2021 Bull CAT 04 (New Pattern)

2021 Bull CAT 04 (New Pattern)
Directions of Test
Test Name 2021 Bull CAT 04 (New Pattern) Total

Questions 76 Total Time 120 Mins
Section
Name No. of
Questions Time limit Marks per
Question Negative
Marking
Verbal Ability 26 0:40(h:m) 3 1/3
DI & Reasoning 24 0:40(h:m) 3 1/3
Quantitative Ability 26 0:40(h:m) 3 1/3
Section : Verbal Ability
DIRECTIONS for the question : Read the passage and answer the question based on it.
Question No. : 1
In 1842, the German Egyptologist Karl Richard Lepsius transformed understanding of Egyptian spirituality after he published a
collection of ancient mortuary texts. Known in ancient Egypt as “The Chapters of Going Forth by Day,” Lepsius dubbed it as the
Book of the Dead. Its 200 chapters are a thrilling insight into beliefs about the trials, joys, and fears on the journey into death’s
mysterious realm.

For centuries, it was assumed the writings found in Egyptian tombs were passages from ancient scripture. Later, when scholars
learned to decipher hieroglyphs, they discovered that these texts were spells—magic “road maps” provided to the dead to
navigate their way safely through the afterlife. Excerpts from the Book of the Dead were intoned by a priest during the funeral
ceremony at the tomb.

The Egyptians believed that the dead person would embark on a subterranean journey, tracing the route of Re, the Sun God.
During this journey, the deceased, would have to confront ferocious creatures barring the way to their new life. The most
formidable of these was Apep, a serpent. If the deceased were to come face-to-face with this terrifying creature, chapter 7 of
the Book of the Dead was at hand to offer help:“I will not be inert for you, I will not be weak for you, your poison shall not enter
my members, for my members are the members of Atum.”

Having made it past Apep, the deceased would eventually arrive at a labyrinth, protected by a series of gates. To go through
each one, they had to recite a specific text and call out the name of the gate. If the correct prayer was offered, then the gate
would say: “Pass, you are pure.” After the labyrinth, the next stop was the Hall of Two Truths, where the dead would be judged
by a panel of 42 judges presided over by the God of the underworld, Osiris. The “defendant” would swear they were innocent of
a lengthy list of potential sins. After the confession came the climax of the trial: the weighing of the heart. Those whose hearts
weighed too much were considered impure and condemned to several horrific fates.

To the righteous, on the other hand, the way to paradise would now be opened. The virtuous could look forward to the plains
of Aaru, “the fields of reeds.” Not unlike the world they’d left behind, this happy land of the dead abounded with rivers,
mountains, and lush, fertile fields in which barley would grow upto five cubits high.

It was not, however, an exclusively spiritual paradise. There were physical rewards as well. As chapter 110 of the Book of the
Dead reveals, corporeal needs and pleasures were not abandoned once one passed into the afterlife. Many of life’s pleasures—
eating, drinking, and copulating, to name a few—existed there as they did in life. Specific meals are mentioned: A passage from
the rubric to chapter 125 promises Ashens-cake, a jug of beer, a Persen-cake, and a portion of meat from the altar of the Great
God.

An emphasis on physical as well as spiritual redemption reflects the anxieties of a society troubled by the body’s annihilation.
Nevertheless, throughout the Book of the Dead, the reward that the dead could expect if they made correct use of the text is
confidently asserted: “He shall flourish and his children shall flourish... he shall be ushered in with the kings of Upper Egypt and
the kings of Lower Egypt, and he shall be in the suite of Osiris. A matter a million times true.”

A suitable title for the passage would be
A) The Chapters of Going Forth: A Peek into the Journey of the Dead
B) The Chapters of Going Forth: Into Death’s Mysterious Realm.
C) The Book of the Dead: What the Inscriptions in Egyptian Tombs Foretell
D) The Book of the Dead: The Egyptians inside Guide to the Afterlife
Question No. : 2
Why the texts were called “The Chapters of Going Forth by Day” by ancient Egyptians?
A) Because the texts gave directions as to how one should live his days so as to avoid the terrors that one might otherwise
face in afterlife
B) Because the texts are focused on the future rather than the present
C) Because the texts were intended as a guide to afterlife and to ease the passage of the deceased therein
D) Because the texts were written by ancient Egyptians so as to provide insights, into traditional Egyptian beliefs, to the
future generations
Question No. : 3
Based on the passage, all of the following can be expected to be part of Book of Dead EXCEPT:
A) List of sins one could have possibly committed during one’s lifetime which will make one’s heart heavy at the time of
weighing of the heart
B) Rituals to prepare the dead for their journey into afterlife C) Method of weighing of the Heart
D) How to compensate in afterlife, for the sins committed during one’s life, so as to avoid horrific fate of those with heavy
hearts
Question No. : 4
Which of the following can be most reasonably inferred from the passage?
A) Ancient Egyptians believed that one carries the burden of one’s sins with him into the afterlife
B) Book of Dead was intended to be used by both royalty and non-royalty
C) Ancient Egyptians inscribed mortuary texts in the hope of being better understood by future generations
D) Passages from the mortuary texts were inscribed exclusively on the tombs
Question No. : 5
All of the following lines can be inserted into the passage without the passage losing its coherence except
A) “The fears of an ancient Egyptian contemplating their lot for eternity are listed in the Book of the Dead”
B) “Anyone with the mortuary texts could, it was hoped, increase his chances of a smooth passage through the afterlife.”
C) “The Book of Dead includes multiple punishments said to be inflicted upon those with heavy hearts”
D) “Since life in ancient Egypt was so highly valued it only makes sense that they would have imagined an afterlife which
mirrored it closely.”
DIRECTIONS for the question : Read the passage and answer the question based on it.
Question No. : 6
When I was a child in the 1950s, my friends and I had two educations. We had school (which was not the big deal it is today),
and we also had what I call a hunter-gather education. We played in mixed-age neighborhood groups almost every day after
school, often until dark. We played all weekend and all summer long. We had time to explore in all sorts of ways, and also time
to become bored and figure out how to overcome boredom, time to get into trouble and find our way out of it, time to
daydream, time to immerse ourselves in hobbies, and time to read comics and whatever else we wanted to read rather than the
books assigned to us. What I learnt in my hunter-gatherer education has been far more valuable to my adult life than what I
learnt in school, and I think others in my age group would say the same if they took time to think about it.

For more than 50 years now, we in the United States have been gradually reducing children’s opportunities to play, and the
same is true in many other countries. In his book Children at Play: An American History (2007), Howard Chudacoff refers to the
first half of the 20th century as the ‘golden age’ of children’s free play. By about 1900, the need for child labour had declined,
so children had a good deal of free time. But then, beginning around 1960 or a little before, adults began chipping away at that
freedom by increasing the time that children had to spend at schoolwork and, even more significantly, by reducing children’s
freedom to play on their own, even when they were out of school and not doing homework. Adult-directed sports for children
began to replace ‘pickup’ games; adult-directed classes out of school began to replace hobbies; and parents’ fears led them,
ever more, to forbid children from going out to play with other kids, away from home, unsupervised. There are lots of reasons
for these changes but the effect, over the decades, has been a continuous and ultimately dramatic decline in children’s
opportunities to play and explore in their own chosen ways.

Over the same decades that children’s play has been declining, childhood mental disorders have been increasing. It’s not just
that we’re seeing disorders that we overlooked before. Clinical questionnaires aimed at assessing anxiety and depression, for
example, have been given in unchanged form to normative groups of schoolchildren in the US ever since the 1950s. Analyses of
the results reveal a continuous, essentially linear, increase in anxiety and depression in young people over the decades, such
that the rates of what today would be diagnosed as generalised anxiety disorder and major depression are five to eight times
what they were in the 1950s. Over the same period, the suicide rate for young people aged 15 to 24 has more than doubled,
and that for children under age 15 has quadrupled….
All of the following can be reasons why author believes school education doesn’t prove to be as valuable as a hunter-gather
education, EXCEPT
A) Schools are an authoritarian, not a democratic setting.

B) Schools take away time from children which they would have otherwise spent playing
C) Schools foster competition, not co-operation
D) Children in schools are not free to quit when others fail to respect their needs and wishes
Question No. : 7
All of the following are indicative that the child has had insignificant time to play, EXCEPT
A) When placed in a moderately frightening novel environment, freezing in terror and failing to overcome that fear and
explore the novel area
B) Living with a sense of dependence, a sense that there is some authority out there who is supposed to tell them what to
do.
C) When placed with an unfamiliar peer, lashing out with inappropriate and ineffective aggression, or both.
D) When placed in a tricky situation, figuring the way out through use of negotiation and compromise
Question No. : 8
Which of the following is least likely to be a characteristic of a ‘pickup game’ as used by author in paragraph 3
A) A game in which children decide the rules of the game- of what’s fair and what’s foul
B) A new version of a well known game C) A game intended to increase children’s bodily strength
D) A game which fosters children’s creativity
Question No. : 9
Which of the following would weaken the author’s argument for increase in free play time of children
A) There has been a decline in empathy since the late 1970s as can be assessed from surveys of normative samples of
college students.
B) There is evidence that the children can learn to regulate their anger and aggressiveness through social play.
C) In China, where students spend nearly all their time studying, a common term used in China to refer to graduates
is gaofen dineng, meaning ‘high scores but low ability’.
D) In a research, it was found that more than 85 per cent of children in 2008 scored lower on ‘narcissism’ than did the
average child in 1984
DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it.
Question No. : 10
I want to stress this personal helplessness we are all stricken with in the face of a system that has passed beyond our
knowledge and control. To bring it nearer home, I propose that we switch off from the big things like empires and their wars to
more familiar little things. Take pins for example! I do not know why it is that I so seldom use a pin when my wife cannot get on
without boxes of them at hand; but it is so; and I will therefore take pins as being for some reason specially important to
women.

There was a time when pinmakers would buy the material; shape it; make the head and the point; ornament it; and take it to
the market, and sell it and the making required skill in several operations. They not only knew how the thing was done from
beginning to end, but could do it all by themselves. But they could not afford to sell you a paper of pins for the farthing. Pins
cost so much that a woman's dress allowance was calling pin money.

