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Date: 06.02.2023 CODE: 100921.

0 SET – A

FIITJEE Internal test


PINNACLE 1ST YEAR (2 0 2 2 – 2 0 2 4)
P H A S E T E S T – 5 (P A P E R - 2)
Time : 3 hours SANKALP24 Maximum Marks: 240
INSTRUCTIONS

A. Questions paper format :


i) This question paper consists of 3 sections (Section 1 – Maths, Section 2 – Physics & Section 3 - Chemistry)
Each Section has 2 parts: PART – A, PART – B

ii) PART – A contains 16 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices a, b, c and d, out of which
10 question are single answer correct answer. 6 questions are comprehension based questions.

iii) PART – B contains 2 questions in which statements are given in 2 columns. Statements in the first column are to
be matched with statements in the second column. The answers to these questions are to be appropriately
bubbled in the ORS

B. Marking scheme :
i) For each question in PART- A, 10 questions you will be awarded 4 Marks if you have darkened only the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (-1)
mark will be awarded.

ii) PART –A, 6 questions you will be awarded 4 Marks if you have darkened only the bubble corresponding to the
correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. There is no negative mark for incorrect answer(s).

iii) For each question in PART- B, you will be awarded 2 Marks for each row if you match the statement in column I
of the row with all but only statements with which the matching is possible. Thus, each question in this section
carries a maximum of 8 marks. There is no negative mark for incorrect answer(s) for this section.

IMPORTANT DATA
-31 -19
Mass of an electron (m) = 9.1 x 10 kg Charge of an electron (e) = 1.6 x 10 coulombs
23 -34
Avogadro’s Number (Na) = 6.023 x 10 Planck’s constant (h) = 6.626 x 10 Js
1 Faraday = 96500 Coulomb 1 Calorie = 4.2 joule
Atomic Masses: Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Co = 59, Ni = 58.7, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65.4, As = 75, Br = 80,
Kr = 83.8, Ag = 108, Sn=118.6,I = 127,Xe = 131, Ba = 137,Au= 197, Pb = 207, U=238

Enrollment No. : Batch : _________________________

Name : ______________________________________________________________________________________

Candidate’s Signature: __________________________ Invigilator’s Signature :_______________________


SET A SANKALP24 PHASE TEST 5-PAP 2 Date: 06.02.2023

SECTION – 1
Mathematics

PART - A
SINGLE ANSWER CORRECT:
1. Which of the following statement is correct?
3762
a) If  2021 is divided by 17 then the remainder is 2.
11
 1 
b) The coefficient of the term independent of ' x ' in the expansion of  2 x 2   is
 3x 
11 4
 C7  2
37
rd
c) The only value of ' r ' for which the coefficient of  2r  3 term is equal to the
th 15
coefficient of  r  5  term in the expansion of 1  x  is ' 2'
8
d) The coefficient of x10 in 1  x 2  x 3  is 476.
 1  1   1 
2. The coefficient of x 49 in the expansion of  x  1  x   x  2  ....  x  49  is equal
 2  2   2 
to
 1   1   1 
a)  2 1  50  b)  2 1  49  c) 2  1  49  d) none of these
 2   2   2 
6
3. The number of terms with rational coefficients in the expansion of  3
5x  2 3 y  z  is
a) 7 b) 6 c) 8 d) 9
2 2 2 2
 50   50   50   50   n
4. The value of    2    3    ....  50   is equal to (where    n Cr )
1 2 3  50  r
49
100  100   100  2
a)   b) 50   c) 100   d) 1 3  5....99
 50   50   50  49!

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SET A SANKALP24 PHASE TEST 5-PAP 2 Date: 06.02.2023

2 n 1
5. 
Let R  5 5  11  and f  R   R  where  denotes the greatest integer function,
then the value of R f is
a) 1 b) 42n c) 42 n 2 d) 42 n1

 32023 
6. The value of   , where  .  denotes the fractional part.
 28 
19 23 3
a) b) c) d) none of these
28 28 28
p
7. The number of distinct rational numbers x such that 0  x  1 and x  , where
q
p, q  1, 2,3, 4,5, 6 , is
a) 15 b) 13 c) 12 d) 11
8. If a, b, c be three natural numbers in AP and a  b  c  21 , then the possible number
of values of a, b, c is
a) 15 b) 14 c) 13 d) 16
9. A closet has 5 pairs of shoes. The number of ways in which 4 shoes can be chosen from
it so that there will be no complete pair is
a) 80 b) 160 c) 200 d) none of these
10. Number of ways to choose an ordered pair  a, b  of numbers from the set
1, 2,3,...,10 such that a  b  5 is
a) 70 b) 100 c) 80 d) 90

