SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY

TEST 16 – POLITY FULL TEST – EXPLANATION KEY

1. Ans (b)
Explanation:
Article 244 describes certain areas as “Scheduled Areas(SA)” and “Tribal areas(TA)”
 Features of Scheduled areas come under Fifth Schedule and Tribal areas under Sixth Schedule.
So, Statement A is incorrect
 Declaration of SA is done by President whereas Tribal Areas are described in Constitution itself
(ie) Meghalaya, Assam, Tripura, Mizoram. Governor is empowered to organise and reorganise
these areas. So, Statement C is incorrect
Features of Scheduled areas
 Establishment of tribal advisory council
 Power of Governor to adopt/modify laws of parliament and state legislatures
 Special responsibility of governor with regards to executive power of the SAs
Features of Tribal areas
 Establishment of autonomous districts and district councils & regional councils. So, Statement
D is incorrect.
 Power of governor to organise these districts
 Specific powers of district councils and regional councils for managing schools, road etc,. So,
Statement B is correct

2. Ans (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1, incorrect: Official languages are declared under THE OFFICIAL LANGUAGES ACT, 1963.
This Act provides for the languages which may be used for the official purposes of the Union, for
transaction of business in Parliament, for Centrtal and State, Acts and for certain purposes in
HighCourts.

Statement 2, Correct: Official Languages Commission established under Article 344 contains
representation of people from Eight Schedule languages. The purpose of Commission is to,
(a) the progressive use of the Hindi language for the official purposes of the Union ;
(b) restrictions on the use of the English language for all or any of the official purposes of the Union ;

Detailed provisions @ http://mhrd.gov.in/article-344

Statement 3, incorrect: The purpose of Eighth Schedule can be derived from Article 351 which states
that “ secure enrichment of hindi language by assimilating without interfering with its genius, the
forms, style and expressions used in Hindustani and in the other languages of India specified in the
Eighth Schedule“. So, Statement 4 is correct.

3. Ans (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1, incorrect: The Vice-President shall be elected by the members of an electoral college
consisting of the members of both Houses of Parliament in accordance with the system of
proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote and the voting at such election
shall be by secret ballot. Thus, it contains both elected and nominated members.
Statement 2, Correct: The eligibility for Vice President is;
(a) is a citizen on India;
(b) has completed the age of thirty-five years; and
(c) is qualified for election as a member of the Council of States.

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4. Ans (a)
Explanation:
Model Code of Conduct is a set of guidelines issued by the Election Commission of India for conduct
of political parties and candidates during elections mainly with respect to speeches, polling day,
polling booths, portfolios, election manifestos, processions and general conduct. These set of norms
has been evolved with the consensus of political parties 
http://documents.gov.in/UA/992.pdf
Statement 1, Correct: There can be no appeal based on Caste and religious feelings because it violates
Article 15. Supreme court in case Abhiram Singh vs Union of India opined that appeal for votes during
elections on the basis of religion, caste, race, community or language, even that of the electorate, will
amount to a ‘corrupt practice’ and call for disqualification of the candidate.
Statement 2, Correct: MCC also deals with management of polling booths. It says that Excepting the
voters , no one without a valid pass from the Election Commission shall enter the polling booths.
Statement 3, incorrect: Only civil servants can launch/inaugurate projects during MCC. Politicians
(both MPs and ministers) are not allowed to do so.

5. Ans (c)
Explanation:
What is blockchain?
 At its most basic level, blockchain is literally just a chain of blocks (ie) digital information (the
“block”) stored in a public database (the “chain”).  Blockchain, as its name suggests, consists of
multiple blocks strung together. 
 “Blocks” on the blockchain are made up of digital pieces of information & they have three parts
o Blocks store information about transactions, say the date, time, value, etc…
o Blocks store information about who is participating in transactions
o Blocks store information that distinguishes them from other blocks.
Statement 1, Correct: It is brainchild of a person or group of people known by the pseudonym, Satoshi
Nakamoto. It is a distributed and decentralised ledger. Decentralised because there is no one single
entity that controls the transactions. (eg) If in case of banking, its RBI who controls. There is no such
entity in blockchain.
Statement 2, incorrect: Take in the above example. If it’s a banking transaction, the role of RBI can be
eliminated by block chain and crypto currency. But think of a situation where the money you hold is
linked to your landholdings. So, there must be an intermediary to connect eco systems of banking and
landregistry. So, block chain doesn’t eliminate intermediaries completely but only partially.
https://www.investopedia.com/tech/blockchain-wont-cut-out-intermediaries-after-all/
Statement 3, Correct: The Xiamen Declaration signed in China on digital economy by the BRICS
leaders had highlighted the importance of the digital economy.  Accordingly, a Memorandum of
Understanding (MoU) on Collaborative Research on Distributed Ledger and Block chain Technology in
the Context of the Development of the Digital Economy was signed by Exim Bank under BRICS
Interbank Cooperation Mechanism 

6. Ans (c)
Explanation:
Article 78 can be seen in two perspectives. From perspective of PM, these are duties of PM and from
the perspective of President, these are his rights. The following are duties/rights,
(a) to communicate to the President all decisions of the council of Ministers relating to the
administration of the affairs of the union and proposals for legislation;

(b) to furnish such information relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals
for legislation as the President may call for; and

(c) if the President so requires, to submit for the consideration of the Council of Ministers any matter
on which a decision has been taken by a Minister

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So Statement 1, 2, 3 are correct and President under Article 86 can send messages to Parliament and
not to Council of Ministers. If he were to do so, then there would not be any difference between
nominal and real executive. So, Statement is incorrect.

7. Ans (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1, Correct: Yes, to deduce this Article 53 & Article 74 has to be read together. Article 53
states that the executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President & Article 74 says that
there shall be Council of Ministers headed by Prime Minister to aid and advise President.

Statement 2, incorrect: Its Attorney General who is the highest legal authority of the Union.

Statement 3, incorrect: Again, interpreting Article 74, we can deduce that Council of Minister cease to
exist where there is death or resignation of Prime Minister.

Statement 4, incorrect: Any cabinet minister can preside over the meetings of Council of Minister in
absence of Prime Minister. Read this article for more info:
https://indianexpress.com/article/india/politics/rajnath-or-jaitley-whos-no-2-in-govt/

8. Ans (b)
Explanation:
NHRC is a statutory body responsible for the protection and promotion of human rights, defined by
the Protection of Human Rights Act as "rights relating to life, liberty, equality and dignity of the
individual guaranteed by the Constitution or embodied in the International Covenants"

Statement 1, incorrect: Section 3 of the Act lays down that the Commission shall consist of:
 A Chairperson, who is a retired Chief Justice of India.
 One Member who is, or has been, a Judge of the Supreme Court of India
 One Member who is, or has been, the Chief Justice of a High Court
 Two Members to be appointed from among persons having knowledge of, or practical
experience in, matters relating to human rights
 In addition, the Chairpersons of four National Commissions of ( 1.Minorities 2.SC 3.ST
4.Women) serve as ex officio members.

Statement 2, Correct: NHRC is a quasi-judiciary body which has powers of a civil court. It thus has
powers to regulate its own procedure.
Statement 3, Correct: NHRC can only make recommendations, without the power to enforce
decisions. This lack of authority to ensure compliance can lead to outright rejection of its decision too.

9. Ans (c)
Explanation:
73rd Amendment (and 74th) has provisions which can be classified as Voluntary and Compulsory.
Compulsory provisions:

1. Organization of Gram Sabha in  a village or group of villages

2. Establishment of panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels
3. Direct elections to all seats in panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels. So,
Statement 1 is correct
4. Indirect elections to the post of chairperson of panchayats at the intermediate and district levels
5. 21 years to be the minimum age for contesting elections to panchayats. So, Statement 2 is
incorrect
6. Reservation of seats (both members and chairpersons) for SCs and STs in panchayats at all the three
levels & Reservation of one-third seats (both members and chairpersons) for women in panchayats
7. Fixing tenure of five years for panchayats at all levels and holding fresh elections within six months
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in the event of supersession of any panchayat
8. Establishment of a State Election Commission for conducting elections to the panchayats
9. Constitution of a State Finance Commission after every five years to review the financial position of
the panchayats
Voluntary Provisions
1. Giving representation to members of the Parliament (both the Houses) and the state legislature
(both the Houses) in the panchayats at different levels falling within their constituencies.
2. Providing reservation of seats (both members and chairpersons) for backward classes in panchayats
at any level.
3. Granting powers and authority to the panchayats to enable them to function as institutions of
self-government.
4. Devolution of powers and responsibilities upon panchayats to prepare plans for economic
development and social justice; and to perform some or all of the 29 functions listed in the Eleventh
Schedule of the Constitution.
5. Granting financial powers to the panchayats, i.e. authorizing them to levy, collect and appropriate
taxes, duties, tolls and fees. So, Statement 3 is wrong.