By the end of the 18th century Adam Smith boasted that it took 18 men to make a pin, each man doing a little bit of the job
and passing the pin on to the next, and none of them being able to make a whole pin or to buy the materials or to sell it when
it was made. The most you could say for them was that at least they had some idea of how it was made, though they could not
make it. Now as this meant that they were clearly less capable and knowledgeable men than the old pin-makers, you may ask
why Adam Smith boasted of it as a triumph of civilisation when its effect had so clearly a degrading effect. The reason was that
by setting each man to do just one little bit of the work and nothing but that, over and over again, he became very quick at it.
The men, it is said, could turn out nearly 5000 pins a day each; and thus pins became plentiful and cheap. The country was
supposed to be richer because it had more pins, though it had turned capable men into mere machines doing their work
without intelligence and being fed by the spare food of the capitalist just as an engine is fed with coals and oil. That was why
the poet Goldsmith, who was a farsighted economist as well as a poet, complained that 'wealth accumulates, and men decay'.

Nowadays Adam Smith's 18 men are as extinct as the diplodocus. The 18 flesh-and-blood men have been replaced by
machines of steel which spout out pins by the hundred million. Even sticking them into pink papers is done by machinery. The
result is that with the exception of a few people who design the machines, nobody knows how to make a pin or how a pin is
made: that is to say, the modern worker in pin manufacture need not be one-tenth so intelligent, skilful and accomplished as
the old pin-maker; and the only compensation we have for this deterioration is that pins are so cheap that a single pin has no
expressible value at all. Even with a big profit stuck on to the cost-price you can buy dozens for a farthing; and pins are so
recklessly thrown away and wasted that verses have to be written to persuade children (without success) that it is a sin to steal,
even if it’s a pin.

Many serious thinkers, like John Ruskin and William Morris, have been greatly troubled by this, just as Goldsmith was, and have
asked whether we really believe that it is an advance in wealth to lose our skill and degrade our workers for the sake of being
able to waste pins by the ton. We shall see later on, when we come to consider the Distribution of Leisure, that the cure for this
is not to go back to the old free for higher work than pin-making or the like. But in the meantime the fact remains that the
workers are now not able to make anything themselves even in little bits. They are ignorant and helpless, and cannot lift their
finger to begin their day's work until it has all been arranged for them by their employer's who themselves do not understand
the machines they buy, and simply pay other people to set them going by carrying out the machine maker's directions.

The same is true for clothes. Earlier the whole work of making clothes, from the shearing of the sheep to the turning out of the
finished and washed garment ready to put on, had to be done in the country by the men and women of the household,
especially the women; so that to this day an unmarried woman is called a spinster. Nowadays nothing is left of all this but the
sheep shearing; and even that, like the milking of cows, is being done by machinery, as the sewing is. Give a woman a sheep
today and ask her to produce a woolen dress for you; and not only will she be quite unable to do it, but you are likely to find
that she is not even aware of any connection between sheep and clothes. When she gets her clothes, which she does by buying
them at the shop, she knows that there is a difference between wool and cotton and silk, between flannel and merino, perhaps
even between stockinet and other wefts; but as to how they are made, or what they are made of, or how they came to be in the
shop ready for her to buy, she knows hardly anything. And the shop assistant from whom she buys is no wiser. The people
engaged in the making of them know even less; for many of them are too poor to have much choice of materials when they
buy their own clothes.

Thus the capitalist system has produced an almost universal ignorance of how things are made and done, whilst at the same
time it has caused them to be made and done on a gigantic scale. We have to buy books and encyclopedias to find out what it
is we are doing all day; and as the books are written by people who are not doing it, and who get their information from other
books, what they tell us is twenty to fifty years out of date knowledge and almost impractical today. And of course most of us
are too tired of our work when we come home to want to read about it; what we need is cinema to take our minds off it and
feel our imagination.

It is a funny place, this word of capitalism, with its astonishing spread of education and enlightenment. There stand the
thousands of property owners and the millions of wage workers, none of them able to make anything, none of them knowing
what to do until somebody tells them, none of them having the least notion of how it is made that they find people paying
them money, and things in the shops to buy with it. And when they travel they are surprised to find that savages and
Esquimaux and villagers who have to make everything for themselves are more intelligent and resourceful! The wonder would
be if they were anything else. We should die of idiocy through disuse of our mental faculties if we did not fill our heads with
romantic nonsense out of illustrated newspapers and novels and plays and films. Such stuff keeps us alive, but it falsifies
everything for us so absurdly that it leaves us more or less dangerous lunatics in the real world.

Excuse my going on like this; but as I am a writer of books and plays myself, I know the folly and peril of it better than you do.
And when I see that this moment of our utmost ignorance and helplessness, delusion and folly, has been stumbled on by the
blind forces of capitalism as the moment for giving votes to everybody, so that the few wise women are hopelessly overruled
by the thousands whose political minds, as far as they can be said to have any political minds at all, have been formed in the
cinema, I realise that I had better stop writing plays for a while to discuss political and social realities in this book with those
who are intelligent enough to listen to me.

A suitable title to the passage would be
A) You Can't Hear a Pin-drop Nowadays. B) Capitalism and Labour Disintegration: Pinning the Blame.
C) The Saga of the Non Safety Pins. D) Reaching the Pinnacle of Capitalistic Success.
Question No. : 11
Why do you think that the author gives the example of Adam Smith?
A) Because he thinks that Adam Smith was a boaster without any facts to back his utterance.
B) Because he wants to give us an example of something undesirable that Adam Smith was proud of.
C) Because he is proud to be a believer in a tenet of production that even a great man like Adam Smith boasted about.
D) Because he feels that Adam Smith was right when he said that it took 18 men to make a pin.
Question No. : 12
Which of the following is true as far as pins are concerned?
A) The cost of pins is more nowadays to produce. B) Earlier, workmen made pins with a lot of love and care.
C) Pinball machines are the standard pin producing gadgets nowadays. D) It took much longer to make a pin earlier.
Question No. : 13
The reason that children have to be taught that stealing a pin is wrong is that
A) they have an amazing proclivity to steal them right from childhood.

B) pins are so common and cheap that taking one would not even be considered stealing, by children.
C) stealing a pin would lead to stealing bigger and bigger things in the future.
D) stealing an insignificant thing like a pin smacks of kleptomania.
Question No. : 14
It may be inferred from the passage that the author
A) is a supporter of the craftsmanship over bulk mechanised production.

B) is a supporter of assembly line production over socialistic systems of the same.
C) is a defender of the faith in capitalistic production. D) None of the above
DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it.
Question No. : 15
It’s hard not to feel a little sorry for Tom Vilsack and Sylvia Mathews Burwell. As the heads of the U.S. Department of Agriculture
and the Department of Health and Human Services, respectively, Vilsack and Burwell are responsible for issuing this year’s
update to the Dietary Guidelines for Americans. The guidelines, which are expected to be published before the end of 2015,
inform all of the federal government’s nutrition initiatives and food-assistance programs, including school lunches and
breakfasts. They are estimated to affect one in every four meals consumed in this country. By law, the guidelines must be
revised every five years according to the “preponderance of the scientific and medical knowledge” about nutrition at that time.
Vilsack and Burwell have the unenviable job of determining what constitutes “knowledge” in a field that has long been mired in
ambiguity.

The immensity of the challenge became even more apparent late last month, when Nina Teicholz, writing in the BMJ (formerly
the British Medical Journal), published a blistering analysis of the scientific report that serves as the basis for the 2015
guidelines. The report, which was drawn up by the Dietary Guidelines Advisory Committee (D.G.A.C.), a panel of nutrition
experts, recommends plenty of low- or non-fat dairy, fruits, vegetables, whole grains, seafood, legumes, and nuts, and minimal
red and processed meats, refined grains, and sweetened foods and drinks. But, according to Teicholz, the D.G.A.C. failed to
adequately consider two relatively recent findings in nutrition science: first, that eating a low-carbohydrate diet may help
control certain health conditions, notably Type 2 diabetes and obesity, and second, that saturated fats may not be as
catastrophically unhealthy as previously supposed.

Last Wednesday, Vilsack and Burwell sat down to defend the D.G.A.C.’s report at a hearing of the House Agriculture Committee.
They offered few satisfying answers. The committee members cited a number of Teicholz’s charges, to which Vilsack repeatedly
responded that the report could reflect only a preponderance of the evidence. “I wish there were scientific facts,” he said. He
also claimed that information about the benefits of low-carb diets wasn’t relevant to the guidelines, because they are meant to
prevent chronic conditions rather than to treat them. How Vilsack made this determination is not entirely clear. The D.G.A.C.
charter fails to distinguish between prevention and treatment, nor does it necessarily make sense to draw a hard line between
the two. As David Ludwig, an obesity researcher at Boston Children’s Hospital and the author of the book “Always Hungry?,”
told me in an e-mail, “Type 2 diabetes represents the end of a long progression, beginning with overweight and leading to
severe metabolic disease. Health risks increase continuously along this spectrum.”

Even if Vilsack were technically right that the guidelines are intended only to prevent disease, he would be leaving another
question unanswered: why make recommendations that are irrelevant to a majority of his fellow-citizens? Depressing though it
may be, the United States in 2015 no longer has the luxury of dietary advice aimed only at the metabolically healthy. More than
two-thirds of adults in this country are overweight or obese, as are about a third of children and adolescents. What’s more,
approximately half of all adults—and a rapidly growing number of adolescents—are now estimated to have Type 2 diabetes or
prediabetes. (The percentages of the obese and diabetic are even higher among lower-income Americans, the very people who
rely on food-assistance programs.) During the House hearing, Burwell asked her interlocutors to imagine what the United States
might look like today if no guidelines had ever been instituted. “We are on the wrong trajectory, but would the trajectory have
been worse?” she asked. It’s hard to imagine, though, what worse could mean.

Vilsack’s seeming failure to grasp this point underscores the long-standing disconnect between the guidelines and the reality of
America’s dietary woes. To the D.G.A.C.’s credit, the 2015 report includes several amendments to previous editions. Although it
discourages the eating of saturated and trans fats, it places no limits on over-all fat consumption, and it calls for the revised
guidelines to do away with warnings about the cholesterol in food, since it has little impact on cholesterol levels in the blood.
And yet the overriding conclusion—that Americans should eat a grain-heavy diet low in saturated fat—is largely the same
advice that has been given every five years since the guidelines were introduced, in 1980. Back then, less than fifteen per cent
of Americans were obese, and Type 2 diabetes in children was extremely rare. Today, a growing body of research suggests that
those who are prediabetic or diabetic might do best on a diet that is higher in total fat and lower in grains.

