06.02.23 Sankalp24 PH5 Pap-1

Date: 06.02.2023 CODE: 100920.
0 SET – A
FIITJEE Internal test

PINNACLE 1ST YEAR (2 0 2 2 – 2 0 2 4)
P H A S E T E S T – 5 (P A P E R - 1)
Time : 3 hours SANKALP24 Maximum Marks: 216
INSTRUCTIONS
A. Questions paper format :

i) This question paper consists of 3 sections (Section 1 – Maths, Section 2 – Physics &
Section 3 - Chemistry) Each Section has 2 parts: PART – A, PART – C
ii) PART – A contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices a, b, c and d, out of
which one or more than one choice is correct answer.
iii) PART – C contains 8 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single digit integer, ranging
from 0 to 9. (The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the ORS).
B. Marking scheme :
i) For each question in PART- A, you will be awarded 4 Marks if you darken all but only the bubble(s)
corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus
one (-1) mark will be awarded.
ii) For each question in PART- C, you will be awarded 4 marks if you have darkened only the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. There is no negative
mark for incorrect answer(s) for this section.
IMPORTANT DATA
-31 -19
Mass of an electron (m) = 9.1 x 10 kg Charge of an electron (e) = 1.6 x 10 coulombs
23 -34
Avogadro’s Number (Na) = 6.023 x 10 Planck’s constant (h) = 6.626 x 10 Js
1 Faraday = 96500 Coulomb 1 Calorie = 4.2 joule
Atomic Masses: Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Co = 59, Ni = 58.7, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65.4, As = 75, Br = 80,
Kr = 83.8, Ag = 108, Sn=118.6,I = 127,Xe = 131, Ba = 137,Au= 197, Pb = 207, U=238
Enrollment No. : Batch : _________________________
Name : __________________________________________________________________________________
Candidate’s Signature: ____________________________________________________________________

SET A SANKALP24 PHASE TEST 5-PAP-1 Date 06-02-23
SECTION – 1
Mathematics
PART - A
ONE OR MORE THAN ONE CORRECT:
100
 16 1

1. In the expansion of  5  2 8  , which of the following hold(s) good?
 
a) The number of irrational terms are 97.
b) The number of rational terms are 5.
100
c) The binomial coefficient of the term in which exponent of '5 ' is 15 is C90
d) The term in which the exponent of 2 and 5 will be equal is the 58th term from the
beginning.
n
2. 
If 9  80   I  f where I , n are integers and 0  f  1 , then
a) I is an odd integer b) I is an even integer
n
c)  I  f 1  f   1 
d) 1  f  9  80 
3. Let a, b, c be the sides of triangle ABC such that 2b  a  c . If
a
2! 2! 1 8
   , then
1!9! 3!7! 5!5!  2c !
a) area of  ABC is 6 b) circumradius of  ABC is 5
c) inradius of  ABC is 1 d)  ABC is right angled triangle
15
4. If 1  x  2 x 2  x 3   a0  a1 x  a2 x 2  a3 x3  ....  a45 x 45 , then which of the following
holds good?
515  1
a) a0  a2  a4  ...  a44  b) a0  a1  a2  ...  a45  515
2
c) a3  890 d) a1  15
ROUGH WORK
FIITJEE VIZAG Centre, #49-52-5, Santhipuram, Sankaramatam Road, Visakhapatnam-530016 Ph:0891-2555501,02,03

FIITJEE VIZAG Centre # 1-9-4, 1-9-4/2 to 1-9-4/5, Sector-1, MVP Colony, Visakhapatnam – 530 017. Ph:0891-2555501,02,03
2
5. Which of the following are true

41
C1 41 C3 41 C5 41
C41 1
a) The value of   ......  
2 4 6 42 42
10
b) If  3  x 2  7 x 3   a0  a1 x  a2 x 2  ...  a29 x 29  a30 x 30 then the value of
a29  10  79
n n 1
Cr 3
c) U r  n
Cr  n Cr 1
and if 3
U
r 1
r 
2
then n  7
1 20 n
d) The maximum value of the expression  C3  sin 2n x  cosec2 n x  is
2 n 3
21
C4
C12 C2 C2 C2
6. S  C02   2  2  3  3  ......  n  n where Cr  n Cr then
C0 C1 C2 Cn 1
a)  n  2  divides S  n b) 2n1 divides S  n c) S even d) S , n odd
7. The number of words which can be made from letters of the word INTERMEDIATE is
a) 907200 if words start with I and end with E
b) 21600 if vowels and consonants occupy their original places
c) 43200 if vowels and consonants occur alternatively
d) 302400 if all the vowels occur together
8. There are six periods in each working day of a school. Number of ways in which 5
subjects can be arranged if each subject is allotted at least one period and no period
remains vacant is
a) 210 b) 1800 c) 360 d) none of these
100
100 100  k
9. The coefficient of x 50 in the expansion of  Ck  x  2  3k is also equal to
k 0
a) number of ways in which 50 identical books can be distributed to 100 students, if

