MCQ Bank

Tariffs and Economic Considerations 2007
(i) the kVA rating of the capacitor bank,

(ii) the capacitance of each limb of the capacitor bank connected in delta,
(iii) the capacitance of each capacitor, if each one of the limbs of the delta-connected capacitor
bank is formed by using 6 similar 3300-V capacitors.
[(i) 183.33 kVAR (ii) 17,86 µF (iii) 2.977 µF] (Util. of Elect. Power, AMIE)
13. A system is working at its maximum kVA capacity with a lagging power factor of 0.71. An antici-
pated increase of load could be met by
(i) raising the power factor of the system to 0.87 by the installation of phase advancers,
(ii) installing extra generating plant, cables etc. to meet the increased power demand.
Estimate the limiting cost per kVA of phase advancing plant which would justify its use if the cost
for generating plant is Rs. 60 per kVA. Interest and depreciation charges may be assumed to be 1%
in each case. [Rs. 36.5] (Util. of Elect. Power, AMIE)
14. A consumer requires an induction motor of 36.775 kW. He is offered two motors of the following
specifications :
Motor A : efficiency 88% and p.f. = 0.9 Motor B : efficiency 90% and p.f. = 0.81
The consumer is being charged on a two-part tariff of Rs. 70 per kVA of the maximum demand plus
5 paise per unit. The motor (B) power factor is raised to 0.89 by installing capacitors. The motor B
costs Rs. 150 less than A .
The cost of capacitor is Rs.60 per kVAR. Determine which motor is more economical and by how
much. Assume rate of interest and depreciation as 10% and working hours of motors as 2400 hours
in a year. [Motor B, Rs. 111.10] (Power Systems-II, AMIE)
15. A 250-V, 7.46 kW motor is to be selected for a workshop from two motors A and B. The cost of
each motor is same but the losses at full load are different as given below :
Motor A Motor B
Stray loss 1000 W 900 W
Shunt field loss 250 W 200 W
Armature copper loss 300 W 450 W
The motor has to work on full-load for 8 hours, half-load for 4 hours and quarter load for 4 hours
each day. Which motor should be selected ? [Motor B] (Util. of Elect. Power AMIE)
16. What is load duration curve? (Anna University, April 2002)
17. How will you classify loads? (Anna University, April 2002)
18. Why should there be diversity? (Anna University, April 2002)
19. Define load factor. (Anna University, April 2002)
20. What is M.D.? (Anna University, April 2002)
21. Distinguish between a base load plant and a peak load plant. (Anna University, April 2002)
OBJECTIVE TESTS – 50
1. While calculating the cost of electric power gen- (c) average maximum demand over a definite
eration, which of the following is NOT consid- interval of time during a certain period.
ered a fixed cost ? (d) average power demand during an interval
(a) interest on capital investment of 1-minute.
(b) taxes and insurance 3. A diversity factor of 2.5 gives a saving of
(c) most of the salaries and wages ............. percent in the generating equipment.
(d) repair and maintenance. (a) 60
2. Maximum demand of an installation is given (b) 50
by its (c) 40
(a) instantaneous maximum demand (d) 25.
(b) greatest average power demand
2008 Electrical Technology
4. Mark the WRONG statement. 11. Diversity factor is always

High load factor of a generating equipment (a) equal to unity
(a) leads to lesser charges per kWh (b) less than unity
(b) implies lower diversity in demand (c) more than unity
(c) gives more profit to the owner (e) more than twenty
12. Load factor for heavy industries may be taken
(d) can be obtained by accepting off-peak
loads. as
(a) 10 to 20%
5. In a generating station, fixed, charges at 100%
load factor are 6 paise/kWh. With 25% load (b) 25 to 40%
factor, the charges would become ............... (c) 50 to 70%
paise/kWh. (d) 70 to 80%
(a) 1.5 13. The load factor of domestic load is usually
(a) 10 to 15%
(b) 10
(b) 30 to 40%
(c) 24
(c) 50 to 60%
(d) 3
(d) 60 to 70%
6. When considering the economics of power 14. Annual depreciation cost is calculated by
transmission, Kelvin's law is used for finding
(a) sinking fund method
the
(b) straight line method
(a) cost of energy loss in bare conductors
(c) both (a) and (b)
(b) most economical cross-section of the con (d) none of the above
ductors 15. Depreciation charges are high in case of
(c) interest on capital cost of the conductor (a) thermal plant
(d) the maximum voltage drop in feeders. (b) diesel plant
7. A 3-phase balanced system working at 0.9 (c) hydroelectric plant
lagging power factor has a line loss of 3600 16. Demand factor is defined as
kW. If p.f. is reduced to 0.6, the line loss would (a) average load/maximum load
become ........................ kW. (b) maximum demand/connected load
(a) 8100 (c) connected load/maximum demand
(b) 1600 (d) average load × maximum load
(c) 5400 17. High load factor indicates
(d) 2400. (a) cost of generation per unit power is
8. Mark the WRONG statement. increased
While considering power factor improvement, (b) total plant capacity is utilised for most of
the most economical angle of lag depends on the time
the (c) total plant capacity is not properly
(a) cost/kVA rating of phase advancer utilised for most of the time
(b) rate of interest on capital outlay (d) none of the above
(c) rate of depreciation 18. A load curve indicates
(d) value of original lagging p.f. angle. (a) average power used during the period
(b) average kWh (kW) energy consumption
9. Load factor of a power station is defined as
during the period
(a) maximum demand / average load
(c) either of the above
(b) average load × maximum demand
(d) none of the above
(c) average load / maximum demand
19. Approximate estimation of power demand can
(d) (average load × maximum demand)½ be made by
10. Load factor of a power station is generally (a) load survey method
(a) equal to unity (b) statistical methods
(b) less than unity (c) mathematical method
(c) more than unity (d) economic parameters
(d) equal to zero (e) all of the above
20. Annual depreciation as per straight line method, 28. Following power plant has instant starting
is calculated by (a) nuclear power plant
(a) the capital cost divided by number of year (b) hydro power plant
of life (c) both (a) and (b)
(b) the capital cost minus the salvage value, (d) none of the above
is divided by the number of years of life 29. Which of the following generating station has
(c) increasing a uniform sum of money per minimum running cost?
annum at stipulated rate of interest (a) Nuclear
(d) none of the above (b) Hydro
21. A consumer has to pay lesser fixed charges in (c) Thermal
(a) flat rate tariff (d) Diesel
(b) two part tariff 30. Power plant having maximum demand more
(c) maximum demand tariff than the installed rated capacity will have
(d) any of the above utilisation factor
22. In two part tariff, variation in load factor will (a) equal to unity
affect (b) less than unity
(a) fixed charges (c) more than unity
(b) operating or running charges (d) none of the above
(c) both (a) and (b) 31. Load curve is useful in deciding the
(d) either (a) & (b) (a) operating schedule of generating units
23. In Hopkinson demand rate or two part tariff (b) sizes of generating units
the demand rate for fixed charges are (c) total installed capacity of the plant
(a) dependent upon the energy consumed (d) all of the above
(b) dependent upon the maximum demand of 32. Load curve of a power plant has always
the consumer (a) zero slope
(c) both (a) and (b) (b) positive slope
(d) neither (a) and (b) (c) negative slope
24. Which plant can never have 100 percent load (d) any combination of (a), (b) and (c)
factor? 33. Annual operating expenditure of a power plant
(a) Peak load plant consists of
(b) Base load plant (a) fixed charges
(c) Nuclear power plant (b) semi-fixed charges
(d) Hydro electric plant (c) running charges
25. The area under a load curve gives (d) all of the above
(a) average demand 34. Maximum demand on a power plant is
(b) energy consumed (a) the greatest of all ‘‘short time interval
(c) maximum demand averaged’’ demand during a period
(d) none of the above (b) instantaneous maximum value of kVA
26. Different generating stations use following supplied during a period
prime movers (c) both (a) or (b)
(a) diesel engine (d) none of the above
(b) hydraulic turbine 35. Annual instalment towards depreciation
(c) gas turbine reduces as rate of interest increases with
(d) steam turbine (a) sinking fund depreciation
(e) any of the above (b) straight line depreciation
27. Diversity factor has direct effect on the (c) reducing balances depreciation
(a) fixed cost of unit generated (d) none of the above
(b) running cost of unit generated 36. Annual depreciation of the plant is
(c) both (a) and (b) proportional to the earning capacity of the plant
(d) neither (a) nor (b) vide
(a) sinking fund depreaciation (c) Foam type fire extinguisher

(b) straight line depreciation (d) CO2 fire extinguisher
(c) reducing balances depreciation 45. Low power factor is usually not due to
(d) none of the above (a) arc lamps
37. For high value of diversity factor, a power (b) induction motors
station of given installed capacity will be in (c) fluorescent tubes
a position to supply (d) incandescent lamp
(a) less number of consumers 46. Ships are generally powered by
(b) more number of consumers (a) unclear power plants
(c) neither (a) nor (b) (b) hydraulic turbines
(d) either (a) or (b) (c) diesel engines
38. Salvage value of the plant is always (d) steam accumulators
(a) positive (e) none of the above
(b) negative 47. Direct conversion of heat into electrical energy
(c) zero is possible through
(d) any of the above (a) fuel cells
39. Load curve helps in deciding (b) solar cells
(a) total installed capacity of the plant (c) MHD generators
(b) size of the generating units (d) none of the above
(c) operating schedule of generating units 48. Which of the following place is not associated
(d) all of the above with nuclear power plants in India?
40. ......... can generate power at unpredictable or (a) Narora
uncontrolled times. (b) Tarapur
(a) Solar power plant (c) Kota
(b) Tidal power plant (d) Benglore
(c) Wind power plant 49. During load shedding
(d) Any of the above (a) system power factor is changed
41. Direct conversion of heat into electric power (b) some loads are switched off
is possible through (c) system voltage is reduced
(a) fuel cell (d) system frequency is reduced
(b) batteries 50. Efficiency is the secondary consideration in
(c) thermionic converter which of the following plants?
(d) all of the above (a) Base load plants
42. A low utilization factor for a plant indicates (b) Peak load plants
that (c) Both (a) and (b)
(a) plant is used for stand by purpose only (d) none of the above
(b) plant is under maintenance 51. Air will not be the working substance in which
(c) plant is used for base load only of the following?
(d) plant is used for peak load as well as base (a) Closed cycle gas turbine
load (b) Open cycle gas turbine
43. Which of the following is not a source of (c) Diesel engine
power? (d) Petrol engine
(a) Thermocouple 52. A nuclear power plant is invariably used as a
(b) Photovoltaic cell (a) peak load plant
(c) Solar cell (b) base load plant
(d) Photoelectric cell (c) stand-by plant
44. Which of the following should be used for (d) espinning reserve plant
extinguishing electrical fires? (e) any of the above
(a) Water 53. ........power plant is expected to have the
(b) Carbon tetrachloride fire extinguisher longest life.
(a) Steam (b) cold reserve
(b) Diesel (c) hot reserve
(c) Hydroelectric (d) spinning reserve
(d) Any of the above 62. ....... offers the highest electric load.
54. ....... power plant cannot have single unit of (a) Television set
100 MW. (b) Toaster
(a) Hydroelectric (c) Vacuum cleaner
(b) Nuclear (d) Washing machine
(c) Steam 63. ....... industry has the least power consumption
(d) Diseal per tonne of product.
(e) Any of the above (a) Soap
55. Which of the following, in a thermal power (b) Sugar
plant, is not a fixed cost? (c) Vegetable oil
(a) Fuel cost (d) Caustic soda
(b) Interest on capital 64. With reference to a power station which of the
(c) Depreciation following is not a fixed cost?
(d) Insurance charges (a) Fuel cost
56. ....... will offer the least load. (b) Interest on capital
(a) Vacuum cleaner (c) Insurance changes
(b) Television (d) Depreciation
(c) Hair dryer 65. ....... is invariably used as base load plant.
(d) Electric shaver (a) Diesel engine plant
57. In ........ fuel transportation cost is least. (b) Nuclear power plant
(a) nuclear power plants (c) Gas turbine plant
(b) diesel generating plants (d) Pumped storage plant
(c) steam power stations 66. In a power plant if the maximum demand on
58. Which of the following equipment provides the plant is equal to the plant capacity, then
fluctuating load? (a) plant reserve capacity will be zero
(a) Exhaust fan (b) diversity factor will be unity
(b) Lathe machine (c) load factor will be unity
(c) Welding transformer (d) load factor will be nearly 60%
(d) All of the above 67. In case of ....... fuel transportation is the major
59. The increased load during summer months is problem.
due to (a) diesel power plants
(a) increased business activity (b) nuclear power plants
(b) increased water supply (c) hydro-electric power plants
(c) increased use of fans and air conditioners (d) thermal power plants
(d) none of the above 68. Which of the following power plants need the
60. ....... is the reserved generating capacity least period for installation?
available for service under emergency (a) Thermal power plant
conditions which is not kept in operation but (b) Diesel power plant
in working order. (c) Nuclear power plant
(a) Hot reserve (d) Hydro-electric power plant
(b) Cold reserve 69. For which of the following power plants highly
(c) Spinning reserve skilled engineers are required for running the
(d) Firm power plants?
61. Generating capacity onnected to the bus bars (a) Nuclear power plants
and ready to take load when switched on is (b) Gas turbine power plants
known as ....... (c) Solar power plants
(a) firm power (d) Hydro-electric power plants
70. In which of the following power plants the (c) High cost of equipment for a given load
maintenance cost is usually high? (d) All of the above
(a) Nuclear power plant 78. In a distribution system, in order to improve
(b) Hydro-electric power plants power factor, the synchronous capacitors are
(c) Thermal power plants installed
(d) Diesel engine power plants (a) at the receiving end
71. ....... is inveriably used for peak load (b) at the sending end
(a) Nuclear power lant (c) either (a) or (b)
(b) Steam turbine plant (d) none of the above
(c) Pumped storage plant 79. Satic capacitors are rated in terms of
(d) None of the above (a) kW
72. Which of the following is not an operating (b) kWh
cost? (c) kVAR
(a) Maintenance cost (d) none of the above
(b) Fuel cost 80. Base load plants usually have ........ capital
(c) Salaries of high officials cost, ....... operating cost and ........ load factor.
(d) Salaries of operating stall (a) high, high, high
73. Which of the following is the essential (b) high, low, high
requirement of peak load plant? (c) low, low, low
(a) It should run at high speed (d) low, high, low
(b) It should produce high voltage 81. Which of the following is the disadvantage of
(c) It should be small in size a synchronous condenser?
(d) It should be capable of starting quickly (a) High maintenance cost
74. Large capacity generators are invariably (b) Continuous losses in motor
(a) water cooled (c) Noise
(b) natural air cooled (d) All of the above
(c) forced air cooled 82. For a consumer the most economical power
(d) hydrogen cooled factor is generally
75. By the use of which of the following power (a) 0.5 lagging
factor can be improved? (b) 0.5 leading
(a) Phase advancers (c) 0.95 lagging
(b) Synchronous compensators (d) 0.95 leading
(c) Static capacitors 83. A synchronous condenser is virtually which of
(d) Any of the above the following?
76. An induction motor has relatively high power (a) Induction motor
factor at (b) Underexcited synchronous motor
(a) rated r.p.m. (c) Over excited synchronous motor
(b) no load (d) D.C. generator
(c) 20 percent load (e) None of the above
(d) near full load 84. For a power plant which of the following
(e) none of the above constitutes running cost?
77. Which of the following is the disadvantage (a) Cost of wages
due to low power factor? (b) Cost of fuel
(a) Poor voltage regulation (c) Cost of lubricants
(b) Increased transmission losses (d) All of the above
85. In an interconnected system, the diversity factor 93. Most efficient plants are normally used as
of the whole system (a) peak load plants
(a) remains unchanged (b) base load plants
(b) decreases (c) either (a) or (b)
(c) increases (d) none of the above
(d) none of the above 94. For a diesel generating station the useful life
86. Generators for peak load plants are usually is expected to be around
designed for maximum efficienty at (a) 15 to 20 years
(a) 25 to 50 percent full load (b) 20 to 50years
(b) 50 to 75 percent full load
(c) 50 to 75 years
(c) full load
(d) 75 to 100 years
(d) 25 percent overload
95. Which of the following is not a method for
87. ........ will be least affected due to charge in
estimating depreciation charges?
supply voltage frequency.
(a) Sinking fund method
(a) Electric clock
(b) Straight line method
(b) Mixer grinder
(c) Diminishin value method
(c) Ceiling fan
(d) Room heater (d) Halsey's 50–50 formula
88. For the same maximum demand, if load factor 96. The expected useful life of an hydroelectric
is decreased, the cost generation will power station is around
(a) remain unchanged (a) 15 years
(b) decrease (b) 30 years
(c) increase (c) 60 years
89. The connected load of a domestic consumer is (d) 100 years
around 97. In a load curve the highest point represents
(a) 5 kW (a) peak demand
(b) 40 kW (b) average demand
(c) 80 kW (c) diversified demand
(d) 120 kW (d) none of the above
90. Which of the following is not necessarily an 98. Which of the following source of power is
advantage of interconnecting various power least reliable?
stations? (a) Solar energy
(a) Improved frequency of power supplied (b) Geothermal power
(b) Reduction in total installed capacity (c) Wind power
(c) Increased reliability (d) MHD
(d) Economy in operation of plants
99. In Indial production and distribution of
91. A power transformer is usually rated in electrical energy is confined to
(a) kW
(a) private sector
(b) kVAR
(b) public sector
(c) kWh
(c) government sectors
(d) kVA
(d) joint sector
92. ....... public sector undertaking is associated
(e) none of the above
with erection and sometimes running of
thermal power plants 100. A pilot exciter is provided on generators for
which of the following reasons?
(a) NTPC
(a) To excite the poles of main exciter
(b) SAIL
(b) To provide requisite starting torque to
(c) BEL
main exciter
(d) BHEL
(c) To provide requisit starting torque to (b) least load

generator (c) peak demand
(d) None of the above (d) total kWh generated
101. The primary reason for low power factor is 109. Maximum demand tariff is generally not
supply system is due to installation of applied to domestic consumers because
(a) induction motors (a) they consume less power
(b) their load factor is low
(b) synchronous motors
(c) their maximum demand is low
(c) single phase motors
(d) d.c. motors
110. A 130 MW generator is usually ....... cooled
102. an over excited synchronous motor on no-load
(a) air
is known as
(b) oxygen
(a) syachronous condenser
(c) nitrogen
(b) generator
(d) hydrogen
(c) induction motor
111. For cooling of large size generators hydrogen
(d) alternator
is used because
103. Which of the following is an advantage of
(a) it is light
static capacitor for power factor improvement?
(b) it offers reduced fire risk
(a) Little maintenance cost
(c) it has high thermal conductivity
(b) Ease in installation
(d) all of the above
(c) Low losses
112. Major share of power produced in India is
(d) All of the above
through
104. For any type of consumer the ideal tariff is
(a) diesel power plants
(a) two part tariff
(b) hydroelectric power plants
(b) three part tariff
(c) thermal power plants
(c) block rate tariff
(d) nuclear power plants
(d) any of the above
113. Which of the following may not be the effect
105. The efficiency of a plant is of least concern
of low plant operating power factor?
when it is selected as
(a) Improved illumination from lighting
(a) peak load plant
(b) Reduced voltage level
(b) casual run plant
(c) Over loaded transformers
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) Overloaded cables
(d) base load plant
114. Which of the following plants is almost
106. Power generation cost reduces as
inevitably used as base load plant?
(a) diversity factor increases and load factor
(a) Diesel engine plant
decreases
(b) Gas turbine plant
(b) diversity factor decreases and load factor
(c) Nuclear power plant
increases
(d) Pumped storage plant
(c) both diversity factor as well as load factor
115. Which of the following component, in a steam
decrease
power plant, needs maximum maintenance
(d) both diversity factor as well as load factor
attention?
increase
(a) Steam turbine
107. The depreciation charges in diminishing value
(b) Condenser
method are
(c) Water treatment plant
(a) light in early years
(d) Bioler
(b) heavy in early years
116. For the same cylinder dimensions and speed,
(c) heavy in later years
which of the following engine will produce
(d) same in all years
least power?
108. The area under daily load curve divided by
(a) Supercharged engine
24 hours gives
(b) Diesel engine
(a) average load
(c) Petrol engine (b) Frequency reduction
(d) All of the above engines will equal power (c) Voltage reducteion
117. The least share of power is provided in India, (d) Any of the above
by which of the following power plants? 125. In power plants insurance cover is provided
(a) Diesel power plants for which of the following?
(b) Thermal power plants (a) Unskilled workers only
(c) Hydro-electric power plants (b) Skilled workers only
(d) Nuclear power plants (c) Equipment only
118. Submarines for under water movement, are (d) All of the above
powered by which of the following? 126. A company can raise funds through
(a) Steam accumulators (a) fixed deposits
(b) Air motors (b) shares
(c) Diesel engines (c) bonds
(d) Batteries (d) any of the above
119. An alternator coupled to a ....... runs at slow 127. Which of the following are not repayable after
speed, as compared to as compared to others. a stipulated period?
(a) diesel engine (a) Shares
(b) hydraulic turbine (b) Fixed deposits
(c) steam turbine (c) Cash certificates
(d) gas turbine (d) Bonds
120. The effect of electric shock on human body 128. The knowledge of diversity factor helps in
depends on which of the following determining
(a) current (a) plant capacity
(b) voltage (b) average load
(c) duration of cantact (c) peak load
(d) all of the above (d) kWh generated
121. Which lightening stroke is most dangerous? (e) none of the above
(a) Direct stroke on line conductor 129. Load shedding is done to
(b) Indirect stroke on conductor (a) improve power factor
(c) Direct stroke on tower top (b) run the equipment efficiently
(d) Direct stroke on ground wire (c) repair the machine
122. Which of the following devices may be used (d) reduce peak demand
to provide protection against lightening over 130. when a plant resorts to load shedding it can
voltages? be concluted that
(a) Horn gaps (a) peak demand is more than the installed
(b) Rod gaps capacity
(c) Surge absorbers (b) daily load factor is unity
(d) All of the above (c) diversity factor is zero
123. When the demand of consumers is not met by (d) plant is under repairs
a power plant, it will resort to which of the 131. Which of the following is the disadvantage of
following? static capacitor for power factor improvement?
(a) Load shedding (a) Easily damaged by high voltage
(b) Power factor improvement at the (b) Cannot be repaired
generators (c) Short service life
(c) Penalising high load consumers by (d) All of the above
increasing the charges for electricity 132. If the tariff for electrical energy charages
(d) Efficient plant operation. provides incentive by way of reduced charges
124. Load shedding is possible through which of for higher consumption, then it can be
the following? concluede that
(a) Switching of the loads (a) Load factor is unity
(b) power is generated through hydroelectric used as fuel in case of

plant (a) open cycle gas turbines
(c) plant has sufficient reserve capacity (b) closed cycle gas turbines
(d) station has more than two generators (c) petrol engines
133. Anything having some heat value can be (d) diesel engines
ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (a)
8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (c)
15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (e) 20. (b) 21. (c)
22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (b) 26. (e) 27. (a) 28. (d)
29. (b) 30. (c) 31. (d) 32. (d) 33. (d) 34. (a) 35. (a)
36. (c) 37. (b) 38. (d) 39. (d) 40. (d) 41. (c) 42. (a)
43. (a) 44. (b) 45. (d) 46. (c) 47. (c) 48. (d) 49. (b)
50. (b) 51. (a) 52. (b) 53. (c) 54. (d) 55. (a) 56. (d)
57. (a) 58. (c) 59. (c) 60. (b) 61. (d) 62. (b) 63. (c)
64. (a) 65. (b) 66. (a) 67. (d) 68. (b) 69. (a) 70. (c)
71. (c) 72. (c) 73. (d) 74. (d) 75. (d) 76. (d) 77. (d)
78. (a) 79. (c) 80. (b) 81. (d) 82. (c) 83. (c) 84. (d)
85. (c) 86. (b) 87. (f) 88. (c) 89. (a) 90. (a) 91. (d)
92. (a) 93. (b) 94. (a) 95. (d) 96. (d) 97. (a) 98. (c)
99. (b) 100. (a) 101. (a) 102. (a) 103. (d) 104. (b) 105. (c)
106. (d) 107. (b) 108. (a) 109. (c) 110. (d) 111. (d) 112. (c)
113. (a) 114. (c) 115. (d) 116. (d) 117. (a) 118. (d) 119. (b)
120. (d) 121. (a) 122. (d) 123. (a) 124. (d) 125. (c) 126. (d)
127. (d) 128. (a) 129. (d) 130. (a) 131. (d) 132. (c) 133. (b)
GO To FIRST
WWW.ALLEXAMREVIEW.COM
IMPORTANT MCQ- HEATING AND WELDING

1. Which of the following is an advantage of heating by electricity ?
(a) Quicker operation
(b) Higher efficiency
(c) Absence of flue gases
Ans: d
2. ________ has the highest value of thermal conductivity.
(a) Copper
(b) Aluminium
(c) Brass
(d) Steel
Ans: a
3. Which of the following heating methods has maximum power factor ?
(a) Arc heating
(b) Dielectric heating
(c) Induction heating
(d) Resistance heating
Ans: d
4 method has leading power factor
(a) Resistance heating
(c) Arc heating
(d) Induction heating
Ans: b
5 is used for heating non-conducting materials.
(a) Eddy current heating
(b) Arc heating
(d) Dielectric heating
Ans: d
6. Which of the following methods of heating is not dependent on the frequency of supply ?
(a) Induction heating
(c) Electric resistance heating
Ans: c
7. When a body reflects entire radiation incident on it, then it is known as
(a) white body
(b) grey body
(c) black body
(d) transparent body
Ans: a
8. For the transmission of heat from one body to another
(a) temperature of the two bodies must be different
(b) both bodies must be solids
(c) both bodies must be in contact
(d) at least one of the bodies must have some source of heating
Ans: a
9. Heat transfer by condition will not occur when
(a) bodies are kept in vacuum
(b) bodies are immersed in water
(c) bodies are exposed to thermal radiations
(d) temperatures of the two bodies are identical
Ans: d
10. A perfect black body is one that
(a) transmits all incident radiations
(b) absorbs all incident radiations
(c) reflects all incident radiations
(d) absorbs, reflects and transmits all incident radiations
Ans: b
11. Heat is transferred simultaneously by condition, convection and radiation
(a) inside boiler furnaces
(b) during melting of ice
(c) through the surface of the insulted pipe carrying steam
(d) from refrigerator coils to freezer of a refrigerator
Ans: a
12. The process of heat transfer during the reentry of satellites and missiles, at very high speeds,
into earth’s atmosphere is known as
(a) ablation
(b) radiation
(c) viscous dissipation
(d) irradiation
Ans: a
13. Which of the following has the highest value of thermal conductivity ?
(a) Water
(b) Steam
(c) Solid ice
(d) Melting ice
Ans: c
14. Induction heating process is based on which of the following principles ?
(a) Thermal ion release principle
(b) Nucleate heating principle
(c) Resistance heating principle
(d) Electro-magnetic induction princi¬ple
Ans: d
15. Which of the following insulating materials was suitable for low temperature applications ?
(a) Asbestos paper
(b) Diatomaceous earth
(c) 80 percent magnesia
(d) Cork
Ans: b
16. A non-dimensional number generally associated with natural convection heat transfer is
(a) Prandtl number
(b) Grashoff number
(c) Pecelet number
(d) Nusselt number
Ans: b
17. The temperature inside a furnace is usually measured by which of the following ?
(a) Optical pyrometer
(b) Mercury thermometer
(c) Alcohol thermometer
(d) Any of the above
Ans: a
18. Which of the following will happen if the thickness of refractory wall of furnace is increased ?
(a) Heat loss through furnace wall will increase
(b) Temperature inside the furnace will fall
(c) Temperature on the outer surface of furnace walls will drop
(d) Energy consumption will increase
Ans: c
19. The material of the heating element for a furnace should have
(a) lower melting point
(b) higher temperature coefficient
(c) high specific resistance
Ans: c
20. In a resistance furnace the atmosphere is
(a) oxidising
(b) deoxidising
(c) reducing
(d) neutral
Ans: a
21. By which of the following methods the temperature inside arc nace can be varied ?
(a) By disconnecting some of the heating elements
(b) By varying the operating voltage
(c) By varying the current through heating elements
(d) By any of the above method
Ans: d
22. In induction heating ______ is abnormally high.
(a) phase angle
(b) frequency
(c) current
(d) voltage
Ans: b
23. By the use of which of the following, high frequency power supply for induction furnaces can be
obtained ?
(a) Coreless transformers
(b) Current transformers
(c) Motor-generator set
(d) Multi-phase transformer
Ans: c
24. Induction furnaces are employed for which of the following ?
(a) Heat treatment of castings
(b) Heating of insulators
(c) Melting aluminium
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
25. In an electric room heat convector the method of heating used is
(a) arc heating
(b) resistance heating
(c) induction heating
(d) dielectric heating
Ans: b
26. In a domestic cake baking oven the temperature is controlled by
(a) voltage variation
(b) thermostat
(c) auto-transformer
(d) series-parallel operation
Ans: d
27. In an electric press mica is used
(a) as an insulator
(b) as a device for power factor improvement
(c) for dielectric heating
(d) for induction heating
Ans: a
28. Induction heating takes place iitwhich of the following ?
(a) Insulating materials
(b) Conducting materials which are magnetic
(c) Conducting materials which are non-magnetic
(d) Conducting materials which may or may not be magnetic
Ans: d
29. For heating element high resistivity material is chosen to
(a) reduce the length of heating element
(b) increase the life of the heating element
(c) reduce the effect of oxidation
(d) produce large amount of heat
Ans: a
30. In resistance heating highest working temperature is obtained from heating elements made of
(a) nickel copper
(b) nichrome
(c) silicon carbide
(d) silver
Ans: c
31. For intermittent work which of the following furnaces is suitable ?
(a) Indirect arc furnace
(b) Core less furnace
(c) Either of the above
Ans: a
32. Due to which of the following reasons it is desirable to have short arc length ?
(a) To achieve better heating
(b) To increase the life of roof refractory
(c) To have better stirring action
(d) To reduce problem of oxidation
(e) All of the above
Ans: e
33. In the indirect resistance heating method, maximum heat-transfer takes place by
(a) radiation
(b) convection
(c) conduction
Ans: a
34. Properly of low temperature co-eflficient of heating element is desired due to which of the
following reasons ?
(a) To avoid initial rush of current
(b) To avoid change in kW rating with temperature
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Either (a) or (b)
Ans: c
35. Which of the following methods is used to control temperature in resistance furnaces ?
(a) Variation of resistance
(b) Variation of voltage
(c) Periodical switching on and off of the supply
(d) All of the above methods
Ans: d
36. It is desirable to operate the arc furnaces at power factor of
(a) zero
(b) 0.707 lagging
(c) unity
(d) 0.707 leading
Ans: b
37. Radiations from a black body are proportional to
(a) T1
(b) T2
(c) T3
(d) T*
Ans: d
38. In arc furnace the function of choke is
(a) to stabilize the arc
(b) to imprpve, power factor
(c) to reduce severity of the surge
Ans: a
39. Ajax Wyatt furnace is started when
(a) it is filled below core level
(b) it is filled above core level
(c) it is fully empty
Ans: b
40. In electric press, mica is used because it is _______ conductor of heat but/and ________
conductor of electricity.
(a) bad, good
(b) bad, bad
(c) good, bad
(d) good, good
Ans:
41. Resistance variation method of temperature control is done by connecting resistance elements in
(a) series
(b) parallel
(c) series-parallel connections
(d) star-delta connections
(e) all of the above ways
Ans: e
42. Hysteresis loss and eddy current loss are used in
(a) induction heating of steel
(b) dielectric heating
(c) induction heating of brass
(d) resistance heating
Ans: a
43. In heating the ferromagnetic material by induction heating, heat is produced due to
(a) induced current flow through the charge
(b) hysteresis loss taking place below curie temperature
(c) due to hysteresis loss as well as eddy current loss takingplace in the charge
(d) none of the above factors
Ans: c
44. Radiant heating is used for which of the following ?
(a) Annealing of metals
(b) Melting of ferrous metals
(c) Heating of liquids in electric kettle
(d) Drying of paints and varnishes
Ans: d
45. Which of the following devices is necessarily required for automatic temperature control in a
furnace ?
(a) Thermostat
(b) Thermocouple
(c) Auto-transformer
(d) Heating elements of variable resis-tance material
Ans: b
46. For radiant heating around 2250°C, the heating elements are made of
(a) copper alloy
(b) carbon
(c) tungsten alloy
(d) stainless steel alloy
Ans: c
47. Which of the following is an advantage of eddy current heating ?
(a) The amount of heat generated can be controlled accurately
(b) Heat at very high rate can be gene-rated
(c) The area of the surface over which heat is produced can be accurately controlled
Ans: d
48. The electrode of a direct arc furnace is made of
(a) tungsten
(b) graphite
(c) silver
(d) copper
Ans: b
49. Direct arc furnaces have which of the following power factors ?
(a) Unity
(b) Low, lagging
(c) Low, leading
Ans: b
50. In direct arc furnace, which of the following has high value ?
(a) Current
(b) Voltage
(c) Power factor
Ans: a
WWW.ALLEXAMREVIEW.COM WWW.ALLEXAMREVIEW.IN
Utilization of Electrical Energy MCQ PDF 2
1) If the blowpipe is moved to and fro frequently while cutting the kerf will
1. not be affected
2. be less
3. of correct size
4. be more
Answer-D
2) In gas cutting, if too little cutting oxygen is supplied
1. the metal will be cooled down

2. the kerf will be narrow
3. the kert will be wide
4. the metal will fail to cut completely
Answer-D
3) The top edge is melted round and the cutface is not smooth in gas cutting. This is due to
1. extremely slow cutting speed

2. insufficient acetylene pressure
3. the tip being held too high
4. too much cutting oxygen pressure
Answer-C
4) In a gas cut plate, the cut shows groove sand has deep drag lines. This is due to
1. tip too close to the cut surface

2. too much travel speed
3. less oxygen pressure
4. smaller size cutting nozzle
Answer-A
5) In a gas cut plate, the cut is high quality although there is some surface roughness caused by
vertical drag lines.This is due to
1. too slow cutting speed

2. smaller size cutting nozzle
3. impure cutting oxygen
4. less preheating flame
Answer-A
1|Page
6) The size of the cutting nozzle used in oxyacetylene cutting process depends mainly on
1. thickness of metal to be cut

2. purity of oxygen
3. duration of cut
4. type of cutting blowpipe
Answer-A
7) Which of the following types is not fillet weld
1. T-joint
2. Corner joint
3. lap joint
4. butt joint
Answer-D
8) Double-V and double-U butt welds are used for plates of thickness
1. 1 - 5 mm
2. 5 - 10 mm
3. 10 - 15 mm
4. above 15 mm
Answer-D
9) Which material is not used for making non-consumable electrodes
1. Carbon
2. Tungsten
3. Graphite
4. Sodium
Answer-D
10) Which of the following is an example of plastic welding
1. Gas welding
2. Arc welding
3. Thermit welding
4. Forge welding
Answer-D
2|Page
11) Which of the following is not a type of arc welding
1. Submerged
2. Plasma
3. Air-acetylene
4. Electro-slag
Answer-C
12) Which of the following is an example of fusion welding
1. Arc welding
2. Resistance welding
3. Thermit welding with pressure
4. Forge welding
Answer-A
13) Which of the following welding process is used for welding of sheet metals in automobile and
air craft industries
2. Thermit welding
3. Gas tungsten arc welding
4. Shield metal arc welding
Answer-A
14) In which of the following process, heat is created by blacksmith fire
1. Seam welding
2. Spot welding
3. Projection welding
4. Forge welding
Answer-D
15) Heat is created by chemical reaction in
1. Tungsten arc welding

2. Thermit welding
3. Oxy-acetylene welding
Answer-B
3|Page
16) In resistance welding, two electrodes are made of
1. Copper
2. Iron
3. Bronze
4. Aluminium
Answer-A
17) Acetylene can be prepared by the chemical reaction between
1. Hydrogen and Calcium carbide

2. Water and Calcium carbonate
3. Water and Calcium carbide
4. Hydrogen and Calcium carbonate
Answer-C
18) Which flame is suitable for cutting operations
1. Oxidising flame
2. Carburising flame
3. Neutral flame
4. None of these
Answer-A
19) Which flame is suitable for welding steel
1. Oxidising flame
2. Carburising flame
3. Neutral flame
4. None of these
Answer-B
20) Which of the following is not true for gas welding
1. There are safety problems in storing and handling the gases