It is possible, of course, that the government has been providing sound advice for decades and that it hasn’t worked only
because people have failed to pay attention. Defenders of the status quo point out that, when Americans were urged to avoid
fat, no one told them to replace it with refined grains and sugar. But nutrition always involves trade-offs. If you strive to
consume less whole milk and red meat, as Americans have indeed done, it is almost inevitable that you will end up replacing
some of the calories from saturated fat with calories from carbohydrates. And it may become considerably harder to resist
refined grains and sugars. “A kid who might a generation ago have had a glass of whole milk and two cookies might today
have a glass of fat-free milk and three or four cookies,” Ludwig told me. “That is a bad trade-off.”
What does the author mean when he says 'preponderance of the scientific and medical knowledge'?
A) The said guidelines must validate the findings of science and medical knowledge.
B) The said guidelines must supersede the findings of science and medical knowledge.
C) The said guidelines must be subservient to the findings of science and medical knowledge.
D) The said guidelines must lead to the drawing scientific findings and medical knowledge.
Question No. : 16
If you were to meet the author of the passage, the question you are most likely to ask him is:
A) Do we really need the health guidelines of the D.G.A.C.?

B) Can any agency other than D.G.A.C. take over the health guidelines? C) How to avoid diabetes?
D) What exactly should be the diet of Americans?
Question No. : 17
Identify a suitable title for the given passage.
A) Why the Government’s Dietary Guidelines are no longer needed?

B) What the Government’s Dietary Guidelines may get right?
C) What the Government’s Dietary Guidelines may get Wrong?
D) What the Government’s Dietary Guidelines mean to the general public?
Question No. : 18
Assuming the information provided in the passage to be correct, identify the correct statements.

I. D.G.A.C. were presumably based on the assumption that guidelines were focused on prevention of ailments and not their
cure.
II. There is a dietary option that can help combat diabetes.
III. Type 2 diabetes is part of much larger sequence of health disorders.
A) I & II B) II & III C) I & III D) All of the above
DIRECTIONS for the question: The five sentences (labelled 1,2,3,4, and 5) given in this question, when properly sequenced, form
a coherent paragraph. Decide on the proper order for the sentence and key in this sequence of five numbers as your answer.
Question No. : 19
1. The body does not produce the germ-cells; instead, the germ-cells produce the body.
2. Human beings result from the union of an egg-cell and a sperm-cell and these cells are part of a continuous stream of germ-
plasm ever since life appeared on the globe, and will continue as long as it exists.
3. Generation was conceived as a direct chain - the body produces the germ-cell which produces another body, which in turn
produces another germ-cell, and so on
4. But a generation ago, this idea fell under suspicion as August Weismann, a zoology professor championed a new idea so
effectively that it is now a part of every biologists creed
5. Early investigators looked on the germ-cells as a bodily product, which reproduce the characters of the original body
(write the answer key)
A) 25341 B) C) D)

DIRECTIONS for question: Four sentences related to a topic are given below. Three of them can be put together to form a
meaningful and coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd one out. Choose its number as your answer and key it in.
Question No. : 20
1. It seemed to me that those who fought for our freedom were the truly worthy ancestors, the kind who deserved the filial
piety we were coaxed into squandering so thoughtlessly
2. As a child, when I heard the word freedom, it was not a lone word
3. We had, in their names and ours, to nurse this hard-won thing, our freedom, nourish it and make it grow
4. And since these worthy ancestors had already fought the big battle and won it at great cost, we had to pay our legacy duties
every day by living up to their dreams and hopes
A) 2 B) C) D)
DIRECTIONS for question: Four sentences related to a topic are given below. Three of them can be put together to form a
meaningful and coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd one out. Choose its number as your answer and key it in.
Question No. : 21
1. In conversations, in the ways people I know meet medical challenges, I've noticed not just a discomfort with the unpopular
aspects of aging, but something more general: a shrinking from the body itself, a desire to deny that this body is who we are.
2. Inspired by the generation-defining tome 'Our Bodies, Ourselves', we trained for childbirth without anesthesia, we looked at
our cervixes using a speculum, and in general cultivated in ourselves the thought that our own bodies were not sticky,
disgusting, and shameful, but dynamic, marvelous, and, more important, just us ourselves.
3. In the 1970s, we women used to talk about loving our own bodies.
4. Today, as we boomers age, male and female, what has happened to that love and excitement?

A) 1 B) C) D)
Question No. : 22
1. The five hundredth anniversary of his death in 1516 has inspired two comprehensive exhibitions, at the Noordbrabants
Museum in his hometown of , S-Hertogenbosch and at Madrid's Museo Nacional del Prado, as well as an ambitious project to
analyze all of his surviving work, drawn, painted, and printed, according to the latest scientific techniques (the Bosch Research
and Conservation Project).
2. His imagination ranged from a place beyond the spheres of Heaven to the uttermost depths of Hell, but for many of his
earliest admirers the most striking aspect of his art was what they described as its "truth to nature".
3. How could he be otherwise with so strange and masterful an artist?
4. Yet despite all we have learned through these undertakings"and it is a great deal"the man his neighbors knew as 'Joen the
painter' remains as mysterious as ever.
5. There has never been a painter quite like Jheronimus van Aken, the Flemish master who signed his works as Jheronimus
Bosch.
A) 52143 B) C) D)

Question No. : 23
1. In a sense, our people are the seeds of our growth and shareholder value.
2. Parts of the organization will perform to world-class standards, and parts will look like the puny rows of corn in Timisoara.
3. In farming and in business, there are so many factors you can't control " from drought to floods to the Greek bailout " the
key is to focus on those areas that you can control.
4. We can surround them with resources and nurture them with benefits, but if we don't communicate explicitly with them and
decide to align our resources in similar ways, they will make decisions that yield uneven results.
5. Your ability to execute is definitely one of those.
(write answer key)
A) 35142 B) C) D)
DIRECTIONS for the question: Identify the most appropriate summary for the paragraph.
Question No. : 24
Two of the top ten campaigns this year are those that have seen success from the smart use of data to drive creative and media
strategy. The Economist used a targeted programmatic display campaign to reach new prospects with humorous and accessible
tagline ads. The campaign hit 50% of target in 9 days, with a return on investment of over 25:1. In sixth place, a big data
campaign for Australian swimming pool builder Narellan Pools took a ‘moment marketing’ approach. Customers were targeted
at the precise times they were most likely to buy a pool, with focused creative motivating purchase decisions. The campaign
increased direct leads by 11% and sales by 23% year on year.
A) The range of alternative approaches used in campaigns– like data-driven ‘moment marketing’ are capable of customer
attention without much consideration on financial returns to the client.
B) It is more important than ever that ad companies now focus only on data for creativity and ideas to deliver tangible
business results for clients.
C) These alternative approaches used to make creative campaigns build brands and deliver results in the long term as well as
at the time of the campaign.
D) These alternative approaches used in campaigns can open up new and creative media opportunities and are also capable
of generating business results.
Question No. : 25
Hume articulates a thoroughgoing, vertiginous, existential kind of doubt. In the Treatise, he reports that when he first
confronted those doubts himself he was terrified—“affrighted and confounded.” They made him feel like “some strange
uncouth monster.” No wonder he turned to the doctors. But here’s Hume’s really great idea: Ultimately, the metaphysical
foundations don’t matter. Experience is enough all by itself. What do you lose when you give up God or “reality” or even “I”?
The moon is still just as bright; you can still predict that a falling glass will break, and you can still act to catch it; you can still
feel compassion for the suffering of others. Science and work and morality remain intact. Go back to your backgammon game
after your skeptical crisis, Hume wrote, and it will be exactly the same game. In fact, if you let yourself think this way, your life
might actually get better. Give up the prospect of life after death, and you will finally really appreciate life before it. Give up
metaphysics, and you can concentrate on physics. Give up the idea of your precious, unique, irreplaceable self, and you might
actually be more sympathetic to other people.
A) The supernatural does not exist and giving up on the idea of his existence frees one up and allows one to appreciate life
in a better matter.
B) Metaphysical doubts are actually not relevant and without these, one is liberated to see, observe and live life as it is.
C) Metaphysical insinuations are the ones that cripple us and do not allows us to live the life of freedom that we deserve.
D) Metaphysics, though an important part of critical thought, does not seem to solve our existential queries and therefore
finds no relevance in our everyday life.
Question No. : 26
In a philosophical sense, efficiency has no independent value: it depends on the value of the larger system of which it is a part.
An efficient Nazi, for example, is a terrifying thing. If the aims are questionable, efficiency may even make destruction more
insidious. Last but not least, efficiency isn’t much fun. In a world dominated by efficiency, each development would serve only
narrow and practical purposes. Beauty, creativity, fantasy, enjoyment, inspiration, and poetry would fall by the wayside, creating
an unappealing world indeed.
A) Effectiveness is more important than efficiency B) Creativity and efficiency go hand in hand.
C) Efficiency cannot be evaluated without a context. D) The efficiency of destructive activities cannot be measured
Section : DI & Reasoning
DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.
Question No. : 27
In a game exactly six inverted cups stand side by side in a straight line and each has exactly one ball hidden under it. The cups
are numbered consecutively 1 through 6. Each of the ball is painted a single solid color. The colors of the balls are green,
magenta, orange, purple, red and yellow. The balls have been hidden under the cups in a manner that conforms to the
following conditions :The purple ball must be hidden under a lower-numbered cup than the orange ball. The red ball must be
hidden under a cup immediately adjacent to the cup under which the magenta ball is hidden. The green ball must be hidden
under cup 5.
Which of the following could be the colors of the balls under the cups, inorder from 1 through 6?
A) Green, Yellow, Magenta, Red, Orange, Yellow B) Magenta, Green, Purple, Red, Orange, Yellow
C) Magenta, Red, Purple, Yellow, Green, Orange D) Orange, Yellow, Red, Magenta,Green, Purple
Question No. : 28
under cup 5.
If the magenta ball is under cup 4,the red ball must be under cup
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 5
Question No. : 29
under cup 5.
If the purple ball is under cup 4, the orange ball must be under cup
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 6

Question No. : 30
under cup 5.
Which of the following must be true ?
A) The green ball is under a lower numbered cup than the yellow ball
B) The orange ball is under a lower numbered cup than the green ball
C) The purple ball is under a lower numbered cup than the green ball
D) The purple ball is under a lower numbered cup than the red ball
Question No. : 31
A contractor, Krishna, has five jobs to be done during the next week. Two workers – Vandana and Madhu are available for the
jobs and each can do two jobs in the week. The profit for each job depends on the worker assigned as shown in the table
below.

