Biology Achievement Test

CONSTRUCTION AND VALIDATION OF BIOLOGY ASSESSMENT TEST (BAT)
FOR JUNIOR HIGH SCHOOL STUDENTS
Christopher A. Malay1, Jose Noel V. Fabia2, and Eduardo P. Santillan, Jr.3

1Lyceum of the Philippines University, Gen. Trias City, Cavite, Philippines
2 De La Salle-College of St. Benilde, Taft Avenue, Manila, Philippines
3Holy Angel University, Angeles City, Pampanga, Philippines
ABSTRACT
This test development project aims to develop and validate an achievement test in
Biology designed for junior high school completers. Test items were pooled from the Biology
lessons that include: animal parts and function, inheritance and variation, biodiversity and
evolution, and ecosystems. After preparing a table of specification (TOS), the researchers were
able to prepare and subject to validation a 102- item multiple choice type of examination. After
the initial validation, the test had 88 items which were pilot tested among 172 grade 11
students in a private school. After the pilot testing, the researcher did item analysis which
classified 67 items as “average,” 21 items as “hard, no item as ”easy,” 10 items as “very good”,
12 items as “good," 19 items as “fair," and 47 items as “poor." Consistency and reliability were
done using Kuder-Richardson (KR) 20. A total of 22 items were retained based on validation
and item analysis. Three items that were considered “fair” and with “marginal” difficulty
index were revised to produce a 25-item final version of Biology Achievement Test.
INTRODUCTION
Biology is a broad field of knowledge that requires inside and outside classroom
environment to acquire. On the other hand, it is one of the subjects that are least preferred
by high school students (Kubiatko, Torkar, & Rovnanova, 2017). Furthermore, some topics
in biology were found boring by the students such as the systems, tissues, and power
transformation (Derman, 2017). However, biology has been providing essential innovations
into human lives through the studies of its branches microbiology; biotechnology; molecular
biology; genetics and many more (Köksal & Yaman, 2013). Hence, biology is undeniably part
of the progress of the quality of life, making it one of the essential subjects in basic education.
In the Philippines, the shift of the curriculum to K to 12 is one of the most significant
challenges in the field of education (Casina, 2018; Hernando-Malipot, 2018a; Luci-Atienza,
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2019). The curriculum shows excellent potential for the graduates (Hernando-Malipot, 2018b;
Hernando-Malipot, 2018c). The K to 12 Science curriculum is anchored on learner-centered
and inquiry-based approaches. It aims to equip learners with competencies necessary for
employment and future higher education. Furthermore, this provides learners with a full
range of understanding about society. It also follows a spiral approach from grades 3 to 10.
Each grade level is divided into four main domains such as Matter; Living things and their
environment; Force, motion and Energy; and Earth and space (DepEd, 2016). Living things
and their environment are where the life sciences and Biology are integrated.
In addition, the K to 12 Science curriculum is viewed as a setting preparing students’

aptitudes (Cabansag, 2014). The shift from the common traditional science education to
spiral approach is one of the key features of the K to 12 science curriculum. Learners
recognize this shift in Science education as it positively influences their acquisition of Science
concepts, skills, and attitudes (Montebon, 2015). Moreover, learning Science specifically
Biology requires more than a shift in pedagogical models. Still, classroom conditions,
teacher's role and learners themselves are parts of the learning process. Thus, aside from the
improvement of the teaching and learning process, assessment of learning should also be
considered (Utari & Djukri, 2017).
One of the fundamental measures of students learning is through assessment. A

functional assessment is not just part of the teaching practice but also a piece of evidence
that allows educators to appraise student’s learning progress (Edwards, 2013). One
assessment that can be used by teachers in evaluating student’s learning progress is the use
of an achievement test. An achievement test is related to learners’ academic growth and
advancement (Singh & Dhananjai Yadav, 2018). Therefore, the construction and the
validation of an achievement test give a clear picture of student’s performance specifically in
Biology subject in K to 12 curriculum. With this end in mind, the researchers aim to develop
an achievement test on topics in grades 7 to 10 or junior high school. The focus of this test
development is to measure the level of achievement of junior high school about concepts as
indicated in the competencies in living thing and their environment. The development of the
achievement test is an attempt to provide a clear picture of student’s accomplishments,
especially in the subject Biology.
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METHODOLOGY
The entire process of constructing the Biology Achievement Test (BAT) includes (a)
preparation, (b) development of the BAT and (c) validation.
Preparation
The K to 12 Basic Education Curriculum Guide in Science (DepEd, 2016) was used as
the main guide in considering the scope of the achievement test. Two reference materials
from grades 7 to 10 were also used as a source of questions. These books were developed and
are being used in private schools. No reference materials published before 2017 were used in
the study.
Development of BAT
Based on the curriculum guide set by the Department of Education the Biology part
of spiral Science includes the following components: animal parts and function, inheritance
and variation, biodiversity and evolution, and ecosystems. Given the broad scope of the
curriculum guide, the researchers developed a table of specification or TOS (Appendix 3) for
10 questions on each component of each year level. Each item was given four choices only.
Validation
The validation of the test material was done by four seasoned junior high school
Science teachers. The validators evaluated the content and construction of each question.
The researchers requested the validators to mark items as acceptable or not. Items that were
marked “acceptable” by at least two validators were retained. Suggestions like changing the
options, the format of the stem, and the arrangement of options were also considered. After
revision, the researchers administered the test to grade 11 students from a private school.
These grade 11 students were enrolled in Technology, Vocational, and Livelihood Track,
Science and Technology Engineering and Mathematics Strand, Accountancy and Business
Management Track and General Academic Strand during the school year 2018 to 2019.
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Item analysis, particularly Difficulty index (DI), and Index of Discrimination (ID), was
done using the method developed by Arevalo and Ignacio (2018). Internal reliability was done
using Kuder-Richardson formula 20 (KR20) in Microsoft Excel. Items that had 0.30 or better
ID were retained while those with 0.29 or lower ID were either revised or rejected.
RESULTS AND DISCUSSION
Experts’ evaluation
Four evaluators were tasked to evaluate the 102-item multiple choice test (Appendix
1). Three of the four evaluators are master’s degree holders and teaching Science subjects in
senior high school during the time of the study while the other one is was in thesis proposal
phase. Face validation was done by checking the test construction, grammar, options given
and even length of the questions.
From the 102 items, 88 were retained after a round of validation from the evaluators.
Some items were deleted due to broad scope, ambiguous stem, repeated concepts, and items
that were deemed very easy. After revision, the researchers administered the 88-item exam
(Appendix 1) to 172 grade 11 students in a private school in Pampanga.
Test administration and checking

The examination was administered per class. The proctor explained the general
instructions though a pre-examination orientation which included directors on how to
answer, the time required to finish the examination, and most importantly the nature of the
examination (Figure 1). The examination was answered by shading the letter that
corresponds to the right answer. Changing of the answer was discouraged since the answer
sheet was machine checked, specifically by an optical media reader (OMR).
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Figure 1. Pre-exam orientation conducted by one of the researchers.
Item analysis
The researchers did item analysis using a spreadsheet developed by Arevalo and
Ignacio (2018). Item analysis for the 88-item biology achievement test (BAT) included index
of difficulty (ID) and Discrimination index (DI). Both indices served as the basis for rejecting,
revising, or accepting the item for the BAT (Appendix Table 2).
Item difficulty was computed using the responses of the upper and lower 27% of the
total takers of the exam (N=172). Ninety-two, 46 in the upper and 46 from the lower class,
were considered in computing for the item analysis. The more students who gave correct
response on an item, the less difficult that item was. Items with ID of 0.25-0.75 were
considered average or moderately difficult items while those with above 0.756 to 1.0 and
below 0.25 were deemed too easy or too difficult, respectively (Keley, 1939).
Table 1 shows the summary of ID of BAT. Majority of the items, 67 out of 88 had an
ID between 0.25 and 0.75, were considered average. Twenty-one were considered difficult.
No items were considered easy. Items that were considered easy often discriminate poorly
unlike difficult test items that were considered good discriminators (Hingorjo & Jaleel, 2012).
5
Table1. Summary of the index of difficulty (ID)
INDEX OF FREQUENCY ITEM NO. INTERPRETATION
DIFFICULTY
Above 0.75 0 --- Easy
Between 0.25 67 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 12, 14, Average

and 0.75 17, 18, 19, 21, 22, 23, 24, 25, 27,
28, 29, 30, 31, 33, 34, , 37, 38, 40,
42, 43, 45, 46, 47, 48, 49, 50, 53,
55, 56, 57, 58, 59, 60, 63, 64, 65,
66, 67, 68, 69, 70, 71, 72, 74, 75,
76, 77, 78, 79, 81, 82, 83, 84, 85,
88
Below 0.25 21 11, 13, 15, 16, 20, 26, 32, 35, 36, Hard
39, 41, 44, 51, 52, 54, 61, 62, 73,
80, 86, 87,
Table 2. Summary of Discrimination index (DI)

DISCRIMINATION FREQUENCY ITEM NO. INTERPRETATION
INDEX
0.40 -0.90 10 18, 42, 65, 66, 71, 75, 76, 83, Very good items
84
0.30 – 0.39 12 8, 24, 31, 33, 37, 50, 55, 59, Good items
70, 72, 78, 82
0.20 – 0.29 19 12, 17, 19, 28, 29, 35, 45, 46, Fair items
47, 48, 49, 62, 69, 74, 77, 79,
81, 85, 88
0.19 and below 47 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 9, 10, 11, 13, Poor items