2. Heat effected zone and distortion are less as compare to arc welding
3. It is slower than arc welding
4. It is suitable for thin sheets
Answer-B
4|Page
IMPORTANT MCQ- ELECTRIC TRACTION
1. Which of the following is an advantage of electric traction over other methods of traction ?
(a) Faster acceleration
(b) No pollution problems
(c) Better braking action
Ans: a
2. Which of the following is the voltage for single phase A.C. system ?
(a) 22 V
(b) 440 V
(c) 5 kV
(d) 15 kV
(e) None of the above
Ans: a
3. Long distance railways use which of the following ?
(a) 200 V D.C.
(b) 25 kV single phase A.C.
(c) 25 kV two phase A.C.
(d) 25 kV three phase A.C.
Ans: b
4. The speed of a locomotive is controlled by
(a) flywheel
(b) gear box
(c) applying brakes 11.
(d) regulating steam flow to engine
Ans:
5. Main traction systems used in India are, those using
(a) electric locomotives
(b) diesel engine locomotives
(c) steam engine locomotives
(d) diesel electric locomotives
(e) all of the above
Ans: e
6, in India diesel locomotives are manufactured at
(a) Ajmer
(b) Varanasi
(c) Bangalore
(d) Jamalpur
Ans: b
7. For diesel locomotives the range of horsepower is
(a) 50 to 200
(b) 500 to 1000
(c) 1500 to 2500
(d) 3000 to 5000
Ans: c
8. _______ locomotive has the highest operational availability.
(a) Electric
(b) Diesel
(c) Steam
Ans: a
9. The horsepower of steam locomotives is
(a) up to 1500
(b) 1500 to 2000
(c) 2000 to 3000
(d) 3000 to 4000
Ans: a
10. The overall efficiency of steam locomotive is around
(a) 5 to 10 percent
(b) 15 to 20 percent
(c) 25 to 35 percent
(d) 35 to 45 percent
Ans: a
11. In tramways which of the following motors is used ?
(a) D.C. shunt motor
(b) D.C. series motor
(c) A.C. three phase motor
(d) AC. single phase capacitor start motor
Ans: b
12. In a steam locomotive electric power is provided through
(a) overhead wire
(b) battery system
(c) small turbo-generator
(d) diesel engine generator
Ans: c
13. Which of the following drives is suitable for mines where explosive gas exists ?
(a) Steam engine
(b) Diesel engine
(c) Battery locomotive
Ans: c
14. In case of locomotives the tractive power is provided by
(a) single cylinder double acting steam engine
(b) double cylinder, single acting steam engine
(c) double cylinder, double acting steam engine
(d) single stage steam turbine
Ans: c
15. Overload capacity of diesel engines is usually restricted to
(a) 2 percent
(b) 10 percent
(c) 20 percent
(d) 40 percent
Ans: a
16. In case of steam engines the steam pressure is
(a) 1 to 4 kgf/cm2
(b) 5 to 8 kgf/cm2
(c) 10 to 15 kgf/cm2
(d) 25 to 35 kgf/cm2
Ans: c
17.. The steam engine provided on steam locomotives is
(a) single acting condensing type
(b) single acting non-condensing type
(e) double acting condensing type
(d) double acting non-condensing type
Ans: b
18. Electric locomotives in India are manufactured at
(a) Jamalpur
(b) Bangalore
(c) Chittranjan
(d) Gorakhpur
Ans: c
19. The wheels of a train, engine as well as bogies, are slightly tapered to
(a) reduce friction
(b) increase friction
(c) facilitate braking
(d) facilitate in taking turns
Ans: d
20. Automatic signalling is used for which of the following trains ?
(a) Mail and express trains
(b) Superfast trains
(c) Suburban and Urban electric trains
(d) All trains
Ans: b
21. The efficiency of diesel locomotives is nearly
(a) 20 to 25 percent
(c) 45 to 55 percent
Ans: a
22. The speed of a superfast train is
(a) 60 kmph
(b) 75 kmph
(c) 100 kmph
(d) more than 100 kmph
Ans: d
23. The number of passenger coaches that can be attached to a diesel engine locomotive on broad
gauge is usually restricted to
(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 14
(d) 17
Ans: b
24. Which of the following state capitals is not on broad gauge track ?
(a) Lucknow
(b) Bhopal
(c) Jaipur
(d) Chandigarh
Ans: c
25. Which of the following is the advantage of electric braking ?
(a) It avoids wear of track
(b) Motor continues to remain loaded during braking
(c) It is instantaneous
(d) More heat is generated during braking
Ans: a
Which of the following braking systems on the locomotives is costly ?
(a) Regenerative braking on electric locomotives
(b) Vacuum braking on diesel locomotives
(c) Vacuum braking on steam locomotives
(d) All braking systems are equally costly
Ans: a
27. Tractive effort is required to
(a) overcome the gravity component of train mass
(b) overcome friction, windage and curve resistance
(c) accelerate the train mass
(d) do all of the above
Ans: d
28. For given maximum axle load tractive efforts of AC. locomotive will be
(a) less than that of D.C. locomotive
(b) more than that of D.C. locomotive
(c) equal to that of D.C. locomotive
Ans: b
29. Co-efficient of adhesion reduces due to the presence of which of the following ?
(a) Sand on rails
(b) Dew on rails
(c) Oil on the rails
(d) both (b) and (c)
Ans: d
30. Due to which of the following co-efficient of adhesion improves ?
(a) Rust on the rails
(b) Dust on the rails
(c) Sand on the rails
Ans: d
31. Quadrilateral speed-time curve pertains to which of the following services ?
(a) Main line service
(b) Urban service
(c) Sub-urban service
(d) Urban and sub-urban service
Ans: d
32. Which of the following is the disadvantage of electric traction over other systems of traction ?
(a) Corrosion problems in the under-ground pipe work
(b) Short time power failure interrupts traffic for hours
(c) High capital outlay in fixed installations beside route limitation
(d) Interference with communication lines
(c) All of the above
Ans: c
33. Co-efficient of adhesion is
(a) high in case of D.C. traction than in the case of AC. traction
(b) low in case of D.C. traction than in the case of AC. traction
(c) equal in both AC. and D.C. traction
Ans: b
34. Speed-time curve of main line service differs from those of urban and suburban services on
following account
(a) it has longer free running period
(b) it has longer coasting period
(c) accelerating and braking periods are comparatively smaller
Ans: d
35. The rate of acceleration on suburban orurban services is restricted by the consideration of
(a) Engine power
(b) Track curves
(c) Passenger Discomfort
(d) Track size
Ans: c
36. The specific energy consumption of a train depends on which of the following ?
(a) Acceleration and retardation
(b) Gradient
(c) Distance covered
Ans: d
37. The friction at the track is proportional to
(a) 1/speed
(b) l/(speed)2
(c) speed
Ans: c
38. The air resistance to the movement of the train is proportional to
(a) speed
(b) (speed)
(c) (speed)
(d) 1/speed
Ans: b
39. The normal value of adhesion friction is
(a) 0.12
(b) 0.25
(c) 0.40
(d) 0.75
Ans: b
40. The pulsating torque exerted by steam locomotives causes which of the following?
(a) Jolting and skidding
(b) Hammer blow
(c) Pitching
Ans: a
41. Which of the following braking systems is used on steam locomotives ?
(a) Hydraulic system
(b) Pneumatic system
(c) Vacuum system
Ans: c
42. Vacuum is created by which of the following?
(a) Vacuum pump
(b) Ejector
(c) Any of the above
Ans: c
43. The resistance encountered by a train in motion is on account of
(a) resistance offered by air
(b) friction at the track
(c) friction at various parts of the rolling stock
Ans: d
44. Battery operated trucks are used in
(a) steel mills
(b) power stations
(c) narrow gauge traction
(d) factories for material transportation
Ans: d
45 method can bring the locomotive to dead stop.
(a) Plugging braking
(b) Rheostatic braking
(c) Regenerative braking
Ans: a
46. The value of co-efficient of adhesion will be high when rails are
(a) greased
(b) wet
(c) sprayed with oil
(d) cleaned with sand
Ans: d
47. The voltage used for suburban trains in D.C. system is usually
(a) 12 V
(b) 24 V
(c) 220 V
(d) 600 to 750 V
Ans: d
48. For three-phase induction motors which of the following is the least efficient method of speed
control ?
(a) Cascade control
(b) Pole changing
(c) Rheostat control
(d) Combination of cascade and pole changing
Ans: c
49. Specific energy consumption becomes
(a) more on steeper gradient
(b) more with high train resistance
(c) less if distance between stops is more
Ans: d
50. In main line service as compared to urban and suburban service
(a) distance between the stops is more
(b) maximum speed reached is high
(c) acceleration and retardation rates are low
Ans: d
51. Locomotive having monomotor bogies
(a) has better coefficient of adhesion
(b) are suited both for passanger as well as freight service
(c) has better riding qualities due to the reduction of lateral forces
(d) has all above qualities
Ans: d
52. Series motor is not suited for traction duty due to which of the following account ?
(a) Less current drain on the heavy load torque
(b) Current surges after temporary switching off supply
(c) Self relieving property
(d) Commutating property at heavy load
Ans: b
53. When a bogie negotiates a curve, reduction in adhesion occurs resulting in sliding. Thus sliding is
acute when
(a) wheel base of axles is more
(b) degree of curvature is more
Ans: c
54. Energy consumption in propelling the train is required for which of the following?
(a) Work against the resistance to motion
(b) Work against gravity while moving up the gradient
(c) Acceleration
Ans: d
55. An ideal traction system should have
(a) easy speed control
(b) high starting tractive effort
(c) equipment capable of with standing large temporary loads
Ans: d
56 have maximum unbalanced forces
(a) Diesel shunters
(b) Steam locomotives
(c) Electric locomotives
(d) Diesel locomotives
Ans: b
57. Specific energy consumption is affected by which of the following factors ?
(a) Retardation and acceleration values
(b) Gradient
(c) Distance between stops
Ans: d
58. In case of ________ free running and coasting periods are generally long.
(a) main-line service
(b) urban service
(c) sub-urban service
Ans: a
59. Overhead lines for power supply to tramcars are at a minimum height of
(a) 3 m
(b) 6 m
(c) 10 m
(d) 15 m
Ans: c
60. The return circuit for tramcars is through
(a) neutral wire
(b) rails
(c) cables
(d) common earthing
Ans: b
61. Specific energy consumption is least in _______ service.
(a) main line
(b) urban
(c) suburban
Ans: a
62. Locomotives with monometer bogies have
(a) uneven distribution of tractive effect
(b) suitability for passanger as well as freight service
(c) lot of skidding
(d) low co-efficient of adhesion
Ans: b
63 _______ was the first city in India to adopt electric traction.
(a) Delhi
(b) Madras
(c) Calcutta
(d) Bombay
Ans: d
64 _______ frequency is not common in low frequency traction system
(a) 40 Hz
(b) 25 Hz
(c) 16 Hz
Ans: a
65. For 25 kV single phase system power supply frequency is
(a) 60 Hz
(b) 50 Hz
(c) 25 Hz
(d) 16 Hz
Ans: b
66. Power for lighting in passanger coach, in a long distance electric train, is provided
(a) directly through overhead electric line
(b) through individual generator of bogie and batteries
(c) through rails
(d) through locomotive
Ans: b
67. In India, electrification of railway track was done for the first time in which of the following years
?
(a) 1820—1825
(b) 1880—1885
(c) 1925—1932
(d) 1947—1954
Ans: c
68. Suri transmission is
(a) electrical-pneumatic
(b) mechanical-electrical
(c) hydro-mechanical
(d) hydro-pneumatic
Ans: c
69. In case of a steam engine an average coal consumption per km is nearly
(a) 150 to 175 kg
(b) 100 to 120 kg
(c) 60 to 80 kg
(d) 28 to 30 kg
Ans: d
70. Which of the following happens in Kando system ?
(a) Three phase A.C. is converted into D.C.
(b) Single phase A.C. is converted into D.C.
(c) Single phase supply is converted into three phase system
Ans: c
71. For which of the following locomotives the maintenance requirements are the least?
(a) Steam locomotives
(b) Diesel locomotives
(c) Electric locomotives
(d) Equal in all of the above
Ans: b
72. Which of the following methods is used to control speed of 25 kV, 50 Hz single phase traction ?
(a) Reduced current method
(b) Tap changing control of transformer
(c) Series parallel operation of motors
Ans: b
73. If the co-efficient of adhesion on dry rails is 0.26, which of the following could be the value for wet
rails ?
(a) 0.3
(b) 0.26
(c) 0.225
(d) 0.16
Ans: d
74 watt-hours per tonne km is usually the specific energy consumption for suburban services.
(a) 15—20
(b) 50—75
(c) 120—150
(d) 160—200
Ans: b
75. The braking retardation is usually in the range
(a) 0.15 to 0.30 km phps
(b) 0.30 to 0.6 km phps
(c) 0.6 to 2.4 km phps
(d) 3 to 5 km phps
(e) 10 to 15 km phps
Ans: d
79. The rate of acceleration on suburban orurban service is in the range
(a) 0.2 to 0.5 km phps
(b) 1.6 to 4.0 km phps
(c) 5 to 10 km phps
(d) 15 to 25 km phps
Ans: b
80. The coasting retardation is around
(a) 0.16 km phps
(b) 1.6 km phps
(c) 16 km phps
(d) 40 km phps
Ans: a
1) For a good weld,
a. Cross - section of the added metal should be small and oxidation should be minimum
b. Cross - section of the added metal should be small and oxidation should be maximum
c. Cross - section of the added metal should be large and oxidation should be minimum
d. Cross - section of the added metal should be large and oxidation should be maximum
ANSWER: Cross - section of the added metal should be small and oxidation should be minimum
2) The advantage of rectifier type welding set is
a. Reduced no - load losses
b. Easy arc starting
c. Less hazardous
d. Both (a) and (b)
ANSWER: Both (a) and (b)
3) The voltage - current characteristics of the arc welding must be
a. Exponentially rising
b. Drooping
c. Straight line
d. Parabolic
ANSWER: Drooping
4) Spot welding is used to weld metal pieces whose thickness
a. Should be greater than 12 mm
b. Lesser than 12 mm
c. Lies between 15 to 20 mm
d. Greater than 20 mm
ANSWER: Lesser than 12 mm
5) The electrodes used for projection welding are
a. Flat and smaller in diameter
b. Flat and larger in diameter
Sensitivity: Internal & Restricted

c. Round and smaller in diameter
d. Round and larger in diameter
ANSWER: Flat and larger in diameter
6) In percussion welding, the heat is produced by a rapid discharge of stored electrical energy from
a. Capacitor
b. Inductor
c. Resistor
d. Transformer
ANSWER: Capacitor
7) Seam welding is not used for the
a. Welding in tanks
b. Welding in transformers
c. Welding in air crafts
d. Welding alloys of copper
ANSWER: Welding alloys of copper
8) The lighting system of almost all the earlier coaches and all the newly manufactured coaches has
a. 50 V
b. 110 V
c. 220 V
d. 420 V
ANSWER: 110 V
9) Pantograph collector is used in railways where the train runs at 100 to 130 kmph. Which among
the following is true about pantograph collector?
a. It is unidirectional
b. The erection of the overhead network is complicated
c. Its height cannot be varied
d. None of these

ANSWER: None of these
10) A low frequency supply is given to the single phase AC system for track electrification because
a. It improves commutation
b. Increases efficiency
c. Improves power factor
d. All of these
ANSWER: All of these
11) The magnitude for the tractive effort which is required for the propulsion of the train depends
on
a. The adhesive weight
b. Friction between the driving wheel and the track
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Neither (a) nor (b)
12) If W is the dead weight of the train in tones and A is the acceleration of the train in kmphps
then the tractive effort required for linear acceleration is given by
a. WA newtons
b. 177.7 WA newtons
c. 277.8 WA newtons
d. 388.8 WA newtons
ANSWER: 277.8 WA newtons
13) During the train movement, the tractive effort produced at the pinion by the motor is
transferred to the driving wheel
a. Directly
b. Through the gear wheel
c. Through the road wheel
d. Through the motor armature
ANSWER: Through the gear wheel

14) The area under the speed - time curve represents the
a. Acceleration of the train
b. Time taken by the train
c. Distance travelled by the train
d. Crest speed
ANSWER: Distance travelled by the train
15) In a diesel electric traction, if the current in the traction motor increases then the generator
field
a. Demagnetizes and voltage decreases
b. Magnetizes and voltage increases
c. Magnetizes and voltage decreases
d. Demagnetizes and voltage increases
ANSWER: Demagnetizes and voltage decreases
16) In diesel electric traction, the torque required from traction work must be
a. Directly proportional to the speed
b. Inversely proportional to the speed
c. Independent of the speed
d. Directly proportional to the square of the speed
ANSWER: Inversely proportional to the speed
17) A trolley bus runs on tyres driven by

a. A DC compound motor
b. A DC series motor
c. An AC series motor
d. An AC shunt motor
ANSWER: A DC compound motor
18) CFL means

a. Combustible fluoride lamp
b. Compact fluoride lamp
c. Compact fluorescent lamp
d. Combustible fluorescent lamp
ANSWER: Compact fluorescent lamp
19) In fluorescent lamp one capacitor is connected across the lamp circuit and another is connected
across the starter. Then
a. Both the capacitors are used for improving power factor
b. Both the capacitors are used for reducing radio interference

c. Former capacitors is used for improving power factor and later is used for reducing radio
interference
d. Former capacitors is used for reducing radio interference and later is used for improving power
factor
ANSWER: Former capacitors is used for improving power factor and later is used for reducing radio
interference
20) The main electrode of high pressure mercury vapour lamp is made up of
a. Quartz
b. Hard glass
c. Tungsten
d. Bronze
ANSWER: Tungsten
21) The practical luminous efficiency of the sodium vapour lamp is of the order of
a. 25 to 40 lumens per watt
b. 40 to 45 lumens per watt
c. 45 to 50 lumens per watt
d. 60 to 67 lumens per watt
ANSWER: 45 to 50 lumens per watt
22) Maintenance factor is the ratio of

a. Lumens on the working plane under normal working conditions to the lumens on the working
plane under ideal condition
b. Lumens on the working plane under ideal working conditions to the lumens on the working plane
under normal condition
c. Lumens falling on the working plane to the lumens emitted by the working plane under ideal
condition
d. Lumens emitting by the working plane to the lumens falling on the working plane under ideal
condition
ANSWER: Lumens on the working plane under normal working conditions to the lumens on the
working plane under ideal condition
23) For avoiding hard and long shadows,
a. Large number of small luminaries mounted at a height of less than 2.5 m can be used
b. Large number of small luminaries mounted at a height of not less than 2.5 m can be used
c. Small number of small luminaries mounted at a height of less than 2.5 m can be used
d. Small number of large luminaries mounted at a height of not less than 2.5 m can be used
ANSWER: Large number of small luminaries mounted at a height of not less than 2.5 m can be used
24) For best visual performance, the range of brightness within the field of vision
a. Should be less than 3:1
b. Should be greater than 3:1
c. Should be less than 1:3
d. Should be greater than 1:3
ANSWER: Should be less than 3:1
25) The metal oxide rectifier used for electrolytic process is placed along with the transformer
a. Inside the oil
b. Outside the transformer but near to it
c. Outside the transformer but far from it
d. Half immersed in the oil
ANSWER: Inside the oil
26) The power required for electro-deposition is

a. DC and very low voltage
b. DC and high voltage
c. AC and very low voltage
d. AC and high voltage
ANSWER: DC and very low voltage
27) Electroplating is done
a. To protect the metals against corrosion
b. To give shiny appearance to articles
c. To repair the worn out materials
d. All of these
28) Throwing power can be improved by
a. Increasing distance between the anode and cathode
b. By reducing the voltage drop at the cathode
c. By increasing current density
d. Only (a) and (b)
ANSWER: Only (a) and (b)
29) The temperature produced in indirect arc furnace is
a. More than in direct arc furnace
b. Less than direct arc furnace
c. Equal to direct arc furnace
d. None of these
ANSWER: Less than direct arc furnace
30) The dielectric strength of air gap is
a. 2.11kV/cm
b. 21.1kV/m
c. 21.1kV/cm

d. 2.11kV/m
ANSWER: 21.1kV/cm
31) Which type of heating is used for sterilization?
a. High frequency eddy current heating
b. Coreless type heating
c. Core type heating
d. Dielectric heating
ANSWER: Dielectric heating
32) Eureka is an alloy of
a. Nickel and chromium
b. Nickel and copper
c. Iron, chromium and aluminium
d. Nickel, chromium and aluminium
ANSWER: Nickel and copper
33) A good heating element should have
a. High resistivity and low melting point

b. Low resistivity and high melting point
c. High resistivity and high melting point
d. Low resistivity and low melting point
ANSWER: High resistivity and high melting point
34) In resistance furnaces, the temperature can be controlled by
a. Varying the applied voltage

b. Bucking and boosting secondary voltage
c. Changing the number of heating elements
d. All of these

35) In salt bath heating, the current are allowed to flow only through the
a. Only through the salt bath
b. Only through the material being heated
c. Through both (a) and (b)
d. None of these
ANSWER: Only through the salt bath
36) An ac timer circuit is used to control the number of cycles for which the power may be supplied
to the weld. In this, the time required for the voltage to fall by a given amount is
a. Directly proportional to the resistor

b. Directly proportional to the capacity of the condenser
c. Directly proportional to the inductor
d. Only (a) and (b)
37) Non - consumable electrodes are made of
a. Carbon
b. Graphite
c. Either carbon or graphite
d. Same material as the metal pieces to be welded
ANSWER: Either carbon or graphite
38) Advantage of using electron beam welding is / are
a. Welds are clean

b. Absence of porosity
c. Distortion less
d. All of these
39) In inert gas metal arc welding,
a. Argon is used for welding thin materials and helium is used for welding thick materials

b. Both argon and helium are used for welding thin materials
c. Both argon and helium are used for welding thick materials
d. Argon is used for welding thick materials and helium is used for welding thin materials
ANSWER: Argon is used for welding thin materials and helium is used for welding thick materials
40) Voltage required for butt welding is
a. 2 to 8 V
b. 8 to 15 V
c. 15 to 22 V
d. 22 to 30 V
ANSWER: 2 to 8 V
41) For welding aluminium alloys, the electrodes used are
a. Hard drawn copper
b. Cadmium copper
c. Chromium copper
d. Tungsten copper
ANSWER: Hard drawn copper
42) The heat required by the weld is produced due to the contact resistance between the two
pieces and is
a. Directly proportional to the current
b. Directly proportional to the square of the current
c. Inversely proportional to the square of the current

d. Inversely proportional to the current
ANSWER: Directly proportional to the square of the current
43) For regenerative braking, the motor which is not suitable is
a. DC shunt motor
b. DC compound motor
c. DC series motor

d. AC shunt motor
ANSWER: DC series motor
44) In case of dc series motor, the torque can be found from
a. Only magnetization curve
b. Only demagnetization curve
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of these
ANSWER: Only magnetization curve
45) During plugging, the speed of the motor gradually decreases. If the supply to the motor is not
cut - off then the
a. Motor will continue to rotate in the same direction
b. Motor will continue to rotate in the reverse direction
c. Motor will come to rest
d. None of these
ANSWER: Motor will come to rest
46) Which among the following is mechanical braking?
a. Pneumatic braking
b. Plugging
c. Dynamic braking
d. Regenerative braking
ANSWER: Pneumatic braking
47) The scheduled speed of a train can be increased by
a. Increasing the acceleration and retardation
b. Increasing the crest speed
c. Decreasing the duration of stop
d. All of these

48) The ratio of the distance between any two stops and the sum of the time of run and the time of
stop at one station is known as
a. Crest speed
b. Average speed
c. Maximum speed
d. Scheduled speed
ANSWER: Scheduled speed
49) In mail line train services, the

a. Acceleration and braking periods are long
b. Acceleration and braking periods are short
c. Free run and coasting periods are long
d. Both (b) and (c)
ANSWER: Both (b) and (c)
50) In tramways,
a. Two drum controllers are employed in series
b. Two drum controllers are employed in parallel
c. Only one drum controller is employed
d. Three drum controller are employed either in parallel or series
ANSWER: Two drum controllers are employed in parallel
51) For running at half of the maximum speed, the batteries of battery electric drive are connected
in
a. Parallel
b. Series
c. Series - parallel
d. Drive cannot run at this speed
ANSWER: Series - parallel
52) In diesel electric drive,

a. A diesel engine drives an ac generator
b. Haulage capacity is less
c. Regenerative braking cannot be used
d. All of these
ANSWER: Regenerative braking cannot be used
53) In internal combustion engine drive, a gear box is
a. Required for controlling the torque
b. Required for controlling the speed
c. Required for controlling both speed and torque
d. Not required
ANSWER: Required for controlling both speed and torque
54) The inside wall of fluorescent tube is coated with
a. Sulphur powder`
b. Phosphor powder
c. Sodium
d. Krypton
ANSWER: Phosphor powder
55) Nitrogen is added with the argon in an incandescent lamp to
a. Reduce the temperature
b. Reduce the possibility of arcing
c. Increase the brightness
d. Increase the efficiency
ANSWER: Reduce the possibility of arcing
56) The artificial source of light is
a. Arc lamp
b. Incandescent lamp
c. Discharge lamp

d. All of these
57) The polar curves are used to find out the
a. MHCP
b. MSCP
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of these
58) According to the first law of illumination, the illumination of a surface due to a source of light is
a. Inversely proportional to the distance between the surface and the source of light
b. Inversely proportional to the square of the distance between the surface and the source of light
c. Directly proportional to the distance between the surface and the source of light
d. Directly proportional to the square of the distance between the surface and the source of light
ANSWER: Inversely proportional to the square of the distance between the surface and the source
of light
59) According to second law of illumination, the illumination at any point on an inclined surface is
a. Directly proportional to the cosine of the angle between the normal to the surface at that point
b. Directly proportional to the sin of the angle between the normal to the surface at that point
c. Directly proportional to the tan of the angle between the normal to the surface at that point
d. Directly proportional to the cot of the angle between the normal to the surface at that point
ANSWER: Directly proportional to the cosine of the angle between the normal to the surface at that
point
60) Reduction factor of a source of light is the ratio of its
a. Mean horizontal candle power to the mean spherical candle power
b. Mean spherical candle power to the mean horizontal candle power
c. Maximum horizontal candle power to the mean spherical candle power
d. Mean spherical horizontal candle power to the maximum spherical candle power
ANSWER: Mean spherical candle power to the mean horizontal candle power

61) Throwing power is the ability of the electrolyte to produce
a. Uniform deposit on an article of regular shape
b. Uniform deposit on an article of irregular shape
c. Non - uniform deposit on an article of regular shape
d. Non - uniform deposit on an article of irregular shape
ANSWER: Uniform deposit on an article of irregular shape
62) The energy required for refining of gold in kWh / tone is about
a. 100 to 150
b. 250 to 350
c. 300 to 350
d. 350 to 400
ANSWER: 300 to 350
63) The metal which can be extracted from its ore by the method of electrolysis is /are
a. Zinc
b. Aluminium
c. Copper
d. All of these
64) The rate of heat produced by dielectric heating is increased by
a. Increasing frequency and voltage supply
b. Increasing frequency and decreasing voltage supply
c. Decreasing frequency and voltage supply

d. Decreasing frequency and increasing voltage supply
ANSWER: Increasing frequency and voltage supply
65) High frequency eddy current heating is used for
a. Melting of non-ferrous metals

b. High grade alloy steel production
c. Hardening the surfaces of materials being heated
d. Vacuum heating
ANSWER: Hardening the surfaces of materials being heated
66) For improving the power factor of coreless type induction furnace,
a. Capacitor is used
b. Inductor is used
c. Resistor is used
d. Transistor is used
ANSWER: Capacitor is used
67) In indirect core type of furnace, the element is heated by induction, which transfer the heat to
the charge by
a. Conduction
b. Radiation
c. Convection
d. All of these
ANSWER: Radiation
68) Direct resistance heating method is used in
a. Salt bath furnaces
b. Resistance welding
c. Electrode boiler for heating water

d. All of these
69) The sun’s rays reach the earth without heating the atmosphere, this is due to
a. Convection
b. Radiation
c. Conduction

d. None of these
ANSWER: Radiation
70) In radiation mode of heat transfer, the heat is transferred from one body to other
a. From molecule to molecule due to the temperature gradient between two parts
b. By actual movement of the heated molecules
c. Without actually heating the medium in between
d. All of these
ANSWER: Without actually heating the medium in between
71) The electrodes used in carbon arc welding are made up of
a. Carbon
b. Graphite
c. Either carbon or graphite
d. Zinc
ANSWER: Either carbon or graphite
72) In metal arc welding, the filler material required is
a. Iron
b. Copper
c. Aluminium
d. No filler is required
ANSWER: No filler is required
73) Arc welding is also known as
a. Pressure welding
b. Plastic welding
c. Non - pressure welding
d. None of these
ANSWER: Non - pressure welding

74) The fusion welding is also known as
a. Plastic welding
b. Pressure welding
c. Non - pressure welding
d. None of these
ANSWER: Non - pressure welding
75) The example of plastic welding is
a. Resistance welding
b. Gas welding
c. Arc welding
d. Thermit welding without pressure
ANSWER: Resistance welding
76) After welding, the welded parts retain which properties of the metal?
a. Melting point
b. Density
c. Thermal conductivity
d. All of these
77) Three phase induction motor is not suitable for traction purpose because
a. Low starting torque
b. High starting current
c. Constant speed operation
d. All of these
78) AC series motors are most suitable for
a. Urban services
b. Sub-urban services

c. Main line services
d. All of these
ANSWER: Main line services
79) The motor which is most suitable for the traction work is / are
a. DC series motor
b. DC shunt motor
c. Single phase ac series motor
d. Three phase induction motor
ANSWER: DC series motor
80) In urban or city train service, the
a. Acceleration period is absent
b. Free running period is absent
c. Coasting period is absent
d. Braking period is absent
ANSWER: Free running period is absent
81) In speed time curve for trains, the notching period is

a. Constant acceleration period
b. Free running period of the train
c. Braking period of the train
d. Coasting period of the train
ANSWER: Constant acceleration period
82) The slope of the speed - time curve at any point gives the
a. Acceleration of the train at that point of time
b. Retardation of the train at that point of time
c. Distance travelled by the train
d. Either (a) or (b)
ANSWER: Either (a) or (b)

83) The haulage capacity is more for
a. Steam engine system
b. Internal combustion engine drive
c. Battery electric drive
d. None of these
ANSWER: Steam engine system
84) The steam engine drive and electric traction drive
a. Both uses electricity for its operation
b. Former do not use electricity at any stage of its operation and later uses electricity for its
operation
c. Former uses electricity for its operation and the later one do not use electricity for its operation
d. Both do not use electricity at any stage for its operation
ANSWER: Both do not use electricity at any stage for its operation
85) The propulsion of heavy vehicle is called

a. Illumination
b. Electric movement
c. Electric traction
d. Hybrid vehicle
ANSWER: Electric traction
86) The glare can be reduced by

a. Decreasing the height of bright light sources
b. Using glossy surfaces for bench tops
c. Using reflectors to the bright sources
d. All of these
ANSWER: Using reflectors to the bright sources
87) Flood lighting is used for

a. For enhancing the beauty of building at nights
b. For illuminating sports stadium
c. For illuminating show cases
d. All of these
88) The suitable lamps for street lighting are
a. Mercury vapour lamps
b. Sodium discharge lamps
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of these
89) The illumination due to good daylight is approximately equal to
a. 100 lux
b. 200 lux
c. 300 lux
d. 400 lux
ANSWER: 200 lux
90) Lux is the unit of
a. Luminous flux
b. Luminous intensity
c. Illumination
d. Luminance
ANSWER: Illumination
No explanation is available for this question
91) The range of visible radiation lies between
a. 2000 angstrom to 2500 angstrom
b. 4000 angstrom to 4500 angstrom
c. 5000 angstrom to 6000 angstrom

d. 4000 angstrom to 7500 angstrom
ANSWER: 4000 angstrom to 7500 angstrom
92) With increase in temperature of the body, the emission of light waves is
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains same
d. None of these
ANSWER: Increases
93) The current efficiency is defined as the ratio of
a. Actual quantity of the substance deposited to the theoretical quantity of the substance deposited
b. Actual quantity of the substance deposited to the theoretical quantity of the substance liberated
c. Theoretical quantity of the substance deposited to the actual quantity of the substance deposited
d. Theoretical quantity of the substance deposited to the actual quantity of the substance liberated
ANSWER: Actual quantity of the substance deposited to the theoretical quantity of the substance
liberated
94) According to the Faraday’s first laws of electrolysis, the mass of substance liberated during
electrolysis is
a. Directly proportional to the current flowing through the electrolyte
b. Directly proportional to time for which current flows
c. Directly proportional to the charge
d. Only (a) and (b)
95) When sulfate molecules reacts with the water then
a. Hydrogen is liberated
b. Oxygen is liberated
c. Sulphurdioxide is formed
d. All of these
ANSWER: Oxygen is liberated

96) In direct core type induction furnaces, the leakage reactance of the magnetic circuit is
a. High and power factor is also high
b. Low and power factor is high
c. High and power factor is low
d. Low and power factor is also low
ANSWER: High and power factor is low
97) The core type induction furnace and the coreless type induction furnace are
a. Low frequency, high frequency
b. Low frequency, low frequency
c. High frequency, high frequency
d. High frequency, low frequency
ANSWER: Low frequency, high frequency
98) In induction heating, the heat produced is
a. Directly proportional to the induced voltage and inversely proportional to the resistance
b. Inversely proportional to the induced voltage and directly proportional to the resistance
c. Directly proportional to the square of induced voltage and inversely proportional to the resistance
d. Inversely proportional to the square of induced voltage and directly proportional to the resistance
ANSWER: Directly proportional to the square of induced voltage and inversely proportional to the
resistance
99) Heat in water and air is transferred by

a. Conduction
b. Convection
c. Radiation
d. Either conduction or convection
ANSWER: Convection
100) The heat can be transferred from high temperature body to low temperature body by

a. Conduction method
b. Convection method
c. Radiation method
d. All of these
101) The efficiency of heating is more for
a. Solid fuels
b. Oil heating
c. Gas heating
d. Electric heating
ANSWER: Electric heating

1. The most vital factor against electric traction is the
A. necessity of providing a negative booster
B. possibility of electric supply failure
C. high cost of its maintenance
D. high initial cost of laying out over-head electric supply system.
Answer => D
2. For the single-phase ac system of track electrification, low frequency is desirable

because of the following advantage/s
A. it improves commutation properties of ac motors
B. it increases ac motor efficiency
C. it increases ac motor power factor
D. all of the above
Answer => D
3. The main reason for choosing the composite 1-phase ac to dc system for all future track
electrification in India is that it
A. needs less number of sub-stations
B. combines the advantages of high voltage ac distribution at 50 Hz with dc series traction motors
C. provides flexibility in the location of sub-stations
D. requires light overhead catenary
Answer => B
4. The free-running speed of a train does NOT depend on the

A. duration of stops
B. distance between stops
C. running time
D. acceleration
Answer => A
5. Tractive effort of an electric locomotive can be increased by

A. increasing the supply voltage
B. using high kW motors increasing dead weight over the driving axles
C. both and
D. both and
Answer => D
6. Welding is not done directly from the supply mains because

A. it is customary to use welding machines
B. its voltage is too high
C. its voltage keeps fluctusting
D. it is impracticable to draw heavy currents
Answer => D
7. In electric welding, arc blow can be avoided by

A. using bare electrodes
B. welding away from earth ground connection
C. using ac welding machines
D. increasing arc length
Answer => C
8. Submerged arc process is characterised by

A. deep penetration
B. high welding current
C.exceptionally smooth beads
D. all of the above
Answer => D
9. Unlike TIC welding, MIG welding

A. requires no flux
B. uses consumable electrodes
C. provides complet protection from atmospheric contamination
D. requires no post-weld cleansing
Answer => B
10. MIG welding process is becoming increasingly popular in welding industry mainly
because of
A. its easy operation
B. its high metal deposit rate
C. its use in both ferrous and non-ferrous metals
D. both and
Answer => D
11. Spot welding process basically depends on

A. ohmic resistance
B. generation of heat
C. application of forgin pressure
D. both and
Answer => D
12. In the process of electroslag welding theoretically there is no upper limit to the
A. thickness of weld bead
B. rate of metal deposit
C. slag bath temperature
D. rate of slag consumption
Answer => A
13. The characteristics of drive for crane hoisting is

A. smooth movement
B. precise control
C. fast speed control
D. all of the
Answer => D
14. Motors preferred for rolling mill drive is

A. d.c. motors
B. a.c. slip ring motors with speed control
C. both and above
D. none of the above
Answer => D
15. In case of centrifugal pumps the starting torque is generally

A. double the running torque
B. slightly more than running torque
C. same as running torque
D. less than running torque
Answer => D
16. Motor preferred for synthetic fibre mills is

A. D.C. Series motor
B. reluctance motor
C. D.C. Shunt motor
D. synchronous motor
Answer => B
17. Reluctance motor is a

A. self-starting type synchronous motors
B. low torque variable speed motor
C. variable torque motor
D. low noise, slow speed motor
Answer => A
18. Ward-Leonard controlled d.c. drives are generally used for

A. light duty excavators
B. medium duty excavators
C. heavy duty excavators
D. all of these
Answer => C
19. In case of contactors the ratio of the inservice period to the entire period,expressed as
a percentage is known as
A. duty
B. load factor
C. class of contact
D. none of these
Answer => B
20. A magnetic amplifier can be used for the control of

A. current
B. voltage
C. speed
D. all of these
Answer => A
21. In a contactor, overheating of contacts may result from

A. high inductive loads
B. copper oxide on contacts
C. carrying load continuously for a longer time
D. all of these
Answer => D
22. The failure of a thermal relay may occur due to

A. motor and relay in different ambient temperatures
B. relay previously damaged by short-circuit
C. mechanical binding
D. all of these
Answer => D
23. According to Indian Electricity rules, extra high voltage implies voltage exceeding
A. 440 V
B. 66 kV
C. 33 kV
D. 110 kV
Answer => A
24. Resistivity of earth increases sharply if the moisture falls below

A.60%
B.50%
C.40%
D.20%
Answer => D
25. Earth electrodes can be in the form of

A. rods and pipes
B. strips
C. plates
D. all of these
Answer => D
26. PVC conduits can be buried on

A. lime
B. plaster
C. concrete
D. any of these
Answer => D
27. Mixture preferred for filling around the earth for electrode efective earthing is
A. bone-meat mixture
B. coal-salt mixture
C. saw-dust sand mixture
D. lime-sand mixture
Answer => B
28. Earthing is used as the return conductor for
A. telephone lines
B. telegraph lines
C. traction work
D. all of these
Answer => C
29. In automobiles, the sound produced by horn is due to

A. magnetostriction
B. vibrating diaphragm
C. moving coil
D. oscillating coil
Answer => B
30. Continuous operation of automobile horn will

A. help in charging the battery
B. improve mileage
C. damage the operating coil
D. change the tone
Answer => C
31. Electric braking is preferred because it is

A. smooth
B. maintenance cost is less
C. energy is saved in regenerating broking
D. all of these
Answer => D
32. The various types of electric braking are

A. plugging
B. rheostatic braking
C. regenerative braking
D. all of these
Answer => D
33. Motor recommended for locomotive drive is

A. D.C.series motor
B. p.c. shunt motor
C. .C. Compound motor
D. synchronous motor
Answer => A
34. In case of d.c. series motor it is possible to have finite no load speed if a resistance is
connected across its
A. field terminals
B. armature terminals
C. field and armature together
D. it is always very high at no load
Answer => B
35. During starting, the energy consumed by the armature of a d.c. shunt motor
A. equals the K.E. shored by the rotor and increases with increase in armature resistance.
B. equals the K.E. stored by the rotor and decreases with increase in armature resistance.
C. equals the K.E. stored by the rotor and is independent of armature resistance.
D. none of these
Answer => C
36. Overall efficiency of streams locomotive -system is close to

A. 5 to 10%
B. 25 to 30%
C. 55 to 60%
D. 75 to 80%
Answer => A
37. Suburban railways use

A. 1500 V, DC
B. 440 V, three-phase AC
C. 660 V, three-phase AC
D. 3.3 V, three-phase AC
Answer => A
38. Long distance railways use

A. 220 V, DC
B. 25 kV, single-phase AC
C. 25 kV, two-phase AC
D. 25 kV, three-phase AC
Answer => B
39. The advantage of electric braking is

A. it is instantaneous
B. more heat is generated during breaking
C. it avoids wear of track
D. motor continue to remain loaded during braking.
Answer => C
40. The coefficient of adhesion is

A. same on a.c. and d.c. traction systems
B. high in case of d.c. traction and low in a.c. traction
C. low in case of a.c. traction and high in d.c. traction
D. none of these
Answer => C
41. A composite system consists of

A. a combination of diesel engine and d.c. series motor.
B. a combination of diesel engine and a.c. single-phase motor.
C. single-phase power received is converted into d.c. or three-phase power a.c. system.
D. use of combination of d.c. and a.c. motors on the same locomotive
Answer => C
42. Which city in India was first to adopt electric traction?
A. Bombay
B. Madras
C. Calcutta
D. Delhi
Answer => A
43. Traction systems is latest used in the world is

A. Three-phase 3.7 kV
B. 20 kV, 50 Hz, single-phase
C. 600 V, DC
D. 3 kV, DC
Answer => A
44. In a long distance electric train, power for lighting in passenger coach is provided
A. through locomotive
B. directly through overhead electric line
C. through individual generator of bogie and batteries
D. through rails
Answer => C

A. high starting tractive effort.
B. the locomotive is to run on metre gauge track
C. the locomotive is for shunting duty
D. the locomotive is for goods trains only.
Answer => D
46. Quadrilateral speed-time curve is the closer approximation for

A. main line service
B. suburban service
C. urban service
D. urban and suburban service
Answer => D
47. The specific energy consumption

A. increases with increase in maximum speed
B. decreases with increase in maximum speed
C. is independent of maximum speed.
D. none of these
Answer => A
48. For welding duty the rectifiers commonly used are

A. Mercury arc rectifiers
B. Selenium metal rectifiers
C. both and
Answer => B
49. Electrodes having least diameter is

A. 20 SWG
B. 14 SWG
C. 8 SWG
D. 4 SWG
Answer => A
50. TIC welding is

A. Temperature Insulated Gas welding
B. Tungsten Inert Gas welding
C. Thermally Induced Gas welding
D. Thorium Iodine Gas welding
Answer => B
51. Flux used in TIC welding is

A. Ammonium chloride
B. Borax
C. Ash
D. None of these
Answer => D
52. MIG welding is

A. Midsteel Inert Gas welding
B. Medium Inert Gas welding
C. Maximum Inert depth Gas welding
D. Metal inert Gas Welding
Answer => C
53. When t is the thickness of the sheet, the tip diameter for spot welding is usually
A. 2t
B. t
C. VT
D. T
Answer => C
54. Which of the following is of high importance in case of induction heating?

