VTU-ETR Seat No.

Question Paper Version : D

Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi

Eligibility Test for Research (VTU-ETR) Programmes
Ph.D./M.S. ( Research) December – 2020
Electronics & Communication /
Telecommunication Engineering
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. Ensure that the question paper booklet issued to you is of your opted discipline.
2. If your name, ETR number, OMR No, branch and branch code are not already printed on the
OMR answer sheet, write them in clear handwriting in the space provided.
3. The question paper has 100 multiple choice questions. Each question carries one mark.
4. All the questions are compulsory.
5. Missing data, if any, may be suitably assumed.
6. There shall be no negative marking for wrong answers.
7. The examinees shall select the response which they want to mark/indicate on the response
sheet and shade/darken/blacken completely the inside area of the corresponding checkbox
bubble of circular or oval shape.
8. Candidates should use black ball point pen to shade the checkbox bubble so that it is fully
dark and the computer can detect without fail. Shading should be limited to the checkbox
bubble only.
9. Shading of multiple checkbox bubbles shall be treated as invalid answer
10. Partial or incomplete shading/darkening of the bubble be avoided
11. Use of whiteners/correction fluid to change the shaded/filled checkbox bubble to fill another
is prohibited
12. Erasing of filled checkbox bubble/s to fill another is prohibited.
13. Any type of writing, scribbling etc., on the question paper and ticking the response of a
question/s are prohibited. Violation of this condition shall lead to disciplinary action like
debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet shall not be considered for
evaluation process.
14. Scientific calculator is only permitted. Violation of this condition shall lead to disciplinary
action like debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet shall not be considered
for evaluation process.
15. Folding/crushing/mutilating of OMR sheet is not permitted.
16. Handover the OMR sheet and the question paper booklet to the Room Invigilator while
leaving the examination hall.
EC/TE - D0
 PART – I

Research Methodology to all Engineering,

MCA , MBA and Basic Sciences

[50 Marks]
1. The odds that the book will be reviewed favourably by three independent cities are 5 to 2, 4 to
3, 3 to 4. What is the probability that of the three reviews, a majority will be favourable
209 219 2 3
a) b) c) d)
343 343 49 49

2. If Ten shooters hit the target independently with the chances 1 , 1 , 1 , 1 , 1 , 1 , 1 , 1 , 1 , 1

2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11
then compute the probability that the target is destroyed
a) 1 b) 1 c) 10 d) Cannot decide
2 11! 11

3. A business man buys washing machines from three manufacturers A, B, C. The possibilities of
buying washing machines from these manufacturers are 0.25, 0.5 and 0.25 respectively. For a
specified period of ten years the probabilities that the washing machines work properly are 0.8,
0.9 and 0.85 respectively (for A, B, C manufacturers). If the products A, B, C are mixed, find
the probability that a randomly chosen washing machine will work properly for specified time.
a) 1 b) 96.25 percent
3
c) 86.25 percent d) Product from B only work properly

4. A continuous random variable x has probability density function (pdf)

Kx 2 0  x  3
P(x) =  . Find mean = m by first finding K.
 0 otherwise
a) K = 2 m = 9 b) K = 1 m = 2 c) K = 1 m = 2 d) K = 1 m = 9
9 4 3 3 9 3 9 4

5. Given the joint probability distributions of two discrete random variable X and Y, find whether
they are independent.

X Y 1 3 6

1 1 1 1
9 6 18
P11 P12 P13
3 1 1 1
6 4 12
P21 P22 P23
6 1 1 1
18 12 36
P31 P32 P33
a) Not independent b) Independent
c) For X = Y = 1, 3 independent d) Impossible to predict
EC/TE - D1
6. The ANOVA theory was developed by
a) Siegel S b) Fisher RA c) Delbert Miller d) Whitney F.L

7. The correction factor used in ANOVA is

T T T2 T2
a) b) c) d)
N N N N2

8. In an experiment to study the yield of three variates of wheat grown on four plots, the number of
factors studied are
a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four

9. The null hypothesis used in ANOVA is

a) All population variance are same b) All population means are same
c) All population variance are not same d) All population means are not same

10. In ANOVA, there is a relationship between

a) Independent variable and uncontrolled variable
b) Dependent variable and controlled variable
c) Independent variable and controlled variable
d) Dependent variable and uncontrolled variable.