Job Profits (Rs. Thousand)
Job
1 2 3 4 5
Vandana 3 9 7 3 10
Madhu 5 6 10 5 15

What is the maximum profit that Krishna can earn in the week (in Rs.)? Type your answer in the box provided below.
A) 37000 B) C) D)
Question No. : 32
below.

Job
1 2 3 4 5
Vandana 3 9 7 3 10
Madhu 5 6 10 5 15

Referring to the previous question, if two weeks are now available for Krishna, what will be the maximum profit for week two
(in Rs.)? Type your answer in the box provided below.
A) 5000 B) C) D)

Question No. : 33
below.

Job
1 2 3 4 5
Vandana 3 9 7 3 10
Madhu 5 6 10 5 15

If Krishna requires that job 4 must be done, then what is the maximum profit (in Rs.)? Type your answer in the box provided
below.
A) 37000 B) C) D)
Question No. : 34
below.

Job
1 2 3 4 5
Vandana 3 9 7 3 10
Madhu 5 6 10 5 15

Madhu has just put in leave for 3 days. If the working week is 6 days, then what will be the profit Krishna can earn in the week
(in Rs.)? Type your answer in the box provided below.
A) 31000 B) C) D)
DIRECTIONS for the question: Go through the graph and the information given below and answer the question that follows.
Question No. : 35
In 2016, the Flora Car Company recalled 3,40,000 cars on account of faulty airbags. When these cars were being refitted with
new airbags, it was found that 2,25,000 cars had faulty transmissions, 23,000 cars had problems with ABS and 46,000 cars had
faulty suspensions.
In the same year, the Cord Motor Corporation recalled 3,50,000 cars on account of faulty airbags. When these cars were being
refitted with new airbags, it was found that 2,00,000 cars had faulty transmissions, 53,000 cars had problems with ABS and
26,000 cars had faulty suspensions.
Of the cars recalled by the Flora Car Company in 2016, what is the maximum possible number of cars that had exactly one of
the four problems?
A) 69,000 B) 1,15,000 C) 1,79,000 D) 2,94,000
Question No. : 36
Of the cars recalled by the Cord Motor Corporation in 2016, what is the minimum possible number of cars that had exactly one
of the four problems?
A) 1,50,000 B) 1,24,000 C) 97,000 D) 71,000

Question No. : 37
Of the total number of cars recalled by both, the Flora Car Company and the Cord Motor Corporation in 2016, what is the
maximum possible number of cars that had exactly two of the four problems?(numerical value)
A) 573000 B) C) D)
Question No. : 38
Of the total number of cars recalled by both, the Flora Car Company and the Cord Motor Corporation in 2016, what is the
maximum possible number of cars that had exactly three of the four problems? (In numerical value)
A) 148000 B) C) D)
Question No. : 39
Deepak, the coach of a tennis team, has to select a team from among a group of 8 players, P through W. However, the only
constraint that he has for selecting the team is that, for each of the eight players, if he selects that player, there are exactly two
players from among the remaining players who cannot be selected.
It is known that
1. for each of P and Q, if either of them is to be in the team, W cannot be in the team.
2. if S is in the team, neither V nor T can be in the team.
3. if U is in the team, neither Q nor V can be in the team.
If Deepak selected a team with the maximum possible size and he selected P, who among the following will he definitely select?
A) Q B) U C) V D) More than one of the above
Question No. : 40
If Deepak selects both P and S, what is the maximum possible size of the team that he can select?
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5
Question No. : 41
Instead of selecting one team, Deepak selected two teams, not necessarily of the same size, from the available eight players. What is the
minimum possible number of players that Deepak did not select?
A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) None of the above
Question No. : 42
Instead of selecting one team, Deepak selected two teams, not necessarily of the same size, from the available eight players. If Deepak
selected P, Q and S to be a part of one of the two teams and the second team should have at least three players, in how many ways can he
select the second team?
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 8

Question No. : 43
Five colleagues from different divisions of a company met in the club discussing their Sunday’s winning at card games.
I. Mathur and the person from Engineering Division together had won Rs. 1500
II. Sastry and Saxena together won Rs. 1400
III. Saxena and the Senior Vice President together won Rs.1200
IV. Verma and the production manager had together won Rs. 1000
V. The General Manager and the International Trading Division person together won Rs. 900
VI. The Foods Division man and the Soaps Division person together won Rs. 700
VII. The Vice President and the Oil Seeds Division person together won Rs. 600
VIII. Rao and the Soaps Division person together won Rs. 400
IX. The Deputy General Manager together with the only person in Churidar-Kurta won Rs. 800
X. The two people in Three-Piece Suit together won Rs. 1100
XI. The person in Safari-Suit has won more than the person in Two-Piece Suit
Which of the following statement are false?
I. The Production Manager is in Soaps Division

II. The Deputy General Manager is in Oil Seeds Division
III. Roa is the Vice President
A) Only I and II B) Only II and III C) Only I and III D) All three statements
Question No. : 44
How much have Rao and Saxena together earned (in Rs.)?
A) 900 B) 1100 C) 1300 D) None of these
Question No. : 45
Which of the following statements is/are not true?
I. The Vice President and the Senior Vice President together have earned more than the production Manager and the General
Manager put together
II. The person from Foods Division earned less than the person from the Oil Seeds Division
III. The person from International Trading earned the same amount as the person in Two-Piece Suit
A) Only I and II B) Only II and III C) Only I and III D) All three statements
Question No. : 46
Who has won the minimum amount?
A) Mathur B) Saxena C) Verma D) Rao

DIRECTIONS for the question: Study the following information carefully and answer the given question.
Question No. : 47
Kushdeep conducted a survey on the latest mobile Xeon with twenty people. Each person have to give a rating from 0 to 10 and each rating
was an integer. The bar graph given below provides, for each person, the value of the average rating given by the twenty people in the
survey minus the rating of that person in the survey.

Which of the following can be the number of person who have given exactly 5 ratings in the survey?
A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) All of the above
Question No. : 48
How many persons definitely gave at least 6 rating in the survey?
A) 7 B) 8 C) 9 D) 10
Question No. : 49
If the number of persons who gave rating exactly 6 is four less than the number of persons who gave rating exactly 2, what is
the average rating of the persons in the survey.
A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) Cannot be determined
Question No. : 50
If only the number of persons who gave rating above 6 are considered, what can be the maximum number of such persons?
A) 10 B) 11 C) 12 D) 13
Section : Quantitative Ability
DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.
Question No. : 51
A tank internally measuring 15 cm × 12 cm × 10 cm has 360 cc water in it. Porous bricks are placed in the water until the tank is
full up to its brim. Each brick absorbs water which is one tenth of its volume. How many bricks, of 5 cm × 4 cm × 2 cm, can be
put in the tank without spilling over the water? (in numerical value)

A) 40 B) C) D)

Question No. : 52
A man had a 10-gallon keg of wine and a jug. One day, he drew off a jug full of wine and filled up the keg with water. Later on,
when the wine and water had got thoroughly mixed, he drew off another jug full and again filled up the keg with water. The
keg then contained equal quantities of wine and water. What was the approximate capacity of the jug? (ans in gallons, nearest
integer)
A) 3 B) C) D)
Question No. : 53
Two pipes of different metals have equal weights and mean diameters in the ratio 3 : 4. If their thicknesses are in the ratio 2 : 3
respectively and densities are in the ratio 8 : 5 respectively, what is the ratio of their lengths? (Weight varies directly with
density, diameter, thickness and length)
A) 0.6 B) 0.33 C) 1.33 D) None of these
DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option.

Question No. : 54
The number of ordered pairs of integers (x, y) satisfying the equation 4x2 + 7x + y2 + xy + 16 = 2xy + 4 – xy + 3x2 – 3x. (Given x
and y are different integers)
A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8
DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option

Question No. : 55
A) 3.5 <x < 4.5 B) 4.5 <x < 5.5 C) 6 < x < 7 D) 7 < x < 8
DIRECTIONS for the question : Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.
Question No. : 56
DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Question No. : 57

f is a function such that f(x – 2) + f(x + 2) = f(x). The value of f(1) + f(2) + f(3) + … + f(11) is [given that f(0) = 4, f(1) = 6, f(2) = 8].
A) 176 B) 88 C) -24 D) -4

DIRECTION for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.
Question No. : 58
An insurance company earns Rs. 250 per person as annual premium for MEDICLAIM insurance that covers hospitalization bill up
to Rs. 18,900 at the rate of 80% of actual bills. It is estimated that only 1 out of every 100 insured persons would incur the
hospitalization bill of Rs.15, 000. This scheme costs the insurance company 10% of the revenue as administrative cost.

In the situation given above, if instead of 1, 1.6 out of hundred incur hospitalization bills and the company wants to maintain its
profit per person, how much should be the premium charged?
A) Rs. 325 B) Rs. 300 C) Rs. 330 D) None of these
Question No. : 59
If the roots of the equation x2 - 3(2m + 4) x + m2 + 18m + 81= 0 are reciprocal of each other, then the possible values of m
are:
A) m = 3 or m = -6 B) m = 10 or m = 8 C) m 3 or m -6 D) m = -10 or m = -8
Question No. : 60
Tony has gone to fun fair. There was a game in which player has to perform three different tasks. If exactly one of these three
tasks is successful, then player wins the game. The three tasks are – Task I- Player has to flip a coin and success would be tail.
Task II- Player has to roll a single die, and success would be a six. Task III - Player picks a card from a full playing-card deck, and
success would be picking a diamond card. What is the probability of losing the game?
A) 23/48 B) 25/48 C) 21/48 D) 27/48
Question No. : 61
A Ratnagiri fruit merchant can pack 8 dozen large mangoes or 10 dozen small mangoes into a wooden crate for sending them
by a mini truck to the Vashi market yard. Today morning, the fruit merchant sent a total of 96 dozen mangoes to Vashi. If there
are more large mangoes than small mangoes, how many crates did he load in the truck?
Question No. : 62
(2x + 3y) when divided by 5 gives remainder 2 and (3x + 2 y) when divided by 5 gives remainder 3. If x > y, what is the
remainder when x – y is divided by 5? (in numerical value)
A) 1 B) C) D)

Question No. : 63
A and B enter into a partnership and agree that a person is to receive Rs 1,400 per month as his salary for managing the affairs of the
business. A manages the business for 8 months and B manages it for the remaining part of the year. At the end of the year, the business
has gained Rs 24,000. If A and B had contributed Rs 12,000 and Rs 15,000 respectively as capital, what is the difference between their
shares ?
A) Rs. 5600 B) Rs. 9600 C) Rs. 6000 D) None of these
Question No. : 64
Though the sum of three prime numbers is more than 150, the sum of their squares is not more than 8500. What is the average
of the three numbers if they are in arithmetic progression?
A) 61 B) 59 C) 67 D) 53
Question No. : 65
The ratio of prices of two houses was 2 : 3. Two years later when price of first house has increased by 30% and that of the
second by Rs.90,000 the ratio of prices becomes 5 : 7. The approximate original price of the cheaper of the two houses is:
A) 140625 B) 15000 C) 161225 D) 281250
Question No. : 66
There are two drums D1 and D2, each of which is filled to the brim with water. Now, a leak is made at the bottom of each of D1,
and D2, such that the leak in D1, takes 6 hours to empty it, while the leak in D2 takes 9 hours to empty it. If the capacity of D1 is
more than the capacity of D2 by 60%, then find the time after which the volume of water in D2 will be 25% more than the
volume of water in D1.

