taken at ___ discount to include Tier I capital Ans.55%
96. For the purpose of calculation of capital charge for operational risk, under basic indicator approach, the gross
income means: Ans. Net interest income + net non interest income
97. As per Basel III implementation, the risk weight for unsecured potion of NPA for credit risk as per standardized
approach is ____% if the specific provision is less than 20% of the outstanding in NPA account. Ans.150
98. Under Basel III, the risk weight for capital charge for credit risk on the basis of standardized approach is _____%
for staff loans secured by superannuation benefits or mortgage of flat / house. Ans.20
99. Under Basel III, the risk weight for capital charge for credit risk on the basis of standardized approach is _____%
for staff loans other than secured by superannuation benefits or mortgage of flat / house, being eligible under
regulatory retail port folio: Ans. 75
100. Leverage ratio under Basel III requirements, in India should be, as per RBI: Ans. 3.5%
101. Under Basel III, by using the Basic Indicator Approach, banks must hold capital for operational risk equal to
the average over the prescribed no. of previous years, at ____%( denoted as alpha) or positive annual income.
Ans. 15
102. Under Basel III, by using the Basic Indicator Approach, banks must hold capital for operational risk equal to
the average over the previous _____ years of a fixed percentage ( denoted as alpha) or positive annual gross
income. Ans.3
103. The market risk positions, that are subject to capital charge requirement, includes which of the following
positions under Basel III: a) Risk pertaining to interest rate related instruments in the trading book, b) Risk
pertaining to equities in the trading book & c) Forex risk including open positions in precious metal: Ans.
All the above
104. If a security has matured andremains unpaid, it attracts capital for _____risk on completion of 90days
delinquency period. Ans. Credit risk
105. T he capital requirement for general market risk is designed under Basel III to capture the risk of loss
arising from change in: Ans.Interest rate on securities
106. The capital charge for general market risk under the market risk will be ____% on gross equity position,
under Basel III Ans. 9.00
107. A s per Basel III, ----- is part of operational risk: Ans. Legal risk
108. Under Basel III, the risk of loss resulting from inadequate or failed internal processes, people and systems or
from external events is called: Ans. Operational risk
109. If a private universal bank is to be opened by individuals / professionals who are ‘residents’. They should
have ____years of experience in banking and finance at senior level. Ans. 10
110. For a private univerasla bank, the initial minimum paid up voting equity capital for abank shall be________
Ans. Rs. 5 billion
111. As per RBI’s Basel III Framework on Liquidity Standards –Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR), Liquidity Risk
Monitoring Tools and LCR Disclosure Standards and Net Stable Funding ratio – Small Business Customers (Jan
2022), RBI increased the threshold limit for deposits and other extensions of funds made by non-financial Small
Business Customers from ___ to __ crore for the purpose of maintenance of Liquidity Coverage Ratio
(LCR).Ans.Rs.5 cr to Rs.7.50 cr
112. As per RBI’s Basel III Framework on Liquidity Standards – Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR),Liquidity Risk
Monitoring Tools and LCR Disclosure Standards and Net Stable Funding ratio– Small Business Customers (Jan
2022), liabilities receiving a ___ ASF factor comprise “less stable”non-maturity (demand) deposits and/or term
deposits with residual maturities of less than one year provided by retail and small business customers Ans. 90%
113. For Assessment of Group Risk, Key financials (Turnover, Net Profit, Leverage, TNW, Liquidity etc) of major
group concerns/companies including JVs having holding above ____ % of paid up capital in all the accounts and
also where corporate guarantees are stipulated shall be incorporated in the office note. Ans: 30%
114. Exposures to CICs will continue to be risk-weighted at _____ % Ans: 100%.
115. What is the Risk Weight in respect of Housing Loans where LTV is more than 80% and less than or equal to
90% :Ans: 50%
116. The applicable risk weight the banks need to charge on the advances sanctioned under Emergency Credit
Line Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS) is ? Zero percent
117. Recently, RBI has extended the maximum aggregated retail exposure to one counterparty to Rs.
_______from exiting Rs. 5 crore which will be assigned a risk weight of 75%. Rs. 7.5 crore (small businesses
(i.e. with turnover of upto Rs. 50 crore).
118. ALM not responsible for: achieving budgets and targets (it helps in managing liquidity risk and interest rate
risk).
119. Documents not stamped properly is what kind of risk?: Legal Risk
120. Fraud – what type of risk : Operational risk
121. General Insurance works on principle of: Spreading the Risk.
122. If an Outsourcing agency does not serve properly – which type of Risk is faced by the bank?: Reputation
Risk and Operational Risk
123. Investment in perpetual bonds is risky because: the interest is not payable if the CRAR falls below the
stipulated target.
124. Loss due to inadequacy or failure of system, process, people or due to external events is called:
Operational risk
125. Sub-prime is an risk. (Operational and Credit Risk)
126. The capital adequacy ratio is computed by the following formula: Capital/Risk Weighted Assets
127. Tier 2 - general provisioning & loss reserves only up to 1.25% of total risk weighted assets.
128. What are the components of credit risk?: Transaction risk or default risk and portfolio risk
129. When does liquidity risk arises?: Liquidity risk arises when maturing liabilities are more than maturing
assets-
130. While doing Risk Rating, an asset is downgraded from A+ rating to A rating. What type of risk is involved:
Credit Risk.
CASE STUDY ON BASEL -III

Case study on Capital Conservation Buffer in Basel - III
1. Bank-A earned a net profit after tax and provisions of Rs.3000 and Bank-B of Rs.1200 cr. Common Equity Tier I
capital ratio of Bank-A is 6.75% after including the current period retained profits. This ratio for Bank-B is 7%.
Both the banks propose to mobilize fresh capital through public issue and to make the issue attractive, want to
pay highest dividend.
2. RBI rules reaardin4 CCR provide as under:
Ratio after including the current periods retained Minimum Capital Conservation Ratios
earnings (expressed as a percentage of earnings)
5.5% - 6.125% 100%