A. Voltage
B. Current
C. Frequency
D. All of these
Answer => C
55. Method of heating which is likely to give leading power factor is

A. electric arc
B. induction heating
C. dielectric heating
D. resistance heating
Answer => C
56. The ideal method of heating plastics is

A. Oil fired furnace
B. Resistance furance heating
C. Dielectric heating
D. Coal fired furance
Answer => C
57. If 'f' be the frequency, then dielectric loss is proportional to

A. f
B. f2
C.
D.
Answer => A
58. For heating of plywood, the frequency should be

A. 100 Hz
B. 1000 Hz
C. 10 - 20 kHz
D. 1 - 2 MHz
Answer => D
59. Quantities having the unit "lux" is

A. Utilization factor
B. Luminous flux
C. Luminous intensity
D. Illumination
Answer => D
60. The highest illumination is required

A. for office work
B. for mounting of wrist watches
C. for sorting work in the stores
D. for painting won.
Answer => B
61. A water boiler at home is switched on to the a.c. mains supplying power at 230 V/ 50
Hz. The frequency of instantaneous power consumed by the boiler is
A. 0 Hz
B. 50 Hz
C. 100 Hz
D. 150 Hz
Answer => C
62. If v, w, q stand for voltage, energy and charge, then v can be expressed as
A. v =dwdq
B. v =dw
C. dv =dq
D. dv = ?dw
Answer => B
63. The voltages at the two ends of a line are 132 kV and its reactance is 40 ohms. The
capacity of the line is :
A. 435.6 MW
B. 217.5 MW
C. 251.5 MW
D. 500 MW
Answer => A
64. In order to have lower cost of electrical energy generation :

A. The load factor and diversity factor should be low
B. The Icoad factor should be low but diversity factor should be high
C. The load factor should be high but diversity factor low
D. The load factor and diversity factors should be high
Answer => D
65. The insulation of the modern EHV lines is designed based on :

A. The lighting voltage
B. The switching voltage
C. Corona
D. RI
Answer => B
66. The size of conductor on modern EHV lines is obtained based on :

A. Voltage drop
B. Current density
C. Corona
D. and
Answer => C
67. For stability and economic reasons we operate the transmission line with power angle
in the range :
A. 10? to 25?
B. 30? to 45?
C. 60? to 75?
D. 65? to 80? Fig. 15.2
Answer => B
68. For a lumped inductive load, with increase in supply ferquency :

A. P and Q increase
B. P increases, Q decreases
C. P decreases, Q increases
D. P and Q decrease
Answer => B
70. The presence of earth in case of overhead lines :
A. Increases the capacitance
B. Increases the inductance
C. Decreases the capacitance
D. Decreases the inductance
Answer => A
71. The load flow solution is always assured in case of :

A. Newton-Raphson method
B. Gauss method
C. Gauss-Seidel method
D. None of these methods guarantees.
Answer => D
72. An alternators is delivering a load current; its per cent regulation is found to be zero.
The type of load it delivers is :
A. Capacitive
B. Inductive
C. Resistive
D. None of above
Answer => A
73. The inertia constants of two groups of machines which do not swing together are Mi
and M2. The equivalent inertia constant of the system is :
A. MI +M2
B. MI - M2 if M >M2M I M 2
C. M + M2
D. TM-71712-
Answer => C
74. The cost of generation is theoretically minimum if :

A. The system constraints are considered
B. The operational constraints are considered
C. and
D. The constraints are not considered
Answer => D
75. The incremental transmission loss of a plant is :

A. Positive always
B. Negative always
C. Can be positive or negative
D. Zero
Answer => C
78. A transmission line of 80 km length is operating at 400 Hz, it can be classified as

A. Short length line
B. Medium length line
C. Long length line
D. all of the above
Answer => C
79. The main consideration for higher and higher operating voltage of transmission is to
A. increase efficiency of transmission
B. reduce power losses
C. increase power transfer capability
D. and
Answer => C
80. When there is a change in load in a power station having a number of generator units
operating in parallel, the system frequency is controlled by
A. adjusting the steam input to the units
B. adjusting the field-excitation of the generators
C. chaning the load divisions between the units
D. injecting reactive power at the station bus bar
Answer => A
81. The flow-duration curve at a given head of a hydro-electric plant is used to determine
the
A. total power available at the site
B. total units of energy available
C. load-factor at the plant
D. diversity-factor for the plant.
Answer => A
82. In the optimum generator scheduling of different power plants, the minimum fuel
cost is obtained when
A. only the incremental fuel cost of each plant is the same
B. the penalty factor of each plant is the same
C. the ratio of the incremental fuel cost to the penalty factor of each plant is the same
D. the incremental fuel cost of each plant multiplied by its penalty factor is the same.
Answer => D
83. A hydel power plant of run-off-river should be provided with a pondage so that the
A. firm-capacity of the plant is increased
B. operating head is controlled
C. pressure inside the turbine casing remains constant
D. kinetic energy of the running water is fully utilised
Answer => A
84. Which of the following are the advantages of interconnected operation of power
system? 1..Less reserve capacity requirement 2. More reliability 3. High power factor 4.
Reduction in short-circuit level Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 1 and 4
Answer => A
85. Equal area criterion gives the information regarding

A. stability region
B. absolute stability
C. relative stability
D. swing curves
Answer => B
118. According to Indian Electricity rules, extra high voltage implies voltage exceeding
A. 440V
B. 66kV
C. 33kV
D. 110kV
Answer => A
119. Non metallic conduits for wiring are generally made of

A. rubber
B. cork
C. wood
D. PVC
Answer => D
120. PVC conduits can be buried on

A. lime
B. plaster
C. concrete
D. any of these.
Answer => D
121. PVC conduits can be joined by

A. solvent cement
B. welding
C. threading
D. all of these
Answer => D
122. The earthwire should not he thinner than a

A.aSW-G- wire
B. 16 SWG wire
C. 10 SWG wire
D. 8 SWG wire
Answer => D
123. Electric braking is preferred because

A. smooth
B. maintenance cost is less
C. energy is saved in regenerating braking
D. all of these
Answer => D
124. The various types of electric braking are

A. plugging
B. rheostatic braking
C. regenerative braking
D. all of these
Answer => D
125. Braking retardation on suburban trains is

A. 0.3 to 0.5 km-phps
B. 0.5 to 1 km-phps
C. 3 to 5 km-phps
D. 30 to 40 km-phps
Answer => C
126. The coefficient of adhesion is highest when the rails are

A. dry
B. oiled
C. wet with dew
D. dusty
Answer => A
127. When the speed of the train is estimated taking into account the time of stop at a
station in addition to the actual running time between stops, is known as
A. Average speed
B. Schedule speed
C. Notching speed
D. Free running speed
Answer => B
128. A train runs at an average speed of 50 kmph between stations situated 2.5 km apart.
The train accelerates at 2 kmphs and retards at 3 kmphs. Speed-time curve may be
assumed to be trapezoidal. The maximum speed is
A. 27.75 kmph
B. 38.50 kmph
C. 44.25 kmph
D. 57.75 kmph
Answer => D
129. If the resistance to electric train is given by : Fr = a + by + cv2. In this equation,

constant c is likely to cover
A. air resistance
B. frictional resistance
C. flange resistance
D. track resistance
Answer => A
A. high starting tractive effort.
B. the locomotive is to run on metre gauge track
C. the locomotive is for shunting duty
D. the locomotives is for goods trains only.
Answer => D
132. Two locomotives having identical tractive-effort-slip characteristic haul a heavy train.
The loco with larger diameter shares
A. larger tractive effort
B. smaller tractive effort
C. equal tractive effort
D. none of these
Answer => A
133. In case of bow and pantograph current collectors.

A. the bow collector is used for large current at higher speeds.
B. the pantograph collector is used for large currents at higher speeds.
C. the bow collector is used for large currents at lower speeds.
D. the pantograph collector is used for large currents at lower speeds.
Answer => D
134. The method of heating used in an electric room heat convector is

A. resistance heating
D. arc-heating
Answer => A
135. Highest power factor can be expected in

A. Electric arc heating
B. Dielectric heating
C. Induction heating
D. Resistance heating
Answer => D
136. Heating elements which can give highest temperature in resistance heating is
A. Copper
B. nickel copper
C. Nichrome
D. silicon carbide
Answer => D
137. Nichrome wires can be safely used for heating to temperature around 1500 ?C.
Materials selected for heating element should be
A. Eureka
B. Kanthal
C. Platinum molybdenum, carbon compound
D. Nichrome
Answer => C
138. Which of the following element will have the least range of temperature?
A. Eureka
B. Nichrome
C. Silicon carbon
D. Kanthal
Answer => A
139. Furnances used for cremation use is of

A. resistance heating
D. arc heating
Answer => A
140. Induction hardening is possible

A. on ferrous materials only
B. on magnetic materials only
C. on d.c. supply only
D. on a.a.supply only
Answer => D
141. In a domestic cake baking oven, the temperature is controlled by

A. series parallel operation
B. auto transformer
C. thermostat
D. voltage variation
Answer => C
142. Thermal conductivity is least for

A. air
B. water
C. glass
D. copper
Answer => A
143. Method of heating which likely gives leading power factor is

A. electric arc
D. resistance heating
Answer => C
144. In an electric press, mica is used

A. for dielectric heating
B. for induction heating
C. as an insulator
D. as a device for power factor improvement
Answer => C
145. Methods which is suitable for the heating of conducting medium is

A. Radiant heating
B. Eddy current heating
C. Induction heating
D. Indirect arc heating
Answer => C
146. In dielectric heating, current flows through

A. metallic conductor
B. ionic discharge between dielectric medium and metallic conductor
C. dielectric
D. air
Answer => C
147. Desirable property of resistance heating element materials is

A. High resistivity
B. High melting point
C. Low temperature coefficient
D. All of these
Answer => D
148. The ideal method of heating plastics is

A. Oil fired furnace
B. Resistance furance heating
C. Dielectric heating
D. Coal fired furance
Answer => C
149. If 'f' be the frequency, then dielectric loss is proportional to

A. f
B. f2
C.7
D.5
Answer => A
151. Radiant heating is used for

A. melting of ferrous metals
B. drying of paints and varnishes
C. heating of liquids in electric kettle
D. annealing of metals
Answer => B
152. Method which is appropriate for heating non-ferrous metals?

A. Dielectric heating
B. Radiant heating
C. Indirect arc heating
D. Indirect resistance heating
Answer => C
153. For arc heating, the electrodes are mode of

A. Copper
B. Aluminium
C. Graphite
D.ACSR conductor
Answer => C
154. A plywood board is to be heated through 100 ?C. The method suitable for this
purpose is
A. Induction heating
B. Resistance heating
C. Arc heating
D. Any of these
Answer => A
155. For heating of plywood, the frequency shoiuld be

A. 100 Hz
B. 1000 Hz
C. 10-20 kHz
D. 1-2 MHz
Answer => D
156. High frequency for induction heating can be generated by

A. motor generator set
B. spark gap oscillator
C. vacuum tube oscillator
D. All of these
Answer => B
157. Steel rails are welded by

A. Argon arc welding
B. Thermit welding
C. Gas welding
D. Resistance welding
Answer => B
158. Quantities having the unit "lux" is

A. Utilization factor
B. Luminous flux
C. Luminous intensity
D. Illumination
Answer => D
159. Which of the following statements about illumination is true?

A. If the distance from the source doubles, the illumination becomes half
B. If the distance from the source doubles, the illumination reduces to one fourth
C. The greater the illumination, the better one sees
D. The finer the work, the less the required illumination
Answer => B
160. The highest illumination is required

A. for office work
B. for mounting of wrist watches
C. for sorting work in the stores
D. for painting work.
Answer => B
161. Which of the following comparisons between the filament lamp and the fluorescent
lamp is correct?
A. The flurescent lamp has a higher dazzle
B. The fluorescent lamp produces shrper shadows
C. The fluorescent lamp produces greater brightness
D. The average life of the fluorescent lamp is five to seven times higher.
Answer => D
162. What is attained by heating the electrodes of the fluorescent lamp?

A. The therniionic emission of electrons
B. The photo emission of electrons
C. The heating up of the gas filling and thus the creation of ions
D. An increase in the voltage across the electrodes
Answer => A
163. The process taking place in a fluorescent tube is

A. Gaseous discharge
B. Secondary emission
C. Phosphorescence
D. Thermionic emission
Answer => A
164. The difference between fluorescent lamps that produce different coloured light is
A. the colour of the glass
B. the composition of the fluorescent material
C. the pressure of the filled gas
D. the composition of the filled gas
Answer => B
165. The white matter coated inside the fluorescent lamp?

A. reduces the brightness
B. provides a proper exterior to the tube
C. converts the ultraviolet radiation into visible light
D. provides the ions necessary for the gas discharge
Answer => C
166. Which of the following is an advantage of electric traction over other methods of
traction?
A. Faster acceleration
B. No pollution problems
C. Better braking action
D. All of the above
Answer => D
168. Long distance railways use which of the following?

A. 200 V. D.C.
B. 25 kV single phase A.C.
C. 25 kV two phase A.C.
D. 25 kV three phase A.C.
Answer => B

A. fly wheel
B. gear box
C. applying brakes
D. regulating steam flow to engine
Answer => D

A. electric locomotives
B. diesel engine locomotives
C. steam engine locomotives
D. All of the above
Answer => C
171. In India diesel locomotives are manufactured at

A. Ajmer
B. Varanasi
C. Bangalore
D. Jamalpur
Answer => B
172. For diesel locomotives the range of horse power is

A. 50 to 200
B. 500 to 1000
C. 1500 to 2500
D. 3000 to 5000
Answer => C
173. locomotives has the highest operational availability.

A. Electric
B. Diesel
C. Steam
Answer => A
174. The horsepower of steam locomotives is
A. upto 1500
B. 1500 to 2000
C. 2000 to 3000
D. 3000 to 4000
Answer => A
175. The overall efficiency of steam locomotive is around

A. 5 to 10 percent
B. 15 to 20 percent
C. 25 to 35 percent
D. 35 to 45 percent
Answer => A
176. In tramways which of the following motors is used?

A. D.C. shunt motor
B. D.C. series motor
C. A.C. three phase motor
D. A.C. single phase capacitor start motor
Answer => B
177. In a steam locomotive electric power is provided through

A. overhead wire
B. battery system
C. small turbo-generator
D. diesel engine generator
Answer => C
178. Which of the following drives is suitable for mines where explosive gas exists?
A. Steam engine
B. Diesel engine
C. Battery locomotive
D. Any of the above
Answer => C
179. In case of locomotives the tractive power is provided by

A. single cylinder double acting steam engine
B. double cylinder, single acting steam engine
C. double cylinder, double acting steam engine
D. single stage steam turbine
Answer => C
180. Overload capacity of diesel engines is usually restricted to

A. 2 percent
B. 10 percent
C. 20 percent
D. 40 percent
Answer => B
181. In case of steam engine the steam pressure is
A. 1 to 4 kgf/cm2
B. 5 to 8 kgf/cm2
C. 10 to 15 kgf/cm2
D. 25 to 35 kgf/cm2
Answer => C
182. The steam engine provided on steam locomotives is

A. single acting condensing type
B. single acting non-condensing type
C. double acting condensing type
D. double acting non-condensing type
Answer => D
183. Electric locomotives in India are manufactured at

A. Jamalpur
B. Bangalore
C. Chittranjan
D. Gorakhpur
Answer => C
184. The wheels of a train, engine as well as bogies, are slightly tapered to
A. reduce friction
B. increase friction
C. facilitate braking
D. facilitate in taking turns
Answer => D
185. Automatic signalling is used for which of the following trains?

A. Mail and express trains
B. Superfast trains
C. Suburban and Urban electric trains
D. All trains
Answer => C
186. The efficiency of diesel locomotives is nearly

A. 20 to 25 precent
B. 30 to 40 percent
C. 45 to 55 percent
D. 60 to 70 percent
Answer => A
187. The speed of a superfast train is

A. 60 kmph
B. 75 kmph
C. 100 kmph
D. more than 100 kmph
Answer => D
188. The number of passenger coaches that can be attached to a diesel engine locomotive
on broad gauge is usually restricted to
A.5
B.10
C.14
D.17
Answer => D
189. Which of the following state capitals is not on broad gauge track?
A. Lucknow
B. Bhopal
C. Jaipur
D. Chandigarh
Answer => C
190. Which of the following is the advantage of electric braking?

A. It avoids wear of track
B. Motor continues to remain loaded during braking
C. It is instantaneous
D. More heat is generated during braking
Answer => A
191. Which of the following braking systems on the locomotives is costly?

A. Regenerative braking on electric locomotives
B. Vacuum braking on diesel locomotives
C. Vacuum braking on steam locomotives
D. All braking systems are equally costly
Answer => A

A. overcome the gravity component of train mass
B. overcome friction, windage and curve resistance
C. accelerate the train mass
D. do all of the above
Answer => D
193. For given maximum axle load tractive efforts of A.C. locomotive will be
A. less than that of D.C. locomotive
B. more than that of D.C. locomotive
C. equal to that of D.C. locomotive
Answer => B
194. Co-efficient of adhesion reduces due to the presence of which of the following?
A. Sand on rails
B. Dew on rails
C. Oil on the rails
D. both and
Answer => D
195. Due to which of the following co-efficient of adhesion improves?
A. Rust on the rails
B. Dust on the rails
C. Sand on the rails
D. All of the above
Answer => D
196. Quadrilateral speed-time curve pertains to which of the following services?

A. Main line service
B. Urban service
C. Sub-urban service
D. Urban and sub-urban service
Answer => D
197. Which of the following is the disadvantage of electric traction over other systems of
traction?
A. Corrosion problems in the underground pipe work
B. Short time power failure interrupts traffic for hours
C. Interference with communication lines
D. All of the above
Answer => C
198. Co-efficient of adhesion is

A. high in case of D.C. traction than in the case of A.C. traction
B. low in case of D.C. traction than in the case of A.C. traction
C. equal in both A.C. and D.C. traction
D. any of the above
Answer => B
199. Speed-time curve of main line service differs from those of urban and sub-urban
services an following account
A. it has longer free running period
B. it has longercoasting period
C. accelerating and braking periods are comparatively smaller
D. all of the above
Answer => D
200. The rate of acceleration on suburban or urban services is restricted by the

consideration of
A. engine power
B. track curves
C. passanger discomfort
D. track size
Answer => C
201. The specific energy consumption of a train depends on which of the following
A. Acceleration and retardation
B. Gradient Distance covered
C. All of the above
D. None of these
Answer => D

A. 1/speed
B. 1/(speed)2
C. speed
Answer => C

A. speed
B. (speed)2
C. (speed)3
D. I /speed
Answer => B

A.0.12
B.0.25
C.0.4
D.0.75
Answer => D
A. Jolting and skidding
B. Hammer blow
C. Pitching
D. All of the above
Answer => A
206. Which of the following braking systems is used on steam locomotives?

A. Hydraulic system
B. Pneumatic system
C. Vacuum system
D. None of the above
Answer => C

A. Vacuum pump
B. Ejector
C. Any of the above
Answer => C
208. The resistance encountered by a train in motion is on account of

A. resistance offered by air
B. friction at the track
C. friction at various parts of the rolling stock
D. all of the above
Answer => D
209. Battery operated trucks are used in

A. steel mills
B. power stations
C. narrow auge traction
D. factories for material transportation
Answer => D
210. method can bring the locomotive to dead stop.

A. Plugging braking
B. Rheostatic braking
C. Regenerative braking
Answer => A
211. The value of co-efficient of adhesion will be high when rails are
A. greased
B. wet
C. sprayed with oil
D. cleaned with sand
Answer => D
212. The voltage used for suburban trains in D.C. system is usually
A. 12 V
B. 24 V
C. 220 V
D. 600 to 750 V
Answer => D
213. For three-phase induction motors which of the following is the least efficient method
of speed control?
A. Cascade control
B. Pole changing
C. Rheostatic control
D. Combination of cascade and pole changing
Answer => C

A. more on steeper gradient
B. more with high train resistance
C. less if distance between stops is more
D. all of the above
Answer => D
215. In main line service as compared to urban and suburban service

A. distance between the stops in more
B. maximum speed reached is high
C. acceleration and retardation rates are low
D. all of the above
Answer => D
216. Locomotive having monomotor bogies

A. has better co-efficient of adhesion
B. are suited both for passanger as well as freight service
C. has better riding qualities due to the reduction of lateral forces
D. has all above qualities
Answer => D
217. Series motor is not suited for traction duty due to which of the following account?
A. Less current drain on the heavy load torque
B. Current surges after temporary switching off supply
C. Self relieving property
D. Commutating property at heavy load
Answer => B
218. When a bogie negotiates a curve, reduction in adhesion occurs resulting in sliding.
Thus sliding is acute when
A. wheel base of axles is more
B. degree of curvature is more
C. both and
Answer => C

A. easy speed control
B. high starting tractive effort
C. equipment capable of with standing large temporary loads
D. all of the above
Answer => D
221. have maximum unbalanced forces

A. Diesel shunters
B. Steam locomotives
C. Electric locomotives
D. Diesel locomotives
Answer => B
222. Specific energy consumption is affected by which of the following factors?

A. Retardation and acceleration values
B. Gradient
C. Distance between stops
D. All of the above
Answer => D
224. Overhead lines for power supply to tramcars are at a minimum height of
A. 3 m
B. 6 m
C. 10 m
D. 20 m
Answer => C
225. The return circuit for tramcars is through

A. neutral wire
B. rails
C. cables
D.common earthing
Answer => B
226. Specific energy consumption is least in service.

A. main line
B. urban
C. suburban
D. none ofthe above
Answer => A
227. Locomotives with monometer bogies have

A. uneven distribution of tractive effect
B. suitability for passanger as well as freight service
C. lot of skidding
D. low co-efficient of adhesion
Answer => B
228. ____ was the first city in India to adopt electric traction.
A. Delhi
B. Madras
C. Calcutta
D. Bombay
Answer => D
230. For 25 kV single phase system power supply frequency is

A. 60 Hz
B. 50 Hz
C. 25 Hz
D. 16 - Hz
Answer => B
231. Power for lighting in passenger coach, in a long distance electric train, is provided
A. directly through overhead electric line
B. through individual generator of bogie and batteries
C. through rails
D. through locomotive
Answer => B
232. In India, electrification of railway track was done for the first time in which of the
following years?
A. 1820-1825
B. 1880-1885
C. 1925-1932
D. 1947-1954
Answer => C
234. In case of a steam engine an average coal consumption per km is nearly

A. 150 to 175 kg
B. 100 to 120 kg
C. 60 to 80 kg
D. 28 to 30 kg
Answer => D
236. For which of the following locomotives the maintenance requirements are the least?
A. Steam locomotives
B. Diesel locomotives
C. Electric locomotives
D. Equal in all of the above
Answer => C
237. Which of the following methods is used to control speed of 25 kV, 50 Hz single phase
traction?
A. Reduced current method
B. Tap changing control of transformer
C. Series parallel operation of motors
D. All of the above
Answer => B
238. If the co-efficient of adhesion on dry rails is 0.26, which of the following could be the
value for wet rails?
A.0.3
B.0.26
C.0.225
D.0.16
Answer => D

A. 0.15 to 0.30 km phps
B. 0.30 to 0.6 km phps
C. 0.6 to 2.4 km phps
D. 3 to 5 km phps
Answer => D
241. The rate of acceleration on suburban or urban service is in the range

A. 0.2 to 0.5 km phps
B. 1.6 to 4.0 km phps
C. 5 to 10 km phps
D. 15 to 25 km phps
Answer => B
244. is the method of braking in which motor armature remains connected to the supply
and draws power from it producing torque opposite to the direction of motion.
A. Rheostatic braking
B. Regerative braking Plugging
C. All the above
D. none of above
Answer => C
245. For 600 V D.C. line for tramcars, track in connected to

A. positive of the supply
B. negative of the supply
C. mid voltage of 300 V
D. none of the abcve
Answer => B
81. Existing traction systems in India.(J.N. University, Hyderabad, December 2002/January 2003)
82. Explain the terms tractive effort, coefficient of adhesion, train resistance and specific energy
consumption of train. (J.N. University, Hyderabad, December 2002/January 2003)
83. An electric train maintains a scheduled speed of 40 kmph between stations situated at 1.5 km apart.
If is accelerated at 1.7 kmph.ps and is braked at 3.2 kmph.ps. Draw the speed-time curve for the
run. Estimate the energy consumption at the axle of the train. Assume tractive resistance constants
at 50 NW per tonne and allow 10% for the effect of rotation inertia.
(J.N. University, Hyderabad, December 2002/January 2003)
84. Explain the advantages of series parallel control of starting as compared to the rheostatic starting
for a pair of dc traction motors. (J.N. University, Hyderabad, December 2002/January 2003)
85. Discuss the main features of various train services. What type of services correspond to trapezoidal
and quadrilateral speed-time curves.(J.N. University, Hyderabad, December 2002/January 2003)
86. Existing electric traction system in India.
87. Briefly explain the controlling of D.C. Motor. (Anna Univ., Chennai 2003)
1. Diesel electric traction has comparatively lim-
motors
ited overload capacity because
(b) it increases ac motor efficiency
(a) diesel electric locomotive is heavier than a
(c) it increases ac motor power factor
plain electric locomotive
(d) all of the above.
(b) diesel engine has shorter life span
6. In Kando system of track electrification,
(c) diesel engine is a constant-kW output
prime mover ..................is converted into .............
(a) 1-phase ac, dc
(d) regenerative braking cannot be employed.
(b) 3-phase ac, 1-phase ac
2. The most vital factor against electric traction
(c) 1-phase ac, 3-phase ac
is the
(d) 3-phase ac, dc.
(a) necessity of providing a negative booster
7. The main reason for choosing the composite
(b) possibility of electric supply failure
1-phase ac-to-dc system for all future track
(c) high cost of its maintenance
electrification in India is that it
(d) high initial cost of laying out overhead
(a) needs less number of sub-stations
electric supply system.
(b) combines the advantages of high-voltage
3. The direct current system used for tramways
ac distribution at 50 Hz with dc series trac-
has a voltage of about .............volt. tion motors
(a) 750 (c) provides flexibility in the location of sub-
(b) 1500 stations
(c) 3000 (d) requires light overhead catenary.
(d) 2400 8. Ordinary, tramway is the most economical
4. In electric traction if contact voltage exceeds means of transport for
1500 V, current collection is invariably via a (a) very dense traffic of large city
(a) contact rail (b) medium traffic densities
(b) overhead wire (c) rural services
(c) third rail (d) suburban services.
(d) conductor rail. 9. Unlike a tramway, a trolleybus requires no
5. For the single-phase ac system of track (a) overhead contact wire
electrification, low frequency is desirable (b) driving axles
because of the following advantages (c) hand brakes
(a) it improves commutation properties of ac (d) running rail.
Electric Traction 1759
10. The current collector which can be used at 17. In a train, the energy output of the driving
different speeds under all wind conditions and axles in used for
stiffness of OHE is called ...................... (a) accelerating the train
collector. (b) overcoming the gradient
(a) trolley (c) overcoming train resistance
(b) bow (d) all of the above.
(c) pantograph 18. Longer coasting period for a train results in
(d) messenger. (a) higher acceleration
11. The speed/time curve for city service has (b) higher retardation
no........................ period. (c) lower specific energy consumption
(a) coasting (d) higher schedule speed.
(b) free-running
19. Tractive effort of an electric locomotive can be
(c) acceleration increased by
(d) braking. (a) increasing the supply voltage
12. For the same value of average speed, increase (b) using high kW motors
in the duration of stops............. speed.
(c) increasing dead weight over the driving
(a) increases the schedule axles
(b) increases the crest (d) both (b) and (c) (e)both (a) and (b).
(c) decreases the crest 20. Skidding of a vehicle always occurs when
(d) decreases the schedule. (a) braking effort exceeds its adhesive weight
13. A train weighing 490 tonne and running at 90 (b) it negotiates a curve
km/h has a mass of .............. kg and a speed
(c) it passes over points and crossings
of ................. m/s.
(d) brake is applied suddenly.
(a) 50,000, 25
21. Which of the following is an advantage of
(b) 490,000, 25
electric traction over other methods of traction?
(c) 490, 25
(a) Faster acceleration
(d) 50, 324.
(b) No pollution problems
14. A train has a mass of 500 tonne. Its weight is
(c) Better braking action
(a) 500 t.wt
(b) 500,000 kg-wt
22. Which of the following is the voltage for
(c) 4,900,000 newton
single phase A.C. system?
(a) 22 V
(e) none of the above.
(b) 440 V
15. The free-running speed of a train does NOT
(c) 5 kV
depend on the
(d) 15 kV
(a) duration of stops
(e) None of the above
(b) distance between stops
23. Long distance railways use which of the
(c) running time
following?
(d) acceleration.
(a) 200 V D.C.
16. A motor coach weighing 100 tonnes is to be
(b) 25 kV single phase A.C.
given an acceleration of 1.0 km/h/s on an
(c) 25 kV two phace A.C.
ascending gradient of 1 percent. Neglecting
rotational inertia and train resistance, the (d) 25 kV three phase A.C.
tractive force required is ................ newton. 24. The speed of a locomotive is controlled by
(a) 109,800 (a) flywheel
(b) 37,580 (b) gear box
(c) 28,760 (c) applying brakes
(d) 125,780. (d) regulating steam flow to engine
25. Main traction system used in India are, those 33. Which of the following drives is suitable for
using mines where explosive gas exists?
(a) electric locomotives (a) Steam engine
(b) diesel engine locomotives (b) Diesel engine
(c) steam engine locomotives (c) Battery locomotive
(d) diesel electric locomotives (d) Any of the above
(e) all of the above 34. In case of locomotives the tractive power is
26. In India diesel locomotives are manufactured provided by
at (a) single cylinder double acting steam
(a) Ajmer engine
(b) Varanasi (b) double cylinder, single acting steam
(c) Bangalore engine
(d) Jamalpur (c) double cylinder, double acting steam
27. For diesel locomotives the range of engine
horsepower is (d) single stage steam turbine
(a) 50 to 200 35. Overload capacity of diesel engines is usually
(b) 500 to 1000 restricted to
(c) 1500 to 2500 (a) 2 percent
(d) 3000 to 5000 (b) 10 percent
28. ....... locomotive has the highest operational (c) 20 percent
availability. (d) 40 percent
(a) Electric 36. In case of steam engines the steam pressure is
(b) Diesel (a) 1 to 4 kgf/cm2
(c) Steam (b) 5 to 8 kgf/cm
2
29. The horsepower of steam locomotives is 2

(c) 10 to 15 kgf/cm
(a) upto 1500 2
(d) 25 to 35 kgf/cm
(b) 1500 to 2000 37. The steam engine provided on steam
(c) 2000 to 3000 locomotives is
(d) 3000 to 4000 (a) single acting condensing type
30. The overall efficiency of steam locomotive is (b) single acting non-condensing type
around (c) double acting condensing type
(a) 5 to 10 percent (d) double acting non-condensing type
38. Electric locomotives in India are manufactured
(c) 25 to 35 percent at
(a) Jamalpur
31. In tramways which of the following motors is (b) Bangalore
used?
(c) Chittranjan
(a) D.C. shunt motor
(d) Gorakhpur
(b) D.C. series motor
39. The wheels of a train, engine as well as bogies,
(c) A.C. three phase motor
are slightly tapered to
(d) A.C. single phase capacitor start motor
(a) reduce friction
32. In a steam locomotive electric power is
(b) increase friction
provided through
(c) facilitate braking
(a) overhead wire
(d) facilitate in taking turns
(b) battery system
(c) small turbo-generator 40. Automatic signalling is used for which of the
following trains?
(d) diesel engine generator
(a) Mail and express trains (d) do all of the above
(b) Superfast trains 48. For given maximum axle load tractive efforts
(c) Suburban and Urban electric trains of A.C. locomotive will be
(c) All trains (a) less than that of D.C. locomotive
41. The efficiency of diesel locomotives is nearly (b) more than that of D.C. locomotive
(a) 20 to 25 percent (c) equal to that of D.C. locomotive
(b) 30 to 40 percent (d) none of the above
(c) 45 to 55 percent 49. Co-efficient of adhesion reduces due to the
(d) 60 to 70 percent presence of which of the following?
42. The speed of a superfast train is (a) Sand on rails
(a) 60 kmph (b) Dew on rails
(b) 75 kmph (c) Oil on the rails
(c) 100 kmph (d) both (b) and (c)
(d) more than 100 kmph 50. Due to which of the following co-efficient of
43. The number of passenger coaches that can be adhesion improves?
attached to a diesel engine locomotive on (a) Rust on the rails
broad gauge is usually restricted to (b) Dust on the rails
(a) 5 (c) Sand on the rails
(b) 10 (d) All of the above
(c) 14 51. Quadrilateral speed-time curve pertains to
(d) 17 which of the following services?
44. Which of the following state capitals is not on (a) Main line service
broad gauge track? (b) Urban service
(a) lucknow (c) Sub-urban service
(b) Bhopal (d) Urban and sub-urban service
(c) Jaipur 52. Which of the following is the disadvantage of
(d) Chandigarh electric traction over other systems of traction?
45. Which of the following is the advantage of (a) Corrosion problems in the underground
electric braking? pip work
(a) It avoids wear of track (b) Short time power failure interrupts traffic
for hours
(b) Motor continues to remain loaded during
braking (c) High capital outlay in fixed installations
beside route limitation
(c) It is instantaneous
(d) More heat is generated during braking
(e) All of the above
46. Which of the following braking systems on the
locomotives in costly? 53. Co-efficient of adhesion is
(a) Regenerative braking on electric locomo- (a) high in case of D.C. traction than in the
tives case of A.C. traction
(b) Vacuum braking on diesel locomotives (b) low in case of D.C. traction that in the
case of A.C. traction
(c) Vacuum braking on steam locomotives
(c) equal in both A.C. and D.C. traction
(d) All braking systems are equally costly
54. Speed-time curve of main line service differs
(a) overcome the gravity component of train
from thoseof urban and suburban services on
mass
following account
(b) overcome friction, windage and curve
resistance (a) it has longer free running period
(c) accelerate the train mass (b) it has longer coasting period
(c) accelerating and braking periods are (c) Any of the above
comparatively smaller (d) None of the above
(d) all of the above 63. The resistance encountered by a train in
55. The rate of acceleration on suburban or urban motion is on account of
services is restricted by the consideration of (a) resistance offered by air
(a) engine power (b) friction at the track
(b) track curves (c) friction at various parts of the rolling stock
(c) passanger discomfort (d) all of the above
(d) track size 64. Battery operated trucks are used in
56. The specific energy consumption of a train (a) steel mills
depends on which of the following? (b) power stations
(a) Acceleration and retardation (c) narrow gauge traction
(b) Gradient (d) factories for material transportation
(c) Distance covered 65. ....... method can bring the locomotive todead
(d) all of the above stop.
57. The friction at the track is proportional to (a) Plugging braking
(a) 1/speed (b) Rheostatic braking
(b) 1/(speed)2 (c) Regenerative braking
(c) speed (d) None of the above
(d) none of the above 66. The value of co-efficient of adhesion will be
58. The air resistance to the movement of the train high when rails are
is proportional to (a) greased
(a) speed (b) wet
2
(b) (speed) (c) sprayed with oil
3
(c) (speed) (d) cleaned with sand
(d) 1/speed 67. The voltage used for suburban trains in D.C.
59. The normal value of adhesion friction is system is usually
(a) 0.12 (a) 12 V
(b) 0.25 (b) 24 V
(c) 0.40 (c) 220 V
(d) 0.75 (d) 600 to 750 V
60. The pulsating torque exerted by steam 68. For three-phase induction motors which of the
locomotives causes which of the following? following is the least efficient method of speed
control?
(a) Jolting and skidding
(a) Cascade control
(b) Hammer blow
(b) Pole changing
(c) Pitching
(c) Rheostatic control
(d) Combination of cascade and pole
61. Which of the following braking systems is changing
used on steam locomotives?
(a) Hydraulic system
(a) more on steeper gradient
(b) Pneumatic system
(b) more with high train resistance
(c) Vacuum system
(c) less if distance between stops is more
70. In main line service as compared to urban and
(a) Vacuum pump suburban service
(b) Ejector
(a) distance between the stops is more (c) Distance between stops
(b) maximum speed reached is high (d) All of the above
(c) acceleration and retardation rates are low 78. In case of ....... free running and coasting
(d) all of the above periods are generally long.
71. Locomotive having monomotor bogies (a) main-line service
(a) has better co-efficient of adhesion (b) urban wervice
(b) are suited both for passanger as well as (c) sub-urban service
freight service (d) all of the above
(c) has better riding qualities due to the 79. Overhead lines for power supply to tramcars
reduction of lateral forces are at a minimum height of
(d) has all above qualities (a) 3 m
72. Series motor is not suited for traction duty due (b) 6 m
to which of the following account? (c) 10 m
(a) Less current drain on the heavy load torque (d) 20 m
(b) Current surges after temporary switching 80. The return circuit for tram cars is through .......
off supply (a) neutral wire
(c) self relieving property (b) rails
(d) Commutating property at heavy load (c) cables
73. When a bogie negotiates a curve, reduction in (d) common earthing
adhesion occurs resulting in sliding. Thus 81. Specific energy consumption is least in ........
sliding is acute when service.
(a) wheel base of axles is more (a) main line
(b) degree of curvature is more (b) urban
(c) both (a) and (b) (c) suburban
(c) none of the above 82. Locomotives with monometer bogies have
74. Energy consumption in propelling the train is (a) uneven distribution of tractive effect
required for which of the following? (b) suitability for passanger as well as freight
service
(a) Work against the resistance to motion
(c) lot of skidding
(b) Work against gravity while moving up
the gradient (d) low co-efficient of adhesion
(c) Acceleration 83. ....... was the first city in India to adopt electric
traction.
(a) Delhi
75. An ideal traction system should have ........
(b) Madras
(a) easy speed control
(c) Calcutta
(b) high starting tractive effort
(d) Bombay
(c) equipment capable of with standing large
84. ....... frequency is not common in low
temporary loads
frequency traction system
(a) 40 Hz
76. ....... have maximum unbalanced forces (b) 25 Hz
(a) Diesel shunters (c) 16Hz
(b) Steam locomotives 85. For 25 kV single phase system power supply
(c) Electric locomotives frequency is .......
(d) Diesel locomotives (a) 60 Hz
77. Specific energy consumption is affected by (b) 50 Hz
which of the following factors? (c) 25 Hz
(a) Regardation and acceleration values 2
(b) Gradient (d) 16 Hz
3
86. Power for lighting in passenger coach, in a (a) 0.3