11. The difference between statistic and parameter is called

a) Error b) Bias c) Sampling error d) Random error

12. Non – sampling error is reduced by

a) Increasing sample size b) Decreasing sample size
c) Reducing the amount of data d) None of these

13. In statistical analysis, the sample size is considered large if

a) n > or = 30 b) n < or = 30 c) n > or = 50 d) n < or = 50

14. What does the Central limit theorem state :

a) If the sample size increases sampling distribution must approach normal distribution
b) If the sample size decreases then the sample distribution must approach normal distribution
c) If the sample size increases then the sample distribution must approach an exponential
distribution.
d) If the sample size decreases then the sample distribution must approach an exponential
distribution.

15. Statistical inference is the process of drawing formal conclusions from data
a) True b) False

16. Which among the following type of non – sampling errors occurs during the planning stage
a) Specific errors b) Ascertainment errors c) Tabulation errors d) Total errors

EC/TE - D2
17. In which form of convenience sampling the population elements are selected based on the
judgment of the researcher
a) Quota sampling b) Snowball sampling
c) Systematic sampling d) Judgement sampling

18. Which among the following test is done to determine how well an instrument that is developed
measures the particular concept it is intended to measure
a) Validity test b) Item analysis test c) Stability test d) Reliability test

19. Which among the following research technique is more time consuming but scientifically valid
a) Focus Group Research b) Experimental Research
c) Observational Research d) Survey Research

20. The population census carried out by the Government of India is an example of
a) Exploratory Research b) Causal Research
c) Descriptive Research d) All of the above

21. The research study carried out with help of collecting of primary and /or secondary data is
termed as
a) Observational b) Conceptual c) Empirical d) None of the above

22. _______type of research design is especially formulated to give a detailed description about a
phenomenon / an event.
a) Longitudinal research design b) Exploratory research design
c) Descriptive research design d) Experimental research design

23. In a research problem, the variable related to the cause is known as

a) Dependant variable b) Independent variable
c) Test variable d) Moderating variable

24. The restraints / short falls / problems encountered in the process of data collection / compilation
/ analysis are included in ________ section of the research report.
a) Limitations of the study b) Findings of the study
c) Literature review d) Conclusion of the study

25. _______ can be used to clearly depict / display the steps / components of a process.
a) Pie charts b) Flow charts c) Picto graphs d) Histogram

26. In a Binomial distribution if p = q , then the probability function p(x) is given by _______,
where ‘p’ is probability of success and ‘q’ is probability of failure.
a) n Cn (0.5) n b) n C x (0.5) n c) n C x p n x d) n C x p n p

27. If ‘μ’ is the mean of Poisson distribution then P(0) is ______

a) e- μ b) e μ c) e d) e-x

28. The shape of the normal curve is ____

a) Flat b) Bell shaped c) Circular d) Spiked

EC/TE - D3
29. The area under the standard normal curve is ____
a) 0 b) ∞ c) 1 d) not defined

30. Suppose a bag contains m white and n black balls. If r balls are drawn at random (with
replacement) then the probability that K of them will be white is _____
mC  nC ek K n m C  n Cr
a) k rk
b) n C pk qn-k c) d) k
m  n Cr k n! m  n Cr

31. A factor loading of 0.8 means

a) The variable is poorly related to the factor
b) The variable is moderately related to the factor
c) The variable correlates well with the factor
d) There is no relation between the factor and the variable.

32. In Q – type factor analysis

a) Factors emerge where there is high correlation within groups of people
b) Factors emerge where there is high correlation within groups of variables
c) Factors emerge when variables and people are unrelated
d) Factors emerge where there is low correlation within groups of variables.

33. Rotation usually involves _______ high correlations and _______ low ones
a) Retaining , Omitting b) Omitting , Retaining
c) Minimizing , Maximizing d) Maximizing , Minimizing.