A) B) C) 3 hours D)
Question No. : 67
A pipe connected to a tank lets in 10 l in the first hour, 20 l in the second hour, 40 l in the third hour, 80 l in the fourth hour…
and so on. After 6 hours, the tank is only 1/4th full. How long will it take to fill the tank approximately?
A) 24 hours B) 8 hours C) 12 hours D) 16 hours
Question No. : 68
If X = 10! + 11! + 12! + 13! + 14! + 15!, then find the highest power of 2 in X.
A) 7 B) 8 C) 9 D) 10

Question No. : 69
In the Bulls Eye Lucknow center there are 100 students preparing for their entrance exams. 50 are preparing for law entrance,
35 for design entrance and 25 for neither. How many students are preparing for both law and design entrance? (in numerical
value)
A) 10 B) C) D)
Question No. : 70
Aatamjot borrowed a sum of money from Sunita @ 8% p.a. simple interest for first 4 years @ 10% p.a. for next 6 years and @
12% p.a. for the period beyond 10 years. If after 15 years, she pays Rs. 24320 as interest, find the sum borrowed?
A) Rs. 16000 B) Rs. 18000 C) Rs. 24000 D) Rs. 20000
Question No. : 71
Cat finds herself trapped inside a tunnel at a point that is 25% of the length of the tunnel with a train approaching towards the
near end with constant speed. If cats runs towards the near end doubling her speed then she would just manage to save
herself. If on the other hand, she reduced his speed by 25% and ran towards the far end of the tunnel, then she would also just
manage to avert danger. What is the ratio of the speed of the train to the speed of the cat?
A) 8:7 B) 5:4 C) 3:1 D) 2:1
Question No. : 72
What annual payment will discharge a debt of Rs. 6,450 due in 4 years at 5% per annum simple interest ? (in Rs)
A) 1500 B) C) D)
Question No. : 73
Let fn + 1(x) = fn(x) + 1, if n is odd;

= fn(x) + 2, if n is even.
If f1(x) = 1, then what is the value of f100(x)? (in numerical value)

A) 149 B) C) D)
Question No. : 74
Kapoor makes Rs. 20 everyday, from which he spends Rs. 12 for various expenses. Prem makes Rs. 15 a day but has to spend Rs.
14 each day for expenses. If the two of them saved together, how long will it take them to buy a gift for Rs. 82?
A) 10 days B) 12 days C) 15 days D) 9 days

Question No. : 75
Given functions f(x – 7) = 2x2 + p – qx and f(x2 – 9) = x2 – 5q + 4p, then what is the value of 3p + 2q?
Type your answer in the box provided below.
A) 89 B) C) D)
Question No. : 76
Let Akbar and Birbal together have n marbles, where 0 < n < 100. Akbar says to Birbal, “If I give you some marbles then you will
have twice as many marbles as I will have”. Birbal says to Akbar, “If I give you some marbles then you will have thrice as many
marbles as I will have”. How many values of n are there?
A) 11 B) 8 C) 5 D) Can't be determined
QNo:- 1 ,Correct Answer:- D
Explanation:-
The Book of the Dead: The Egyptians inside Guide to the Afterlife
Option A is incorrect as focus of the texts isn’t just telling what happens in afterlife but also about guiding and helping ease the
journey.
Refer lines “these texts were spells—magic “road maps” provided to the dead to navigate their way safely through the afterlife.
Excerpts from the Book of the Dead were intoned by a priest during the funeral ceremony at the tomb.”
Also author defines the texts as "Its 200 chapters are a thrilling insight into beliefs about the trials, joys, and fears on the journey
into death’s mysterious realm."
200 chapters and insight can't be called just a peek
Hence, D option is better suited
Option C is incorrect because of use of word foretell
Option B is vague.
QNo:- 2 ,Correct Answer:- C
Explanation:-
Option A is incorrect as the focus of the book of dead isn’t how one should live his life rather what can one expect in afterlife and
what would help the deceased therein.
This is also what makes option C correct.
Refer lines from:
1st paragraph, “Its 200 chapters are a thrilling insight into beliefs about the trials, joys, and fears on the journey into death’s
mysterious realm.”
2nd paragraph, “these texts were spells—magic “road maps” provided to the dead to navigate their way safely through the
afterlife. Excerpts from the Book of the Dead were intoned by a priest during the funeral ceremony at the tomb.”
6th paragraph,“chapter 110 of the Book of the Dead reveals, corporeal needs and pleasures were not abandoned once one passed
into the afterlife”

Option B is vague at best. Also ‘future’ in the option need not mean afterlife but can also mean years ahead
Option D is incorrect as it’s nowhere indicated in the passage that Egyptians wrote the texts to provide insights to the future
generations
Explanation:-
Options A and C both deal with Weighing of the Heart, which is an integral part of the afterlife journey. Hence, can be certainly
expected to be in Book of the Dead
Option B can be found in the book as the Book of Dead is intended to help ease the journey so the rituals related with such a
journey can be reasonably expected to be part of the book. Also, refer lines “Excerpts from the Book of the Dead were intoned by a
priest during the funeral ceremony at the tomb.” It isn’t unreasonable to expect rituals to be part of funeral ceremony
Option D can not be a part of the book (hence the key) as sins committed during one’s life can be compensated for in afterlife
isn’t something that is indicated in the passage
QNo:- 4 ,Correct Answer:- A
Explanation:-
Answer can be inferred from lines in 4th paragraph, “After the confession, came the climax of the trial: the weighing of the heart.
Those whose hearts weighed too much were considered impure and condemned to several horrific fates.” So option A
Option B is incorrect as royalty and non-royalty don’t find mention in the passage
Option C is incorrect as mortuary texts were written keeping future generations in mind hasn’t been indicated anywhere in the
passage
Option D is incorrect. The passage does say “For centuries, it was assumed the writings found in Egyptian tombs were passages
from ancient scripture. ………. Excerpts from the Book of the Dead were intoned by a priest during the funeral ceremony at the
tomb.” But it doesn’t say that passages from the texts were inscribed exclusively on the tombs. Nor does the passage say that they
weren’t found elsewhere
Explanation:-
Though afterlife being close to life has been mentioned- “There were physical rewards as well. As chapter 110 of the Book of the
Dead reveals,.............. to name a few—existed there as they did in life”
Nowhere does the passage talk about how highly was life valued in Egypt. Hence, option D cannot be part of the passage
without first talking about how highly valued life was.
Options A and C can be included in passage as passage does talk about “Its 200 chapters are a thrilling insight into beliefs about
the trials, joys, and fears on the journey into death’s mysterious realm.” And also about “Those whose hearts weighed too much
were considered impure and condemned to several horrific fates.”
Option B too is in line with main subject of the passage – The Book of the Dead and its main contents - guiding and helping ease
the journey. So, including this won’t affect the coherence or the main idea of the passage. The use of word ‘anyone’ does give it an
impression of being an extreme choice but the option talks about ‘increase his chances of a smooth passage’ and does not imply
anyone who uses the text would certainly have a smooth passage
QNo:- 6 ,Correct Answer:- B
Explanation:-
The author defines hunter-gather education as(refer paragraph 1)
“We played all weekend and all summer long. We had time to explore in all sorts of ways, and also time to become bored and
figure out how to overcome boredom, time to get into trouble and find our way out of it, time to daydream, time to immerse
ourselves in hobbies, and time to read comics and whatever else we wanted to read rather than the books assigned to us.”
What is negative in schools (options A, C and D) is taken care of in hunter-gather education.
Option B , though true, doesn’t specify something on basis of which we can compare school and hunter gather education. It just
states going to school reduces playtime. Spending time on any activity reduces time that would have been spent on other activities
but this alone doesn't mean the activity is an adverse activity.
Option B doesn’t negate why school education isn’t good or tell why hunter gather education is better.
Option B is at best a fact irrelevant to the question.
Hence, option B is the correct answer choice here
Explanation:-
The author advocates a hunter-gather education and strongly advocates it as a means for developing personality of the children.
Correct answer option would be one which shows how time to play freely positively impacts personality.
The only option showing positive impact is option D.
Children learn negotiation and value of compromise when they are not under constant adult supervision, not depending on elders
to solve their problems but dealing with situations on their own.
A child who has had abundant time to play on his own would be independent, confident and able to overcome initial fear of
something new as compared to a child who is under constant adult supervision be it at school or in adult-directed sports.
So options A, B and C are incorrect.
Explanation:-
Refer lines “by reducing children’s freedom to play on their own, even when they were out of school and not doing homework.
Adult-directed sports for children began to replace ‘pickup’ games; adult-directed classes out of school began to replace hobbies;
and parents’ fears led them, ever more, to forbid children from going out to play with other kids, away from home, unsupervised.”
The author is comparing and contrasting adult-directed sports with ‘pickup games’. From the above lines we can infer following
about pickup games:
These are not adult directed.
Pickup games are rather ones that children would play of their own accord when left free.
Options A, B and D exemplify creativity resulting from freedom from adult directions. Hence are ruled out
Option C is correct as children won’t play a game with the intention of increasing bodily strength
Explanation:-
Empathy refers to the ability and tendency to see from another person’s point of view and experience what that person experiences.
Narcissism refers to inflated self-regard, coupled with a lack of concern for others and an inability to connect emotionally with
others.
A decline of empathy and a rise in narcissism are what author would expect to see in children who have little opportunity to play
socially and this makes option A incorrect answer choice and Option D correct.
Option B shows positive impact of social play; hence, strengthens author’s opinion and consequently ruled out as the correct option
Option C shows that more studying time might lead to high scores but end of the day by affects ability. The option implies need for
reduced time for studies but at the same time doesn’t talk about positive impact of play; Hence, irrelevant to the question here
Explanation:-
The passage is about how capitalism has led to disintegration of labour.
Hence option B
Explanation:-
The author feels that Adam Smith boasted about something that was actually undesirable.
Refer lines in 3rd paragraph - By the end of the 18th century Adam Smith boasted that it took 18 men to make a pin, each man
doing a little bit of the job and passing the pin on to the next, and none of them being able to make a whole pin or to buy the
materials or to sell it when it was made.
Explanation:-
It takes much less time to make pins by machines today.
Refer lines in 4th paragraph - The 18 flesh-and-blood men have been replaced by machines of steel which spout out pins by the
hundred million.
Hence option D
Explanation:-
Pins are so cheap that a child stealing it would not even feel that he is actually stealing something.
Refer lines in the mid of 4th paragraph - and the only compensation we have for this deterioration is that pins are so cheap that a
single pin has no expressible value at all
Explanation:-
The author is clearly against machines taking the place of men.
Hence option A
Explanation:-
Refer to the lines towards the end of 1st paragraph: By law, the guidelines must be revised every five years according to the
“preponderance of the scientific and medical knowledge” about nutrition at that time.
Preponderance means superiority in weight, force, importance, or influence.
In the given case, option C is the best answer in the given case. Subservient means 'compliant and obedient to authority'.
Option A is ruled out as these guidelines have to be derived from the findings of science and medical knowledge and not the other
way around.
Options B and D are illogical in nature.