ROUGH WORK

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SET A SANKALP24 PHASE TEST 5-PAP 2 Date: 06.02.2023

COMPREHENSION
n
n
If 1  x    n Cr x r , then the sum of the binomial coefficients can be obtained by
r0
substituting x  1 . But in case we have to find the sum of coefficients in some particular order,
we can substitute x by  ix or   x or   2 x depending upon the requirements.

11. The sum of binomial coefficients n C0  n C4  n C8  .... is equal to


   n 
a) 2n / 2 cos   b) 2n / 2 sin  
8  8 
n
 n  1  n 
n
c) 2  2 cos  
n/ 2
d) 2n 2  2 2 cos  
 4   4 
12. The sum of the binomial coefficients n C0  n C3  n C6  .... is equal to
2n 1 n  n  
a) b)  2  cos  
3 3  3 
1 n n 
c)  2  2 cos  d) none of these
3 3 
k
3n r 1 3n
13. If n is an even positive integer and k 
2
, then the value of    3
r 1
C2 r 1 is equal

to
a) 3n b) 3n1 c) 6n d) zero

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COMPREHENSION

If a cricket team of 11 players is to be selected from 8 batsmen, 6 blowers, 4 all rounder and 2
wicket keepers, then

14. The number of selections when atmost 1 all rounder and 1 wicket keeper will play, is
a) 4 C1  14C10  2C1  14C10  4C1  2 C1 2C1  14C9  14C11
b) 4 C1  15C11  15C11
c) 4 C1  15C10  15C11
d) none of these

15. Number of selections when 2 particular batsmen don’t want to play when a particular
bowler will play, is
a) 17 C10  19 C11 b) 17 C10  19C11  17 C11 c) 17 C10  20C11 d) 19 C10  19C11

16. Number of selections when a particular batsman and a particular wicket keeper don’t
want to play together, is
a) 2  18C10 b) 19 C11  18C10 c) 19 C10  19C11 d) none of these

ROUGH WORK

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SET A SANKALP24 PHASE TEST 5-PAP 2 Date: 06.02.2023

PART - B
MATCH THE MATRIX
1. In a high school, a committee has to be formed from a group of 6 boys
M 1 , M 2 , M 3 , M 4 , M 5 , M 6 and 5 girls G1 , G2 , G3 , G4 , G5 .
(i) Let 1 be the total number of ways in which the committee can be formed such
that the committee has 5 members, having exactly 3 boys and 2 girls.
(ii) Let  2 be the total number of ways in which the committee can be formed such
that the committee has at least 2 members, and having an equal number of boys and
girls.
(iii) Let  3 be the total number of ways in which the committee can be formed such
that the committee has 5 members, at least 2 of them being girls.
(iv) Let  4 be the total number of ways in which the committee can be formed such
that the committee has 4 members, having atleast 2 girls and such that both M 1 and
G1 are NOT in the committee together.
COLUMN – I COLUMN - II
A) The value of 1 is P) 189
B) The value of  2 is Q) 192
C) The value of 3 is R) 200
D) The value of  4 is S) 381
T) 461

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SET A SANKALP24 PHASE TEST 5-PAP 2 Date: 06.02.2023

2. Match the following:


COLUMN – I COLUMN - II
The number of 4 digit numbers starting with 1 and having
A) P) 201
exactly two identical digits is
100
 k  100 a  2100   b
If    Ck  where a, b, c  N then the
B) k 0  k  1  c Q) 1330
least value of  a  b  c  is
The coefficient of x18 in the polynomial
C) 20 19 18 2 R) 432
f  x   1  x   x 1  x   x 2 1  x   ....  x18 1  x  is
Let f  x   1  x  x 2  x 3  ....  x16  x17
2 17
D)  a0  a1 1  x   a2 1  x   ...  a17 1  x  , S) 816
find the value of a2 .