34. How many coefficients do you need to estimate in a simple linear regression model with one
variable?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

35. In the equation y = α1 + α2 x + error , α1 and α2 refer to

a) x intercept, slope b) y intercept, slope c) slope, x intercept d) slope, y intercept

36. If you reject the null hypothesis when the null hypothesis is true, what is this an example of ?
a) Type I error b) Type II error c) Statistical power d) Hypothesis testing

37. The length of time to prepare dinner is recorded in minutes. A sample of 25 people is taken and
the time to prepare dinner is recorded. It is required to test the hypothesis based on the evidence
that the population mean time to prepare dinner is less than 48 minutes, at a significance level of
0.05. the null hypothesis for this case is Ho : μ 7, 48. The appropriate alternative hypothesis is
a) μ = 48 b) μ > 48 c) μ < 48 d) μ # 48

38. A certain process produces 10 percent defective articles. A supplier of new raw material claims
that the use of his material would reduce the proportion of defectives. This hypothesis testing is
an example of
a) Testing for mean number of defectives
b) Testing for variances of the number of defectives
c) Testing for proportions of defectives
d) Testing for ratio of variances of defectives.
EC/TE - D4
39. If it is required to test the hypothesis that the fit is good or the observed data is drawn from the
population having the specified distribution, against the hypothesis that the fit is not good, the
observed data is not drawn for the population having the specified distribution, then the
appropriate test statistic is
(O  E i ) 2 (O ij  E ij ) 2
a)  c2   i b)  2c  
 Ei all cells E ij
X  o X  o
c) Z= d) t =
/ n / n

40. If Zc is the computed value of test statistic and the distribution of test statistic is normally
distributed with N(0, 1) then the p value for the right tailed test is
a) 2 p(Z > / Zd) b) p(Z < Zc) c) p(Z > Zc) d) p(Z = Zc)

41. Which one of the technologies is most likely to be used in qualitative analysis
a) ANOVA b) Discriminant analysis c) CHAID d) NVIVO

42. The range of a sample gives an indication of the

a) way in which the values cluster about a particular point
b) number of observations bearing the value
c) maximum variation in the sample
d) degree to which the mean value differs from its expected value.

43. The measure of dispersion can never be

a) Positive b) Zero c) Negative d) Equal to 2

44. If beta one is 9 and beta two is 11 then coefficient of skewness is

a) 0.589 b) 0.689 c) 0.489 d) 0.889

45. Statistical measures such as average deviation, standard deviation and mean are classified as
part of
a) Deciles system b) Moment system c) Percentile system d) Quartile system

46. A systematic literature review is

a) One which generates a literature review using online method
b) A replicable , scientific and transparent process
c) One which gives equal attention to the principal contributors to the area
d) A manufactured system for generating literature reviews tailored to your subject

47. What is distinctive about a narrative literature review?

a) It is a review based exclusively on experiences of organizations in case study form.
b) It is historically – based review , starting with the earliest contributions to the field.
c) It is a paraphrase style of reviewing which does not require referencing.
d) It serves as a means of obtaining initial impression on a topic , which you will understand
fully as you carry out the research.

EC/TE - D5
48. Research design strategy does NOT deal with
a) Data collection design b) Sampling design
c) Instrument development d) Data analysis

49. If neither the experimenter nor the participant knows which experimental condition the
participant is assigned to , this is known as
a) Single - blind b) Double – blind
c) Standardization d) Treatment combination
50. A variable that changes in a systematic way with the independent variable and may also affect
the dependent variable is known as
a) Confounding variable b) Error variable
c) Equivalent variable d) Intruder variable

EC/TE - D6
 PART – II
Discipline Oriented Section
(Electronics & Communication/ Telecommunication
Engineering)
[50 MARKS]
51. Addition of numbers -5 and +10 which are represented using 5 bits yields
a) Overflow b) No overflow
c) Negative result d) None of the above

52. In single precision IEEE floating point number representation, the scale factor as a range of
______
a) -128 to 127 b) -256 to 255 c) 0 to 255 d) 0 to -255

53. _______ are the Booth multiplier bits for multiplying the numbers 110101  011011
a) 1, 1, -1, 0, 1, 0 b) 1, 0, -1, 1, 0, -1 c) 0, 0, 1, -1, 0, 1 d) 1, 0, 1, -1, 0, -1