each student can get atmost one book.
b) number of ways in which 100 different white balls and 50 identical red balls can be
arranged in a circle, if no two red ball are together.
51
c) number of dissimilar terms in  x1  x2  x3  ....  x50 
2  6 10  14  .....198
d)
50!
ROUGH WORK

3
10. If 100
C6  4 100 C7  6 100C8  4 100C9  100 C10 has the value equal to x C y , then the value of
 x  y can be
a) 114 b) 115 c) 198 d) 199
PART - C
INTEGER ANSWER TYPE:
2
1. If coefficient of x14 in 1  2 x  3x 2  ....  16 x15  is k , then ten’s digit in k is
2. If the value of 55
C5  5C1  44C5  5C2  33C5  5C3  22C5  5C4  11C5 is  ab  , where a and b
both are prime numbers, then the value of  a  b  is equal to
3. Five persons A, B , C , D and E are seated in a circular arrangement. If each of them is
given a hat of one of the three colours red, blue and green, then the number of ways of
distributing the hats such that the persons seated in adjacent seats get different coloured
hats is 6k , where k is
4. If the number of 5 digit numbers which are divisible by 4, with digits from the set
1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and the repetition of digits is allowed, is k then unit digit of k is
k
5. The sum 
19
 2  as a simple fraction is   then  equals
k 1 k !19  k  ! 19!
6. If  x  1 x  2  x  3 ....  x  n   A0  A1 x  A2 x 2  ....  An x n then
1 1 1 1 
A1  2 A2  3 A3  ....  nAn   n    !    ....   the value of  
2 3 4 n 1 
4 7 12
7. If the Coefficient of x11 in the expansion of 1  x 2  1  x 3  1  x 4  is k , then the
sum of the digits of k is
8. If the number of ordered pairs  m, n  ; m, n  1, 2,3,......, 20 such that 3m  7 n is a
k
multiple of 10, is equal to k then is
20
ROUGH WORK

4
SECTION – 2
Physics
PART - A
1. The angle of deviation through a prism is
minimum when
a) Incident ray and emergent ray are symmetric to
the prism
b) The refracted ray inside the prism becomes
parallel to its base
c) Angle of incidence is equal to that of the angle
of emergence
d) The angle of emergence is double the angle of
incidence
2. An equal convex lens has power P. It is cut into two L2 L3

halves along its principal axis. Further one piece (out of
the two halves) is cut into two halves perpendicular to ;
the principal axis (as shown in figures). Choose the
correct option(s) for the reported pieces.
L1
a) Power of L2  Power of L3 b) Power of L2  2  Power of L1

c) Power of L1  2  Power of L2 d) Power of L1  2  Power of L3
3. A gas of monoatomic hydrogen is bombarded with a stream of electrons that have been
accelerated from rest through a potential difference of 12.75 volt. In emission spectrum
one can observe lines of :
a) Lyman series b) Balmer series
c) Paschen series d) Pfund series
ROUGH WORK

5
4. The total binding energy of an  - particle ( 2 He 4 ) is 24.4 MeV whereas the total
bonding energy of a deuteron ( 1 H 2 ) is nearly 2.2 MeV. When two deuterons are made
to combine :
a) an  -particle will be obtained
b) an amount of 22.2 MeV energy will be released
c) an amount of 20.0 MeV energy will be released
d) an amount 22.2 MeV energy will be consumed
5. A convex lens forms an image of an object on a screen. The height of the image is
9 cm. The lens is now displaced until an image is again obtained on the screen. The
height of this image is 4 cm. The distance between the object and the screen is 90 cm.
a) The distance between the two position of the lens is 30 cm
b) The distance of the object from the lens in its first position is 36 cm
c) The height of the object is 6 cm
d) The focal length of the lens is 21.6 cm
6. When protons of energy 4.25 eV strike the surface of a metal A, the ejected
photoelectrons have maximum kinetic energy TA expressed in eV and de-Broglie
wavelength  A . The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons liberated from another
metal B by photons of energy 4.70 eV is TB   TA  1.50 eV  . If the de-Broglie
wavelength of these photoelectrons is  B  2 A ; then :
a) The work function of A is 2.25 eV b) The work function of B is 4.20 eV
c) TA  2.00 eV d) TB  2.75 eV
7. An electron in Hydrogen atom first jumps from second excited state to first excited
state and then from first excited state to ground state. Let ratio of wavelength,
momentum and energy of photons emitted in these two cases be a, b and c respectively.
Then,
1 9 5 5
a) c  b) c  c) b  d) c 
a 4 27 27
ROUGH WORK