>6.125% - 6.75% 80%
>6.75% - 7.375% 60%
>7.375% - 8.0% 40%
>8.0% 0%
3. Based on the given information, answer the following questions:
1. What is the amount of net profit which the Bank-A is required not
2. to distribute to ensure compliance of Basel III prescription.
3. a: Rs.3000 cr b: Rs.2400 cr c: Rs.1600 cr d: Rs.600 cr
4. 02 What is the maximum -amount which the Bank-A can distribute as dividend to ensure compliance of Basel III
prescription.
5. a: Rs.3000 cr b: Rs.2400 cr c: Rs.1600 cr d: Rs.600 cr
6. What is the amount of net profit which the Bank-B is required not to distribute to ensure compliance of Basel
III prescription.
a: Rs.1200 cr b: Rs.720 cr c: Rs.480 cr d: Rs.240 cr
7. What is the maximum amount which the Bank-A can distribute as dividend to ensure compliance of Basel III
prescription.
a: Rs.1200 cr b: Rs.720 cr c: Rs.480 cr d: Rs.240 cr
Answers : 1-b 2-d 3-b 4-c
Explanation:
Que-1. Ratio of Bank-A is 6.75% due to which it is required to conserve 80% of its earning. Hence amount to be
conserved = 3000 x 80% = 2400 cr. The max amount that can be distributed = 3000 — 2400 =, Rs.600 cr.
Que-2. Ratio of Bank-A is 6.75% due to which it is required to conserve 80% of its earning. Hence amount to be
conserved = 3000 x 80% = 2400 cr. The max amount that can be distributed = 3000 — 2400 = Rs.600 cr.
Que-3. Ratio of Bank-B is 7% due to which it is required to conserve 60% of its earning. Hence amount to be
Que-4. Ratio of Bank-B is 7% due to which it is required to conserve 60% of its earning. Hence amount to be
8. Calculation of Admissible Additional Tier 1 and Tier 2 capital as per Basel III Universal bank calculated the
capital adequacy ratios as under:
Common Equity Tier 1. Ratio 8.5% of risk weighted assets

Capital conservation buffer 2.5% of risk weighted assets
PNCPS / PDI 3.5% of risk weighted assets
Tier 2 capital issued by bank 2.5% of risk weighted assets
Total capital available 17% of risk weighted assets
5
9. As per Basel III rules of RBI, for the purpose of reporting Tier 1 capital and CRAR, any excess Additional Tier 1
(AT1) capital and Tier 2 (12) capital will be recognised in the same proportion as that applicable towards
minimum capital requirements. At min 9% total capital, the max AT1 can be 1.5% and 12 can be max 2%. On
the basis of given information, answer the following questions:
What is the amount of total CE I. capital:

10.a: 9% b: 10% c: 11% d: 12%
11. What is the amount of PNCPS / PDI eligible for Tier 1?

a: 3% b: 2.5% c: 2.125% d: 1.375%
12. What is the amount of PNCPS / PDI not eligible for Tier 1 ?
a: 3% b: 2.5% c: 2.125% d: 1.375%
13. What is the amount of Tier 2 eligible for CRAR?

a: 2% b: 2.5% c: 2.833% d: 0.333%
14. What is the amount of PNCPS / PDI eligible for Tier 2?

a: 2% b: 2.5% c: 2.833% d: 0.333%
15. What is the amount of PNCPS / PDI not eligible for Tier 2 capital?
a: 1.375% b: 1.042% c: 2.125% d: 0.333%
16. What is the total amount of eligible capital?

a: 17% b: 16.43% c: 15.96% d: 14.13%
Answers : 1-c 2-c 3-c 4-c 5-d 6-b 7-c
Explanation :
Que-1 : Total CET1 = CETI. + CCB = 8.5% + 2.5% = 11%
Que-2 : PNCPS / PDI eligible for Tier 1 = 1.5 / 6 x 8.5 = 2.125%
Que-3 : PNCPS / PDI not eligible for Tier 1 = 3.5 - 2.125 = 1.375%
Que-4 : Tier 2 eligible for CRAR = 2 / 6 x 8.5 = 2.833%
Que-5 : PNCPS / PDI eligible for Tier 2 = 2.833 - 2.5 = 0.333%
Que-6: PNCPS / PDI not eligible for Tier 2 = 1.375 - 0.333 = 1.042%
Que-7 : Total CE I. = CET1 + CCB = 8.5% + 2.5% = 11%
PNCPS / PDI eligible for Tier 1 = 1.5 / 6 x 8.5 = 2.125%
PNCPS / PDI not eligible for Tier 1 = 3.5 - 2.125 = 1.375%
Tier 2 eligible for CRAR = 2 / 6 x 8.5 = 2.833%
PNCPS / PDI eligible for Tier 2 = 2.833 - 2.5 = 0.333%
PNCPS / PDI not eligible for Tier 2 = 1.375 - 0.333 = 1.042%
Total capital available : = CETI. + AT1 + T2 = 11% + 2.125 + 2.833 = 15.958 or 15.96%
17. IMPORTANT QUESTIONS ON BANKING, FINANCE & ECONOMY

1. Financial Services Institutions Bureau (FSIB) has recommended former Union Bank of India Managing Director
______ as the head of the newly set-up Rs. 20,000-crore National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and
Development (NaBFID). Ans. Rajkiran Rai G
2. The Department of Consumer Affairs (DoCA) has launched _________, a mascot for empowering consumers
and generating awareness of their rights. The mascot shall be shown along with tagline “JagoGrahakJago.” The
two are new synonymous with young aware consumers and bring sharp focus to consumer rights knowledge and
movement. Ans. Jagriti
3. The Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) has launched a face authentication feature through a new
mobile app called _________. For authentication, Aadhaar card holders no longer need to physically visit an
nrolment centre for iris and fingerprint scans. The UIDAI has started using face authentication as a method of
confirming an Aadhaar holder’s identity. Ans. Aadhaar FaceRd
4. PM Narendra Modi has unveiled India’s first Passenger Drone named: Ans. Varuna
5. --- Bank won the Banker’s Bank of the Year Award 2022 for the India segment during the Global Banking
Summit which was organised in London? Ans. Canara Bank
6. 10. India has added nine new entities to take its tally to 20 in the list of top global 500 companies and
moved up four places to the ______ rank in the Hurun Global 500 rankings. Ans. 5th
7. ____ Indian city hosted the first meeting of the G20 Finance Track under India’s G20 Presidency? First G20
Finance and Central Bank Deputies Meeting was held in Bengaluru on December 13-15 2022. Ans. Bengaluru
8. ___ Insurance company has recently launched the country’s first ever ‘Surety Bond Insurance’ product? Ans.
Bajaj Allianz General Insurance Company
9. ___Financial Institution is raising $400 million through a loan from the International Finance Corporation for
financing green housing affordable segment? Ans. HDFC
10. Who has been appointed as Chairman of NABARD in December 2022? Ans. Shaji K V
11. As per Budget 2022-23, disbursement of short term agricultureloans is projected at?Ans. Rs.18.00 lac cr
12. As per Budget 2022-23, highest tax revenue will come from? Ans. Goods and Services Tax
13. As per Budget 2022-23, the highest expenditure relates to? Ans. Interest expenditure
14. As per Budget 2022-23, Amrit Kaal represents the period? Ans. 25 years period up to Indian independence
reaching 100 years
15. As per Budget 2022-23, any income from transfer (including gift of virtual digital assets)to be taxed at
_%.Ans. 30%
16. As per Budget 2022-23, __ % TDS on purchase of virtual digital asset subject to prescribed threshold. Ans.
1.00%
17. As per Budget 2022-23, newly incorporated domestic manufacturing company up to 31.3.2024, will pay tax @
___%.Ans. 15.0%
18. As per Budget 2022-23, Emergency credit line guarantee scheme has been extended till 31.3.2023 and size
of scheme has been increased by Rs.50000 to Rs._____ cr. Ans. Rs.500000 cr
19. As per Budget 2022-23, to reduce indirect cost for suppliers and work contractors, the use of surety bonds as
a substitute for bank guarantee will be made acceptable, in govt. procurement. These bonds will be issued
by: Ans. Insurance companies
20. As per Budget 2022-23, a sum of Rs. 1 lakh crore has allocated to States for capex inFY23 as ____ year
interest-free loans, over and above normal borrowings allowed to States.Ans.50 years
21. As per Budget 2022-23, a new fund shall be set-up through ____ to finance start-ups for agriculture and rural
enterprise. Ans. NABARD
22. Which of the following are part of financial sector regulators 1) RBI 2) SEBI 3) IRDAI 4) IFSCA 5) PFRDA Ans.
All
23. When is World Hindi Day celebrated? Ans. 10 January
18. CANARA BANK RECALLED QUESTIONS EXAM DATED 22.01.2023