10. Ans (c)

Explanation:
Statement 2, incorrect: AGMARK is a certification mark employed on agricultural products in India,
assuring that they conform to a set of standards approved Directorate of Marketing & Inspection
(DMI) in the Department of Agriculture, Cooperation and Farmers Welfare, Ministry of Agriculture,
Cooperation & Farmers Welfare is implementing the provisions of Agricultural Produce (Grading &
Marking) Act, 1937

Statement 1, incorrect: The AGMARK is legally enforced in India by the Agricultural Produce (Grading

and Marking) Act of 1937 (and amended in 1986). The present AGMARK standards cover quality
guidelines for 205 different commodities spanning a variety of Pulses, Cereals, Essential
Oils, Vegetable Oils, Fruits & Vegetables, and semi-processed products like Vermicelli.

11. Ans (d)

Explanation:
The GSLEP is a range-wide effort that unites range country governments, nongovernmental and inter-
governmental organizations, local communities, and the private sector around a shared vision to
conserve snow leopards and their valuable high-mountain ecosystems.

The snow leopard range countries agree, with support from interested organizations, to work
together to identify and secure at least 20 snow leopard landscapes across the cat’s range by 2020 or,
in shorthand – “Secure 20 by 2020.”

Statement 1, Correct: Snow leopards live across a vast area of northern and central Asia, including the
Himalayan Mountains. In the Himalayas, snow leopards live in high alpine areas, mostly above the tree
line and up to 18,000 feet in elevation. They are found in 12 countries—including China, Bhutan,
Nepal, India, Pakistan, Afghanistan, Russia, and Mongolia. All these countries are part of GSLEP.
Statement 3, Correct: Bishkek Declaration 2013 reiterates the fundamental principles, objectives and
actions pertaining to participatory conservation of snow leopards and high mountain ecosystems of
Asia.
Statement 2, Correct: Yes, they are listed under Appendix I of CITES.

12. Ans (c)

Explanation:
Nepal could become the first country to double its national tiger population since the ambitious TX2
goal – to double the world’s wild tiger population by 2022 – was set at the St. Petersburg Tiger
Summit in 2010. 
About Tx2:
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An ambitious and visionary species conservation goal was set by the governments of the 13 tiger
range countries: to double the number of wild tigers by 2022 – the next Chinese year of the tiger.
This is the Tx2 goal. It is driven by WWF

13. Ans (a)

Explanation:
Special Category Status used to be granted to some regions that have historically been at a
disadvantage, compared to the rest of the country. This decision was taken by the National
Development Council (NDC), a body of the former Planning Commission.
It was based on various factors, such as
 hilly and difficult terrain,
 economic and infrastructure backwardness and
 non-viability of the state’s finances.
 Border states & strategic location
 Low population density
 Low resource base
Jammu & Kashmir was the first state to get special category status, and another 10 states were added
over the years, with Uttarakhand being the last in 2010. 
Benefits under SCS:
 Preferential treatment in central funds
 Concession on excise duty
 30% gross budget of centre to SCS
 Debt relief schemes
 Tax breaks
 Grants in centrally sponsored schemes upto 90%. So Statement A is correct.

14. Ans (d)

Explanation:
Vote on Account is a grant in advance to enable the government to carry on until the voting of
demands for grants and the passing of the Appropriation Bill and Finance Bill.
This enables the government to fund its expenses for a short period of time or until a full-budget is
passed. As a convention, a vote-on-account is treated as a formal matter and passed by Lok Sabha
without discussion.

Normally, the Vote on Account is taken for two months only. The sum of the grant would be
equivalent to one-sixth of the estimated expenditure for the entire year under various demands for
grants.

15. Ans (a)

Explanation:
Constitutionalism is the idea, often associated with the political theories of John Locke and the
founders of the American republic, that government can and should be legally limited in its powers,
and that its authority or legitimacy depends on its observing these limitations

Statement 1, Correct: By limited governments, we mean that governments donot have plenary power
.They are constrained by Constitution, laws, other branches like Judiciary and parliament. A popular
phrase says that a government is both child and guardian of law. So, Statement 4, correct: (eg) Judicial
writs checks the power of governments.

Statement 2, Correct: A government which owes its allegiance to the Constitution. It is because, the
government exists because of that constitution (eg) Indian Constitution prescribes parliamentary form
of governments elected by universal adult franchise.

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Statement 3, incorrect: A monarch rules by virtue of his decadency and not based on popular will. In a
constitutional government, the head of the state is elected. Its called republicanism.

Features of Constitutionalism:
1. Popular sovereignty
2. Separation of Powers (checks and balances)
3. Responsible and accountable government
4. Rule of law
5. An independent judiciary
6. Respect for individual rights
7. Respect to self-determination
8. Civilian control of the military
9. Police governed by law and judicial control

16. Ans (b)

Explanation:
The President appoints the Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners after the law
ministry initiates the file for their appointment.

Article 324(5) states that Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his office except in
like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court. So, a Chief Election
Commissioner can be removed from the office only through impeachment motion (removal motion)
by Parliament.
However, same article states that the President can remove the ECs based on the recommendation of
the CEC. So there is limited or no security of tenure for ECs.
Addl Info:
The CEC and the Election Commissioners have a tenure of six years, or up to the age of 65 years,
whichever is earlier, and enjoy the same status and receive salary and perks as available to apex court
judges.

17. Ans (d)

Explanation:
The scheme for setting up and operating the institutional mechanism for facilitating the financing of
trade receivables of MSMEs from corporate buyers through multiple financiers will be known as Trade
Receivables Discounting System (TReDS). It is operated by RBI.

The TReDS will facilitate the discounting of both invoices as well as bills of exchange. The objective of
the TReDS is to facilitate financing of invoices / bills of MSMEs drawn on corporate buyers by way of
discounting by financiers. So, Statement is correct

https://www.rbi.org.in/scripts/bs_viewcontent.aspx?Id=2860

Statement 2, Correct: HAL is the first PSU to transact on TReDS platform.

Addl Info – RXIL

Receivables Exchange of India Ltd (RXIL) is a joint venture between Small Industries Development
Bank of India (SIDBI) and National Stock Exchange of India Limited (NSE). RXIL operates the Trade
Receivables Discounting System (TReDS) Platform as per the TReDS guideline issued by Reserve Bank
of India (RBI).

RXIL is the first entity to receive the approval from RBI on December 01, 2016 to launch India's First
TReDS Exchange.

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18. Ans (c)
Explanation:
Statement 1, Correct: Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) and Alliance for an Energy Efficient Economy
(AEEE), today released the ‘State Energy Efficiency Preparedness Index’, which assesses state policies
and programmes aimed at improving energy efficiency across various sectors.  The nationwide Index,
is a joint effort of the NITI Aayog and BEE.

The State Energy Efficiency Preparedness Index has 63 indicators across Building, Industry,
Municipality, Transport, Agriculture and DISCOM with 4 cross-cutting indicators. States are
categorised based on their efforts and achievements towards energy efficiency implementation, as
‘Front Runner’, ‘Achiever’, ‘Contender’ and ‘Aspirant’.

Statement 2, Correct: The ‘Front Runner’ states in the inaugural edition of the Index are: Andhra
Pradesh, Kerala, Maharashtra, Punjab, and Rajasthan.

http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=181378

19. Ans (b)

Explanation:
Tech Mahindra and the Telangana government signed an agreement here to establish the Blockchain
district, a first-of-its-kind Centre of Excellence for Blockchain. It will house start-ups and other
stakeholders working on the development of the platform.

20. Ans (a)

Explanation:
Statement 1, Correct: Art 67(b) states that a Vice-President may be removed from his office by a
resolution of the Council of States passed by a majority of all the then members of the Council and
agreed to by the House of the People; but no resolution for the purpose of this clause shall be moved
unless at least fourteen days’ notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution;

Art 67 (c) states that a Vice-President shall, notwithstanding the expiration of his term, continue to
hold office until his successor enters upon his office. So, Statement 3 is correct.

Statement 2, Correct: Article 68 speaks about the timing of Vice President’s election.
(1) An election to fill a vacancy caused by the expiration of the term of office of Vice-President shall be
completed before the expiration of the term.
(2) An election to fill a vacancy in the office of Vice-President occurring by reason of his death,
resignation or removal, or otherwise shall be held as soon as possible after the occurrence of the
vacancy,

21. Ans (b)

Explanation:
Statement 1, inorrect: One of the special powers of Rajya Sabha is that it can enable Parliament to
frame laws enumerated in State List of Schedule VII. For this, only RS (and not parliament) needs to
pass a resolution with 2/3rd of majority (Special Majority). (Refer Article 249 -
https://indiankanoon.org/doc/1883579/)

Statement 2, Correct: Such resolution is valid for one year post which it can be extended again. The
laws passed during this period will be valid only for six months after the expiry of such resolutions.