6
8. The ground state and first excited state energies of hydrogen atom are –13.6 eV and
–3.4 eV respectively. If potential energy in ground state is taken to be zero. Then :
a) Potential energy in the first excited state would be 20.4 eV
b) Total energy in the first excited state would be 23.8 eV
c) Kinetic energy in the first excited state would be 3.4 eV
d) Total energy in the ground state would be 13.6 eV
9. Two radioactive decay processes are given below :

1) 137 137
55 Cs  56 Ba
23
2) 12 23
Mg  11 Na
The Q-value of these two processes, Q1 and Q2 respectively, are given by :
[Here, m  X  denotes the mass of an atom of the element X, me denotes the mass of
electron, Q0 denotes the amount of energy liberated when 1 u of mass converts to
energy]
a) Q1   m  Cs   m  Ba   me  Q0 b) Q1   m  Cs   m  Ba   Q0
c) Q2   m  Cs   m  Ba   2me  Q0 d) Q2   m  Mg   m  Na   me  Q0
10. In an experiment on X-rays, high energy electrons, all de-Broglie wavelength  e , are
made to collide with target plate made of a material of atomic number Z. The minimum
wavelength observed in the continuous X-ray spectrum is  m . Choose the correct
option(s)
a) Wavelength of the observed K  line is independent of  e but not independent of Z
b) Wavelength of the observed K  line is independent of neither  e nor Z
c) The minimum wavelength observed in the continuous X-ray spectrum is independent
of both  e and Z
d) The minimum wavelength observed in the continuous X-ray spectrum is independent
of Z but not independent of  e
ROUGH WORK

7
PART - C
1. A point object in air is in front of the curved surface of a plano-convex lens. The radius
of curvature of the curved surface is 30 cm and the refractive index of the lens material
is 1.5, then the focal length of the lens (in cm) is 10  n . Find the value of n .
2. When an object is kept at a distance of 30 cm from a concave mirror, the image is

formed at a distance of 10 cm from the mirror. If the object is moved with a speed of
9 cms 1 , the speed (in cms 1 ) with which image moves at that instant is _____.
3. Cross-section view of a prism is the equilateral triangle

ABC shown in the figure. The minimum deviation is
observed using this prism when the angle of incidence is
equal to the prism angle. The time taken by light to
travel from P (midpoint of BC) to A is ____  1010 s .
(Given, speed of light in vacuum  3  108 m/s and
3
cos 30o  )
2
ROUGH WORK

8
1 1
4. The graph between and for a thin convex lens in order to determine its focal
u v
length is plotted as shown in the figure. The refractive index of lens is 1.5 and its both
the surfaces have same radius of curvature R. The value of R will be 5n cm. The value
of n is (where u = object distance, v = image distance)
y 1
v
 cm 1 
A 0.10
0.08
0.06
0.04
B 0.02
x -0.10 -0.08 -0.06 -0.04 -0.02 O

1
u
 cm 1 
5. A small bulb is placed at the bottom of a tank containing water to a depth of 7 m. The
4
refractive index of water is . The area of the surface of water through which light
3
from the bulb can emerge out is x  m2 . The value of x is
6. An energy of 25.6 eV is required to remove one of the electrons from a neutral helium
atom. The energy (in eV) required to remove both the electrons from a neutral helium
atom is 20x. Find the value of x.
1
7. A radioactive substance decays to th of its initial activity in 40 days. The half-life of
16
the radioactive substance expressed in days is (in days) 10n. Find the value of n.
8. Three  - particles and one  - particle decaying takes place in series from an isotope
88 Ra 236 . Finally, the isotope obtained will have number of neutrons equal to 141n. Find
the value of n.
ROUGH WORK