long distance electric train, is provided (b) 0.26
(a) directly through overhead electric (c) 0.225
(b) through individual generator of bogie and (d) 0.16
batteries 94. ....... watt-hours per tonne km is usually the
(c) through rails specific energy consumption for suburban
(d) through locomotive services.
87. In India, electrification of railway track was (a) 15–20
done for the first time in which of the (b) 50–75
following years? (c) 120–150
(a) 1820–1825 (d) 160–200
(b) 1880–1885
(c) 1925–1932
(a) 0.15 to 0.30 km phps
(d) 1947–1954
(b) 0.30 to 0.6 km phps
88. Suri transmission is .......
(c) 0.6 to 2.4 km phps
(a) electrical-pneumatic
(d) 3 to 5 km phps
(b) mechanical-electrical
(e) 10 to 15 km phps
(c) hydro-mechanical
96. The rate of acceleration on suburban or urban
(d) hydro-pneumatic
service is in the range
89. In case of a steam engine an average coat
(a) 0.2 to 0.5 km phps
consumption per km is nearly
(a) 150 to 175 kg (b) 1.6 to 4.0 km phps
(b) 100 to 120 kg (c) 5 to 10 km phps
(c) 60 to 80 kg (d) 15 to 25 km phps
(d) 28 to 30 kg 97. The coasting retardation is around
90. Which of the following happens in Kando (a) 0.16 km phps
system? (b) 1.6 km phps
(a) Three phase A.C. is converted into D.C. (c) 16 km phps
(b) Single phase A.C. is converted into D.C. (d) 40 km phps
(c) Single phase supply is converted into three 98. which of the following track is electrified
phase system (a) Delhi–Bombay
(d) None of the above (b) Delhi–Madras
91. For which of the following locomotives the (c) Delhi–Howrah
maintenance requirements are the least? (d) Delhi–Ahmedabad
(a) Steam locomotives 99. ....... is the method of braking in which motor
(b) Diesel locomotives armature remains connected to the supply and
(c) Electric locomotives draws power from it producing torque
(d) Equal in all of the above opposite to the direction of motion.
92. Which of the following methods is used to (a) Rheostatic braking
control speed of 25 kV, 50 Hz single phase (b) Regerative braking
traction?
(c) Plugging
(a) Reduced current method
100. For 600 V D.C. line for tramcars, brack is
(b) Tapchanging control of transformer
connected to .......
(c) Series parallel operation of motors
(a) positive of the supply
(b) negative of the supply
93. If the co-efficient of adhesion on dry rails is
(c) mid voltage of 300 V
0.26, which of the following could be the value
for wet rails?
ANSWERS
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (c)
11. (b) 12. (d) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (a)
21. (d) 22. (d) 23. (b) 24. (d) 25. (e) 26. (b) 27. (c) 28. (a) 29. (a) 30. (a)
31. (b) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (b) 36. (c) 37. (d) 38. (c) 39. (d) 40. (c)
41. (a) 42. (d) 43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (a) 46. (a) 47. (d) 48. (b) 49. (d) 50. (d)
51. (d) 52. (e) 53. (b) 54. (d) 55. (c) 56. (d) 57. (c) 58. (b) 59. (b) 60. (a)
61. (c) 62. (c) 63. (d) 64. (d) 65. (a) 66. (d) 67. (d) 68. (c) 69. (d) 70. (d)
71. (d) 72. (b) 73. (c) 74. (d) 75. (d) 76. (b) 77. (d) 78. (a) 79. (c) 80. (b)
81. (a) 82. (b) 83. (d) 84. (a) 85. (b) 86. (b) 87. (c) 88. (c) 89. (d) 90. (c)
91. (c) 92. (b) 93. (d) 94. (b) 95. (d) 96. (b) 97. (a) 98. (c) 99. (c) 100. (b)
Industrial Applications of Electric Motors 1789
ratio of the stalling torque to the full load torque. (J.N. University, Hyderabad, April 2003)
35. What are the requirements of good electric braking? (J.N. University, Hyderabad, April 2003)
36. Explain the method of rheostatic braking. (J.N. University, Hyderabad, April 2003;
Anna University, Chennai 2003)
37. Mean horizontal Candlepower (J.N. University, Hyderabad, April 2003)
38. Mean hemispherical Candlepower (J.N. University, Hyderabad, April 2003)
39. Luminous flux. (J.N. University, Hyderabad, April 2003)
40. Define : (i) Luminous intensity (ii) Point source (iii) Lumen and (iv) Uniform point source.
(J.N. University, Hyderabad, April 2003)
41. Prove that Luminous intensity of a point source is equal to the luminous flux per unit solid angle.
42. Discuss the various factors that govern the choice of a motor for a given service.
43. A 6 pole, 50 Hz slip ring induction motor with a rotor resistance per phase of 0.2 ohm and a stand
still reactance of 1.0 ohm per phase runs at 960 r.p.m. at full load. Calculate the resistance to be
inserted in the rotor circuit to reduce the speed to 800 r.p.m., if the torque remains unaltered.
44. Compare the features of individual and group drives. (J.N. University, Hyderabad, April 2003)
45. What is an electric drive? Classify various types of electric drives and discuss their merits and
demerits. (J.N. University, Hyderabad, December 2002/January 2003)
46. Suggest, with reasons the electric drive used for the following applications. (i) Rolling mills (ii)
Textile mills (iii) Cement mills (iv) Paper mills (v) Coal mining (vi) Lift, Cranes, Lathes and pumps.
47. A 100 hp, 500 rpm d.c. shunt motor is driving a grinding mill through gears. The moment of inertia
of the mill is 1265 kgm2. If the current taken by the motor must not exceed twice full load current
during starting, estimate the minimum time taken to run the mill upto full speed.
48. Explain the different methods of electric braking of a 3 phase induction motor.
49. A 50 hp, 400V, 750 rpm synchronous motor has a moment of inertia 20 kgm2 and employs rheostatic
braking for obtaining rapid stopping in case of emergency when the motor is running at full load,
star connected braking resistor of 2 ohm per phase is switched on. Determine the time taken and
the number of revolutions made before the motor is stopped. Assume as efficiency of 90% and
a full load power factor of 0.95. (J.N. University, Hyderabad, December 2002/January 2003)
50. Explain regenerative braking of induction motor.
51. What is dynamic braking? (Anna University, Chenni, Summer 2003)
52. What is regenerative braking? (Anna University, Chenni, Summer 2003)
53. What are braking systems applicable to a DC shunt motor?
(Anna University, Chenni, Summer 2003)
54. What for Series motor Regenerative Braking is not suited?
55. What are the important stages in controlling an electrical drive.
56. Explain rheostatic braking of D.C. motors. (Anna University, Chennai 2003)
1. A steel mill requires a motor having high (c) d.c. series motor
starting torque, wide speed range and precise (d) slip-ring induction motor.
speed control. Which one of the following 2. Heavy-duty steel-works cranes which have
motors will you choose ? wide load variations are equipped with
(a) d.c. shunt motor ................. motor.
(b) synchronous motor (a) double squirrel-cage
(b) d.c. series (d) direction of its field current is reversed.

(c) slip-ring induction 11. Rheostatic braking may be applied to an
(d) cumulative compound. induction motor provided
3. A reciprocating pump which is required to (a) separate d.c. source for field excitation is
start under load will need .........motor. available
(a) repulsion (b) it is a squirrel cage type
(b) squirrel-cage induction (c) it is slip-ring type
(c) synchronous (d) variable external resistance is available
(d) double squirrel-cage induction. 12. During regenerative braking of electric motors,
4. Motors used in wood-working industry have they are
................. enclosure. (a) disconnected from the supply
(a) screen protected (b) drip proof (b) reverse-connected to the supply
(c) TEFC (d) TE (c) made to run as generators
5. Single-phase synchronous motors are used in (d) made to stop.
teleprinters, clocks and all kinds of timing 13. Regenerative braking
devices becasue of their (a) can be used for stopping a motor
(a) low starting torque (b) cannot be easily applied to d.c. series
(b) high power factor motors
(c) constant speed (c) can be easily applied to d.c. shunt motors
(d) over-load capacity. (d) cannot be used wen motor load has over-
6. Which motor is generally used in rolling mills, hauling characteristics
paper and cement industries ? 14. Net energy saved during regenerative braking
(a) d.c. shunt motor of an electric train
(b) double squirrel-cage motor (a) increases with increase in specific
(c) slip-ring induction motor resistance
(d) three-phase synchronous motor (b) is high with high down gradient
7. Direct drive is used for power transmission (c) decreases with reduction in train speed due
only when to braking
(a) negligible slip is required (d) is independent of the train weight.
(b) large amount of power is invloved 15. The selection of an electric motor for any
(c) speed of the driven machine equals the application depends on which of the following
motor speed factors?
(d) high-speed motor is to drive a low-speed (a) Electrical characteristics
machine. (b) Mechanical characteristics
8. Which type of enclosure will be most suitable (c) Size and reating of motors
for motors employed in atmospheres containing (d) cost
inflammable gases and vapours ? (e) All of teh above
(a) pipe-ventilated 16. For a particular application the type of electric
(b) totally enclosed, fan-cool and control gear are determined by which of
(c) flame proof the following considerations?
(d) screen-protected. (a) Starting torque
9. While plugging d.c. motors, ................. (b) Conditions of environment
connections are reversed (c) Limitation on starting current
(a) supply (d) Speed control range and its nature
(b) armature (e) all of the above
(c) field 17. Which of the following motors is preferred for
(d) both armature and field traction work?
10. During rheostatic braking of a d.c., motor, (a) Universal motor
(a) its field is disconnected from the supply (b) D.C. series motor
(b) its armature is reverse-connected (c) Synchronous motor
(c) it works as a d.c. generator (d) three-phase induction motor
18. Which of the following motors always starts
on load? (d) Any of the above
(a) Conveyor motor (b) Floor mill motor 28. Which part of a motor needs maximum attention
(c) Fan motor (d) All of the above for maintenance?
19. ....... is preferred for automatic drives. (a) Frame (b) Bearing
(a) Squirrel cage induction motor (c) Stator winding (d) Rotor winding
(b) Synchronous motors 29. ....... need frequent starting and stopping of
(c) Ward-Leonard controlled D.C. motors electric motors.
(d) Any of the above (a) Paper mills
20. When the load is above ........ a synchronous (b) Grinding mills
motor is found to be more economical. (c) Air-conditioners
(a) 2 kW (b) 20 kW (d) Lifts and hoists
(c) 50 kW (d) 100 kW 30. Which feature, while selecting a motor for
21. The load cycle for a motor driving a power centrifugal pump, will be of least significance?
press will be ....... (a) Starting characteristics
(a) variable load (b) Operating speed
(b) continuous (c) Horse power
(c) continuous but periodical (d) Speed control
(d) intermittent and variable load 31. ...... motor is a constant speed motor.
22. Light duty cranes are used in which of the (a) Synchronous motor
following? (b) Schrage motor
(a) Power houses (c) Induction motor
(b) Pumping station (d) Universal motor
(c) Automobile workshops 32. The starting torque is case of centrifugal pumps
(d) all of the above is generally
23. While selecting an electric motor for a floor (a) less than running torque
mill, which electrical characteristics will be of (b) same as running torque
least significance? (c) slightly more than running torque
(a) Running characteristics (d) double the running torque
(b) Starting charasteristics 33. Which of the following motors are best for the
(c) Efficiency rolling mills?
(d) Braking (a) Single phase motors
24. Which of the following motors are preferred (b) Squirrel cage induction motors
for overhead travelling cranes? (c) Slip ring induction motors
(a) Slow speed motors (d) D.C. motors
(b) Continuous duty motors 34. ....... is not a part of ball bearing?
(c) Short time rated motors (a) Inner race (b) Outer race
(d) None of the above (c) Cage (d) Bush
25. ....... is preferred for synthetic fibre mills. 35. The starting torque of a D.C. motor is
(a) Synchronous motor independent of which of the following?
(b) Reluctance motor (a) Flux
(c) Series motor (b) Armature current
(d) Shunt motor (c) Flux and armature current
26. Ward-Leonard controlled D.C. drives are (d) Speed
generally used for ....... excavators. 36. Rotor of a motor is usually supported on .......
(a) Light duty (b) Medium duty bearings.
(c) Heavy duty (d) All of the above (a) ball or roller (b) needle
27. Which of the following motors is used for (c) bush (d) thrust
elevators? 37. For which of the following applications D.C.
(a) Induction motor motors are still preferred?
(b) Synchronous motor (a) High efficiency operation
(c) Capacitor start single phase motor (b) Reversibility
(c) Variable speed drive (a) heavy (b) medium

(d) High starting torque (c) normal (d) low
38. In a paper mill where constant speed is required 48. For a motor-generator set which of the
(a) synchronous motors are preferred following motors will be preferred?
(b) A.C. motors are preferred (a) Synchronous motor
(c) individual drive is preferred (b) Slip ring induction motor
(d) group drive is preferred (c) Pole changing induction motor
39. A reluctance motor ...... (d) Squirrel cage induction motor
(a) is provided with slip rings 49. Which of the following motors is usually
(b) requires starting gear preferred for kiln drives?
(c) has high cost (a) Cascade controlled A.C. motor
(d) is compact (b) slip ring induction motor
40. The size of an excavator is usually expressed (c) three phase shunt would commutator motor
in terms of (d) Any of the above
(a) ‘crowd’ motion (b) angle of swing 50. Heat control switches are used in ........
(c) cubic metres (d) travel in metres (a) transformers
41. For blowers which of the following motors in (b) cooling ranges
preferred? (c) three phase induction motors
(a) d.C. series motor (d) single phase
(b) D.C. shunt motor 51. ........ has relatively wider range of speed control
(c) Squirrel cage induction motor (a) Synchronous motor
(d) Wound rotor induction motor (b) Ship ring induction motor
42. Belted slip ring induction motor is almost (c) Squirrel cage induction motor
invariably used for (d) D.C. shunt motor
(a) water pumps 52. In squirrel cage induction motors which of the
(b) jaw crushers following methods of starting cannot be used?
(c) centrifugal blowers (a) Resistance in rotor circuit
(d) none of the above (b) Resistance in stator circuit
43. Which of the following is essentially needed (c) Auto-transformer starting
while selecting a motor? (d) Star-delta starting
(a) Pulley (b) Starter 53. In which of the following applications the load
(c) Foundation pedal (d) Bearings on motor changes in cyclic order?
44. Reluctance motor is a ........ (a) Electric shovels
(a) variable torque motor (b) Cranes
(b) low torque variable speed motor (c) Rolling mills
(c) self starting type synchronous motor (d) All of the above
(d) low noise, slow speed motor 54. Flame proof motors are used in
45. ....... method of starting a three phase induction (a) paper mills
motor needs six terminals. (b) steel mills
(a) Star-delta (c) moist atmospheres
(b) Resistance starting (d) explosive atmospheres
(c) Auto-transformer 55. Which of the following machines has heavy
(d) None of the above fluctuation of load?
46. In ....... method of starting three phase induction (a) Printing machine
motors the starting voltage is not reduced. (b) Punching machine
(a) auto-transformer (c) Planer
(b) star-delta (d) Lathe
(c) slip ring 56. For derries and winches which of the following
(d) any of the above drives can be used?
47. In jaw crushers a motor has to often start against (a) Pole changing squirrel cage motors
...... load. (b) D.C. motors with Ward-leonard control
(c) A.C. slip ring motors with variable (c) 5 to 10 m/s
resistance (d) 1 to 2.5 m/s
(d) Any of the above 66. Besides a constant speed a synchronous rotor
57. Battery operated scooter for braking uses possesses which of the following advantages?
(a) plugging (a) Lower cost
(b) mechanical braking (b) Batter efficiency
(c) regenerative braking (c) High power factor
(d) rheostatic braking (d) All of the above
58. ....... has least range of speed control. 67. By the use of which of the following D.C. can
(a) Slip ring induction motor be obtained from A.C.?
(b) Synchronous motor (a) Silicon diodes
(c) D.C. shunt motor (b) Mercury are rectifier
(d) Schrage motor (c) Motor generator set
59. ....... has the least value of starting torque to (d) any of the above
full load torque ratio. 68. Which of the following motors is preferred
(a) D.C. shunt motor when quick speed reversal is the main
(b) D.C. series motor consideration?
(c) Squirrel cage induction motor (a) Squirrel cage induction motor
(d) Slip ring induction motor (b) Wound rotor induction motor
60. In case of ....... speed control by injecting e.m.f. (c) Synchronous motor
in the rotor circuit is possible. (d) D.C. motor
(a) d.c. shunt motor 69. Which of the following motors is preferred
(b) schrage motor when smooth and precise speed control over
(c) synchronous motor a wide range is desired?
(d) slip ring induction motor (a) D.C. motor
61. A pony motor is used for the starting which (b) Squirrel cage induction motor
of the following motors? (c) Wound rotor induction motor
(a) Squirel cage induction motor (d) Synchronous motor
(b) Schrage motor 70. For crane travel which of the following motors
(c) Synchronous motor is normally used?
(d) None of the above (a) Synchronous motor
62. In ....... the speed can be varied by changing (b) D.C. differentially compound motor
the position of brushes. (c) Ward-Leonard controlled D.C. shunt motor
(a) slip ring motor (d) A.C. slip ring motor
(b) schrage motor 71. The capacity of a crane is expressed in terms
(c) induction motor of
(d) repulsion motor (a) type of drive
63. In which of the following applications variable (b) span
speed operation is preferred? (c) tonnes
(a) Exhaust fan (d) any of the above
(b) Ceiling fan 72. the characteristics of drive for crane hoisting
(c) Refrigerator and lowering are which of the following?
(d) Water pump (a) Precise control
64. Heavy duty cranes are used in (b) Smooth movement
(a) ore handling plants (c) Fast speed control
(b) steel plants (d) All of the above
(c) heavy engineering workshops 73. Which of the following motors is preferred for
(d) all of the above boom hoist of a travelling crane?
65. the travelling speed of cranes varies from (a) Single phase motor
(a) 20 to 30 m/s (b) Synchronous motor
(b) 10 to 15 m/s (c) A.C. slip ring motor
(d) Ward-Leonard controlled D.C. shunt (c) Open type

motor (d) Semi closed
74. A wound rotor induction motor is preferred, 80. While selecting motor for an air conditioner
as compared to squirrel cage induction motor, which of the following characteristics is of
when major consideration is great importance?
(a) slop speed operation (a) Type of bearings
(b) high starting torque (b) Type of enclosure
(c) low windage losses (c) Noise
(d) all of the above (d) Arrangement for power transmission
75. Which of the following motors has series (e) None of the above
characteristics? 81. The diameter of the rotor shaft for an electric
(a) Shadel pole motor motor depends on which of the following?
(b) Repulsion motor (a) r.p.m. only
(c) Capacitor start motor (b) Horse power only
(d) None of the above (c) Horse power and r.p.m.
76. Which of the following happens when star- (d) Horse power, r.p.m. and power factor
delta starter is used? 82. Which of the following alternatives will be
(a) Starting voltage is reduced cheaper?
(b) Starting current is reduced (a) A 100 H.P. A.C. three phase motor
(c) Both (a) and (b) (b) Four motors of 25 H.P. each
(d) None of the above (c) Five motors of 20 H.P. each
77. For a D.C. shunt motor which of the following (d) Ten motors of 10 H.P. each
is incorrect? 83. The cost of an induction motor will increase
(a) Unsuitable for heavy duty starting as
(b) Torque varies as armature current (a) horsepower rating increases but r.p.m.
(c) Torque-armature current is a straight line decreases
(d) Torque is zero for zero armature current (b) horsepower rating decreases but r.p.m.
78. For which of the following applications motor increases
has to start with high acceleration? (c) horsepower rating and operating speed
(a) Oil expeller increases
(b) Floor mill (d) horsepower rating and operating speed
(c) Lifts and hoists decreases
(d) centrifugal pump 84. in series motor which of the following methods
79. Which of the following types of motor can be used for changing the flux per pole?
enclosure is safest? (a) Tapped field control
(a) totally enclosed (b) Diverter field control
(b) Totally enclosed fan cooled (c) Series-parallel control
ANSWERS
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (c)
11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (e) 16. (e) 17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (d)
21. (d) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (c) 25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (a) 28. (b) 29. (d) 30. (d)
31. (a) 32. (a) 33. (d) 34. (d) 35. (d) 36. (a) 37. (c) 38. (c) 39. (d) 40. (c)
41. (c) 42. (b) 43. (b) 44. (c) 45. (a) 46. (c) 47. (a) 48. (a) 49. (d) 50. (b)
51. (d) 52. (a) 53. (d) 54. (d) 55. (b) 56. (d) 57. (b) 58. (b) 59. (c) 60. (d)
61. (c) 62. (b) 63. (b) 64. (d) 65. (d) 66. (c) 67. (d) 68. (c) 69. (a) 70. (d)
71. (c) 72. (d) 73. (c) 74. (b) 75. (b) 76. (c) 77. (a) 78. (c) 79. (b) 80. (c)
81. (c) 82. (a) 83. (a) 84. (d)
GO To FIRST
Electric Heating 1857
33. State the advantages of electric heating.
34. Brifely explain the different methods of electric heating.
35. Estimate the energy required to melt 500 kg of brass in a single phase Ajax-wyatt furnace.Ifthe
melting is to be carried out in 3/4 hour, what must be the avarage power input to the furnace.
1. As compared to other methods of heating grade.
using gas and coal etc, electric heating is far (a) 3000-3500 (b) 2500-3000
superior because of its. (c) 2000-2500 (d) 1500-2000
(a) cleanliness 9. Which of the following furnace suffers from
(b) ease of control pinch effect?
(c) higher efficiency (a) resistance furnace
(d) all of the above. (b) core type induction furnace
2. Magnetic materials are heated with the help (c) coreless induction furnace
of (d) vertical core type induction furnace.
(a) hysteresis loss (b) electric arc 10. Which of the following induction furnace has
(c) electric current (d) radiation. the lowest power factor?
3. In the indirect resistance heating method, heat (a) vertical core type
is delivered to the charge (b) indirect core type
(a) direcly (b) by radiation (c) coreless type
(c) by convection (d) both (b) and (c). (d) core type.
4. The main requirements of a good heating 11. The coreless induction furnace uses high-
element used in a resistance furnaces are frequency electric supply in order to
(a) high resistivity obtain high
(b) high melting-temperature (a) flux density
(c) positive resistance-temperature (b) eddy-current loss
coefficient (c) primary resistance
(d) all of the above. (d) power factor.
5. Electric ovens using heating elements of 12. Inflammable articles like plastic and wooden
........................... can produce temperatures products etc, can be safely heated by
up to 3000°C using.................... heating.
(a) nickel (b) graphite (a) eddy-current (b) dielectric
(c) chromium (d) iron. (c) induction (d) resistance
6. The temperature of resistance furnaces can be 13. Which of the following is an advantages of
controlled by changing the heating by electricity?
(a) applied voltage (a) Quicker operation
(b) number of heating elements (b) Higher efficiency
(c) circuit configuration (c) Absence of flue gases
(d) all of the above. (d) All of the above
7. Which of the following heating method is 14. ...... has the highest value of thermal
based on the transformer principle ? conductivity.
(a) resistance heating (a) Copper (b) Aluminium
(b) eddy-current heating (c) Brass (d) Steel
(c) induction heating 15. Which of the following heating methods has
maximum power factor?
(d) dielectric heating.
(a) Arc heating
8. When graphite electrodes are used in arc
furnaces, the temperature obtained is in the
range of ...............................degree centi-
(d) Resistance heating
16. ...... method has leading power factor 25. Which of the following has the highest value
(a) Resistance heating of thermal conductivity?
(b) Dielectric heating (a) Water (b) Steam
(c) Arc heating (c) Solid ice (d) Melting ice
(d) Induction heating 26. Induction heating process is based on which
17. ...... is used for heating non-conducting of the following principles?
meterials. (a) Thermal ion release principle
(a) Eddy current heating (b) Nucleate heating principle
(b) Arc heating (c) Resistance heating principle
(c) Induction heating (d) Electro-magnetic induction principle
(d) Dielectric heating 27. Which of the following insulating materials is
18. Which of the following methods of heating is suitable for low temperature applications?
not dependent on the frequency of supply? (a) Asbestos paper
(a) Induction heating (b) Diatomaceous earth
(b) Dielectric heating (c) 80 percent magnesia
(c) Electric resistance heating (d) Cork
(d) All of the above 28. A non-dimensional number generally
19. When a body reflects entire radiation incident associated with natural convection heat transfer
on it, then it is known as is
(a) white body (b) grey body (a) Prandtl number
(c) black body (d) transparent body (b) Grash off number
20. For the transmission of heat from one body to (c) Pecelet number
another (d) Nusselt number
(a) temperature of the two bodies must be 29. The temperature inside a furnace is usually
different measured by which of the following?
(b) both bodies must be solids (a) Optical pyrometer
(c) both bodies must be in contact (b) Mercury thermometer
(d) at least one of the bodies must have some (c) Alcohol thermometer
source of heating (d) Any of the above
21. Heat transfer by condition will not occur when 30. Which of the following will happen if the
(a) bodies are kept in vacuum thickness of refractory wall of furnace is
(b) bodies are immersed in water increased?
(c) bodies are exposed to thermal radiations (a) Heat loss through furnace wall will
(d) temperatures of the two bodies are increase
identical (b) Temperature inside the furnace will fall
22. A perfect black body is one that (c) Temperature on the outer surface of
(a) transmits all incident radiations furnace walls will drop
(b) absorbs all incident radions (d) Energy consumption will increase
(c) reflects all incident radiations 31. The material of the heating element for a
(d) absorbs, reflects and transmits all incident furnace should have
radiations (a) lower melting point
23. Heat is transferred simultaneously by (b) higher temperature co-efficient
condition, convection and radiation (c) high specific resistance
(a) inside boiler furnaces (d) all of the above
(b) during melting of ice 32. In a resistance furnace the atmosphere is .......
(c) through the surface of the insulted pipe (a) oxidising (b) deoxidising
carring steam (c) reducing (d) neutral
(d) from refrigerator coils to freezer of a 33. By which of the following methods the
refrigerator temperature inside a resistance furnance can
24. The process of heat transfer during the re-entry be varied?
of satellites and missiles, at very high speeds, (a) By disconnecting some of the heating
into earth’s atmosphere is known as elements
(a) ablation (b) By varying the operating voltage
(b) radiation (c) By verying the current through heating
(c) viscous dissipation elements
(d) irradiation (d) By any of the above method
Electric Heating 1859
34. In induction heating ...... is abnormally high. (b) Core less furnace
(a) phase angle (b) frequency (c) Either of the above
(c) current (d) voltage (d) None of the above
35. By the use of which of the following high 44. Due to which of the following reasons it is
frequency power supplyv for induction desirable to have short arc length?
furnaces can be obtained? (a) To achieve better heating
(a) Coreless transformers (b) To increase the life of roof refractory
(b) Current transformers (c) To have better stirring action
(c) Motor-generator set (d) To reduce problem of oxidation
(d) Multi-phase transformer (e) All of the above
36. Induction furnaces are employed for which of 45. In the indirect resistance heating method,
the following? maximum heat-transfer takes place by
(a) Heat treatment of castings (a) radiation (b) convection
(b) Heating of insulators (c) conduction (d) any of the above
(c) Melting aluminium 46. Property of low temperature co-efficient of
(d) None of the above heating element is desired due to which of the
37. In an electric room heat convector the method following reasons?
of heating used is (a) To avoid initial rush of current
(a) arc heating (b) To avoid change in kW rating with
(b) resistance heating temperature
(c) induction heating (c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) dielectric heating (d) Either (a) or (b)
38. In a domestic cake baking oven the 47. Which of the following methods is used to
temperature is controlled by control temperature in resistance furnaces?
(a) voltage variation (a) Variation of resistance
(b) thermostat (b) Variation of voltage
(c) auto-transformer (c) Periodical switching on and off of the
(d) series-parallel operation supply
39. In an electric press mica is used (d) All of the above methods
(a) as an insulator 48. It is desirable to operate the arc furnace at
(b) as a device for power factor improvement power factor of
(c) for dielectric heating (a) zero (b) 0.707 lagging
(d) for induction heating (c) unity (d) 0.707 leading
40. Induction heating takes place in which of the 49. Radiations from a black body are proportional
following? to
(a) Insulating materials (a) T (b) T2
(b) Conducting materials which are magnetic (c) T3 (d) T4
(c) Conducting materialswhich are non- 50. In arc furnace the function of choke is
magnetic (a) to stabilize the arc
(d) Conducting materials which may or may (b) to improve power factor
not be magnetic (c) to reduce severity of the surge
41. For heating element high resistivity material (d) none of the above
is chosen to 51. Ajax Wyatt furnace is started when
(a) reduce the length of heating element (a) it is filled below core level
(b) increase the life of the heating element (b) it is filled above core level
(c) reduce the effect of oxidation (c) it is fully empty
(d) produce large amount of heat (d) none of the above
42. In resistance heating highest working 52. In electric press, mica is used because it is .......
temperature is obtained from heating elements conductor of heat but/and ....... conductor of
made of ........ electricity.
(a) nickel copper (b) nichrome (a) bad, good (b) bad, bad
(c) silicon carbide (d) silver (c) good, bad (d) good, good
43. For intermittent work which of the following 53. Resistance variation method of temperature
furnaces is suitable? control is done by connecting resistance
(a) Indirect arc furnace elements in
(a) series (d) Heating elements of variable resistance

(b) parallel material
(c) series-parallel connections 58. For radiant heating around 2250oC, the heating
(d) star-delta connections elements are made of
(e) all of the above ways (a) copper alloy (b) carbon
54. Hysteresis loss and eddy current loss are used (c) tungsten alloy (d) stainless steel alloy
in 59. Which of the following is an advantage of eddy
(a) induction heating of steel current heating?
(b) dielectric heating (a) The amount of heat generated can be
(c) induction heating of brass controlled accurately
(d) resistance heating (b) Heat at very high rate can be generated
(c) The area of the surface over which heat is
55. In heating the ferromagnetic material by
produced can be accurately controlled
induction heating, heat is produced due to
60. The electrode of a direct arc furnace is made
(b) hysteresis loss taking place below curie
of
temperature
(a) tungsten
(c) due to hysteresis loss as well as eddy
(b) graphite
current loss taking place in the charge
(c) silver
(d) one of the above factors (d) copper
56. Radiant heating is used for which of the 61. Direct arc furnaces have which of the following
following? power factors?
(a) Annealing of metals (a) Unity
(b) Melting of ferrous metals (b) Low, lagging
(c) Heating of liquids in electric kettle (c) Low, leading
(d) Drying of paints and varnishes (d) Any of the above
57. Which of the following devices is necessarily 62. In direct arc furnace, which of the following
required for automatic temperature control in has high value?
a furnace? (a) Current
(a) Thermostat (b) Voltage
(b) Thermocouple (c) Power factor
(c) auto-transformer (d) All of the above
ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (c)
8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (d) 11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (a)
15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (a) 21. (d)
22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (a) 25. (c) 26. (d) 27. (b) 28. (b)
29. (a) 30. (c) 31. (c) 32. (a) 33. (d) 34. (b) 35. (c)
36. (a) 37. (b) 38. (b) 39. (a) 40. (d) 41. (a) 42. (c)
43. (a) 44. (e) 45. (a) 46. (c) 47. (d) 48. (b) 49. (d)
50. (a) 51. (d) 52. (c) 53. (e) 54. (a) 55. (c) 56. (d)
57. (b) 58. (c) 59. (d) 60. (b) 61. (b) 62. (a)
GO To FIRST
Electric Welding 1889
Since duration of laser weld beam is very short (2 ms or so), two basic welding methods have
been adopted. In the first method, the workpiece is moved so fast that the entire joint is welded in a
single burst of the light. The other method uses a number of pulses one after the other to form the
weld joint similar to that formed in electric resistance seam welding (Art 48.31).
Laser welding is used in the aircraft and electronic industries for lighter gauge metals.
Some of the advantages of laser welding process are as follows :
1. It does not require any electrode.
2. It can make welds with high degree of precision and on materials as thin as 0.025 mm.
3. It does not heat the workpiece except at one point. In fact, heat-affected zone is virtually
non-existent.
4. Liquidus is reached only at the point of fusion.
5. It can produce glass-to-metal seals as in the construction of klystron tubes.
6. Since laser beam is small in size and quick in action, it keeps the weld zone uncontami-
nated.
7. It can weld dissimilar metals with widely varying physical properties.
8. It produces minimal thermal distortion and shrinkage because area of heat-affected zone is
the minimum possible.
9. It can easily bond refractory materials like molybdenum, titanium and tantalium etc.
However, the major disadvantage of this process is its slow welding speed. Moreover, it is
limited to welding with thin metals only.
Tutorial Problem No. 48.1

1. Describe various types of electric arc welding processes.
2. Compare resistance welding and arc welding.
3. Briefly explain the different methods of electric welding and state their relative merits.
4. Give the comparison between A.C. and D.C. welding.
5. Explain the different methods of electric welding and their relative advantages.
1. The basic electrical requirement in arc weld- 3. A.C. welding machine cannot be used for weld-
ing is that there should be ing
(a) coated electrodes (a) MIG
(b) high open-circuit voltage (b) atomic hydrogen
(c) no arc blow (c) resistance
(d) d.c. power supply. (d) submerged arc.
2. Welding is not done directly from the 4. In electric welding, arc blow can be avoided
supply mains because by
(a) it is customary to use welding machines (a) using bare electrodes
(b) its voltage is too high (b) welding away from earth ground
(c) its voltage keeps fluctuating connection
(d) it is impracticable to draw heavy (c) using a.c. welding machines
currents. (d) increasing arc length.
5. In DCSP welding 14. MIG welding process is becoming increa- sin-

(a) electrode is the hottest gly popular in welding industry mainly because
(b) workpiece is relatively coole of
(c) base metal penetration is deep (a) its easy operation
(d) heavily-coated electrodes are used. (b) its high metal deposit rate
6. Overhead welding position is thought to be the (c) its use in both ferrous and non-
most ferrous metals.
(a) hazardous (d) both (a) and (b).
(b) difficult 15. A weld bead of wineglass design is
(c) economical produced in ...................... welding.
(d) useful. (a) plasma arc
7. The ultimate aim of using electrode coating is (b) electron beam
to (c) laser
(a) provide shielding to weld pool (d) MAG.
(b) prevent atmospheric contamination 16. Spot welding process basically depends on
(c) improve bead quality (a) Ohmic resistance
(d) cleanse the base metal. (b) generation of heat
8. In electrode-positive welding ........... of the (c) application of forging pressure
total heat is produced at the electrode. (d) both (b) and (c).
(a) one-third 17. Electric resistance seam welding uses
(b) two-third ........................ electrodes.
(c) one-half (a) pointed
(d) one-fourth. (b) disc
9. Submerged arc process is characterised by (c) flat
(a) deep penetration (d) domed.
(b) high welding current 18. Projection welding can be regarded as a mass
(c) exceptionally smooth beads production form of .............. welding.
(d) all of the above. (a) seam
10. The major disadvantage of carbon arc weld- (b) butt
ing is that (c) spot
(a) there is occurrence of blow holes (d) upset.
(b) electrodes are consumed fast 19. In the process of electroslag welding,
(c) separate filler rod is needed theoretically there is no upper limit to the
(d) bare electrodes are necessary. (a) thickness of weld bead
11. In atomic hydrogen welding, electrodes are (b) rate of metal deposit
long-lived because (c) slag bath temperature
(a) two are used at a time (d) rate of slag consumption.
(b) arc is in the shape of a fan 20. High temperature metals like columbium
(c) of a.c. supply can be easily welded by..................... welding.
(d) it is a non-pressure process. (a) flash
12. Unlike TIG welding, MIG welding (b) MIG
(a) requires no flux (c) TIG
(b) uses consumable electrodes (d) electron beam.
(c) provides complete protection from 21. During resistance welding heat produced at
atmospheric contamination the joint is proportional to
(d) requires no post-weld cleansing. (a) I2R
13. The major power supply used in MIG (b) kVA
welding is (c) current
(a) a.c. supply (d) voltage
(b) DCSP 22. Grey iron in usually welded by ....... welding
(c) electrode-negative (a) gas
(d) DCRP. (b) arc
Electric Welding 1891
(c) resistance (b) 1500oC
(d) MIG (c) 3500oC
23. The metal surfaces, for electrical resistance (d) 5550oC
welding must be....... 32. Increased heat due to shorter arc is harmful on
(a) lubricated account of
(b) cleaned (a) under-cutting of base material
(c) moistened (b) burn through
(d) rough (c) excessive porosity
24. In a welded joint poor fusion is due to which (d) all of the above
of the following? 33. Arc blow results in which of the following?
(a) Improper current (a) Non-uniform weld beads
(b) High welding speed (b) Shallow weld puddle given rise to weak
(c) Uncleaned metal surface weld
(d) Lack of flux (c) Splashing out of metal from weld puddle
25. For arc welding, D.C. is produced by which (d) All of the above defects
of the following? 34. Inseam welding
(a) motor-generator set (a) the work piece is fixed and disc electrodes
(b) regulator move
(c) transformer (b) the work piece moves but rotating
(d) none of the above electrodes are fixed
26. ..... welding process uses consumable (c) any of the above
electrodes. (d) none of the above
(a) TIG 35. In arc welding major personal hazards are
(b) MIG (a) flying sperks
(c) Laser (b) weld spatter
(d) All of the above (c) harmful infrared and ultra-violet rays from
27. Which of the following equipment is generally the arc
used for arc welding? (d) all of the above
(a) single phase alternator 36. In spot welding composition and thickness of
(b) two phase alternator the base metal decides
(c) three phase alternator (a) the amount of squeeze pressure
(d) transformer (b) hold time
28. Which of the following is not an inert gas? (c) the amount of weld current
(a) argon (d) all above
(b) carbon dioxide 37. Helium produces which of the following?
(c) helium (a) deeper penetration
(d) all of the above (b) faster welding speeds
29. Electronic components are joined by which of (c) narrower heat affected zone in base metal
the following methods? (d) all of the above
(a) brazing 38. Due to which of the following reasons
aluminium is difficult to weld?
(b) soldering
(a) it has an oxide coating
(c) seam welding
(b) it conducts away heat very rapidly
(d) spot welding
(e) none of the above
30. Resistance welding cannot be used for
39. Welding leads have
(a) dielectrics
(a) high flexibility
(b) ferrous materials (b) high current handling capacity
(c) non-ferrous metals (c) both (a) and (b)
(d) any of the above (d) none of the above
31. Electric arc welding process produces 40. Air craft body is
temperature upto
(a) spot welded
(a) 1000oC
(b) gas welded 47. In argon arc welding argon is used as a