ROUGH WORK

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SET A SANKALP24 PHASE TEST 5-PAP 2 Date: 06.02.2023

SECTION – 2
Physics

PART - A
SINGLE ANSWER CORRECT:
1. A point source of light, S is placed at a distance L in
front of the centre of plane mirror of width d which is
hanging vertically on a wall. A man walks in front of the
mirror along a line parallel to the mirror, at a distance 2L
as shown below. The distance over which the man can
see the image of the light source in the mirror is

d
a) b) 3d c) 2d d) d
2

2. A concave mirror for face viewing has focal length of 0.4 m. The distance at which you
hold the mirror from your face in order to see your image upright with a magnification
of 5 is
a) 0.32 m b) 0.24 m c) 1.60 m d) 0.16 m

3. A diverging lens with magnitude of focal length 25 cm is placed at a distance of 15 cm


from a converging lens of magnitude of focal length 20 cm. A beam of parallel light
falls on the diverging lens. The final image formed is
a) Real and at a distance of 40 cm from convergent lens
b) Virtual and at a distance of 40 cm from convergent lens
c) Real and at a distance of 40 cm from the divergent lens
d) Real and at a distance of 6 cm from the convergent lens

4. Region I and II are separated by a spherical surface of radius 25 cm. An object is kept
in region I at a distance of 40 cm from the surface. The distance of the image from the
surface is

a) 18.23 cm b) 9.52 cm c) 37.58 cm d) 55.44 cm

ROUGH WORK

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SET A SANKALP24 PHASE TEST 5-PAP 2 Date: 06.02.2023

5. Light travels in two media M 1 and M 2 with speeds 1.5  108 ms 1 and 2.0  108 ms 1
respectively. The critical angle between them is :
 3  2 3 2
a) tan 1   b) tan 1   c) cos1   d) sin 1  
 7 3 4 3
o
6. An X-ray tube with a copper target emits Cu K  line of wavelength 1.50 A . What
should be the minimum voltage through which electrons are to be accelerated to
produce this wavelength of X-rays : ( h  6.63  10 34 J  sec , c  3  108 m/s )
a) 8280 V b) 828 V c) 82800 V d) 8.28 V

7. The kinetic energy of an electron with de-Broglie wavelength of 0.3 nanometer is


a) 0.168 eV b) 16.8 eV c) 1.68 eV d) 2.5 eV

8. A photosensitive metallic surface has work function hv0 . If photons of energy 2 hv0
fall on this surface the electrons come out with a maximum velocity of 4  106 m/s.
When the photon energy is increases to 5 hv0 then maximum velocity of photo electron
will be
a) 2  106 m/s b) 2  107 m/s c) 8  105 m/s d) 8  106 m/s

9. Electrons with de-Broglie wavelength  fall on the target in an X-ray tube. The cut-off
wavelength of the emitted X-ray is :
2mc 2 2h 2m 2 c 2  3
a) 0  b)  0  c)  0  d)  0  
h mc h2

10. The photon radiated from hydrogen corresponding to 2nd line of Lyman series is
absorbed by a hydrogen like atom ‘X’ in 2nd excited state. As a result the hydrogen like
atom ‘X’ makes a transition to nth orbit. Then :
a) X  He   n  4 b) X  Li   n  6 c) X  He   n  6 d) X  Li   n  9

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COMPREHENSION
A container contains liquid upto a height of 30 cm and there is a point source at the centre of
the bottom of the container. A rubber ring of radius r floats centrally on the liquid surface. The
ceiling of the room is 3.0 m above the liquid surface. (Refractive index of liquid  3 )

11. The radius of disc on surface of water through which rays from point source are
refracted into air is :
a) 10 2 cm b) 15 2 cm c) 10 3 cm d) 15 3 cm

12. The radius of the shadow of the ring formed on the ceiling if r  10 3 cm is
a) 270 3 cm b) 290 3 cm c) 310 3 cm d) 350 3 cm

13. Find the maximum value of r from which the shadow of the ring is formed on the
ceiling.
a) 10 2 cm b) 15 2 cm c) 10 3 cm d) 15 3 cm

COMPREHENSION

A hydrogen like atom of atomic number Z is in excited state of quantum number 2n. It can
emit a maximum energy photon of 204 eV. If it makes transition to quantum state n, a photon
of energy 40.8 eV is emitted. Ground state energy f hydrogen atom is –13.6 eV.