14, 15, 16, 20, 21, 22, 23, 25,
26, 27, 30, 32, 34, 36, 38, 39,
40, 41, 43, 44, 51, 52, 53, 54,
56, 57, 58, 60, 61, 63, 64, 67,
73, 80, 86, 87
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On Table 2, DI shows 47 items that were regarded as poor items. Sharma (2018)
reported that items with 0.30 – 0.39 DI have less or no revision required while items with DI
of 0.40 – 0.90 is satisfactory. In total, 22 items were initially considered for the final version
of the BAT.
Reliability
Internal consistency and reliability were measured using Kuder-Richardson (KR) 20.
This reliability test measures the inter-item consistency (Patock, 2004). It is based on
assumed test items which are equal or closely related (Sarmah & Hazarika, 2012). The KR
20 was computed using the proportion of correct answers and wrong answers and the
variance of wrong scores.
The mean score from 172 students was 32.06 with a standard deviation of 7.26
(Appendix Table 3). Computing the KR20 reliability of the 88-item BAT, the researcher was
able to deduce the KR20 to 0.65. The ideal value for KR20 is 1.00 while the acceptable range
is 0.60 or higher (Zimmaro, 2016). Thus, the BAT shows acceptable reliability in terms of
KR20.
Final Version of BAT
The final version of the BAT is composed of 22 items that were deemed acceptable
based on item analysis (Table 3). Three more items were reconsidered to complete a total of
25-item Biology achievement test for junior high school.
Table 3. Item analysis of the final version of Biology achievement test (BAT)
ITEM NO. QUESTION ID DI
8 Which describes a population? 0.47 0.35
18 Which of the following happen after mitosis? 0.52 0.46
24 Which correctly describes hepatitis? 0.49 0.31
31 What is the primary function of blood? 0.65 0.33
7
33 What are the tiny sacs in the lungs through which the 0.41 0.35
exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide takes place?
37 Thyroxine is to thyroid, while insulin is to __________. 0.45 0.40
42 What do you call the highly condensed form of DNA? 0.48 0.50
50 Which of the following branches of science deals with the 0.43 0.35
study of genes and how the traits are passed through from
one generation to another?
55 A homozygous red-flowered plant was crossed with a 0.36 0.35

homozygous white-flowered plant and resulted in an
offspring with red flowers. Which of the following pattern
of inheritance is illustrated?
59 The strand is chemically a(n) ___________. 0.41 0.35
65 Which is true about mutations in DNA? 0.45 0.44
66 These organisms are genetically altered to produce 0.45 0.48

bigger, better and more nutritious products.
68 Which of the following basis is used in classifying 0.54 0.54

organisms?
70 What refers to specialist organisms that feed on resources 0.47 0.31

from hosts?
71 What fishing practice that drives fishes out of the coral 0.43 0.48
reef due to the pounding of the corals using heavy objects
such as stones?
72 The breakdown of glucose to produce energy results to 0.42 0.33

the following waste(s):
75 An endangered species is a(n) ____________. 0.61 0.48
76 When the same species or different species are after for 0.56 0.46
the same resource such as food and space ________ may
result.
78 Which among the ecological relationships is considered 0.44 0.38
neutral?
82 If there are 24 pyruvic acids after glycolysis, how many 0.53 0.31
glucose molecules were broken down?
83 Planktons are the food producers of the sea while rice 0.45 0.44
plants are food producers on land. What characteristics
are common to planktons and rice plants that enable them
to carry out photosynthesis?
8
84 Evolution is evidenced by the following EXCEPT 0.42 0.42
17* An organism’s scientific name is composed of 0.44 0.29

____________ and ___________.
69* What process describes the conversion of carbon dioxide 0.44 0.29
and water to energy in the form of glucose?
81* Which BEST describes an autotroph? 0.38 0.29

ID- Index of difficulty; DI=Discrimination index
* reconsidered item
CONCLUSION
This test development project aimed to develop and validate an achievement test in
Biology (BAT). The test was designed to assess the achievement of junior high school
completers, the Grade 11 senior high school, in Biology concepts. The BAT possesses
reliability of 0.65 based on KR20. In the Philippine setting, the implementation of a new
curriculum is challenging for teachers. The effectivity of the new curriculum depends on
explorations through experiments. Thus, the development of a valid and reliable examination
is one of the main goals in describing the effects of the curriculum to the students.
RECOMMENDATION
The results suggest that there is a need for the BAT to be validated by more experts
who have higher educational attainment and richer experience in teaching Biology and to
revalidate the BAT with more respondents, from both public and private schools, and more
locales. Another round of validation will improve the content of BAT specifically on concepts
and the alignment of the items with the required competencies by the Department of Biology
for senior high schools.
References:
Arevalo, I. J. M., & Ignacio, M. M. (2018). Twenty first century skills and science achievement
of grade 10 students : a causal – comparative study, 6(1), 7–13.
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Journal, 5(2), 29–39.
Casina, J. A. (2018). ‘Quality education assured with SC ruling on K to 12’ » Manila Bulletin
News.
DepEd. (2016). K to 12 Curriculum Guide, (August).
Derman, M. (2017). Biology education research in Turkey: Trends from 1989 to 2015. Journal
of Turkish Science Education, 14(1), 89–109. https://doi.org/10.12973/tused.10192a
Edwards, F. (2013). Quality assessment by science teachers : Five focus areas, 24(2), 212–
226.
Hernando-Malipot, M. (2018a). 24% of PH companies willing to hire graduates of K to 12 »
Manila Bulletin News.
Hernando-Malipot, M. (2018b). Success in international competitions proves strength of K to
12 program » Manila Bulletin News.
Hernando-Malipot, M. (2018c). Teachers’ groups welcome K to 12 review, seek reforms »
Manila Bulletin News.
Hingorjo, M. R., & Jaleel, F. (2012). Analysis of one-best MCQs: The difficulty index,
discrimination index and distractor efficiency. Journal of the Pakistan Medical
Association, 62(2), 142–147.
Keley, T. L. (1939). The selection of upper and lower groups. Journal of Educational
Psychology, 30, 17–24.
Köksal, M. S., & Yaman, S. (2013). DEVELOPMENT OF “TASK VALUE” INSTRUMENT
FOR BIOLOGY AS A SCHOOL SUBJECT. Acta Didactica Napocensia, 6(2), 4227.
Kubiatko, M., Torkar, G., & Rovnanova, L. (2017). The Teacher as One of the Factors
Influencing Students ’ Perception of Biology as a School Subject Učitelji _ ce kot en od
vplivnih dejavnikov učenčeve _ kine percepcije predmeta biologija, 7, 127–140.
Luci-Atienza, C. (2019). DepEd asked to report to Congress status of K to 12 program
implementation » Manila Bulletin News.
Patock, J. (2004). Exam Scores: How to interpret your statistical analysis reports.
Sarmah, H. K., & Hazarika, B. B. (2012). Determination of Reliability and Validity measures
of a questionnaire. Indian Journal of Education and Information Management, 5(11),
508–517.
Sharma, H. L. (2018). Construction and standardization of an achievement test in Science
Construction and standardization of an achievement test in Science. International
Journal of Research and Analytical Reviews, 5(3), 1037–1043.
Singh, A., & Dhananjai Yadav. (2018). Construction and Standardization of Achievement
Test in Biology. International Journal of Research in Social Sciences, 8(3), 18–27.
Utari, S., & Djukri. (2017). Biology Learning Evaluation Model in Senior High Schools.
Jurnal Penelitian Dan Evaluasi Pendidikan, 21(1), 65–79. Retrieved from
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http://journal.uny.ac.id/index.php/jpep
Zimmaro, D. (2016). Writing Good Multiple-Choice Exams Table of Contents, (512).
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Appendix 1. Initial version of Biology Achievement Test (BAT)
BIOLOGY ACHIEVEMENT TEST FOR JUNIOR HIGH SCHOOL

Directions: The examination covers topics in the junior high school Science with a
concentration in Biology. It aims to measure your achievement in Biology. You will be given
60 minutes to complete the test. Carefully read each item. Choose the best answer and
indicate it by shading the choice that represents your answer in your answer sheet. Your
score will be the number of the questions answered correctly. Be sure to answer every item.
MICROSCOPY, CELLS AND BIOLOGICAL ORGANIZATION

1. Which part of the microscope holds the eyepiece or ocular?
A. Pillar
B. Stage
C. Body tube
D. Revolving nosepiece
2. What thin piece of thin glass is put on top of the specimen when viewed under the
microscope?
A. Slide
B. Mirror
C. Coverslip
D. Diaphragm
3. Which of the following is NOT used to illuminate and/or magnify an object using
microscopy?
A. Mirror
B. Condenser
C. Diaphragm
D. Dust shield
4. When focusing on an image, which of the objectives gives the highest magnification?
A. LPO
B. HPO
C. OIO
D. None of the above
5. If the magnification of the ocular is 10x and the objective is 40x, which is the total
magnification?
A. 4x
B. 40x
C. 400x
D. 4000x
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6. Which is the incorrect sequence of the biological organization of life?
A. Cell – organ – tissue – organ system – organism
B. Organ – tissue – cell - organ system – organism
C. Organism - cell – organ – tissue – organ system
D. Tissue – organism - cell – organ –– organ system
7. Which of the following is a tissue?

A. Blood
B. Egg
C. Neuron
D. Sperm
8. Which of the following is an example of community?

A. Biosphere
B. Forest soil
C. Termite gut
D. Tidal pool
9. Which of the following describes a population?

A. Population refers to both dead and alive.
B. Species that can use energy and produces wastes.
C. Different species that inhabits a biological region.
D. Same species that are capable of interbreeding and live in a specific
place.
10. What is the difference between the cell division of a plant cell and of an animal cell?
A. Plant cells do not undergo mitosis while animal cells do.
B. Animal cells divide once while plant cells divide twice.
C. Plant cells do not replicate DNA while animal cells do.
D. Plant cells form a cell plate during cytokinesis while animal cells
form a cleavage
furrow.
11. Which is the correct sequence of mitosis?

A. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
B. interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
C. interphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase
D. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, cytokinesis
12. Which BEST describes meiosis?

A. Meiosis is the first stage of mitosis.
B. Meiosis happens in all tissues except the brain and spinal cord.
C. Meiosis is carried out in all tissues that require cell replacement.
D. Meiosis occurs only in cells in the reproductive structures of the
organism.
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13. Figure 1 shows homologous chromosomes during prophase I of meiosis. Which
describes the process being illustrated?
Figure 1
A. Segregation of sister chromatids.
B. Condensation and segregation of alleles.
C. Crossing-over in which alleles are exchanged.
D. Mutation in which the DNA content of the gene is altered.
14. What is the nuclear material present during interphase?

A. centromere
B. chromatids
C. chromatin
D. chromosomes
15. What phase in mitosis is where chromosomes line up along the middle plane of the
dividing cell?
A. anaphase
B. metaphase
C. prophase
D. telophase
16. What stage of mitosis is depicted by the image below?
Figure 2
A. metaphase
B. prophase
C. anaphase
D. telophase
17. A cell with a normal number of 24 chromosomes undergoes meiosis. How many
chromosomes are present in each daughter cell?
A. 48
B. 24
C. 12
D. 50
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18. What composed an organism’s scientific name?
A. family and species
B. genus and species
C. class and family
D. phylum and order
19. Which of the following happens after mitosis?

A. The volume of cell decreases.
B. Cell’s genetic material changes.
C. Each daughter cell receives its copy of the parent cell's DNA.
D. It becomes more difficult for the cell to get enough oxygen and nutrients.
ORGAN SYSTEMS
20. What is the process of taking food in the mouth?
A. absorption
B. assimilation
C. excretion
D. ingestion
21. What is complex carbohydrates broken down into in a chemical digestion which
starts when amylase from the saliva?
A. amino acids
B. lipids
C. nucleic acid
D. simple sugar
22. What aids the movement of food from the mouth to the digestive tract?
A. Ascending colon
B. Heartbeat
C. Peristalsis
D. Sphincter muscle
23. Which of the following pairs is INCORRECT?