(c) seam welded (a) flux
(d) riveted (b) source of heat
41. For arc welding current range is usually (c) agent for heat transfer
(a) 10 to 15 A (d) shield to protect the work from oxidation
(b) 30 to 40 A 48. During arc welding as the thickness of the
(c) 50 to 100 A metal to be welded increases
(d) 100 to 350 A (a) current should decrease, voltage should
42. Spot welding is used for increase
(a) thin metal sheets (b) current should increases, voltage remaining
(b) rough and irregular surfaces the same
(c) costings only (c) current should increase, voltage should
(d) thick sections decrease
43. Galvanising is a process of applying a layer of (d) voltage should increase, current remaining
(a) aluminium the same
(b) lead 49. In D.C. arc welding
(c) copper (a) electrode is made positive and workpiece
(d) zinc negative
44. A seamless pipe has (b) electrode is made negative and workpiece
positive
(a) steam welded joint
(c) both electrode as well as workpiece are
(b) spot welded joint
made positive
(c) arc welded joint
(d) both electrode as well as workpiece are
(d) no joint
made negative
45. Motor-generator set for D.C. arc welding has
50. The purpose of coating on arc welding
generator of
electrodes is to
(a) series type
(a) stabilise the arc
(b) shunt type
(b) provide a protecting atmosphere
(c) differentially compound type
(c) provide slag to protect the molten metal
(d) level compound type
46. Plain and butt welds may be used on materials
51. 50 percent duty cycle of a welding machine
upto thickness of nearly
means
(a) 5 mm
(a) machine input is 50 percent of rated input
(b) 10 mm
(b) machine efficiency is 50 percent
(c) 25 mm
(c) machine work on 50 percent output
(d) 50 mm
(d) machine works for 5 minutes in a duration
of 10 minutes
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (a 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (d)
10. (a) 11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (a) 16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (c)
19. (a) 20. (d) 21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (d)
28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (a) 31. (d) 32. (d) 33. (d) 34. (c) 35. (d) 36. (d)
37. (d) 38. (c) 39. (d) 40. (c) 41. (d) 42. (a) 43. (d) 44. (d) 45. (d)
46. (c) 47. (d) 48. (b) 49. (b) 50. (d) 51. (d)
GO To FIRST
29. A machine shop 30 m long and 15 m wide is to have a general illumination of 150 lux on the
work plane provided by lamps mounted 5 m above it. Assuming a coefficient of utilization of 0.55,
determine suitable number and position of light. Assume any data if required.
30. Laws of illumination. (J.N. University, Hyderabad, December 2002/January 2003)
31. Working principle of sodium vapour lamp.
32. Explain the principle of operation of sodium vapour lamp and its advantages.
33. A corridor is lighted by lamps spaced 9.15 m apart and suspended at a height of 4.75 m above
the centre line of the floor. If each lamp gives 100 candle power in all directions, find the maximum
and minimum illumination on the floor along the centre line. Assume and data if required.
34. Discuss the laws of illumination and its limitations in practice.
35. State the functions of starter and choke in a fluorescent lamp.
36. Mercury Vapour Lamp. (J.N. University, Hyderabad, December 2002/January 2003)
37. Describe briefly (i) conduit system (ii) C.T.S. system of writing.
(Bangalore University, January/February 2003)
38. With a neat circuit diagram, explain the two way control of a filament lamp.
(Belgaum Karnataka University, February 2002)
39. With a neat sketch explain the working of a sodium vapour lamp.
(Belgaum Karnataka University, February 2002)
40. Mention the different types of wiring. With relevant circuit diagrams and switching tables, explain
two-way and three-way control of lamps.
(Belgaum Karnataka University, January/February 2003)
41. With a neat sketch explain the working of a fluorescent lamp.
(Belgaum Karnataka University, January/February 2003)
1. Candela is the unit of ...................... candela.
(a) flux (a) 200
(b) luminous intensity (b) 100
(c) illumination (c) 50
(d) luminance. (d) 400.
2. The unit of illuminance is 5. A perfect diffuser surface is one that
(a) lumen (a) diffuses all the incident light
(b) cd/m2 (b) absorbs all the incident light
(c) lux (c) transmits all the incident light
(d) steradian. (d) scatters light uniformly in all directions.
3. The illumination at various points on a 6. The direct lighting scheme is most efficient but
horizontal surface illuminated by the same is liable to cause
source varies as (a) monotony
3
(a) cos θ (b) glare
(b) cos θ (c) hard shadows
2
(c) 1/r (d) both (b) and (c).
2
(d) cos θ. 7. Total flux required in any lighting scheme de-
4. The M.S.C.P. of a lamp which gives out a to- pends inversely on
tal luminous flux of 400 π lumen is (a) illumination
Illumination 1939
(b) surface area 17. Illumination of one lumen per sq. metre is
(c) utilization factor called .......
(d) space/height ratio. (a) lumen metre
8. Floodlighting is NOT used for ................. (b) lux
purposes. (c) foot candle
(a) reading (d) candela
(b) aesthetic 18. A solid angle is expressed in terms of .......
(c) advertising (a) radians/metre
(d) industrial. (b) radians
9. Which of the following lamp has minimum (c) steradians
initial cost of installation but maximum (d) degrees
running cost ? 19. The unit of luminous flux is ........
(a) incandescent (a) watt/m2
(b) fluorescent (b) lumen
(c) mercury vapour (c) lumen/m2
(d) sodium vapour. (d) watt
10. An incandescent lamp can be used 20. Filament lamps operate normally at a power
(a) in any position factor of
(b) on both ac and dc supply (a) 0.5 lagging
(c) for street lighting (b) 0.8 lagging
(d) all of the above. (c) unity
11. The average working life of a fluorescent lamp (d) 0.8 leading
is about........................ hours. 21. The filament of a GLS lamp is made of
(a) 1000 (a) tungsten
(b) 4000 (b) copper
(c) 3000 (c) carbon
(d) 5000. (d) aluminium
12. The luminous efficiency of a sodium vapour 22. Find diameter tungsten wires are made by
lamp is about .................... lumen/watt. (a) turning
(a) 10 (b) swaging
(b) 30 (c) compressing
(c) 50 (d) wire drawing
(d) 70 23. What percentage of the input energy is
13. Which of the following statements is correct? radiated by filament lamps?
(a) Light is a form of heat energy (a) 2 to 5 percent
(b) Light is a form of electrical energy (b) 10 to 15 percent
(c) Light consists of shooting particles (c) 25 to 30 percent
(d) Light consists of electromagnetic waves (d) 40 to 50 percent
14. Luminous efficiency of a fluorescent tube is 24. Which of the following lamps is the cheapest
(a) 10 lumens/watt for the same wattage?
(b) 20 lumens/watt (a) Fluorescent tube
(c) 40 lumens/watt (b) Mercury vapour lamp
(c) 60 lumens/watt (c) GLS lamp
15. Candela is the unit of which of the following? (d) Sodium vapour lamp
(a) Wavelength 25. Which of the following is not the standard
(b) Luminous intensity rating of GLS lamps?
(c) Luminous flux (a) 100 W
(d) Frequency (b) 75 W
16. Colour of light depends upon (c) 40 W
(a) frequency (d) 15 W
(b) wave length 26. In houses the illumination is in the range of
(c) both (a) and (b) (a) 2–5 lumens/watt
(d) speed of light (b) 10–20 lumens/watt
(c) 35–45 lumens/watt (c) both low and high voltage rated lamps
(d) 60–65 lumens/watt will be equally sturdy
27. ‘‘The illumination is directly proportional to 35. The cost of a fluorescent lamp is more than
the cosine of the angle made by the normal to that of incandescent lamp because of which of
the illuminated surface with the direction of the following factors?
the incident flux’’. Above statement is (a) More labour is required in its
associated with manufacturing
(a) Lambert's cosine law (b) Number of components used is more
(b) Planck's law (c) Quantity of glass used is more
(c) Bunsen's law of the illumination (d) All of the above factors
(d) Macbeth's law of illumination 36. Filament lamp at starting will take current
28. The colour of sodium vapour discharge lamp (a) less than its full running current
is (b) equal to its full running current
(a) red (c) more than its full running current
(b) pink 37. A reflector is provided to
(c) yellow (a) protect the lamp
(d) bluish green (b) provide better illumination
29. Carbon arc lamps are commonly used in (c) avoid glare
(a) photography (d) do all of the above
(b) cinema projectors 38. The purpose of coating the fluorescent tube
(c) domestic lighting from inside with white power is
(d) street lighting (a) to improve its life
30. Desired illumination level on the working (b) to improve the appearance
plane depends upon (c) to change the colour of light emitted to
(a) age group of observers white
(b) whether the object is stationary or moving (d) to increase the light radiations due to
(c) Size of the object to be seen and its secondary emissions
distance from the observer 39. ....... will need lowest level of illumination.
(d) whether the object is to be seen for longer (a) Audiotoriums
duration or shorter duration of time (b) Railway platform
(e) all above factors (c) Displays
31. On which of the following factors dies the (d) Fine engravings
depreciation or maintenance factor depend? 40. Due to moonlight, illumination is nearly
(a) Lamp cleaning schedule (a) 3000 lumens/m2
(b) Ageing of the lamp (b) 300 lumens/m2
(c) Type of work carried out at the premises (c) 30 lumens/m2
(d) All of the above factors (d) 0.3 lumen/m2
32. In lighting installating using filament lamps 41. Which of the following instruments is used for
1% voltage drop results into the comparison of candle powers of different
(a) no loss of light sources?
(b) 1.5 percent loss in the light output (a) Radiometer
(c) 3.5 percent loss in the light output (b) Bunsen meter
(d) 15 percent loss in the light output (c) Photometer
33. For the same lumen output, the running cost (d) Candle meter
of the fluorescent lamp is 42. ....... photometer is used for comparing the
(a) equal to that of filament lamp lights of different colours?
(b) less than that of filament lamp (a) Grease spot
(c) more than that of filament lamp (b) Bunsen
(d) any of the above (c) Lummer brodhum
34. For the same power output (d) Guilds flicker
(a) high voltage rated lamps will be more 43. In the fluorescent tube circuit the function of
sturdy choke is primarily to
(b) low voltage rated lamps will be more (a) reduce the flicker
sturdy
Illumination 1941
(b) minimise the starting surge required.
(c) initiate the arc and stabilize it (a) skilled bench work
(d) reduce the starting current (b) drawing offices
44. ...... cannot sustain much voltage fluctuations. (c) hospital wards
(a) Sodium vapour lamp (d) find machine work
(b) Mercury vapour lamp 53. For normal reading the illumination level
(c) Incandescent lamp required is around
(d) Fluorescent lamp (a) 20-40 lumens/m2
45. The function of capacitor across the supply to (b) 60-100 lumens/m2
the fluorescent tube is primarily to (c) 200-300 lumens/m2
(a) stabilize the arc (d) 400-500 lumens/m2
(b) reduce the starting current 54. In electric discharge lamps light is produced
(c) improve the supply power factor by
(d) reduce the noise (a) cathode ray emission
46. ...... does not have separate choke (b) ionisation in a gas or vapour
(a) Sodium vapour lamp (c) heating effect of current
(b) Fluorescent lamp (d) magnetic effect of current
(c) Mercury vapour lamp 55. A substance which change its electrical
(d) All of the above resistance when illuminated by light is
47. In sodium vapour lamp the function of the leak called .......
transformer is (a) photoelectric
(a) to stabilize the arc (b) photovoltaic
(b) to reduce the supply voltage (c) phatoconductive
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above
(d) none of the above 56. In case of ...... power factor is the highest.
48. Most affected parameter of a filament lamp (a) GLS lamps
due to voltage change is (b) mercury arc lamps
(a) wattage (c) tube lights
(b) life (d) sodium vapour lamps
(c) luminous efficiency 57. A mercury vapour lamp gives ..... light.
(d) light output (a) white
49. In electric discharge lamps for stabilizing the (b) pink
arc (c) yellow
(a) a reactive choke is connected in series (d) greenish blue
with the supply 58. Sometimes the wheels of rotating machinery,
(b) a condenser is connected in series to the under the influence of fluorescent lamps
supply appear to be stationary. This is due to the
(c) a condenser is connected in parallel to the (a) low power factor
supply (b) stroboscopic effect
(d) a variable resistor is connected in the (c) fluctuations
circuit (d) luminescence effect
50. For precision work the illumination level 59. Which of the following bulbs operates on least
required is of the order of power?
(a) 500-1000 lumens/m2 (a) GLS bulb
(b) 200-2000 lumens/m2 (b) Torch bulb
(c) 50-100 lumens/m2 (c) Neon bulb
(d) 10-25 lumens/m2 (d) Night bulb
51. ...... is a cold cathode lamp. 60. The flicker effect of fluorescent lamps is more
(a) Fluorescent lamp pronounced at
(b) Neon lamp (a) lower frequencies
(c) Mercury vapour lamp (b) higher frequencies
(d) Sodium vapour lamp (c) lower voltages
52. In case of ...... least illumination level is (d) higher voltages
61. Which of the following application does not 62. Which gas can be filled in GLS lamps?
need ultraviolet lamps? (a) Oxygen
(a) Car lighting (b) Carbon dioxide
(b) Medical purposes (c) Xenon
(c) Blue print machine (d) Any inert gas
(d) Aircraft cockpit dashboard lighting
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (d)
11. (b) 12. (d) 13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (c)
21. (a) 22. (d) 23. (b) 24. (c) 25. (b) 26. (d) 27. (a) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (e)
31. (d) 32. (c) 33. (b) 34. (b) 35. (d) 36. (c) 37. (d) 38. (d) 39. (b) 40. (d)
41. (c) 42. (d) 43. (c) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (a) 47. (c) 48. (b) 49. (a) 50. (a)
51. (b) 52. (c) 53. (b) 54. (b) 55. (c) 56. (a) 57. (d) 58. (b) 59. (b) 60. (a)
61. (a) 62. (d)
GO To FIRST
ELECTRIC HEATING 181
(21) How amount of heat is controlled in high- (22) How can the rate of dielectric heating be varied?
frequency eddy current heating? The rate of dielectric heating can be varied by
The amount of heat is controlled by controlling varying either supply voltage or supply frequency.
the supply frequency and the flux density in high-
frequency eddy current heating.
M U LT I P L E - C H O I C E Q U E S T I O N S
(1) Electric heating is considered advantageous over (c) Bodies are immersed in water.
the other systems of heating (coal, oil, or gas (d) Bodies are exposed to thermal radiations.
heating ) as:
(6) Thermal conductivity is measured in:
(a) It is economical, clean, hygienic, efficient, and
(a) MJ/m2/m/°C/hr.
safe in operation.
(b) MJ/m/°C/hr.
(b) It provides better working conditions, automatic
protection against overheating, and simple, (c) MJ/m2/°C/hr.
accurate, and reliable temperature control. (d) MJ/m2/°C.
(c) There is no upper limit to the temperature (7) The highest value of thermal conductivity is for:
obtainable except the ability of the material to (a) Aluminum.
withstand the heat.
(b) Brass.
(d) All of the above.
(c) Copper.
(2) A perfect black body is one which:
(d) Iron.
(a) Absorbs all incident radiations. (8) Radiations from a black body are proportional to:
(b) Reflects all incident radiations. (a) T2.
(c) Transmits all in incident radiations. (b) T3.
(d) All of the above. (c) T4.
(3) For the transmission of heat from one body to (d) 1/T4.
another it is essential that:
(9) A body reflecting entire radiations incidenting on it
(a) Both bodies are solids. is called the:
(b) The two bodies are at different temperatures. (a) White body.
(c) Both bodies are in contact. (b) Gray body.
(d) At least one of the bodies has some source of (c) Black body.
heating. (d) Transparent body.
(4) Heat is transferred simultaneously by conduction, (10) The insulating material suitable for the low
convection, and radiation: temperature applications is:
(a) During the melting of ice. (a) Cork.
(b) From refrigerator coils to refrigerator freezer. (b) Diatomaceous earth.
(c) Inside boiler furnaces. (c) Asbestos paper.
(d) Through the surface of the insulated pipe (d) 75% magnesia.
carrying steam. (11) The quantity of heat absorbed from the heater by
(5) Heat transfer by conduction will not take place convection depends upon:
when the: (a) The temperature of heating element above
(a) Two bodies are at the same temperatures. the surroundings.
(b) Bodies are kept in vacuum. (b) The surface area of the heater.
182 GENERATION AND UTILIZATION OF ELECTRICAL ENERGY
(c) The position of the heater. (c) Nichrome.

(d) All of the above. (d) Kanthal.
(12) In case of immersion type water heater, the heat (18) Which of the following heating element can give
is transferred by: the highest temperature in resistance heating?
(a) Radiation. (a) Nichrome.
(b) Conduction. (b) Silicon carbide.
(c) Convection (c) Copper.
(d) All of the above. (d) Nickel–Cr–Fe alloy.
(13) The material used as the heating element for a (19) The heat element to be used in a furnace
furnace should have: employed for heating around 1,600°C should be
(a) High resistivity. of the material:
(b) High-melting point. (a) Nichrome.
(c) Low temperature coefficient. (b) Eureka.
(d) All of the above. (c) Molybdenum.
(14) The material of the heating element should be: (d) Silicon-carbide.
(a) Such that it may withstand the required (20) In an electric press, mica is used:
temperature without getting oxidized. (a) For induction heating.
(b) Of low resistivity. (b) For dielectric heating.
(c) Of low melting point. (c) As an insulator.
(d) Of high temperature coefficient. (d) For the improvement of power factor.
(15) The material to be used for the heating element (21) In a resistance furnace, the temperature is
should be of high resistivity so as to: controlled by:
(a) Increase the life of the heating element. (a) The variation of operating voltage.
(b) Reduce the length of the heating element. (b) The variation of the resistance of heating circuit.
(c) Reduce the effect of oxidation. (c) Switching on and off the supply periodically.
(d) Produce large amount of heat. (d) All of the above.
(16) The material to be used for the heating element (22) The simplest and the most commonly used
should be of low temperature coefficient so method for temperature control is:
as to: (a) The external series resistance in the heating
(a) Avoid initial rush of current. circuit.
(b) Avoid change in kW rating with temperature. (b) The change of connections of heating circuit.
(c) Reduce the effect of oxidation (c) The use of variable number of heating elements.
(d) Both (a) and (b) above. (d) Transformer tappings.
(17) Which of the following heating element will have (23) In a domestic baking oven, the temperature is
the least temperature range? controlled by:
(a) Eureka. (a) Voltage.
(b) Silicon carbon. (b) Series–parallel operation.
(c) Thermostat. (30) Direct resistance heating is used in:

(d) Star-delta connections. (a) Electrode boiler.
(24) The device necessarily used for automatic (b) Salt-bath furnace.
temperature control in a furnace is: (c) Resistance welding.
(a) Thermostat. (d) All of the above.
(b) Auto-transformer. (31) Resistance ovens are used for:
(c) Thermo-couple. (a) Domestic and commercial heating.
(d) Any of the above. (b) The vulcanizing and hardening of synthetic
materials.
(25) The control of power input to salt-bath furnace is
affected by: (c) The drying of varnish coatings, drying, and
baking of potteries.
(a) Varying the depth of immersion of electrodes.
(b) Varying the distance between the electrodes.
(32) In direct arc furnace, which of the following is of
(c) Both (a) and (b). high value?
(d) None of (a) and (b). (a) Current.
(26) The temperature inside a furnace is usually (b) Voltage.
measured by:
(c) Power factor.
(a) Mercury thermometer. (d) All of the above.
(b) Optical pyrometer. (33) The power factor at which the direct arc furnace
(c) Alcohol thermometer. operates is:
(d) Any of the above. (a) Low lagging.
(27) In a resistance furnace, the atmosphere is: (b) Low leading.
(a) Oxidizing. (c) Unity.
(b) Deoxidizing. (d) High leading.

(34) For arc heating, the electrodes used are made of:
(c) Reducing.
(a) Copper.
(d) Neutral.
(b) Graphite.
(28) In the direct resistance heating method, the
maximum heat transfer takes place by: (c) Tungsten.
(a) Convection. (d) Aluminum.

(35) In an arc furnace, the choke is provided to:
(b) Radiation.
(a) Reduce the surge severity.
(c) Conduction.
(b) Stabilize the arc.
(d) Any of the above.
(c) Improve the power factor.
(29) Radiant heating is used for:
(a) The malting of ferrous metals.
(36) It is desirable to operate the arc furnaces at a
(b) The annealing of metals. power factor of:
(c) The drying of paints and varnishes. (a) Zero.
(d) Any of the above. (b) Unity.
(c) 0.707 lagging. (43) In induction heating, which of the following is of

(d) 0.707 leading. high value?
(37) It is desirable to keep the arc length short in order to: (a) Frequency.
(a) Have better heating. (b) Current.
(b) Have better stirring action and reduce (c) Voltage.
oxidation problem. (d) Power factor.
(c) Increase the life of roof refractory. (44) Induction furnaces are used for:
(d) All of the above. (a) The heat treatment of castings.
(38) Usually arc furnaces are of: (b) The heating of insulators.
(a) Cylindrical or conical shapes. (c) The melting of aluminum.
(b) Rectangular shape. (d) All of the above.
(c) Spherical shape. (45) In induction heating, the depth up to which the
(d) V-Shape. current will penetrate is proportional to:
(39) In submerged arc furnaces, the power is (a) 1/(Frequency)1/2.
controlled by: (b) 1/Frequency.
(a) Varying the spacing between the electrodes. (c) Frequency.
(b) Varying the voltage applied to the electrodes. (d) (Frequency)2.
(c) Either (a) or (b). (46) The supply frequency usually employed for high-
(d) Varying the arc length. frequency eddy current heating is:
(40) In induction heating: (a) 10 MHz.
(a) Heat is produced due to the currents induced (b) 10–400 KHz.
in the charge by the electromagnetic action.
(c) 5 KHz.
(b) The resistance of the charge must be low and
(d) 1 KHz.
the voltage applied must be high in order to
produce sufficient heat. (47) In dielectric heating, the current flows through:
(c) Magnetic materials can be easily treated in (a) Air.
comparison to non-magnetic materials. (b) Dielectric.
(d) All of the above. (c) Metallic conductor.
(41) Induction heating takes place in: (d) The ionic discharge between dielectric
(a) Insulating materials. medium and metallic conductor.
(b) Conducting and magnetic materials. (48) Dielectric loss is proportional to:
(c) Conducting but non-magnetic materials. (a) Frequency.
(d) Conducting materials may be magnetic or (b) (Frequency)2.
non-magnetic. (c) (Frequency)3.
(42) Low-frequency supply is necessary for direct core (d) (Frequency)1/2.
type induction furnaces because:
(49) The dielectric loss in a dielectric is proportional to:
(a) The magnetic coupling between the primary
and secondary circuit is poor. (a) The voltage impressed on the dielectric.
(b) With the normal frequency supply, the (b) The square of the voltage impressed on the
electromagnetic forces cause severe stirring dielectric.
action in the molten metal. (c) The square root of the voltage impressed on
(c) Both (a) and (b). the dielectric.
(d) None of (a) and (b). (d) None of the above.
(50) For heating of plywood, the frequency should be: (c) Induction heating of steel.
(a) 1–2 MHz. (d) Induction heating of brass.
(b) 10–25 khz. (56) The power factor will be leading in case of:
(c) 1 khz. (a) Dielectric heating.
(d) 100 Hz. (b) Induction heating.
(51) The power factor will be maximum in case of: (c) Electric arc heating.
(a) Electric arc heating. (d) Resistance heating.
(b) Resistance heating. (57) The method of heating used for the non-
(c) Induction heating. conducting material is:
(d) Dielectric heating. (a) Induction heating.
(52) Which of the following methods of heating is (b) Dielectric heating.
independent of supply frequency? (c) Electric resistance heating.
(a) Electric heating. (d) Electric arc heating.
(b) Induction heating. (58) The method appropriate for the heating of non-
(c) Electric resistance heating. ferrous metals is:
(d) Dielectric heating. (a) Indirect resistance heating.
(53) The furnaces used for cremation are: (b) Radiant heating.
(a) Electric resistance heating. (c) Indirect arc heating
(b) Electric arc heating. (d) Dielectric heating.
(c) Dielectric heating. (59) The method suitable for the heating of conducting
medium is:
(d) High-frequency eddy current heating.
(a) Induction heating.
(54) In an electric room heat convector, the method of
heating used is: (b) Indirect arc heating.
(a) Arc heating. (c) Eddy current heating.
(b) Resistance heating. (d) Resistance heating.
(c) Induction heating. (60) The most modern method for the food processing is:
(d) Infrared heating. (a) Induction heating.
(55) Hysteresis loss and eddy current loss are used in: (b) Resistance heating.
(a) Resistance heating. (c) Dielectric heating.
(b) Dielectric heating. (d) Eddy current heating.
REVIEW QUESTIONS
(1) Discuss the various modes of heat dissipation. (5) Explain the principle of high-frequency eddy
(2) What are the advantages of electric heating? current heating.
(3) What are the causes of the failure of heating (6) Explain with a neat sketch the principle of
element? Ajax–Wyatt induction furnace.
(4) What are the advantages and the disadvantages (7) Explain with a neat sketch the principle of core
of direct and indirect arc furnaces? type induction furnaces.
(8) Explain the principle of arc heating. (11) What are the applications of dielectric heating?
(9) What are the applications of induction heating? (12) Compare high-frequency and power frequency
(10) Explain the principle of dielectric heating. coreless furnaces.
EXERCISE PROBLEMS
(1) A 30-kW, 220-V, and single-phase resistance Latent heat 9 kcal/kg Specific heat 0.12
oven employs nickel–chrome strip of 35-mm
Initial temperature 17°C Melting point
thick is used, for its heating elements. If the
1,400°C
wire temperature is not exceed 1,300°C and
the temperature of the charge is to be 600°C. The overall efficiency is 60%. Find also the power
Calculate its width and length of the wire. factor and the electrical efficiency of the furnace.
Assume the radiating efficiency as 0.75 and (4) Determine the amount of energy required to melt
emissivity as 0.9. 2 tons of zinc in 1 hr, if it operates at an efficiency
(2) A 150-kW Ajax–Wyatt furnace works at a of 60%, the specific heat of zinc is equals to 0.2.
secondary voltage of 15 V at power factor 0.7 The latent heat of zinc 25.67 kcal/kg, the melting
when fully charged. If the reactance presented by point is 500°C, and the initial temperature is 35°C.
the charge remains constant but the resistance (5) A piece of insulating material is to be heated by
varies invert as the charge depth in the furnace, dielectric heating. The size of the piece is
calculate the charge depth that produces the 12 s 12 s 5 cm3. A frequency of 30 mega
maximum heating effect when the furnace is fully cycles is used and the power absorbed is 500 W.
charged. Determine the voltage necessary for heating and
(3) Determine also the temperature of the wire when the current that flows in the material. The material
the charge is cold. Calculate the time taken to has a permittivity of 6 and a power factor of 0.04.
melt 5 ton of steel in three-phase arc furnace (6) A piece of an insulating material 3-cm thick and
having the following data. 110 cm2 in area is to be heated by dielectric
heating. The material has a permittivity of 5 and
Current 7,000 A Resistance 0.002 Ω
power factor of 0.05. The power at 700 V is 400
Arc voltage 45 V Reactance 0.004 Ω W. Determine the cycles per second.
ANSWERS
1. d 12. c 23. c 34. b

2. a 13. d 24. a 35. b
3. b 14. a 25. c 36. c
4. c 15. b 26. d 37. d
5. a 16. d 27. a 38. a
6. b 17. a 28. b 39. c
7. c 18. b 29. c 40. d
8. c 19. c 30. d 41. d
9. a 20. c 31. d 42. c
10. b 21. d 32. a 43. a
11. d 22. b 33. a 44. a
45. a 49. b 53. a 57. b

46. b 50. a 54. b 58. c
47. b 51. b 55. c 59. a
48. a 52. c 56. a 60. c
ELECTRIC WELDING 213
(1) Which of the followings falls under the category of (a) Metal surface.
the plastic or non-fusion welding? (b) The contact layer of metals to be welded.
(a) Resistance welding. (c) The contact point of electrode with metal top.
(b) Electron beam welding. (d) The contact point of electrode with metal
(c) Electro-slag welding. bottom.
(d) Arc welding. (8) In the electric resistance welding:
(2) Which of the following falls under the category of (a) The current required exceeds 100 A.
the fusion or non-pressure welding? (b) The voltage ranges from 4 to 12 V.
(a) Resistance welding. (c) The amount of power supplied to the weld
(b) Metal arc welding. usually ranges from 60 to 80 W for each
square mm of area.
(c) Ultrasonic welding.
(d) Explosive welding.
(9) The resistance to the flow of current is made of:
(3) The proper selection of welding depends upon, in
addition to cost involved: (a) The resistance of current path in the work.
(a) The kinds of metals to be joined. (b) The resistance between the contact surfaces
of the parts being welded.
(b) The nature of products to be fabricated.
(c) The resistance between the electrodes and
(c) The production technique used.
the surface of the parts being welded.
(4) During the resistance welding, the heat produced
(10) The electric resistance welding has the
at the joint is proportional to:
advantages of:
(a) Current.
(a) Reduced distortion, higher production rates,
(b) Voltage. suitability for large quantity production, and
(c) I2R. comparatively lesser skill need.
(d) Volt–amperes. (b) Heat is localized where required.
(5) The metal surfaces for the electrical resistance (c) No filler material is required.
welding must be: (d) All of the above.
(a) Cleaned. (11) The main drawbacks of the resistance welding are:
(b) Lubricated. (a) High initial as well as maintenance cost.
(c) Moistened. (b) Difficult shapes and sections cannot welded.
(d) Rough. (c) Only similar metals can be welded.
(6) The resistance welding cannot be used for: (d) Parent metal is affected.
(a) Ferrous materials. (12) Plain and butt welds may be used on materials up
(b) Non-ferrous materials. to thickness of about:
(c) Dielectrics . (a) 5 mm.
(d) Any of the above. (b) 10 mm.

(c) 25 mm.
(7) In the electrical resistance welding, the greatest
resistance is offered by: (d) 40 mm.
(13) In the upset butt welding: (19) During the spot welding, the current flows for:
(a) The faces of the metal pieces to be joined are (a) Fraction of a minute.
prepared for even contact. (b) Fraction of a second to several seconds.
(b) Heating is obtained by the contact resistance (c) Few milliseconds.
of the metal pieces to be welded.
(d) Few microseconds.
(c) The voltage required is 2–8 V and the current
required ranges from 50 A to several hundred (20) The spot welding is employed for:
amperes depending upon material and the (a) Thin metal sheets (thickness being usually
area to be welded at a time. limited to 10–12 mm).
(d) All of the above. (b) Castings only.
(14) In the flash butt welding: (c) Thick sections.
(a) No special preparation of the faces to be (d) Rough and irregular surfaces.
welded is necessary.
(21) The spot welding:
(b) Clean and pure weld is obtained.
(a) Makes the weld air tight.
(c) Power requirement is less.
(b) Makes the weld water tight.
(c) Provides mechanical strength.
(15) The spot welding process basically depends on:
(a) The generation of heat.
(22) In the spot welding:
(b) The application of forging pressure.
(a) It is desirable to clean the sheets thoroughly
(c) Both (a) and (b). before welding.
(d) Ohmic resistance. (b) The workpieces being welded are pressed
(16) In the spot welding, the composition and together by mechanical pressure exerted
thickness of the base metal determines: through electrodes.
(a) The holding time. (c) The current required is above 5,000 A and
the voltage between the electrodes is usually
(b) The amount of weld current. less than 2 V (open-circuit voltage less than
(c) The amount of squeeze pressure. 12 V).
(d) All of the above. (d) All of the above.
(17) The tips of the electrodes, for the spot welding are (23) The projection welding can be considered as a
made of: mass production form of:
(a) Carbon. (a) Seam welding.
(b) Copper alloy or pure copper. (b) Spot welding.
(c) Mica. (c) Upset welding.
(d) Porcelain. (d) Flash welding.
(18) The power factor of a spot welding machine is (24) The basic electrical requirement in the arc
expected to be about: welding is that there should be:
(a) 0.3–0.5 lagging. (a) High open circuit voltage.
(b) 0.8–0.85 lagging. (b) No arc blow.
(c) 0.75–0.85 lagging. (c) DC power supply.
(d) Unity. (d) Coated electrodes.
(25) In the arc welding, the temperature of the arc (c) The thermit welding.
produced is of the order of: (d) The resistance welding.
(a) 1,000°C. (32) For the electric arc welding DC supply is obtained
(b) 3,500–4,000°C. from:
(c) 5,000–7,500°C. (a) Motor-generator set.
(d) 7,500–10,000°C. (b) AC rectified welding unit.
(c) Either from motor-generator set or from AC
(26) The electric arc has:
rectified unit.
(a) Linear resistance characteristic.
(d) None of the above.
(b) Positive resistance characteristic. (33) In an electric welding, the major personal hazards
(c) Negative resistance characteristic. are:
(d) Highly inductive characteristic. (a) Weld spatter.
(27) In an electric arc welding, the voltage required to (b) Flying sparks.
strike DC arc is about: (c) Harmful infra-red and ultraviolet rays from the
(a) 50–60 V. arc.
(b) 80–90 V. (d) All of the above.
(c) 100–120 V. (34) During the electric arc welding, as the thickness
of the metal to be welded increases:
(d) 220 V.
(a) The voltage is increased keeping current the
(28) In an electric arc welding, the voltage required to same.
strike AC arc is about:
(b) The current is increased keeping voltage
(a) 50–60 V. unchanged.
(b) 80–90 V. (c) Both the current and the voltage are increased.
(c) 100–120 V. (d) Both the current and the voltage are reduced.
(d) 230 V. (35) The length of arc required depends on:
(29) In an electric arc welding, the voltage required to (a) The kind of electrode used, its coating and its
maintain the arc will be: diameter.
(a) 250–500 V. (b) The magnitude of current used.
(c) The position of welding.
(b) 150–250 V.
(c) 20–30 V.
(36) The overhead welding position is thought to be
(d) Below 10 V.
the most:
(30) For an electric arc welding, the current range is (a) Hazardous.
usually:
(b) Economical.
(a) 50–1,000 A.
(c) Useful.
(b) 30–50 A.
(d) Difficult.
(c) 20–30 A. (37) The electrode is coated in order to:
(d) Below 20 A. (a) Improve the bead quality.
(31) An arc blow is a welding defect that is countered in: (b) Cleanse the base metal.
(a) The arc welding using DC supply. (c) Provide the shielding to weld pool.
(b) The arc welding using AC supply. (d) Prevent the atmospheric contamination.
(38) A 10-swg electrode has approximate diameter of: (c) An inactive gas.
(a) 0.8 mm. (d) An oxidizing agent.
(b) 1.0 mm. (45) The MiG welding is becoming more and more
popular as it:
(c) 3.3 mm.
(a) Is easy in operation.
(d) 10 mm.
(b) Has high metal deposit rate.
(39) The purpose of coating on the arc welding
electrodes is to: (c) Both (a) and (b)
(a) Provide a protective covering. (d) It can be used for both ferrous and non-
ferrous metals.
(b) Provide slag for the protection of the molten
metal. (46) In the electro-slag welding, theoretically there is
no limit to:
(c) Stabilize the arc.
(a) The rate of metal deposit.
(b) The thickness of weld bead.
(40) In the carbon arc welding:
(c) The temperature of salt bath.
(a) Electrode is ve wrt work in case of DC supply.
(d) The rate of slag consumption.
(b) Electrode is −ve wrt work in case of DC supply.
(47) In the ultrasonic welding, the frequency range is
(c) Electrode is connected to neutral in case of usually:
AC supply. (a) 20–60 kHz.
(d) None of the above. (b) 50–100 kHz.
(41) The carbon arc welding has the advantages of: (c) 100–200 kHz.
(a) Easy control of molten pool temperature (d) Above 250 kHz.
simply by varying the arc length.
(48) Welding is not done directly from the supply
(b) Easily adaptable to automation. mains as:
(c) Excellent heat source for brazing, braze (a) Its voltage is too high.
welding, soldering, etc. (b) It is impracticable to draw heavy currents
(d) All of the above. directly from the supply mains.
(42) For the metal arc welding: (c) Its voltage remains fluctuating.
(a) Both DC and AC can be used but AC is preferred. (d) None of the above.
(b) Bare electrodes are no longer used except for (49) The AC welding machine cannot be used for:
the automatic welding having arrangement to (a) The resistance welding.
protect the weld area from the atmosphere.
(b) The submerged arc welding.
(c) Correcting welding current, voltage, and
(c) The MIG welding.
speed are very important.
(d) The atomic hydrogen welding.
(50) In the electric welding, the arc blow can be
(43) In the argon arc welding, the electrode is made of: avoided by:
(a) Carbon. (a) Using AC machines.
(b) Graphite. (b) Increasing arc length.
(c) Tungsten. (c) Using bare electrodes.
(d) Steel. (d) Welding away from ground connections.
(44) Argon is: (51) Welding leads have:
(a) An inert gas. (a) High current carrying capacity.
(b) A rare gas. (b) High flexibility.
(c) Both (a) and (b). (c) Uncleaned metal surface.