14. Find the value of n :


a) 3 b) 2 c) 4 d) 6

15. Find ground state energy (in eV) of this atom :


a) – 187.6 eV b) – 197.6 eV c) – 217.6 eV d) – 167.6 eV

16. Calculate minimum energy (eV) that can be emitted by this atom during de-excitation
a) 12.46 eV b) 10.58 eV c) 11.97 eV d) 13.27 eV

ROUGH WORK

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PART - B
MATCH THE MATRIX
1. Column – I lists some quantities pertaining to an electron in the n th Bohr orbit in a Hydrogen
atom. Match each quantity in Column–I with the correct item in Column–II to which
the quantity is proportional to

Column – I Column – II
A) de-Broglie wavelength P) 1
n
B) Time period of revolution Q) 1
n4
C) Velocity R) n3
D) Centripetal acceleration S) n

2. A point size object O lies in between two parallel plane mirrors 1 ms -1 2 ms -1


L and R as shown. The two mirrors move towards each other at
speeds 1 m/s and 2 m/s respectively. The object O moves from
R to L at a speed 4 m/s. Consider the nearest images formed in

each mirror. Match the following speeds. O
4 ms-1

L R

Column – I Column – II
A) Speed of the image formed by L P) 0
B) Speed of the image formed by R Q) 2 ms 1
C) Relative speed of image formed by L w.r.t. the R) 4 ms 1
object
D) Relative speed of the two images formed by L S) 6 ms 1
and R
T) 10 ms 1

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SET A SANKALP24 PHASE TEST 5-PAP 2 Date: 06.02.2023

SECTION – 3
Chemistry

PART - A
SINGLE ANSWER CORRECT:
NO 2 NH2 N2Cl OH

I II III IV
1.

OH

COOH
V VI
 X   Pain killer 

Which of the following reaction is involve in step – V:


a) Fries rearrangement b) Kolbe Schmidt reaction
c) Carbyl amine reaction d) a & b both

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2. Identify the options in which the incorrect products have been reported in the reactions:
OH OH
Br Br
Br2 /H2 O
a)

Br
O
O
C O
C O
b) Br2 1 mol  /Fe

Br
OH
OH
O 2N NO 2

Dilute HNO3 , 200 C


c)

NO 2
OH O C2H5

 C 2 H5  2 SO 4 + NAOH / 
d)

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3. Diazocoupling reaction in aromatic compound is an electrophilic substitution reaction.


In which of the following reaction the ring substitution is most suitable for
diazocoupling reaction?
N2 Cl OH N2 Cl
OCOCH 3

a) +
b) +

OCH 3 NO 2 CH3

N2 Cl N2 Cl
N(CH 3)2 NH2

c) + d) +

SO 3H NH2

Anhy.  i  I2 /OH
4. +  CH CO  3 2
O
AlCl3
X
 ii  H 3O
Y+Z

If Y is a yellow solid, then Z is:


COOH COCH 3 CH3 I

a) b) c) d)

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SET A SANKALP24 PHASE TEST 5-PAP 2 Date: 06.02.2023

5. Which of them doesn’t yield para bromophenol as major product.


NH2

NaNO 2 / HCl Steam


a)

Br
OH
CH3 C Cl Pyridine
O Br2 water dil. H 2SO 4 / 
b)

Br

1 eq. NaOH
c)

Br
OH

Sn / HCl NaNO2 /H 2SO 4 CuBr / HBr


d)

NH2

6. Match list I (reaction) with II (products) and then select the correct answer from the
codes given below the lists:

List I List II
A) Phenol + NaOH + CH3 I P) Phenolphthalein
B) Phenol + NaOH + CHCl3 Q) Salicylic acid
C) Phenol + Phthalic anhydride + conc. H2SO4 R) Anisole
D) Phenol + CO2 + NaOH S) Salicylaldehyde
P Q R S
a) A B C D
b) D C B A
c) C D A B
d) D C A B

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7. Consider the following chlorides

The order of reactivity of (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) towards hydrolysis by SN 1 mechanism is
a) (i) < (ii) < (iii) < (iv) b) (iv) < (iii) < (ii) < (i)
c) (iv) < (i) < (ii) < (iii) d) (iii) < (ii) < (i) < (iv)