A. Villi – water
B. Bile – lipids
C. Insulin – glucose
D. Pepsin – proteins
24. Where is colon cancer is most likely to occur?

A. Appendix
B. Gall bladder
C. Large intestine
D. Small intestine
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25. Which correctly describes hepatitis?
A. It is the frequent passing of watery stool.
B. It is the infection of the veins of the rectum.
C. It is an inflammation of the liver caused by viruses.
D. It is the hormonal imbalance in the production of insulin.
26. Which is NOT an element of carbohydrates?

A. carbon
B. hydrogen
C. nitrogen
D. oxygen
27. What macromolecule contains 1:1:1 ratio of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen?
A. carbohydrates
B. lipids
C. nucleic acid
D. protein
28. Where does absorption of fats, carbohydrates, and proteins happen?

A. esophagus
B. large intestine
C. small intestine
D. stomach
29. Which of the following foods is NOT a source of antioxidants?

A. banana
B. cucumber
C. pumpkin
D. wheat
30. A man who is blood type AB marries a woman who is heterozygous blood type B. What
blood type is impossible to occur among their offsprings?
A. A
B. B
C. O
D. AB
31. Which type of blood vessels carries blood away from the heart?
A. Veins
B. Arteries
C. Capillaries
D. All the above
32. What is the primary function of blood?

A. Digest food and break it down to be used as energy
B. Carry oxygen, nutrients, and wastes and fight disease
C. Carry messages to parts of cells to tell them how to develop
D. Carry signals through all the body to direct body movement
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33. Which does NOT happen during inhalation?
A. Air moves into the lungs.
B. The ribs move upward and outward.
C. The diaphragm moves up.
D. The pressure in the lungs decreases.
34. What are the tiny sacs in the lungs through which the exchange of oxygen and carbon
dioxide takes place called?
A. Alveoli
B. Breathing
C. Bronchi
D. Cilia
35. Which of the following does NOT belong to the group?

A. Bulbourethral gland
B. Cervix
C. Endometrium
D. Uterus
36. Which of the following is NOT a function of the central nervous system?
A. speech
B. cognitive thinking
C. interpreting sensations
D. responding to emergencies
37. Which is the correct statement about the interconnection of the nervous system and
endocrine system?
A. The brain controls the endocrine system through the thyroid gland.
B. The hypothalamus releases hormones directly to the bloodstream to directly
control the glands in the body.
C. The hypothalamus serves as the control center of the pituitary gland
then to the other glands in the body.
D. All the above
38. Which of the following completes the analogy “thyroxine is to thyroid; insulin is to
__________”?
A. liver
B. ovaries
C. pancreas
D. testes
39. Which of the following is NOT a function of the thyroid gland?

A. Regulating body metabolism
B. Control of growth of the body
C. Maintaining normal blood pressure
D. Controls the body’s response to stress
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40. Evaluate the following statements:
I. Progesterone is responsible for secondary sex characteristics
II. Estrogen is essential for the development of the egg and ovum in the
ovaries
III. Progesterone prepares the uterine wall in preparation for pregnancy.
IV. Estrogen promotes the growth of the follicle and stimulates the
thickening of the uterine wall.
A. Statements I and II are correct
B. Statements I, II, and III are correct
C. Statements II, III, and IV are correct
D. All statements are correct
41. What will happen when the estrogen and progesterone level becomes low during the
first days of the menstrual cycle?
A. The ovulation starts.
B. The ovary produces estrogen and progesterone.
C. The pituitary gland produces luteinizing hormones
D. The pituitary gland produces stimulating follicle hormone.
42. How does the nervous system maintain homeostasis?

A. The nervous system prevents the body from the changes caused by the
environment
B. The nervous system controls the other parts of the body to respond to
the changes externally and internally.
C. The nervous system fortifies the different parts of the body to resist the
changes externally and internally.
D. All the above
GENETICS
43. Which of the pairs below are involved in cell division?
A. Nucleus and cell wall
B. Cell wall and ribosome
C. Nucleus and cytoplasm
D. Ribosome and cytoplasm
44. Which is a highly condensed form of DNA?

A. Acrosome
B. Chromatin
C. Nucleosome
D. Chromosome
45. Which pulls the chromosomes apart during mitosis?

A. Kinetochore
B. Centromere
C. Microtubules
D. Spindle fibers
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46. Which of the following do germ cells NOT include?
A. Egg cells
B. Pollen
C. Sperm cells
D. Stem cells
47. Which of the following shows the correct sequence of mitosis?

A. Telophase – prophase – metaphase – anaphase
B. Anaphase – metaphase – prophase – telophase
C. Prophase – metaphase – anaphase – telophase
D. Metaphase – telophase – anaphase – prophase
48. Which is the correct paring of mature gametes?

A. Spermatids – oogonia
B. Spermatocytes – oocyte
C. Spermatozoa – ovum
49. Based on chromosome number, cells after mitosis are ____________.

A. Diploid
B. Haploid
C. Tetraploid
D. Triploid
50. After meiosis, how many chromosomes will a cell with 16 chromosomes have?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 24
D. 32
51. Which refers to the combination of the gene is a result of mating between a
homozygous dominant and a homozygous recessive pair?
A. Chimera
B. Heterozygous
C. Parthenocarpy
D. All the above
52. Who is considered the father of genetics?

A. Barbara McClintock
B. Gregor Mendel
C. James Watson
D. Reginal Punnett
53. Which of the following branches of science deals with the study of genes and how the
traits are passed through from one generation to another?
A. Genealogy
B. Genetics
C. Heredity
D. Zoology
19
54. Two pink-flowering plants are crossed. The offspring flower are as follows: 25% red,
25% white, and 50% pink. What pattern of inheritance does flower color in these
flowers follow?
A. Dominance
B. Multiple alleles
C. Incomplete Dominance
D. Recessiveness
55. Which statement does BEST describe Mendel’s Law of segregation, as applied to the
behavior of chromosomes in meiosis?
A. Genes on the same chromosomes will show 50% recombination.
B. Alleles of a gene will be linked and pass on together through the division stage.
C. The pairing of homologs will convert one allele into the other, leading to
separation of the types.
D. Alleles of a gene separate from each other when homologs separate
during the reduction stage.
56. Which of the following completes the statement “If a homozygous tall pea plant and
homozygous short pea plant are crossed _____________”?
A. all the offspring are short
B. no hybrids are produced
C. the offspring is medium height
D. the recessive trait seems to disappear
57. In dogs, short hair (H) is dominant over long hair (h). Two short- haired dogs are the
parents of four puppies. All the puppies have short hair except for one. What are the
genotypes of the parents?
A. Hh and Hh
B. hh and hh
C. HH and Hh
D. HH and hh
58. A homozygous red-flowered plant was crossed with a homozygous white-flowered plant
and resulted in an offspring with red flowers. Which of the following patterns of
inheritance is illustrated?
A. Codominance
B. Dominance
C. Incomplete dominance
D. Multiple allele
59. Which parental pair will produce female with colorblindness?

A. Mother with colorblindness, normal-vision father
B. Heterozygous normal vision mother, normal vision father
C. Homozygous normal vision mother, a father with colorblindness
D. Heterozygous normal vision mother, a father with colorblindness
20
60. Which of the nitrogenous bases is NOT found in the tRNA?
A. Cytosine
B. Guanine
C. Thymine
D. Uracil
61. The first step in making a protein is ____________.

A. DNA replication
B. Transcription
C. Translation
For numbers 62-65: given the sequence of a molecule, TAC CTG AAG ATC answer the
following items.
62. The strand is chemically __.
A. a DNA
B. a protein
C. a plasmid
D. an mRNA
63. If the given strand is replicated, which of the following sequence is the
complementary strand?
A. ATG GAC TTC TAG
B. AUG GAC UUC UAG
C. TAC CTG AAG ATC
D. UAC CUG AAG AUC
64. If transcribed as mRNA, what will be the sequence?

A. ATG GAC TTC TAG
B. AUG GAC UUC UAG
C. TAC CTG AAG ATC
D. UAC CUG AAG AUC
65. If the mRNA is transcribed to tRNA the sequence will be _____________.

A. ATG GAC TTC TAG
B. AUG GAC UUC UAG
C. TAC CTG AAG ATC
D. UAC CUG AAG AUC
66. The product of the complete process of DNA from replication to translation is __.
A. Lipid
B. Proteins
C. Amino acids
D. Carbohydrates
21
67. When one or more nucleotides are inserted during DNA replication, a ________
occurs.
A. Point mutation
B. Single base pair substitution
C. Frameshift mutation by deletion
D. Frameshift mutation by insertion
68. Which is true about mutations in DNA?

A. Mutations occurring in the DNA is carried in the RNA
B. Mutant DNA can code for a different protein.
C. DNA mutations are caused by mutagens.
D. All the above
69. These organisms are genetically altered to produce bigger, better and more nutritious
products.
A. Bt corn
B. GMO
C. Mutagens
D. PCR
ECOSYSTEM AND BIODIVERSITY

70. Which hierarchical order is the highest?
A. Class
B. Domain
C. Kingdom
D. Order
71. When species run out of individuals of mating pair that, species is ________.
A. a threatened species
B. candidate for extinction
C. critically endangered
D. vulnerable
72. On which of the following similarities is the classification of organisms based?

A. Biochemical
B. Molecular
C. Structural
D. All the above
73. When an introduced species overcome a local species, the former is said to be
____________.
A. invasive
B. successor
C. aggressive
D. apex predator
22
74. What process describes the conversion of carbon dioxide and water to energy in the
form of glucose?
A. Citric acid cycle
B. Hydrolysis
C. Photosynthesis
D. Respiration
75. What describes an intricate and complex feeding flowchart of different species?
A. Food chain
B. Food pyramid
C. Food web
D. Trophic level
76. What are specialist organisms that feed on resources from hosts?
A. Carnivores
B. Commensals
C. Parasites
D. Producers
77. Which refers to a fishing practice that drives fishes out of the coral reef due to the
pounding of the corals using heavy objects such as stones?
A. Muro-ami
B. Cyanide fishing
C. Fine net fishing
D. Dynamite fishing
78. Which of the following is the result of thebreakdown of glucose to produce energy?
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Water
C. Both a and b
D. None of a and b
79. Which of the following importance of biodiversity is aesthetics in perspective?