(d) None of the above. (d) Lack of flux.
(52) The transformer used in a welding set is: (57) The method recommended for the welding of
(a) Step-up transformer. aluminum alloy is:
(b) Step-down transformer. (a) DC arc welding.
(c) Constant current transformer. (b) AC arc welding.
(d) Booster transformer. (c) Acetylene–oxygen gas welding.
(53) A rectifier used for welding has voltage current (d) Tungsten arc welding.
characteristic as: (58) Steel pipes are manufactured by:
(a) Drooping.
(a) The arc welding.
(b) Rising.
(b) The argon arc welding.
(c) Straight line.
(c) The resistance welding.
(d) The thermit welding.
(54) The load power factor using the welding
transformer depends on: (59) Steel rails are welded by:
(a) Arc length. (a) The thermit welding.

(b) Material to be welded. (b) The argon arc welding.
(c) Type of electrode to be used. (c) The gas welding.
(d) All of the above. (d) The resistance welding.
(55) For power factor correction in a welding circuit, a (60) Electronic components are joined by:
capacitor is usually connected: (a) Spot welding.
(a) Across the mains. (b) Soldering.
(b) Across the secondary side of the welding (c) Brazing.
transformer.
(c) Across the primary side of the welding
transformer. (61) Air craft body is:
(d) Across the arcing electrodes. (a) Riveted.
(56) In a welded joint, poor fusion is on account of: (b) Seam welded.
(a) Improper current. (c) Gas welded.
(b) High welding speed. (d) Spot welded.
REVIEW QUESTIONS
(1) Explain the resistance welding and its application. (6) Compare AC and DC weldings.
(2) Explain the principle of spot and seam weldings. (7) Compare flash and upset butt weldings.
(3) What are the differences between resistance (8) What are the types of electrodes used for welding
welding and arc welding? operation? Give the advantages of coated
(4) Discuss the difference between carbon and electrodes.
metallic arc weldings. Give their relative merits (9) List out the equipment used for the welding
and demerits. operations.
(5) Explain varies types of arc welding processes. (10) Compare resistance and arc weldings.
ANSWERS
1. a 17. b 33. d 49. c

2. b 18. a 34. b 50. a
3. d 19. b 35. d 51. c
4. c 20. a 36. a 52. b
5. a 21. c 37. a 53. a
6. c 22. d 38. c 54. b
7. b 23. b 39. d 55. c
8. d 24. a 40. b 56. a
9. d 25. b 41. d 57. b
10. d 26. c 42. d 58. c
11. a 27. a 43. c 59. a
12. c 28. b 44. a 60. b
13. d 29. c 45. c 61. a
14. d 30. a 46. b
15. c 31. a 47. a
16. d 32. c 48. b
FUNDAMENTALS OF ILLUMINATION 265
(1) Light: (c) Green radiations.

(a) Is a form of heat energy. (d) All of the above.
(b) Is a form of electrical energy. (8) The amount of light entering the eye is
(c) Consists of electromagnetic waves. controlled by:
(d) Consists of shooting particles. (a) Pupil.
(2) Radiant efficiency of the luminous source (b) Retina.

depends on: (c) Lens.
(a) The temperature of the source. (d) Pupil and lens.
(b) The wavelength of light rays. (9) The eye lens focuses the image on:
(c) The shape of the source. (a) Membrane.
(d) All of the above. (b) Retina.
(3) One Angstrom is equal to: (c) Corona.
(a) 10–8 m. (d) Pupil.
(b) 10 –10
m. (10) The color temperature of day-light is about:
(c) 10 cm.
–8
(a) 100 K.
(d) 10–8 mm. (b) 200 K.
(4) A substance that changes its electrical resistance (c) 500 K.
when illuminated by light is called:
(d) 600 K.
(a) Photoconductive.
(11) Light waves travel with a velocity of:
(b) Photovoltaic.
(a) 3 s 106 m/s.
(c) Photoelectric.
(b) 3 s 108 m/s.
(c) 3 s 1010 m/s.
(5) Visible spectrum of light has a wavelength in the
(d) 3 s 1012 m/s.
range of:
(12) The color of light depends upon:
(a) 1,000–4,000 Å.
(a) The velocity of light.
(b) 4,000–7,000 Å.
(b) Frequency.
(c) 7,500–4,000 Å.
(c) Wavelength.
(d) 12,500–30,000 Å.
(d) Both (b) and (c).
(6) Materials that reflect all wavelength in the
spectrum of light appear to be: (13) The color having the shortest wavelength is:
(a) Opaque. (a) Yellow.
(b) Transparent. (b) Blue.
(c) Black to white. (c) Orange.
(d) Green to red. (d) Green.
(7) An object that appears red to the eyes absorbs: (14) The color having the longest wavelength is:
(a) Blue radiations. (a) Blue.
(b) Violet radiations. (b) Green.
(c) Red. (20) The luminous flux is measured in:

(d) Violet. (a) Candela.
(15) Wavelength for red color is: (b) Lux.
(a) 4,000 Å. (c) Stilb.
(b) 5,000 Å. (d) Lumens.
(c) 6,000 Å. (21) The unit of solid angle is:
(d) 7,000 Å. (a) Radian.
(16) The wavelength of 5,500 Å will give light of: (b) Steradian.
(a) Green color. (c) Degree.
(b) Red color. (d) Radian per meter.
(c) Orange color. (22) The solid angle subtended at the center of a
(d) Yellow–green color. hemisphere of radius r will be:
(17) Candle power is: (a) 2QH.
(a) The luminous flux emitted by the source (b) 2Q.
per unit solid angle. (c) 4Q.
(b) The light radiating capacity of a source in a (d) 2Q/H.
given direction.
(23) The illumination at a surface due to a source of
(c) The unit of illumination. light placed at a distance ‘d’ from the surface
(d) None of the above. varies as:
(18) The unit of illumination is: (a) 1/d 2.
(a) Lux. (b) 1/d.
(b) Lumen. (c) D.
(c) Cd/m2. (d) d2.
(d) Candela. (24) The illumination of various points on a horizontal
(19) Candela is the unit of: surface illuminated by the same source varies as:
(a) Illumination. (a) CosR.
(b) Luminous intensity. (b) Cos2R.
(c) Luminance. (c) Cos3R.
(d) Light. (d) 1/cosR.
REVIEW QUESTIONS
(1) Discuss the inverse square law and the cosine (3) Explain the measurement techniques for
cube law of illumination. luminous intensity.
(2) Define the following terms: (4) Write short note the following:
(i) Mean horizontal candle power. (i) Bunsen photometer head.
(ii) Mean spherical candle power. (ii) Lumen–Brodhun photometer head.
(iii) Mean hemispherical candle power. (iii) Flicker photometer head.
(iv) Luminous flux. (5) Write short note on polar curves.
FUNDAMENTALS OF ILLUMINATION 267
(6) What is meant by photometry? (ii) Luminous intensity.

(7) Explain in detail about the photo voltaic and the (iii) Illumination.
photo conductive cells.
(9) What do you understand by polar curves? Explain
(8) Define the following terms: Rousseau’s construction for calculating MSCP of
(i) Luminous flux. a lamp.
EXERCISE PROBLEMS
(1) A room of 15 s 20 m is illustrated by ten 150-W (ii) At the middle of the 10-m wall.
lamps. The luminous efficiency of the lamp is 100 (5) Two sources of having luminous intensity of 600
lumens/W and the coefficient of utilization is 0.7. candela are hung at a height of 12 m.
Find the average illumination. The distance between two lamp posts is 25 m.
(2) The flux emitted by 150-W lamp is 1,600 lumens Find the illumination (i) beneath the lamp and
placed in a frosted globe of 50-cm diameter and (ii) in the middle of the posts.
gives uniform brightness of 350 milli-lumen/m2 (6) Four lamps 25 m apart are arranged to
in all directions. Calculate the candel power of illuminate a corridor. Each lamp is suspended
the globe and the percentage of light absorbed at a height of 10 m above the floor level. If each
by the globe. lamp gives 500 CP in all directions below the
(3) A lamp having a candle power of 500 in all horizontal, find the illumination at second and
directions is provided with a reflector that directs third lamps.
80% of total light uniformly on a circular area (7) A hall of 12 s 12 s 6 m is to be illuminated by
50-m diameter. The lamp is hung at 25 m above four lamps each 100 W. Find the illumination at
the area. a point midway between the two corners on the
(i) Calculate the illumination. floor along the side. Assume the efficiency of the
lamp as 25 lumens/W.
(ii) Calculate the illumination at the center.
(8) Two similar lamps having luminous intensity
(iii) Calculate the illumination at the edge of the
of 600 CP in all directions below horizontal
surface without reflector.
are mounted at a height of 10 m. What must
(4) The luminous intensity of a source is 900 candela be the spacing between the lamps so that the
is placed in the middle of a 12 s 8 s 4 m room. illumination on the ground midway between the
Calculate the illumination, lamps shall be at least one-half of the illumination
(i) At each corner of the room. directly below the lamp?
ANSWERS
1. c 7. d 13. b 19. b
2. a 8. a 14. c 20. d
3. b 9. b 15. d 21. b
4. a 10. d 16. b 22. b
5. b 11. b 17. b 23. a
6. c 12. d 18. a 24. c
ELECTRIC DRIVES 419
(ii) Individual drives. 9. Define heating time constant.

(iii) Multi-motor drives. The heating time constant is the time taken by
3. Define group drive. the machine to attain 63.2% of its final steady
temperature rise (Rf).
Electric drive used to drive one or more than
two machines from line shaft through belts and 10. Define cooling time constant.
pulleys, is known as group drive. The cooling time constant is defined as the time
4. What are the advantages of group drive? required cooling the machine down to 36.8%
• If it is operated at the rated load, the efficiency of the initial temperature raise above ambient
and the power factor of the large group drive temperature.
motor will be high. 11. What is meant by duty cycle?
• The maintenance cost of a single large capacity In case the load and torque verses time variation
motor is less than a number of small capacity is periodic and repetitive, such one cycle of the
motors. variation of the load with the time is known as
• It is used for the processes where the stoppage load or duty cycle.
of one operation necessitates the stoppages 12. Give a couple of examples for impact loads.
of the sequence of the operations as in case of
the textile mills. Rolling mills and shearing machines.
• It has overload capacity. 13. What is a flywheel?
5. Define individual drive. A flywheel is nothing but a big wheel that is
mounted on the same shaft of motor; if the
In individual drive, a single electric motor is
speed of the motor is not to be reversed or a
used to drive one individual machine is know as
heavy rotating body that acts as a reservoir for
individual drive.
absorbing and redistributing stored energy is also
6. What are the speed control methods of DC motors? known as flywheel.
(i) Field control or flux control method. 14. What is meant by load equalization?
(ii) Armature control method.
The sudden and peak load require very large
(iii) Applied voltage control. current from the supply results high voltage
7. What is the advantages of Ward−Leonard speed drop in the system or alternately would require
control system? very large size of cables. It is very essential to
(i) Accurate speed control. smooth out fluctuating load is known as ‘load
equalization’.
(ii) Bi-directional speed control is possible.
15. What are the various methods that are used to
8. Give the expression for temperature raise of an
determine the rating and size of electric motor?
electric motor.
¨ t
·
The various methods that are used for
R Rf ©©1 e Tn ¸¸ , determining the rating of the motor for the
©ª ¸¹ continuous duty and the variable load are:
MS (i) Equivalent current method.
where ‘Tn’ is known as the heating time
AM
(ii) Equivalent torque method.
constant of the motor.
(iii) Equivalent power method.
1. The main drawback of electric drive is that: (c) The electrical power supply failure makes the
(a) It is cumbersome drive. drive standstill.
(b) The initial as well as the maintenance costs (d) All of the above.
are costlier.
2. An existing workshop is to be changed over from 8. DC motors are not so widely used as AC ones
an engine drive to an electric drive. The type of because:
drive to be adopted is: (a) DC motors are usually more expensive than
(a) Individual drive. AC motors for similar operating conditions.
(b) Group drive. (b) Additional equipment is required for converting
(c) Multi-motor drive. the existing AC supply into a DC supply.
(d) Any of the above (c) DC motors have commutators that subject to
3. Group drive has become obsolete nowadays trouble resulting from sparking, brush wear,
because of: arc over, and the presence of moisture and
destructive fumes in the surrounding air.
(a) High noise level, untidy look, the loss of the
flexibility of layout, the cumbersome speed (d) All of the above.
control of individual machine, less safe 9. The least significant electrical characteristic in the
operation, low operation efficiency. selection of the electric motor for a flour mill is:
(b) The stoppage of all operations on the break- (a) Starting characteristics.
down of large single motor.
(b) Braking.
(c) The high initial cost of the motor and the
(c) Running characteristics.
control gear.
(d) Both (a) and (b). (d) Efficiency.
4. Which of the following alternatives will be cheaper 10. The least significant feature while selecting a
in initial cost? motor for centrifugal pump is:
(a) One motor of 100 kW. (a) Speed control.
(b) Four motors of 25 kW each. (b) Power rating of motor.
(c) Five motors of 20 kW each. (c) Operating speed.
(d) 10 motors of 10 kW each. (d) Starting characteristics.
5. The type of drive used for a paper mill requiring 11. The load, for which the motor always starts on the
a constant speed operation and the flexibility of load is:
control is:
(a) Fan motor.
(a) Group drive.
(b) Conveyor motor.
(b) Multi-motor drive.
(c) Flour mill motor.
(c) Individual or multi-motor drive.
(d) Individual drive.
12. The load cycle for a motor driving a power press
6. In individual drive:
will be:
(a) Each operator has complete control of each
(a) Continuous.
machine.
(b) No-load losses are eliminated. (b) Variable.
(c) The initial cost is less than that of the group (c) Intermittent and variable.
drive. (d) Continuous but periodical.
(d) Both (a) and (b). 13. The application(s) that need(s) frequent starting
7. The selection of an electric motor is governed by: and stopping is/are:
(a) The nature of load to be handled. (a) Paper mills.
(b) Environmental conditions. (b) Lifts and hoists.
(c) The nature of electric supply available. (c) Blowers and fans.
(d) All of the above. (d) Grinding mills.
ELECTRIC DRIVES 421
14. The machine having heavy fluctuation of load is: 21. The starting torque of a DC motor is independent of:
(a) Lathe. (a) Armature current.
(b) Planer. (b) Flux.
(c) Punching machine. (c) Speed.
(d) Printing machine. (d) All of the above.
15. Variable speed operation is preferred in: 22. The diameter of the rotor shaft for an electric
(a) Water pump. motor depends upon:
(b) Ceiling fan. (a) Speed only.
(c) Exhaust fan. (b) Power output only.
(d) Refrigerator. (c) Speed and power output.

(d) Speed, power output, and power factor.
16. The application in which the motor is to start with
high acceleration is: 23. In series motor, the method used for controlling
the flux per pole is/are:
(a) Lifts and hoists.
(a) Diverter field control.
(b) Centrifugal pump.
(b) Series-parallel control.
(c) Oil expeller.
(c) Tapped field control.
(d) Flour mill.
17. While selecting a motor for an air-conditioner, the
feature of utmost importance is: 24. The DC series motors are very suitable for the
heavy duty applications such as electric railways
(a) The type of enclosure.
and rolling mills because of:
(b) The type of bearing.
(a) Low initial as well as maintenance cost.
(c) Noise.
(b) High starting torque.
(d) Power transmission arrangement.
(c) Possibility of speed control.
18. Belt conveyors offer:
(d) Nearly constant speed.
(a) High starting torque.
25. The motor having wider range of speed control is:
(b) Medium starting torque.
(a) DC shunt motor.
(c) Low starting torque.
(b) Squirrel cage induction motor.
(d) Zero starting torque.
(c) Synchronous motor.
19. The characteristics(s) of the drive for crane
(d) Double squirrel cage induction motor.
hoisting and lowering is/are:
26. DC shunt motor has:
(a) Fast speed control.
(a) High starting torque and it is suitable for
(b) Smooth movement.
heavy duty applications.
(c) Precise control.
(b) Almost constant speed.
(c) Torque varying nearly as the square of the
20. In case of centrifugal pumps, the starting torque current.
is usually:
(d) Dangerously high speed at no load.
(a) Less than running torque.
27. For smooth and precise speed control over a wide
(b) Same as running torque. range, preferable motor is:
(c) Slightly higher than running torque. (a) DC motor.
(d) Double of running torque. (b) Squirrel cage induction motor.
(c) Synchronous motor. 34. Which of the following motors has the least range
(d) Single-phase induction motor. of speed control?
28. For quick speed reversal, the motor preferred is: (a) DC shunt motor.
(b) Wound rotor induction motor.
(a) DC motor.
(c) Schrage motor.
(b) Squirrel cage induction motor.
(d) Synchronous motor.
(c) Slip-ring induction motor.
35. The speed can be controlled by injecting emf in
the rotor circuit in case of:
29. Ward−Leonard controlled DC drives are usually
(a) Squirrel-cage induction motor.
used for:
(b) Wound rotor induction motor.
(a) Light duty excavators.
(c) Synchronous motor.
(b) Medium duty excavators.
(d) Schrage motor.
(c) Heavy duty excavators.
36. The squirrel cage induction motor cannot be
(d) All of the above. started by using:
30. A slip-ring induction motor is preferred over (a) Resistance in rotor circuit.
squirrel cage induction motor for the following
main characteristics: (b) Resistance in stator circuit.
(c) Autotransformer starting.
(a) Low starting current.
(d) Star-delta starter.
(b) High starting torque.
37. In start-delta starting:
(c) Speed control over limited range.
(a) Applied voltage across motor terminals is
reduced.
31. A slip-ring induction motor is preferred over the
(b) Starting current is reduced.
squirrel cage induction motor for the following
main consideration(s): (c) Operation speed is reduced.
(a) Low windage losses. (d) Both (a) and (b).
(b) High starting torque. 38. The least expensive drive is:
(c) Slow speed operation. (a) Belt drive.
(d) Both (a) and (c) (b) Rope drive.

(c) Chain drive.
32. The squirrel cage induction motors with high
slip and the slip-ring induction motors develop (d) Gear drive.
maximum torque at standstill are used for: 39. 15-min rated motors are suitable for:
(a) Elevators. (a) Light-duty cranes.
(b) Machine tools. (b) Medium-duty cranes.
(c) Presses and punches. (c) Heavy-duty cranes.
(d) All of the above. (d) All of the above.
33. Which of the following motors has series 40. In plugging of DC motors:
characteristics?
(a) Connection to armature are reversed.
(a) Capacitor start induction motor. (b) Connection to field are reversed.
(b) Repulsion motor. (c) Connection to both armature and field are
(c) Shaded-pole motor. reversed.
(d) Reluctance motor. (d) Connections to supply are reversed.
ELECTRIC DRIVES 423
41. During the rheostatic braking of a DC motor: 47. Load equalization is desirable in the case of:
(a) Armature is reverse connected. (a) Very large refrigeration and air-conditioning
(b) The direction of the field current is reversed. plants.
(c) The field is disconnected from the supply. (b) Rolling mills, electric hammers, presses, and
reciprocating pumps.
(d) It is operated as a DC generator.
(c) Lathes, wood-working machines, paper-
42. The rheostatic braking may be applied to an making machines, shapers, and slotters.
induction motor provided:
(d) Traveling cranes and lifts.
(a) It is a squirrel cage type.
48. The motor preferred for the traction work is:
(b) It Is a wound type.
(a) DC shunt motor.
(c) Separate DC source for field excitation is
(b) DC series motor.
available.
(c) Plan-squirrel cage induction motor.
(d) Variable external resistance is available.
43. During the regenerative braking:
49. The motors best suited for the rolling mills are:
(a) The motors are disconnected from
the supply. (a) DC shunt motors.
(b) The motors are reverse connected to the (b) Plain-squirrel cage induction motors.
supply. (c) Synchronous motors.
(c) The motors are operated as generators. (d) Any of the above.
(d) The motors are made to come to standstill. 50. Motor preferred for kiln drive is usually:
44. The regenerative braking: (a) Wound rotor induction motor.
(a) Can be easily applied to the DC shunt motors. (b) Cascaded controlled AC motor.
(b) Can be easily applied to the DC series motors. (c) Ward−Leonard controlled DC shunt motor.
(c) Can be used for stopping the motor. (d) Any of the above.
(d) Cannot be used when the load on motor has 51. Centrifugal pumps are usually driven by:
overhauling characteristics. (a) DC series motors.
45. Net energy saved during the regenerative braking (b) DC shunt motors.
of an electric train:
(c) Plain squirrel cage induction motors.
(a) Is independent of the train weight.
(b) Decreases with the reduction in the train sped
52. The motor used in mines is:
due to braking.
(a) Flame proof squirrel cage induction or wound
(c) Increase with the increase in the specific
rotor motor.
resistance.
(b) DC series motor.
(d) Increases with the increase in the down
gradient. (c) DC shunt motor.
46. The motors used along with the flywheels for (d) Any of the above.
fluctuating loads are: 53. The motor used in punches, presses, and shears is:
(a) DC shunt motors. (a) DC series or shunt motors.
(b) DC cumulative compound motors and three- (b) DC cumulative compound motor.
phase induction motors. (c) High slip squirrel cage or wound rotor
(c) Synchronous motors. induction motor.
(d) All of the above. (d) Both (b) and (c).
ELECTRIC DRIVES 425
ANSWERS
1. c 15. b 29. c 43. c

2. b 16. a 30. d 44. a
3. d 17. c 31. b 45. d
4. a 18. a 32. c 46. b
5. c 19. d 33. b 47. b
6. d 20 a 34. d 48. b
7. d 21. c 35. d 49. a
8. d 22. c 36. a 50. d
9. b 23. d 37. d 51. c
10. a 24. b 38. a 52. a
11. d 25. a 39. a 53. d
12. c 26. b 40. a
13. b 27. a 41. d
14. c 28. a 42. c
ELECTRIC TRACTION-I 473
(iii) Three-phase AC system. Electric braking suffers from the following

drawback. During the braking period, the traction
(iv) Composite system.
motor acts as generator and the electric brakes
(8) What are the causes lead to composite system? can almost stop the motor but it cannot hold
1-G AC system is preferable in view of distribution stationary. Hence, it is necessary to employ
cost and in DC system. DC series motors have mechanical braking in addition to electric
most desirable features and for 3-G system, 3-G braking.
induction motor has the advantage of automatic (13) What are the types of electric braking?
regenerative braking. So, it is necessary to
Electric braking can be applied to the traction
combine the advantages of the DC/AC and
vehicle by any one of the following methods:
3-G/1-G systems. The above cause leads to the
evolution of composite system. (i) Plugging.
(9) What is the need of electric braking? (ii) Rehostatic braking.
The necessity of electric braking is, if at any time, (iii) Regenerative braking.
it is required to stop an electric motor, then electric (14) What is meant by plugging?
supply must be disconnected from its terminals to
An electric motor is reconnected to the supply
bring the motor to rest, to avoid accidents.
in such a way that it has to develop a torque in
(10) What are the essential features of good braking opposite direction to the movement of rotor is
system? known as plugging.
A good braking system must have the following (15) What is meant by rheostat or dynamic braking?
features: An electric motor is disconnected from
(i) Braking should be fast and reliable. the supply during the braking period and
is reconnected across the same electrical
(ii) Equipment to stop the motor should be in
resistance. But the field winding is continuously
such a way that the kinetic energy of rotating
excited from the supply in the same direction
parts of motor should be dissipated as soon
to bring the motor to rest, which is known as
as the brakes are applied.
rheostat braking.
(11) What are the advantages of electric braking over
(16) What is meant by regenerative braking?
mechanical braking?
The method of braking in which the back emf
The advantages of electric braking over mechanical
developed by the motor is adjusted more than
braking are:
the supply voltage is known as regenerative
(i) Electric braking is smooth, fast, and reliable. braking.
(ii) Heat produced in the electric braking is less and (17) What is the advantage of regenerative braking?
not harmful but heat produced in the mechanical In this method of braking, no energy is drawn
braking will cause the failure of brakes. from the supply and some of the energy is fed
(12) What are the disadvantages of electric braking? back to the supply system.
(1) Main traction systems used in India are those using: Of these, the correct statement(s) is/are:
(i) Steam engine locomotives. (a) (i) and (ii).
(ii) Diesel engine locomotives. (b) (i) and (iii).
(iii) Diesel electric locomotives. (c) All.
(iv) Electric locomotives. (d) (iv).
(2) An ideal traction system should have: (c) 2,000–3,000.

(a) High-starting tractive effort and self-contained (d) 3,000–4,000.
and compact locomotive of train unit. (9) The speed of a steam locomotive is controlled by:
(b) Equipment and capable of withstanding large (a) Applying brakes.
temporary overloads of high efficiency and
low-initial as well as maintenance cost. (b) Gear box.
(c) Easy speed control. (c) Regulating steam flow to engine.
(d) All of the above. (d) Flywheel.
(3) The steam engine provided on steam locomotive is: (10) The pulsating torque exerted by steam
locomotives causes:
(a) Double acting condensing type.
(a) Jolting and skidding.
(b) Double acting non-condensing type.
(b) Hammer blow.
(c) Single acting condensing type.
(c) Pitching.
(d) Single acting non-condensing type.
(4) In case of steam locomotives, the tractive effort is
(11) Direct steam engine drive:
provided by:
(a) Causes no interference to the communication
(a) Double cylinder, double acting steam engine.
lines running along the track.
(b) Double cylinder, single acting steam engine.
(b) Needs low-initial investment in comparison to
(c) Single cylinder, double acting stem engine. that for electric drive.
(d) Single cylinder, single acting steam engine. (c) Is cheap for low-density traffic areas in the
(5) In a steam locomotive, the electric power is initial stages of communication by rail.
provided through a/an: (d) All of the above.
(a) Small turbo-generator. (12) Steam locomotives:
(b) Overhead wire. (a) Cannot be put into service at any moment.
(c) Diesel engine generator. (b) Cause considerable wear on the track.
(d) Battery system. (c) Need more repair and maintenance.
(6) In case of a steam locomotive, an average coal (d) All of the above.
consumption per km of run is around: (13) Steam engine drive is not suitable for urban and
(a) 5–10 kg. suburban services as:
(b) 25–30 kg. (a) It is not clean drive.
(c) 60–80 kg. (b) The coefficient of the adhesion of the steam
locomotives is quite low.
(d) 100–150 kg.
(c) The steam locomotive causes considerable
(7) The pressure of steam used in steam locomotives
wear on the track.
is about:
(d) Steam locomotive has limited speed.
(a) 1–5 kgf/cm2.
(14) Diesel electric traction has comparatively limited
(b) 5–10 kgf/cm2.
overload capacity because:
(c) 10–15 kgf/cm2.
(a) Diesel engine is a constant output prime mover.
(d) 20–30 kgf/cm2.
(b) Diesel engine has shorter life span.
(8) The maximum horse power of steam locomotive is: (c) Regenerative braking cannot be employed.
(a) Up to 1,500. (d) Diesel-electric locomotive is heavier than an
(b) 1,500–2,000. ordinary electric locomotive.
(15) The range of the horse power of diesel locomotives (22) The first city to adopt electric traction in India
is: was:
(a) 100–500. (a) Kolkata.
(b) 1,500–2,500. (b) Mumbai.
(c) 3,000–4,500. (c) New Delhi.
(d) 4,500–5,000. (d) Chennai.
(16) The efficiency of the diesel locomotives is about:
(23) The latest traction system used in the
(a) 75%. world is:
(b) 50%. (a) 3 phase, 3.7 kV.
(c) 25%. (b) Single phase, 25 kV.
(d) 10%. (c) DC 3 kV.
(17) In India, diesel locomotives are manufactured at:
(d) DC 600 V.
(a) Varanasi.
(24) The voltage used for suburban railways in DC
(b) Kolkata. system is usually:
(c) Bangaluru. (a) 220 V.
(d) Ajmer.
(b) 600–750 V.
(18) Electric traction in comparison to other traction
(c) 1,500–3,000 V.
systems has the advantage(s) of:
(a) Higher acceleration and braking retardation. (d) 15 kV.
(b) Cleanest system and so ideally suitable for (25) The voltage used for the main railways is:
the underground and tube railways. (a) 600–750 V.
(c) Better speed control. (b) 750–1,500 V.
(d) All of the above. (c) 1,500–3,000 V.
(19) Electric railway can handle the traffic up to double (d) 15 kV.
the amount possible with steam railway. It is
because of: (26) Long-distance railways operate on:
(a) Better speed control. (a) 600 V DC.
(b) Larger passenger carrying capacity. (b) 25 kV single-phase AC.
(c) Higher schedule speed. (c) 25 kV three-phase AC.
(d) Both (b) and (c). (d) 15 kV three-phase AC.
(20) The most vital factor against electric traction is: (27) The power supply frequency for 25-kV and single-
(a) Its high maintenance cost. phase AC system in India is:
(b) The possibility of power failure. (a) 50 Hz.
(c) High initial cost in laying out overheat electric (b) 60 Hz.
supply system.
(c) 25 Hz.
(d) The necessity of providing negative booster.
(d) 16 2/3 Hz.
(21) In India, the electric locomotives are manufactured
at: (28) The traction motor used in tramways is:
(a) Chittranjan. (a) Three-phase induction motor.

(b) Varanasi. (b) Single-phase AC series motor.
(c) Bangaluru. (c) DC series motor.
(d) Jabalpur. (d) DC shunt motor.
(29) The traction motor used in composite system (a) Pole changing.
employed in India is: (b) Rheostatic control.
(a) An AC single-phase motor. (c) Cascade control.
(b) A DC series motor. (d) The combination of cascade and pole changing.
(c) A DC shunt motor. (36) Which of the following braking systems of the
(d) A three-phase induction motor. locomotives is costly?
(30) Series motor has the main drawback of, when (a) Vacuum braking on steam locomotives.
used in electric traction: (b) Vacuum braking on diesel locomotives.
(a) Current surges after temporary interruption of (c) Regenerative braking on electric locomotives.
supply.
(d) All braking systems are equally costly.
(b) Self-relieving property.
(37) The braking system employed with steam
(c) Low current drain on the heavy load torque. locomotives is:
(d) Poor commutation at heavy loads. (a) Vacuum system.
(31) The speed of DC series motors can be controlled (b) Pneumatic system.
by:
(c) Hydraulic system.
(a) Rheostatic control.
(b) Series–parallel control.
(38) The wheels of a train, engine, as well as bogles
(c) Field control. are slightly tapered so as to:
(d) Either of (a), (b), or (c). (a) Reduce friction.
(32) When two or more motors are used for traction (b) Increase friction.
service, the method of speed control used
will be: (c) Facilitate in taking turns.
(a) Rheostatic control. (d) Facilitate braking.
(b) Series–parallel control. (39) In electric traction if contact voltage exceeds
1,500 V, the current collection is invariably by:
(c) Field control.
(a) A contact rail.
(d) Motor generator control.
(b) A conductor rail.
(33) In motor–generator locomotive control:
(c) Overhead wire.
(a) Rheostatic control is used.
(d) Third rail.
(b) Series parallel control is used.
(40) Conductor rail system of supply is:
(c) The output voltage of generator is regulated
by means of field control from exciter. (a) Cheap and easy to repair and inspection.
(d) Any one of the above method is used. (b) Suitable for heavy current collection at
voltages up to 1,200 V.
(34) The method of speed control adopted in 25-kv,
single-phase, and 50-Hz traction is: (c) Universally used for all AC railways.
(a) Tap changing control of transformer. (d) Both (a) and (b).
(b) Reduced current method. (41) Automatic signaling is used for:
(c) Series–parallel control. (a) Urban/suburban electric trains.
(d) Rheostatic control. (b) Mail/express trains.
(35) The least efficient method of the speed control of (c) Superfast trains.
the three-phase induction motors is: (d) All trains.
REVIEW QUESTIONS
(1) What are the various types of electric braking (9) Review the existing electric traction systems in
used? India.
(2) Explain how rheostat braking is done in DC shunt (10) Explain the requirements for ideal traction
motors and series motors. system.
(3) Describe how plugging, rheostat braking, and (11) Explain the different methods of the electric
regenerative braking are employed with DC series braking of the three-phase induction motor.
motor. (12) What are the various electric traction systems in
(4) What are the requirements of good electric India? Compare them.
braking? (13) Give the features of the various motors used in
(5) What are the various types of traction motors? electric traction.
(6) What are the advantages of series–parallel (14) What are the advantages of electric braking over
control of DC motors? mechanical braking?
(7) Why DC series motor is ideally suited for traction (15) Explain the methods of plugging when induction
services? motors are employed for electric traction.
(8) Briefly explain the AC motors used in traction. (16) Briefly explain the AC motors used in traction.
ANSWERS
1. c 12. d 23. a 34. a

2. d 13. d 24. b 35. b
3. b 14. b 25. c 36. c
4. a 15. a 26. b 37. a
5. a 16. b 27. a 38. c
6. b 17. c 28. c 39. c
7. c 18. a 29. b 40. d
8. a 19. d 30. a 41. a
9. c 20. c 31. d
10. a 21. a 32. b
11. d 22. b 33. c
(9) What are the various factors affecting the (12) Define dead weight.
schedule speed?
It is the total weight of the train to be propelled by
The factors that affect the schedule speed of a the locomotive. It is denoted by ‘W’.
train are:
(13) Define accelerating weight.
(i) Crest speed.
It is the effective weight of the train, which has angular
(ii) The duration of stops. acceleration due to the rotational inertia including the
(iii) The distance between the stops. dead weight of the train. It is denoted by ‘We’.
(iv) Acceleration. (14) Define adhesive weight.
(v) Braking retardation. The total weight to be carried out on the drive in the
wheels of a locomotive is known as adhesive weight.
(10) Define tractive effort.
(15) Define coefficient of adhesion.
It is the effective force acting on the wheel of the
locomotive, which is necessary to propel the train It is defined as the ratio of tractive effort required
is known as ‘tractive effort’. to propel the wheel of a locomotive to its adhesive
weight.
(11) Define specific energy consumption.
(16) What is the relation between tractive effort and
This quantity of energy consumed by various adhesive weight?
parts of the train per ton per kilometer is known
as specific energy consumption. It is expressed in Ft t W
watt hrs per ton per km.
Ft μW.
(1) The acceleration rate for the urban or suburban (4) The maximum speed at which the trains run on
services is: the main line railway service is:
(a) 1.5–4 kmphps. (a) 160 kmph.
(b) 3–4 kmphps. (b) 120 kmph.
(c) 5–10 kmphps. (c) 100 kmph.
(d) 0.5–1.5 kmphps. (d) 200 kmph.
(2) The braking retardation for the urban or suburban (5) The speed–time curve for the urban service has no:
services is:
(a) Coasting period.
(a) 1.5–2.5 kmphps.
(b) Free-running period.
(b) 3–4 kmphps.
(c) Braking period.
(c) 5–10 kmphps.
(d) 0.5–1.5 kmphps. (d) Acceleration period.
(3) The coasting retardation for the line railway (6) Free-running and coasting periods are generally
services is about long in case of:
(a) 10 kmphps. (a) City service.
(b) 3 kmphps. (b) Suburban service.
(c) 0.16 kmphps. (c) Main line service.
(d) 0.01 kmphps. (d) Outer suburban service.
ELECTRIC TRACTION-II 527
(7) Trapezoidal speed–time curve pertains to: (c) Increase in crest speed.
(a) Main line service. (d) Decrease in crest speed.
(b) Urban service. (14) Skidding of a vehicle always occurs when:
(c) Suburban service. (a) Braking effort exceeds its adhesive weight.
(d) Urban/suburban service. (b) Brake is applied suddenly.
(8) Quadrilateral speed–time curve is the close (c) It negotiates a curve.
approximation for: (d) It passes over points and crossings.
(a) Urban service. (15) The adhesive weight is the:
(b) Suburban service. (a) Total weight of the locomotive and the train.
(c) Urban/suburban service. (b) Weight coming over the driving wheels.
(d) Main line service. (c) Same as the accelerating weight.
(9) Area under the speed–time curve represents: (d) None of the above.
(a) Total distance travelled. (16) The coefficient of the adhesion is the ratio of
tractive effort to slip the wheels and:
(b) Average speed.
(a) Dead weight.
(c) Average acceleration.
(b) Accelerating weight.
(c) Adhesive weight.
(10) The speed of a train estimated taking into
account the stoppage time at a station in
addition to the actual running time between (17) The normal value of the coefficient of adhesion is:
stops is called the: (a) 0.25.
(a) Average speed. (b) 0.35.
(b) Schedule speed. (c) 0.50.
(c) Free-running speed. (d) 0.65.
(d) Notching speed. (18) The coefficient of the adhesion reduces due to
the presence of:
(11) The average speed of a train is independent of:
(a) Dew on rails.
(a) The duration of the stops.
(b) Oil and grease on rails.
(b) The acceleration and braking retardation.
(c) Dry sand on rails.
(c) The distance between stops.
(d) Both (a) and (b).
(d) The running time. (19) The coefficient of the adhesion improves due to
(12) The schedule speed of a given train when running the presence of:
on a given service (with given distance between (a) Dry sand on rails.
stations) is affected by:
(b) Rust on rails.
(a) Acceleration and braking retardation.
(c) Dust on rails.
(b) Maximum or crest speed.
(c) Duration stop. (20) The value of the coefficient of the adhesion will be
(d) All of the above. high when rails are:
(13) For a given value of an average speed, decrease (a) Wet.
in duration of stops causes: (b) Cleaned with sand.
(a) Decrease in schedule speed. (c) Greased.
(b) Increase in schedule speed. (d) Sprayed with oil.
(21) The coefficient of the adhesion for wet or greasy (c) Increasing the dead weight over the driving
rails is: axles.
(a) 0.35. (d) Both (a) and (c).
(b) 0.25. (28) In a train, the energy output of the driving axles is
(c) 0.08. used in:
(d) Zero. (a) Accelerating the train mass.
(22) Tractive effort is required to: (b) Overcoming the train resistance.
(a) Accelerate the train mass. (c) Overcoming the gradient.
(b) Overcome the train resistance (friction (d) All of the above.
windage and curve resistance).
(29) Energy consumption in propelling the train is
(c) Overcome the effect of gravity. required for:
(d) All of the above. (a) Accelerating the train mass.
(23) The resistance encountered by a train in motion is (b) Overcoming the gradient while moving up the
on account of: gradient.
(a) The resistance offered. (c) Overcoming the train resistance.
(b) The friction at the track. (d) All of the above.
(c) The friction at various parts of the rolling stock. (30) Longer coasting period for a train results in:
(a) Higher schedule speed.
(24) The air resistance to the movement is
(b) Lower specific energy consumption.
proportional to:
(c) Higher retardation.
(a) 1/speed.
(d) Higher acceleration.
(b) (speed).
(c) (speed)2. (31) Specific energy consumption is affected by:
(d) (speed)3. (a) Acceleration and retardation values.