Explanation:-
In this case, option D is the most relevant question in the given case.
It represents what exactly needs to be asked from the author of the passage as the answer to this question is not exactly provided
in the passage. Also, this is most relevant point in the given context.
Option A is rejected as the importance of the guidelines is stated by the author of the passage.
Option B is irrelevant and illogical.
Option C is too general in nature and outside the scope of the passage.

Explanation:-
In the given case, option C is the best answer in the given case.
Options A and D are outrightly rejected as these are illogical in nature.

Options B and C are close.
But we select option C as the author adopts a tone of criticism in the passage and therefore, the title should also reflect a negative
assessment of the situation.
This is accomplished by option C by using the word 'wrong'.

Explanation:-
Statement I can be derived from the lines in 3rd paragraph: He also claimed that information about the benefits of low-carb diets
wasn’t relevant to the guidelines, because they are meant to prevent chronic conditions rather than to treat them.
Statement II can be derived from the lines in 2nd paragraph: But, according to Teicholz, the D.G.A.C. failed to adequately consider
two relatively recent findings in nutrition science: first, that eating a low-carbohydrate diet may help control certain health
conditions, notably Type 2 diabetes and obesity, and second, that saturated fats may not be as catastrophically unhealthy as
previously supposed.
Statement III can be derived from the lines towards the end of 3rd paragraph : As David Ludwig, an obesity researcher at Boston
Children’s Hospital and the author of the book “Always Hungry?,” told me in an e-mail, “Type 2 diabetes represents the end of a
long progression, beginning with overweight and leading to severe metabolic disease. Health risks increase continuously along this
spectrum.”
Hence option D

QNo:- 19 ,Correct Answer:- 25341
Explanation:-
Line 2 is a perfect opening line as the ideas in it are further discussed by the rest of the lines here.
2-5 are linked by "germ-plasm' and 'germ cell'.
Line 5 also shows how early investigators looked at germ cells "as a bodily product" which links 5 with "the body produces the
germ-cell which produces another body,"
Line 3 on one side(the body produces the germ-cell) and
4-1 on the other side(the germ-cells produce the body.) form a contrast as shown by 'But' in line 4.
So the final sequence is 25341

Explanation:-
The correct sequence of sentences in this case is: 1-4-3.
'these worthy ancestors' in 4 refers to "those who fought for our freedom were the truly worthy ancestors" in 1
The sentence that does not fit in the given case is 2.
'this hard-won thing' in 3 is linked with 'the big battle and won it at great cost' in 4
It talks about the word 'freedom' whereas the other three sentences talk about how our ancestors fought for it and earned it.
Hence, statement 2 is the odd one out.

Explanation:-
In this case, statements 3-2-4 form a pair of connected statements.
These sentences talk about how we used to view our bodies and how that element has changed now.
Line 3 and 2 specifically relate to women.
But lines 4 and 1 talk about both males and females.
Line 4 can come after 2 as it introduces males which 1 misses out on.
Statement 1, though related to the context, does not fit with any of sentences and does not follow or precede any sentence.
Explanation:-
Statement 5 is the opening sentence in the given case.
Statement 2 follows 5, which provides further details for the given painter.
Statement 1 talks about the present day context and introduces the element of time in the given case.
Statement 4 then provides us with a comment that how little is understood of 'Joen the painter' despite such a long period of time.
Statement 3 ends the given paragraph on the note of perplexity.
So the final sequence is 52143
Explanation:-
The opening statement in this case will be 3.
After this, 5 will come as 'the area that you can control is your ability to execute'.
Then, 1 will come as it forms the basis of 'what is to be included to execute' i.e people.
Pronoun 'they' in 4 are the people mentioned in 1.
Finally the paragraph concludes with 2 as it highlights the cosequences due to 4.
Hence the final sequence is 35142.

Explanation:-
The passage talks of how using pragmatic techniques in campaigning helped them achieve new prospects as well
as business results. Option D conveys this idea.
Option A- It can be eliminated because it says…without much consideration to financial returns, which is in fact contradicting the
facts in the passage.
Option B- It can be eliminated as it states that ad companies should focus” “only on data” which is not what is conveyed in the
passage. It generalises the conclusion
Option C- This option talks that techniques deliver results in long term and at the time of campaign. The passage does not talk
about the future gains. It’s only talking of present gains. Hence it can be eliminated
Explanation:-
In the given case, option B is the apt answer.
Option A talks about the supernatural whereas the subject of the paragraph is metaphysical doubts.
Option C talks about metaphysical insinuations, something which is missing from the paragraph.
Option D talks about metaphysics not solving our existential queries. This is again absent from the paragraph.
Option B is based on the most important statement of the paragraph: Ultimately, the metaphysical foundations don’t matter.
Explanation:-
Option C is the correct choice.
Can be found in the first line. In a philosophical sense, efficiency has no independent value: it depends on the value of the larger
system of which it is a part.
Explanation:-
1st two options are eliminated because The green ball must be hidden under cup 5. 4th option is also eliminated
because The purple ball must be hidden under a lower-numbered cup than the orange ball. Only 3rd option is follows all the
conditions.
Explanation:-
If the magenta ball is under cup 4, the red ball must be under cup 3 because The green ball must be hidden under
cup 5.
Explanation:-
If the purple ball is under cup 4 and the green ball is under cup 5, so the orange ball should be under cup 6
because purple ball must be hidden under a lower-numbered cup than the orange ball.
Explanation:-
Only 3rd option must be true. Because The green ball must be hidden under cup 5 & The purple ball must be
hidden under a lower-numbered cup than the orange ball.
Explanation:-
Madhu does jobs 3 and 5 and Vandana does jobs 2 and any one of jobs 1 or 4. The maximum profit is 10 + 15 + 9
+ 3 = 37000.
Explanation:-
Madhu does jobs 3 and 5 and Vandana does jobs 2 and any one of jobs 1 or 4. The maximum profit is 10 + 15 + 9
+ 3 = 37000. So, the next week, Madhu does the remaining of jobs 1 or 4 so that the profit is 5000.
Explanation:-
Madhu does jobs 3 and 5 and Vandana does jobs 2 and 4. The maximum profit is 10 + 15 + 9 + 3 = 37000.
Explanation:-
Madhu does job 5 and Vandana does jobs 2 and 3. The maximum profit is 15 + 9 + 7 = 31000.
Explanation:-
It was found that some of the 3,40,000 cars recalled by the Flora Car Company on account of faulty airbags had
other problems as well. In order to find the maximum number of cars that had exactly one of the four problems, we need to find
the minimum number of cars that had more than one of the problems. In other words, we need to find the minimum number of
cars that have faulty transmissions, problems with ABS and faulty suspensions.
If we consider that all 23,000 cars with faulty ABS also have faulty suspensions and all 46,000 cars with faulty suspensions also
had faulty transmissions, then the minimum number of cars which had more than one of the four problems is 2,25,000. Thus, the
maximum possible number of cars that had exactly one of the four problems is 340000 – 225000 = 1,15,000.
Explanation:-
It was found that some of the 3,50,000 cars recalled by the Cord Motor Corporation on account of faulty airbags
had other problems as well. In order to find the minimum number of cars that had exactly one of the four problems, we need to
find the maximum number of cars that had more than one of the problems. In other words, we need to find the maximum number
of cars that have faulty transmissions, problems with ABS and faulty suspensions.
If we consider that the 53,000 cars with faulty ABS had no other problem, the 26,000 cars with faulty suspensions had no other
problem and the 2,00,000 cars with faulty transmissions had no other problem, then the maximum number of cars with more than
one of the four problems is 200000 + 53000 + 26000 = 279000. Thus, the minimum possible number of cars that had exactly one
of the four problems is 350000 – 279000 = 71,000.
Explanation:-
In order to find the maximum possible number of cars with exactly two of the four problems, we will have to
consider that the cars with faulty transmissions, faulty ABS or faulty suspensions had only that one problem. So, the maximum
possible number of cars of both companies together that had exactly two of the four problems will be 225000 + 23000 + 46000 +
200000 + 53000 + 26000 = 5,73,000.
Explanation:-
For the Flora Car Company, suppose all 23000 cars with faulty ABS also have faulty transmissions and all 46000
cars with faulty suspensions also have faulty transmissions. Similarly, for the Cord Motor Corporation, suppose all 53000 cars with
faulty ABS also have faulty transmissions and all 26000 cars with faulty suspensions also have faulty transmissions. Thus, the
maximum possible number of cars of both companies together that have exactly three of the four problems will be 23000 + 46000
+ 53000 + 26000 = 1,48,000.
Explanation:-
Given that if he picks any player, Deepak will not be able to pick two other players.
From (i), if either P or Q is in the team, W cannot be in the team. Hence, if W is picked neither P nor Q can be picked. For W, P and
Q are the two players that can’t be picked.
From (ii), for S, V and T are the two players that cannot be picked.
From (iii), for U, Q and V are the two players that cannot be picked.
If V is there S cannot be in the team. Also U cannot be in the team. Hence, for V, S and U are the two players that cannot be picked.
From (iii), If Q is in the team, U cannot be picked. Hence, for Q, U and W are the two players that cannot be picked.
For T, S is one of the players who cannot be picked. Also, for P, W is one of players who cannot be picked.
We do not know about either of the players who cannot be in the team if R is picked.
For T, the other player can only be P or R. However, it cannot be P because in that case, there cannot be two players who cannot be
picked if R is picked.
Hence, for T, the other player must be R.
For P the other player must be R. For R the two players who cannot be picked must be T and P.
The following table provides the persons who cannot be picked for each player.
Players who cannot be