A. Allows people to enjoy nature
B. The buffer of extreme climatic events
C. Sources of food and industrial products
D. Sources of drugs and pharmaceutical products
80. Who coined the term biodiversity in 1985?

A. Charles Darwin
B. Charles Lylle
C. John Baptiste de Lamarck
D. Thomas E. Lovejoy
81. Which of the following is an anthropogenic cause of extinction?

A. Exploitation
B. Climate change
C. Volcanic eruptions
D. Meteor and asteroid hitting the earth
23
82. An endangered species is a(n) _____________________________.
A. species in danger of extinction
B. species growing on public land
C. species that has disappeared entirely
D. organism brought to a place where it has not lived before
83. Which of the following is NOT considered a biotic component of the ecosystem?
A. Consumers
B. Decomposers
C. Producers
D. Temperature
84. When the same species or different species are after for the same resource such as
food and space ________ may result.
A. Amensalism
B. Competition
C. Herbivory
D. Predation
85. Which does NOT belong to the group?

A. Head louse
B. Hookworm
C. Mosquito
D. Tick
86. Which among the ecological relationships is considered neutral?

A. Amensalism
B. Commensalism
C. Herbivory
D. Predation
87. What biological process produces O2 from converting carbon dioxide and water to
glucose?
A. Oxygenation
B. Photosynthesis
C. Respiration
D. Water cycle
88. Which of the following is an autotroph?

A. Algae
B. Amoeba
C. E.coli
89. What are fungi and bacteria feeding on decaying or rotting organic material called?
A. Decomposers
B. Saprophytes
C. Consumers
D. Biomes
24
90. Which is NOT considered a biome?
A. Deserts
B. Forests
C. Taigas
D. Zoos
91. Which BEST describes an autotroph?

A. Autotrophs are organisms that obtain energy by eating only plants.
B. Autotrophs are organisms that rely on other organisms for their energy and
food supply.
C. Autotrophs are organisms that consume plants and animal remains and other
dead matter.
D. Autotrophs are organisms that use the energy they take in from the
environment to convert inorganic molecules into complex organic
molecules.
92. In a typical plant, which is NOT a factor necessary for photosynthesis?

A. Chlorophyll
B. Light
C. Oxygen gas
D. Water
93. If there are 24 pyruvic acids after glycolysis, how many glucose molecules were
broken down?
A. 8
B. 12
C. 24
D. 48
94. Planktons are the food producers of the sea while rice plants are food producers on
land. What characteristics are common to planktons and rice plants that enable them
to carry out photosynthesis?
A. They give off oxygen.
B. They can live in water.
C. They both contain chlorophyll.
D. They are capable of producing carbon dioxide.
95. What is a scientist that studies the remains of organisms such as fossil records and
petrified samples called?
A. Evolutionary scientists
B. Fossil researchers
C. Geologists
D. Paleontologists
25
96. Which is NOT an evidence of evolution?
A. Variation
B. Fossil records
C. Comparative anatomy
D. None mentioned above
97. Which of the the following concepts does NOT refer to adaptation?
A. Species can tolerate environmental conditions of a place
B. Adaptations may be structures, behavior, physiological change, etc.
C. Those that are not adapted will migrate or otherwise perish or becomes
extinct.
D. Populations tend to increase dramatically while resources remain
constant pushing species to compete.
98. When an organism evolves to a more intricate, distinct and unique from its previous
state the species is said to have undergone _____________.
A. Development
B. Evolution
C. Maturity
D. Speciation
99. Which refers to areas thriving with species richness?

A. Hotspot
B. Succession
C. Survivorship
D. Reproductive success
100. Which of the following is an example of natural selection?

A. Long-necked giraffe survived compared to a short-necked giraffe.
B. You are applying fertilizers to improve crop production.
C. They are crossbreeding red roses with white roses.
D. None mentioned
101. Which refers to the species that are native and exclusive only to a specific
region or area?
A. Alien species
B. Apex predators
C. Invasive species
D. Endemic species
102. Which human activities significantly affect coastal resources?

A. Poor boating and recreational activities management
B. Overharvesting of mangroves
C. Coastal development
D. All the above
26
Appendix 2. Revised version of the Biology Achievement Test (BAT)

1. Which part of the microscope holds the eye piece or ocular?

A. Pillar
B. Stage
C. Body tube
D. Revolving nosepiece
2. What thin piece of thin glass is put on top of the specimen when viewed under the
microscope?
A. Slide
B. Mirror
C. Cover slip
D. Diaphragm
3. The following is used to illuminate and/or magnify an object during microscopy

EXCEPT:
A. Mirror
B. Condenser
C. Diaphragm
D. Dust shield
4. If the magnification of the ocular is 10x and the objective is 40x, the total magnification is
A. 4x
B. 40x
C. 400x
D. 4000x
5. Which is the incorrect sequence of the biological organization of life?

A. Cell – organ – tissue – organ system – organism
B. Organ – tissue – cell - organ system – organism
C. Organism - cell – organ – tissue – organ system
D. Tissue – organism - cell – organ –– organ system
27
6. Which of the following is a tissue?
A. Blood
B. Egg
C. Neuron
D. Sperm
7. The following is an example of community EXCEPT

A. Biosphere
B. Forest soil
C. Termite gut
D. Tidal pool
8. Which describes a population?

D. Same species that are capable of interbreeding and live in a specific place.
9. What is the difference between the cell division a plant cell from an animal cell?
A. Plant cells do not undergo mitosis while animal cells do.
B. Animal cells divide once while plant cells divide twice.
C. Plant cells do not replicate DNA while animal cells do.
D. Plant cells form a cell plate during cytokinesis while animal cells form a
cleavage furrow.
10. Which is the correct sequence of mitosis?

A. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
B. interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
C. interphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase
D. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, cytokinesis
11. Which BEST describes meiosis?

A. Meiosis is the first stage of mitosis.
B. Meiosis happens in all tissues except the brain and spinal cord.
C. Meiosis is carried out in all tissues that require cell replacement.
D. Meiosis occurs only in cells in the reproductive structures of the organism.
28
12. Figure 1 shows homologous chromosomes during prophase I of meiosis. Which describes
the process being illustrated?
Figure 1
A. segregation of sister chromatids.

B. condensation and segregation of alleles.
C. crossing-over in which alleles are exchanged.
D. mutation in which the DNA content of the gene is altered.
13. What is the nuclear material present during interphase?

A. centromere
B. chromatids
C. chromatin
D. chromosomes
14. What phase in mitosis were chromosomes line up along the middle plane of the dividing
cell?
A. Anaphase
B. Metaphase
C. Prophase
D. Telophase
15. What stage of mitosis is depicted by the image below?
Figure 2
A. Metaphase
B. Prophase
C. Anaphase
D. Telophase
29
16. A cell with a normal number of 24 chromosomes undergoes meiosis. How many
chromosomes are present in each daughter cell?
A. 48
B. 24
C. 12
D. 50
17. An organism’s scientific name is composed of ____________ and ___________.

A. Family and species
B. Genus and species
C. class and family
D. Phylum and order
18. Which of the following happen after mitosis?

C. Each daughter cell receives its own copy of the parent cell's DNA.
19. What is the process of taking food in the mouth?

A. Absorption
B. Assimilation
C. Excretion
D. Ingestion
20. Chemical digestion starts when amylase from the saliva breaks down complex
carbohydrates to ____________.
A. Amino acids
B. Lipids
C. Nucleic acid
D. Simple sugar
21. The movement of food from mouth to the digestive tract is aided by ___________.
A. Ascending colon
B. Heartbeat
C. Peristalsis
D. Sphincter muscle
22. Which of the following pairs are INCORRECT?

A. Villi – water
B. Bile – lipids
C. Insulin – glucose
D. Pepsin – proteins
30
23. Colon cancer is more likely to occur in the ________________.
A. Appendix
B. Gall bladder
C. Large intestine
D. Small intestine

25. Carbohydrates are made up of three elements EXCEPT for

A. Carbon
B. Hydrogen
C. Nitrogen
D. Oxygen
26. What macromolecule contains 1:1:1 ratio of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen?
A. Carbohydrates
B. Lipids
C. Nucleic acid
D. Protein
27. Absorption of fats, carbohydrates, and proteins happen in

A. Esophagus
B. Large intestine
C. Small intestine
D. Stomach
28. The following foods are sources of antioxidants EXCEPT for?

A. Banana
B. Cucumber
C. Pumpkin
D. Wheat
29. A man who is blood type AB marries a woman who is heterozygous blood type B. What
blood type is impossible to occur among their offspring?
A. A
B. B
C. O
D. AB
31
30. Which type of blood vessels carries blood away from the heart?
A. Veins
B. Arteries
C. Capillaries
D. All the above
31. What is the main function of blood?

D. Carry messages through all the body to direct body movement
32. Which DOES NOT happen during inhalation?

A. Air moves into the lungs.
B. The ribs move upward and outward.
C. The diaphragm moves up.
D. The pressure in the lungs decrease.
dioxide takes place?
A. Alveoli
B. Breathing
C. Bronchi
D. Cilia
34. Which of DOES NOT belong to the group?

A. Bulbourethral gland
B. Cervix
C. Endometrium
D. Uterus
35. The following are functions of the central nervous system (CNS), EXCEPT
A. speech
B. cognitive thinking
C. interpreting sensations
D. responding to emergencies
36. Which is the correct statement about the interconnection of nervous system and endocrine
system?
A. The brain controls the endocrine system through the thyroid gland.
B. The hypothalamus releases hormones directly to the bloodstream to directly control
the glands in the body.
C. The hypothalamus serves as the control center of the pituitary gland then to the
other glands in the body.
D. All the above
32
37. Thyroxine is to thyroid, while insulin is to __________.
A. liver
B. ovaries
C. pancreas
D. testes
38. The following are the functions of the thyroid gland, EXCEPT
A. Regulating body metabolism
B. Control of growth of the body
C. Maintaining normal blood pressure
D. Controls the body’s response to stress
39. Evaluate the following statements:

V. Progesterone is responsible for the secondary sex characteristics
VI. Estrogen is important for the development of the egg and ovum in the ovaries
VII. Progesterone prepare the uterine wall in preparation for pregnancy.
VIII. Estrogen promotes the growth of the follicle and stimulates the thickening of
uterine wall.
A. Statements I and II are correct
B. Statements I, II, and III are correct
C. Statements II, III, and IV are correct
D. All statements are correct
40. What will happen when the estrogen and progesterone level become low during the first
days of menstrual cycle?
A. The ovulation starts.
B. The ovary produces estrogen and progesterone.
C. The pituitary gland produces luteinizing hormones
D. The pituitary gland produces follicle stimulating hormone.
41. How does the nervous system maintain homeostasis?