54. The micro routine for all instructions in the instruction set of a computer are stored in a special
memory is called the ________
a) Control ROM b) Control RAM c) Control Store d) Control EPRAM

55. The computer predominantly executes zero address instructions is known as _______
a) One address machine b) Acculator machine
c) Three address machine d) One-and-half address machine

56. The amplitude of a random signal is uniformly distributed between -5V and 5V. If the signal to
quantization noise ratio required for uniformly quantizing signal is 43.5dB, then the step size
of the quantization is approximately:
a) 0.033V b) 0.05V c) 0.078V d) 0.10V

57. Match List I (Theorem/Law) with List II (specified quantity) and select the correct answer
using the codes given below lists:
List I:
A. Shanon Source Theorem
B. Dimensionality Theorem
C. Wiener-Kintchine Theorem
D. Shanon-Hartley Law
List II:
1. Channel capacity coding
2. Storage space of a signal
3. Power spectral density of a random process
4. Optimum code length
Codes:
A B C D
a) 4 2 3 1
b) 1 2 3 4
c) 4 3 2 1
d) 1 3 2 4
EC/TE - D7
58. Which of the following statements on Analog modulation are correct?
1) The plots of the energy densities of VAM(t) and of VPM(t) are identical.
2) The combination of the differentiator and frequency modulator generates a phase modulated
output.
3) The plots of the energy densities of VAM(t) and of VPM(t) are not identical.
4) The combination of the integrator and frequency modulator generates a phase modulated
output.
a) 3 and 4 b) 1 and 2 c) 2 and 3 d) 1 and 4

59. The transport layer protocols used for real time multimedia, file transfer, DNS and Email
respectively are:
a) TCP, UDP, UDP and TCP b) UDP, TCP, TCP and UDP
c) UDP, TCP, UDP and TCP d) TCP, UDP, TCP and UDP

60. Consider a CSMA/CD network that transmits at a rate of 100Mbps (108 bits/second) over a
1km (kilometer) cable with no repeaters. If the maximum frame size required for this network
is 1250 bytes. What is the signal speed (km/sec) in the cable?
a) 8000 b) 20,000 c) 16000 d) 10,000

61.

Fig.Q.61
The above sequential circuit shown in Fig.Q.61 is built using JK flip-flops is initialized with
Q2Q1Q0 = 000. The state sequence for this circuit for the next 3 clock cycle is
a) 001, 010, 011 b) 111, 110, 101 c) 100, 110, 111 d) 100, 011, 001

62. An 8-bit SAR ADC has full scale reading of 2.55V and its conversion time for an analog input
of 1V is 20s. Conversion time for a 2V input will be.
a) 10s b) 50s c) 40s d) 20s

63. The output of the 4:1 multiplexer shown in Fig.Q.63 is

Fig.Q.63
a) x + y b) x y c) x y  x d) x  y

EC/TE - D8
64. When excited electrons in an LED revert from conduction band to valence band, the
phenomenon is
a) Energy transfer from one electron to other b) Radiative recombination
c) Formation of photons d) None of the above

65. The shift register shown in Fig.Q.65 is initially loaded with 1010. Subsequently with each
clock pulse the pattern shift towards right. With each towards right. With each shift the bit at
the serial input is pushed to the left-most position (MSB). The contents of the register after of
clock pulses are

Fig.Q.65
a) 1011 b) 1010 c) 0100 d) 1101

66. The magnitude of total energy of electron in nth orbit is

mq 4 m 4q 4  mq 4   m4q 4 
a) b) c)   2 2 2  d)   2 2 
2k 2 n 2 h 2 2k 2 nh 2  2k n h   2k nh 

67. In free space the poisson equation becomes

a) Maxwell Equation b) Ampere Equation c) Laplace Equation d) Steady State
Equation

68. When a normal atom loses an electron

a) The atom loses one-proton simultaneously b) Rest of the electrons move faster
c) The atom becomes a positive ion d) The atom becomes a negative ion