A. Canara Bank Recalled Questions Scale 1 to 2 exam. Dtd. 22.01.2023
1. CL-50L, NWC-10L Calculate Current ratio. 1.2
2. Agri loan- No service charges upto ….............. 25000
3. In PM FME Scheme, credit linked capital subsidy at __% of eligible project cost with Max ceiling of __crore. 35 %, 3 CR
4. In balance sheet contingent liabilities COMES UNDER WHICH- schedule12
5. Basel II- 3rd pillar? MARKET DISCIPLINE
6. Tier I capital must be __% of RWAs UNDER BASEL NORMS.
7. Consortium advances - __% of Fund based limits 10%
8. National building code (NBC) - Construction of building exceeding Rs. __ crore 25 CR
9. IN OPL Bankers opinion letter SAYS 'Very good means' - what IS THE RELATED AMOUNT? Ans.-1 CR TO 10 CR
10.In Retail lending if cibil is 550, Risk grade-? HIGH, IV
11.CRE-RH = FSI of commercial area exceed celing of __%< will be classified as CRE. 10% & ABOVE
12.Take over upto __crore (other than Agri/Retail lending) and shall not be more than 25% from existing borrowing level.
100 CR
13.Death claim-Scale II/III HEADING BRANCHES powers? 2 LAKHS
14.As per mental health act, guardians appointing authorities? DIST COURTS & DIST COLLECTOR
15.If an instrument having date as per Saka Samvat Calendar how would you act? PASS THE INSTRUMENT/CHEQUE
16.Canara ELITE - How many name printed cheque leaves issued free of cost. 700
17.TD of Sr. Citizen - 0.5% available to less than 2cr, with tenor of ___&above. 180 days
18.A customer can open how many NORMAL SB ACCOUNTS IF HOLDER OF BSBDA accounts? NONE
19.Safe deposit locker Empl/Ex-Empl - __% concession in rent. 25
20.SB PFMS Product IS OPENED FOR - odd ONE out. PENSIONERS
21.CASA full form CURRENT AC, SAVINGS AC
22.Canara Amrit-75 minimum amt? 1 LAKHS
23.Current account - Escrow mechanism = __crore & above. 50 CR
24.FD Minimum amt for 7 days = ___lac 2 LAKHS (ODD MAN OUT)
25.How many photos to be collected for opening illiterate a/c? 3
26.As per KYC, which is not High risk? a) PEPs b)Trusts c)NGOs d)Firms with sleeping partners e)Notaries NOTARIES
27.If a customer maintains average balance of SB+CA+TD=30Lacs, Risk rating of customer? MEDIUM
28.Issue of Solvency Certificate on basis of Unaudited financial statements beyond 1 lac upto ___ UNDER BRANCH POWER 5
LAKHS
29.PMJJBY age limit, 18 TO? 5O YRS
30.FCNR(B) currency does not cover - which currency? Odd ONE out NZD
31.In FEMA, LSF means __BY RBI LATE SUBMISSION FEES
32.NRO can be placed in NRE Customers submitting __&__ FORM 15CA, CB
33.GTPC Expansion - Integrated treasury wing FOR FOREX TRADE. G STANDS FOR? GLOBAL
34.SCSS Full form- SR CITIZEN SAVINGS SCHEME
35.Sovereign gold bond scheme tenor - __ years WITH EXIT AT 5 YEARS? 8 YRS
36.CAN PPF BE OPENED IN - Joint account conditions? ODD ONE OUT PPF CAN'T BE JOINED
37.In case of OD account banker customer relationship? CREDITOR, DEBTOR
38.Under limitation act, money lent under agreement.. period of limitation__ years. 3 YEARS
39.BRANCH OR Currency chest- Penalty for deficiency in service for more than 5 instances? 10000
40.According to NI Act, when in bill name of any person given in addition to the drawee to be resorted in case of need, such
person is called ___ in need. DRAWEE IN NEED
41.Under NI Act, When a promissory note, bill of exchange or cheque is transferred to any person, so as to constitute the
person the holder thereof, the instrument is said to be …......................... NEGOTIATED
42.Reconciliation/BAR Adjustment within T+__ days. T+ 7 DAYS
43.Award passed shall lapse and be of no effect unless the complainant furnishes a letter of acceptance of the Award in full
and final settlement of the claim to the Bank concerned, within a period of .... days from the date of receipt of the copy
of Award. 30 days
44.RERA CURRENT A/C 3 COMPONENTS, MISSING OPTION? 1. CA RERA collection accoun 2. CA Project’s RERA designated
account 3.Regular Current account of builder RERA COLLECTORS AC
45.CONDITIONS UNDER WHICH minor can be a partner TO A FIRM? TO THE BENEFIT OF FIRM
46.RBI'S CBS Platform is named as ___ EKUBER
47.Note sorting machine/CASH REGISTERS-checking periodicity FOR FITNESS AS PER RBI? QUARTERLY
48.As per RBI, what is basis point? HOW IT IS DENOTED? 1/100 OF 1 PERCENTAGE
49.EXPRESSION/MEANING OF EFFICIENCY RATIO? RETURNS ON ASSETS
50.As per IT Act 2000, amendment to ___ section records in Electronic form are now recognised FOR BANKING EVIDENCE? BR
ACT/BANKING EVIDENCE ACT
51.Lending to InVITs, T stand for _____. TRUST
52.Processing charges for Swarna Express loan = % of charges applicable to Swarna loan. 50 %OF 500 TO 5000
53.Jewel appraising recording CCTV viewing - recording should be available for ___ days. 90 DAYS
54.With regard to internal ombudsman scheme, if customer wants to complain bank will inform ___? ODD ONE OUT
PROS & CONS OF COMPLAINING
55.E-donation through ATM/Cash Dispenser minimum 100 Rs maximum=? 50000
56.Counterfeit notes - which cell or section in Head office. Forged Notes Vigilance Cell
57.SHG loan - active existence of group of at least __ months. 6 MONTHS
58.For Large branches inspection man days FOR CONCURRENT AUDIT Branches 30
59.RBIA Inspection- Low risk periodicity 18 MONTHS
60.Select the one- records that are to keep permanently IN BRANCH? FIRE INSURANCE POLICIES
61.NABARD Assistance per JLG-4000/-
62.Internet banking IMPS MAX amt per day? 5 LAKHS
63.Enrolment of new merchants, proposed merchant should be in market for atleast 3 yrs and networth of atleast __Rs. 5
CRORE
64.For High risk - Max amount of CREDIT CARD LIMIT that can be sanctioned? 2 LAKHS
65.Payment gateway policy- ED Concession per annum = ? (2L, 5L, 1L, 12L, 10L) 5 LAKHS & ABOVE
66.Compensation policy - Inward remittances up to USD __ payment is to be made immediately. USD 10,000
67.WHICH risk is related to - Internal/people/PROCESSES/SYSTEMS? OPERATIONAL RISK
68.Insolvency & Bankruptcy (IBC) - Who is adjudicating authority FOR LLP Cos? NCLT
69.Customer rights policy AS PER RBI CUSTOMER CHARTER- odd man out. RIGHT TO EDUCATION
70.Canara GST: __% of turn over should be routed through bank account. 75%
71.OLIC meeting conducted AT HO LEVEL IN WHAT DURATION QUARTERLY
72.In priority sector advances __% is assigned to incremental priority credit in identified districts where credit flow is
comparatively lower. 125%
73.No Service charges/Inspection charges for loans up to ___ IN PRIORITY SECTOR. 25000
74.CGFMU - guarantee coverage by which trust? NCGTC
75.Small and marginal farmers Loan can be given up to Rs.__ solely engaged in Allied activities without holding agri land.
2 LAKHS
76.Priority sector advances, Small and marginal farmer Target FOR 2023? 9.5