Players
picked
P R,W
Q U,W
R P,T
S T,V
T R,S
U Q,V
V S,U
W P,Q

From the above table, we can see that selection of each player will exclude two other players from selection.
If P is selected, neither R nor W can be selected. Now, if the next player to be selected also has R or W in his list of players who
cannot be picked, then that will exclude only one more player from being selected.
For example, if Q is picked along with P, then only three players cannot be Selected (instead of 4)-R, U and W.
If T is picked, only four players cannot be selected-R, U, W and S.
Along with P, Q and T, V can also be picked.
Hence, P, Q, T and V can be picked as a team.
Similarly, R, U, W and S can be picked as a team. It is not possible to pick more than 4 players in the team.
Further, four players can be picked in only two ways - PQTV and RSUW.
If P is selected, among Q, U and V, both Q and V must be selected.
Hence answer is 4th option i.e. more than one of the above.
Explanation:-

Players
picked
P R,W
Q U,W
R P,T
S T,V
T R,S
U Q,V
V S,U
W P,Q

Now as both P & S are selected, that means R, W, T, and V cannot be selected.
Now if out of the two players left i.e. Q and U, if Q is selected, then U cannot be selected and if U is selected then Q cannot be
selected. Hence the maximum team size possible is 3 i.e. second option.
Explanation:-

Players
picked
P R,W
Q U,W
R P,T
S T,V
T R,S
U Q,V
V S,U
W P,Q
From the above table, we can see that selection of each player will exclude two other players from selection.
If P is selected, neither R nor W can be selected. Now, if the next player to be selected also has R or W in his list of players who
cannot be picked, then that will exclude only one more player from being selected.
For example, if Q is picked along with P, then only three players cannot be Selected (instead of 4)-R, U and W.
If T is picked, only four players cannot be selected-R, U, W and S.
Along with P, Q and T, V can also be picked.
Hence, P, Q, T and V can be picked as a team.
Similarly, R, U, W and S can be picked as a team. It is not possible to pick more than 4 players in the team.
Further, four players can be picked in only two ways - PQTV and RSUW. In this case the number of players that Deepak did not
select is 0 i.e. first option.
Explanation:-

Players
picked
P R,W
Q U,W
R P,T
S T,V
T R,S
U Q,V
V S,U
W P,Q
If P, Q and S are picked, then the other team cannot have four players (because only two teams with four players can be formed
and neither of them is possible here). In the above solution, we have seen all the ways in which a three-player team can be
selected.
Among the available three-player teams, only the following are possible: TWV, TWU, RWV, and RWU.
Hence it is possible to select the second team in 4 ways.
Explanation:-
From the given information, we can observe that there are total of 10 different amounts given, taken two at a time and also all the
given amounts are different. Considering there are five persons and taken two at a time gives 5C2 values = 10. So all the given
statements involve 2 out of 5 people taken differently. Let the money won by all 5 persons independently is denoted by a, b, c, d
and e in decreasing order; such that total = 4 (a + b + c + d + e) = 9600 ⇒a + b + c + d + e = 2400
Also, a + b = 1500 (highest), a + c = 1400, …, c + e = 600 and d + e = 400 (lowest)
Solving, a = 900, b = 600, c = 500, d = 300 and e = 100
The rest of the information can be gathered as follows-

Money Won Name Division Designation Clothing
900 Saxena Engineering Production Manager Safari Suit
600 Mathur Food General Manager Three-Piece Suit
500 Sastry Oil Seeds Deputy General Manager Three-Piece Suit
300 Rao International Trading Senior Vice President Churidar-Kurta
100 Verma Soap Vice President Two-Piece Suit
Option (c) Only I and III

Statement I and III are false but statement II is true
Explanation:-

Option (d) None of these

Rao + Saxena = 300 + 900 = Rs 1200
Explanation:-

Option (d) All three statements

All the three statements are not true
Explanation:-

Option (C) Verma

Explanation:-
Let the average rating given by all the person = A
So, A – the rating given by each person = the value given in the bar graph for each person
The information given in the bar graph can be gathered as follows-
Number of
Rating
persons
A–4 4
A–3 2
A–2 2
A–1 2
A+1 1
A+2 3
A+3 3
A+4 3
Option (D) All of the above

Each person gave the rating from 0 to 10.
Also the range of rating varies from A – 4 to A + 4
So, the value of A can be 4, 5 or 6
If A = 4, A + 1 = 5, 1 persons have given rating 5
If A = 5, no person have given rating 5
If A = 6, A – 1 = 5, 2 persons have given rating 5
Explanation:-
Number of
Rating
persons
A–4 4
A–3 2
A–2 2
A–1 2
A+1 1
A+2 3
A+3 3
A+4 3
Option (C) 9
Since the minimum value of A can be 4, so the value of A + 2 = 6
So total of 3 + 3 + 3 = 9 people would definitely gave rating atleast 6 in the survey
Explanation:-
Number of
Rating
persons
A–4 4
A–3 2
A–2 2
A–1 2
A+1 1
A+2 3
A+3 3
A+4 3
Option (C) 6
If A = 4, A + 2 = 6, 3 persons have gave rating 6 and A – 2 = 2, 2 persons have gave rating 2, the required difference is not 4
If A = 5, A + 1 = 6, 1 person have gave rating 6 and A – 3 = 2, 2 person have gave rating 2, the required difference is not 4
If A = 6, no person have gave rating 6 and A – 4 = 2, 4 persons have gave rating 2, the required difference is 4
Explanation:-
Number of
Rating
persons
A–4 4
A–3 2
A–2 2
A–1 2
A+1 1
A+2 3
A+3 3
A+4 3
Option (A) 10
To maximize the number of person having rating above 6, the value of A should be = 6, so that
A + 1, A + 2, A + 3 and A + 4, all give values more than 6
whichgives the total persons = 1 + 3 + 3 + 3 = 10
Explanation:-
Volume of Tank = 15cm × 12cm × 10cm =1800cm3
Qty of water = 360cm3, Left over = 18,00 – 360 = 1440cm3
Volume of Bricks = 5cm × 4cm × 2cm = 40cm3
Absorbed = 4 cm3, Volume Replaced = 40 – 4 = 36cm3
No. of Bricks =

Explanation:-
Let x be the size of the jug.
After the man drew off his first jugful of wine, the keg contained 10 - x gallons of wine.
When he filled up the keg with water, the proportion of wine was reduced to (10 - x)/10.
The man's second jugful contained x(10 - x)/10 gallons of wine, so the keg's wine content was reduced to 10 - x - x(10 - x)/10
gallons of wine.
Since the keg now contains equal quantities of wine and water, 10 - x - x(10 - x)/10 = 5.
Now just solve for x.
10 - x - x(10 - x)/10 =5
100 - 10x - (10x - x2)=50
x2 - 20x + 50 = 0
Of these two values , 10 + √50 is greater than 10, so it can't be the capacity of the jug in this story. So x = 10 - √50, which is
about 2.93 gallons.
Explanation:-
Weight is directly proportional to density, diameter, thickness and length.
First pipe weight = k × 8 × 3 × 2 × L1
Second pipe weight = k × 5 × 4 × 3 × L2
Since both weight the same,
k × 8 × 3 × 2 × L1= k × 5 × 4 × 3 × L2
So L1/L2 = (5 × 4 × 3)/(8 × 3 × 2) = 5/4 = 1.25
Since, none of the given option matches with the correct answer, thus the right option is D.

Explanation:-
One way to answer this could be to hit and trial and find the possible value. But the better way to get the answer is to arrange the
given information in the form of a perfect square on one side. Simplifying the given expression it becomes x2 + 10x + y2 + 12 = 0.
It can be further written as x2 + 10x = - 12 – y2. In order to make the LHS as a perfect square it can be further written as x2 + 10x
+ 25 = - 12 – y2 + 25. Thus it becomes x2 + 10x + 25 = 13 – y2. ⇒ (x + 5)2 = 13 – y2. The LHS cannot be negative as it is a
perfect square. This means RHS will also remain positive, thus y will always be less than 4.
Now the possible value of y, which leave a perfect behind are 3, -3, 2, -2.
Taking 3 as a value of y, the possible values of x are -3 & -7.
Similarly the other values will be calculated and all the solution obtained will be as (-3, 3) ( -7, 3) (-3, -3) (-7, -3) (-2, 2)
(-8, 2) (-2, -2) (-8, -2).
Thus 8 pairs can be formed, but out of that in two cases the values of x and y are same. Hence it will have 6 solutions. Option 3.
Explanation:-
For minimum value of x AM = GM
Explanation:-
Explanation:-
f(x – 2) + f(x + 2) = f(x).
f(0) + f(4) = f(2) and f(2) + f(6) = f(4)
=> f(2) + f(6) = f(2) – f(0) i.e. f(0) = -f(6).
So, f(x) = -f(x + 6). f(1) = -f(7) and so on.
f(1) + f(2) + f(3) + … + f( 11) = f(6) = -f(0) = -4.
Hence, option 4.
Explanation:-
As the firm wants to maintain same profit per person, let us first calculate the profit for 100 persons.
If there are 100 persons the revenue collected will be 100* 250 = 25000. Out of this there will be 1 claim of 80% of 15000, that is
Rs. 12000. Besides that the administrative cost will be 10% of 25000 i.e. Rs. 2500. Thus the profit will be 25000 - 12000 - 2500 =
10500.
Instead of 1, 1.6 people incur a hospitalization bill.