69. In case of BJT fabrication, isolation is achieved by

a) LOCOS b) LPCVD c) Both a and b d) None of the
above

70. For an n-channel enhancement type MOSFET, if the source is connected at a higher potential
than that of the bulk (VSB > 0), the threshold voltage VT of the MOSFET will.
a) Remain unchanged b) decrease c) change polarity d) Increase

71. For the circuit shown in Fig.Q.71 the Thevenin’s equivalent voltage (ETH) and Thevenin’s
equivalent resistance RTH respectively are:

Fig.Q.71
a) 15V, 2 b) 10V, 2 c) 20V, 3 d) 20V, 5

EC/TE - D9
72. For the circuit shown in Fig.Q.72, the current through 2 resistor by the sources 10V and 2A
respectively are:

Fig.Q.72
a) 2.5A, & 1.5A b) 1.666A, & 1.333A c) 1.666A, & 1.5A d) 1.333A,
&1.666A

di 
73. For the circuit shown in Fig.Q.73 the values of i(0+) and (0 ) respectively are (capacitor
dt
initially uncharged)

Fig.Q.73
a) 1A & 5A/sec b) 3A & 3.5A/sec c) 0A & 10A/sec d) 10A & 0A/sec

74. The Laplace transform for the waveform shown in Fig.Q.74 is:

Fig.Q.74
 s
(1  e ) V (1  e  s )
a) V  b) V e-s c) V(1 + e-s) d) 
1  e s (s 2  1) (1  e s )

75. For an RLC circuit with R = 1K, L = 100mH and C = 10F with 100V supply voltage,
values of resonance frequency fr and quality factor (Q) are respectively:
a) fr ≃ 159Hz Q = 0.1 b) fr ≃ 159Hz Q = 10
c) fr = 200Hz Q = 0.1 d) fr = 250Hz Q = 2.5

76. The maximum amount of external memory that can be interfaced to 8086 microprocessor is:
a) 64kB b) 1MB c) 16MB d) 2MB

77. Which register is used as an autodecrement counter while executing LOOP instruction of 8086
microprocessor?
a) AX b) BX c) CX d) IP

78. Type ‘0’ interrupt in 8086 microprocessor occurs due to:

a) Positive edge on INTR b) High level on INTR
c) Interrupt on overflow flag d) Divide by zero error

EC/TE - D10
79. Identify the flags that are not part of PSW in 8051 microcontroller.
a) Zero and Direction b) Carry and overflow
c) Carry and auxiliary carry d) Sign and Carry

80. How many registers excluding CPSR are available for programmer in user mode of ARM7
processor?
a) Three b) Eight c) Sixteen d) Thirty Two

81. The Maxwell’s equation derived from the Faraday’s law and the Ampere’s law is ______
a) Div(H) = J & Div(I) = H b) Div(D) = I & Div(H) = J
dB dH
c) Curl(E) =  & Curl(H) = J d) Curl (B) =  & Curl(B) = D
dt dt

82. The beam width for a half wave dipole antenna is _______ & the parasitic element that is
typically 5 percent (%) longer than the half-wave dipole driven element is called as _____
a) 90 & Reflector element b) 180 & array element
c) 50 and director element d) 250 & driven element

83. The characteristic impedance of a quarter wave with input and load impedances given by
50ohms () and 25ohms () is _____ & the load impedance in a quarter line transformer with
characteristic impedance of 75ohms () and input impedance of 200 ohms () is _____
a) 50 & 12.285 b) 25 & 52.185 c) 35.35 & 28.125 d) 75 & 85.128

84. The polarization of the wave given by the expression Ex = 2cos wt and Ey = cos wt is ______
& the polarization of the wave given by the expression Ex = 2sin wt and Ey = 3 sin wt is _____.
a) Linear & Linear b) Elliptical & Elliptical
c) Circular & Circular d) Parallel & Parallel