22. Ans (d)

Explanation:
Statement 1, incorrect: Infact President is obliged to give accent to bills that has been returned to
Parliament for reconsideration.
https://indiankanoon.org/doc/158646/
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Statement 2, incorrect: The procedure for Formation of new States and alteration of areas,
boundaries or names of existing States is,
1. Bill for the purpose shall be introduced in either House of Parliament with the recommendation of
the President 
2. And the Bill has been referred by the President to the Legislature of that State for expressing its
views thereon 

23. Ans (a)

Explanation:

Statement 1, Correct: Commerce and Industry Ministry launched a logo and tagline for Geographical
Indications (GI) to increase awareness about intellectual property rights (IPRs) in the country.

Statement 2, inorrect: Karnataka has successfully applied for GI certification at least 11 of the past 12
years, and notched 39 GI tags for everything from Mysore Sandal Soap to Udupi Sarees. Jharkhand is
the only Indian state that doesn’t have a GI-tagged product against its name.

24. Ans (d)

Explanation:
Statement 1 & 2, Correct: Petroleum coke, the bottom-of-the-barrel leftover from refining Canadian
tar sands crude and other heavy oils, is cheaper and burns hotter than coal. It contained 17 times
more sulfur than the limit set for coal, and a staggering 1,380 times more than for diesel thus
contributing to climate change. By virtue of cost effectiveness, India is the largest user of petcoke.

Supreme Court recently banned import of petcoke. Until then India was the largest importer of
Petcoke.

Statement 3, Correct: The Directorate General of Foreign Trade banned the use of imported petcoke
as fuel, but said shipments for use as feedstock in certain industries were allowed.

“Import of Petcoke is allowed for only cement, lime kiln, calcium carbide and gasification industries,
when used as the feedstock or in the manufacturing process on actual user condition," the directorate
general of foreign trade said.

25. Ans (c)

Explanation:
Statement 1, incorrect: There is no provision, executive or legal, to declare a natural calamity as a
national calamity. In reply to a question in Parliament, MoS (Home) Kiren Rijiju said, “The existing
guidelines of State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF)/ National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF), do not
contemplate declaring a disaster as a ‘National Calamity’.” In March 2001, then MoS (Agriculture)
Shripad Naik had told Parliament that the government had treated the 2001 Gujarat earthquake and
the 1999 super cyclone in Odisha as “a calamity of unprecedented severity”.

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This is a very good article which explains the lacunae in present categorisation.
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/what-is-a-national-disaster-kerala-floods-5314793/

Statement 2, incorrect: Calamity Relief Funds are dedicated funds used by the state governments to
meet the expenditure for providing immediate relief to victims of cyclone, drought, earthquake, fire,
flood, tsunami, hailstorm, landslide, avalanche, cloud burst and pest attack.

It targets immediate relief measures and excludes measures for mitigation or post-calamity
reconstruction. The CRF has been merged with State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF) with effect from 1
April 2010 and has ceased to exist at present.

Disasters which were severe in nature and required more funds to tackle were covered under National
Calamity Relief Fund.

26. Ans (d)

Explanation:
Statement 1 & 2, incorrect: PENCIL portal “Platform for Effective Enforcement for No Child Labour” is
a portal run by Ministry of Labour and Employment. The PENCIL is an electronic platform that aims at
involving Centre, State, District, Governments, civil society and the general public in achieving the
target of child labour free society.

PENCIL will create a robust implementing and monitoring mechanism for both enforcement of the
legislative provisions and effective implementation of the NCLP  especially in the backdrop that the
subject of Labour is in the concurrent list.

The portal will have the following components.

a.       Child Tracking System
b.      Complaint Corner
c.       State Government
d.      National Child Labour Project
e.       Convergence

27. Ans (b)

Explanation:
Article 61 gives procedure for impeachment of President. For the motion to be accepted, it has to be
signed by 1/4th of the membership of either houses where it is introduced. So Statement D is correct

(1) When a President is to be impeached for violation of the Constitution, the charge shall be
preferred by either House of Parliament. So Statement A is correct.
(2) No such charge shall be preferred unless
(a) the proposal to prefer such charge is contained in a resolution which has been moved after
at least fourteen days notice in writing signed by not less than one fourth of the total number
of members of the House has been given of their intention to move the resolution, and
So Statement B is incorrect
(b) such resolution has been passed by a majority of not less than two thirds of the total
membership of the House. So Statement C is correct
(3) When a charge has been so preferred by either House of Parliament, the other House shall
investigate the charge or cause the charge to be investigated and the President shall have the right to
appear and to be represented as such investigation

28. Ans (a)

Explanation:

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Statement 1, Correct: A speaker or any person presiding over the session of the house of parliament
(Loksabha, Rajyasabha or Joint sitting) is not expected to vote because he is a neutral person who is
seen above partisan lines.
But in case of a tie, s/he casts a casting vote.
Statement 2, incorrect: Eligibility for parliamentarians is described in Article 84 which says in the case
of a seat in the Council of States, not less than thirty years of age and, in the case of a seat in the
House of the People, not less than twenty five years of age.

29. Ans (b)

Explanation:
Statement 1, incorrect: The power to appoint governors /Lt Governors/Administrators lie with Union
Executive and not parliament. So, its union executive that may appoint the Governor of a State as the
Administrator of an adjoining Union territory.
Statement 2, Correct: As and when he has additional charge as Administrator, s/he holds the charge
independent of the original state’s council of ministers. Its because, territories of union territory and
state to which he was appointed is different.

Conversely, if a governor is appointed for two states, s/he conducts business of respective state based
on respective council of ministers’ advise.

30. Ans (b)

Explanation:
Unlike Rajya Sabha which is a permanent house, Lok Sabha is a house that has term or that can be
dissolved. So, bills that are introduced has validity in resonance with Lok Sabha.
Cases when a bill lapse:
1. A bill originated in the Lok Sabha but pending in the Lok Sabha.
2. A bill originated and passed by the Rajya Sabha but pending in Lok Sabha.
3. A bill originated and passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha. So, Statement 2 is
correct
4. A bill originated in the Rajya Sabha and returned to that House by the Lok Sabha with
amendments and still pending in the Rajaya Sabha on the date of the dissolution of Lok Sabha.
Cases when a bill does not lapse:
1. A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha but not passed by the Lok Sabha. So, Statement 4 is correct.
2. If the president has notified the holding of a joint sitting before the dissolution of Lok Sabha.
3.  A bill passed by both Houses but pending assent of the president.
4. A bill passed by both Houses but returned by the president for reconsideration of Parliament. So,
Statement 1 is correct.
5. Some pending bills and all pending assurances that are to be examined by the Committee on
Government Assurances do not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
Statement 3, incorrect: Proroguing is an act of ending the session and not dissolving the house. So,
what ends when prorogued is the business of the Lok Sabha/Rajya Sabha. It does not lapse a pending
bill. (eg) When term of 16 th Lok Sabha ended, 22 bills lapsed including ones that were introduced in
2016 & 2017.

31. Ans (d)

Explanation:
This committee was set up first in 1921 under the provisions of the Government of India Act of 1919
and has since been in existence. At present, it consists of 22 members (15 from the Lok Sabha and 7
from the Rajya Sabha). The members are elected by the Parliament every year from amongst its
members according to the principle of proportional representation by means of the single transferable
vote.
Statement 1, incorrect & 2 is correct: The function of the committee is to examine the annual audit
reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG), which are laid before the Parliament by
the President.
So, the reports that are laid in parliament are examined by PAC.
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Statement 3, incorrect: The CAG submits three audit reports to the President, namely, audit report on
appropriation accounts, audit report on finance accounts and audit report on public undertakings.
Scrutinising the estimates of different ministries is the work done by estimates committee.