So cost of insurance firm = 12000× 1.6 = 19200
Now let the total amount of annual premium be x
Therefore Total cost of the firm = 19200 + 0.1x
Since the firm wants to maintain same profit per person, therefore
x – (19200 + 0.1x) = 10500
0.9x = 29700 → x = 33000
Therefore premium to be charged per person if the firm wants to maintain the same level of profit
= 33000/100 = 330

Hence the answer is option C

Explanation:-
As the roots are reciprocal, a = c. i.e., m2 + 18m + 81 = 1
m2 + 18m + 81 - 1 = 0
(m + 10) (m + 8) = 0
m = -10 or m = -8.
Explanation:-
Probability of winning is just success in one event
So, Probability of tail=1/2

Probability of number 6 =1/6
Probability of picking a diamond card =1/4
So, Probability of win by getting tails= 1/2×5/6×3/4 = 15/48
Probability of win by getting number 6 = 1/2×1/6×3/4 = 3/48
Probability of win by picking a diamond card =1/2×5/6×1/4=5/48
Probability of wining= 15/48+3/48+5/48 =23/48
Probability of losing = 1-23/48 = 25/48
Explanation:-
Let number of large mango dozens be x
Let number of small mango dozens be y
So 8x + 10y = 96
Use trial and error ( x > y)
x = 7 and y = 4
So 11 crates were sent in all.
Explanation:-
(2x + 3y) = 5Q1 + 2 and (3x + 2y) = 5Q2 + 3. Subtracting the first expression from the second, we get (x – y) = 5(Q2 – Q1) + 1. In
other words, the remainder when (x – y) is divided by 5 is 1.
Alternate solution: Assume 2x + 3y = 7 and 3x + 2y = 8. Solving these two equations, we get x – y = 1. Thus the remainder when x
– y is divided by 5 is 1.

Explanation:-
Investment of A = Rs 12,000.
Investment of B = Rs 15,000.
Total profit = Rs 24,000.
Extra profit to A = 1,400 × 8 = Rs 11,200 and
Extra profit to B = 1,400 × 4 = Rs 5,600.
∴ Remaining profit = 24,000 – (11,200 + 5,600) = Rs 7200.
This is to be distributed in the ratio of their capitals i.e. in the ratio 4: 5.
∴ Share of A = 4/9 × 7,200 = Rs 3,200 and
Share of B = 5/9 × 7,200 = Rs 4,000.
Hence total share of A = 11,200 + 3,200 = Rs 14,400 and total share of B = 5,600 + 4,000 = Rs 9,600.
Difference between their profit shares = 14,400 – 9,600 = Rs 4,800.
Explanation:-
Since the numbers are in AP, the average will be the middle number and it will be greater than 50. The square of the middle
number is approximately 8500/3 = 2833.The closest square is 532 = 2809.Thus the middle number must be 53 and the 3 numbers
in AP could be 47, 53 and 59. Therefore, the average of three numbers is the middle no i.e. 53. We can have some more AP's also
but their average would always be 53.
Explanation:-
Let the original prices of the houses be 2x and 3x.
Therefore, 2.6x/(3x + 90000) = 5/7
x = 140625
The price of the cheaper house is 2 × 140625 = 281250
Explanation:-
Initially the volume of water in D1 is more than the volume of water in D2 by 60%
Let the capacities of the drums D1 and D2 be V1 and V2 respectively
Let V2 be 5k, therefore V1 = 8k
Rate at which water leaks from per hour and the rate at which water leaks from per hour
Let the time after which the volume of water left in D2 becomes 25% more than the volume of water left in D1 be t.
In time t water leaking out of
Therefore, the water left in and the water left in
Now,
Or, t = 4.5 hours.

Choice (B)
Explanation:-
The volumes of water filled every hour form a GP with a = 10 and r = 2.
In 6 hours, the volume of water filled is 10 + 20 + 40 + 80 + 160 + 320 = 630 litres.
Since this is ¼ of the tank, the volume of the tank must be 4 × 630 = 2520 litres.
The volumes of water filled in the 7th and 8th hours are 640 litres and 1280 litres.
So, in 8 hours, the total volume of water will be 2550 litres.
Since this is slightly more than the volume of the tank, the total time taken will be slightly less than 8 hours. The best answer is
option 2.

Explanation:-
X = (10! + 11! + 12! + 13! + 14! + 15)
= 10! x (1 + 11 + 12x11 + 13x12x11 + 14x13x12x11 + 15x14x13x12x11)
= 10! x 12 (1 + 11 + 13x11 + 14x13x11 + 15x14x13x11)
= 10! x 22 x 3 (even + odd + even + even)
= 10! x 22 x 3 (odd)
Highest power of 2 in 10! is = 5 + 2 + 1 = 8
Hence, highest power of 2 in X is 8 + 2 = 10.

Hence the answer is option D

Explanation:-
D ∪ L is 100 – 25 = 75, which means that 75 students are preparing for either law or design.
75 = D + L – D ∩ L
75 = 50 + 35 – D ∩ L
So D ∩ L = 85 – 75 = 10
Explanation:-
Let sum borrowed = x Rs.
⇒ x = Rs. 16000
Explanation:-
Let the length of tunnel be X and distance of train from near end be Y.
Further speed of cat be C while speed of train be T
From 1st condition
0.25*X / 2C = Y/ T
X/8C = Y/T .....1
From 2nd condition
.75X/ .75C = (X+Y) / T
X/C = (X+Y)/ T .... 2
8Y/T = (X+Y)/T
7Y = X
Put 7Y = X in equation 2
7Y/C = 8Y/T
T/C = 8/7
Explanation:-
Explanation:-
The values for the function for n = 1, 2, 3 . will be respectively f(x) = 1, 2, 4, 5, 7, 8, 10, 11, 13, 14, 16, 17
So, the pattern for even numbered terms can be assessed as
f2(x) = 2 + 0,
f4(x) = 4 + 1,
f6(x) = 6 + 2,
f8(x) = 8 + 3
f2n(x) = 2n + (n/2 - 1)
Thus, f100(x) = 100 + (50 - 1) = 149.
Alternate solution:
From values of fn(x) for n = 1, 2, 3, ..., 8, it is easy to see that alternate terms form APs with common difference 3.
So, f100(x) is the 50th term of the AP with a = 2 and d = 3.
Thus, f100(x) = 2 + (49)3 = 149.

Explanation:-
Kapoor saves = 20-12 = Rs8 everyday and
Prem saves =15-14 = Rs1 everyday,
Total Savings = 8 +1= 9 everyday, but in total, he want to save 82.
So no. of days required = 82/9 = more than 9 ie. 10 Days.
So, Option A is the correct answer.

Explanation:-
f(x – 7) = 2x2 + p – qx

Let x = 7, then f(0) = 98 + p – 7q ---- (1)
f(x2 – 9) = x2 – 5q + 4p
Let x2 = 9, then f(0) = 9 – 5q + 4p --- (2)
From (1) and (2)
98 + p – 7q = 9 – 5q + 4p
3p + 2q = 89
Explanation:-
According to first statement ratio of A and B is 1:2 so sum of ratio is 3
According to first statement ratio of A and B is 3:1 so sum of ratio is 4
The total marbles n are multiples of both 3 and 4
i.e. n= (LCM of 3 and 4) K
n = 12k
So no. of values of n=8 as 0 < n <100. 2nd option.

2021 Bull CAT 04 (New Pattern)

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

2021 Bull CAT 04 (New Pattern)

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

2021 Bull CAT 04 (New Pattern)

Test Name 2021 Bull CAT 04 (New Pattern) Total

Section : Verbal Ability

A) Schools are an authoritarian, not a democratic setting.

A suitable title to the passage would be

Which of the following is true as far as pins are concerned?

A) they have an amazing proclivity to steal them right from childhood.

It may be inferred from the passage that the author

A) is a supporter of the craftsmanship over bulk mechanised production.

A) Do we really need the health guidelines of the D.G.A.C.?

Identify a suitable title for the given passage.

A) Why the Government’s Dietary Guidelines are no longer needed?

A) 25341 B) C) D)

A) 2 B) C) D)

A) 1 B) C) D)

A) 52143 B) C) D)

(write answer key)

A) 35142 B) C) D)

Section : DI & Reasoning

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 5

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 6

Which of the following must be true ?

A) 37000 B) C) D)

A) 5000 B) C) D)

A) 37000 B) C) D)

A) 31000 B) C) D)

A) 69,000 B) 1,15,000 C) 1,79,000 D) 2,94,000

A) 1,50,000 B) 1,24,000 C) 97,000 D) 71,000

A) 573000 B) C) D)

A) 148000 B) C) D)

A) Q B) U C) V D) More than one of the above

A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5

A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) None of the above

A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 8

Which of the following statement are false?

I. The Production Manager is in Soaps Division

A) 900 B) 1100 C) 1300 D) None of these

Which of the following statements is/are not true?

Who has won the minimum amount?

A) Mathur B) Saxena C) Verma D) Rao

A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) All of the above

How many persons definitely gave at least 6 rating in the survey?

A) 7 B) 8 C) 9 D) 10

A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) Cannot be determined

A) 10 B) 11 C) 12 D) 13

Section : Quantitative Ability

A) 40 B) C) D)

A) 3 B) C) D)

A) 0.6 B) 0.33 C) 1.33 D) None of these

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option.

A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option

A) 12 B) 20 C) 24 D) None of these

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

A) 176 B) 88 C) -24 D) -4

A) Rs. 325 B) Rs. 300 C) Rs. 330 D) None of these

A) m = 3 or m = -6 B) m = 10 or m = 8 C) m 3 or m -6 D) m = -10 or m = -8

A) 23/48 B) 25/48 C) 21/48 D) 27/48

A) 7 B) 10 C) 56 D) None of these

A) 1 B) C) D)

A) Rs. 5600 B) Rs. 9600 C) Rs. 6000 D) None of these

A) 61 B) 59 C) 67 D) 53

A) 140625 B) 15000 C) 161225 D) 281250

A) B) C) 3 hours D)