A. The nervous system releases hormones to regulate the activity of the organs.
B. The nervous system prevents the body from the changes caused by the
environment
C. The nervous system fortifies the different parts of the body to resist the changes
externally and internally.
D. The nervous system controls the other parts of the body to respond to the changes
externally and internally.
42. What do you call the highly condensed form of DNA?

A. Acrosome
B. Chromatin
C. Nucleosome
D. Chromosome
33
43. What structure pulls the chromosomes apart during mitosis?
A. Kinetochore
B. Centromere
C. Microtubules
D. Spindle fibers
44. Which of the following is NOT an example of germ cell?

A. Egg cells
B. Pollen
C. Sperm cells
D. Stem cells
45. Which of the following shows the correct sequence of mitosis?

A. Telophase – prophase – metaphase – anaphase
B. Anaphase – metaphase – prophase – telophase
C. Prophase – metaphase – anaphase – telophase
D. Metaphase – telophase – anaphase – prophase
46. Which is the correct paring of mature gametes?

A. Spermatids – oogonia
B. Spermatocytes – oocyte
C. Spermatozoa – ovum
D. Sperm – polar body
47. Based on chromosome number, cells after mitosis are ____________.

A. Diploid
B. Haploid
C. Tetraploid
D. Triploid
48. How many chromosomes are left when a cell with 16 chromosome undergoes meiosis?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 24
D. 32
49. This combination of gene is a result of mating between a homozygous dominant and a
homozygous recessive pair.
A. Chimera
B. Heterozygous
C. Mosaic
D. Parthenocarpy
34
50. Which of the following branches of science deals with the study of genes and how the traits
are passed through from one generation to another?
A. Genealogy
B. Genetics
C. Heredity
D. Zoology
51. Two pink-flowering plants are crossed. The offspring flower as follows: 25% red, 25%
white, and 50% pink. What pattern of inheritance does flower color in these flowers follow?
A. Dominance
B. Multiple alleles
C. Incomplete Dominance
D. Recessiveness
52. Which statement BEST describes Mendel’s Law of segregation, as applied to the behavior
of chromosomes in meiosis?
A. Genes on the same chromosomes will show 50% recombination.
B. Alleles of a gene will be linked and passes on together through division stage.
C. Pairing of homologs will convert one allele into the other, leading to separation of the
types.
D. Alleles of a gene separate from each other when homologs separate during
reduction stage.
53. If a homozygous tall pea plant and homozygous short pea plant are crossed _____________.
A. all the offspring are short
B. no hybrids are produced
C. the offspring is medium height
D. the recessive trait seems to disappear
54. In dogs, short hair (S) is dominant over long hair (s). Two short- haired dogs are the parents
of four puppies. All the puppies have short hair except for one. What are the genotypes of
the parents?
A. Ss and Ss
B. ss and ss
C. SS and Ss
D. SS and ss
and resulted in an offspring with red flowers. Which of the following pattern of inheritance
is illustrated?
A. Codominance
B. Dominance
D. Multiple allele
35
56. Which parental pair will produce female with colorblindness?
A. Mother with colorblindness, normal-vision father
B. Heterozygous normal vision mother, normal vision father
C. Homozygous normal vision mother, father with colorblindness
D. Heterozygous normal vision mother, father with colorblindness
57. Which of the nitrogenous bases is not found in the tRNA?

A. Cytosine
B. Guanine
C. Thymine
D. Uracil
58. The first step in making a protein is ____________.

A. DNA replication
B. Insertion
C. Transcription
D. Translation
For numbers 62-65: given the sequence of a molecule, TAC CTG AAG ATC answer the
following items.
59. The strand is chemically a(n) ___________.
A. DNA
B. Protein
C. Plasmid
D. mRNA
60. If the given strand is replicated, which of the following sequence is the complementary
strand?
A. ATG GAC TTC TAG
B. AUG GAC UUC UAG
C. TAC CTG AAG ATC
D. UAC CUG AAG AUC
61. If transcribed as mRNA, what will be the sequence?

A. ATG GAC TTC TAG
B. AUG GAC UUC UAG
C. TAC CTG AAG ATC
D. UAC CUG AAG AUC
62. If the mRNA is transcribed to tRNA the sequence will be _____________.

A. ATG GAC TTC TAG
B. AUG GAC UUC UAG
C. TAC CTG AAG ATC
D. UAC CUG AAG AUC
36
63. What is the product of the complete process of DNA from replication to translation?
A. Lipid
B. Proteins
C. Amino acids
D. Carbohydrates
64. When one or more nucleotides are inserted during DNA replication a ________ occurs.
A. Point mutation
B. Single base pair substitution
C. Frameshift mutation by deletion
D. Frameshift mutation by insertion

A. Mutations in the DNA is carried in the RNA
D. All the above
products.
A. Bt corn
B. GMO
C. Mutagens
D. PCR
67. When species ran out of individuals of mating pair that, species is ________.
A. a threatened species
B. candidate for extinction
C. critically endangered
D. vulnerable
68. Which of the following basis is used in classifying organisms?

A. Biochemical
B. Molecular
C. Structural
D. All the above
69. What process describes the conversion of carbon dioxide and water to energy in a form of
glucose?
B. Hydrolysis
C. Photosynthesis
D. Respiration
37
70. What refers to specialist organisms that feed on resources from hosts?
A. Carnivores
B. Commensals
C. Parasites
D. Producers
71. What fishing practice that drive fishes out of the coral reef due to pounding of the corals
using heavy objects such as stones?
A. Muro-ami
B. Cyanide fishing
C. Fine net fishing
D. Dynamite fishing
72. The breakdown of glucose to produce energy results to the following waste(s):
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Water
C. Both a and b
D. None of a and b
73. Which of the following importance of biodiversity is aesthetics in perspective?

A. Allows people to enjoy nature
B. Buffer of extreme climactic events
C. Sources of food and industrial products
D. Sources of drugs and pharmaceutical products
74. Which of the following is an anthropogenic cause of extinction?

A. Exploitation
B. Climate change
C. Volcanic eruptions
D. Meteor and asteroid hitting earth
75. An endangered species is a(n) ____________.

76. When same species or different species are after for the same resource such as food and
space ________ may result.
A. Amensalism
B. Competition
C. Herbivory
D. Predation
38
77. Which organism DOES NOT belong to the group?
A. Head louse
B. Hook worm
C. Mosquito
D. Tick

A. Amensalism
B. Commensalism
C. Herbivory
D. Predation
79. What biological process produces O2 from converting carbon dioxide and water to
glucose?
A. Oxygenation
B. Photosynthesis
C. Respiration
D. Water cycle
80. Fungi and bacteria feeds on decaying or rotting organic material hence they are called
A. Decomposers
B. Saprophytes
C. Consumers
D. Biomes

A. Obtain energy by eating only plants.
B. Rely on other organisms for their energy and food supply.
C. Consume plants and animal remains and other dead matter.
D. Use energy they take in from the environment to convert inorganic molecules
into complex organic molecules.
82. If there are 24 pyruvic acids after glycolysis, how many glucose molecules were broken
down?
A. 8
B. 12
C. 24
D. 48
83. Planktons are the food producers of the sea while rice plants are food producers on land.
What characteristics is common to planktons and rice plants that enables them to carry out
photosynthesis?
D. They are capable to produce carbon dioxide.
39
84. Evolution is evidenced by the following EXCEPT
A. Variation
B. Fossil records
85. The following concepts refers to adaptation EXCEPT for:

A. Species can tolerate environmental conditions of a place
B. Adaptations may be structures, behavior, physiological change etc.
C. Those that are not adapted will migrate or otherwise perish or becomes extinct.
D. Populations tend to increase dramatically while resources remain constant
pushing species to compete.
86. When an organism evolves to a more intricate, distinct and unique from its previous state
the species is said to have undergone __________.
A. Development
B. Evolution
C. Maturity
D. Speciation
87. Which of the following is an example of natural selection?

A. Crossbreeding red roses with white roses.
B. Applying fertilizers to improve crop production.
C. Long-necked giraffe survived compared to short-necked giraffe.
D. None mentioned
88. Which human activities greatly affects coastal resources?

A. Poor boating and recreational activities management
B. Overharvesting of mangroves
C. Coastal development
D. All the above
40
Appendix 3. Final version of the Biology Achievement Test (BAT)

1. Which describes a population?

D. Same species that are capable of interbreeding and live in a specific place.
2. An organism’s scientific name is composed of ____________ and ___________.

A. Family and species
B. Genus and species
C. class and family
D. Phylum and order
3. Which of the following happen after mitosis?

C. Each daughter cell receives its own copy of the parent cell's DNA.

5. What is the main function of blood?

D. Carry messages through all the body to direct body movement
41
dioxide takes place?
A. Alveoli
B. Breathing
C. Bronchi
D. Cilia
7. Thyroxine is to thyroid, while insulin is to __________.
A. liver
B. ovaries
C. pancreas
D. testes
8. What do you call the highly condensed form of DNA?

A. Acrosome
B. Chromatin
C. Nucleosome
D. Chromosome
9. Which of the following branches of science deals with the study of genes and how the traits
are passed through from one generation to another?
A. Genealogy
B. Genetics
C. Heredity
D. Zoology
and resulted in an offspring with red flowers. Which of the following pattern of inheritance
is illustrated?
A. Codominance
B. Dominance
D. Multiple allele
11. Given the sequence of a molecule, TAC CTG AAG ATC. The strand is chemically a(n)
___________.
A. DNA
B. Protein
C. Plasmid
D. mRNA

A. Mutations in the DNA is carried in the RNA
D. All the above
42
products.
A. Bt corn
B. GMO
C. Mutagens
D. PCR
14. Which of the following basis is used in classifying organisms?

A. Biochemical
B. Molecular
C. Structural
D. All the above
15. What process describes the conversion of carbon dioxide and water to energy in a form of
glucose?
B. Hydrolysis
C. Photosynthesis
D. Respiration
16. What refers to specialist organisms that feed on resources from hosts?
A. Carnivores
B. Commensals
C. Parasites
D. Producers
17. What fishing practice that drive fishes out of the coral reef due to pounding of the corals
using heavy objects such as stones?
A. Muro-ami
B. Cyanide fishing
C. Fine net fishing
D. Dynamite fishing
18. The breakdown of glucose to produce energy results to the following waste(s):
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Water
C. Both a and b
D. None of a and b
19. An endangered species is a(n) ____________.