32. Ans (a)

Explanation:
Developers have revolutionized the way people live and interact with virtually everyone and
everything. Where most people see challenges, developers see possibilities.
That’s why David Clark Cause launched Call for Code in 2018 alongside Founding Partner IBM.
This multi-year global initiative is a rallying cry to developers to use their skills and mastery of the
latest technologies, and to create new ones, to drive positive and long-lasting change across the world
with their code. The second annual Call for Code Challenge theme is natural disaster preparedness
and relief in the context of community health and well-being.

https://callforcode.org/

33. Ans (a)

Explanation:
Mission Olympic Cell has been constituted within Sports Authority of India to develop, implement and
monitor plans for achieving excellence in identified sports disciplines with monitor able targets and
outcomes. The terms of reference (ToR) can be seen at
http://www.sportsauthorityofindia.nic.in/showfile.asp?link_temp_id=2320

Statement 1, Correct: One of the ToR is recommend plan for athletes and teams identified under
Target Olympic Podium Scheme & National Sports Development Fund (NSDF). It included plan for
training, competition and exposure.
Statement 2, incorrect: The Chairman will be Director, Sport Authority of India.

34. Ans (d)

Explanation:
Article 368 described that if the bill seeks to amend the federal provisions of the Constitution, it must
also be ratified by the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority, that is, a majority of the
members of the House present and voting.
They are,
 Articles 54, 55 – These are regarding President
 Article 73 – Jurisdiction of union executive
 Union Judiciary / high courts
 Relating to recruitment in UPSC/SPCS. (Article 308-311).
 any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedule, or
 the representation of States in Parliament
So, all statements are correct.

35. Ans (b)

Explanation:
The procedure for an amendment to constitution is as laid down in Article 368 is as follows:

1. An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the
purpose in either House of Parliament and not in the state legislatures. So, Statement 1 is
incorrect.
2. The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require prior
permission of the president.
3. The bill must be passed in each House by a special majority, that is, a majority (that is, more than
50 per cent) of the total membership of the House and a majority of two-thirds of the members of
the House present and voting. So, Statement 2 is correct.

11
 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
4. Each House must pass the bill separately. In case of a disagreement between the two Houses,
there is no provision for holding a joint sitting of the two Houses for the purpose of deliberation
and passage of the bill.
5. If the bill seeks to amend the federal provisions of the Constitution, it must also be ratified by the
legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority, that is, a majority of the members of the
House present and voting.
6. After duly passed by both the Houses of Parliament and ratified by the state legislatures, where
necessary, the bill is presented to the president for assent.
7. The president must give his assent to the bill. He can neither withhold his assent to the bill nor
return the bill for reconsideration of the Parliament
8. After the president’s assent, the bill becomes an Act (i.e., a constitutional amendment act) and the
Constitution stands amended in accordance with the terms of the Act.

36. Ans (b)

Explanation:
The constitution of India has provided (in article 102) that a member of parliament will be disqualified
for membership if:
 He holds any office of profit under the Union or state government (except that of a minister or any
other office exempted by Parliament)
 He is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a court.
 He is an undischarged insolvent.
 He has ceased to be a citizen of India.
 He is disqualified under any other law by parliament (it has enumerated various grounds for
disqualification in Representation of People Act, 1951)
The question whether a member is subject to disqualification in all other matters except under 10th
schedule (disqualification) is decided by President. However, President should obtain the opinion of
the election commission before taking such decision.

37. Ans (c)

Explanation:
Statement 1, Correct: The origin of the second Chamber can be traced to the Montague-Chelmsford
Report of 1918. The Government of India Act, 1919 provided for the creation of a ‘Council of State’ as
a second chamber of the then legislature with a restricted franchise which actually came into
existence in 1921.
Statement 2, Correct: Special powers of Rajya Sabha
 If Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a majority of not less than two-thirds of members
present and voting saying that it is “necessary or expedient in the national interest” that
Parliament should make a law on a matter enumerated in the State List, Parliament becomes
empowered to make a law.  Such a resolution remains in force for a maximum period of one
year but this period can be extended by one year at a time by passing a similar resolution
further.

 If Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members
present and voting declaring that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest to create
one or more All India Services common to the Union and the States, Parliament becomes
empowered to create by law such services.

 If a Proclamation is issued at a time when Lok Sabha has been dissolved or the dissolution of
Lok Sabha takes place within the period allowed for its approval, then the proclamation
remains effective, if the resolution approving it is passed by Rajya Sabha within the period
specified in the Constitution under articles 352, 356 and 360

This speech of Mr Venkaiah Naidu is very thoughtful about Rajya Sabha and its relevance.
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=169880

12
 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
38. Ans (b)
Explanation:
Doctrine of federal supremacy is inherent in Article 254 & Article 251 which states that, in a situation
of conflict,
 Union law presides over state legislature’s law
 Union list presides over concurrent list
 Concurrent list presides over states’ list
 Union list presides over states’ list
This is because India has a strong centre.

39. Ans (c)

Explanation:
Farmers of India’s capital can lease out a portion of their agricultural land (max 1/3 rd) to private
establishments for setting up solar panels, which could potentially further their income. 

40. Ans (c)

Explanation:
Happiness Department – Madhya Pradesh
Happiness Curriculum – Newdelhi

This article gives you the importance of Happiness Curriculum - https://www.indiatoday.in/education-

today/news/story/here-s-how-happiness-curriculum-in-delhi-govt-schools-can-build-a-healthy-mind-
1311804-2018-08-11

41. Ans (a)

Explanation:
Budget 2018 amended the Central Road Fund Act, 2000, and renamed the Central Road Fund the
Central Road and Infrastructure Fund. (So it’s a statutory fund)

The objective of the amendment was to use proceeds of the road cess under CRIF to finance other
infrastructure projects such as waterways, some portion of the railway infrastructure and even social
infrastructure, including education institutions and medical colleges.

Statement 1, incorrect: Work related to the Central Road and Infrastructure Fund (CRIF) has been
taken away from the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways and brought under Department of
Economic Affairs (DEA), Finance Ministry,

Statement 2, Correct: Difference between a cess and a tax

 A cess is different from the usual taxes is imposed as an additional tax besides the existing tax
(tax on tax).
 Another difference between cess and the usual tax is the way in which tax revenue from cess
is kept.
o Revenue from main taxes like Personal Income taxes are kept at Consolidated Fund of
India (CFI). The government can use it for any purposes.
o But the tax revenue from Cess are first credited to the CFI and the Central
Government may, after due appropriation made by Parliament, utilise the money for
the specified purposes.

42. Ans (d)

Explanation:
In India we have a strong centre and holding together federalism. So, unlike USA, states in India donot
have extra territorial legislative power. So, Statement 2 is incorrect.
It’s the Parliament that has extra territorial power. So, Statement 2 is incorrect.

13
 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
(eg) to provide for comprehensive emigration management, Emigration Management Bill, 2019 has
been introduced in parliament. Same cannot be done by individual state legislatures.

43. Ans (b)

Explanation:
Statement 1, incorrect: In national interest, Rajya Sabha (Art 249) can enable parliament to legislate
on State subjects but this is valid for only one year after which the resolution lapses.

Statement 2, incorrect: During various types of emergencies, parliament’s power to enact laws is co
existent with the tenure of the emergency.
Statement 3, Correct: Article 252 – When two or more states deem fit that parliament needs to enact
a law on state subject; Parliament gets permanent power to enact law on state subjects. It will only be
applicable to states that have either passed or adopted that resolution (at a later date)
Statement 4, Correct: Article 253 – To implement a international treaty, parliament gets power to
enact laws irrespective of whether the subject lies in state list or concurrent list

44. Ans (c)

Explanation:
Statement 1, Correct: Executive power of Concurrent list usually lies with the state government.
Statement 2, Correct: Parliament though legislation can confer that power over union executive. This
is to uphold principles of uniformity.
(eg) Essential commodities Act, is part of concurrent list but the execution power is with Union.

45. Ans (a)

Explanation:
For such subjective question, its better to read from the texts of constitution and then arrive
Statement 3, correct: Article 262 bars the role of court in adjucating interstate water disputes, (ie)
bars court from hearing appeals against tribunal’s order. It is an entirely different scenario that SC has
used Article 136/Art 21 to hear these petitions. But, plain reading of constitution says courts cannot
interfere.
Statement 1,2,4, incorrect: In these cases the role of courts is not spelt out. For example, in Article
110 it says that Speakers decision is final but it doesnot say if courts cannot interfere.

46. Ans (c)

Explanation:
Statement 1, Correct: The idea of creation of Zonal Councils was mooted by the first Prime Minister of
India, Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru in 1956 when during the course of debate on the report of the States
Re-organisation Commission, he suggested that the States proposed to be reorganised may be
grouped into four or five zones having an Advisory Council 'to develop the habit of cooperative
working” among these Stat.
Statement 2, inorrect: In the light of the vision of Pandit Nehru, five Zonal Councils were set up vide
Part-III of the States Re-organisation Act, 1956. The present composition of each of these Zonal
Councils is as under:
 The Northern Zonal Council, comprising the States of Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu &
Kashmir, Punjab, Rajasthan, National Capital Territory of Delhi and Union Territory of Chandigarh;
 The Central Zonal Council, comprising the States of Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh and
Madhya Pradesh;
 The Eastern Zonal Council, comprising the States of Bihar, Jharkhand, Orissa, Sikkim and West
Bengal;
 The Western Zonal Council, comprising the States of Goa, Gujarat, Maharashtra and the Union
Territories of Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli;
 The Southern Zonal Council, comprising the States of Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil
Nadu and the Union Territory of Puducherry.
But, Interstate councils have the membership of Union territories. So, Statement 2 is incorrect.