(25) The friction at the track is proportional to: (b) The crest speed and nature of route.
(a) Speed. (c) Distance between stops.
(b) (speed)2. (d) All of the above.
(c) (speed) .3 (32) Specific energy consumption becomes:
(d) (1/speed) . 2 (a) More when the distance between the stops
(26) If the resistance to electric train movement is is more.
given by Fr a bv cv2. (b) More with the higher values of acceleration
In the above expression b is likely to cover: (or retardation).
(a) Air resistance. (c) More with high train resistance.
(b) Track resistance. (d) Less with the increase in crest speed.
(c) Frictional resistance. (33) Specific energy consumption is highest in:
(d) None of the above. (a) Urban service.
(27) Tractive effort of an electric locomotive can be (b) Suburban service.
increased by: (c) Main line service.
(a) Using high output motors. (d) Equal for all types of services.
(b) Increasing the supply voltage.
ANSWERS
1. a 10. b 19. d 28. d

2. b 11. a 20. b 29. d
3. c 12. d 21. c 30. b
4. a 13. b 22. d 31. d
5. b 14. a 23. d 32. c
6. c 15. b 24. c 33. a
7. a 16. c 25. a
8. c 17. a 26. b
9. a 18. d 27. d
SHORT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
(1) What is meant by electrolysis? (5) State Faraday’s first law of electrolytic process.
Electrolysis is nothing but the process by which This law states that ‘the mass of substance
electrical energy produces chemical changes. deposited from an electrolyte is proportional to
(2) What are the uses of electrolysis? the quantity of electricity passing through the
electrolyte in a given time’.
This process can be normally used for the
extraction of pure metal from their ores, the (6) State Faraday’s second law of electrolysis.
refining of metals, the building up of worn parts in This law states that ‘when the same quantity
metallurgical, chemical, and in other industries. of electric current is passed through different
(3) Give the principle of electrolysis. electrolytes, the masses of the substances
deposited are proportional to their respective
The basic principle of electrolysis is, whenever chemical equivalents or equivalent weights’.
DC electric current is made to pass through the
solution of salt, some metals can be separated (7) List out various applications of electrolytic process.
from them. These separated metals can be The manufacturers of chemicals.
coated on any object to form a pure thin layer. The production of caustic soda.
(4) What are the laws of electrolysis? Electrometallurgy.
Faraday’s first law. Electro refining.
Faraday’s second law Electro deposition.
(8) Define current efficiency.
the actual quantity of substance liberated or deposited
Current efficiency
the theoritical quantity of substance liberated or deposited
(9) Define energy efficiency.
the theoritical energy (voltage) required
Energy efficiency
the actual energy (voltage) required
(10) What is meant by electroextraction? (12) What is the use of electroplating?
Electroextraction is the process by which metals Electroplating is usually employed to protect
can be extracted or separated from their ores. the metals from corrosion by atmospheric air,
(11) What is meant by electrodeposition? moisture, and CO2.
Electrodeposition is the process by which one (13) What is meant by anodizing?

metal is deposited over other metal or non-metal The process of the deposition of oxide film on a
by electrolysis. metal surface is known as anodizing.
(1) The deposition due to the flow of current through (2) The voltage required to pass the necessary current
an electrolyte is directly proportional to the: through an electrolytic cell is of the order of:
(a) The magnitude of steady current flow. (a) 1–2 V.
(b) The duration of current flow. (b) 10–20 V.
(c) The equivalent weight of the substance. (c) 100–200 V.
(d) All of the above. (d) 150–200 V.
ELECTROLYSIS 549
(3) The energy consumption for the production of (9) The process of the coating of a metallic surface
ammonium sulfate is of the order of: with a harder metal by electrodeposition is called:
(a) 2,000–25,000 kW-hr/ton. (a) Electrofacing.
(b) 3,000–4,000 kW-hr/ton. (b) Electroforming.
(c) 4,000–7,000 kW-hr/ton. (c) Electrometallization.
(d) 70–80 kW-hr/ton. (d) Either (a) or (b).
(4) The materials used for copper plating are: (10) Basically electroplating means:
(a) Copper sulfate and sulfuric acid. (a) The formation of ions by two metallic plates in
(b) Copper sulfate and nitric acid. the acidic liquid.
(c) Copper carbonate and ammonium carbonate. (b) The electrodeposition of metal on electrodes.
(d) Copper nitrate and sulfuric acid. (c) The electrodeposition of metal upon metallic
surfaces.
(5) The materials used for chromium plating are:
(a) Chromium carbonate and sulfuric acid.
(b) Chromic acid and sulfuric acid. (11) Electroplating is done for:
(c) Chromium chloride and hydrochloride acid. (a) The replacement of wornout material.
(d) None of the above. (b) The protection of metals against corrosion.
(6) The gold plating is carried out: (c) Giving a shining appearance to articles.
(a) With a current density of 150–250 A/m2 at a (d) All of the above.
voltage of 1–2 V. (12) The preparation of an object for electroplating
(b) With a current density of 50–150 A/m2 at a involves the:
voltage of 5–15 V. (a) Removal of oil, grease, or other organic
(c) With a current density of 100–150 A/m2 at a material.
voltage of 1–4 V. (b) Removal of rust, scale, oxides, or other
(d) With a current density of 50–150 A/m2 at a inorganic coatings adhering to the metal.
voltage of 1 V. (c) Mechanical preparation of the metal surface
(7) The power supply required for the electrolytic by polishing, buffing, etc.
processes is: (d) Any or all of the above operations.
(a) Alternating current (100–200 A) at very low (13) The six-phase rectifier circuit meant for
voltage (10 or 12 V). electroplating needs:
(b) Direct current (100–200 A) at very high voltage. (a) Special AC generator.
(c) Current (100–200 A) at very low voltage (b) Normal three-phase mains.
(10 or 12 V).
(c) The system as (a) and (b) is just a theoretical
(d) Alternating current at very high voltage.
possibility.
(8) The plants for the extraction and the direct
(d) None.
refining of metals of large-scale manufacturing
are located near the: (14) In the process of electroplating, the circuitry
involved is:
(a) Atomic power station.
(a) Polarized.
(b) Hydro-electric power station.
(c) Steam power station. (b) Non-polarized.
(d) Either atomic power station or hydro-electric (c) Depends upon nature of plating.
power station. (d) None out of above.
(15) The existence of a counter electrode is observed (21) Mopping is an other name of:
somewhere is the: (a) Grinding.
(a) Plating vats. (b) Polishing.
(b) Electrochemical cleaning baths. (c) Abrasion.
(c) DC supply sources. (d) None out of above:
(d) Nothing as above is connected with the (22) The filtration of electrolyte is necessary:
plating system.
(a) To remove the impurities going into the
(16) The capacitor bank installed in the rectifier electrolyte along with the main salt.
system of any electroplating plant is meant for:
(b) To remove the suspended salt particles and
(a) Smoothing the effects of loads variation. the other suspended impurities from the
(b) Minimizing the ripple content of the DC supply. electrolyte.
(c) To improve the power factor and the line (c) To make the agitation process more effective.
regulation of the mains feeding the rectifier (d) Only some of the plating salts need filtration.
system.
(23) The process as above is:
(d) All the above
(a) Continuous.
(17) The object undergoing surface plating works as:
(b) Intermittent.
(a) Cathode.
(c) Done only once before plating
(b) Anode. commencement.
(c) Depends upon the nature of supply source. (d) Varies from electrolyte to electrolyte.
(d) None. (24) The spongy coating of electroplating speaks of:
(18) The compound generator sets used for the (a) Under current density.
purpose are: (b) Over current density.
(a) Differentially excited. (c) Excessive electrolyte density.
(b) Cumulatively excited. (d) Poorer electrolyte density.
(c) Depends upon plating load. (25) A process known as hall bloating is done:
(d) None. (a) Prior to subjecting a surface to
(19) The preferred vat polarity is: electroplating.
(a) Positive. (b) After plating a surface.
(b) Negative. (c) Done in between primary and secondary
plating layers.
(c) Zero potential without any polarity.
(26) Ripple factor is being minimized:
(d) An arbitrary choice.
(a) By incorporating the filter circuits along with
(20) The current efficiency in some electrolytic process
the rectifier plant.
is the ratio of:
(b) By using the single-phase bridge rectifiers.
(a) The actual current density to the calculated
current density for a given mass of coating. (c) With the help of multiphase rectifier unit
without using additional filter network.
(b) The mass of metal actually liberated to the
calculated mass for a given current density. (d) Power capacitors are doing the needful.
(c) The actual current density to mass of metal (27) The metal being deposited is available in form of:
actually liberated. (a) Constituent of electrolyte.
(d) None out of above. (b) One of the electrodes.
ELECTROLYSIS 551
(c) Both as above. (c) 90% and 96%.

(d) None of the above. (d) 90% and 98%.
(28) The shunt fields in such arrangement are: (35) The process of depositing one metal over the
(a) Connected in parallel to each other. other metal is known as:
(b) Connected in antiparallel to each other. (a) Electrodeposition.
(c) Connected in series across the outers. (b) Electrometallization.
(d) Field of generator (1) excited by armature (2) (c) Electrofacing.
output and vice versa.
(d) Anodizing.
(29) Chrome plating is done as:
(36) The process of depositing metal on a conducting
(a) Primary layer. base for decoration purpose is known as:
(b) Secondary layer.
(a) Electrodeposition.
(c) Tertiary layer.
(b) Electrometallization.
(c) Electrofacing.
(30) Polarization on cathode surface can be checked
through: (d) Anodizing.
(a) Limiting current magnitude. (37) The process of coating a metal surface with a
harder metal by electrodeposition is known
(b) The agitation of electrolyte.
as:
(c) Periodical reverses plating.
(a) Electrodeposition.
(b) Electrometallization.
(31) The process by which electrical energy produces
chemical changes is known as: (c) Electrofacing.
(a) Electrolysis. (d) Anodizing.
(b) Electrofacing. (38) The process of providing an oxide film is known
(c) Anodizing. as:
(d) Electroplating. (a) Electrodeposition.
(32) Which bond is responsible for the formation of (b) Electrometallization.
inorganic compound? (c) Electrofacing.
(a) Ionic. (d) Anodizing.
(b) Covalent.
(39) Which is a process by which the purity of metal
(c) Electrovalent. extracted from their ores can be improved?
(d) Both a and b. (a) Electrodeposition.
(33) Which law states that the mass of substance (b) Refining.
liberated from an electrolyte is proportional to the
quantity of electricity passing through it? (c) Electroplating.
(a) Lenz law. (d) Anodizing.
(b) Faradays first law. (40) By electrorefining, it is possible to get metal of
(c) Faradays second law. ---------- purity.
(d) Faradays laws of electromagnetic induction. (a) 60%.
(34) Current density lies in between: (b) 80%.
(a) 70% and 85%. (c) 90%.
(b) 80% and 92%. (d) 100%.
REVIEW QUESTIONS
(1) What is meant by electrolysis? Explain the principle (4) What is meant by anodizing?
of electrolysis. (5) What do you mean by electrodeposition?
(2) State and explain Faraday’s laws of electrolysis. (6) What are the various factors effecting the quality of
(3) What are the various applications of electrolysis? electrodeposition?
EXERCISE PROBLEMS
(1) A plate of 2 cm2 during electrolysis if a current of one ampere is passed for 300 min. The density
of 0.5 ampere is passed for 60 min (the density of copper is 8,900 kg/m3 and the ECE of copper is
of copper is 8.9 gm/cc and the ECE of copper is 32.95 s 10−8 kg/coulomb.
0.0003295 gm/coulomb). Find the thickness of (5) In a copper-sulfate voltmeter, the copper cathodes
copper deposited on the plates. is increased in weight by 60 gm in 2 h, when the
(2) A copper refining plant using 400-electrolytic current maintained was constant. Calculate the
cells carries a current of 1,200 A and voltage value of this current.
per cell being 0.175 V. If the plant was to work The atomic weight of copper = 63.5.
10 h/week, calculate the energy consumption per
tons, assuming the ECE of copper as 0.3281 The atomic weight of hydrogen 1.
mg/coulomb of electricities. The atomic weight of silver 108.
(3) Determine the minimum voltage required for the The electrochemical equivalent of silver
electrolysis of water if one kg of hydrogen 0.001118 gm.
on oxidation to water liberation 13.3 s 107 J
(6) Calculate the ampere hours required to deposit
and the electroequivalent of hydrogen is
a coating of silver 0.048-mm thick on a sphere
1.0384 s 108 kg c–1.
of 8-cm radius. Assume the electrochemical
(4) Find the thickness of copper deposited on a plate equivalent of silver 0.001118 and the density of
area of 0.0056 m2 during electrolysis. If a current silver to be 12.
ANSWERS
1. d 11. d 21. b 31. a

2. a 12. d 22. b 32. c
3. a 13. b 23. a 33. b
4. a 14. a 24. b 34. d
5. b 15. c 25. a 35. a
6. b 16. c 26. c 36. b
7. c 17. a 27. c 37. c
8. d 18. b 28. d 38. d
9. a 19. a 29. c 39. b
10. c 20. b 30. d 40. d
REFRIGERATION AND AIR-CONDITIONING 563
(4) Give some of the applications of refrigeration. (iii) Air movement and circulation.
(i) The making of ice. (7) What are the cooling methods of air?
(ii) The Air-conditioning of industries. Normally, the air is cooled in summer by the
(iii) The metal manufacturing and their treatment. following methods:
(5) What is meant by air-conditioning? • By circulating the cold water.
The process by which the temperature, humidity, • By using the ice-activated systems.
purity, and circulation of air is controlled in an • By using the water-evaporative systems.
enclosed area is known as air-conditioning. (8) What are the heating methods of air?
(6) What are the factors that lead to the efficient • By using electric heaters.
air-conditioning?
• By using electromechanical heat pumps.
(i) Temperature control.
• By using heat exchangers using waste
(ii) Humidity control. systems.
(1) The process of reducing the temperature of an (c) Evaporation.

object from the normal surrounding temperature (d) Humidification.
in a controlled way in order to cool them is known
as: (5) The process of the reducing pressure of
refrigerant is done by liquid control valve is
(a) Condensation. known as:
(b) Refrigeration. (a) Expansion valve.
(c) Evaporation. (b) Open valve.
(d) Humidification. (c) Closed valve.
(2) The extraction of heat from the object to be (d) Control valve.
cooled can be achieved by -------------- the liquid
(6) The art of measuring the moisture content is
refrigerant.
known as:
(a) Cooling.
(a) Photometry.
(b) Condensating. (b) Psychometry.
(c) Evaporating. (c) Optometry.
(d) Humidification. (d) None.
(3) Which is the liquid that can be liquefied and (7) Water coolers are used to produce cold water at
vaporized to reduce the temperature of substance about:
to be cooled?
(a) 5–10%.
(a) Condensate.
(b) 6–12%.
(b) Refrigerant.
(c) 7–13%.
(c) Vapor.
(d) 8–14%.
(d) Moisture.
(8) The main characteristics of air refrigerant are that
(4) The process of the transformation of liquid throughout the cycle the refrigerant remains in
refrigeration in vapor is known as: -------------- state.
(a) Condensation. (a) Solid.
(b) Refrigeration. (b) Gaseous.
(c) Liquid. (c) Evaporation.

(d) Vapor. (d) Air-conditioning.
(9) The process by which the temperature, (10) The process of the addition of moisture or
humidity, purity, and circulation of air is humidity is known as:
controlled in an enclosed area is known (a) Condensation.
as: (b) Refrigeration.
(a) Condensation. (c) Evaporation.
(b) Refrigeration. (d) Humidification.
REVIEW QUESTIONS
(1) What is meant by refrigeration? Explain the (5) What is air-conditioning? Enumerate the factors that
working principle of the refrigerator. lead to efficient and complete air-conditioning.
(2) Explain in detailed the function of the refrigerator (6) Draw and explain the electric circuit of
and also draw its electric circuit. air-conditioner.
(3) What are the various faults commonly occur in a (7) Write short notes on the following:
refrigerator? And also mention their remedies. (i) Summer air-conditioner.
(4) Mention the various fields of applications of
(ii) Room air-conditioners.
refrigeration.
ANSWERS
1. b 4. d 7. c 10. d
2. c 5. a 8. b
3. b 6. b 9. d
58 UTILISATION OP ELECTRICAL POWER
24.. Filament lamp at startina' will take cummt

(o) 18111 than it.a full running C'Wftllt (b) equal to it.a full nmniDg c:wTeDt
(c) more than its full running c:ummt (d) none of theee.
25. A reflector ia provided t.o
(o) protect the lamp (b) pnmde better illumination
(c) avoid glare (d) do all a( the above.
26. The purpose of coat1ng the Ouorucent tube ft-om lnalde with whit. power ia
(a ) t.o improve its life (b) to improve the appearance
(c) to change the colour of' light emitted to whi te
(d) to increa&e the light T8diationa due to seamdary emiaaiona.
27. ...... will need lowest. level of illumination.
(a ) Auditoriums (b) Railway platform (c) Diflplays (d) Fine engravinp.
28. Due to moonlight, illumination ia nearly
(a) SOOO lumemlm' (b) SOO lumenalm1 (c) SO lumem/m1 (d) O.S lumen/m1 •
29. Which of the following inabuments ia wed for the comparison of candle powers of difl'enmt aourc:u ?
(o) Radiometer (b) BUJ).llen met.er (c) Photometer (d) Candle meter.
SO. . ..... photometer ia uaed for comparing the light.a of different colours ?
(a) Grease spot. (b) BUllRo (c) Lum.mer brodhum (d) Guilds Oick:er.
31. lo the ftuottaceor. tube circuit. the function of choke ia primarily t.o
(a) reduce the nicker (b) minimise the at.artiog aurge
(c) initiate the arc and stabilize it (cl) reduce the starting c:urrenL
32. . ..... cannot. austain much voltage Ouctualiona.
(a) Sodfom vapour lamp (b) Mercury vapour lamp
(c) lncanducent lamp (d) Fluonsoent lamp.
33. The function of capacitor acroes the aupply to the fluorescent tube ia primarily to
(o) s tabilize the arc (b) reduce the at.arting CWTmt.
(c) improve the supply power factor (d ) reduce the noise.
34. . ..... doea not have separate choke
(a} Sodium vapour lamp (b) Fluorescent lamp
(c) Mercury vapour lamp (d} All of the above.
~- In sodium vapour lamp the function of the leak tran.aformer ia
(a) tp atabiliui the arc (b) to reduce the supply voltace
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above.
38. Most affected parameter of a filament lamp due to voltqe chanfe is
(o) wattqe (b) life (c) lwninoua efficiency (d) light output.
37. In electric discharge lamps for atabilizina the~
(a ) a reactive choke is connected in aeriu with the supply
(b) a condenser ia ccm.oected in aeries to the supply
(c) a condenser ia connected in parallel to the supply
(d ) a variable resistor is coonected in the circuiL
38. For precision work the illumination level required ia of the order of
(a) SQ0.1()00 Jumen.slm' (b) 20Q..iOO lumaalm'
(c) 60-100 lwnenalm 1 (d) 10-26 lumenalm2•
89. ...... is a cold cathode lamp.
(o) Fluoreacent lamp (b) Neon lamp
(c) Mercury vapour lamp {d) Sodium vapour lamp.
llLUMTNATION 57
8. Filruneot lamps opente normally at a power factor ol
(c) 0.5 lagging (b) 0.8 laging (c) unity (d) 0.8 leading.
9. The fllament of a OLS lamp ii made or
(a) tunpt.en (b) copper (c) carbon (d) aluminium.
10. Fine diameter tunpteo wirea are made by
(a) turning <b) ew8fing (c) compre.s ainc (d) wire drawing.
u . What percentage of the input eneTIY ia radiated by alament lamps ?
(a) 2 to 5 percent (b) 10 to 15 percent (c) 25 to 30 percent (d) 40 to 50 percent.
12. Which of the foUowinc lamps ia the chuput for the ume wattage?
(c) E Ouoreecenl tube (b) Mercury vapour lamp (c) GLS la.mp (d) Sodium vapour lamp.
13. Which of the following ill not the standard rating of GLS lampe ?
(o) 100 W (b) 715 W (c) 40 W (d) 16 w.
1<6. In hou1e1 the iUumination ia in th• range of
(a) 2-6 lumerui/watt (b) 1~20 lumenalwatt
(c) 35-45 lumens/watt (d) 60-65 lumeoslwatL
15. -rhe illumination ~ directly proportional to the cosine or the angle made by the normal to the illumi-
nated surlace with the direction of the incident Oux".
Abo\•e atatement i8 associated with
(a) Lambert'• coeine law (b) Plane.k's law
(c) Bunsen's law of the illumination (d) Macbeth's law of illumination.
18. The colour ofaod.ium vapour cU.ch.arge lamp ia
(a ) red Cb) pink (c) yellow (d ) bluish grun.
17. Carbon an: lamps aro commonly uaed in
(o) photography (b) cinema project.on (c) domettlc lighting (d ) street lighting.
18. Desired Ulumination level oHhc working plane depends upon
(a) age group of obaervens
(b) whether the objed. la stationary or moving
(c) ajze or the object to seen and ita diatrmce from tho observer
(d) whether the object ia to be seen for longer duration or aborter duration or time
(e) au above factors.
19. On which of the following factors dou the depreciation or maintenance factor depend?
(a) Lamp cleaning schedule (b) Acening of the lamp
(c) Type of work carried out. at the pre miles (d) All of the above factors.
20. In lighting installation using filament lampe 1~ voltage drop results into
(a ) no loss oflight (b) LS percent 1068 in the light output
(c) 3.5 percent lou in the light output (d) 15 percent losa in the light output.
21. For the same lumen output, the running cost of the fluorescent lamp is
(a ) equal t.o that. of fihunent lamp (b) leas than that of filament lamp
(c) more than that offalament lamp (d) any of the above.
22. For the some power output
(a ) hich volt.are rot.ed lamps will be more sturdy (b) low voltace rated lampa will be more aturdy
(c) both low and high voltage rate lamps will be equal sturdy.
23. The cost of a fluorescent la.mp is more than that of incandescent. lamp because of which of the following
factors ?
(a ) More labour ia required in its manufacturing (b) Number of componenta uaed ia more
(c) Quantity of glua used ia more (d) All of the above factol'9.
60 IJTIUSATION OF ELECTRICAL POWER
69. When an electric bulb ia broken 1t produces bang, thia ia due to

(o) vacuum inside the b ulb (b) pressure of air in the bulb
(c) pre&aW'8 inside ii equal to that out.aide (d) none of the above.
80. Due to which or the following reuon.s the light or a tube appears cooler than that of a bulb ?
(a) Tungsten is not ~d in the tube (b) Tube is painted with millQ' colour
(c) Tube consumer leas power (d) Surface area ofthe tube ia more than that of bulb
(e) none of the above.
81 . Sky appean blue becaUM of
(a) re.fraction (b ) reflection
(c) radiation (d) 1C&tterina of lirbt over duat particles.
62. A poor man for bis kitchen will make u1e of
(o) fluoreacent tube (b) incandeacent lamp
(c) sodium vapour lamp (d) high preuure mercury vapour lamp.
83. Soll. shadows are pl'Oduced by
(4) usi.oc surface source or licht instead of point source of licbt
(b) increuinf the number of lampe
(c) both (a) and (b) (d ) none of the above.
8'. ReOecton are provided with alita al the lop to
(o ) intToduce c:himeny effect (or cJea.ninc (b) reduce colour contra.at
(c) reduce hea~ effect (d) do all of the above functions.
65. In •odium vapour lamp neon gu
(o ) act& u a shield around the Olament
(b} auists in developing enough heat to vaporize the sodium
(c) change the colour of light (d) prevents the vaporiz.atioo of filament
66. ln Ouoreacent tubes ballast resistance ia connected in series with the choke
(o) to reduc• atroboacopic effecta (b ) when tube operate. on D.C. supply
(c) when supply frequency is low (d ) to reduce radio interference.
6'7. In candescent. lamps, coiled coil filament. are used for
(a) coloured lampe Cb) higher wattage lamps (c) cu filled lamps
(d ) low wattage lamps (e) none of the above.
68. When a Ouorescent lamp ia lo be operated on D.C. which of the following additional devices muat be
incorporated in the circuit ?
(a ) Inductance Cb) 'Inntformer (c) Resistance (d) Condenser.
69. The tuogat.eo filament lampa when compared with Ouore11CeDt tube& have all the following advaotagu
~pt
(o ) simple inatallAlion (b) longer life (c) lea C'Olilly (d) more bright.neu.
70. The level of iDuminatioo on a s urface Uast dependA on
(o ) ambient temperature (b) candle power of the aourc:e
(c) distance of lhe source (d ) type of reOect.or used.
ANSWERS
1. (d ) 2. (d) s. (b ) 4. (c) 5. (b)
e. (c) 7. (b) 8.. (c) 9. (a) 10. (d)
11. (b ) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (4)
18. (c) 17. (b) 18. (e) 19. (d) ~. (c)
21. (b ) 22. Cb) IS. Cd) U . (c) 25. (d)
28. (d ) 27. (b) 18. (d) 29. (c) 80. (d)
31. (c) 32. (c) 38. (c) 34. (4) 86. (c)
IWJMlNATION S9
40. lo cue of ...... least illumination level is nquired.

(a) skilled bench work (b) drawinc office:a (c) hospital wards (d) fine machine work.
41. For normal reading the illuminat.ion level required ia around
(a) 20-40 lu mem/m1 (b) 60-100 1umem/mt (c) 200-300 lumenslm1 (d) 4()().500() lumenllml.
42. In electric discharge lamps light is produa!d by
(o) cathode ray emiaeion (b) ioniaatioo in a pa or vapour
(c) heating effect of cunent (d) magnetic effect of cunet.
43. A substance which change it.a electrical resistance when illuminated by light is called ..... .
(o ) photoelectric (b) photovoltaic (c) photoconduc:tivo Cd) none of the above.
«. In cue or ...... power factor ii the highest.
(o) GLS lamps (b) mercury arc lamps (c) tube lighta (d) sodium vapour lampe.
46, A mercury vapour tamp pe15 ...... light.
(o) white (b) pink (c) yellow (d) greenilh blue.
48. Sometimes the whMt. of rotating machinery, under the innuence of fluorescent lamp1 appear to be
stationary. This is due to the
(a ) low power fact.or (bl atrobosa>pic effect (c) fluc:tuatiooa (d) lumineecence effect.
4 7. Which of the following bulb operate. on 1eut power ?
(a ) GLS bulb (b) Torch bulb (c) Nem bulb Cd) Night bulb.
48. The flicker effect. of Ouoreac:eot lampe is more pronounced at
(o ) lower frequeociea (b) hicher froquenciee (c) lower voltas- (d) higher voltqes.
49. Which of the foUowi.ng applications does not. need ultraviolet lamp1 ?
(a l Car lightinc (bl Medical purposes
(c) Bl ue prinl machine& (d) Ain:raf\ cockpit duhboard lighting.
50. Which go• can be fUled in GLS lamps ?
(o ) Oxygen (b) Carbon dioxide (c) Xmoo (d) Amy inert. pa.
51. The gas filled in vacuum rllament lamps is
(a) nitrogen (b) argon (c) &ir (d) none.
52. Luminous Oux ia
(a) the light energy radiated by sun
Cb) the part of light energy, radiat.ed by sun, which i.s received on the earth
(c) the rate or energy radiation in the form of light wavea
(d) none of the above.
53. The vapour discharge tube used for domestic lighting hu
(a) no filament Cb) one filament {c) two filamenta (d) three filamenta.
54. In an incaodcacent lamp bird cage filament is utually used in vacuum bulb ao u to
(a) reduce the oxidation phenomenon {b) reduce the convection W..es
(c) have uniform radiations (d) inc:reuea the life span of the ftlamenl
66. Stroboeeopic effect. due to uao of diacharge lamps in work.ahop1 result.a in l'DO'ring machinery appeuinr
{a ) stationary (b) stationary running al.ow
(c) stationary running in reverse direction (d) all of the above.
56. Co-efficient of utilisation depends upon •..•••
(a) colour of the walls (b) colour of ceiling (c) size of the room (d) all of the above.
5'7. Glare i.s reduced by
(a) uaing ditfuaen Cb) increaai.ng the height of the lamp
(c) uaing reflectors to cut-off the light at ce11.ain ancle
or
(d) all the above.
58. Which of the following ia present in.aide the fluorescent tube?
(a) Argon and neon (b) Argon and CO, (c) Mercury vapour {cl) Helium and OJ!iYpn.
ILLUMINATION 61
36. (b) 37. (a) 38. (a) 89. (b) 40. (c)
41. (b) 42. (b) 43. (c) 44. {a) 45. (d)
46. (b) 47. (b) 48. (a) 49. (a) 50. (d)
51. (d ) 52. (c) 53. (c) M. (c) 55.(d)
56. (d) 67.(d) 58. (c) 59. (a) 80. (a)
61. (d ) 62. {b) 63. (c) 64. (d) 66. (b)
66. (b) . .. 67. (c) 68. (c) 69. (b) 70. (a).
ITHEORETICALQUESTIONSI
1. What is the basic nature of light ? Explain.
2. Define the following terms :
Luminous flux, Lum.en, Illumination, Lamp efficiency.
3. Explain briefly the following :
(i) Space-height ratio (ii) Utilization factor
(iii) Depreciation factor.
4. What is a solid angle ?
5. State the laws of illumination.
6. Enumerate the various types of electric lamps in common use.
7. Explain briefly the materials commonly uaed for incandescent lamps.
8. Explain with a neat sketch, the construction and working of a sodium vapour lamp.
9. Give the construction and worJcing of a 'fluorescent tube'.
10. Explain briefly the various types of lighting systems.
11. Enumerate the characteristics which the lighting scheme should posseaa.
12. Revive expressions for illumination on a surface (i) when it is normal and (h) when it is inclined to the
axis of a beam of incide.nt lighl
13. What is a polar curve ? How is it useful to an illumination engineer ?
14. What do you understand by polar curves ? Explain Rousseau's conatruction for calculating m.1.c.p. of a
lamp.
15. Why is tungsten selected as the filament material and on what factors does ita life depend ?
16. Prove that in a filament lamp the diameter of filament is directly proportional to P'3, where I is the
current flowing in the filament.
17. Explain the advantages of using inert gas in filament lamps and the purpose to get the filiment aa
coiled coil.
18. Describe the metal filament lamps high lighting the effect of temperature and the choice of filament.
materials.
19. Explain the effects ofvoltage variation on the life and illumination as regards tungsten lamp and fluo-
rescent lamp.
20. Compare the metal filament lamp with discharge lamp.
21. Compare the metal filament lamp with discharge lamp. What is the advantage of coiled coil? Describe
principle of operation, construction and worklllg of a sodium discharge lamp.
22. Describe with a neat sketch the principle of electric discharge lamp. State the advantages and disad-
vantages of discharge lamps over the filament lamp and give their applications.
23. Explain ~th a neat diagram the principal of operation of a sodium vapour lamp. Mention its uae.
24. Explain the principle and operation of a sodium vapour lamp giving ita neat sketch. Mention its uses.
25. Describe with the help of a neat diagram the construction and working of a high pressure mercury
vapour lamp.
26. Explain the construction and operation of a fluorescent tube and compare it with tungsten filament
lamp.
Copyrighted material
ELECTRIC HEATING AND WELDING 127
3. Methods of electrie heating :

(i) Power frequency heating : Resistance heating, Arc beating.
(ii) High frequency beating : Induction heating, Dielectric heating, Infra.red heating.
4. The heating elements are normally made of wires of circular cross-section or rectangular conducting
ribbons.
6. Types of arc furnaces : Direct arc furnace, Indirect arc furnace and submerged arc furnace.
6. Type of induction furnaces : Core type and coreless type induction furnaces.
7. Dielectrie heating is employed for heating insulators like wood, plastics, ce1'8Jnics etc. which cannot be
heated easily and uniformly by other methods.
8. Welding is the process ofjoining two pieces of metal or non-metal at faces rendered plastic or liquid by
the application of heat or pressure or both. Filler material may be used to effect the union.
9. In resistance welding cunent is passed through the inherent resistance of the joint to be welded thereby
generating the heat as per equation PRt kilojoules.
10. In arc welding electricity is conducted. in the form of an arc which is established between the two
metallic surfaces.
11. Electri.c arc welding is the system in which metal is melted by the beat of an electric arc. It can be done
with the following methods : (i) Metallic arc welding- (ii) Carbon arc welding (iii) Atomic hydrogen
welding and (iu) Shielded arc welding.
12. In TIG welding the heat necessary to melt the metal is pTOVided by a very intense electric arc which is
struck between a virtually non-conaumabk tung•ten ekctrock and metal woapi«e.
13. MIG process is a refmement ofTIG process, however, in this prooesa, the tunpten elect.rode has been
replaced with a conaumable e/.ectrode.
14. Electron·beam welding fusion joins metal by bombarding a specific confined area of the bue metal with
high velocity electrons.
15. The l<Uer welding process is the focusing of a monochromatic light into atnmely concentnted beams.
It employs a carefully focused beam of light that concentrates tremendom amount ofenergy on a small
area to produce fusion.
16. Some important welding defecu are :
(i) Cracked welds, {ii) Porous welds,
(iii> Insufficient penetration, (iv) Non-uniform uneven weld, and
(u) Warping.
I OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS I

A. Choose the Correct Answer:
HEATING
1. Which of the following is an advantage of beating by electricity?
(a) Quicker operation (b) Higher efficiency
(c) Absence of flue gases (d) All of the above.
2. ....... has the highest value of thermal conductivity.
(a ) Copper (b) Aluminium (c) Brass (d) Steel.
S. Which of the following heating methods has maximum power factor ?
(a) Arc heating (b) Dielectric heating (c) Induction heating (d) Resistance heating.
4. ...... method has leading power factor
{a ) Resistance beating (b) Dielectric heating (c) Arc heating (d) Induction heating.
5. ...... is used for heating non-<:0nducting materials
(a ) Eddy current heating (b) Arc heating
Cc) Induction heating (d) Dielectric heating.
128 UTILISATION OF ELECTRICAL POWER
8. Which oft.he following m~ods of heating is not. dependent. oo lhe frequency of supply?
(a ) Induction heatinr Cb} Dielectric beating
(c) Electric resiatanc:e heating (d) All of lhe above.
1. When a body reflect.a entire radiation incident. on it. then it is known llS :
(a ) white body Cb) grey body (c) black body (d) transparellt body.
8. For the tran.amiuion of heat. from one body to another
(a) temperature oflhe two bodies mu.st be dilferent.
(b) both bodies muat. be solids
(c) ~lh bodies muat. be in contact
Cd) al l-.t OD• of the bodiea mu.at have aome source of healing.
9. Heat t:ranaf'er by condiUon will not occur when
(a) bodies are kept in vacuum (b) bodies are immersed in water
Ce) bodies are expoeed to thermal radia.liiona (d) temperatures oft.he two bodies ore identical
10. A perfect black body la one that
(a) transmit.a all incident radiations (b) absorbs oll incident radiations
(c) reOed.I all incident radiations
(d) absorbs, renecta and tTilDS:mita all incident radiations.
ll. Heal is tranaferred aimulLaneooaly by condition, convection and radiation
Co I inaido boiler furnaces (b>durinc melting of ice
Cc) through the IW'face of the insulated pipe carrying •team
(cl) from refrig. .i.or coUa to hea.r ol a refrigerator.
12. The p1'0Cla ol h•t. transfer d~ the re-entry of aat.ellitff and miuil•, al very high speeds, into
earth'• a&JDojJpbere 11 lmown u
(o) ablatiao (b) radiation (c) vucoua d.Lasipalion (cl) irradiation.
13.. Which of&be followiQr hu c.be hilbest values ofthennal conductivity ?
(o) Water (b) St.eam (c) SoUd lee (d) Melling ice.
14. Inductioo IMadotl pl"OCU8 ia baMd on which of the following prindplea?
(o) 11Mtrmal ion nleu1 prindple (b) Nucleate heating principle
(c) Resi.atanca heating principle (cl) Electro-magnetic induclion principle.
15. Which orlhe roUowing insulating materiala I.a suitable for low temperature applications?
(a) Asbutoa paper (b) Oiatomaceoua earth
(c) 80 percent magnesia (d) Cork.
18. A non-dimensional number renerally associated with n.atural coovecUon heat transfer is
(o) Prandtl number (b) GrashofT number
(c) Pecelet number (d) Nuaaelt number.
17. The temperature in.tide a furnace is usually measured by which for tho followior?
(a) Optical pyrometer (b) Mercury thermometer
(c) Alcohol thermometer (d) Ally or the above.
18. Which oft.he following will happen if the thiclmea of refractory wall of furnace ia increased 7
(a) Heal Jou through furnace wall will i:nc:rea..i (b) Temperature inaide the furnace will Call
(c) Temperalure on the outer surface of furnace walls will drop
(d } Energy consumption will increase.
19. The material of the beatinc element for a furnace should have
(a) lower meJtma point (b) ttigher temperature co-efficient
Cc) hich 1pecific resistance {d ) all of the above.
IO. 1n a resiat.anoe furnace the atmosphere ia .......
Ca> oxidiainr Cb) deozidising (c) reduc:inc (d ) neutral
21. By which of the following methods the temperature inside a resistance furnace can be varied ?
(a) By disconnecting some of the heating elements
(b) By varying the operating voltage
(c) By varying the current through heating elements
(d) By any of the above method.
22. In induction heating ....... is abnormally high.
(a) phase angle (b) frequency (c) current (d) voltage.
23. By the use of which of the following, high frequency power supply for induction furnaces can be
obtained?
(a) Coreless transformen (b) Current transformers
(c) Motor-generator set (d) Multi·phase transformer.
M. Induction furnaces are employed for which of the following ?
(a) Heat treatment of castings (b) Heating of insulators
(c) Melting of aluminium (cl) None of the above.
26. In an electric room heat convector the method of heating used is
(a) arc heating (b) resistance heating (c} induction heating (d) dielectric heating.
26. In a domestic cake baking oven the temperature ia controlled by
(a) voltage variation (b) thermoetat
(c) auto-transformer (d) series-parallel operation.
27. In an electric press mica ii used
(a) aa an insulator (b) u a device fOI" power factor improvement
(c) for dielectrics heating Cd) for iniuction heatiJla.
28. Induction beatinf takes pl.ace in which of the followinJ?
(a) Insulating materiala (b) Conducting materiala which are magnetic
(c) Conducting materials which are non-magnetic
(d) Conducting materials which may or may not be ma.petite.
29. For heating element high resistivity material ii Chosen to
(a) reduce the length of heating element (b) increue the life of the heating element
(c) reduce the eft'ect of oxidation {d) produce larRe amount of beat.
30. In resiBtanoe heating highest working temperature ii obtained from beatina element.a made of ......
(a) nickel copper (b) nichrome (c) ailicoo carbide (d) Ii.her.
31. For intermittent work which of the following furnaces ii 1uitable ?
(a ) Indirect arc furnace (b) Core leas furnace
(c) Either of the above (d) None of the above.
32. Due to which of the following reasons it is desirable to have abort arc length ?
{a) To achieve better heating (b) To increue the life of roof refractory
(c) To have better stirring action (d) To reduce problem of oxidation
(e) All of the above.
88. In the indirect rui.stance heating method, maximum heat-transfer takes place by
(a) radiation (b) convection (c) conduction (d) any of the above.
34. Property of low temperature co-efficient of heating element is desired due to which of the following
reasons?
(ci) To avoid initial rush of current Cb) To avoid change in kW rating with temperature
(c) Both {a) and (b) (d) Either (a) or (b).
35. Which of the following methods is used to control temperature in resistance furnaces ?
(a) Variation of resistance {b) Variation ofvoltage
(c) Periodical switching on and off the supply (d) All of the above methods.
Copyrl led mat I 1

130 UTILISATION OP eu:CTIUCAL POWER
94. ll ii desirable to operate the arc funlacea at power fact.or of

(a) zero (b) 0.707 lqgi.nc {c) unity Cd ) 0.707 leadi.QI.
87. Radiationa from a black body are proportional to
(a ) T 1 (b) T' (c) 'r (d ) 1'4.
SI. ln arc t'uroa~ the function of cbob ill
(a ) to at.abilll.e the arc (b) to improve, power factor
(c) Lo reduce .everity oft.he aurre Cd> none of the above.
at. Nax Wyatt ftamace ii started when
(a) it a. fllled below core WleJ (b) it a. filled above core level
Cc) iL t. l'ully empty Cd) none or lhe above.
40. In e~c prua, mica ia used because it is ··-··· oooductor or heat but/and ....... conductor of electricity.
(a) bad. good (b) bad, bad (c) JOOCI, bad (d) p>d, good.
41. &1l1tance variation met.bod of temperatun! control ii done by connec:tin1 reaitLo..nce element.a in
(a ) aoriff (b) parallel
(c:) Hriea-parallel connectiona (d) star-delta connectiooa
(e) a11 or tho above waya.
42. Hystereaia lou and eddy current loss are uaed in
(a) induction heatinr of ateel Cb) dielectric hcotini
(c) Induction heatinfr of braaa (d) retiata.D~ beating.
'3. In heaUng the femimacnetic material by induct.ion heating, heat ii produced due to
Cb) hyat.eresia lo.a t.akinf place belOw curie temperature
Cc> due to h~rem Jou u well u eddy cunent lou takint place in the charre
(d) DODe o( the above facton.
4'. Radiant heating ia u.aed for which of the following?
(a) Amleahnr of meta.11 (b) Meltins of fenoaa metai.
(c) Heating ofliquid.e in electric kettle (cl) Oryinr ofpainll and vamiahee.
'8. Which of the ro11mn. dnicM ii nec:maarDy required far automatic temperature control in a funw:e ?
(a) 'MMrmostat. (b) 'l'Mrmocoupl•
(c) Auto-transformer
(cl) Heatmc elmlente ofvariahle relliltance material
48. For 1'8diant beating around 226Q•C, the beating elemenll are made of
(c) copper alloy (b) carbon (c) tungsten alloy (d) stalnlt11 ateel alloy.
•7. Which of the following a an advantage of eddy current beat.Ina ?
{a) The amount of heat generated can be controlled accurately
(b) Heat at. Vflrf hieh rate can be generated
(c) The area oC the surface over which beat ia produced can be accurately controlled
(cl} All or the above.
"8. The electrode of a direct arc furn.ace ia made of
(o) tu.opt.en (b) p-aphite (c) ailTer (d) copper.
49. Diroci arc furnace. have which ofihe followinr power facton ?
(o ) Uoity (b) Low, lagging (c) Low, leading (d ) Ar!y of the above.
50. In direct arc Cu.mace, which oC the following bu high value 1
(a) Current (b) Voltage (c) Power fact.or (d) All of the above.
WELDING
51. Duriof ,..utan~ welding heat produced at the joint a proportional to
(c) r R (b) kVA (c) cunent (d) volt.age.
52. Grey iron is usually welded by ........ welding

~a) gas (b) arc (c) resistance (d)MIG.
53. The metal s urfaces, for electrical resistance welding must be .......
(a,) lubricated {b) cleaned (c) moistened {d) rough.
!>'·In a welded joint poor fusion is due to which of the following?