9
SECTION – 3
Chemistry
PART - A
1. Which of the following statement(s) for H2O2 is / are correct?
a) In pure state H2O2 is very pale blue or almost colourless liquid.
b) It is concentrated by distillation under reduced pressure.
c) In solid state dihedral angle of H2O2 molecule is different from its gaseous state.
d) Its boiling point is determined by extrapolation.
2. Select correct order of given property

a) BeCl2 < MgCl 2 < CaCl2  Covalent character 
b) CaSO 4 < SrSO 4 < BaSO4  Order of solubility 
c) BeO < MgO < CaO  Basic nature 
d) BeCO3 < MgCO3 < SrCO3 < BaCO3  Order of thermal stability 
3. Which of the following is/are ionic carbides?

a) CaC2 b) Al4C3 c) Fe3C d) Be2C
4. Which of the following statement(s) is / are correct?

a) B2 H 6 react with excess NH3 at low temperature to produce an ionic compound.
b) B2 H 6 react with excess of NH3 at high temperature to form boron nitride solid.
c) Boron nitride has polymeric layer structure.
d) In borazine there are -ve and +ve charge on B and N respectively.
ROUGH WORK

10
5. Which of the following will not give test for ‘N’ in sodium extract?
NH2
a) C6 H5 NHNH2 b) NH2CONH2 c) NH2 NH2 d)
SO 3H
6. Choose the correct statement regarding the given scheme.
 R   H 2 / Pd - C
 P  H2
Lindlar Caralyst
 Q 
C H O C H O C H O
5 11 5 6 5 8
Optically inactive Optically active
a) [R] can be oxidized with PCC into optically active carbonyl compound.
b) Oxidised product of [Q] with PCC can show tautomerism.
c) [P] contains triple bond at 4th carbon (as per IUPAC)
d) [Q] can give white turbidity immediately with Lucas reagent.
Me
SN1
7. (I) Me CH Me
H2O
 P   major 
Me Br
Me
SN1
(II) Me CH Ph
H2O
 Q  major 
Me Br
Identify the incorrect intermediate carbocation, which does not form during the reaction
(I) and (II)?
Me Me
a)Me CH Ph b)Me C CH Ph
Me Me
Me Me
c)Me C CH Me d)Me C CH Me
Me Me
ROUGH WORK

11
8. Which of the following reactions will provide, a synthesis of 1, 1-diphenyl ethanol as a

major product?
O O
1 Et2O 1 Et2O
a) C + MeMgBr
 2  H3O b) C + PhMgBr
 2 NH 4 Cl
Ph Ph Ph Me
O O
1 Et 2 O
+ Ph CH2 MgBr  2 H3O2 + 2PhMgBr
1 Et O
c) C d) C  2  H 3O
Ph H H3C OE
9. Consider the following reaction.

OH OH
CHO
1 CHCl3 + KOH
 2  H3O
 Major 
The intermediate formed in above reaction is.
a) Singletcarbene b) C Cl3
c) Choloronium ion d) C Cl2
 i  Li  CH3  CH CH2 Br
10.  CH3 2 CH Br 
 ii  Cu I A    B. B is-
a)  CH3  2 CH CH 2CH 3 b)  CH3  2 CH CH  CH3  2

c)  CH3  2 CH CH 2CH  CH 3  2 d)  CH3  2 CH CH 2CH 2CH  CH 3  2
ROUGH WORK

12
PART - C
1. Choose the appropriate reagent sequence from the given reagent pool to complete the
synthetic conversion make sum to use strictly four reagents, not more not less.
Note: You can simply mention the numerical values corresponding to the reagent in the
boxes P, Q, R, S respectively and also consider major organic product in each step.
What is the value of [P + R + S – Q]
P
Q
OH
R
S
1. HBr 2. H /H 2 O 3. Hg  OAc  2 /H 2O 4. BH3 .THF
5. EtONa/EtOH/ 6. HBr/ROOR/  7. Conc H2SO4 /  8. NaBH4
9. H2O2 , aq.NaOH 10. t - BuOK /
2. How many substances among the following will favour both SN1 and SN 2?
Cl Cl Ph CH2 Cl CH3 CH2 Cl

Cl
Cl
Cl
CH3 O CH2 Cl
3. How many no bond resonating structures are possible for (X) ?