77.Bank has been permitted- branches having __% to MSME Sector as a whole. 60%
78.Loan upto Rs. ___ Cr per borrower FPOs/FPCs for marketing their produce at pre-determined price (Farm credit under
priority sector advances). 5 CRORES
79.TO PRACTICE SARFARSI act, __ amount due should be more than principal amount and interest. 20%
80.Writing off/Waiver of unapplied interest review report to be placed to RO/CO - periodicity? MONTHLY
81.As per recovery policy, advocate commission is 2% of actual recovery max Rs.___ FOR FILING VAKALATNAMA 1.5
82.Branches linked to RAHs have no powers to sanction loan if NPA level is more than __% 5
83.Education loan master degree abroad GMAT Score should be ___&above. 650 AND ABOVE
84.Canara pension loan for defence pensioner aged 65 years max amt of loan =? 6 LAKHS
85.Housing loan amt to NREs for REPAIR & Renovation -? 15 LAKHS
86.Retail lending products - odd ONE out CANARA LIFE
87.Pre sanction verification - company HIRED BY CANARA BANK? PERFIOS (FIN TECH)
88.In relation to company, means the holding of a beneficial interest by an individual or his spouse or minor child whether
singly or taken together in the shares there of the amount paid up on which exceeds …...lacs of rupees …..% of paid up
capital of the company whichever is less 5 laces or 10 %
89.Available-for-sale (AFS) is an accounting term used to describe and classify financial assets. It is a debt or equity security
not classified as a.............................. or held-to-maturity security—the two other kinds of financial assets.
held-for-trading
90.NEFT transactions done after banking hours will be automated using …................ modes by the banks 'Straight
Through Processing (STP)'
91.Any person aggrieved by an order or decision of the Tribunal may prefer an appeal to the National Company Law Appellate
Tribunal NCLAT
92.In clearing, Physical cheque is forwarded to Wells Fargo Bank, USA - which bank will be there in US to clear?
93.TDS on Insurance commission come under which section -Ans. 194 D
94.ILLEGAL/WRONG Drawer received notice about chq return-is allowed to make payment within how many days of receiving
notice from payee? 7 DAYS
95.Bank will not open SB of Kartha of HUF under ___ of companies’ act 2013.
96.Banker cannot be treated as holder for value _____ a While collection for payment b) collection in OD account, c)
Collection for loan repayment d) collection for payment
97.Annual submission of financial statements under which section of BR act sec 31
98.As per NI Act, which of below options means 'on demand' FOR AN INSTRUMENT?
99.Banking Ombudsman scheme-
B. Canara Bank Recalled Questions Scale 2 to 3 exam. Dtd. 22.01.23
1. What is the revised cash withdrawal limit for Standard/Classic/Gold/Elite debit cards ?: Rs 75,000.00
2. Fund transfer limit for IMPS transactions through Internet Banking shall be ……………per day.: Rs 5,00,000.00
3. Internet Banking login Password should be of ______, with a mix of minimum one uppercase, one lowercase, one numeric
and one special character.: minimum 8 to maximum 12 characters
4. In case of failure to generate in __attempts, the agent obtains life certificate in physical form to submit to branch: 3
5. Under the Housing Loan scheme, the loan amount of the dwelling unit in the metropolitan centre and at other centres
does not exceed ______ and _____ lakh respectively, to qualify for classification under Priority Sector lending.: 35 lacs
and 25 lacs
6. An enterprise is classified as micro, where the investment in Plant & Machineries or equipment does not exceed Rs.
______ and turnover does not exceed Rs_______.: . 1 Cr & 5 Cr
7. Canara MSME CAP Scheme MAXIMUM LOAN under Manufacturing sector Rs ………. And Rs ……… under service sector.:Rs
20cr, Rs 10cr
8. Branches mapped to RAHs having NPA levels of more than …………………% under any Mortgage based loans, the respective
RAHs have no powers to sanction the loans under Retail lending schemes: 5%
9. In case wherever student is directly getting admission to the College without undergoing any selection process, The
student should get minimum _____marks and ______ in case of girl students and students from SC/ ST communities as per
the Bank Retail lending policy: 60% and 50%
10.Finance to employees for purchasing shares of their own companies under ESOP to the extent of ……….% of the purchase
price of the shares or ……….months gross salary. : 90 % and 10
11.Out of the following which is not a OVD: Aadhar , voter card, PAN, passport, All of the above
12.Which one of the following customer is classified under High Risk ?
13. We cannot open savings account of________________: DWACRA - Development of Women and Children in Rural
Areas , SHG, Farmers’ Clubs, Municipal Corporations
14.Concept of Positive Pay involves a process of reconfirming key details of cheque. It is applicable for____________. Rs.
50,000/= and above
15.Detection and Impounding of Counterfeit Notes- If branch received Counterfeit Notes ______________pieces, Reporting
incidence of detection of Counterfeit Note to the Police immediately for investigation by filing FIR.: 4
16.Counterfeit notes can be impounded at: Offices of RBI
17.Branches and Offices are instructed to ensure reconciliation of entries posted in SA /BAA Heads within _____________days
as per the recent Bank guidelines.: T+ 7 days
18.Non-furnishing of documents/ information within ___by Bank may lead to an Award: 15 days
19.Award by the Ombudsman for the loss of the complainant’s time, expenses incurred and for harassment/mental anguish
suffered by the complainant: 1 lac
20.Negotiable warehouse receipt existing party OD/CC with our bank __ of the assessed vale: 85%
21. Official Language Implementation Committee (OLIC) meeting is to be conducted ____: Quarterly
22.Reverse repo rate: 3.35%
23.Repo rate: 6.25%
24.MSME Sulabhs handle all fresh and enhancement of MSME loan proposals (Except Loans against Deposit/Approved
Securities and Gold Loans) beyond cumulative cut off limits of _________ or branch delegated power whichever is less in
case of Small, Medium, Large and VLB branches: Rs 25 lakh
25.Scale IV in branches can settle the death claim up: 3 lakhs
26.What is the minimum annual income criteria for being eligible under Canara Vehicle Loan –Two wheeler for non-salaried
individual?: Rs 2.0 lakh p.a.
27.Loan to Value (LTV) ratio shall not exceed ........... % during the tenure of loan In case of LOANS AGAINST GOLD
JEWELLERY FOR AGRICULTURAL PURPOSES: 85%
28.In KCCS, if there is recovery tie up with sugar mills, banks can consider waiver of collateral security for loans up to