(a) Improper current (b) High welding speed
{c) Uncleaned metal surface (d) Lack of flux.
55. For arc welding, D.C. is produced by which of the following?
(a) Motor·generator set (b) Regulator
(c) Transformer (d) None of the above.
56. . ...... welding process uses consumable electrodes.
(a) TIG (b) MIG (c) Laser (d) All of the above.
57. Which of the following equipment is generally used for arc welding ?
(a) Single phase alternator (b) Two phase alternator
(c) Three phase alternator (d) Transformer.
58. Which of the following is not an inert gas ?
(a) Argon (b) Carbondioxide (c) Helium (cl) All of the above.
69. Electronic components are joined by which of the following methods?
(a) Brazing (b) Solde.r inf (c) Seam welding (d) Spot welding
(e) None of the above.
60. Resistance welding cannot be used for
(a) dielectric (b) ferrous materials (c) non·ferroua metala (d) any of the aboYe.
61. Electric arc welding prOc:eas produces temperature upto
Ca> 1ooo·c Cb) 1soo•c Cc> s5oo•c Cd)5550•c.
62. Increased heat due to aborter arc is harmful on account of
(a) under.cutting of base ~terial (b) bum through
(c) e~cessive porosity (d) all of the above.
68. Arc blow results in which of the following ?
(a) Non-uniform weld beads (b) Shallow weld puddle giving riae to weak weld
(c) Splashing out of metal from weld puddle (d) All of the above defects.
64. In sea.m welding
(a) the work piece is fixed and disc electrodes move
(b) the work piece moves but rotating electrodes are fixed
(c) any of the above (d) none of the above.
65. In arc welding major personal hazards are
(a) flying sparks (b) weld spatter
(c) harmful infrared and ultra·violet rays from the arc
(d) all of the above.
66. In spot welding composition and thickness of the base metal decides
(a) the amount of squeeze pressure (b) hold time
(c) the amount of weld current (d) all above.
67. Helium produces which of the following?
(a) Deeper penetration (b) Faster welding speeds
(c) Narrower heat affected zone in base metal (d) All of the above.
68. Due to which of the following reasons aluminium is difficult to weld ?
(a) It has an oxide coating (b) It conducts away heat very rapidly
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above.
CopynghtocJ matenaJ
132 UTILISATION OP ELECTRICAL POWER
• · Welding leads have

Co> hieh Oexibility (b) hich cunent handlinc capacity
(c) both (o) and (b) (d ) none of the above.
70. Air craft body LI
(a) apoL welded (b) gas welded (c) aeam weldl!d (d ) riveted.
71. For arc welding CUJTeDt range is usually
(cz) 10 to 15 A (b) 30 to 40 A (c) 60 to 100 A (d) 100 t.o 350 A.
71. Spot welding is uaed ror
(o) thin metal aheeta (b) rou1b and Irregular turf'acea
(c) eo1tinga only (d ) thick aec:tiom.
73. Galvanising is a proc:MS of apptyi.ng a layer ol
(a) aluminium (b) lead (c) copper (d) zinc. il
~
74. A aeamle11 pipe baa
(o) 1team welded joint (b) mpot welded joint (c) arc welded joint (d ) no j oint.
78. Motor-generalor aet fo• D.C. are welding baa generator of
78.
(o) seri08 type
(c) differentially compound type
Cb) s fiunt type
(d) level compound type.
Plain and butt welds may be uaed on materiala upto thickneaa of nearly
I
(o) 5 mm (b) 10 mm Cc) 26 mm (d ) 50 mm.
77. ln arron ere welding argon is used u a
(o ) Owt (b ) source of heat
(c) aient. for heat tro.nafer Cd) shield to protect the work from m:idatioa.
78. Duri.ni arc weldinf u the thiclmeas ol the metal to be welded increases
(o) current ehould dec:naae, voltage ehould incroue
(b) curnmt ehould inc:reue, voltage remainin1 the same
(c) c:urnnt ahould increese, voltage should decrease
(d) volt.age ahould inc:reue, current-remaining the same
79. In D.C. arc weJding
(o ) electrode ia made positive and workpiece negative
(b) electrode ia made neptive and workpiece positive
(c) both eloc:trodo u well aa workpiece are made po111tive
(d) both electrode u well u wodcpiece are made nerative.
80. Tho purpoeo of coating on arc welding electrodes is t.o
(a) 1tabllieo the arc (b) provide a pro\ectlng atmosphere
(c) provide a lag to protect the molten metal (d) all of the above.
81. 150 pemtnl duty cycle of a welding machine meana
(o) machine input is 60 percent ol rated input (b) machine amclency ii 50 percent
(c) machine work.a on 50 percent output
(d) mochine work.a for 5 minutea in a duration of 10 minutes.
82. Durina carbon arc welding if electrode is connected to positive
(o ) are will be dull (b) arc will oot strike
(c) metal will not strike
(d ) carbon will have tendency to go into the weld joint.
83. In which of the following me1hods of welding tho molien metal la pound for joining the metals ?
(o) Thennit weld.in&' (b) Gas welding (c) TIG welding (d) Arc welding.
9'. lo atomic hydrosen welding th• electrode ii made of
(a) carbon (b) graphite (c) tunga\eo (d) mild at.eel
ELECTRIC HEATlNG AND WELDING 133
85. Tbe porosity of welded joint may be caused by

(a) low welding current (b) incorrect size of electrodes
(c) poor base metal (d) any of the above.
86. In electrical resistance welding the greatest resistance is offered by which of the following ?
(a) Metal surface (b) Contact point of electrode with metal top
(c) Contact point of electrode with metal bottom (d) Contact layer of metals to be welded.
87. The tips of the electrodes, for spot welding, are made of
(a) copper alloy (b) porcelam. (c) mica (d) carbon.
88. During spot welding the CWT8nt flows for
(a) fraction of a minute to several minutes (b) fraction of a second to several seconds
(c} few milliseconds (d) few microseconds.
89. ......... welding is not a resistance welding process.
(a) Projection (b) Seam (c) Flush (d) Carbon arc.
90. The power factor of a spot welding machine is expected to be around
(a) Unity (b) 0.8 lagging (c) 0.3 to 0.5 lagging (d) 0.8 leading.
91. Which ofthe following methods is normally not preferred for welding ofchromium molybdenum steel.a ?
(a) Oxyacetylene welding (b) Resistance welding
{c) Thermit welding (d) Submerged a.re welding.
92. The welding of aluminium alloy entails which of the following problems?
{a) High thermal conductivity-quick dissipating heat
(b) On melting becomes thin liquid-tendency to run off
(c) Low specific resistance requiring heavy current
93. During carbon arc welding
(a) electrodes is connected to neutral if AC. is used
(b) electrode is not connected to any voltage source when AC. is used
(c) electrode is negative with respect to the work if D.C. ia used
Cd) electrode ia positive with respect to the work if D.C. ia used.
94.. In welding weld apatter defect ia generally the reeult ·o f
(a) too high voltage during welding (b) ·too high current during welding
(c) low voltage during welding (d) low current. during welding.
95. Arc blow (a welding defect) is generally encountered in
Ca) arc welding using AC. current (b) arc welding usina D.C. current
Cc) therm.it. welding (d) gu welding.
96. Steel pipes are manufactured by
(a) argon arc welding (b) therm.it welding (c) resistance welding (d) arc welding.
97. A rectifier for welding has voltage/current characteristic as
(a) static (b) variable (c) drooping (d) rising.
98. Which of the following is net a welding accessory ?
(a) Hand screen (b) Cable (c) Electrode holder (d) Gloves.
99. Gray iron is usually welded by
(a) Gas welding (b) TIG welding (c) MIG welding (d) Arc welding.
100. The welding load is always
(a) continuous but varying (b) continuous and constant
(c) intermittent (d) none of the above.
101. TIG welding is
(a) thorium iodine gas welding (b) thermally induced gas welding
(c) temperature insulated gas welding (d) tungsten insert gas welding.
I /
134 UTILISATION OF ELECTRICAL POWER
102. Flux u1od in TtG welding ia

(o) borax (b) ammonium chloride (c) ash (cl) none.
103. For lhe welding or aluminium alloys which of the following method.I would you recommended?
(a) A.cetylene-oxnen p.a welding (b) D.C. arc weJdins
(c) A.C. arc welclina (cl) 1\mgsteo are welding.
lC).1. Wb.ach o( the following automatic welding procu1ee I.I likely Lo sfv• maximum rate of metal deposi-
tion ?
(a) Continuous Owe covered electrode (b) Multiple power aubmerged uc
(r ( - ha Id <l bare wire (cl) Sul>inetpd arc (tingle wire).
105. A 10 SWl el 'Ctrodt' usually operatq in the cunent range
fo > 300 Lo 400 amperea (b) 96 to 136 ampeJ'U
(c) 60 lo 66 amperes (cl) 20 Lo 30 amperea.
1OG. Whaeh of lh following electrodea will have least diameter ?
Co> 20 SWC: (b) 16 SWG (c) 14 SWO (d ) 4 SWG.
J 0'7 111f' d tngcr Of NhocK is ®lliJnUJn
fo) Lefore welding (b) aft.er~
Cd d11nn1 urcan' (d) *hUo inaortinr electrode into the holder.
l 08. 1'h1: weldinr electric circuit is
(o) never cart.bod (b) olway1 earthed
(e) lhrouch coblea only.
109. Steel raU1 an welded by
(a ) Gu welding (b) Tbermit. welding (c) Reelat.anc:e welding (d ) Arion arc welding.
110. In ultruonic weldlnc the frequency range is poerally
(o) 2000 Lo 3000 lb (b) 4000 t.o 20000 Ha
(c:) 30000 t.o 40000 Hz (d ) 50000 to 80000 HL
B. Pill la the BJuablS~ 'Yee' or 'No' :

111. ReaUn1 element i.o an incandescent lamp i.a ol ······-
111. Eddy current. heating is auit.able for hardening. (Yes/No)
1 lS. Only in.-ulating material ii heawd by dielectric healing. (Yes/No)
114.. Indirect arc rumacea are usually made in ·-··-· aiza than direct arc fumacu.
115. lndittct arc furnacea are uaually of single phaae type and direct arc furnaces are usually of three phase
lype. (Yes/No}
1 US. Heat produced in dielectric heating ia dinctly proportional to ........ and square or ........
117. Rheot1t.at wire 11 made up oftunpten. <Yes/No}
118. Heating elements Wied in bowie.hold appl.iancelJ are made of nichrome (Yes/No)
118. Slirrina action by rockiq the furnace iB achieved in ........ phase are furnace and by electro-mqnetic
force i1 achieved in ........ phue a.re furnace.
HO. Beat traruafer by conduction will not occur when t.emperaturea oft.he two bocliu are identical. (Yes/No)
111. ln caae or boiler furnace• heat ia transferred by all the three modea, uu. ccmdudion, con'f'ectioo and
radiation. (Yes/No)
lit.. A pe:rfect. black body it one that ndlecta all i:ncident. radiationa. (Yes/No)
lJS. Nichrome can be med £or fumaaii temperatures upto 1ooo•c (Yes/No)
lM. Orey iron is u.UAlb welded by ·····- weJdi.ne.
11&. For 1pot weldini the tipe ol the electrodea are made of ........ alloy.
118. ln ........ weldiA( the molten metal ia poured for joi.oinc the metals.
117. '!be porosity ot'the welded joint may be cauaed by poor bue metal. (Yes/No)
128. The ranee of open circuit voltage for arc weJdinc is ienerally 40-90 V. <Yes/No)
129. Spot welding is used for thin metal sheets. {Yes/No)

130. Resistance welding cannot be used for dielectrics. {Yes/No)
ANSWERS
A. Choo.e the Co:rrect Aluwer :
<Electric Beating and Welding)
1. (d) 2. (a) s. (d) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (a)
8. (a) 9. (cl) 10. (b) 11. (a) 12.(a) 18. (c) 14.(d)
15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (a) 21. (d)
22. (b) 2S. (c) M. (a) 25. (b) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (d)
29. (a) 30. (c) Sl. (a) 82. (e) 88. {a) 84. {c) 86. (d)
36. (b) 37. (cl) 38. (a) 89. (b) 40. (c) 41. (e) 42. (a)
43. (c) 44. (d) 46. (b) 46. (c) 47. (d) 48. (b) 49. (b)
50. (a ) 51. (a) 52. (a) 158. (b) 54. (a) 55. (a) 56. (b)
57. (d) 58. (b) 59. (b) 60. (a) 61. (d) 62•. (d) 63. (cl)
64. (c) 85. (cl) 86. (d) 67. (d) 68. (c) 69. (c) 70. (d)
71. (d) 72. (a) 73. (d) 74. (d) 75. (d) 76. (c) 77. (d)
'78. (b) '79. (b) 80. (d) 81. (d) 82. (d) 88. (a) 84. (c)
86. (c) 86. (cl) 87. (a) 88. {b) 89. (d) 90. (c) 91. (b)
92. (d) 98. (c) 94. (b) 95. (b) 98. (c) 97. (c) 98. (b)
99. (a) 100. (c} lOL (d} 102. (d) 103. {d) 104. (b) 105. (b)
106. (a) 107. (d) 108. Cb) 109. (b) 110. (b)
B. Fill in the blanlu/Say 'Ye•' or 'No':
111. tungsten 112.. Yes 118. Yes 114. smaller 115. Yes
116. frequency, voltage 117. No 118. Yes 119. single, three
120. Yes 121. Yea 122. No 128. Yes 124.gu
126. copper 126. thermit 127. Yes 128. Yes 129. Yes
130. Yea.
THEORETICAL QUESTIONS
Eleetric heattns
1. What are the advantages of electric heating ?
2. Give classification of varioua electric heating methods along wi2th brief account of their working
principle.
S. Explain briefly the following modes of heat transfer:
(i) conduction, (ii) Convection, (iii) Radiation.
4. List the properties, of a good heating element.
S. Explain briefly the materials of heating elements.
6. Discuss the methods of temperature control of resistance ovens.
7. Explain the design procedure of the beating elements :when the power and voltage ofthe oven is known.
8. Explain the working principle of arc furnaces and describe with the help of a s.ketch the construction
and working of any one type of arc furnace.
9. Describe the construction and working of a 3-phase arc furnace.
10. Describe the conditions for maximum output for an electric arc furnace.
11. Mention the advantages of dielectric heating.
12. Discuss the relative merits and demerits of direct and indirect electric arc fumaces.
13. Explain different methods of induction heating. Give some applications of induction heating.
CopynghtocJ matenaJ
ELECTROLYTIC PROCESSES 153
Solid state rectifying devices employing germanium and silicon diodes have been developed.
These devices occupy very small space even as compared to metal rectifiers.
• For extraction and refining of metals and large scale manufacture of chemicals a very
large amount of power is required. Since most of the processes are continuous and as
such have a 100 percent load factor, these plants are located near hydroelectric power
stations or atomic power plants even if extra transportation or raw material is necessi-
tated.
HIGHLIGHTS
1. The processes based on the fact that electrical energy can produce chemical changes are called Electro-
lytic processes.
2. Faraday's First Law. It states : "The mass of a substance liberated from an electrolyte in a given time is
proportional to the quantity of electricity passing through the electrolyte•.
Faraday's Second Law. It states : "When the same quantity of electricity is passed through several
electrolytes, the masses ofthe substances deposited are proportional to their respective chemical equiva-
lents or equivalent weights•. ·
3. Current efficiency is defmed aa the ratio of the actual quantity of substance liberated or deposited to the
theoretical quantity, as calculated from Faraday's laws.
4. Energy efficiency is defined as the ratio of theoretical energy required to the actual energy required for
depositing a given quantity of metal.
5. Applications of electrolysi3 :
1. Electro-deposition 2. Manufacture of chemicals
3. Anodizing 4. Electro-polishing
5. Electro-cleaning or pickling 6. Electro-parting of electro-stripping
7. Electro-metallurgy :
(i) Electro-extraction (ii) Electro-refining

Fill in the Bianka or Say 'Yes' or 'No'
1. The processes based on the fact that electrical energy can produce chemical changes are called ..... .
processes.
2. ...... bond is responsible for the formation of inorganic compound.
8. Faraday's ...... law states that the mass of a s ubstance liberated from an electrolyte in a given time is
proportional to the quantity of electricity passing through the electrolyte.
4. Chemical equivalent is the ratio of atomic weight to valency.
IS. The ratio of the actual quantity of substance liberated or deposited to the theoretical quantity, as calcu-
lated from Faraday' laws is called energy efficiency.
6. The value of current efficiency lies between 90 to 98%.
7. The process of depositing a coating of one metal over another metal or non-metal electrically is called
the ...... .
8. Throwing power is defined as the ability of the electrolyte to produce even irregular surfaces.
9. ...... is an art of depositing a superior or a more noble metal on an inferior or a base metal by means of
electrolysis of an aqueous solution of a suitable electrolyte.
10. Electro-metallisation is the process of depositing metal on a conducting base for decoration and for
protective s urfaces.
11. ...... is the process of coating of a metallic surface with a harder metal by electro-deposition in order to
increase its durability.
CopynghtocJ matenaJ
IS4 UTILISATION OF ELECTRICAL. POWBR
11. ...... la the reproduction of objects by electro-depoeition on eome IOrt of a mould or form.
lS. 'l'be process or providing an oxide film ia known a.a ...... .
1'- Electro-poU.hing process, in principle, cocuiata of ma.king the work a1 anode in a suitable po9it.ion.
11. By electro-refining, it is possible to pt metal of almost lOO'li purity.
ANSWERS
L Electrolytic I. Electrovalent s. First .C. Yea 5. No.
I. Yee 7. Electro-deposition 8. Yea 9. Electn>platmf 10. Yee
11. Electro-facinf 12. Electro-forming IS. Anodilinc 1". Yet 15. Y•.
I THEORETICAL QUESTIONS I
L What are electrolytic PfoceNe8 ?
I. What ii olectrolylil ? Explain briefly.
S. State Faraday'• law. of electrolysia and explain them clearly.
'- Esplain the foDowioa terms uaed in electrolytic proce6tee :
CO Cumi/nt efficiency (ii) Enor&'Y efficiency
(iii) 'nuowina power (iv) Electro-chemical equivalent.
IL What are the application• of electrolysis 7
8. What la electnHlopoeition? Explain in detail various fact.ors which have effect on the appearance and
quality o( the deposited surface.
7. Explajn th• buic lawa which govern electro-deposition.
8. Give the advant.apl ofnverwe-eummt plating.
9. Explain the term 'polarUatlon, 'throwing power' and 'elec:trcKiepoaitioo'. How are zinc and copper reftnecl
from their bue metal a1ectrica.Dy.
10. What. ia el~ti.ng and what for ia it done? Deaaibe the various operation.a involved in electropJ.atini.
11. Describe in detail the procea of nicbl-electropla ting in industry, givinr t.he compoaitioo oC elec:t:rolyte.
What are t.be factors on which the quality of electroplaq dependa ?
IL Deacribe the proceaa of copper platine on a piece of job. What arn.ncementa are made to feed and
control the 1upply or electric power to the electro-plating plant ?
18. Describe the equipment and p"l'OCeU used for chromium plating. What 1a the composition or electrolyte
u.ed?
l.C. What do you understand by 'revene current proceu' in electro-plating? Diacu.aa it.a advantages.
15. What l1 meant. by anodirinr? Explain the proceu or anodizing and deacribe Lhe equipment u.aed (or it.
18. Explain briefly extraction and refining or met.all by electroly1is.
17. n..cribe briefly the extraction of the following met.ah. Zinc., aluminium, m-sn..iwn and aod.ium.
18. What do you mean by 'Electro-refi.oiag'?
I UNSOLVED EXAMPLES
1. It 11 requlnd to repair a worn out circular ahaA 14 cm ln diameter and 30 cm long by coating it with
a layer or L5 mm of nickd. Determine Lhe theoretical value or quantity or electricity required and
&he time takeo if the current density used ia 200 Nm'. Electro-chemical equivalent of nick.el is 30.4
x 1~ lqlC or electricity and density of nicbl ia 8.9 • t()I kglm1• !Ana. 1610 A-b ; 61 houn)
I. Jn a copper 1ulpbat.e voltamet«, the copper caLhode is incruaed in weight by 0 05 kg in two houn,
when the current wu maintained constant. Calculate the value of this cummt. Given Atomic weieJit of
= =
copJ»r = 63.5; Atomic weight oChyc:irosen 1 , Atomic weight of1Uver 108 ; Electro-chemical equiva-
lent ohilver • 111.8 x 10"' lqlC. !Ana. 21.13 AJ
184 UTll..ISATION OP ELECTRJCAL POWER
10. An air-conditwnirw aystem is defined aa an assembly of different. parta of the system used t.o produce a
specified conclition of air within a required space or buildinf.
11. 1be cen tral .yatA!m of air--conditionirlg ia suitable for air-conditjonin( llU'Je apace such u theatl'ea,
cinemu, rest.auranc.a, exhibition halls, or big factory spaces where no sub·diviaion exista.
lZ. The primary rcqwrcment of cooling or heating equipment. ia that these must. be able t.o remove or add
heat at. the rate at which i t is produced, OT removed and maint.ain the Jiven comfort cooditiorui in the
room.
I
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS I
FUJ In the Blanb or Sq 'Ye.. or 'No':
1. ..... ls lhe .science of producing and maintaining t.emperatu rea below that. of the surrounding atmos-
phere.
2. Rofrigcr•tion means the cooling or removal ofbeol from a syalcm.
3. The rnling ofa refrigeraling machine is obt.ai.ned by refrigerating e ffect or amounl of heat extracted in
a given Lime from a body.
4. The mo in charact.erialic feature ofair-refrigeraLion 1tyat.em is that throughout the cycle the refrigerant.
remain11 in ...... stale
5. Oul of oil refrigeration systems, the ...... system is the most. important system. From the view point. of
commercial and domestic utility.
8. Water coolers are used to produce cold water at. about. 7 t.o 13•c.
7. A ...... ia any substance that absorbs heal through expa.naion or vapori.sat.ion and I05U it. through con·
denaalion in a rerrigeration system.
8. 'M1e art. or meuuring the moisture content is tenned ......
9. Sudomotor control does not reeuJate swut producl.ion.
10. Voaomotor control regulates the blood aupply to the skin.
11. Tho cutral aystema are generally employed foT loada abovo 2~ tonnes of rtfrigeration and 2500 m'/m.in
of condal&onlng Air.
ANSWERS
l. Rcfnccration 2. Yes & Yes ... rueous
5. Vapour compr euion 6. Yes 7. Refrigerant
8. paychrometzy 9. No 10. Yes 11. Yu
I THEORETICAL QUESTIONS I
l. Define lhe following :
(i) Refrigeration (ii) Refrigeration S)'!liem, and
Ciii) Refrigerated aystem.
2. Enumerate dilTcrent. ways of producing refrigeration.
S. Enumerate important refrigeration applications.
4. Whal ia 11t.andard rating of a refrigention machine ?
5. What is main characteristic feature of an afr-ttfrigeration ayst.em ?
8. Differentiate dearly between open and closed air-refrigeration ayskms.
7. St.ate merit.a and demerit.a of an air-refrigeration syaltm.
8. De.scribe a 11mple vapour compression cycle (iving dearly it.a Oow diagntm.
9. St.ate t.he merita and demerits of 'Vapour comprusion system' over 'Vapour absorption system'.
10. Explain a refrigeration cycle by mean.a of a neat-sketch.
11. Ducribe the working of a lhenn0&tat used in a domeetk rofrigorator.
12. Dr I d u·c tircuit ora nJngcrator and t>iq> ,IO ..... "orlUny Ho\\ t\O lemp<:rnture inside the refrig-
1 mtor lw idJUSled ?
TRAIN MOVEMENT AND ENERGY CONSUMPTION 513
2. The typical speed·ti!ne curve for electric trains, operating on passenger services, consists ofthe following
five parts :
(i) Constant acceleration period, (ii) Acceleration on speed curve,
(iii) Free--ronning period, (iv) Coasting, and,
(v) Braking.
8. Coefficum t of adlu!sion is defined as the ratio of tractive effort to slip the wheels and adhesive weight.
4. Tractive effort CF,) for propulsion of train,
F, = (277.8 a M~ ± 98 MG + Mr) newton
=
where, a Linear acceleration,
=
M Dead or stationary mass,
M =Effective mass (about 8 to 15% more than M)
•
G = Percent gradient, and
r =Specific resistance of the train.
5. The •specific energy output" is the energy output of the driving wheel expressed in watt-hour (Wh) per
tonne-km (t-km) (i.e., Whit.km).
6. Specific energy output,
2
E
..
=[o.01072 VmD . M, +27.25G D' +0.2778r D']Wblt-km
M D D
where V is in kmlh. D ' and Dare in km and Mand M in tonne.
~
7. Specifi,c enogy consumption,

.
2
E
,..
=[o.01072 v,,. . M, +27.25 G . D' +0.2T78!.. D']Wb/t«:m
l\D M l\ D 1l D
where, 1l = o\rerall efficiency =11_ >e Tl.-

A. Chooee the Correct An.wer :
1. Which of the following is an advantage of electric traction over other methods of traction?
(a) Faster acceleration (b) No pollution problems
(c) Better braking action {d) All of the above.
z. Which of the following is the voltage for single phase A.C. system ?
(a) 22 V (b} «O V (c) 6 kV (d) 16 kV
{e) None of the above.
3. Long distance railways use which of the following ?
(a) 200 V D.C. (b) 25 kV single phase AC.
(c} 25 kV two phase AC. (d) 25 kV three phase AC.
(a) flywheel (b) gear box
(c) applying brakes (d) regulating steam tlow to engine.
(a) electric locomotives (b) diesel engine locomotives
(c) steam engine locomotives (d) diesel electric locomotives
(e) an of the above.
6. In India diesel locomotives are manufactured at
(a) .t\jmer (b) Varanasi (c) Bangalore (cl) Jamalpur.
7. For diesel locomotive the range ofhoniepower is
(a) 50 to 200 • (b) 600 to 1000 (c) ll>OO to 2500 (cl) 3000 to 5000.
Copynghted mate11al
TRAIN MOVEMENT AND ENERGY CQNSUMPTION 515

(a) overcome the gravity component of train mass (b) overcome friction,.windage and curve resistance
(c) accelerate the train mass (d) do all of the above.
28. For given maximum axle load tractive efforts of A.C. locomotive will be
{a) less than that ofD.C. locomotive (b) more than that ofD.C. locomotive
(c) equal to that ofD.C. locomotive (d) none of the above.
29. Co-efficient of adhesion reduces due to the presence of which of the following?
(a) Sand on rails (b) Dew on rails (c) Oil on the rails (d) both (b) and (c).
SO. Due to which of the following co-efficient of adhesion improves ?
(a) Rust on the rails Cb) Dust on the rails (c) Sand on the rails (d) All of the above.
81. Quadrilateral speed-time curve pertains to which of the following services ?
(a) Main line service (b) Urban service
(c) Sub-urban service (d) Urban and sub-urban service.
32. Which of the following is the disadvantage of electric traction over other systems of traction ?
(a) Corrosion problems in the underground pipe work
(b) Short time power failure interrupts traffic for hours
(c) High capital outlay in fixed installations beside route limitation
(e) All of the above.
SS. Co-efficient of adhesion is
(a) high in case of D.C. traction than in the case of A.C. traction
(b) low in case of D.C. traction than in the c!se of A.C. traction
(c) equal in both A.C. and D.C. traction
(d) any of the above.
84. Speed-time curve of main line service difl'ers from those of urban and sub-urban services on following
account
(a) it has longer free nmning perioc;I (b) it has longer coasting period
(c) accelerating and braking periods are comparatively smaller
Cd) all of the above.
86. The rate of acceleration on sub-urban or urban services is restricted by the consideration of
(a) engine power (b) track curves
(c) passanger discomfort (d) track size.
86. The specific energy consumption of a train depends on which of the following ?
(a) Acceleration and retardation (b) Gradient
(c) Distance covered (d) All of the above.
..
(a) I/speed (b) l/{speed)2 (c) speed (cl) none of the above.
(a) speed (b) (speed)2 (c) (speed)3 (d) l/speed.
(a) 0.12 (b) 0.25 (c) 0.40 (d) 0.75.
(a) Jolting and skidding (b) Hammer blow (c) Pitching (d) All of the above.
41. Which of the following braking systems is used on steam locomotives ?
(a) Hydraulic system (b) Pn.e umatic system (c) Vacuum system (cl) None of the above.
(a) Vacuum PW'l,lP (b) ~ector (c) Any of the above (d) None of the above.
CopynghtocJ matenaJ
516 UTILISATION OF ELECTRICAL POW BR
43. The reaiatancc encountered by a train in motion is on account. or

(o) rcaitt4.nce offered by air (b) friction at. the tnaclt
(c) rrictton at vario1.11 pllrU o! the rolling stock or
(d ) all the above.
.U. Battmy operated trucb are used in
(a) at.Ml mill.a (b ) power .station.
(c) narrow puge traction Cd ) facton~ for material tnmsport&tion.
46. ...... method can bring the locomotive to dead stop.
(a) PlQGing braking (b) Rhooatallc bra.king
(c) Regenerative braking (d) None of the above.
46. Tho valu e or co-efficient of adhesion will be high when roils are
(a) greased (b) wet (c) •prayed with oil Cd) cleaned with •and.
'"· 'nie volt.age used foT •uburban trains in D.C. system ia wunlly
(a) 12 V Cb) 24 V (c) 220 V (d) 600 to 750 v.
48. For three-pbue induction mot.ors which of the followinr ia the Icut efficient method ofspeed control ?
Ca ) Cascade control (b) Pole changing
(c) Rhooat.otic control (d) Combination or ca.acode and pole chnngiog.
49. Specific onorgy conaumption becomes
(a) more on ateeper grad.Jent (b) more with high t rain reaistance
(c) lea If di.stance bet.ween s lops is more (d) all of lhe above
50. In main line service u compared to urban and suburban service
(a ) distance betwCC!n the 1topa ia moro (b) maximum speed reached ia hifh
(c) occclorntion ond retardation rat.es are low (d) all or the above.
en. Locomot.ivo boving monomot.or bogies
(a) hu bctlm" co-ellicient o! adhesion
Cb) are auited both foT paM&nger as well u freight ervice
(c} hu belt.er ridi4( qualit.ics due t.o the reduction of lateraJ forcca
(d) hoa all above qualitie!JI.
52. Series mot« is not suited for traction daty duo to which oft.he following account. ?
(a) Leu CUrTent drain an the heavy load torque
(b) Current aurges alt.er temporary switdllng off supply
(c) Self' relieving property
(d) Commut.atina property at heavy load.
GS. When a bocio nerotintcs a curve, reduction in adheaion occura reaulting in sliding. Thua sliding i.s acute
when
(a) wheel b4ee of axles ia mor o (b) decrco of curvature ia more
(a) both (a) nod Cb) (d) none of the obovo.
G4. Enorgy conaumption in propelling \he train i8 required for which of the following ?
(a) Work against. the re!list.ance to motion
Cb) Work against gravity while moving up the gradient
(c) AeceJeration
Cd) All of the above.
55. An ideal traction ayat.em shoald have ...... .
(a) euy speed control (b) high starting tnctiva effort
(c) equipment capable o(with standing large temporary loads
(d) an or the above.
58. . ..... have maximum unbalana!d f<>n:e!J
(a) Diesel s hunt.ens (b) Steam locomotives {c) Eled.ric locomotives {d) Diesel locomotives.

MCQ Bank

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

MCQ Bank

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Tariffs and Economic Considerations 2007

(i) the kVA rating of the capacitor bank,

4. Mark the WRONG statement. 11. Diversity factor is always

(a) sinking fund depreaciation (c) Foam type fire extinguisher

(c) To provide requisit starting torque to (b) least load

(b) power is generated through hydroelectric used as fuel in case of

IMPORTANT MCQ- HEATING AND WELDING

Utilization of Electrical Energy MCQ PDF 2

2) In gas cutting, if too little cutting oxygen is supplied

1. the metal will be cooled down

1. extremely slow cutting speed

1. tip too close to the cut surface

1. too slow cutting speed

1. thickness of metal to be cut

7) Which of the following types is not fillet weld

9) Which material is not used for making non-consumable electrodes

10) Which of the following is an example of plastic welding

11) Which of the following is not a type of arc welding

12) Which of the following is an example of fusion welding

14) In which of the following process, heat is created by blacksmith fire

15) Heat is created by chemical reaction in

1. Tungsten arc welding

16) In resistance welding, two electrodes are made of

17) Acetylene can be prepared by the chemical reaction between

1. Hydrogen and Calcium carbide

18) Which flame is suitable for cutting operations

19) Which flame is suitable for welding steel

20) Which of the following is not true for gas welding

1. There are safety problems in storing and handling the gases

2) The advantage of rectifier type welding set is

a. Reduced no - load losses

b. Easy arc starting

d. Both (a) and (b)

ANSWER: Both (a) and (b)

3) The voltage - current characteristics of the arc welding must be

4) Spot welding is used to weld metal pieces whose thickness

a. Should be greater than 12 mm

5) The electrodes used for projection welding are

a. Flat and smaller in diameter

b. Flat and larger in diameter

Sensitivity: Internal & Restricted

d. Round and larger in diameter

ANSWER: Flat and larger in diameter

7) Seam welding is not used for the

c. Welding in air crafts

d. Welding alloys of copper

ANSWER: Welding alloys of copper

b. The erection of the overhead network is complicated

c. Its height cannot be varied

Sensitivity: Internal & Restricted

c. Improves power factor

ANSWER: All of these

a. The adhesive weight

b. Friction between the driving wheel and the track

c. Both (a) and (b)

d. Neither (a) nor (b)

ANSWER: Both (a) and (b)

ANSWER: 277.8 WA newtons

b. Through the gear wheel

c. Through the road wheel

d. Through the motor armature

ANSWER: Through the gear wheel

Sensitivity: Internal & Restricted