43
20. When same species or different species are after for the same resource such as food and
space ________ may result.
A. Amensalism
B. Competition
C. Herbivory
D. Predation

A. Amensalism
B. Commensalism
C. Herbivory
D. Predation

A. Obtain energy by eating only plants.
B. Rely on other organisms for their energy and food supply.
C. Consume plants and animal remains and other dead matter.
D. Use energy they take in from the environment to convert inorganic
molecules into complex organic molecules.
23. If there are 24 pyruvic acids after glycolysis, how many glucose molecules were broken
down?
A. 8
B. 12
C. 24
D. 48
24. Planktons are the food producers of the sea while rice plants are food producers on land.
What characteristics is common to planktons and rice plants that enables them to carry out
photosynthesis?
D. They are capable to produce carbon dioxide.
25. Evolution is evidenced by the following EXCEPT

A. Variation
B. Fossil records
44
Appendix Table 1. Table of specification for Biology Achievement Test (BAT)
Lower level Higher Level No. of
Learning Competencies (Remembering, (Analyzing, Items
Understanding, and Evaluating and
Application) Creating)
1. Identify parts of the microscope
1, & 2 3,4, & 5 5
and their functions.
2. Describe the different levels of
biological organization from 7, & 8 6,9, & 10 5
cell to biosphere.
3. Differentiate biotic from abiotic
components of an ecosystem 83 98 2
4. Predict the effect of changes in

one population on other 86 84,85, & 102 4
populations in the ecosystem
5. Explain ingestion, absorption,
20 21, & 28 3
assimilation, and excretion
6. Identify healthful practices
22, & 26 23, 24,25, 27, & 29 7
that affect the digestive system
7. Compare mitosis and meiosis,
and their role in the cell- 12,13,14, 15,43,45, & 52 11, 16,17,46,47, & 51 13
division cycle
8. Predict phenotypic expressions
of traits following simple 55, & 58 56,57, & 59 5
patterns of inheritance
9. Classify organisms using the
53, & 70 2
hierarchical taxonomic system
10. Describe the transfer of energy 76,88, 89, & 91
through the trophic levels 75 5
11. Explain how the respiratory

and circulatory systems work
together to transport nutrients,
31, & 34 33 3
gases, and other molecules to
and from the different parts of
the body
12. Infer how one’s lifestyle can
affect the functioning of
32, & 78 2
respiratory and circulatory
systems
13. Describe the location of genes
49, & 50 2
in chromosomes
14. Explain the different patterns
30, & 54 2
of non-Mendelian inheritance
45
15. Relate species extinction to the
failure of populations of
organisms to adapt to abrupt 18 19, & 93 3
changes in the environment
16. Relate species extinction to the
failure of populations of
organisms to adapt to abrupt 79,80, & 82 81 4
changes in the environment;
17. Differentiate basic features

and importance of 74 87, & 92 3
photosynthesis and respiration.
18. Describe the parts of the

reproductive system and their 35 48 2
functions
19. Explain the role of hormones
involved in the female and 41 1
male reproductive systems
20. Describe the feedback
mechanisms involved in
38, & 40 2
regulating processes in the
female reproductive system
21. Describe how the nervous
system coordinates and
regulates these feedback 39 36,37, 39, & 42 5
mechanisms to maintain
homeostasis
22. Explain how protein is made
44, 61,62, & 66 60,63,64, & 65 8
using information from DNA
23. Explain how mutations may
cause changes in the structure 67, & 69 68 3
and function of a protein
24. Explain how fossil records,
comparative anatomy, and
72 95 2
genetic information provide
evidence for evolution
25. Explain the occurrence of
98, & 99 96,97, & 100 5
evolution
26. Explain the relationship
between population growth and 71 73,77, & 103 4
carrying capacity
TOTAL 41 61 102
46
Appendix Table 2. Item analysis of biology achievement test (BAT)
Correct Correct difficulty Discrimination Item
Decision
No. Response Answer Index Index Category
1 U 17
0.36 Average -0.02 Poor FAIR REVISE
L 18 C
2 U 18
0.29 Average 0.17 Poor FAIR REVISE
L 10 C
3 U 22
L 13 D
4 U 33
L 24 B
5 U 17
L 20 A
6 U 24
L 15 A
7 U 13
L 7 A
8 U 31
0.47 Average 0.35 Good GOOD ACCEPT
L 14 D
9 U 18
L 14 D
10 U 24
L 15 A
11 U 9
0.20 Difficult -0.02 Poor FAIR REJECT
L 10 D
12 U 25
0.42 Average 0.21 Marginal FAIR REVISE
L 15 C
13 U 7
L 9 C
14 U 25
L 20 B
15 U 11
0.19 Difficult 0.08 Poor FAIR REJECT
L 7 B
16 U 13
L 8 C
17 U 28
L 14 B
18 U 36
0.52 Average 0.46 High GOOD ACCEPT
L 14 C
19 U 31
L 18 D
20 U 10
L 6 D
47
21 U 18
L 15 C
22 U 23
L 14 A
23 U 24
L 15 C
24 U 31
L 16 C
25 U 38
L 33 C
26 U 4
L 14 B
27 U 15
L 9 C
28 U 34
L 22 D
29 U 22
L 12 C
30 U 18
L 9 B
31 U 39
L 23 B
32 U 6
L 12 C
33 U 28
L 11 A
34 U 28
L 20 A
35 U 12
0.15 Difficult 0.21 Marginal FAIR REJECT
L 2 D
36 U 5
L 11 C
37 U 31
L 12 C
38 U 10
L 14 D
39 U 11
L 8 C
40 U 13
L 18 D
41 U 6
L 15 B
42 U 35
L 11 D
43 U 17
L 9 D
48
44 U 14
L 5 D
45 U 27
L 14 C
46 U 30
L 18 C
47 U 22
L 10 A
48 U 24
L 11 A
49 U 29
L 16 B
50 U 29
L 12 B
51 U 7
L 14 C
52 U 11
L 9 D
53 U 14
L 10 D
54 U 11
L 9 A
55 U 26
L 9 B
56 U 16
L 12 D
57 U 20
L 13 C
58 U 15
L 14 A
59 U 28
L 11 A
60 U 22
L 13 A
61 U 9
L 14 B
62 U 15
0.18 Difficult 0.27 Marginal FAIR REJECT
L 2 D
63 U 21
L 13 B
64 U 18
L 13 D
65 U 32
L 11 D
66 U 33
L 10 B
49
67 U 22
L 14 B
68 U 39
L 13 D
69 U 28
L 14 C
70 U 30
L 15 C
71 U 32
L 9 A
72 U 28
L 12 C
73 U 10
L 7 A
74 U 20
L 10 A
75 U 41
L 18 A
76 U 38
L 16 B
77 U 20
L 10 B
78 U 30
L 12 B
79 U 23
L 11 B
80 U 5
L 7 B
81 U 25
L 11 D
82 U 33
L 18 B
83 U 32
L 11 C
84 U 30
L 10 D
85 U 23
L 10 D
86 U 3
0.07 FALSE -0.02 Poor FAIR REVISE
L 4 D
87 U 7
L 4 A
88 U 35 D 0.58 Average 0.29 Marginal FAIR REVISE
50
L 21
Total of Number of
Cases: 172 (27% Upper/Lower = 46) n= 92
51
Appendix Table 3. Mean scores and standard deviation
STUDENT NO. SCORE SCORE-MEAN (SCORE-MEAN)2
1 57 24.94 622.10
2 48 15.94 254.14
3 48 15.94 254.14
4 47 14.94 223.26
5 47 14.94 223.26
6 47 14.94 223.26
7 48 15.94 254.14
8 47 14.94 223.26
9 45 12.94 167.49
10 45 12.94 167.49
11 45 12.94 167.49
12 43 10.94 119.72
13 44 11.94 142.61
14 43 10.94 119.72
15 43 10.94 119.72
16 43 10.94 119.72
17 43 10.94 119.72
18 43 10.94 119.72
19 41 8.94 79.96
20 41 8.94 79.96
21 42 9.94 98.84
22 41 8.94 79.96
23 41 8.94 79.96
24 39 6.94 48.19
25 40 7.94 63.07
26 40 7.94 63.07
27 40 7.94 63.07
28 39 6.94 48.19
29 38 5.94 35.31
30 39 6.94 48.19
31 39 6.94 48.19
32 39 6.94 48.19
33 39 6.94 48.19
34 38 5.94 35.31
35 38 5.94 35.31
36 38 5.94 35.31
37 38 5.94 35.31
38 37 4.94 24.42
39 37 4.94 24.42
40 37 4.94 24.42
41 37 4.94 24.42
52
42 37 4.94 24.42
43 37 4.94 24.42
44 37 4.94 24.42
45 37 4.94 24.42
46 36 3.94 15.54
47 36 3.94 15.54
48 36 3.94 15.54
49 36 3.94 15.54
50 36 3.94 15.54
51 36 3.94 15.54
52 36 3.94 15.54
53 35 2.94 8.65
54 35 2.94 8.65
55 35 2.94 8.65
56 35 2.94 8.65
57 34 1.94 3.77
58 34 1.94 3.77
59 34 1.94 3.77
60 34 1.94 3.77
61 34 1.94 3.77
62 34 1.94 3.77
63 34 1.94 3.77
64 33 0.94 0.89
65 33 0.94 0.89
66 33 0.94 0.89
67 33 0.94 0.89
68 33 0.94 0.89
69 33 0.94 0.89
70 33 0.94 0.89
71 33 0.94 0.89
72 33 0.94 0.89
73 33 0.94 0.89
74 33 0.94 0.89
75 33 0.94 0.89
76 32 -0.06 0.00
77 32 -0.06 0.00
78 32 -0.06 0.00
79 32 -0.06 0.00
80 32 -0.06 0.00
81 32 -0.06 0.00
82 32 -0.06 0.00
83 32 -0.06 0.00
84 31 -1.06 1.12
53
85 31 -1.06 1.12
86 31 -1.06 1.12
87 31 -1.06 1.12
88 31 -1.06 1.12
89 31 -1.06 1.12
90 31 -1.06 1.12
91 31 -1.06 1.12
92 31 -1.06 1.12
93 31 -1.06 1.12
94 31 -1.06 1.12
95 31 -1.06 1.12
96 31 -1.06 1.12
97 31 -1.06 1.12
98 30 -2.06 4.24
99 30 -2.06 4.24
100 30 -2.06 4.24
101 30 -2.06 4.24
102 30 -2.06 4.24
103 30 -2.06 4.24
104 30 -2.06 4.24
105 30 -2.06 4.24
106 30 -2.06 4.24
107 29 -3.06 9.35
108 29 -3.06 9.35
109 29 -3.06 9.35
110 29 -3.06 9.35
111 29 -3.06 9.35
112 29 -3.06 9.35
113 29 -3.06 9.35
114 29 -3.06 9.35
115 28 -4.06 16.47
116 28 -4.06 16.47
117 28 -4.06 16.47
118 28 -4.06 16.47
119 28 -4.06 16.47
120 28 -4.06 16.47
121 28 -4.06 16.47
122 28 -4.06 16.47
123 28 -4.06 16.47
124 28 -4.06 16.47
125 28 -4.06 16.47
126 28 -4.06 16.47
127 28 -4.06 16.47
54
128 27 -5.06 25.58
129 27 -5.06 25.58
130 27 -5.06 25.58
131 27 -5.06 25.58
132 27 -5.06 25.58
133 26 -6.06 36.70
134 26 -6.06 36.70
135 26 -6.06 36.70
136 26 -6.06 36.70
137 26 -6.06 36.70
138 26 -6.06 36.70
139 26 -6.06 36.70
140 26 -6.06 36.70
141 26 -6.06 36.70
142 25 -7.06 49.82
143 25 -7.06 49.82
144 25 -7.06 49.82
145 25 -7.06 49.82
146 25 -7.06 49.82
147 25 -7.06 49.82
148 25 -7.06 49.82
149 25 -7.06 49.82
150 24 -8.06 64.93
151 24 -8.06 64.93
152 24 -8.06 64.93
153 24 -8.06 64.93
154 24 -8.06 64.93
155 24 -8.06 64.93
156 23 -9.06 82.05
157 23 -9.06 82.05
158 23 -9.06 82.05
159 23 -9.06 82.05
160 23 -9.06 82.05
161 22 -10.06 101.17
162 22 -10.06 101.17
163 21 -11.06 122.28
164 21 -11.06 122.28
165 20 -12.06 145.40
166 20 -12.06 145.40
167 19 -13.06 170.52
168 19 -13.06 170.52
169 18 -14.06 197.63
170 17 -15.06 226.75
55
171 17 -15.06 226.75
172 16 -16.06 257.86
Σ=5514 Σ=9077.4186
mean=32.05814
SD=7.2646879
σ2 =52.77569
56
Appendix Table 4. Kuder-Richardson (KR) 20 Reliability.
ITEM NUMBER OF CORRECT PROPORTION IN PROPORTION
NO. RESPONSE PASSED (P) IN FAILED (F) PQ
1 60 0.35 0.65 0.23
2 55 0.32 0.68 0.22
3 54 0.31 0.69 0.22
4 119 0.69 0.31 0.21
5 67 0.39 0.61 0.24
6 71 0.41 0.59 0.24
7 44 0.26 0.74 0.19
8 88 0.51 0.49 0.25
9 52 0.30 0.70 0.21
10 67 0.39 0.61 0.24
11 43 0.25 0.75 0.19
12 66 0.38 0.62 0.24
13 29 0.17 0.83 0.14
14 69 0.40 0.60 0.24
15 37 0.22 0.78 0.17
16 37 0.22 0.78 0.17
17 88 0.51 0.49 0.25
18 97 0.56 0.44 0.25
19 98 0.57 0.43 0.25
20 30 0.17 0.83 0.14
21 64 0.37 0.63 0.23
22 63 0.37 0.63 0.23
23 58 0.34 0.66 0.22
24 87 0.51 0.49 0.25
25 133 0.77 0.23 0.18
26 27 0.16 0.84 0.13
27 42 0.24 0.76 0.18
28 100 0.58 0.42 0.24
29 61 0.35 0.65 0.23
30 48 0.28 0.72 0.20
31 110 0.64 0.36 0.23
32 27 0.16 0.84 0.13
33 65 0.38 0.62 0.24
34 87 0.51 0.49 0.25
35 37 0.22 0.78 0.17
36 29 0.17 0.83 0.14
37 84 0.49 0.51 0.25
38 56 0.33 0.67 0.22
39 34 0.20 0.80 0.16
40 53 0.31 0.69 0.21
41 37 0.22 0.78 0.17
42 86 0.50 0.50 0.25
43 52 0.30 0.70 0.21
44 42 0.24 0.76 0.18
57
45 75 0.44 0.56 0.25
46 88 0.51 0.49 0.25
47 75 0.44 0.56 0.25
48 75 0.44 0.56 0.25
49 96 0.56 0.44 0.25
50 77 0.45 0.55 0.25
51 34 0.20 0.80 0.16
52 43 0.25 0.75 0.19
53 35 0.20 0.80 0.16
54 38 0.22 0.78 0.17
55 71 0.41 0.59 0.24
56 45 0.26 0.74 0.19
57 62 0.36 0.64 0.23
58 51 0.30 0.70 0.21
59 78 0.45 0.55 0.25
60 57 0.33 0.67 0.22
61 46 0.27 0.73 0.20
62 28 0.16 0.84 0.14
63 61 0.35 0.65 0.23
64 59 0.34 0.66 0.23
65 82 0.48 0.52 0.25
66 78 0.45 0.55 0.25
67 59 0.34 0.66 0.23
68 90 0.52 0.48 0.25
69 75 0.44 0.56 0.25
70 84 0.49 0.51 0.25
71 68 0.40 0.60 0.24
72 77 0.45 0.55 0.25
73 33 0.19 0.81 0.16
74 50 0.29 0.71 0.21
75 95 0.55 0.45 0.25
76 83 0.48 0.52 0.25
77 50 0.29 0.71 0.21
78 74 0.43 0.57 0.25
79 56 0.33 0.67 0.22
80 22 0.13 0.87 0.11
81 65 0.38 0.62 0.24
82 73 0.42 0.58 0.24
83 71 0.41 0.59 0.24
84 70 0.41 0.59 0.24
85 52 0.30 0.70 0.21
86 20 0.12 0.88 0.10
87 40 0.23 0.77 0.18
88 100 0.58 0.42 0.24
K=88
n= 172
58
Σpq =18.77
σ2 = 52. 78
KR20 = 0.65
59
ALTERNATIVE ASSESSMENT PROJECT
60
ALTERNATIVE ASSESSMENT PROJECT
This course is designed to enhance the understanding of the principles and concepts
in the study of Biology, particularly life processes at the cellular and molecular level, the
transformation of energy, heredity, and variation, diversity of living organisms, and the
structures, functions, and evolution. These can be achieved within 40 instructional hours.
The following performance-based instruction aims to achieve the following performance