__________: 3.00 lakhs
29.Which of the following is not classified as Agriculture infrastructure: (a)Loans for construction of storage facilities ,
(b)Soil conservation and watershed development, (c)seed production, (d)Loans for construction of oil extraction/
processing units, (e)Agriclinics and Agribusiness Centres
30.Which of the following is not considered under Advance to weaker Section: (a)DRI, (b)SHG, (c)loan to artisans upto 2 lacs,
(d)physically disabled, (e)kcc to small and marginal sector
31.Which one of the following is not a feature of canara elite: (a)Product code 218,(b) NEFT/RTG free,(c) DD free, (d)
quarterly average balance of Rs.5 lac and above
32.All branches (including Urban &Metro branches) having average total business of above Rs.10.00 Crores: Medium branch
33.willful defaulters' list: 25 lakhs
34.Scale IV and above authorities only are delegated with powers to permit TODs in current account to the extent
of ________ for sanction of clean facility.: 10% of normal delegated power
35.Section 20(1) of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 also lays down the restrictions on …….. and the same has been dealt in
detail in the Scheme of Delegation of Credit Sanctioning Powers: loans and advances to the directors
36.Out of following which is a Promissory note
37.The entry and exit points of the strong room and the common areas of operation shall be covered under CCTV camera and
Branches shall preserve its recording for a period of not less than _______.: 180 days.
38. Rate of Interest on Retail Lending schemes are linked to Canara Retail Grade except a) Vehicle loan b) canara rent
c)canara solar d) canara site e) Canara pension
39.All the Credit Proposals falling under the powers of Head Office shall be submitted by directly to concerned Wing at HO
with a copy to concerned Circle Office. Further, the respective Circle Heads shall submit their views and
recommendations on the proposal by way of Front Sheet to the concerned Wing at HO within .........days of receipt of the
proposal: 02 days
40.In Door-Step Banking (DSB), Authorized Agent visits pensioner’s place & generates DLC, using their AADHAR number after
biometric authentication. In case of failure to generate DLC in ___, the Agent obtains Life Cert. in physical format &
submits to Branch for updation:3 attempts
41. IBC how many pillars:
42.A key innovation of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code is ___ pillars of institutional infrastructure: 4
43.Income limit for issuance of Word credit card: 10 lakhs
44.Business and control risk: 20:80
45.RBIA-Mandays fixed for VLB Branch is: 35 days
46.LEGAL AUDIT applicable to credit exposure of ____crore and above : 5cr
47.In case of finance to 3rd house hl cre applicable rate of interest shall be more than the card rate on general housing loan:
0.50%
48.Board CAC and above authorities (upto their powers) shall be permitted to sanction Fresh/new exposure to High Risk
Accounts very selectively Availability of Collaterals (Commercial/Residential property) with Distress Sale value not less
than ...............% of the proposed limits.
49.overdraft limit granted under PMJDY accounts eligible for cover under CGFMU:
50.In case of PM Micro Food processing Enterprises (PM FME) Scheme Eligible project cost comprises cost of plant &
machinery and technical civil work, but excludes cost of land/rental or lease work shed. However, technical civil work
should not be more than___of the eligible project cost: 30%
51. Trf of loan to ARC
52.Any person aggrieved by an order of DRT can prefer an appeal along with prescribed fee to the DRAT within: 30 days from
the date of receipt of order of DRT.
53.Bank can initiate action under SARFAESI Act against the borrower notice in writing to discharge his liabilities in full within
__ from the date of notice to be issued under Sec. 13(2) by secured creditor or Authorized Officer,: 60 days
54.As per Delegation of credit sanctions, substantial interest, In relation to a company, substantial interest means the holding
of a beneficial interest by an individual or his spouse or minor child, whether singly or taken together, in the shares
thereof, the amount paid up on which exceeds _____ of rupees or _____ of the paid up capital of the company, whichever
is less.: 5 lakh, 10%
55.Canara Solar margin: 20% and __cost of accessories: 15%
56.In Canara Teachers Loan Scheme what is the minimum NTH to be maintained: 30% or Rs 10000
57.Canara Site NTH: 40%
58.Canara SB PFMS minium balance: zero
59.Mobile banking limit for fund transfer: ₹ Five Lakhs per day
60.The maximum credit guarantee cover under Credit Guarantee Scheme for Farmer Producer Organizations (CGSFPO) is
______of the sanctioned credit facility with a maximum ceiling of _________.75%, Rs 1.50 crore
61.Which is non legal method of recovery. a)Sale of NPAs to Asset Reconstruction Companies b) Lok adalat c) Sale of NPAs to
Banks / NBFCs d) invoking claim with ECGC /CGTMSE e)Winding up of the company
62.For all MSME borrowers having exposure of Rs. 1 Crore and above and all Corporate borrowers having exposure of Rs.
___Crores and above, RAROC shall be computed through SAS package: 25cr
63.Capturing live photo of the customer and officially valid document or the proof of possession of Aadhaar, where offline
verification cannot be carried out, along with the latitude and longitude of the location where such live photo is being
taken by an authorized officer of the branch. Digital kyc
64.Nre to nro
65.If total interest and/or principal exceeds ___ and 50% of the total exposures to that borrower than all the exposure to a
particular borrower than all the exposure of that particular borrower will be considered default.
66.Women SHGs under DAY-NRLM consist of _____ members. In case of special SHGs i.e. groups in the difficult areas, groups
with disabled persons, and groups formed in remote tribal areas, this number may be a minimum of …………...members.:
10-20, 5
67.IN DAY NRLM third tranche limit of ___ based on the Micro Credit Plan (MCP): 6 lakhs
68.As per ODI directions of RBI, once an investment in a foreign entity is classified as ODI even if such investment falls below
10% of the paid up equity capital or the investor loses control in the foreign entity.
69.The branch heads / officials upto ………….., in branches shall exercise the credit sanctioning powers as per the
categorization of the branch :
70.Pensioner how to pay situation:
71.MSME GOLD LOANS of Loan to Value (LTV) ratio shall not exceed ..............% during the tenure of loan.
72.Period of preservation of records which relate to disputes or litigations in the court of law : 20 yrs