85. The constant x-circles of a Smith Chart becomes smaller due to the increase in the value of ‘x’
from ______ & according to the Smith diagram, the position of the reflection coefficient value
for a unity circle with unity radius or less than unity circle should be _______
a) 0 to  & outside the circle b) 0 to 2 & inside the circle

c) 0 to & exactly on the circle d) 0 to  & on or inside the circle
2

86. The transfer function C/R of block diagram given below is

a) G1G2G3/1+G1G2G3H1 b) G1G3+(G2/1+G2H1)
GG G
c) G1G2G3+G3H1 d) 1 2 3
1  G 2 H1

EC/TE - D11
 1
87. For the first order system having transfer function , the unit impulse response is
1  ST
1
a) e-t/T b) T.e-t/T c) . e t / T d) T2.e-t/T
T

1
88. In Bode diagram (log-magnitude plot) the factor in the transfer function gives a line
jw
having slope
a) -20dB per octave b) -10dB per octave c) -6dB per octave d) -2dB per octave

89. For the control system shown in Fig.Q.89 the value of K for critical damping is

Fig.Q.89
a) 1 b) 5.125 c) 6.831 d) 10

90. Locus of constant, closed loop phase frequency response for unity feedback system is called
constant
a) M Circles b) N Circles c) C Circles d) L circles

91. The overall lower 3dB and upper 3dB frequency for a 3 stage amplifier having an individual
frequency f1 = 40Hz and f2 = 2MHz is
a) f1  3138.4Hz and f 2  1.019MHz b) f1  78.46Hz and f 2  0.5095MHz
c) f1  78.46Hz and f 2  1.019MHz d) f1  3138.4Hz and f 2  0.5095MHz

92. The expression for voltage gain of voltage divider bias circuit shown in Fig.Q.92 using
re model is

Fig.Q.92
 R c | | ro R || r Rc
a) A v  b) A v  c o c) A v   R c | | ro d) A v 
re re re

93. In a RC phase shift oscillator, the phase shift network uses the resistances each of 4.7K and
capacitors each of 0.47F, then the frequency of oscillations.
a) 58.826Hz b) 29.413Hz c) 72.046Hz d) 144.093Hz

EC/TE - D12
94. The voltage gain Av and cut off frequency fOL of a second-order high-pass filter for the circuit
shown in Fig.Q.94 for R1 = R2 = 2.1K, C1 = C2 = 0.05F and RG = 10K, RF = 50K is

Fig.Q.94

a) Av = 6 and fOL ≈ 1.5kHz b) Av = 5 and fOL ≈ 1.5kHz

c) Av = 6 and fOL ≈ 750Hz d) Av = 5 and fOL ≈ 750Hz

95. For the given Astable Multivibrator circuit in Fig.Q.95 using 555 Timer the Duty cycle % and
output frequency are

Fig.Q.95

a) Duty cycle % = 60% and f = 8kHz b) Duty cycle % = 40% and f = 5.53kHz
c) Duty cycle % = 48% and f = 7.54kHz d) Duty cycle % = 45.45% and f = 6.559kHz

96. Consider the periodic waveform x(t) = 4 + 2cos 3t + 3sin 4t with complex Fourier coefficients:
3 3
X(4)  ; X (3)  1 ; X(0) = 4 ; X(3) = 1 ; X(4)  . What is the total average power?
2j 2j
3 45
a) 6 b) 16 c) 6  d)
j 2

97. Determine the conditions on the sampling interval TS so that

x(t) = cos(t) + 3sin(2t) + sin(4t) is uniquely represented by the discrete-time sequence
x[n] = x[nTS].
1 1
a) TS  b) TS  c) TS = 4 d) TS > 4
4 4

EC/TE - D13
98. Considering that the signal has a DTFT, the inverse Z-transform of
1 2
X( z)   1
is
1
1  z 1 1  2z
2
n n
1 1
a)   u (n )  2(2) n u (n ) b)   u (n )  2(2) n u ( n  1)
2 2
n n
1 1
c)    u ( n  1)  2(2) n u ( n  1) d)    u ( n  1)  2(2) n u (n )
2 2

99. The number of complex multiplications needed for computation of a 8-point DFT using radix-
2 FFT algorithm is
a) 64 b) 8 c) 12 d) 16

100. Given the frequency response H(ej), the group delay is the
a) Phase response function b) Delayed frequency response
c) Differentiated and negated phase response function d) Phase delay

EC/TE - D14