14
 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
Statement 3, Correct: Members- Chief Minister and two other Ministers as nominated by the
Governor from each of the States and two members from Union Territories included in the zone.
https://mha.gov.in/division_of_mha/zonal-council

47. Ans (d)

Explanation:
Asymmetries means that different states are treated differently under different circumstances.

Features of asymmetric federalism

 Unequal representation in Rajya Sabha (ie) based on population
 Degree of autonomy – Art 370, 371, Schedule V, Schedule VI areas
So, Statement 1, 2 & 4 are correct
Loksabha is not a house of that represents federalism. So, here the focus is not on equality and quality
of representation. So, Statement 3 is incorrect.

48. Ans (a)

Explanation:
Statement 1, Correct: Earth Overshoot Day or Ecological Debt Day marks the date when humanity’s
demand for ecological resources and services in a given year exceeds what Earth can regenerate in
that year. We maintain this deficit by liquidating stocks of ecological resources and accumulating
waste, primarily carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.

Statement 2, incorrect: Earth Overshoot Day is hosted and calculated by Global Footprint Network &
World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF).

https://www.overshootday.org/about-earth-overshoot-day/

Global Footprint Network It is an international nonprofit organization founded in 2003 to enable a

sustainable future where all people have opportunity to thrive within the means of one planet.... 

49. Ans (c)

Explanation:
Statement 1, Correct: An intentionally or unintentionally introduced species that has adapted to and
reproduces successfully in its new environment.

Naturalised species reproduce naturally in the environments they colonise. Invasive species do this so
prolifically that they alter the workings of the natural ecosystems they colonise or invade.
Statement 2, Correct: India- the ‘hotspots’ of naturalised plant species:
 More than 13,000 plant species are now naturalised in ecosystems across the world due to human
activity; many of these later turn invasive and impact local flora and fauna.
 Last year, a study identified India as one of the ‘hotspots’ of naturalised plant species and among
the seven regions in the world that have the highest number of invasive species.
 The ENVIS Centre on Floral Diversity hosted by the BSI lists more than 170 invasive plant species in
India.
 At 332, Tamil Nadu has the highest number of naturalised exotics, followed by Kerala (290), while
Lakshadweep has the least (17).

50. Ans (a)

Explanation:
Statement 2, incorrect: The Global Tiger Initiative (GTI) was launched in 2008 as a global alliance of
governments, international organizations, civil society, the conservation and scientific communities
and the private sector, with the aim of working together to save wild tigers from extinction. In 2013,
the scope was broadened to include Snow Leopards. So, Statement 3 is incorrect

15
 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
Statement 1, Correct: The GTI’s founding partners included the World Bank, the Global Environment
Facility (GEF), the Smithsonian Institution, Save the Tiger Fund, and International Tiger Coalition
(representing more than 40 non-government organizations). The initiative is led by the 13 tiger range
countries (TRCs).

Addl Info: In November 2010, TRCs at International Tiger Forum in St. Petersburg adopted the St.
Petersburg Declaration on Tiger Conservation and endorsed its implementation mechanism, called
the Global Tiger Recovery Program.

51. Ans (c)

Explanation:
Statement 1, Correct: Ambubachi Mela is a four-day fair to mark the annual menstruation of the
goddess at Kamakhya temple, centre for Tantra worship.
Statement 2, Correct: Kamakhya, atop Nilachal Hills in Guwahati, is one of 51 shaktipeeths or seat of
Shakti followers, each representing a body part of Sati, Lord Shiva’s companion.

About Kamakhya Temple:

Kamakhya Temple denotes the spot where Sati used to retire in secret to satisfy her amour with Shiva,
and it was also the place where her yoni fell after Shiva danced with the corpse of Sati.

52. Ans (b)

Explanation:
A number of provisions in the Constitution can be amended by a simple majority of the two Houses of
Parliament outside the scope of Article 368. These provisions include:
1. Admission or establishment of new states.
2. Formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing states - So,
Statement 2 is correct
3. Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states.
4. Second Schedule—emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of the president, the governors,
the Speakers, judges, etc.
5. Quorum in Parliament.
6. Salaries and allowances of the members of Parliament.
7. Rules of procedure in Parliament.
8. Privileges of the Parliament, its members and its committees.
9. Use of English language in Parliament.
10. Number of puisne judges in the Supreme Court.
11. Conferment of more jurisdiction on the Supreme Court.
12. Use of official language.
13. Citizenship—acquisition and termination.
14. Elections to Parliament and state legislatures.
15. Delimitation of constituencies.
16. Union territories.
17. Fifth Schedule—administration of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes. So, Statement 1 is
correct.
18. Sixth Schedule—administration of tribal areas. So, Statement 1 is correct

Statement 3, incorrect: The Supreme Court held that the power of Parliament to diminish the area of
a state (under Article 3) does not cover cession of Indian territory to a foreign country. Hence, Indian
territory can be ceded to a foreign state only by amending the Constitution under Article 368.
Consequently, the 9th Constitutional Amendment Act (1960) was enacted to transfer the Berubari
Union territory to Pakistan(Berubari Union Case)

16
 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
53. Ans (c)
Explanation:
Article 329 states that in case of electoral disputes for parliament and state legislatures, an election
petition must be presented to an authority as decided by Parliament.

Statement 1, Correct: Accordingly Parliament enacted Representation of the People Act 1950 and
Representation of the People Act 1951.

It says the initial jurisdiction to deal with all doubts and disputes relating to the elections to Parliament
and State Legislatures vests in the High Court of the State concerned, with a right of appeal to the
Supreme Court. The disputed matters relating to elections to municipalities, etc. are decided by the
lower courts in accordance with the laws made by the respective State Governments.

Statement 2, Correct: Article 323B empowers Parliament to create tribunals to educate various
disputes. One of the disputes is Election dispute to Parliament & State assemblies.
54. Ans (a) CORRECT OPTIONS NEEDS TO BE MARKED IN KEY
Explanation:
There are certain kinds of bills which needs President’s prior assent for introduction in Parliament. The
intent behind this is that post passage of bill, President must not hold up these bills.
 Bills that amend Schedule 1 (via Article 3 ). So, Statement 1 is correct.
 Money bill as mentioned in Article 110. So, Statement 2 is correct.
 Any bill which affects the taxation in which the states are interested (Article 274). This is
applicable for state legislatures but not for parliament. So, Statement 3 is incorrect.
 State Bills which impose restriction upon freedom of trade (Article 304)

Constitutional amendment bills don’t require the prior approval of president. So, Statement 4 is
incorrect.

55. Ans (c)

Explanation:
Motions
Simply put, motions are proposals with the aim of making the members deliberate on the issue at
hand. By issue we mean any Business that needs to be transacted in Parliament.

Resolutions
A resolution, on the other hand, is a motion that has been passed by the members. Technically, a
motion that is passed by majority of the members present and voting becomes a resolution. So,
Statement 2 is correct.

Difference
 A motion is a proposal from a member whereas a resolution reflects the general opinion of the
house
 Generally speaking, not all motions can be resolutions but all resolutions come from motions. So,
Statement 1 is correct.

More @ https://rajyasabha.nic.in/rsnew/practice_procedure/book7.asp

56. Ans (a)

Explanation:
Supreme Court shall, the exclusion of any other court, have original jurisdiction in any dispute
• Between the Government of India and one or more states
• Between the Government of India and any state or states or one side and one or more other states
on the other

17
 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
• Between two or more states & this includes inter state water disputes. What Article 262 bars is
interference of courts in orders of tribunals. So, Statement 3 is correct.
• Transfer of cases between courts. So, Statement 1 is correct
• Writs to enforce fundamental rights. So, Statement 4 is correct
This Jurisdiction does not extend
 To treaties signed before the commencement of the constitution
 Matters referred to the finance commission (Art. 280); So, Statement 2 is incorrect
 Adjustment of finances between the union and states (Art. 290); and
 Reference to the Supreme Court under Article 131 read with Article 363 (1).