73.DICGC NOT APPLICABLE TO a) SB b) RD c) FD d) State and central govt deposits
74.Realigned National livestock mission : 50% capital subsidy, 50lakhs
75.Borrower can open CA with anyone of the bank with which it has CC/OD facility provided that the bank has atleast__ of
the aggregate exposure.:10%
76.Minimum Net Owned Funds for NBFC MFI is ___crores and In North eastern regions ___ crores: 5cr, 2cr
77.Vacant land may be accepted as security under Canara GST loan upto __of stipulated security cover.: 25%
78.A borrower shall be referred as specified borrower if the aggregate sanction credit limit is more than __ at any time:
79.Controlling ownership interest: 25%
80.Which is not a technology initiatives of rl & fp wing, head office towards recovery a)recovery mobile app b) ots sanction
mis portal c)npa mgmt solution d) recovery call centre e) red flag accounts detection portal
81.While granting advance against security of specially minted gold coins sold by the banks, they should ensure that the
weight of the coin(s) does not exceed _____ per customer: 50 gram
82.customer.Customer identification process to be carried While selling Bank‟s own products, payment of dues of credit
cards/sale and reloading of prepaid/travel cards and any other product for more than Rs. : 50000
83.All sanctions in respect of retail loans to be reported/ inwarded in : NB 179
84.Risk rating of the borrower is a ____ exercise: Pre sanction
85.Where the client is a company, certified copies of following documents or the equivalent e-documents are to be
submitted: (a) Certificate of incorporation (b) Permanent Account Number of the company (c) Memorandum and Articles
of Association (d) Corporate Identification Number (CIN) (e) all the above
86.Canara Small Savings Bank Deposit” account find out the wrong statement a)aggregate of all credits in a financial year
does not exceed Rs.1.00 lac; a) Balance at any point of time does not exceed Rs.50,000/-; b)The aggregate of all
withdrawals in a month does not exceed Rs.10,000/- and c) aggregate of all credits in a financial year does not exceed
Rs.1.00 lac .d) Where the balance at any point of time does not exceed Rs.100,000/
87.In respect of Circles eligible to be headed by GM/DGM where DGM/AGM is posted or taken charge as Circle Head on
account of transfer/ retirement of GM/DGM(Circle Head), such DGM/AGM can exercise credit sanctioning powers, review
functions and other credit related powers as applicable to GM-CO-CAC/DGM-CO-CAC(Circle Head) respectively, for a
period of ............. or till the regular incumbent takes charge, whichever is earlier.: (a)3 month (b)1 month (c) 6 month
88.Settlement of Death claims without insisting for signature of all the claimants may be made to any one or more of the
claimants – preferably the widow of the deceased, up to _____:
89._______of the underlying should be gauged as the longest possible remaining time before the borrower is scheduled to
fulfil its obligations: Effective maturity
90.Stress test under operational risk is : Yearly
91.Treat all customers fairly and not discriminate against any customer on grounds such as gender, age, religion, caste,
literacy, economic status physical ability, etc comes under _____: Right of fair treatment.
92.Where the lockers have remained un operated for more than____years for medium risk category or___year for a high risk
category ,branches should immediately contact the locker hirer and advise him to either operate the locker or surrender it
even if the locker hirer is paying the rent regularly.: 3 yr, 1 yr
93.RTGS Credit to the beneficiary's account to happen within___ of receiving the funds transfer message: 30 min
94.Bank has implemented global Trade Processing Center (GTPC) with an aim to handle all ____risks effectively and to
improve efficiency in processing of domestic (trade)and forex transactions:
95.The bank has to monitor all current accounts and cc/od accounts frequency:
96.High risk merchant satisfactory dealing
97. Promissory Note Case Study ….
98. Substantial Interest………………… .%
99. SIMPLIFIED DEATH CLAIM PAID TO WIDOW…..
100. MORTGAGE DEBT LIMITATION PERIOD…………..
Canara Bank Recalled Questions Scale 3 to 4 exam. Dtd. 22.01.2023
1. OVD does not contain full address, the utility bill not more than __________month and customer to submit
updated OVD within ________months - Ans. 2 & 3
2. Gas Dealers ___________ type of customer - Ans. Medium Risk
3. Branches to review customer Risk Categorisation _________- Ans. H/Y
4. Opening of Current Account declaration from customer for amount _____________and Banks with _______ loan/ OD
permitted to open - Ans. CA 5 Cr & 10 %
5. Which transaction among the following activate the Inoperative Account ? Odd one out Interest credit by bank
6. Inspection policy Control Risk _________Business Risk______Criteria of Marks Weightage - Ans. 80/20 %
7. Charges for cheque collection for extraordinary delay of ________ days 90 Days , - Ans. TD+2 %
8. PFMS account which is not correct________ Min Balance Required
9. Entity no longer a primary obligor ______________
10.CGSAHD Fund with NABARD__________ 750 Cr
11.Age limit of customer for PMSBY_________ - Ans. 18-70 yrs
12.CRG not applicable to ___________( Odd out ) - Ans. Vehicle Loans
13.Limit under Canara Consumption Loan in case of Natural Calamity ? __________ - Ans. 15000/*
14.State Consumer Forum complaint Reddressal Forum limit__- Ans.Rs 50 -200 lakhs
15.ATM policy time intervals for cash dispensor error more than _____ time & Interval SMS will be sent to TOE of CO ? -
Ans. 2 HOURS
16.Risk Weight for loans granted to State Government or its undertakings ? - Ans. 20%
17.RTGS Polciy ------------------------------------------------------------
18.Grievance Redressal Norms for compllains received from PMO _( Norms given by FM & adopted by the Bank) -Ans.14 days
/ 7 Days
19.Foreign national of _which contoury _requires prior approval of __RBI for NRO Ac opening ? - - Ans.
Pakistani National
20.Factoring Business ------% of income for eligibility for Factoring NBFC ? - Ans. 50%
21.Time norms for local address submission for NRO Ac of foreign student ? - Ans. 30 Days
22.NRE Term Deposit minimum _ and Maximum__Period ? - Ans. 1 & 10 Years
23.Debit Card eligibility___ ( odd men out ) Minor above 10 years
24.Crop Loan first visit____ and Second Visit___ to done after sowing & before Harvesting ? - Ans. 30/15 days
25.Under IRB approach T-2 capital ________% of RWA if eastimated loss is less than Expected Loss ? - Ans. 0.60%
26.Adhoc Credit Facility sanction validity for _______ days ? - Ans. 15 days