standards(Department of Education, 2016b, 2016a):
1. Construct a 3D model of the stages of meiosis using recyclable materials.

2. Make a pedigree analysis of the learner`s family using a simple genetic trait and to
make a diagram (e.g., pictogram, poster) showing the evolution of a domesticated crop.
3. Develop a presentation (e.g., role-playing, dramatization and other forms of
multimedia) to show how an organism maintains homeostasis through the interaction
of the various organ systems in the body.
4. Prepare simple fermentation set-up using common fruits to produce any fermented
product via microorganism
PERFORMANCE 1: 3D MODEL OF THE STAGES OF MEIOSIS
The students on their own and in the long run will be able to create an advocacy
campaign on the effects of the genetic variations/mutations in humans that will raise
awareness on how to deal with them.
“The United Nations is celebrating its International Day of Persons with Disabilities
(IDPD) every year. The observance of the Day aims to promote an understanding of
disability issues and mobilize support for the dignity, rights, and well-being of persons
with disabilities. It also seeks to increase awareness of gains to be derived from the
integration of persons with disabilities in every aspect of political, social, economic, and
cultural life.
The head of the United Nations Organization – Philippines decided to spearhead an

event for the people with special needs. The focus of the IDPD activity is about genetic
disorders and diseases.
You and your group were asked to create an advocacy campaign of the genetic diseases
and disorders which would help the community to understand and support the people with
special needs.
Create an advocacy campaign material on genetic disease and your product will be
evaluated using the following criteria.”
61
Rubrics
Indicators Exceeds Meets Marginally Does not SCORE

Expectation Expectation meets meet
4 3 Expectation Expectation
(10 points) (7 points) 2 1
(5 points) (2 points)
Full and Partially and Partially and Fails to
effectively effectively ineffectively connect to the
captures the vital include related to the topic. Have a
information essential topic but it is too little or
about the topic information. general, or it is nothing to do
and increase the Readers may incomplete. with the main
Content
readers' need more Readers need issue.
and
understanding. information to more Few facts and
Scientific
All facts and understand information to information
Accuracy
information fully. understand. presented were
presented are Many facts and Some facts and accurate and
correct and information information correct.
accurate. presented are presented are
correct and accurate and
accurate. correct.
Relevance/
Relatable The campaign The campaign The campaign The campaign
material material material material did
presented an presented a presented a not present a
explicit and precise fairly precise precise
precise connection on connection on connection on
connection on genetic diseases genetic diseases genetic
genetic diseases and disorders and disorders diseases and
and disorders which would which would disorders
which would help help the help the which would
the community to community to community to help the
understand and understand and understand and community to
support the support the support the understand
people with people with people with and support
special needs. special needs. special needs. the people with
special needs.
Impact The campaign The campaign The campaign The campaign

material is material is material left a material was
consequently compelling and fair amount of not interesting.
62
compelling and left a good interest to the
left a significant amount of audience.
amount of interest to the
interest to the audience.
audience.
Medium
The medium of The medium of The medium of The medium of
the campaign the campaign the campaign the campaign
material was material was material was material was
innovative and attractive. fairly attractive. not attractive.
attractive.
GRAND
TOTAL
PERFORMANCE 2: PEDIGREE ANALYSIS
The learners on their own and in the long run will be able to create an educational
material that shows the different physical, and behavioral adaptations of species which they
may develop to survive given a particular environmental condition such as global warming
and climate change over a long period.
“The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) hosted by UNESCO partnered with

Holy Angel University (HAU) to spearhead a project which promotes conservation of biological
diversity: genetic resources, species, and ecosystems. Being the first University in the country
to initiate such an environmental movement, HAU declared September as Environmental
Awareness Month. The first year of implementation has the theme, "Greening Minds, Saving
the Future." As part of the University`s celebration month, you are tasked to create an
educational material that shows the different physical, and behavioral adaptations of species
may develop to survive given a certain environmental condition such as global warming and
climate change over a long time. Your work will be exhibited as one of the green practices of
the University. Your work is going to be evaluated based on its content, relevance, use of cost-
effective materials, and medium.”
First things first,