57. Ans (d)

Explanation:
President if he feels that any public importance will be solved or any matter that needs legal opinion
of SC, s/he can refer it to Supreme Court (via Attorney general). Supreme Court conducts this as a case
itself.
Statement 2, Correct: SC while reviewing the reference from President can either take it up or reject
the same.
Statement 1, Correct: Since it comes under advisory jurisdiction of the court, its judgements are not
binding on courts.
Statement 3, Correct: On a reference from former President K.R. Narayanan, the Supreme Court in 3rd
Judges case reviewed its decision in 2 nd Judges Case. So, The decisions by SC are open to
reconsideration under Article 143.

58. Ans (d)

Explanation:
The Chhau is a blend of folk, tribal and martial arts. ‘Chhau’ – is derived from the Sanskrit
word ‘Chaaya’, meaning Shadow, image or mask. Chhau dance is a tradition from eastern India that
enacts episodes from epics including the Mahabharata and Ramayana, local folklore and abstract
themes. Its three distinct styles hail from the regions of Seraikella, Purulia and Mayurbhanj, the first
two using masks.
Statement 1, Correct: Inscribed in 2010 on the Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage
of Humanity
Statement 3, Correct: Chhau dance is intimately connected to regional festivals, notably the spring
festival Chaitra Parva
Statement 3, Correct: The Chau mask of Purulia, the wooden mask of Kushmandi, the Patachitra, the
Dokras of Bengal, and Madhurkathi (a kind of mat) have been presented with the Geographical
Indication (GI) tag by the Geographical Indication Registry and Intellectual Property India.

A Chauu Mask
59. Ans (c)
Explanation:

18
 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
Statement 1, Correct: National Health Resource Repository (NHRR) - Country’s first ever national
healthcare facility registry of authentic, standardized and updated geo-spatial data of all public and
private healthcare establishments. 
Statement 2, Correct: The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is the project technology
partner for providing data security.
This resource repository shall enable advanced research towards ongoing and forthcoming healthcare
challenges arising from other determinants of health such as disease and the environment.

60. Ans (a)

Explanation:
Statement 1, Correct: A high court has the power of superintendence over all courts and tribunals
functioning in its territorial jurisdiction (except military courts or tribunals).
This power of superintendence of a high court is very broad because, it extends to all courts and
tribunals whether they are subject to the appellate jurisdiction of the high court or not - Statement 2,
incorrect:
 it covers not only administrative superintendence but also judicial superintendence;
 it is a revisional jurisdiction; and
 it can be suo-motu (on its own)

61. Ans (b)

Explanation:
Article 102 gives Parliament the power to prescribe the grounds for disqualification for MPs & MLAs.
Hence, Parliament enacted Representation of People’s Act 1951. The grounds for disqualification are,
 He must not have been convicted by a court of any offence and sentenced to imprisonment for a
period of more than two years.
 He must not have been found guilty by a court or on election tribunal of certain election or
corrupt practices in the elections.
 He must not have been dismissed for corruption or disloyalty from government services.
 He must not have failed to lodge on his election expenses within time and in a manner prescribed
by law.
 He must not have any interest in government contracts, execution of government work or
services.
 He must not be a director or managing agent nor hold an office of profit under any corporation in
which the government has any financial interest.

62. Ans (b)

Explanation:
Special powers of Rajya Sabha
 If Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a majority of not less than two-thirds of members
present and voting saying that it is “necessary or expedient in the national interest” that
Parliament should make a law on a matter enumerated in the State List, Parliament becomes
empowered to make a law.  Such a resolution remains in force for a maximum period of one
year but this period can be extended by one year at a time by passing a similar resolution
further.
 If Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members
present and voting declaring that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest to create
one or more All India Services common to the Union and the States, Parliament becomes
empowered to create by law such services. So ,Statement 2 is correct
 If a Proclamation is issued at a time when Lok Sabha has been dissolved or the dissolution of
Lok Sabha takes place within the period allowed for its approval, then the proclamation
remains effective, if the resolution approving it is passed by Rajya Sabha within the period
specified in the Constitution under articles 352, 356 and 360.

Statement 3, incorrect: Discontinuation of National emergency is a special power of Lok Sabha where
in members can move a resolution for discountinuation of Emergency. So,
19
 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
Statement 1, incorrect: The power to abolish legislative councils lies with parliament and its not
exclusive to either of the houses.

63. Ans (a)

Explanation:
Statement 1, Correct: One of the special powers of Rajya Sabha under Article 249 is to enable
Parliament to enact laws on State subject if National interest is served. Such a resolution has to be
passed with special majority.
Statement 3, incorrect: Such resolution remains in force for a period of one year post which the
special power of Parliament lapses. But, this special power can again be enabled by Rajya Sabha by
passing another resolution.

Law made during this period remains in force for maximum of 6 months after the resolution lapses.
During these 6 months, respective state legislatures may adopt/reject/amend and adopt the law made
by Parliament.
Statement 3, incorrect: The special power bestowed upon Parliament doesn’t debar State legislatures
to make laws on those state subjects. But, doctrine of federal supremacy will kick in.

64. Ans (b)

Explanation:
MLCs are chosen in the following manner:
 One third are elected by members of local bodies such as municipalities, gram sabhas/gram
panchayats, panchayat samitis and Zila Parishads. So, Statement 1&2 is correct.
 One third are elected by members of Legislative Assemblies of the State from among the persons
who are not members of the Assembly. So, Statement 4 is correct.
 One sixth are nominated by the governor from persons having knowledge or practical experience
in fields such as literature, science, arts, the co-operative movement and social service.
 One twelfth are elected by persons who are graduates of three years' standing residing in that
state.
 One twelfth are elected by persons engaged for at least three years in teaching in  educational
institutions within the state not lower than secondary schools, including colleges and universities.
So, Statement 3 is incorrect as teachers below the rank of secondary schools are not electors.

MPs from State don’t participate in the elections to State Legislative Council. So, Statement 5 is
incorrect.

65. Ans (d)

Explanation:
Parliamentary privilege refers to rights and immunities enjoyed by Parliament as an institution and
MPs in their individual capacity, without which they cannot discharge their functions as entrusted
upon them by the Constitution. 
The sum and substance for such privileges is that supremacy of parliament as highest body of
deliberation needs to be upheld.

66. Ans (c)

Explanation:
Statement 1, Correct: Bharosa – Support Center for Women & Children is intended to support women
affected by violence, in private and public spaces, within the family, community and at the workplace.
Women facing physical, sexual, emotional, psychological and economic abuse, irrespective of age,
class, caste, education status, marital status, race and culture will be facilitated with support and
Redressal. It is being run by Hyderabad City Police.

Statement 2, Correct: UNDP is going to set up skill development centre for clients of Bharosa, an
integrated support centre for distressed women and children in Hyderabad. This centre will be set up

20
 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
in line with agreement signed between Hyderabad Police and UNDP under Disha project to build
capacities and skills of women affected by violence to help make them economically self-sufficient.

67. Ans (a)

Explanation:
Statement 1, Correct: The Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS), headquartered in Tashkent,
Uzbekistan, is a permanent organ of the SCO which serves to promote cooperation of member states
against the three evils of terrorism, separatism and extremism. The Head of RATS is elected to a three-
year term. Each member state also sends a permanent representative to RATS. So, Statement 2 is
incorrect.

In this fifth edition of SCO Peace Mission Exercise where India & Pakistan participated for the first
time, the focus was on conduct of counter terrorist operations in a multinational joint service
environment.

68. Ans (b)

Explanation:
The First Reading consists of the Introduction of a Bill.  The Bill is introduced after adoption of a
motion for leave to introduce a Bill in either of the House.  Then the bill is published in gazette. With
the setting up of the Department-related Parliamentary Standing Committees, invariably all Bills,
barring Ordinance replacing Bills; Bills of innocuous nature and Money Bills, are referred to the these
Committees for examination and report within three months. So, Statements 1 & 3 are correct.

Scrutiny of bill belongs to second stage. So, Statement 2 is incorrect.

https://rajyasabha.nic.in/rsnew/legislation/introduction.asp

69. Ans (a)

Explanation:
Statement 1, Correct: The concept of office of profit has evolved in England to preserve the
independence of the legislature by keeping the members away from any temptations from the
executive that can come in the way of independent discharge of their duties. It also seeks to enforce
the principle of separation of power between the legislative, the judiciary and the executive – a basic
feature of the Constitution.
Statement 2, incorrect: MPLADS scheme under MoSPI is to facilitate the local projects which a MP
feels is important for socio economic development.
Statement 3, incorrect:  The anti-defection law sought to prevent such political defections which may
be due to reward of office or other similar considerations. It seeks to provide stable government.