27.To proceed under SARFAESI to be registered mandatory under _- Ans. CERSAI
28.UPI wrong login for ____ times will regualrise in ----- hours - Ans. 3 / 24 Hours
29.Number of withdrawal in SB for Half Year--- - Ans. 50 Withdrawls
30.Before put into circulation notes of _____ denomination and above to be machine counted ( issueable/Non issueable ) -
Ans.100
31.3rd Pillar of BASEL III _____ Market Decipline
32.Volunteer Vahini (VVV) FILL IN THE BLANK -- Ans. VIKAS
33.Digital document verification CDD to be done under as per __________ Act - Ans.IT ACT 2000
34.OL Section HR to place Note for reconstituation of HO OLIC to ___ Who will permit ? - Ans. MD& CEO
35.Under OMBUDSMAN Bank/ NBFC which are part of the scheme & has to apply the rewards or direction issued ,is called__-
Ans. Rregulated entity
36.New Education Loan which of the following is wrong— loan of max Rs 100 lakhs for collateral above 100 %
37.Bank customer relationship in SCA (Safe Custody Article)— - Ans.BAILEE BAILOR
38.Offices/ Branches min to be inspected ________other than HongKong Branch - Ans.12 Months
39.Loan to SHG without Collateral Limit - Ans. 10-20 lakhs
40.Under AGRI policy redemption of debts from non institutional lender till what amount mortgage of land required— -
Ans. 1.60 lakhs
41.Credit Approval Committee of the Board delegation of powers for sanction loan under Low Risk CRE __ Rs - Ans.
50000/* Cr
42.Under Sectiion 138 cheque return case extended imprisonment _______- Ans. 2 years
43.Look Out Circular mandatory details / documents to be given__ ( select wrong ) Education details
44.Micro Credit Group loans Rural ___ Urban___- Ans. 2.50 & 5 lakhs
45.Lock in period under CGSFPO—- Ans. 12 Months
46.NFB limit cash margin above 5 Years & above Cash margin ----- Ans. 25%
47.DRI loans family income __________Urban ____________Rural - Ans. 24000/* & 18000/*
48.Canara Solar outstanding to be reported vide ___ PSR Report - Ans. PSR 71
49.From last RBIA _ % of Gold Loans & All overdue are reappraised - Ans. 12 Months , 10 %
50.Take over of personal loans from RRBs the DOP of RO Head CAC for CRG – and ___- Ans. CGR-2
51.OMBUDSMAN centralized center for receipt and process of Physical & E mail complaints at ___ Chandigarh
52.RBIA score for the branches for High Risk category - Ans. above 55
53.IBC 2016 RP will take the liabilities from FI & Operational Fiancial Transaction of Business Operation for a period of
________
54.NABARD Assistance for JLGs Total and first disbursement amount - Ans. 4000/*, 2000/*
55.Who is authorised take decision making balance sheet / Risk Rating for investment & Interest Rate related Risk? - Ans.
ALCO
56.Non thrust are ( select wrong one ) - Ans. HFC's
57.Net Banking In Retail to be given to --- ( select correct otption ) - Ans. NRI
58.To safeguard interest of the Bank , when any account slippes to NPA action under SARFAESi act sec --- and within ---
days - Ans. sec 13(2) , 3 days
59.Discounting of recieables of MSME , takes place under TReDS - Ans. Factoring
60.Preservation of Counterfeit Currency Notes received from police authorities to be retained for ___ years- Ans.3 years
61.Retail loan to Central Government employees with CIC Score ___up to - Ans. 600 & above RSA
62.Crieteria for determining investment in any entity as Overseas Direct Invest to be _% of capital funds- 10%
63.SNRR account Features & Restrictions __ CHOOSE WRONG ONE
64.TOD in savings Accounts scale IV & aboe amount - Ans. Rs 10000/*
65.RFA status decision in case of Consortium or MBA or Indiviudal Bank ( time Norms ) - Ans. 6 Months
66.PMFME 35% subsidy for individual with maximum assistance limit ---- Ans. 10 lakhs
67.Finance to non wilful defaulters with a limit --- if they paid --- of principal loan amount in case of OTS settled Rs
1.00 lakhs , 25 % Principal payment
68.As per RBI minimum capital under Basel III ----- Ans. 9%
69.Under MSME CAP stock audit will be waived upto ___- Ans. 5 CR
70.Loan limit to co operative socieites --- under Agriculture Priority Sector 5 Cr
71.Non legal method of recovery--- Compromised
72.Risk arrising due to failed System , Procedure & People is comes under Operational Risk
73.Entrustment of detective agencies in case of loan of Rs lakhs of doubtfull & loss category ? 50 lakhs
74.AS per IT ACT Sec 194 A TDS on interest amount - Ans. RS 50000/*
75.Person appointyed by court for amangement of the assets of a person whom died without "will" is called----
76.Processing charges for ESOP loan 0.50% of the Loan amount with minimum of – Ans. Rs 500
77.RFC term deposit ROI linked to ----
78.Immediate credit of outsstation cheque cheques for amount--- Rs 15000/*
79.Payment Gateway transaction on Bank page , In 2FAuthentication transactions at the end what is being entered OTP
80.Which of the following is not correct with regard to Canara Bank Internation Travel Pre Paid Card --- – Ans. validity of
the Card is 36 Months ( wrong one )
81.Under SWARNA Express rate of advance at --- rate – Ans. 90%
82.NTH for Housing Loan for entry age above 60 years including legal heir added – Ans. 25 % / Rs 20000/*
83.Details of write off loan/ DICGC settled files to be preserved for --- period- – Ans. 10 Years
84.What are the major risks in Banking Sector— Credit, Market , Interest, Liquidity ALL
85.Max loan to entities Project under CRE RS ---- Crore or 3.33 times – Ans. 500 Cr
86.Collateral free loans to Micro Finance/SHG--- – Ans.10-20 lakhs
87.Circle Head can sanction Canara Budget loans ------ salary -----– Ans. 15 Months , 15 Lakhs
88.As per BASELL III CET-1 capital for the BANks – Ans. 5.50%
89.Revaluation Reserves will be discounted at ---- % for consideration for inclusion in Teir I CRAR– Ans. 55%
90.For GIFT Card any waiver in charges for business purposes Authority ? ED OF DBS Wing
91.Condition applicable for Start up enterprises status for older than --years ( select correct one ) Ans. 10 Yrs
92.Canara GST security comfort 50% to 75% under the delegation of ---– Ans. CO HEAD CAC & above
93.Minimum marks for credit Linkage SHG to score – marks – Ans. 70%
94.AS per RBI Norms Banks not supposed to take Collateral security even though Borrower offers ? Ans.10lakhs
95.Produce loan against NWR / eNWR is --- for --- period – Ans. 12 Months / 75 lakhs
96.With whom Banks doing Co-lending ? – Ans.NBFC's
97.In ECNOS "O" stands for Otherwise
98.IVOR STANDS FOR
99.IBC 2016 TIEM NORMS FOR CIRP PROCESS ________ 180 days CIRP +90 DAYS ( If extention sought)
100. PMSVNIDHI THIRD TRENCH AMOUNT – Ans.RS 50000/*
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Super Hot Questions For Sclae 5