CH3
alc.
X 
KOH, 
Cl
CH2CH3
ROUGH WORK

13
4. Find number of reactions where configuration of product is similar to that of reactant

(Retention)
CH3 CH3

a) + AgCN b) + PCl5
C2H5 C2H5
Cl OH
CH3 CH3
c) + SOCl 2 d)
+ NaCN
C2H5 C2H5
OH Cl
OH OH
e) Br H f) Br OCH3
H2 O
H OCH 3 H H
Ph
AgF NaI
g)H Cl
CH 2Cl2 acetone
CH3
5. What is the value of x in the following silicate mineral?
Be3Al2Si x O18
6. On heating, crystals of K 4  Fe  CN  6  with conc. H2SO4 'x ' moles of CO evolved per
mole of K 4  Fe  CN  6  identify 'x ' .
7. Three moles of B2 H 6 an completely react with methanol. The number of moles of
boron containing product formed is:
8. In Dumas method for estimation of nitrogen 0.3 gm of an organic compound gave 50ml
of nitrogen collected at 300 K temperature and 715mm pressure the percentage
composition of nitrogen in the compound is 'x ' . [Aqueous tension at 300 K = 15mm]
Find the value of (x-9.46)
ROUGH WORK

14

06.02.23 Sankalp24 PH5 Pap-1

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Date: 06.02.2023 CODE: 100920.

FIITJEE Internal test

A. Questions paper format :

Enrollment No. : Batch : _________________________

Candidate’s Signature: ____________________________________________________________________

FIITJEE VIZAG Centre, #49-52-5, Santhipuram, Sankaramatam Road, Visakhapatnam-530016 Ph:0891-2555501,02,03

5. Which of the following are true

a) number of ways in which 50 identical books can be distributed to 100 students, if

FIITJEE VIZAG Centre, #49-52-5, Santhipuram, Sankaramatam Road, Visakhapatnam-530016 Ph:0891-2555501,02,03

FIITJEE VIZAG Centre, #49-52-5, Santhipuram, Sankaramatam Road, Visakhapatnam-530016 Ph:0891-2555501,02,03

2. An equal convex lens has power P. It is cut into two L2 L3

a) Power of L2  Power of L3 b) Power of L2  2  Power of L1

FIITJEE VIZAG Centre, #49-52-5, Santhipuram, Sankaramatam Road, Visakhapatnam-530016 Ph:0891-2555501,02,03

FIITJEE VIZAG Centre, #49-52-5, Santhipuram, Sankaramatam Road, Visakhapatnam-530016 Ph:0891-2555501,02,03

9. Two radioactive decay processes are given below :

FIITJEE VIZAG Centre, #49-52-5, Santhipuram, Sankaramatam Road, Visakhapatnam-530016 Ph:0891-2555501,02,03

2. When an object is kept at a distance of 30 cm from a concave mirror, the image is

3. Cross-section view of a prism is the equilateral triangle

FIITJEE VIZAG Centre, #49-52-5, Santhipuram, Sankaramatam Road, Visakhapatnam-530016 Ph:0891-2555501,02,03

x -0.10 -0.08 -0.06 -0.04 -0.02 O

FIITJEE VIZAG Centre, #49-52-5, Santhipuram, Sankaramatam Road, Visakhapatnam-530016 Ph:0891-2555501,02,03

2. Select correct order of given property

3. Which of the following is/are ionic carbides?

4. Which of the following statement(s) is / are correct?

FIITJEE VIZAG Centre, #49-52-5, Santhipuram, Sankaramatam Road, Visakhapatnam-530016 Ph:0891-2555501,02,03

a) C6 H5 NHNH2 b) NH2CONH2 c) NH2 NH2 d)

FIITJEE VIZAG Centre, #49-52-5, Santhipuram, Sankaramatam Road, Visakhapatnam-530016 Ph:0891-2555501,02,03

8. Which of the following reactions will provide, a synthesis of 1, 1-diphenyl ethanol as a

9. Consider the following reaction.

c) Choloronium ion d) C Cl2

a)  CH3  2 CH CH 2CH 3 b)  CH3  2 CH CH  CH3  2

FIITJEE VIZAG Centre, #49-52-5, Santhipuram, Sankaramatam Road, Visakhapatnam-530016 Ph:0891-2555501,02,03

Cl Cl Ph CH2 Cl CH3 CH2 Cl

3. How many no bond resonating structures are possible for (X) ?

FIITJEE VIZAG Centre, #49-52-5, Santhipuram, Sankaramatam Road, Visakhapatnam-530016 Ph:0891-2555501,02,03

4. Find number of reactions where configuration of product is similar to that of reactant

FIITJEE VIZAG Centre, #49-52-5, Santhipuram, Sankaramatam Road, Visakhapatnam-530016 Ph:0891-2555501,02,03

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