70. Ans (c)

Explanation:
Statement 1, Correct: Indian constitution is a rigid constitution because it has strenuous procedures
for its amendment
 Requirement of special majority
 Requirement of ratification of half of states for federal features
Statement 2, Correct: At the same time, Indian constitution is called flexible because certain features,
 Amendments to Article 2, Article 3 donot require special majority and they are not called as
amendments under Article 368
 Creation and abolition of legislative council though a federal feature can be done by simple
majority
 Non self self executoty fundamental rights can be supplemented by simple laws

71. Ans (c)

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 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
Explanation:
1. Where an application is made (not being an illegal migrant) under naturalisation is deemed
acceptable if he/she fulfils the following criteria: 
2. He/she has either resided in India or been in the service of a Government in India or partly
the one and partly the other, throughout the period of 12 months immediately preceding the
date of the application. 
II. During the fourteen years immediately preceding the said period of twelve months, he/ she
has either resided in India or been in the service of a Government of India, or partly the one
and partly the other, for periods amounting in the aggregate to not less than eleven years. 
3. He/ She is of a good character. 
4. He/ She have an adequate knowledge of a language specified in the Eighth Schedule to the
Constitution.  So, Statement 2 is correct.
5. Declaration and Oath of allegiance as specified in the form to be made before the offices
specified in the Citizenship Rules, 1955 i.e. Collector/ DM/ DC. So, Statement 1 is correct.

72. Ans (a)

Explanation:
One of the primary conditions of Fundamental Rights is that it must be uniform across the territory of
India. To ensure this, only Parliament (Refer Article 35) has been given power to enable non-
selfexecutory fundamental rights. (eg) To enable Article 17, Parliament has enacted Protection of Civil
Rights Act, 1955; Prevention of SC/ST Attrocities Act.
But to enable preventive detention under Article 22, both Parliament and State legislatures have
concurrent power.

73. Ans (c)

Explanation:
The Inland Waterways Authority of India proposes to develop a “freight village” in Varanasi. The
objective of the project is to support economic development in the hinterland of the multimodal
terminal at Varanasi and reduce logistics cost in the Eastern Transport Corridor and its influence zone. 
Statement 1, Correct: It envisages establishment of multimodal logistics hub in Varanasi to promote
the use of waterway transport on river Ganga (NW-1) between Haldia and Varanasi and of rail
transport on Eastern Dedicated Freight Corridor (EDFC) in the North bound direction which facilitates
movement of freight from road to water and rail. So, it can attract freight forwarders, cargo handling
companies, shipping lines to set up shops to provide logistics services.

 High speed connectivity to key ports and Industrial Centres;

 Lower cost of supplying goods - faster freight operations & removal of multiple handling costs;
 Improved service quality;
 Real time freight tracking and data analysis;
 Single-point   solution   to   all   logistics   need   like   loading/aggregation/packaging/ storage;
 Speedy access to ports from hinterland;
 Economy of scale in supply chain operations with reduced cost and time of operations; - So,
Statement 2 is correct
 Last mile gateway port connectivity from the hinterland;
 Contain unorganized growth of container freight stations.

74. Ans (a)

Explanation:
Another name of River Yamuna is Asita. The Yamuna River Front Development (RFD) project is also
been named as Asita. The Yamuna RFD project being implemented by Delhi Development Authority
(DDA).Yamuna RFD project aims to restore, revive and rejuvenate the river’s floodplains and make
them accessible to the people of Delhi.

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 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
River Front “walks”, a major component of the project, will enable people to develop a relationship
with river Yamuna. The project envisages creating a green buffer area approx. 300mts wide along the
river edge with species of riverine ecology. Besides, a wide belt of 150mts along the peripheral roads
will be developed as greenways for public amenities that will include a continuous trail of pathways
and cycle tracks.

75. Ans (a)

Explanation:
Statement 2, incorrect: The Global Fuel Economy Initiative (GFEI) works to secure real improvements
in fuel economy, and the maximum deployment of vehicle efficiency technologies across the world.
This includes light and heavy duty vehicles, and the full range of technologies, including hybrid and
fully electric vehicles.
Its aim is to double efficiency of new cars by 2030 and all vehicles by 2050.
Statement 1, Correct: GFEI is a partnership of the International Energy Agency (IEA), United Nations
Environment Programme (UNEP), International Transport Forum of the OECD (ITF), International
Council on Clean Transportation (ICCT), Institute for Transportation Studies at UC Davis, and the FIA
Foundation – which hosts the secretariat.

76. Ans (b)

Explanation:
Statement 1, incorrect: The Gravity Recovery and Climate Experiment Follow-On (GRACE-FO) mission
is a partnership between NASA and the German Research Centre for Geosciences (GFZ).   GRACE-FO is
a successor to the original GRACE mission, which orbited Earth from 2002-2017
Statement 2, Correct: GRACE-FO, which launched May 22, 2018, will continue the work of tracking
Earth's water movement to monitor changes in underground water storage, the amount of water in
large lakes and rivers, soil moisture, ice sheets and glaciers, and sea level caused by the addition of
water to the ocean.

https://gracefo.jpl.nasa.gov/mission/overview/

77. Ans (b)

Explanation:
Statement 1, incorrect: The Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental
Duties are sections of the Constitution of India that prescribe the fundamental obligations of the
states to its citizens and the duties and the rights of the citizens to the State. This was drafted by
Swaran Singh Committee.
FD is an inspiration from Russian Constitution which was the only democratic country to have FD
Statement 2, Correct: Incidentally, two of committee’s recommendations – to vote compulsorily & to
pay taxes were not part of 42nd Amendment.

78. Ans (d)

Explanation:
Statement 1, Correct: Article 2 provides for external admission of new territories into territory of
India. Thus, being a sovereign State India can acquire foreign territory.
Statement 2, incorrect: Article 1(1) states that India, that is Bharat, shall be union of India. Thus, there
is no classification of territories.
https://indiankanoon.org/doc/1406924/

Statement 3, Correct: 100th CAA is an example of this. India and Bangladesh had exchanged enclaves
within their country and this was settled by passing 100 th Constitutional Amendment Act.

79. Ans (c)

Explanation:

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 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
Statement 1, Correct: One of the conditions for office of President is that he must be a Citizen of
India. Unlike USA which allows only Citizens by Birth the opportunity to run for President, in India
even naturalised person can run for office of President.
Statement 2, Correct: Some of the public offices where Indian Citizenship is a must include

 President
 Vice President
 MPS/MLAs
 Panchayat leaders
 Judges of high court and supreme court

80. Ans (b)

Explanation:
The table gives FRs available to Indians only and to foreigners as well.
FRs to only Indians FRs to both Indians and Foreigners
Article 15 Article 14
Article 16 Article 20
Article 19 Article 21, 21A
Article 29 Article 22-23
Article 30 Article 24-28

81. Ans (c)

Explanation:
Both the statements are incorrect. Infact the statements are interchanged

82. Ans (b)

Explanation:
In its efforts to make the state known for its adventure tourism too, Madhya Pradesh Tourism
overhauled the unexplored and untouched Hanuwantiya Island and turned it into a small city in itself.
A tent city, where people can rejuvenate and relax while at the same time be adventurous! The
activities are divided into air, land and water activities.
In a short time span, Jal Mahotsav has become a very important event of Madhya Pradesh Tourism.
More and more people are coming over to Jal Mahotsav to discover a completely new face of the
state.

83. Ans (d)

Explanation:
Sammakka Saralamma Jatara or Medaram Jatara is a tribal festival of honouring the goddesses
celebrated in the state of Telangana, India. It commemorates the fight of a mother and daughter,
Sammakka and Saralamma, with the reigning rulers against an unjust law. It is believed that after
Kumbha Mela, the Medaram jatara attracts the largest number of devotees in the country.
Statement 1, Correct: In 1998 the state government declared the 1000-yr old festival as official and
laid down a motorable road.This fair is said to be the largest repeating congregation of tribal
communities in the world. In 2012, approximately 1 crore people would attend the world's largest
tribal festival.
Statement 2, Correct: It is held for 4 days and once in 2 years
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 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY

Statement 3, Correct: The Jatra begins at Medaram in Tadvai Mandal in Warangal district. Medaram is
a remote place in the Eturnagaram Wildlife Sanctuary, a part of Dandakaranya, the largest surviving
forest belt in the country.

84. Ans (d)

Explanation:
Article 13 speaks for judicial review by Supreme Court to strike down “laws” inconsistent with
Fundamental Rights. What constitutes “law” is,
 Ordinance, order, bye law,
 rule, regulation, notification, custom or usages
 laws passed or made by Legislature or other competent before the commencement of this
Constitution
 Any law made by State assemblies and parliament
 All laws that were enacted before enforcement of Constitution
So, Statement 1, 2 & 3 are wrong.
Statement 4, Correct: But this doesot include Constitutional amendment acts (Article 13(4)).