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PROMOTION MADE EASY

SUPER HOT QUESTIONS - 2023

With Best Wishes,

Team Aarohan -2023

FINANCIAL RESULTS FOR THE PERIOD/QUARTER ENDED 30 th SEPTEMBER 2022

Key Highlights of Union Budget 2022-23

dt.09.09.2021, 670/2021, 680/2021 & IC/49/2022 dt.28.01.2022).

CURRENCY OF DEPOSIT USD GBP EUR CAD AUS

 DOMESTIC SAVINGS BANK DEPOSITS ( IC NO. 767/2022 wef 21.12.2022)

 LATEST CHANGES IN CGTMSE

Target Group Women/SC/ST NER (Upto 50 Lakh)/ ZED Certified

Scheme Revised Rate of Interest Revised Rate of Interest Compounding

Sl Type of Transaction Unit Revised Rates

3.RBI POLICIES, BANKING LAW & CUSTOMERS

4. DEPOSITS, KYC & AML

4. HRD MATTERS & STAFF LOANS

7. PRIORITY SECTOR LENDING

8.GOVT. BUISNESS AND SPONSORED SCHEMES

11. RETAIL LENDING

12. GENERAL MATTERS ON CREDIT

13. NPA & LEGAL ASPECT OF RECOVERY

14.FOREX AND INTERNATIONAL TRADE

16. BASEL & RISK MANAGEMENT

CASE STUDY ON BASEL -III

5.5% - 6.125% 100%

3. Based on the given information, answer the following questions:

Answers : 1-b 2-d 3-b 4-c

Common Equity Tier 1. Ratio 8.5% of risk weighted assets

What is the amount of total CE I. capital:

11. What is the amount of PNCPS / PDI eligible for Tier 1?

13. What is the amount of Tier 2 eligible for CRAR?

14. What is the amount of PNCPS / PDI eligible for Tier 2?

16. What is the total amount of eligible capital?

Que-2 : PNCPS / PDI eligible for Tier 1 = 1.5 / 6 x 8.5 = 2.125%

Que-4 : Tier 2 eligible for CRAR = 2 / 6 x 8.5 = 2.833%

Que-5 : PNCPS / PDI eligible for Tier 2 = 2.833 - 2.5 = 0.333%

Que-7 : Total CE I. = CET1 + CCB = 8.5% + 2.5% = 11%

PNCPS / PDI eligible for Tier 1 = 1.5 / 6 x 8.5 = 2.125%

PNCPS / PDI not eligible for Tier 1 = 3.5 - 2.125 = 1.375%

Tier 2 eligible for CRAR = 2 / 6 x 8.5 = 2.833%

PNCPS / PDI eligible for Tier 2 = 2.833 - 2.5 = 0.333%

PNCPS / PDI not eligible for Tier 2 = 1.375 - 0.333 = 1.042%

17. IMPORTANT QUESTIONS ON BANKING, FINANCE & ECONOMY

18. CANARA BANK RECALLED QUESTIONS EXAM DATED 22.01.2023

B. Canara Bank Recalled Questions Scale 2 to 3 exam. Dtd. 22.01.23

Canara Bank Recalled Questions Scale 3 to 4 exam. Dtd. 22.01.2023

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