• The educational material must contain the learners' GRADE, SECTION, and GROUP
NUMBER only.
• Each group must pass the rubric which is supplied by the needed information about
the group such as the group number, names, grade, and section.
• The project must be submitted on ________________.
63
• Late submission can only obtain the marginal score specified on the rubric.
Rubrics
Exceeds Meets Marginally Does not meet
Expectation Expectation meets Expectation
Indicators 4 3 Expectation 1 SCORE
(10 points) (7 points) 2 (2 points)
(5 points)
The hypothesis The hypothesis The hypothesis The educational
of the of the of the material did not
educational educational educational state any
material is clear, material is clear material is hypothesis.
Hypothesis
concise, and concise. stated.
engaging and
thought-
provoking.
The introduction The introduction The introduction The introduction
provides provides provides inadequately
accurate and accurate background provides
informative background information information
background information about the chosen about the chosen
Introduction information about the chosen species` physical species` physical
about the chosen species` physical and behavioral and behavioral
species` physical and behavioral adaptations. adaptations.
and behavioral adaptations.
adaptations.
The content The content The content The content does

links students` links students` somehow links not link
clear and logical understanding of students` students`
understanding of the concept of understanding of understanding of
the concept of genetic the concept of the concept of
genetic inheritance, genetic genetic
inheritance, protein inheritance, inheritance,
protein synthesis, and protein protein
synthesis, and mechanisms, synthesis, and synthesis, and
Content mechanisms, evidence, and mechanisms, mechanisms,
evidence, and theories of evidence, and evidence, and
theories of evolution. It is theories of theories of
evolution. It is supported by a evolution. It is evolution. It is
well-founded by few related barely supported not supported by
64
a good number of works of by related any related
related literature. literature. literature.
literature.
The conclusion is The conclusion is The conclusion is
The conclusion
logical and congruent to the somehow does not show
congruent to the hypothesis of the congruent to the
any congruence
Conclusion hypothesis of the educational hypothesis of the
to the hypothesis
educational material. educational of the
material. material. educational
material.
The presentation The presentation The presentation The presentation
of ideas is of ideas is of ideas is of ideas shows
organized, organized, organized, no evidence of
coherent, structured, structured and structure or
Presentation relevant, and logical and well- logical. organization.
of Ideas accurate to each developed.
other. The ideas
are logical,
structured and
well-developed.
GRAND
TOTAL
PERFORMANCE 3: ROLE-PLAYING, DRAMATIZATION AND OTHER FORMS OF

MULTIMEDIA TO SHOW HOW AN ORGANISM MAINTAINS HOMEOSTASIS
The learners on their own and in the long run will be able to produce a creative
presentation to promote a healthy lifestyle for human, animals or plants in the context of
proper coordination of different organ systems in the body.
“It's the first month of the year, and it is already time for new year's resolution. As
the new year begins, Holy Angel University's Guidance Office and Medical Clinic co-headed
the annual "OPLAN NEW ME" where students are asked to plan their new year's resolution
for the promotion of Angelite core values. You are an advocate of health, and you want other
students to include to their resolution their willingness to become healthier as well as taking
care of other organisms. In this regard, you are tasked to produce a creative presentation to
promote a healthy lifestyle for humans, animals or plants in the context of proper
coordination of different organ systems in the body. Your presentation should help other
students to give thoughts on their health and care for other organisms and include in their
resolution. Your work is going to be evaluated with its content, relevance, impact, and
medium.”
65
Rubrics
Indicators 4 3 Expectation 1 SCORE
(5 points)
The campaign The campaign The campaign The campaign

material material material material
provided an provided an provided a quite provided an
engaging and accurate accurate inaccurate
accurate background of background of background of
background of the topic about the topic about the topic about
Background
the topic about the different the different the different
of the topic
the different organ systems organ systems organ systems
organ systems and how they and how they and how they
and how they work together to work together to work together to
work together to promote promote promote
promote homeostasis. homeostasis. homeostasis.
homeostasis.

material material material material did not
presented an presented a presented a present a precise
explicit and precise fairly precise connection on
Relevance precise connection on connection on the maintenance
connection on the maintenance the maintenance of body
the maintenance of body of body homeostasis.
of body homeostasis. homeostasis.
homeostasis.

material is material is material left a material was not
consequently compelling and fair amount of interesting.
compelling and left the right interest to the
Impact
left a great amount of audience.
amount of interest to the
interest to the audience.
audience.
66
The medium of The medium of The medium of The medium of
the campaign the campaign the campaign the campaign
Medium material was material was material was material was not
innovative and attractive. fairly attractive. attractive.
attractive.
GRAND
TOTAL
PERFORMANCE 4: FERMENTED PRODUCTS
Learners on their own and in the long run will be able to use their understanding of
cellular respiration to produce any fermented product that can be used to advocate
sustainable local livelihood practices.
"The Department of Food and Industry (DTI) in cooperation with the Food and Drugs
Administration (FDA) currently embarks on a joint project that aims to involve local
communities to consider alternative livelihood opportunities by utilizing their local plants and
resources. The first stage of the project involves key areas in Region III particularly,
Pampanga. In line with your upcoming School of Hospitality and Tourism Days, your
university made a partnership with DTI and FDA to sponsor a university-wide contest on
producing original Kapampangan fermented products. The contest is open to all bona fide
students of your university.
You are a STEM student who knows the process of fermentation. You are tasked
produce any fermented product that can be used to advocate sustainable local livelihood
practices as an entry of your department. Before submitting it to the contest committee, your
teacher will rate your product based on its content (written report), use of cost-effective
materials, quality of the product and relevance. Attached here is a detailed scoring rubric for
your guidance."
First things first,
• The presentation must contain the name of the product, the materials used and the
procedure done to inform the audience.
• The product name must contain the learners' GRADE, SECTION, and GROUP
NUMBER only.
• Each group must pass the rubric which is supplied by the needed information about
the group such as the group number, names, grade, and section.
• The project must be submitted on ________________.
67
Rubrics

Category 4 3 Expectation 1 Score
(5 points)
Content • Excellently • Satisfactorily • It presents • Incompletely
presents a presents the the presents the
thorough and application of application of application of
accurate scientific scientific scientific
application of principles of principles of principles of
scientific fermentation. fermentation. fermentation.
principles of • Satisfactorily • It includes an • It does not
fermentation. includes a incomplete include
• Excellently complete discussion of discussion of
includes a discussion of the variables the variables
thorough and the variables involved in involved in
complete involved in the the
discussion of the experiment. experiment.
the variables experiment.
involved in the
experiment.
• The fermented • The fermented • The • The
product makes product makes fermented fermented
use of cost- use of cost- product product does
Use of Cost- effective effective makes use of not make use
Effective materials that materials that cost-effective of cost-
Materials are locally are locally materials but effective
available and available may not be materials nor
easily accessible. readily accessible
accessible. accessible. materials.
product product fermented fermented
resulted in resulted in product is product is not
Quality of excellent flavor good flavor, edible but edible and
the Product profiles, texture, and lacks good does not
texture, and consistency. flavor, display any
consistency. texture, and flavor or
consistency. texture.
product product fermented fermented
excellently displays product is product is
displays marketability marketable neither
Relevance
marketability and feasibility but not marketable
and feasibility for mass feasible for nor feasible
for mass production. mass for mass
production. production. production.
68
GRAND
TOTAL
69

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Biology Achievement Test

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CONSTRUCTION AND VALIDATION OF BIOLOGY ASSESSMENT TEST (BAT)

FOR JUNIOR HIGH SCHOOL STUDENTS

Christopher A. Malay1, Jose Noel V. Fabia2, and Eduardo P. Santillan, Jr.3

3Holy Angel University, Angeles City, Pampanga, Philippines

In addition, the K to 12 Science curriculum is viewed as a setting preparing students’

One of the fundamental measures of students learning is through assessment. A

RESULTS AND DISCUSSION

Test administration and checking

Between 0.25 67 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 12, 14, Average

Table 2. Summary of Discrimination index (DI)

0.19 and below 47 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 9, 10, 11, 13, Poor items

Final Version of BAT

18 Which of the following happen after mitosis? 0.52 0.46

24 Which correctly describes hepatitis? 0.49 0.31

31 What is the primary function of blood? 0.65 0.33

37 Thyroxine is to thyroid, while insulin is to __________. 0.45 0.40

55 A homozygous red-flowered plant was crossed with a 0.36 0.35

59 The strand is chemically a(n) ___________. 0.41 0.35

65 Which is true about mutations in DNA? 0.45 0.44

66 These organisms are genetically altered to produce 0.45 0.48

68 Which of the following basis is used in classifying 0.54 0.54

70 What refers to specialist organisms that feed on resources 0.47 0.31

72 The breakdown of glucose to produce energy results to 0.42 0.33

75 An endangered species is a(n) ____________. 0.61 0.48

17* An organism’s scientific name is composed of 0.44 0.29

81* Which BEST describes an autotroph? 0.38 0.29

BIOLOGY ACHIEVEMENT TEST FOR JUNIOR HIGH SCHOOL

MICROSCOPY, CELLS AND BIOLOGICAL ORGANIZATION

7. Which of the following is a tissue?

8. Which of the following is an example of community?

9. Which of the following describes a population?

11. Which is the correct sequence of mitosis?

12. Which BEST describes meiosis?

14. What is the nuclear material present during interphase?

16. What stage of mitosis is depicted by the image below?

19. Which of the following happens after mitosis?

23. Which of the following pairs is INCORRECT?

24. Where is colon cancer is most likely to occur?

26. Which is NOT an element of carbohydrates?

28. Where does absorption of fats, carbohydrates, and proteins happen?

29. Which of the following foods is NOT a source of antioxidants?

32. What is the primary function of blood?

35. Which of the following does NOT belong to the group?

39. Which of the following is NOT a function of the thyroid gland?

42. How does the nervous system maintain homeostasis?

44. Which is a highly condensed form of DNA?

45. Which pulls the chromosomes apart during mitosis?

47. Which of the following shows the correct sequence of mitosis?

48. Which is the correct paring of mature gametes?

49. Based on chromosome number, cells after mitosis are ____________.

52. Who is considered the father of genetics?

59. Which parental pair will produce female with colorblindness?

61. The first step in making a protein is ____________.

64. If transcribed as mRNA, what will be the sequence?

65. If the mRNA is transcribed to tRNA the sequence will be _____________.

68. Which is true about mutations in DNA?

ECOSYSTEM AND BIODIVERSITY

72. On which of the following similarities is the classification of organisms based?

79. Which of the following importance of biodiversity is aesthetics in perspective?

80. Who coined the term biodiversity in 1985?

81. Which of the following is an anthropogenic cause of extinction?

85. Which does NOT belong to the group?

86. Which among the ecological relationships is considered neutral?

88. Which of the following is an autotroph?

17. An organism’s scientific name is composed of __ and _.

2. An organism’s scientific name is composed of __ and _.