8. Which of the following statements are incorrect ?


a) The tertiary alcohols produce red colour in the Victor-Meyer method
b) An organic compound on treating with HIO4 gives OHC  CH 2  4 CHO . The

compound is

c) An organic compound on treating with HIO4 gives HOOC  CH 2 4 CHO . The

compound is

d) An organic compound on treating with HIO4 gives 2HCOOH  2HCHO . The


compound is

ROUGH WORK

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SET A SANKALP24 PHASE TEST 5-PAP 2 Date: 06.02.2023

9. Which of the following phenols will not give white ppt of tribromo products when react
with Br2 / H 2O at elevated temperature?
OH
OH OH OH

(a) (b) (c) (d)


CH3

COOH SO3H CH3

10. HO CH2 OH
P MeO CH2 OH

MeO CHO

Correct option for P & Q respectively


a) P  MeONa ; Q  PCC
b) P  KOH , MeOH ; Q  CrO3 , dil . H 2 SO4
c) P   i  KOH ,  ii  MeI ; Q  PCC
d) P   i  KNH 2 ,  ii  MeI ; Q  H  / KMnO4

ROUGH WORK

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COMPREHENSION

From Alkyl halide we can prepare alkenes by witting reaction. Allyl halides and benzyl halides
can undergo both SN1 & SN 2 reactions. SN1 reactions in solvolysis condition proceed by free
carbocation intermediate. In alkyl halides C – X bond is polar. Polarity of C – X bond is
responsible for several characteristic reactions of alkyl halides.

(i) Ph 3 P, then n-Buli


11. A Then 'A' is
 ii  Cyclohexanone
 iii  CH 2 I2 ,Zn  Cu
OH O Br NH2

a) b) c) d)

12. Identify final product in following sequence


H3C
NH2
Ph Br
NaNH 2 CH2 mcpba H3C
X Y Z Product
Ph

a) b)
CH3
HO NH
NH NH
CH3

O H3C CH3

CH3
c) d) NH CH3
HN CH3

CH3

ROUGH WORK

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SET A SANKALP24 PHASE TEST 5-PAP 2 Date: 06.02.2023

13. Identify correct reactivity order for SN1 reaction


OTs
OTs
OTs

a) b) c) d) None

COMPREHENSION
Silicates are a group of minerals which have the general formula SiO2 the most common of
which is quartz. Quartz is a frame work silicate with SiO4 tetrahedra arranged in spirals. The
spirals can turn in clockwise or anticlockwise direction a feature that results in there being two
mirror images optically active verities of quartz.

14. The following represents various silicate anions. Their formulae are respectively

- oxygen
- silicon

a) SiO 32- , SiO 72- b) SiO 4-4 , Si 3O10


8-
c) SiO 2-4 , Si 3O 92- d) SiO 34- , Si 3O 8-7

8-
15. Si 3 O10 (having three tetrahedral units) is represented as

a) b)

c) Both a & b correct d) Both a & b incorrect

ROUGH WORK

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SET A SANKALP24 PHASE TEST 5-PAP 2 Date: 06.02.2023

16. The silicate anion in the mineral kaionite is a chain of three SiO4 tetrahedra that share
corners with adjacent tetrahedra. The minerals also contain Ca 2+ acid Cu 2+ ions and
water molecules in a 1 : 1 : 1 ratio. The mineral is represented as
a) CaCuSi3O10 .H 2O b) CaCuSi3O10 .2H 2O
c) Ca 2Cu 2Si3O10 .2H 2O d) Ca 2CuSi3O10 .4H 2O

PART - B
MATCH THE MATRIX

1. Match the following


Column – I Column – II
P)Sodium fusion extract of the
A) N N Br compound gives Prussian blue colour
with FeSO4
Q)Sodium fusion extract of the
B)Me SO 3H compound gives blood red colour with
FeSO4
R)Lassaigne’s extract (L.E.) in CS2 and
C) Br H3N SO 3H Cl2 water gives orange colour

2-
S) L.E with  Fe  CN 5 NO  gives
D)HOOC NH NH 3 I
violet colour.

2. Match the following


Column – I Column – II
A) Shows p  p back bonding P) BF3
B) Shows p  d  back bonding Q) N  SiH 3 3
C) Lewis acid R) Triangular BO3  units
D) B  OH 3 S) BCl3

ROUGH WORK

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