85. Ans (a)

Explanation:
The framers of the Constitution made the Directive Principles nonjusticiable and legally non-
enforceable because:
Statement 1 & 3, Correct: The country did not possess sufficient financial resources to implement
them.
Statement 2, Correct: The presence of vast diversity and backwardness in the country would stand in
the way of their implementation.
3. The newly born independent Indian State with its many preoccupations might be crushed under the
burden unless it was free to decide the order, the time, the place and the mode of fulfilling them.
Statement 4, incorrect: Strained centre – State relations is not a reason for ineffective
implementation. It is because, in India we have a strong centre.

86. Ans (a)

Explanation:
A V Dicey in his book The Law of the Constitution (1885) has given the following three implications of
the doctrine of rule of law.
Statement 1, Correct: Absence of arbitrary power, that is, no man is punished except for a breach of
law.
Statement 2, incorrect: Unlike the western constitutions, in India, the Constitution is the source of
rights for the people and not the other way.
Other feature: Equality before the law, that is, equal subjection of all citizens (rich or poor, high or
low, official or non official) to the ordinary law of the land administered by the ordinary law courts

87. Ans (c)

Explanation:
The Constituent Assembly was constituted in November 1946 under the scheme formulated by the
Cabinet Mission Plan. The features of the scheme were:

a. The total strength of the Constituent Assembly was to be 389. Of these, 296 seats were to be
allotted to British India and 93 seats to the Princely States. Out of 296 seats allotted to the
British India, 292 members were to be drawn from the eleven governors province and four
from the four chief commissioners provinces, one from each.

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 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
b. Each province and princely state (or group of states in case of small states) was to be allotted
seat in proportion to their respective population. Roughly, one seat was to be allotted for
every million Population. So, Statement 1 is correct.

c. Seats allocated to each British province were to be divided among the three principal
communities—Muslims, Sikhs and general (all except Muslims and Sikhs), in proportion to
their population. So, Statement 2 is correct

d. The representatives of each community were to be elected by members of that community in

the provincial legislative assembly and voting was to be by the method of proportional
representation b means of single transferable vote.

e. The representatives of princely states were to be nominated by the heads of the princely
states.

88. Ans (a)

Explanation:
eSamvad is an initiative of the Ministry of Women and Child Development to provide a platform for
NGOs and civil society to interact with the Ministry on relevant subjects.
Through e-Samvad portal, NGOs and civil society can provide their feedback, suggestions, put up
grievances, share best practices etc. Senior Officers within MWCD will be able to view the
inputs/suggestions received for their concerned subject areas and appropriately respond to NGOs.
This will help in formulation of effective policies and measures for welfare of women and children.

89. Ans (a)

Explanation:
In Berumari Union Case, Supreme Court opined that Preamble is not part and parcel of the
constitution. But in Kesavananda Bharti Case, preamble reversed this decision. Following are the
inferences of this,
 Preamble is part of Constitution
 Preamble can be amended by Parliament
 It doesnot provide a legal framework
 Preamble is neither source of power not limitation upon legislature. So, Statement 2 is
incorrect
 It neither imposes any duty
 It helps in interpreting laws and constitution itself
 Preamble is neither enforceable nor justifiable in court of law. This implies that courts cannot
pass orders against the government in India to implement the ideas in the Preamble. So ,
Statement 1 is correct

90. Ans (c)

Explanation:
The Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of fundamental rights under Article 32,
whereas, the High Courts can issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights as well as for any
other purpose i.e. enforcement of ordinary legal rights as well.
Statement 1, Correct: Since, FR writs can be issued by both HC/SC, HC can refuse to entertain writs
under Article 32. Once HC refuses, people can file them at SC. But, the same is not applicable to SC
because there is no remedy beyond SC.
Statement 2, Correct: Article 32 empowers Parliament to bestow powers upon other courts to issue
writs. But, has not been used as yet.

91. Ans (d)

Explanation:

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 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
Statement 1, Correct: EQUALITY of status and of opportunity; FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the
individual can be interpreted as one which protects the dignity of women.
Statement 2, Correct: Article 23 which speaks of prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced
labour has been interpreted against continuation of devadasi system which was against the dignity of
women.
Statement 3, Correct: Article 51(A)(e) speaks to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of
women.

92. Ans (c)

Explanation:
Statement 1, Correct: Article 15 says that there cannot be discrimination based on religion, race,
caste, sex, place of birth or any of them in accessing shops or common utilities maintained by State
Statement 2, Correct:  Article 16 says that in matters of public employment, there cannot be
discrimination based on on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, residence
or any of them

93. Ans (d)

Explanation:
Writs Against whom it can be issued
Heabus Corpus person, Private or official
Mandamus public body, a corporation, an inferior court, a
tribunal or government
Prohibition Higher court to the lower court 
Certiorati Judicial, quasi judicial and administrative
Quo Warranto Individual holding public office but not to private
office or ministerial office

94. Ans (a)

Explanation:
Democracy is not a precondition for prosperity – both economic and social. This can be deduced via
two arguments
 All countries that are democracy are not prosperous – (eg) Pakistan, many African nations
 Countries that are not democracies are not poor (economically) – (eg) Saudi Arabia, Cuba

95. Ans (b)

Explanation:
Self Explanatory

96. Ans (d)

Explanation:
Article 20 grants protection against arbitrary and excessive punishment to an accused person,
whether citizen or foreigner or legal person like a company or a corporation. It says,
 No expost facto law
 No double jeopardy: No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more
than once
o The protection against double jeopardy is available only in proceedings before a court
of law or a judicial tribunal. In other words, it is not available in proceedings before
departmental or administrative authorities as they are not of judicial nature. So,
Statement 3 is correct
 No self incrimination
Self incrimination: No person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against
himself
Statement 1, Correct: The protection against self-incrimination extends to both oral evidence and
documentary evidence.

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 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
However, it does not extend to
 compulsory production of material objects,
 compulsion to give thumb impression, specimen signature, blood specimens, and
 compulsory exhibition of the body. Further, it extends only to criminal proceedings and not to
civil proceedings or proceedings which are not of criminal nature. So, Statement 2 is correct

97. Ans (a)

Explanation:
Article 23 speaks of prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
Statement 1, Correct: Traffic in human beings and begar and other similar forms of forced labour are
prohibited and any contravention of this provision shall be an offence punishable in accordance with
law
Statement 2, incorrect: Further it states that nothing in this article shall prevent the State from
imposing compulsory service for public purpose. The only condition is that there can be no
discrimination on grounds only of religion, race, caste or class or any of them

98. Ans (c)

Explanation:
Statement 1, incorrect: The Central Council of Local Government was set up in 1954. It was
constituted under Article 263 of the Constitution of India by an order of the President of India.
Statement 2, incorrect: Till 1958, it dealt with both urban as well as rural local governments, but after
1958 it has been dealing with matters of urban local government only.
Statement 3 & 4, incorrect: The Council is an advisory body. It consists of the Minister for Urban
Development in the Government of India and the ministers for local self government in states.

The Union minister acts as the Chairman of the Council. Functions of the council includes,
1. Considering and recommending the policy matters.
2. Making proposals for legislation.
3. Examining the possibility of cooperation between the Centre and the states.
4. Drawing up a common programme of action.
5. Recommending Central financial assistance.
6. Reviewing the work done by the local bodies with the Central financial assistance.

99. Ans (d)

Explanation:
The 69th Constitutional Amendment Act of 19915 provided a special status to the Union Territory of
Delhi, and redesignated it the National Capital Territory of Delhi. The special provisions are,
 The strength of the assembly is fixed at 70 members, directly elected by the people. So,
Statement 1 is correct.
 The assembly can make laws on all the matters of the State List and the Concurrent List except
the three matters of the State List, that is, public order, police and land.
 The strength of the council of ministers is fixed at ten per cent of the total strength of the
assembly, that is, seven—one chief minister and six other ministers.
 The chief minister is appointed by the President (not by the lt. governor). The other ministers
are appointed by the president on the advice of the chief minister. The ministers hold office
during the pleasure of the president. So, Statement 2 is correct.
 In brief, in case of failure of constitutional machinery, the president can impose his rule in the
territory.
 The lt. governor is empowered to promulgate ordinances during recess of the assembly. But,
he cannot promulgate an ordinance when the assembly is dissolved or suspended. So,
Statement 3 is correct
100. Ans (d)
Explanation:
Article 244 describes certain areas as “Scheduled Areas(SA)” and “Tribal areas(TA)”

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 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
 Declaration of SA is done by President whereas Tribal Areas are described in Constitution itself
(ie) Meghalaya, Assam, Tripura, Mizoram. Governor is empowered to organise and reorganise
these areas.

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